HB4844 103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB103 39009 AMC 69146 b

103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2023 and 2024
HB4844

Introduced 2/7/2024, by Rep. Robyn Gabel

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Creates the First 2024 General Revisory Act. Combines multiple versions of Sections amended by more than one Public Act. Renumbers Sections of various Acts to eliminate duplication. Corrects obsolete cross-references and technical errors. Makes stylistic changes. Effective immediately.

A BILL FOR

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2024 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 102-1119 through 103-583 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.39 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.39)

Sec. 4.39. Acts and Section repealed on January 1, 2029 and December 31, 2029.

(a) The following Acts and Section are repealed on January 1, 2029:

The Electrologist Licensing Act.

The Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act.

The Illinois Occupation Therapy Practice Act.

The Crematory Regulation Act.

The Illinois Public Accounting Act.

The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

Section 2.5 of the Illinois Plumbing License Law.

The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004.

The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act.

(b) The following Act is repealed on December 31, 2029:

The Structural Pest Control Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-251, eff. 6-30-23; 103-253, eff. 6-30-23; 103-309, eff. 7-28-23; 103-387, eff. 7-28-23; 103-505, eff. 8-4-23; revised 8-28-23.)

Section 10. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 5-45.35 and 5-45.36 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.35)

Sec. 5-45.35. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 102-1104, eff. 12-6-22. Repealed internally, eff. 12-6-23.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.36)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 7, 2024)

Sec. 5-45.36. Emergency rulemaking. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Section 234 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, emergency rules implementing that Section may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Revenue. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on June 7, 2024 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 103-9) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; revised 9-27-23.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.38)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 10, 2024)

Sec. 5-45.38 5-45.35. Emergency rulemaking. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Public Act 102-1116 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing Public Act 102-1116 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Illinois State Police. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on January 10, 2024 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; revised 3-13-23.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.39)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 13, 2024)

Sec. 5-45.39 5-45.35. Emergency rulemaking; temporary licenses for health care. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Section 66 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, Section 65-11.5 of the Nurse Practice Act, and Section 9.7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, emergency rules implementing the issuance of temporary permits to applicants who are licensed to practice as a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant in another state may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on January 13, 2024 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-1117) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; revised 3-13-23.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 18, 2024)

Sec. 5-45.40 5-45.35. Emergency rulemaking; rural emergency hospitals. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Public Act 102-1118 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing the inclusion of rural emergency hospitals in the definition of "hospital" in Section 3 of the Hospital Licensing Act may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Public Health. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on January 18, 2024 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-1118) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1118, eff. 1-18-23; revised 3-13-23.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.41)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on February 3, 2024)

Sec. 5-45.41 5-45.35. Emergency rulemaking. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the Invest in Illinois Act, emergency rules implementing the Invest in Illinois Act may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on February 3, 2024 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-1125) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; revised 3-13-23.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 16, 2024)

Sec. 5-45.45 5-45.35. Emergency rulemaking; Substance Use Disorder Residential and Detox Rate Equity. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the Substance Use Disorder Residential and Detox Rate Equity Act, emergency rules implementing the Substance Use Disorder Residential and Detox Rate Equity Act may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on June 16, 2024 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 103-102) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-102, eff. 6-16-23; revised 9-27-23.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.46)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 5-45.46 5-45.35. Emergency rulemaking; Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the changes made in Sections 8.1 and 8.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act, emergency rules implementing the waiver process under Sections 8.1 and 8.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2025 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 103-389) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-389, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-7-23.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.47)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on August 4, 2024)

Sec. 5-45.47 5-45.35. Emergency rulemaking; Department of Natural Resources. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Section 13 of the Human Remains Protection Act, emergency rules implementing Section 13 of the Human Remains Protection Act may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Natural Resources. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on August 4, 2024 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 103-446) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-446, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-27-23.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.48)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 5-45.48 5-45.35. Emergency rulemaking; occupational licenses. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Public Act 103-550 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing the changes made to Section 9 of the Illinois Gambling Act may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Illinois Gaming Board. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2025 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 103-550) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-550, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-30-24.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.50)

Sec. 5-45.50 5-45.35. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 102-1108, eff. 12-21-22. Repealed internally, eff. 12-21-23)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.51)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 16, 2024)

Sec. 5-45.51 5-45.36. Emergency rulemaking; Medicaid reimbursement rates for hospital inpatient and outpatient services. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the changes made by Public Act 103-102 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly to Sections 5-5.05, 14-12, 14-12.5, and 14-12.7 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, emergency rules implementing the changes made by Public Act 103-102 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly to Sections 5-5.05, 14-12, 14-12.5, and 14-12.7 of the Illinois Public Aid Code may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on June 16, 2024 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 103-102) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-102, eff. 6-16-23; revised 9-27-23.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.52)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 8, 2024)

Sec. 5-45.52 5-45.35. Emergency rulemaking; Public Act 103-568 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Public Act 103-568 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing Public Act 103-568 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on December 8, 2024 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 103-568) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-568, eff. 12-8-23; revised 12-22-23.)

Section 15. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 7 and 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public record that contains information that is exempt from disclosure under this Section, but also contains information that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect to redact the information that is exempt. The public body shall make the remaining information available for inspection and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations implementing federal or State law.

(b) Private information, unless disclosure is required by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law, or a court order.

(b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and specifically designed to provide information to one or more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or mental status of one or more individual subjects.

(c) Personal information contained within public records, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of information that is highly personal or objectionable to a reasonable person and in which the subject's right to privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in obtaining the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records in the possession of any public body created in the course of administrative enforcement proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency that is the recipient of the request;

(ii) interfere with active administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by the public body that is the recipient of the request;

(iii) create a substantial likelihood that a person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, or persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or penal agencies; except that the identities of witnesses to traffic crashes, traffic crash reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by agencies of local government, except when disclosure would interfere with an active criminal investigation conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the request;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation, or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct, and disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the agency or public body that is the recipient of the request;

(vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation by the agency that is the recipient of the request.

(d-5) A law enforcement record created for law enforcement purposes and contained in a shared electronic record management system if the law enforcement agency that is the recipient of the request did not create the record, did not participate in or have a role in any of the events which are the subject of the record, and only has access to the record through the shared electronic record management system.

(d-6) Records contained in the Officer Professional Conduct Database under Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act, except to the extent authorized under that Section. This includes the documents supplied to the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board from the Illinois State Police and Illinois State Police Merit Board.

(d-7) Information gathered or records created from the use of automatic license plate readers in connection with Section 2-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(e-5) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those materials are available in the library of the correctional institution or facility or jail where the inmate is confined.

(e-6) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those materials include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information.

(e-7) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health if those materials are available through an administrative request to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health.

(e-8) Records requested by a person committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, the disclosure of which would result in the risk of harm to any person or the risk of an escape from a jail or correctional institution or facility.

(e-9) Records requested by a person in a county jail or committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, containing personal information pertaining to the person's victim or the victim's family, including, but not limited to, a victim's home address, home telephone number, work or school address, work telephone number, social security number, or any other identifying information, except as may be relevant to a requester's current or potential case or claim.

(e-10) Law enforcement records of other persons requested by a person committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, including, but not limited to, arrest and booking records, mug shots, and crime scene photographs, except as these records may be relevant to the requester's current or potential case or claim.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda, and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or commercial or financial information are furnished under a claim that they are proprietary, privileged, or confidential, and that disclosure of the trade secrets or commercial or financial information would cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only insofar as the claim directly applies to the records requested.

The information included under this exemption includes all trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings, and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) The following information pertaining to educational matters:

(i) test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to administer an academic examination;

(ii) information received by a primary or secondary school, college, or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers;

(iii) information concerning a school or university's adjudication of student disciplinary cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and

(iv) course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, including, but not limited to, power generating and distribution stations and other transmission and distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security.

(l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(m) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of cases in which discipline is imposed.

(o) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including, but not limited to, software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to determine the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(r) The records, documents, and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents, and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents, and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(s) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool. Insurance or self-insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice, or communications.

(t) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions, insurance companies, or pharmacy benefit managers, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(u) Information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic signatures under the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act.

(v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to expose the vulnerability or jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures, policies, or plans, or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, to cybersecurity vulnerabilities, or to tactical operations.

(w) (Blank).

(x) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(y) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(z) Information about students exempted from disclosure under Section 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the School Code, and information about undergraduate students enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit Card Marketing Act of 2009.

(aa) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(bb) Records and information provided to a mortality review team and records maintained by a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable.

(dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ee) The names, addresses, or other personal information of persons who are minors and are also participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations.

(ff) The names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations where such programs are targeted primarily to minors.

(gg) Confidential information described in Section 1-100 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(hh) The report submitted to the State Board of Education by the School Security and Standards Task Force under item (8) of subsection (d) of Section 2-3.160 of the School Code and any information contained in that report.

(ii) Records requested by persons committed to or detained by the Department of Human Services under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or committed to the Department of Corrections under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act if those materials: (i) are available in the library of the facility where the individual is confined; (ii) include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information; or (iii) are available through an administrative request to the Department of Human Services or the Department of Corrections.

(jj) Confidential information described in Section 5-535 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(kk) The public body's credit card numbers, debit card numbers, bank account numbers, Federal Employer Identification Number, security code numbers, passwords, and similar account information, the disclosure of which could result in identity theft or impression or defrauding of a governmental entity or a person.

(ll) Records concerning the work of the threat assessment team of a school district, including, but not limited to, any threat assessment procedure under the School Safety Drill Act and any information contained in the procedure.

(mm) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 15 of the Student Confidential Reporting Act.

(nn) Proprietary information submitted to the Environmental Protection Agency under the Drug Take-Back Act.

(oo) Records described in subsection (f) of Section 3-5-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(pp) Any and all information regarding burials, interments, or entombments of human remains as required to be reported to the Department of Natural Resources pursuant either to the Archaeological and Paleontological Resources Protection Act or the Human Remains Protection Act.

(qq) (pp) Reports described in subsection (e) of Section 16-15 of the Abortion Care Clinical Training Program Act.

(rr) (pp) Information obtained by a certified local health department under the Access to Public Health Data Act.

(ss) (pp) For a request directed to a public body that is also a HIPAA-covered entity, all information that is protected health information, including demographic information, that may be contained within or extracted from any record held by the public body in compliance with State and federal medical privacy laws and regulations, including, but not limited to, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and its regulations, 45 CFR Parts 160 and 164. As used in this paragraph, "HIPAA-covered entity" has the meaning given to the term "covered entity" in 45 CFR 160.103 and "protected health information" has the meaning given to that term in 45 CFR 160.103.

(1.5) Any information exempt from disclosure under the Judicial Privacy Act shall be redacted from public records prior to disclosure under this Act.

(2) A public record that is not in the possession of a public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, for purposes of this Act.

(3) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-38, eff. 6-25-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; 102-752, eff. 5-6-22; 102-753, eff. 1-1-23; 102-776, eff. 1-1-23; 102-791, eff. 5-13-22; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 102-1055, eff. 6-10-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-423, eff. 1-1-24; 103-446, eff. 8-4-23; 103-462, eff. 8-4-23; 103-540, eff. 1-1-24; 103-554, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-7-23.)

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-472)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act (repealed). This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and 2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act (repealed).

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Record Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) (Blank).

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board that are exempted from disclosure under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

(oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports arising out of a peer support counseling session prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(pp) Names and all identifying information relating to an employee of an emergency services provider or law enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(qq) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives collected under the Reproductive Health Act.

(rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

(ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.

(vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.

(xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or information that shall not be made public under the Illinois Insurance Code.

(yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.

(aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(bbb) Information that is prohibited from disclosure by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State Police Act.

(ccc) Records exempt from disclosure under Section 2605-304 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human Trafficking, or Stalking Act.

(eee) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(fff) Images from cameras under the Expressway Camera Act. This subsection (fff) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2025.

(ggg) Information prohibited from disclosure under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 14 of the Nurse Agency Licensing Act.

(hhh) Information submitted to the Illinois State Police in an affidavit or application for an assault weapon endorsement, assault weapon attachment endorsement, .50 caliber rifle endorsement, or .50 caliber cartridge endorsement under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the School Safety Drill Act.

(jjj) (hhh) Information exempt from disclosure under Section 30 of the Insurance Data Security Law.

(kkk) (iii) Confidential business information prohibited from disclosure under Section 45 of the Paint Stewardship Act.

(lll) (Reserved).

(mmm) (iii) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (e) of Section 1-129 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-36, eff. 6-25-21; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-292, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21; 102-559, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-946, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1042, eff. 6-3-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-142, eff. 1-1-24; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; revised 1-2-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-472)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act (repealed). This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and 2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act (repealed).

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Record Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) (Blank).

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board that are exempted from disclosure under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

(oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports arising out of a peer support counseling session prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(pp) Names and all identifying information relating to an employee of an emergency services provider or law enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(qq) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives collected under the Reproductive Health Act.

(rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

(ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.

(vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.

(xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or information that shall not be made public under the Illinois Insurance Code.

(yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.

(aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(bbb) Information that is prohibited from disclosure by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State Police Act.

(ccc) Records exempt from disclosure under Section 2605-304 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human Trafficking, or Stalking Act.

(eee) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(fff) Images from cameras under the Expressway Camera Act. This subsection (fff) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2025.

(ggg) Information prohibited from disclosure under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 14 of the Nurse Agency Licensing Act.

(hhh) Information submitted to the Illinois State Police in an affidavit or application for an assault weapon endorsement, assault weapon attachment endorsement, .50 caliber rifle endorsement, or .50 caliber cartridge endorsement under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the School Safety Drill Act.

(jjj) (hhh) Information exempt from disclosure under Section 30 of the Insurance Data Security Law.

(kkk) (iii) Confidential business information prohibited from disclosure under Section 45 of the Paint Stewardship Act.

(lll) (iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 2-3.196 of the School Code.

(mmm) (iii) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (e) of Section 1-129 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-36, eff. 6-25-21; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-292, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21; 102-559, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-946, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1042, eff. 6-3-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-142, eff. 1-1-24; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-472, eff. 8-1-24; 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 20. The Consular Identification Document Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(5 ILCS 230/10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-210)

Sec. 10. Acceptance of consular identification document.

(a) When requiring members of the public to provide identification, each State agency and officer and unit of local government shall accept a consular identification document as valid identification of a person.

(b) A consular identification document shall be accepted for purposes of identification only and does not convey an independent right to receive benefits of any type.

(c) A consular identification document may not be accepted as identification for obtaining a driver's license, other than a temporary visitor's driver's license, or registering to vote.

(d) A consular identification document does not establish or indicate lawful U.S. immigration status and may not be viewed as valid for that purpose, nor does a consular identification document establish a foreign national's right to be in the United States or remain in the United States.

(e) The requirements of subsection (a) do not apply if:

(1) a federal law, regulation, or directive or a federal court decision requires a State agency or officer or a unit of local government to obtain different identification;

(2) a federal law, regulation, or directive preempts state regulation of identification requirements; or

(3) a State agency or officer or a unit of local government would be unable to comply with a condition imposed by a funding source which would cause the State agency or officer or unit of local government to lose funds from that source.

(f) Nothing in subsection (a) shall be construed to prohibit a State agency or officer or a unit of local government from:

(1) requiring additional information from persons in order to verify a current address or other facts that would enable the State agency or officer or unit of local government to fulfill its responsibilities, except that this paragraph (1) does not permit a State agency or officer or a unit of local government to require additional information solely in order to establish identification of the person when the consular identification document is the form of identification presented;

(2) requiring fingerprints for identification purposes under circumstances where the State agency or officer or unit of local government also requires fingerprints from persons who have a driver's license or Illinois Identification Card; or

(3) requiring additional evidence of identification if the State agency or officer or unit of local government reasonably believes that: (A) the consular identification document is forged, fraudulent, or altered; or (B) the holder does not appear to be the same person on the consular identification document.

(Source: P.A. 97-1157, eff. 11-28-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-210)

Sec. 10. Acceptance of consular identification document.

(a) When requiring members of the public to provide identification, each State agency and officer and unit of local government shall accept a consular identification document as valid identification of a person.

(b) A consular identification document shall be accepted for purposes of identification only and does not convey an independent right to receive benefits of any type.

(c) A consular identification document may not be accepted as identification for obtaining a REAL ID compliant driver's license, as defined by Section 6-100 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or registering to vote.

(d) A consular identification document does not establish or indicate lawful U.S. immigration status and may not be viewed as valid for that purpose, nor does a consular identification document establish a foreign national's right to be in the United States or remain in the United States.

(e) The requirements of subsection (a) do not apply if:

(1) a federal law, regulation, or directive or a federal court decision requires a State agency or officer or a unit of local government to obtain different identification;

(2) a federal law, regulation, or directive preempts state regulation of identification requirements; or

(3) a State agency or officer or a unit of local government would be unable to comply with a condition imposed by a funding source which would cause the State agency or officer or unit of local government to lose funds from that source.

(f) Nothing in subsection (a) shall be construed to prohibit a State agency or officer or a unit of local government from:

(1) requiring additional information from persons in order to verify a current address or other facts that would enable the State agency or officer or unit of local government to fulfill its responsibilities, except that this paragraph (1) does not permit a State agency or officer or a unit of local government to require additional information solely in order to establish identification of the person when the consular identification document is the form of identification presented;

(2) requiring fingerprints for identification purposes under circumstances where the State agency or officer or unit of local government also requires fingerprints from persons who have a driver's license or Illinois Identification Card; or

(3) requiring additional evidence of identification if the State agency or officer or unit of local government reasonably believes that: (A) the consular identification document is forged, fraudulent, or altered; or (B) the holder does not appear to be the same person on the consular identification document.

(Source: P.A. 103-210, eff. 7-1-24; revised 9-25-23.)

Section 25. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/6.11)

Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance Code requirements. The program of health benefits shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.55, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, and 356z.61, and 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits must comply with Sections 155.22a, 155.37, 355b, 356z.19, 370c, and 370c.1 and Article XXXIIB of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Section 356m of the Illinois Insurance Code and, for the employees of the State Employee Group Insurance Program only, the coverage as also provided in Section 6.11B of this Act. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section with respect to Sections 370c and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code; all other requirements of this Section shall be enforced by the Department of Central Management Services.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-768, eff. 1-1-24; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-8, eff. 1-1-24; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 30. The Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 810/5)

Sec. 5. Applicability. This Act is applicable to property seized or forfeited under the following provisions of law:

(1) Section 3.23 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act;

(2) Section 44.1 of the Environmental Protection Act;

(3) Section 105-55 of the Herptiles-Herps Act;

(4) Section 1-215 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code;

(5) Section 1.25 of the Wildlife Code;

(6) Section 17-10.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 (financial institution fraud);

(7) Section 28-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 (gambling);

(8) Article 29B of the Criminal Code of 2012 (money laundering);

(9) Article 33G of the Criminal Code of 2012 (Illinois Street Gang and Racketeer Influenced And Corrupt Organizations Law);

(10) Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 2012 (seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles, and aircraft);

(11) Section 47-15 of the Criminal Code of 2012 (dumping garbage upon real property);

(12) Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 (forfeiture);

(13) the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act;

(14) the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Act;

(15) the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the Illinois Securities Law of 1953; and

(17) the Archaeological and Paleontological Resources Protection Act; and

(18) the Human Remains Protection Act; and .

(19) (17) Section 16 of the Timber Buyers Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-218, eff. 1-1-24; 103-446, eff. 8-4-23; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 32. The First Responders Suicide Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(5 ILCS 840/40)

Sec. 40. Task Force recommendations.

(a) Task Force members shall recommend that agencies and organizations guarantee access to mental health and wellness services, including, but not limited to, peer support programs and providing ongoing education related to the ever-evolving concept of mental health wellness. These recommendations could be accomplished by:

(1) Revising agencies' and organizations' employee assistance programs (EAPs).

(2) Urging health care providers to replace outdated healthcare plans and include more progressive options catering to the needs and disproportionate risks shouldered by our first responders.

(3) Allocating funding or resources for public service announcements (PSA) and messaging campaigns aimed at raising awareness of available assistance options.

(4) Encouraging agencies and organizations to attach lists of all available resources to training manuals and continuing education requirements.

(b) Task Force members shall recommend agencies and organizations sponsor or facilitate first responders with specialized training in the areas of psychological fitness, depressive disorders, early detection, and mitigation best practices. Such trainings could be accomplished by:

(1) Assigning, appointing, or designating one member of an agency or organization to attend specialized training(s) sponsored by an accredited agency, association, or organization recognized in their fields of study.

(2) Seeking sponsorships or conducting fund-raisers, to host annual or semiannual on-site visits from qualified clinicians or physicians to provide early detection training techniques, or to provide regular access to mental health professionals.

(3) Requiring a minimum number of hours of disorders and wellness training be incorporated into reoccurring, annual or biannual training standards, examinations, and curriculums, taking into close consideration respective agency or organization size, frequency, and number of all current federal and state mandatory examinations and trainings expected respectively.

(4) Not underestimating the crucial importance of a balanced diet, sleep, mindfulness-based stress reduction techniques, moderate and vigorous intensity activities, and recreational hobbies, which have been scientifically proven to play a major role in brain health and mental wellness.

(c) Task Force members shall recommend that administrators and leadership personnel solicit training services from evidence-based, data driven organizations. Organizations with personnel trained on the analytical review and interpretation of specific fields related to the nature of first responders' exploits, such as PTSD, substance abuse, chronic state of duress. Task Force members shall further recommend funding for expansion and messaging campaigns of preliminary self-diagnosing technologies like the one described above. These objectives could be met by:

(1) Contacting an accredited agency, association, or organization recognized in the field or fields of specific study. Unbeknownst to the majority, many of the agencies and organizations listed above receive grants and allocations to assist communities with the very issues being discussed in this Section.

(2) Normalizing help-seeking behaviors for both first responders and their families through regular messaging and peer support outreach, beginning with academy curricula and continuing education throughout individuals' careers.

(3) Funding and implementing PSA campaigns that provide clear and concise calls to action about mental health and wellness, resiliency, help-seeking, treatment, and recovery.

(4) Promoting and raising awareness of not-for-profit organizations currently available to assist individuals in search of care and treatment. Organizations have intuitive user-friendly sites, most of which have mobile applications, so first responders can access at a moment's notice. However, because of limited funds, these organizations have a challenging time of getting the word out there about their existence.

(5) Expanding Family and Medical Leave Act protections for individuals voluntarily seeking preventative treatment.

(6) Promoting and ensuring complete patient confidentiality protections.

(d) Task Force members shall recommend that agencies and organizations incorporate the following training components into already existing modules and educational curriculums. Doing so could be done by:

(1) Bolstering academy and school curricula by requiring depressive disorder training catered to PTSD, substance abuse, and early detection techniques training, taking into close consideration respective agency or organization size, and the frequency and number of all current federal and state mandatory examinations and trainings expected respectively.

(2) Continuing to allocate or match federal and state funds to maintain Mobile Training Units (MTUs).

(3) Incorporating a state certificate for peer support training into already existing exiting statewide curriculums and mandatory examinations, annual State Fire Marshal examinations, and physical fitness examinations. The subject matter of the certificate should have an emphasis on mental health and wellness, as well as familiarization with topics ranging from clinical social work, clinical psychology, clinical behaviorist, and clinical psychiatry.

(4) Incorporating and performing statewide mental health check-ins during the same times as already mandated trainings. These checks are not to be compared or used as measures of fitness for duty evaluations or structured psychological examinations.

(5) Recommending comprehensive and evidence-based training on the importance of preventative measures on the topics of sleep, nutrition, mindfulness, and physical movement.

(6) Law enforcement agencies should provide training on the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Act, including seeking relief from the Illinois State Police under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and a FOID card being a continued condition of employment under Section 7.2 of the Uniform Peace Officers' Disciplinary Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-352, eff. 6-1-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; revised 1-20-24.)

Section 35. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 1A-8, 1A-16.1, and 24B-9.1 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/1A-8) (from Ch. 46, par. 1A-8)

Sec. 1A-8. The State Board of Elections shall exercise the following powers and perform the following duties in addition to any powers or duties otherwise provided for by law:

(1) Assume all duties and responsibilities of the State Electoral Board and the Secretary of State as heretofore provided in this Code;

(2) Disseminate information to and consult with election authorities concerning the conduct of elections and registration in accordance with the laws of this State and the laws of the United States;

(3) Furnish to each election authority prior to each primary and general election and any other election it deems necessary, a manual of uniform instructions consistent with the provisions of this Code which shall be used by election authorities in the preparation of the official manual of instruction to be used by the judges of election in any such election. In preparing such manual, the State Board shall consult with representatives of the election authorities throughout the State. The State Board may provide separate portions of the uniform instructions applicable to different election jurisdictions which administer elections under different options provided by law. The State Board may by regulation require particular portions of the uniform instructions to be included in any official manual of instructions published by election authorities. Any manual of instructions published by any election authority shall be identical with the manual of uniform instructions issued by the Board, but may be adapted by the election authority to accommodate special or unusual local election problems, provided that all manuals published by election authorities must be consistent with the provisions of this Code in all respects and must receive the approval of the State Board of Elections prior to publication; provided further that if the State Board does not approve or disapprove of a proposed manual within 60 days of its submission, the manual shall be deemed approved; .

(4) Prescribe and require the use of such uniform forms, notices, and other supplies not inconsistent with the provisions of this Code as it shall deem advisable which shall be used by election authorities in the conduct of elections and registrations;

(5) Prepare and certify the form of ballot for any proposed amendment to the Constitution of the State of Illinois, or any referendum to be submitted to the electors throughout the State or, when required to do so by law, to the voters of any area or unit of local government of the State;

(6) Require such statistical reports regarding the conduct of elections and registration from election authorities as may be deemed necessary;

(7) Review and inspect procedures and records relating to conduct of elections and registration as may be deemed necessary, and to report violations of election laws to the appropriate State's Attorney or the Attorney General;

(8) Recommend to the General Assembly legislation to improve the administration of elections and registration;

(9) Adopt, amend or rescind rules and regulations in the performance of its duties provided that all such rules and regulations must be consistent with the provisions of this Article 1A or issued pursuant to authority otherwise provided by law;

(10) Determine the validity and sufficiency of petitions filed under Article XIV, Section 3, of the Constitution of the State of Illinois of 1970;

(11) Maintain in its principal office a research library that includes, but is not limited to, abstracts of votes by precinct for general primary elections and general elections, current precinct maps, and current precinct poll lists from all election jurisdictions within the State. The research library shall be open to the public during regular business hours. Such abstracts, maps, and lists shall be preserved as permanent records and shall be available for examination and copying at a reasonable cost;

(12) Supervise the administration of the registration and election laws throughout the State;

(13) Obtain from the Department of Central Management Services, under Section 405-250 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-250), such use of electronic data processing equipment as may be required to perform the duties of the State Board of Elections and to provide election-related information to candidates, public and party officials, interested civic organizations, and the general public in a timely and efficient manner;

(14) To take such action as may be necessary or required to give effect to directions of the national committee or State central committee of an established political party under Sections 7-8, 7-11, and 7-14.1 or such other provisions as may be applicable pertaining to the selection of delegates and alternate delegates to an established political party's national nominating conventions or, notwithstanding any candidate certification schedule contained within this Code, the certification of the Presidential and Vice Presidential candidate selected by the established political party's national nominating convention;

(15) To post all early voting sites separated by election authority and hours of operation on its website at least 5 business days before the period for early voting begins;

(16) To post on its website the statewide totals, and totals separated by each election authority, for each of the counts received pursuant to Section 1-9.2; and

(17) To post on its website, in a downloadable format, the information received from each election authority under Section 1-17.

The Board may by regulation delegate any of its duties or functions under this Article, except that final determinations and orders under this Article shall be issued only by the Board.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-623, eff. 7-20-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1148, eff. 12-10-18; revised 4-4-23.)

(10 ILCS 5/1A-16.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-210)

Sec. 1A-16.1. Automatic voter registration; Secretary of State.

(a) The Office of the Secretary of State and the State Board of Elections, pursuant to an interagency contract and jointly adopted jointly-adopted rules, shall establish an automatic voter registration program that satisfies the requirements of this Section and other applicable law.

(b) If an application, an application for renewal, a change of address form, or a recertification form for a driver's license, other than a temporary visitor's driver's license, or a State identification card issued by the Office of the Secretary of State meets the requirements of the federal REAL ID Act of 2005, then that application shall serve as a dual-purpose application. The dual-purpose application shall:

(1) also serve as an application to register to vote in Illinois;

(2) allow an applicant to change his or her registered residence address or name as it appears on the voter registration rolls;

(3) provide the applicant with an opportunity to affirmatively decline to register to vote or to change his or her registered residence address or name by providing a check box on the application form without requiring the applicant to state the reason; and

(4) unless the applicant declines to register to vote or change his or her registered residence address or name, require the applicant to attest, by signature under penalty of perjury as described in subsection (e) of this Section, to meeting the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address as indicated on his or her driver's license or identification card dual-purpose application.

(b-5) If an application, an application for renewal, a change of address form, or a recertification form for a driver's license, other than a temporary visitor's driver's license, or a State identification card issued by the Office of the Secretary of State does not meet the requirements of the federal REAL ID Act of 2005, then that application shall serve as a dual-purpose application. The dual-purpose application shall:

(1) also serve as an application to register to vote in Illinois;

(2) allow an applicant to change his or her registered residence address or name as it appears on the voter registration rolls; and

(3) if the applicant chooses to register to vote or to change his or her registered residence address or name, then require the applicant to attest, by a separate signature under penalty of perjury, to meeting the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address as indicated on his or her dual-purpose application.

(b-10) The Office of the Secretary of State shall clearly and conspicuously inform each applicant in writing: (i) of the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois, (ii) of the penalties provided by law for submission of a false voter registration application, (iii) that, unless the applicant declines to register to vote or update his or her voter registration, his or her dual-purpose application shall also serve as both an application to register to vote and his or her attestation that he or she meets the eligibility requirements for voter registration, and that his or her application to register to vote or update his or her registration will be transmitted to the State Board of Elections for the purpose of registering the person to vote at the residence address to be indicated on his or her driver's license or identification card, and (iv) that declining to register to vote is confidential and will not affect any services the person may be seeking from the Office of the Secretary of State.

(c) The Office of the Secretary of State shall review information provided to the Office of the Secretary of State by the State Board of Elections to inform each applicant for a driver's license or permit, other than a temporary visitor's driver's license, or a State identification card issued by the Office of the Secretary of State whether the applicant is currently registered to vote in Illinois and, if registered, at what address.

(d) The Office of the Secretary of State shall not require an applicant for a driver's license or State identification card to provide duplicate identification or information in order to complete an application to register to vote or change his or her registered residence address or name. Before transmitting any personal information about an applicant to the State Board of Elections, the Office of the Secretary of State shall review its records of the identification documents the applicant provided in order to complete the application for a driver's license or State identification card, to confirm that nothing in those documents indicates that the applicant does not satisfy the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address.

(e) A completed, signed application for (i) a driver's license or permit, other than a temporary visitor's driver's license, or a State identification card issued by the Office of the Secretary of State, that meets the requirements of the federal REAL ID Act of 2005; or (ii) a completed application under subsection (b-5) of this Section with a separate signature attesting the applicant meets the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address as indicated on his or her application shall constitute a signed application to register to vote in Illinois at the residence address indicated in the application unless the person affirmatively declined in the application to register to vote or to change his or her registered residence address or name. If the identification documents provided to complete the dual-purpose application indicate that he or she does not satisfy the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address, the application shall be marked as incomplete.

(f) For each completed and signed application that constitutes an application to register to vote in Illinois or provides for a change in the applicant's registered residence address or name, the Office of the Secretary of State shall electronically transmit to the State Board of Elections personal information needed to complete the person's registration to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address. The application to register to vote shall be processed in accordance with Section 1A-16.7.

(g) If the federal REAL ID Act of 2005 is repealed, abrogated, superseded, or otherwise no longer in effect, then the State Board of Elections shall establish criteria for determining reliable personal information indicating citizenship status and shall adopt rules as necessary for the Secretary of State to continue processing dual-purpose applications under this Section.

(h) As used in this Section, "dual-purpose application" means an application, an application for renewal, a change of address form, or a recertification form for driver's license or permit, other than a temporary visitor's driver's license, or a State identification card offered by the Secretary of State that also serves as an application to register to vote in Illinois. "Dual-purpose application" does not mean an application under subsection (c) of Section 6-109 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-464, eff. 8-28-17; revised 9-20-2023.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-210)

Sec. 1A-16.1. Automatic voter registration; Secretary of State.

(a) The Office of the Secretary of State and the State Board of Elections, pursuant to an interagency contract and jointly adopted jointly-adopted rules, shall establish an automatic voter registration program that satisfies the requirements of this Section and other applicable law.

(b) If an application, an application for renewal, a change of address form, or a recertification form for a driver's license or a State identification card issued by the Office of the Secretary of State meets the requirements of the federal REAL ID Act of 2005, then that application shall serve as a dual-purpose application. The dual-purpose application shall:

(1) also serve as an application to register to vote in Illinois;

(2) allow an applicant to change his or her registered residence address or name as it appears on the voter registration rolls;

(3) provide the applicant with an opportunity to affirmatively decline to register to vote or to change his or her registered residence address or name by providing a check box on the application form without requiring the applicant to state the reason; and

(4) unless the applicant declines to register to vote or change his or her registered residence address or name, require the applicant to attest, by signature under penalty of perjury as described in subsection (e) of this Section, to meeting the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address as indicated on his or her driver's license or identification card dual-purpose application.

(b-5) If an application, an application for renewal, a change of address form, or a recertification form for a driver's license or a State identification card issued by the Office of the Secretary of State, other than an application or form that pertains to a standard driver's license or identification card and does not list a social security number for the applicant, does not meet the requirements of the federal REAL ID Act of 2005, then that application shall serve as a dual-purpose application. The dual-purpose application shall:

(1) also serve as an application to register to vote in Illinois;

(2) allow an applicant to change his or her registered residence address or name as it appears on the voter registration rolls; and

(3) if the applicant chooses to register to vote or to change his or her registered residence address or name, then require the applicant to attest, by a separate signature under penalty of perjury, to meeting the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address as indicated on his or her dual-purpose application.

(b-10) The Office of the Secretary of State shall clearly and conspicuously inform each applicant in writing: (i) of the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois, (ii) of the penalties provided by law for submission of a false voter registration application, (iii) that, unless the applicant declines to register to vote or update his or her voter registration, his or her dual-purpose application shall also serve as both an application to register to vote and his or her attestation that he or she meets the eligibility requirements for voter registration, and that his or her application to register to vote or update his or her registration will be transmitted to the State Board of Elections for the purpose of registering the person to vote at the residence address to be indicated on his or her driver's license or identification card, and (iv) that declining to register to vote is confidential and will not affect any services the person may be seeking from the Office of the Secretary of State.

(c) The Office of the Secretary of State shall review information provided to the Office of the Secretary of State by the State Board of Elections to inform each applicant for a driver's license or permit or a State identification card issued by the Office of the Secretary of State, other than an application or form that pertains to a standard driver's license or identification card and does not list a social security number for the applicant, whether the applicant is currently registered to vote in Illinois and, if registered, at what address.

(d) The Office of the Secretary of State shall not require an applicant for a driver's license or State identification card to provide duplicate identification or information in order to complete an application to register to vote or change his or her registered residence address or name. Before transmitting any personal information about an applicant to the State Board of Elections, the Office of the Secretary of State shall review its records of the identification documents the applicant provided in order to complete the application for a driver's license or State identification card, to confirm that nothing in those documents indicates that the applicant does not satisfy the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address.

(e) A completed, signed application for (i) a driver's license or permit or a State identification card issued by the Office of the Secretary of State, that meets the requirements of the federal REAL ID Act of 2005; or (ii) a completed application under subsection (b-5) of this Section with a separate signature attesting the applicant meets the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address as indicated on his or her application shall constitute a signed application to register to vote in Illinois at the residence address indicated in the application unless the person affirmatively declined in the application to register to vote or to change his or her registered residence address or name. If the identification documents provided to complete the dual-purpose application indicate that he or she does not satisfy the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address, the application shall be marked as incomplete.

(f) For each completed and signed application that constitutes an application to register to vote in Illinois or provides for a change in the applicant's registered residence address or name, the Office of the Secretary of State shall electronically transmit to the State Board of Elections personal information needed to complete the person's registration to vote in Illinois at his or her residence address. The application to register to vote shall be processed in accordance with Section 1A-16.7.

(g) If the federal REAL ID Act of 2005 is repealed, abrogated, superseded, or otherwise no longer in effect, then the State Board of Elections shall establish criteria for determining reliable personal information indicating citizenship status and shall adopt rules as necessary for the Secretary of State to continue processing dual-purpose applications under this Section.

(h) As used in this Section, "dual-purpose application" means an application, an application for renewal, a change of address form, or a recertification form for driver's license or permit or a State identification card offered by the Secretary of State, other than an application or form that pertains to a standard driver's license or identification card and does not list a social security number for the applicant, that also serves as an application to register to vote in Illinois. "Dual-purpose application" does not mean an application under subsection (c) of Section 6-109 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-210, eff. 7-1-24; revised 9-20-23.)

(10 ILCS 5/24B-9.1)

Sec. 24B-9.1. Examination of votes Votes by electronic Electronic Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology Scanning Process or other authorized electronic process; definition of a vote.

(a) Examination of Votes by Electronic Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology Scanning Process. Whenever a Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology process is used to automatically examine and count the votes on ballot sheets, the provisions of this Section shall apply. A voter shall cast a proper vote on a ballot sheet by making a mark, or causing a mark to be made, in the designated area for the casting of a vote for any party or candidate or for or against any proposition. For this purpose, a mark is an intentional darkening of the designated area on the ballot, and not an identifying mark.

(b) For any ballot sheet that does not register a vote for one or more ballot positions on the ballot sheet on an electronic a Electronic Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology Scanning Process, the following shall constitute a vote on the ballot sheet:

(1) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet is fully darkened or shaded in;

(2) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet is partially darkened or shaded in;

(3) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet contains a dot or ".", a check, or a plus or "+";

(4) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet contains some other type of mark that indicates the clearly ascertainable intent of the voter to vote based on the totality of the circumstances, including, but not limited to, any pattern or frequency of marks on other ballot positions from the same ballot sheet; or

(5) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet is not marked, but the ballot sheet contains other markings associated with a particular ballot position, such as circling a candidate's name, that indicates the clearly ascertainable intent of the voter to vote, based on the totality of the circumstances, including, but not limited to, any pattern or frequency of markings on other ballot positions from the same ballot sheet.

(c) For other electronic voting systems that use a computer as the marking device to mark a ballot sheet, the bar code found on the ballot sheet shall constitute the votes found on the ballot. If, however, the county clerk or board of election commissioners determines that the votes represented by the tally on the bar code for one or more ballot positions is inconsistent with the votes represented by numerical ballot positions identified on the ballot sheet produced using a computer as the marking device, then the numerical ballot positions identified on the ballot sheet shall constitute the votes for purposes of any official canvass or recount proceeding. An electronic voting system that uses a computer as the marking device to mark a ballot sheet shall be capable of producing a ballot sheet that contains all numerical ballot positions selected by the voter, and provides a place for the voter to cast a write-in vote for a candidate for a particular numerical ballot position.

(d) The election authority shall provide an envelope, sleeve, or other device to each voter so the voter can deliver the voted ballot sheet to the counting equipment and ballot box without the votes indicated on the ballot sheet being visible to other persons in the polling place.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 9-25-23.)

Section 40. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 1A and 4 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/1A)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-210)

Sec. 1A. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Highly restricted personal information" means an individual's photograph, signature, social security number, and medical or disability information.

"Identification card making implement" means any material, hardware, or software that is specifically designed for or primarily used in the manufacture, assembly, issuance, or authentication of an official identification card issued by the Secretary of State.

"Fraudulent identification card" means any identification card that purports to be an official identification card for which a computerized number and file have not been created by the Secretary of State, the United States Government or any state or political subdivision thereof, or any governmental or quasi-governmental organization. For the purpose of this Act, any identification card that resembles an official identification card in either size, color, photograph location, or design or uses the word "official", "state", "Illinois", or the name of any other state or political subdivision thereof, or any governmental or quasi-governmental organization individually or in any combination thereof to describe or modify the term "identification card" or "I.D. card" anywhere on the card, or uses a shape in the likeness of Illinois or any other state on the photograph side of the card, is deemed to be a fraudulent identification card unless the words "This is not an official Identification Card", appear prominently upon it in black colored lettering in 12-point type on the photograph side of the card, and no such card shall be smaller in size than 3 inches by 4 inches, and the photograph shall be on the left side of the card only.

"Legal name" means the full given name and surname of an individual as recorded at birth, recorded at marriage, or deemed as the correct legal name for use in reporting income by the Social Security Administration or the name as otherwise established through legal action that appears on the associated official document presented to the Secretary of State.

"Personally identifying information" means information that identifies an individual, including his or her identification card number, name, address (but not the 5-digit zip code), date of birth, height, weight, hair color, eye color, email address, and telephone number.

"Homeless person" or "homeless individual" has the same meaning as defined by the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 11302, or 42 U.S.C. 11434a(2).

"Youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible" or "foster child" means a child or youth whose guardianship or custody has been accepted by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Children and Family Services Act, the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and the Adoption Act. This applies to children for whom the Department of Children and Family Services has temporary protective custody, custody or guardianship via court order, or children whose parents have signed an adoptive surrender or voluntary placement agreement with the Department.

"REAL ID compliant identification card" means a standard Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued in compliance with the REAL ID Act and implementing regulations. REAL ID compliant identification cards shall bear a security marking approved by the United States Department of Homeland Security.

"Non-compliant identification card" means a standard Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued in a manner which is not compliant with the REAL ID Act and implementing regulations. Non-compliant identification cards shall be marked "Not for Federal Identification" and shall have a color or design different from the REAL ID compliant identification card.

"Limited Term REAL ID compliant identification card" means a REAL ID compliant identification card issued to a person who is persons who are not a permanent resident residents or citizen citizens of the United States, and marked "Limited Term" on the face of the card.

(Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-248, eff. 8-22-17; 101-326, eff. 8-9-19; revised 9-20-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-210)

Sec. 1A. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Highly restricted personal information" means an individual's photograph, signature, social security number, and medical or disability information.

"Identification card making implement" means any material, hardware, or software that is specifically designed for or primarily used in the manufacture, assembly, issuance, or authentication of an official identification card issued by the Secretary of State.

"Fraudulent identification card" means any identification card that purports to be an official identification card for which a computerized number and file have not been created by the Secretary of State, the United States Government or any state or political subdivision thereof, or any governmental or quasi-governmental organization. For the purpose of this Act, any identification card that resembles an official identification card in either size, color, photograph location, or design or uses the word "official", "state", "Illinois", or the name of any other state or political subdivision thereof, or any governmental or quasi-governmental organization individually or in any combination thereof to describe or modify the term "identification card" or "I.D. card" anywhere on the card, or uses a shape in the likeness of Illinois or any other state on the photograph side of the card, is deemed to be a fraudulent identification card unless the words "This is not an official Identification Card", appear prominently upon it in black colored lettering in 12-point type on the photograph side of the card, and no such card shall be smaller in size than 3 inches by 4 inches, and the photograph shall be on the left side of the card only.

"Legal name" means the full given name and surname of an individual as recorded at birth, recorded at marriage, or deemed as the correct legal name for use in reporting income by the Social Security Administration or the name as otherwise established through legal action that appears on the associated official document presented to the Secretary of State.

"Personally identifying information" means information that identifies an individual, including his or her identification card number, name, address (but not the 5-digit zip code), date of birth, height, weight, hair color, eye color, email address, and telephone number.

"Homeless person" or "homeless individual" has the same meaning as defined by the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 11302, or 42 U.S.C. 11434a(2).

"Youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible" or "foster child" means a child or youth whose guardianship or custody has been accepted by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Children and Family Services Act, the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and the Adoption Act. This applies to children for whom the Department of Children and Family Services has temporary protective custody, custody or guardianship via court order, or children whose parents have signed an adoptive surrender or voluntary placement agreement with the Department.

"REAL ID compliant identification card" means a standard Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued in compliance with the REAL ID Act and implementing regulations. REAL ID compliant identification cards shall bear a security marking approved by the United States Department of Homeland Security.

"Standard identification card" means a standard Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued in a manner which is not compliant with the REAL ID Act and implementing regulations. Standard identification cards shall be marked "Federal Limits Apply" and shall have a color or design different from the REAL ID compliant identification card.

"Limited Term REAL ID compliant identification card" means a REAL ID compliant identification card that is issued to a person who is persons who are not a permanent resident residents or citizen citizens of the United States, or an individual who has an approved application for asylum in the United States or has entered the United States in refugee status, and is marked "Limited Term" on the face of the card.

(Source: P.A. 103-210, eff. 7-1-24; revised 9-20-23.)

(15 ILCS 335/4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-210)

Sec. 4. Identification card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of expedited identification card requests received on a given day exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited service shall be refunded to the applicant.

(a-20) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a person committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice upon receipt of the person's birth certificate, social security card, photograph, proof of residency upon discharge, and an identification card application transferred via a secure method as agreed upon by the Secretary and the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice. Illinois residency shall be established by submission of a Secretary of State prescribed Identification Card verification form completed by the respective Department.

(a-25) The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card valid for 90 days to a committed person upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, if the released person is unable to present a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, but does present a Secretary of State prescribed Identification Card verification form completed by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, verifying the released person's date of birth, social security number, and his or her Illinois residence address. The verification form must have been completed no more than 30 days prior to the date of application for the Illinois Identification Card.

Prior to the expiration of the 90-day period of the limited-term Illinois Identification Card, if the released person submits to the Secretary of State a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and his or her social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, a standard Illinois Identification Card shall be issued. A limited-term Illinois Identification Card may not be renewed.

(a-30) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a person upon conditional release or absolute discharge from the custody of the Department of Human Services, if the person presents a certified copy of his or her birth certificate, social security card, or other documents authorized by the Secretary, and a document proving his or her Illinois residence address. The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a person prior to his or her conditional release or absolute discharge if personnel from the Department of Human Services bring the person to a Secretary of State location with the required documents. Documents proving residence address may include any official document of the Department of Human Services showing the person's address after release and a Secretary of State prescribed verification form, which may be executed by personnel of the Department of Human Services.

(a-35) The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card valid for 90 days to a person upon conditional release or absolute discharge from the custody of the Department of Human Services, if the person is unable to present a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, but does present a Secretary of State prescribed verification form completed by the Department of Human Services, verifying the person's date of birth and social security number, and a document proving his or her Illinois residence address. The verification form must have been completed no more than 30 days prior to the date of application for the Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card to a person no sooner than 14 days prior to his or her conditional release or absolute discharge if personnel from the Department of Human Services bring the person to a Secretary of State location with the required documents. Documents proving residence address shall include any official document of the Department of Human Services showing the person's address after release and a Secretary of State prescribed verification form, which may be executed by personnel of the Department of Human Services.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant, a determination of disability from an advanced practice registered nurse, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a person with a disability provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a person with a disability or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 102-299, eff. 8-6-21; 103-345, eff. 1-1-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-210)

Sec. 4. Identification card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of expedited identification card requests received on a given day exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited service shall be refunded to the applicant.

(a-20) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a person committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice upon receipt of the person's birth certificate, social security card, if the person has a social security number, photograph, proof of residency upon discharge, and an identification card application transferred via a secure method as agreed upon by the Secretary and the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, if the person has a social security number,. Illinois residency shall be established by submission of a Secretary of State prescribed Identification Card verification form completed by the respective Department.

(a-25) The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card valid for 90 days to a committed person upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, if the released person is unable to present a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and social security card, if the person has a social security number, or other documents authorized by the Secretary, but does present a Secretary of State prescribed Identification Card verification form completed by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, verifying the released person's date of birth, social security number, if the person has a social security number, and his or her Illinois residence address. The verification form must have been completed no more than 30 days prior to the date of application for the Illinois Identification Card.

Prior to the expiration of the 90-day period of the limited-term Illinois Identification Card, if the released person submits to the Secretary of State a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and his or her social security card, if the person has a social security number, or other documents authorized by the Secretary, a standard Illinois Identification Card shall be issued. A limited-term Illinois Identification Card may not be renewed.

(a-30) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a person upon conditional release or absolute discharge from the custody of the Department of Human Services, if the person presents a certified copy of his or her birth certificate, social security card, if the person has a social security number, or other documents authorized by the Secretary, and a document proving his or her Illinois residence address. The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a person prior to his or her conditional release or absolute discharge if personnel from the Department of Human Services bring the person to a Secretary of State location with the required documents. Documents proving residence address may include any official document of the Department of Human Services showing the person's address after release and a Secretary of State prescribed verification form, which may be executed by personnel of the Department of Human Services.

(a-35) The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card valid for 90 days to a person upon conditional release or absolute discharge from the custody of the Department of Human Services, if the person is unable to present a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and social security card, if the person has a social security number, or other documents authorized by the Secretary, but does present a Secretary of State prescribed verification form completed by the Department of Human Services, verifying the person's date of birth and social security number, if the person has a social security number, and a document proving his or her Illinois residence address. The verification form must have been completed no more than 30 days prior to the date of application for the Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card to a person no sooner than 14 days prior to his or her conditional release or absolute discharge if personnel from the Department of Human Services bring the person to a Secretary of State location with the required documents. Documents proving residence address shall include any official document of the Department of Human Services showing the person's address after release and a Secretary of State prescribed verification form, which may be executed by personnel of the Department of Human Services.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant, a determination of disability from an advanced practice registered nurse, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a person with a disability provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a person with a disability or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 102-299, eff. 8-6-21; 103-210, eff. 7-1-24; 103-345, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 45. The State Treasurer Employment Code is amended by changing Section 7a as follows:

(15 ILCS 510/7a) (from Ch. 130, par. 107a)

Sec. 7a. Terms; compensation Terms - compensation. Members of the Personnel Review Board shall initially be appointed as follows:

(a) One member to serve for 2 years and until a successor is appointed;

(b) One member to serve for 4 years and until a successor is appointed; and

(c) One member to serve for 6 years and until a successor is appointed.

Thereafter, members of the Board shall be appointed by the Treasurer for 6-year 6 year terms with the advice and consent of the Senate. One member of the Board shall be appointed a chairperson for a 2-year 2 year term. Members of the Board shall each be paid $100 for each day they are engaged in the business of the Board and shall be reimbursed for their expenses when engaged in such business.

(Source: P.A. 103-152, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 50. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 5-222 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5/5-222)

Sec. 5-222. Director of the Illinois Power Agency. The Director of the Illinois Power Agency must have at least 10 years of combined experience in the electric industry, electricity policy, or electricity markets and must possess: (i) general knowledge of the responsibilities of being a director, (ii) managerial experience, and (iii) an advanced degree in economics, risk management, law, business, engineering, or a related field. The Director of the Illinois Power Agency must have experience with the renewable energy industry and understanding of the programs established by Public Act 102-662 intended to promote equity in the renewable energy industry.

(Source: P.A. 102-1123, eff. 1-27-23; revised 4-4-23.)

Section 55. The Data Governance and Organization to Support Equity and Racial Justice Act is amended by changing Section 20-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 65/20-15)

Sec. 20-15. Data governance and organization to support equity and racial justice.

(a) On or before July 1, 2022 and each July 1 thereafter, the Board and the Department shall report statistical data on the racial, ethnic, age, sex, disability status, sexual orientation, gender identity, and primary or preferred language demographics of program participants for each major program administered by the Board or the Department, except as provided in subsection (a-5). Except as provided in subsection (b), when reporting the data required under this Section, the Board or the Department shall use the same racial and ethnic classifications for each program, which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) American Indian and Alaska Native alone.

(2) Asian alone.

(3) Black or African American alone.

(4) Hispanic or Latino of any race.

(5) Native Hawaiian and Other Pacific Islander alone.

(6) White alone.

(7) Middle Eastern or North African.

(8) Some other race alone.

(9) Two or more races.

The Board and the Department may further define, by rule, the racial and ethnic classifications, including, if necessary, a classification of "No Race Specified".

(a-5) In relation to major program participants, the Board shall not be required to collect personally identifiable information and report statistical data on the categories of sex, sexual orientation, and gender identity unless required for federal reporting. The Board shall make available reports on its Internet website, posted where other mandated reports are posted, of statistical data on sex, sexual orientation, and gender identity demographics through anonymous surveys or other methods as age and developmentally appropriate.

(b) If a program administered by the Board or the Department is subject to federal reporting requirements that include the collection and public reporting of statistical data on the racial and ethnic demographics of program participants, the Department may maintain the same racial and ethnic classifications used under the federal requirements if such classifications differ from the classifications listed in subsection (a).

(c) The Department of Innovation and Technology shall assist the Board and the Department by establishing common technological processes and procedures for the Board and the Department to:

(1) Catalog data.

(2) Identify similar fields in datasets.

(3) Manage data requests.

(4) Share data.

(5) Collect data.

(6) Improve and clean data.

(7) Match data across the Board and Departments.

(8) Develop research and analytic agendas.

(9) Report on program participation disaggregated by race and ethnicity.

(10) Evaluate equitable outcomes for underserved populations in Illinois.

(11) Define common roles for data management.

(12) Ensure that all major programs can report disaggregated data by race, ethnicity, age, sex, disability status, sexual orientation, and gender identity, and primary or preferred language.

The Board and the Department shall use the common technological processes and procedures established by the Department of Innovation and Technology.

(d) If the Board or the Department is unable to begin reporting the data required by subsection (a) by July 1, 2022, the Board or the Department shall state the reasons for the delay under the reporting requirements.

(e) By no later than March 31, 2022, the Board and the Department shall provide a progress report to the General Assembly to disclose: (i) the programs and datasets that have been cataloged for which race, ethnicity, age, sex, disability status, sexual orientation, gender identity, and primary or preferred language have been standardized; and (ii) to the extent possible, the datasets and programs that are outstanding for each agency and the datasets that are planned for the upcoming year. On or before March 31, 2023, and each year thereafter, the Board and the Department shall provide an updated report to the General Assembly.

(f) By no later than October 31, 2021, the Governor's Office shall provide a plan to establish processes for input from the Board and the Department into processes outlined in subsection (c). The plan shall incorporate ongoing efforts at data interoperability within the Department and the governance established to support the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System enacted by Public Act 96-107.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the rights granted to individuals or data sharing protections established under existing State and federal data privacy and security laws.

(Source: P.A. 102-543, eff. 8-20-21; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-414, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 60. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by changing Section 4.02 as follows:

(20 ILCS 105/4.02)

Sec. 4.02. Community Care Program. The Department shall establish a program of services to prevent unnecessary institutionalization of persons age 60 and older in need of long term care or who are established as persons who suffer from Alzheimer's disease or a related disorder under the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act, thereby enabling them to remain in their own homes or in other living arrangements. Such preventive services, which may be coordinated with other programs for the aged and monitored by area agencies on aging in cooperation with the Department, may include, but are not limited to, any or all of the following:

(a) (blank);

(b) (blank);

(c) home care aide services;

(d) personal assistant services;

(e) adult day services;

(f) home-delivered meals;

(g) education in self-care;

(h) personal care services;

(i) adult day health services;

(j) habilitation services;

(k) respite care;

(k-5) community reintegration services;

(k-6) flexible senior services;

(k-7) medication management;

(k-8) emergency home response;

(l) other nonmedical social services that may enable the person to become self-supporting; or

(m) clearinghouse for information provided by senior citizen home owners who want to rent rooms to or share living space with other senior citizens.

The Department shall establish eligibility standards for such services. In determining the amount and nature of services for which a person may qualify, consideration shall not be given to the value of cash, property, or other assets held in the name of the person's spouse pursuant to a written agreement dividing marital property into equal but separate shares or pursuant to a transfer of the person's interest in a home to his spouse, provided that the spouse's share of the marital property is not made available to the person seeking such services.

Beginning January 1, 2008, the Department shall require as a condition of eligibility that all new financially eligible applicants apply for and enroll in medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code in accordance with rules promulgated by the Department.

The Department shall, in conjunction with the Department of Public Aid (now Department of Healthcare and Family Services), seek appropriate amendments under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act. The purpose of the amendments shall be to extend eligibility for home and community based services under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act to persons who transfer to or for the benefit of a spouse those amounts of income and resources allowed under Section 1924 of the Social Security Act. Subject to the approval of such amendments, the Department shall extend the provisions of Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code to persons who, but for the provision of home or community-based services, would require the level of care provided in an institution, as is provided for in federal law. Those persons no longer found to be eligible for receiving noninstitutional services due to changes in the eligibility criteria shall be given 45 days notice prior to actual termination. Those persons receiving notice of termination may contact the Department and request the determination be appealed at any time during the 45 day notice period. The target population identified for the purposes of this Section are persons age 60 and older with an identified service need. Priority shall be given to those who are at imminent risk of institutionalization. The services shall be provided to eligible persons age 60 and older to the extent that the cost of the services together with the other personal maintenance expenses of the persons are reasonably related to the standards established for care in a group facility appropriate to the person's condition. These non-institutional services, pilot projects, or experimental facilities may be provided as part of or in addition to those authorized by federal law or those funded and administered by the Department of Human Services. The Departments of Human Services, Healthcare and Family Services, Public Health, Veterans' Affairs, and Commerce and Economic Opportunity and other appropriate agencies of State, federal, and local governments shall cooperate with the Department on Aging in the establishment and development of the non-institutional services. The Department shall require an annual audit from all personal assistant and home care aide vendors contracting with the Department under this Section. The annual audit shall assure that each audited vendor's procedures are in compliance with Department's financial reporting guidelines requiring an administrative and employee wage and benefits cost split as defined in administrative rules. The audit is a public record under the Freedom of Information Act. The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, to effect the following: (1) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (2) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped. On and after July 1, 1996, all nursing home prescreenings for individuals 60 years of age or older shall be conducted by the Department.

As part of the Department on Aging's routine training of case managers and case manager supervisors, the Department may include information on family futures planning for persons who are age 60 or older and who are caregivers of their adult children with developmental disabilities. The content of the training shall be at the Department's discretion.

The Department is authorized to establish a system of recipient copayment for services provided under this Section, such copayment to be based upon the recipient's ability to pay but in no case to exceed the actual cost of the services provided. Additionally, any portion of a person's income which is equal to or less than the federal poverty standard shall not be considered by the Department in determining the copayment. The level of such copayment shall be adjusted whenever necessary to reflect any change in the officially designated federal poverty standard.

The Department, or the Department's authorized representative, may recover the amount of moneys expended for services provided to or in behalf of a person under this Section by a claim against the person's estate or against the estate of the person's surviving spouse, but no recovery may be had until after the death of the surviving spouse, if any, and then only at such time when there is no surviving child who is under age 21 or blind or who has a permanent and total disability. This paragraph, however, shall not bar recovery, at the death of the person, of moneys for services provided to the person or in behalf of the person under this Section to which the person was not entitled; provided that such recovery shall not be enforced against any real estate while it is occupied as a homestead by the surviving spouse or other dependent, if no claims by other creditors have been filed against the estate, or, if such claims have been filed, they remain dormant for failure of prosecution or failure of the claimant to compel administration of the estate for the purpose of payment. This paragraph shall not bar recovery from the estate of a spouse, under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act and Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, who precedes a person receiving services under this Section in death. All moneys for services paid to or in behalf of the person under this Section shall be claimed for recovery from the deceased spouse's estate. "Homestead", as used in this paragraph, means the dwelling house and contiguous real estate occupied by a surviving spouse or relative, as defined by the rules and regulations of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, regardless of the value of the property.

The Department shall increase the effectiveness of the existing Community Care Program by:

(1) ensuring that in-home services included in the care plan are available on evenings and weekends;

(2) ensuring that care plans contain the services that eligible participants need based on the number of days in a month, not limited to specific blocks of time, as identified by the comprehensive assessment tool selected by the Department for use statewide, not to exceed the total monthly service cost maximum allowed for each service; the Department shall develop administrative rules to implement this item (2);

(3) ensuring that the participants have the right to choose the services contained in their care plan and to direct how those services are provided, based on administrative rules established by the Department;

(4) ensuring that the determination of need tool is accurate in determining the participants' level of need; to achieve this, the Department, in conjunction with the Older Adult Services Advisory Committee, shall institute a study of the relationship between the Determination of Need scores, level of need, service cost maximums, and the development and utilization of service plans no later than May 1, 2008; findings and recommendations shall be presented to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than January 1, 2009; recommendations shall include all needed changes to the service cost maximums schedule and additional covered services;

(5) ensuring that homemakers can provide personal care services that may or may not involve contact with clients, including, but not limited to:

(A) bathing;

(B) grooming;

(C) toileting;

(D) nail care;

(E) transferring;

(F) respiratory services;

(G) exercise; or

(H) positioning;

(6) ensuring that homemaker program vendors are not restricted from hiring homemakers who are family members of clients or recommended by clients; the Department may not, by rule or policy, require homemakers who are family members of clients or recommended by clients to accept assignments in homes other than the client;

(7) ensuring that the State may access maximum federal matching funds by seeking approval for the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for modifications to the State's home and community based services waiver and additional waiver opportunities, including applying for enrollment in the Balance Incentive Payment Program by May 1, 2013, in order to maximize federal matching funds; this shall include, but not be limited to, modification that reflects all changes in the Community Care Program services and all increases in the services cost maximum;

(8) ensuring that the determination of need tool accurately reflects the service needs of individuals with Alzheimer's disease and related dementia disorders;

(9) ensuring that services are authorized accurately and consistently for the Community Care Program (CCP); the Department shall implement a Service Authorization policy directive; the purpose shall be to ensure that eligibility and services are authorized accurately and consistently in the CCP program; the policy directive shall clarify service authorization guidelines to Care Coordination Units and Community Care Program providers no later than May 1, 2013;

(10) working in conjunction with Care Coordination Units, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, Community Care Program providers, and other stakeholders to make improvements to the Medicaid claiming processes and the Medicaid enrollment procedures or requirements as needed, including, but not limited to, specific policy changes or rules to improve the up-front enrollment of participants in the Medicaid program and specific policy changes or rules to insure more prompt submission of bills to the federal government to secure maximum federal matching dollars as promptly as possible; the Department on Aging shall have at least 3 meetings with stakeholders by January 1, 2014 in order to address these improvements;

(11) requiring home care service providers to comply with the rounding of hours worked provisions under the federal Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) and as set forth in 29 CFR 785.48(b) by May 1, 2013;

(12) implementing any necessary policy changes or promulgating any rules, no later than January 1, 2014, to assist the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in moving as many participants as possible, consistent with federal regulations, into coordinated care plans if a care coordination plan that covers long term care is available in the recipient's area; and

(13) maintaining fiscal year 2014 rates at the same level established on January 1, 2013.

By January 1, 2009 or as soon after the end of the Cash and Counseling Demonstration Project as is practicable, the Department may, based on its evaluation of the demonstration project, promulgate rules concerning personal assistant services, to include, but need not be limited to, qualifications, employment screening, rights under fair labor standards, training, fiduciary agent, and supervision requirements. All applicants shall be subject to the provisions of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

The Department shall develop procedures to enhance availability of services on evenings, weekends, and on an emergency basis to meet the respite needs of caregivers. Procedures shall be developed to permit the utilization of services in successive blocks of 24 hours up to the monthly maximum established by the Department. Workers providing these services shall be appropriately trained.

Beginning on September 23, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-729) this amendatory Act of 1991, no person may perform chore/housekeeping and home care aide services under a program authorized by this Section unless that person has been issued a certificate of pre-service to do so by his or her employing agency. Information gathered to effect such certification shall include (i) the person's name, (ii) the date the person was hired by his or her current employer, and (iii) the training, including dates and levels. Persons engaged in the program authorized by this Section before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991 shall be issued a certificate of all pre-service pre- and in-service training from his or her employer upon submitting the necessary information. The employing agency shall be required to retain records of all staff pre-service pre- and in-service training, and shall provide such records to the Department upon request and upon termination of the employer's contract with the Department. In addition, the employing agency is responsible for the issuance of certifications of in-service training completed to their employees.

The Department is required to develop a system to ensure that persons working as home care aides and personal assistants receive increases in their wages when the federal minimum wage is increased by requiring vendors to certify that they are meeting the federal minimum wage statute for home care aides and personal assistants. An employer that cannot ensure that the minimum wage increase is being given to home care aides and personal assistants shall be denied any increase in reimbursement costs.

The Community Care Program Advisory Committee is created in the Department on Aging. The Director shall appoint individuals to serve in the Committee, who shall serve at their own expense. Members of the Committee must abide by all applicable ethics laws. The Committee shall advise the Department on issues related to the Department's program of services to prevent unnecessary institutionalization. The Committee shall meet on a bi-monthly basis and shall serve to identify and advise the Department on present and potential issues affecting the service delivery network, the program's clients, and the Department and to recommend solution strategies. Persons appointed to the Committee shall be appointed on, but not limited to, their own and their agency's experience with the program, geographic representation, and willingness to serve. The Director shall appoint members to the Committee to represent provider, advocacy, policy research, and other constituencies committed to the delivery of high quality home and community-based services to older adults. Representatives shall be appointed to ensure representation from community care providers, including, but not limited to, adult day service providers, homemaker providers, case coordination and case management units, emergency home response providers, statewide trade or labor unions that represent home care aides and direct care staff, area agencies on aging, adults over age 60, membership organizations representing older adults, and other organizational entities, providers of care, or individuals with demonstrated interest and expertise in the field of home and community care as determined by the Director.

Nominations may be presented from any agency or State association with interest in the program. The Director, or his or her designee, shall serve as the permanent co-chair of the advisory committee. One other co-chair shall be nominated and approved by the members of the committee on an annual basis. Committee members' terms of appointment shall be for 4 years with one-quarter of the appointees' terms expiring each year. A member shall continue to serve until his or her replacement is named. The Department shall fill vacancies that have a remaining term of over one year, and this replacement shall occur through the annual replacement of expiring terms. The Director shall designate Department staff to provide technical assistance and staff support to the committee. Department representation shall not constitute membership of the committee. All Committee papers, issues, recommendations, reports, and meeting memoranda are advisory only. The Director, or his or her designee, shall make a written report, as requested by the Committee, regarding issues before the Committee.

The Department on Aging and the Department of Human Services shall cooperate in the development and submission of an annual report on programs and services provided under this Section. Such joint report shall be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly on or before March 31 of the following fiscal year.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

Those persons previously found eligible for receiving non-institutional services whose services were discontinued under the Emergency Budget Act of Fiscal Year 1992, and who do not meet the eligibility standards in effect on or after July 1, 1992, shall remain ineligible on and after July 1, 1992. Those persons previously not required to cost-share and who were required to cost-share effective March 1, 1992, shall continue to meet cost-share requirements on and after July 1, 1992. Beginning July 1, 1992, all clients will be required to meet eligibility, cost-share, and other requirements and will have services discontinued or altered when they fail to meet these requirements.

For the purposes of this Section, "flexible senior services" refers to services that require one-time or periodic expenditures, including, but not limited to, respite care, home modification, assistive technology, housing assistance, and transportation.

The Department shall implement an electronic service verification based on global positioning systems or other cost-effective technology for the Community Care Program no later than January 1, 2014.

The Department shall require, as a condition of eligibility, enrollment in the medical assistance program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code (i) beginning August 1, 2013, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has failed to comply with the reporting requirements of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act; or (ii) beginning June 1, 2014, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has not undertaken the required actions listed in the report required by subsection (a) of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

The Department shall delay Community Care Program services until an applicant is determined eligible for medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code (i) beginning August 1, 2013, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has failed to comply with the reporting requirements of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act; or (ii) beginning June 1, 2014, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has not undertaken the required actions listed in the report required by subsection (a) of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

The Department shall implement co-payments for the Community Care Program at the federally allowable maximum level (i) beginning August 1, 2013, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has failed to comply with the reporting requirements of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act; or (ii) beginning June 1, 2014, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has not undertaken the required actions listed in the report required by subsection (a) of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

The Department shall continue to provide other Community Care Program reports as required by statute.

The Department shall conduct a quarterly review of Care Coordination Unit performance and adherence to service guidelines. The quarterly review shall be reported to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, and the Minority Leader of the Senate. The Department shall collect and report longitudinal data on the performance of each care coordination unit. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require the Department to identify specific care coordination units.

In regard to community care providers, failure to comply with Department on Aging policies shall be cause for disciplinary action, including, but not limited to, disqualification from serving Community Care Program clients. Each provider, upon submission of any bill or invoice to the Department for payment for services rendered, shall include a notarized statement, under penalty of perjury pursuant to Section 1-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure, that the provider has complied with all Department policies.

The Director of the Department on Aging shall make information available to the State Board of Elections as may be required by an agreement the State Board of Elections has entered into with a multi-state voter registration list maintenance system.

Within 30 days after July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23), rates shall be increased to $18.29 per hour, for the purpose of increasing, by at least $.72 per hour, the wages paid by those vendors to their employees who provide homemaker services. The Department shall pay an enhanced rate under the Community Care Program to those in-home service provider agencies that offer health insurance coverage as a benefit to their direct service worker employees consistent with the mandates of Public Act 95-713. For State fiscal years 2018 and 2019, the enhanced rate shall be $1.77 per hour. The rate shall be adjusted using actuarial analysis based on the cost of care, but shall not be set below $1.77 per hour. The Department shall adopt rules, including emergency rules under subsections (y) and (bb) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to implement the provisions of this paragraph.

Subject to federal approval, beginning on January 1, 2024, rates for adult day services shall be increased to $16.84 per hour and rates for each way transportation services for adult day services shall be increased to $12.44 per unit transportation.

Subject to federal approval, on and after January 1, 2024, rates for homemaker services shall be increased to $28.07 to sustain a minimum wage of $17 per hour for direct service workers. Rates in subsequent State fiscal years shall be no lower than the rates put into effect upon federal approval. Providers of in-home services shall be required to certify to the Department that they remain in compliance with the mandated wage increase for direct service workers. Fringe benefits, including, but not limited to, paid time off and payment for training, health insurance, travel, or transportation, shall not be reduced in relation to the rate increases described in this paragraph.

The General Assembly finds it necessary to authorize an aggressive Medicaid enrollment initiative designed to maximize federal Medicaid funding for the Community Care Program which produces significant savings for the State of Illinois. The Department on Aging shall establish and implement a Community Care Program Medicaid Initiative. Under the Initiative, the Department on Aging shall, at a minimum: (i) provide an enhanced rate to adequately compensate care coordination units to enroll eligible Community Care Program clients into Medicaid; (ii) use recommendations from a stakeholder committee on how best to implement the Initiative; and (iii) establish requirements for State agencies to make enrollment in the State's Medical Assistance program easier for seniors.

The Community Care Program Medicaid Enrollment Oversight Subcommittee is created as a subcommittee of the Older Adult Services Advisory Committee established in Section 35 of the Older Adult Services Act to make recommendations on how best to increase the number of medical assistance recipients who are enrolled in the Community Care Program. The Subcommittee shall consist of all of the following persons who must be appointed within 30 days after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly:

(1) The Director of Aging, or his or her designee, who shall serve as the chairperson of the Subcommittee.

(2) One representative of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, appointed by the Director of Healthcare and Family Services.

(3) One representative of the Department of Human Services, appointed by the Secretary of Human Services.

(4) One individual representing a care coordination unit, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(5) One individual from a non-governmental statewide organization that advocates for seniors, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(6) One individual representing Area Agencies on Aging, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(7) One individual from a statewide association dedicated to Alzheimer's care, support, and research, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(8) One individual from an organization that employs persons who provide services under the Community Care Program, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(9) One member of a trade or labor union representing persons who provide services under the Community Care Program, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(10) One member of the Senate, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the President of the Senate.

(11) One member of the Senate, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(12) One member of the House of Representatives, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(13) One member of the House of Representatives, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(14) One individual appointed by a labor organization representing frontline employees at the Department of Human Services.

The Subcommittee shall provide oversight to the Community Care Program Medicaid Initiative and shall meet quarterly. At each Subcommittee meeting the Department on Aging shall provide the following data sets to the Subcommittee: (A) the number of Illinois residents, categorized by planning and service area, who are receiving services under the Community Care Program and are enrolled in the State's Medical Assistance Program; (B) the number of Illinois residents, categorized by planning and service area, who are receiving services under the Community Care Program, but are not enrolled in the State's Medical Assistance Program; and (C) the number of Illinois residents, categorized by planning and service area, who are receiving services under the Community Care Program and are eligible for benefits under the State's Medical Assistance Program, but are not enrolled in the State's Medical Assistance Program. In addition to this data, the Department on Aging shall provide the Subcommittee with plans on how the Department on Aging will reduce the number of Illinois residents who are not enrolled in the State's Medical Assistance Program but who are eligible for medical assistance benefits. The Department on Aging shall enroll in the State's Medical Assistance Program those Illinois residents who receive services under the Community Care Program and are eligible for medical assistance benefits but are not enrolled in the State's Medicaid Assistance Program. The data provided to the Subcommittee shall be made available to the public via the Department on Aging's website.

The Department on Aging, with the involvement of the Subcommittee, shall collaborate with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services on how best to achieve the responsibilities of the Community Care Program Medicaid Initiative.

The Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall coordinate and implement a streamlined process for seniors to access benefits under the State's Medical Assistance Program.

The Subcommittee shall collaborate with the Department of Human Services on the adoption of a uniform application submission process. The Department of Human Services and any other State agency involved with processing the medical assistance application of any person enrolled in the Community Care Program shall include the appropriate care coordination unit in all communications related to the determination or status of the application.

The Community Care Program Medicaid Initiative shall provide targeted funding to care coordination units to help seniors complete their applications for medical assistance benefits. On and after July 1, 2019, care coordination units shall receive no less than $200 per completed application, which rate may be included in a bundled rate for initial intake services when Medicaid application assistance is provided in conjunction with the initial intake process for new program participants.

The Community Care Program Medicaid Initiative shall cease operation 5 years after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, after which the Subcommittee shall dissolve.

Effective July 1, 2023, subject to federal approval, the Department on Aging shall reimburse Care Coordination Units at the following rates for case management services: $252.40 for each initial assessment; $366.40 for each initial assessment with translation; $229.68 for each redetermination assessment; $313.68 for each redetermination assessment with translation; $200.00 for each completed application for medical assistance benefits; $132.26 for each face-to-face, choices-for-care screening; $168.26 for each face-to-face, choices-for-care screening with translation; $124.56 for each 6-month, face-to-face visit; $132.00 for each MCO participant eligibility determination; and $157.00 for each MCO participant eligibility determination with translation.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-102, Article 45, Section 45-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 85, Section 85-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 90, Section 90-5, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 65. The Personnel Code is amended by changing Sections 8a, 8b.3, 8b.9, 8b.10, and 9 as follows:

(20 ILCS 415/8a) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b108a)

Sec. 8a. Jurisdiction A; classification Jurisdiction A - Classification and pay. For positions in the State service subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of Central Management Services with respect to the classification and pay:

(1) For the preparation, maintenance, and revision by the Director, subject to approval by the Commission, of a position classification plan for all positions subject to this Code Act, based upon similarity of duties performed, responsibilities assigned, and conditions of employment so that the same schedule of pay may be equitably applied to all positions in the same class. However, the pay of an employee whose position is reduced in rank or grade by reallocation because of a loss of duties or responsibilities after his appointment to such position shall not be required to be lowered for a period of one year after the reallocation of his position. Conditions of employment shall not be used as a factor in the classification of any position heretofore paid under the provisions of Section 1.22 of "An Act to standardize position titles and salary rates", approved June 30, 1943, as amended. Unless the Commission disapproves such classification plan within 60 days, or any revision thereof within 30 days, the Director shall allocate every such position to one of the classes in the plan. Any employee affected by the allocation of a position to a class shall, after filing with the Director of Central Management Services a written request for reconsideration thereof in such manner and form as the Director may prescribe, be given a reasonable opportunity to be heard by the Director. If the employee does not accept the allocation of the position, he shall then have the right of appeal to the Civil Service Commission.

(2) For a pay plan to be prepared by the Director for all employees subject to this Code Act after consultation with operating agency heads and the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Such pay plan may include provisions for uniformity of starting pay, an increment plan, area differentials, a delay not to exceed one year prior to the reduction of the pay of employees whose positions are reduced in rank or grade by reallocation because of a loss of duties or responsibilities after their appointments to such positions, prevailing rates of wages in those classifications in which employers are now paying or may hereafter pay such rates of wage and other provisions. Such pay plan shall become effective only after it has been approved by the Governor. Amendments to the pay plan shall be made in the same manner. Such pay plan shall provide that each employee shall be paid at one of the rates set forth in the pay plan for the class of position in which he is employed, subject to delay in the reduction of pay of employees whose positions are reduced in rank or grade by allocation as above set forth in this Section. Such pay plan shall provide for a fair and reasonable compensation for services rendered.

This Section is inapplicable to the position of Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services in the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The salary for this position shall be as established in the "The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois", approved March 7, 1917, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 9-20-23.)

(20 ILCS 415/8b.3) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b108b.3)

Sec. 8b.3. For assessment of employees with contractual rights under a collective bargaining agreement to determine those candidates who are eligible for appointment and promotion and their relative excellence. Assessments, which are the determination of whether an individual meets the minimum qualifications as determined by the class specification of the position for which they are being considered, shall be designed to objectively eliminate those who are not qualified for the position into which they are applying and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may substitute rankings, such as superior, excellent, well-qualified, and qualified, for numerical ratings and establish qualification assessments or assessment equivalents accordingly. The Department may adopt rules regarding the assessment of applicants and the appointment of qualified candidates. Adopted rules shall be interpreted to be consistent with collective bargaining agreements.

(Source: P.A. 103-108, eff. 6-27-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(20 ILCS 415/8b.9) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b108b.9)

Sec. 8b.9. For temporary appointments to any positions in the State service which are determined to be temporary or seasonal in nature by the Director of Central Management Services. Temporary appointments may be made for not more than 6 months. No position in the State service may be filled by temporary appointment for more than 6 months out of any 12-month 12 month period.

(Source: P.A. 103-108, eff. 6-27-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(20 ILCS 415/8b.10) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b108b.10)

Sec. 8b.10. For provisional appointment to a position without competitive qualification assessment. No position within jurisdiction B may be filled by provisional appointment for longer than 6 months out of any 12-month 12 month period.

(Source: P.A. 103-108, eff. 6-27-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(20 ILCS 415/9) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b109)

Sec. 9. Director; , powers and duties. The Director, as executive head of the Department, shall direct and supervise all its administrative and technical activities. In addition to the duties imposed upon him elsewhere in this Code law, it shall be his duty:

(1) To apply and carry out this Code law and the rules adopted thereunder.

(2) To attend meetings of the Commission.

(3) To establish and maintain a roster of all employees subject to this Code Act, in which there shall be set forth, as to each employee, the class, title, pay, status, and other pertinent data.

(4) To appoint, subject to the provisions of this Code Act, such employees of the Department and such experts and special assistants as may be necessary to carry out effectively this Code law.

(5) Subject to such exemptions or modifications as may be necessary to assure the continuity of federal contributions in those agencies supported in whole or in part by federal funds, to make appointments to vacancies; to approve all written charges seeking discharge, demotion, or other disciplinary measures provided in this Code Act and to approve transfers of employees from one geographical area to another in the State, in offices, positions or places of employment covered by this Code Act, after consultation with the operating unit.

(6) To formulate and administer service wide policies and programs for the improvement of employee effectiveness, including training, safety, health, incentive recognition, counseling, welfare, and employee relations. The Department shall formulate and administer recruitment plans and testing of potential employees for agencies having direct contact with significant numbers of non-English speaking or otherwise culturally distinct persons. The Department shall require each State agency to annually assess the need for employees with appropriate bilingual capabilities to serve the significant numbers of non-English speaking or culturally distinct persons. The Department shall develop a uniform procedure for assessing an agency's need for employees with appropriate bilingual capabilities. Agencies shall establish occupational titles or designate positions as "bilingual option" for persons having sufficient linguistic ability or cultural knowledge to be able to render effective service to such persons. The Department shall ensure that any such option is exercised according to the agency's needs assessment and the requirements of this Code. The Department shall make annual reports of the needs assessment of each agency and the number of positions calling for non-English linguistic ability to whom vacancy postings were sent, and the number filled by each agency. Such policies and programs shall be subject to approval by the Governor, provided that for needs that require a certain linguistic ability that: (i) have not been met for a posted position for a period of at least one year; or (ii) arise when an individual's health or safety would be placed in immediate risk, the Department shall accept certifications of linguistic competence from pre-approved third parties. To facilitate expanding the scope of sources to demonstrate linguistic competence, the Department shall issue standards for demonstrating linguistic competence. No later than January 2024, the Department shall authorize at least one if not more community colleges in the regions involving the counties of Cook, Lake, McHenry, Kane, DuPage, Kendall, Will, Sangamon, and 5 other geographically distributed counties within the State to pre-test and certify linguistic ability, and such certifications by candidates shall be presumed to satisfy the linguistic ability requirements for the job position. Such policies, program reports and needs assessment reports, as well as linguistic certification standards, shall be filed with the General Assembly by January 1 of each year and shall be available to the public.

The Department shall include within the report required above the number of persons receiving the bilingual pay supplement established by Section 8a.2 of this Code. The report shall provide the number of persons receiving the bilingual pay supplement for languages other than English and for signing. The report shall also indicate the number of persons, by the categories of Hispanic and non-Hispanic, who are receiving the bilingual pay supplement for language skills other than signing, in a language other than English.

(7) To conduct negotiations affecting pay, hours of work, or other working conditions of employees subject to this Code Act.

(8) To make continuing studies to improve the efficiency of State services to the residents of Illinois, including, but not limited to, those who are non-English speaking or culturally distinct, and to report his findings and recommendations to the Commission and the Governor.

(9) To investigate from time to time the operation and effect of this Code law and the rules made thereunder and to report his findings and recommendations to the Commission and to the Governor.

(10) To make an annual report regarding the work of the Department, and such special reports as he may consider desirable, to the Commission and to the Governor, or as the Governor or Commission may request.

(11) To make continuing studies to encourage State employment for persons with disabilities, including, but not limited to, the Successful Disability Opportunities Program.

(12) To make available, on the CMS website or its equivalent, no less frequently than quarterly, information regarding all exempt positions in State service and information showing the number of employees who are exempt from merit selection and non-exempt from merit selection in each department.

(13) To establish policies to increase the flexibility of the State workforce for every department or agency subject to Jurisdiction C, including the use of flexible time, location, workloads, and positions. The Director and the director of each department or agency shall together establish quantifiable goals to increase workforce flexibility in each department or agency. To authorize in every department or agency subject to Jurisdiction C the use of flexible hours positions. A flexible hours position is one that does not require an ordinary work schedule as determined by the Department and includes, but is not limited to: (1) 1) a part time job of 20 hours or more per week, (2) 2) a job which is shared by 2 employees or a compressed work week consisting of an ordinary number of working hours performed on fewer than the number of days ordinarily required to perform that job. The Department may define flexible time to include other types of jobs that are defined above.

The Director and the director of each department or agency shall together establish goals for flexible hours positions to be available in every department or agency.

The Department shall give technical assistance to departments and agencies in achieving their goals, and shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly each year on the progress of each department and agency.

When a goal of 10% of the positions in a department or agency being available on a flexible hours basis has been reached, the Department shall evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the program and determine whether to expand the number of positions available for flexible hours to 20%.

When a goal of 20% of the positions in a department or agency being available on a flexible hours basis has been reached, the Department shall evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the program and determine whether to expand the number of positions available for flexible hours.

(14) To perform any other lawful acts which he may consider necessary or desirable to carry out the purposes and provisions of this Code law.

(15) When a vacancy rate is greater than or equal to 10% for a given position, the Department shall review the educational and other requirements for the position to determine if modifications need to be made.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-952, eff. 1-1-23; 103-108, eff. 6-27-23; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 70. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 5d, 7.4, 17, and 21 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5)

Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of Children and Family Services. To provide direct child welfare services when not available through other public or private child care or program facilities.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Children" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 18 years. The term also includes persons under age 21 who:

(A) were committed to the Department pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and who continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or

(B) were accepted for care, service and training by the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best interest in the discretion of the Department would be served by continuing that care, service and training because of severe emotional disturbances, physical disability, social adjustment or any combination thereof, or because of the need to complete an educational or vocational training program.

(2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and stable living situation and cannot be reunited with their families.

(3) "Child welfare services" means public social services which are directed toward the accomplishment of the following purposes:

(A) protecting and promoting the health, safety and welfare of children, including homeless, dependent, or neglected children;

(B) remedying, or assisting in the solution of problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse, exploitation, or delinquency of children;

(C) preventing the unnecessary separation of children from their families by identifying family problems, assisting families in resolving their problems, and preventing the breakup of the family where the prevention of child removal is desirable and possible when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(D) restoring to their families children who have been removed, by the provision of services to the child and the families when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(E) placing children in suitable permanent family arrangements, through guardianship or adoption, in cases where restoration to the birth family is not safe, possible, or appropriate;

(F) at the time of placement, conducting concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of this Section, so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child;

(G) (blank);

(H) (blank); and

(I) placing and maintaining children in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children under the age of 18 and for children 18 years of age and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the last year of high school education or vocational training, in an approved individual or group treatment program, in a licensed shelter facility, or secure child care facility. The Department is not required to place or maintain children:

(i) who are in a foster home, or

(ii) who are persons with a developmental disability, as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or

(iii) who are female children who are pregnant, pregnant and parenting, or parenting, or

(iv) who are siblings, in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children 18 years of age and older and for children under 18 years of age.

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) The Department shall adopt rules to establish a process for all licensed residential providers in Illinois to submit data as required by the Department, if they contract or receive reimbursement for children's mental health, substance use, and developmental disability services from the Department of Human Services, the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The requested data must include, but is not limited to, capacity, staffing, and occupancy data for the purpose of establishing State need and placement availability.

All information collected, shared, or stored pursuant to this subsection shall be handled in accordance with all State and federal privacy laws and accompanying regulations and rules, including without limitation the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-191) and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(c) The Department shall establish and maintain tax-supported child welfare services and extend and seek to improve voluntary services throughout the State, to the end that services and care shall be available on an equal basis throughout the State to children requiring such services.

(d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for any new program initiative to any agency contracting with the Department. As a prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the contractor must post a surety bond in the amount of the advance disbursement and have a purchase of service contract approved by the Department. The Department may pay up to 2 months operational expenses in advance. The amount of the advance disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract or the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and the installment amount shall then be deducted from future bills. Advance disbursement authorizations for new initiatives shall not be made to any agency after that agency has operated during 2 consecutive fiscal years. The requirements of this Section concerning advance disbursements shall not apply with respect to the following: payments to local public agencies for child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this Act; and youth service programs receiving grant funds under Section 17a-4.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations concerning its operation of programs designed to meet the goals of child safety and protection, family preservation, family reunification, and adoption, including, but not limited to:

(1) adoption;

(2) foster care;

(3) family counseling;

(4) protective services;

(5) (blank);

(6) homemaker service;

(7) return of runaway children;

(8) (blank);

(9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25, or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in accordance with the federal Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980; and

(10) interstate services.

Rules and regulations established by the Department shall include provisions for training Department staff and the staff of Department grantees, through contracts with other agencies or resources, in screening techniques to identify substance use disorders, as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, approved by the Department of Human Services, as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the purpose of identifying children and adults who should be referred for an assessment at an organization appropriately licensed by the Department of Human Services for substance use disorder treatment.

(h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate program or facility within or available to the Department for a youth in care and that no licensed private facility has an adequate and appropriate program or none agrees to accept the youth in care, the Department shall create an appropriate individualized, program-oriented plan for such youth in care. The plan may be developed within the Department or through purchase of services by the Department to the extent that it is within its statutory authority to do.

(i) Service programs shall be available throughout the State and shall include but not be limited to the following services:

(1) case management;

(2) homemakers;

(3) counseling;

(4) parent education;

(5) day care; and

(6) emergency assistance and advocacy.

In addition, the following services may be made available to assess and meet the needs of children and families:

(1) comprehensive family-based services;

(2) assessments;

(3) respite care; and

(4) in-home health services.

The Department shall provide transportation for any of the services it makes available to children or families or for which it refers children or families.

(j) The Department may provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and grants, to persons who adopt children with physical or mental disabilities, children who are older, or other hard-to-place children who (i) immediately prior to their adoption were youth in care or (ii) were determined eligible for financial assistance with respect to a prior adoption and who become available for adoption because the prior adoption has been dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive parents have been terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have died. The Department may continue to provide financial assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was determined eligible for financial assistance under this subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or parents. The Department may also provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and grants, to persons appointed guardian of the person under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25, or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for children who were youth in care for 12 months immediately prior to the appointment of the guardian.

The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs of the child and the adoptive parents, as set forth in the annual assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are allowed where the child requires special service but such costs may not exceed the amounts which similar services would cost the Department if it were to provide or secure them as guardian of the child.

Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment, garnishment, or any other remedy for recovery or collection of a judgment or debt.

(j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement of a child for adoption if an approved family is available either outside of the Department region handling the case, or outside of the State of Illinois.

(k) The Department shall accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated neglected or abused, or dependent committed to it pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) The Department shall offer family preservation services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and extended families. Family preservation services shall be offered (i) to prevent the placement of children in substitute care when the children can be cared for at home or in the custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare, (ii) to reunite children with their families, or (iii) to maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services shall only be offered when doing so will not endanger the children's health or safety. With respect to children who are in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal other than those of subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act has been set, except that reunification services may be offered as provided in paragraph (F) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a private right of action or claim on the part of any individual or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set out in the plan, if those services are not provided with reasonable promptness and if those services are available.

The Department shall notify the child and the child's family of the Department's responsibility to offer and provide family preservation services as identified in the service plan. The child and the child's family shall be eligible for services as soon as the report is determined to be "indicated". The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed, prior to concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. However, the child's or family's willingness to accept services shall not be considered in the investigation. The Department may also provide services to any child or family who is the subject of any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer such child or family to services available from other agencies in the community, even if the report is determined to be unfounded, if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide services to any child or family after completion of a family assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided under the "differential response program" provided for in subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

The Department may, at its discretion except for those children also adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated addicted, as a truant minor in need of supervision or as a minor requiring authoritative intervention, under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child shall be committed to the Department by any court without the approval of the Department. On and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-803) and before January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 16 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. On and after January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 15 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency. The Department shall assign a caseworker to attend any hearing involving a youth in the care and custody of the Department who is placed on aftercare release, including hearings involving sanctions for violation of aftercare release conditions and aftercare release revocation hearings.

As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-134), the Department shall develop and implement a special program of family preservation services to support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive developmental disorder if the Department determines that those services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the child. The Department may offer services to any family whether or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or family to services available from other agencies in the community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop and implement a public information campaign to alert health and social service providers and the general public about these special family preservation services. The nature and scope of the services offered and the number of families served under the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be determined by the level of funding that the Department annually allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition, including, but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism, as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association.

(l-1) The General Assembly recognizes that the best interests of the child require that the child be placed in the most permanent living arrangement as soon as is practically possible. To achieve this goal, the General Assembly directs the Department of Children and Family Services to conduct concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may include prevention of placement of a child outside the home of the family when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with the family, when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement is necessary; or movement of the child toward the most permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.

When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child, as described in this subsection, and in making such reasonable efforts, the child's health and safety shall be the paramount concern.

When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall ensure and document that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the need to remove the child from the child's home. The Department must make reasonable efforts to reunify the family when temporary placement of the child occurs unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. At any time after the dispositional hearing where the Department believes that further reunification services would be ineffective, it may request a finding from the court that reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The Department is not required to provide further reunification services after such a finding.

A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be made with considerations of the child's health, safety, and best interests. At the time of placement, consideration should also be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent planning for reunification and permanency. The Department shall consider the following factors when determining appropriateness of concurrent planning:

(1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;

(2) the past history of the family;

(3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by the family;

(4) the level of cooperation of the family;

(5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the family to reunite;

(6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to provide an adoptive home or long-term placement;

(7) the age of the child;

(8) placement of siblings.

(m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any child if:

(1) it has received a written consent to such temporary custody signed by the parents of the child or by the parent having custody of the child if the parents are not living together or by the guardian or custodian of the child if the child is not in the custody of either parent, or

(2) the child is found in the State and neither a parent, guardian nor custodian of the child can be located. If the child is found in the child's residence without a parent, guardian, custodian, or responsible caretaker, the Department may, instead of removing the child and assuming temporary custody, place an authorized representative of the Department in that residence until such time as a parent, guardian, or custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness and apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and resume permanent charge of the child, or until a relative enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's health and safety and assume charge of the child until a parent, guardian, or custodian enters the home and expresses such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and resume permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the home for a period not to exceed 12 hours, the Department must follow those procedures outlined in Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken into temporary custody pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited custody, the Department, during the period of temporary custody and before the child is brought before a judicial officer as required by Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have under subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall ensure that any child taken into custody is scheduled for an appointment for a medical examination.

A parent, guardian, or custodian of a child in the temporary custody of the Department who would have custody of the child if the child were not in the temporary custody of the Department may deliver to the Department a signed request that the Department surrender the temporary custody of the child. The Department may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after the receipt of the request, during which period the Department may cause to be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If a petition is so filed, the Department shall retain temporary custody of the child until the court orders otherwise. If a petition is not filed within the 10-day period, the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the requesting parent, guardian, or custodian not later than the expiration of the 10-day period, at which time the authority and duties of the Department with respect to the temporary custody of the child shall terminate.

(m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department that cares for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being after a determination is made by the facility director and the Director or the Director's designate prior to admission to the facility subject to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This subsection (m-1) does not apply to a child who is subject to placement in a correctional facility operated pursuant to Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the child is a youth in care who was placed in the care of the Department before being subject to placement in a correctional facility and a court of competent jurisdiction has ordered placement of the child in a secure care facility.

(n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the Department, appropriate services aimed at family preservation have been unsuccessful and cannot ensure the child's health and safety or are unavailable and such placement would be for their best interest. Payment for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of any child placed in a licensed child care facility may be made by the Department, by the parents or guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the Department and the parents or guardians, except that no payments shall be made by the Department for any child placed in a licensed child care facility for board, clothing, care, training, and supervision of such a child that exceed the average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring for a child in institutions for dependent or neglected children operated by the Department. However, such restriction on payments does not apply in cases where children require specialized care and treatment for problems of severe emotional disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or any combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement of such children are not available at payment rates within the limitations set forth in this Section. All reimbursements for services delivered shall be absolutely inalienable by assignment, sale, attachment, or garnishment or otherwise.

(n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed, provided that the minor consents to such services and has not yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have responsibility for the development and delivery of services under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under this Section through the Department of Children and Family Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services. Youth participating in services under this Section shall cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The Department shall continue child welfare services under this Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear, readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child welfare services under this Section and how such services may be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations describing services intended to assist minors in achieving sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults.

(o) The Department shall establish an administrative review and appeal process for children and families who request or receive child welfare services from the Department. Youth in care who are placed by private child welfare agencies, and foster families with whom those youth are placed, shall be afforded the same procedural and appeal rights as children and families in the case of placement by the Department, including the right to an initial review of a private agency decision by that agency. The Department shall ensure that any private child welfare agency, which accepts youth in care for placement, affords those rights to children and foster families. The Department shall accept for administrative review and an appeal hearing a complaint made by (i) a child or foster family concerning a decision following an initial review by a private child welfare agency or (ii) a prospective adoptive parent who alleges a violation of subsection (j-5) of this Section. An appeal of a decision concerning a change in the placement of a child shall be conducted in an expedited manner. A court determination that a current foster home placement is necessary and appropriate under Section 2-28 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 does not constitute a judicial determination on the merits of an administrative appeal, filed by a former foster parent, involving a change of placement decision.

(p) (Blank).

(q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety, for the benefit of children any gift, donation, or bequest of money or other property which is received on behalf of such children, or any financial benefits to which such children are or may become entitled while under the jurisdiction or care of the Department, except that the benefits described in Section 5.46 must be used and conserved consistent with the provisions under Section 5.46.

The Department shall set up and administer no-cost, interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial institutions for children for whom the Department is legally responsible and who have been determined eligible for Veterans' Benefits, Social Security benefits, assistance allotments from the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental voluntary payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous payments. Interest earned by each account shall be credited to the account, unless disbursed in accordance with this subsection.

In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the Department shall:

(1) Establish standards in accordance with State and federal laws for disbursing money from children's accounts. In all circumstances, the Department's Guardianship Administrator or the Guardianship Administrator's designee must approve disbursements from children's accounts. The Department shall be responsible for keeping complete records of all disbursements for each account for any purpose.

(2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from State funds for the child's board and care, medical care not covered under Medicaid, and social services; and utilize funds from the child's account, as covered by regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly, disbursements from all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of $13,000,000, shall be deposited by the Department into the General Revenue Fund and the balance over 1/12 of $13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing for the child's costs of care, as specified in item (2). The balance shall accumulate in accordance with relevant State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child or the child's guardian, or to the issuing agency.

(r) The Department shall promulgate regulations encouraging all adoption agencies to voluntarily forward to the Department or its agent names and addresses of all persons who have applied for and have been approved for adoption of a hard-to-place child or child with a disability and the names of such children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of such names and addresses shall be maintained by the Department or its agent, and coded lists which maintain the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child shall be made available, without charge, to every adoption agency in the State to assist the agencies in placing such children for adoption. The Department may delegate to an agent its duty to maintain and make available such lists. The Department shall ensure that such agent maintains the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child.

(s) The Department of Children and Family Services may establish and implement a program to reimburse Department and private child welfare agency foster parents licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services for damages sustained by the foster parents as a result of the malicious or negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions of foster children to other individuals. Such coverage will be secondary to the foster parent liability insurance policy, if applicable. The program shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund, specifically designated for such purposes.

(t) The Department shall perform home studies and investigations and shall exercise supervision over visitation as ordered by a court pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption Act only if:

(1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically directs the Department to perform such services; and

(2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its reasonable costs for providing such services in accordance with Department rules, or has determined that neither party is financially able to pay.

The Department shall provide written notification to the court of the specific arrangements for supervised visitation and projected monthly costs within 60 days of the court order. The Department shall send to the court information related to the costs incurred except in cases where the court has determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court may order additional periodic reports as appropriate.

(u) In addition to other information that must be provided, whenever the Department places a child with a prospective adoptive parent or parents, in a licensed foster home, group home, or child care institution, or in a relative home, the Department shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker:

(1) available detailed information concerning the child's educational and health history, copies of immunization records (including insurance and medical card information), a history of the child's previous placements, if any, and reasons for placement changes excluding any information that identifies or reveals the location of any previous caretaker;

(2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service plan, including any visitation arrangement, and all amendments or revisions to it as related to the child; and

(3) information containing details of the child's individualized educational plan when the child is receiving special education services.

The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or behavioral information (including, but not limited to, criminal background, fire setting, perpetuation of sexual abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to care for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of the information required by this paragraph, which may be provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency placement, casework staff shall at least provide known information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently provide the information in writing as required by this subsection.

The information described in this subsection shall be provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection of written information, the Department shall provide such information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall obtain from the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a signed verification of receipt of the information provided. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory level.

(u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements licensed as foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 shall be eligible to receive foster care payments from the Department. Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995, were approved pursuant to approved relative placement rules previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill. Adm. Code 335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster family home may continue to receive foster care payments only until the Department determines that they may be licensed as a foster family home or that their application for licensure is denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever occurs first.

(v) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Illinois State Police Law if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for interactive computerized communication and processing equipment that permits direct on-line communication with the Illinois State Police's central criminal history data repository. The Department shall comply with all certification requirements and provide certified operators who have been trained by personnel from the Illinois State Police. In addition, one Office of the Inspector General investigator shall have training in the use of the criminal history information access system and have access to the terminal. The Department of Children and Family Services and its employees shall abide by rules and regulations established by the Illinois State Police relating to the access and dissemination of this information.

(v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, or homicide, but not including other physical assault or battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within the past 5 years.

(v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for information concerning prospective foster and adoptive parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the Department shall request a check of that other state's child abuse and neglect registry.

(w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, a written plan for the development of in-state licensed secure child care facilities that care for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being. For purposes of this subsection, secure care facility shall mean a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building or a distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building. The plan shall include descriptions of the types of facilities that are needed in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care facilities; the estimated number of placements; the potential cost savings resulting from the movement of children currently out-of-state who are projected to be returned to Illinois; the necessary geographic distribution of these facilities in Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such facilities.

(x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history checks to determine the financial history of children placed under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting when a youth in care turns 12 years old and each year thereafter for the duration of the guardianship as terminated pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall determine if financial exploitation of the child's personal information has occurred. If financial exploitation appears to have taken place or is presently ongoing, the Department shall notify the proper law enforcement agency, the proper State's Attorney, or the Attorney General.

(y) Beginning on July 22, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1189), a child with a disability who receives residential and educational services from the Department shall be eligible to receive transition services in accordance with Article 14 of the School Code from the age of 14.5 through age 21, inclusive, notwithstanding the child's residential services arrangement. For purposes of this subsection, "child with a disability" means a child with a disability as defined by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004.

(z) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined as "background information" in this subsection and criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act for each Department employee or Department applicant. Each Department employee or Department applicant shall submit the employee's or applicant's fingerprints to the Illinois State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Illinois State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. The Illinois State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department of Children and Family Services.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Background information" means all of the following:

(i) Upon the request of the Department of Children and Family Services, conviction information obtained from the Illinois State Police as a result of a fingerprint-based criminal history records check of the Illinois criminal history records database and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records database concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(ii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Illinois State Police's Sex Offender Database, as authorized by Section 120 of the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(iii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System (CANTS) operated and maintained by the Department.

"Department employee" means a full-time or temporary employee coded or certified within the State of Illinois Personnel System.

"Department applicant" means an individual who has conditional Department full-time or part-time work, a contractor, an individual used to replace or supplement staff, an academic intern, a volunteer in Department offices or on Department contracts, a work-study student, an individual or entity licensed by the Department, or an unlicensed service provider who works as a condition of a contract or an agreement and whose work may bring the unlicensed service provider into contact with Department clients or client records.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1014, eff. 5-27-22; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-50, eff. 1-1-24; 103-546, eff. 8-11-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(20 ILCS 505/5d)

Sec. 5d. The Direct Child Welfare Service Employee License Board.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Board" means the Direct Child Welfare Service Employee License Board.

(2) "Director" means the Director of Children and Family Services.

(b) The Direct Child Welfare Service Employee License Board is created within the Department of Children and Family Services and shall consist of 9 members appointed by the Director. The Director shall annually designate a chairperson and vice-chairperson of the Board. The membership of the Board must be composed as follows: (i) 5 licensed professionals from the field of human services with a human services, juris doctor, medical, public administration, or other relevant human services degree and who are in good standing within their profession, at least 2 of which must be employed in the private not-for-profit sector and at least one of which in the public sector; (ii) 2 faculty members of an accredited university who have child welfare experience and are in good standing within their profession; and (iii) 2 members of the general public who are not licensed under this Act or a similar rule and will represent consumer interests.

In making the first appointments, the Director shall appoint 3 members to serve for a term of one year, 3 members to serve for a term of 2 years, and 3 members to serve for a term of 3 years, or until their successors are appointed and qualified. Their successors shall be appointed to serve 3-year terms, or until their successors are appointed and qualified. Appointments to fill unexpired vacancies shall be made in the same manner as original appointments. No member may be reappointed if a reappointment would cause that member to serve on the Board for longer than 6 consecutive years. Board membership must have reasonable representation from different geographic areas of Illinois, and all members must be residents of this State.

The Director may terminate the appointment of any member for good cause, including, but not limited to: (i) unjustified absences from Board meetings or other failure to meet Board responsibilities, (ii) failure to recuse oneself when required by subsection (c) of this Section or Department rule, or (iii) failure to maintain the professional position required by Department rule. No member of the Board may have a pending or indicated report of child abuse or neglect or a pending complaint or criminal conviction of any of the offenses set forth in paragraph (b) of Section 4.2 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

The members of the Board shall receive no compensation for the performance of their duties as members, but each member shall be reimbursed for the member's reasonable and necessary expenses incurred in attending the meetings of the Board.

(c) The Board shall make recommendations to the Director regarding licensure rules. Board members must recuse themselves from sitting on any matter involving an employee of a child welfare agency at which the Board member is an employee or contractual employee. The Board shall make a final determination concerning revocation, suspension, or reinstatement of an employee's direct child welfare service license after a hearing conducted under the Department's rules. Upon notification of the manner of the vote to all the members, votes on a final determination may be cast in person, by telephonic or electronic means, or by mail at the discretion of the chairperson. A simple majority of the members appointed and serving is required when Board members vote by mail or by telephonic or electronic means. A majority of the currently appointed and serving Board members constitutes a quorum. A majority of a quorum is required when a recommendation is voted on during a Board meeting. A vacancy in the membership of the Board shall not impair the right of a quorum to perform all the duties of the Board. Board members are not personally liable in any action based upon a disciplinary proceeding or otherwise for any action taken in good faith as a member of the Board.

(d) The Director may assign Department employees to provide staffing services to the Board. The Department must promulgate any rules necessary to implement and administer the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-45, eff. 1-1-22; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(20 ILCS 505/7.4)

Sec. 7.4. Development and preservation of sibling relationships for children in care; placement of siblings; contact among siblings placed apart.

(a) Purpose and policy. The General Assembly recognizes that sibling relationships are unique and essential for a person, but even more so for children who are removed from the care of their families and placed in the State child welfare system. When family separation occurs through State intervention, every effort must be made to preserve, support, and nurture sibling relationships when doing so is in the best interest of each sibling. It is in the interests of foster children who are part of a sibling group to enjoy contact with one another, as long as the contact is in each child's best interest. This is true both while the siblings are in State care and after one or all of the siblings leave State care through adoption, guardianship, or aging out.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

(1) Whenever a best interest determination is required by this Section, the Department shall consider the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the Department's rules regarding Sibling Placement, 89 Ill. Adm. Code 301.70, and Sibling Visitation, 89 Ill. Adm. Code 301.220, and the Department's rules regarding Placement Selection Criteria, 89 Ill. Adm. Code 301.60.

(2) "Adopted child" means a child who, immediately preceding the adoption, was in the custody or guardianship of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(3) "Adoptive parent" means a person who has become a parent through the legal process of adoption.

(4) "Child" means a person in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department who is under the age of 21.

(5) "Child placed in private guardianship" means a child who, immediately preceding the guardianship, was in the custody or guardianship of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(6) "Contact" may include, but is not limited to, visits, telephone calls, letters, sharing of photographs or information, e-mails, video conferencing, and other forms form of communication or contact.

(7) "Legal guardian" means a person who has become the legal guardian of a child who, immediately prior to the guardianship, was in the custody or guardianship of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(8) "Parent" means the child's mother or father who is named as the respondent in proceedings conducted under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(9) "Post Permanency Sibling Contact" means contact between siblings following the entry of a Judgment Order for Adoption under Section 14 of the Adoption Act regarding at least one sibling or an Order for Guardianship appointing a private guardian under Section 2-27 of or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, regarding at least one sibling. Post Permanency Sibling Contact may include, but is not limited to, visits, telephone calls, letters, sharing of photographs or information, emails, video conferencing, and other forms of communication or connection agreed to by the parties to a Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement.

(10) "Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement" means a written agreement between the adoptive parent or parents, the child, and the child's sibling regarding post permanency contact between the adopted child and the child's sibling, or a written agreement between the legal guardians, the child, and the child's sibling regarding post permanency contact between the child placed in guardianship and the child's sibling. The Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement may specify the nature and frequency of contact between the adopted child or child placed in guardianship and the child's sibling following the entry of the Judgment Order for Adoption or Order for Private Guardianship. The Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement may be supported by services as specified in this Section. The Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement is voluntary on the part of the parties to the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement and is not a requirement for finalization of the child's adoption or guardianship. The Post Permanency Sibling Contract Agreement shall not be enforceable in any court of law or administrative forum and no cause of action shall be brought to enforce the Agreement. When entered into, the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement shall be placed in the child's Post Adoption or Guardianship case record and in the case file of a sibling who is a party to the agreement and who remains in the Department's custody or guardianship.

(11) "Sibling Contact Support Plan" means a written document that sets forth the plan for future contact between siblings who are in the Department's care and custody and residing separately. The goal of the Support Plan is to develop or preserve and nurture the siblings' relationships. The Support Plan shall set forth the role of the foster parents, caregivers, and others in implementing the Support Plan. The Support Plan must meet the minimum standards regarding frequency of in-person visits provided for in Department rule.

(12) "Siblings" means children who share at least one parent in common. This definition of siblings applies solely for purposes of placement and contact under this Section. For purposes of this Section, children who share at least one parent in common continue to be siblings after their parent's parental rights are terminated, if parental rights were terminated while a petition under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 was pending. For purposes of this Section, children who share at least one parent in common continue to be siblings after a sibling is adopted or placed in private guardianship when the adopted child or child placed in private guardianship was in the Department's custody or guardianship under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 immediately prior to the adoption or private guardianship. For children who have been in the guardianship of the Department under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, have been adopted, and are subsequently returned to the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, "siblings" includes a person who would have been considered a sibling prior to the adoption and siblings through adoption.

(c) No later than January 1, 2013, the Department shall promulgate rules addressing the development and preservation of sibling relationships. The rules shall address, at a minimum:

(1) Recruitment, licensing, and support of foster parents willing and capable of either fostering sibling groups or supporting and being actively involved in planning and executing sibling contact for siblings placed apart. The rules shall address training for foster parents, licensing workers, placement workers, and others as deemed necessary.

(2) Placement selection for children who are separated from their siblings and how to best promote placements of children with foster parents or programs that can meet the children's needs, including the need to develop and maintain contact with siblings.

(3) State-supported guidance to siblings who have aged out of State state care regarding positive engagement with siblings.

(4) Implementation of Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreements for children exiting State care, including services offered by the Department to encourage and assist parties in developing agreements, services offered by the Department post permanency to support parties in implementing and maintaining agreements, and including services offered by the Department post permanency to assist parties in amending agreements as necessary to meet the needs of the children.

(5) Services offered by the Department for children who exited foster care prior to the availability of Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreements, to invite willing parties to participate in a facilitated discussion, including, but not limited to, a mediation or joint team decision-making meeting, to explore sibling contact.

(d) The Department shall develop a form to be provided to youth entering care and exiting care explaining their rights and responsibilities related to sibling visitation while in care and post permanency.

(e) Whenever a child enters care or requires a new placement, the Department shall consider the development and preservation of sibling relationships.

(1) This subsection applies when a child entering care or requiring a change of placement has siblings who are in the custody or guardianship of the Department. When a child enters care or requires a new placement, the Department shall examine its files and other available resources and determine whether a sibling of that child is in the custody or guardianship of the Department. If the Department determines that a sibling is in its custody or guardianship, the Department shall then determine whether it is in the best interests of each of the siblings for the child needing placement to be placed with the sibling. If the Department determines that it is in the best interest of each sibling to be placed together, and the sibling's foster parent is able and willing to care for the child needing placement, the Department shall place the child needing placement with the sibling. A determination that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling shall be made in accordance with Department rules, and documented in the file of each sibling.

(2) This subsection applies when a child who is entering care has siblings who have been adopted or placed in private guardianship. When a child enters care, the Department shall examine its files and other available resources, including consulting with the child's parents, to determine whether a sibling of the child was adopted or placed in private guardianship from State care. The Department shall determine, in consultation with the child's parents, whether it would be in the child's best interests to explore placement with the adopted sibling or sibling in guardianship. Unless the parent objects, if the Department determines it is in the child's best interest to explore the placement, the Department shall contact the adoptive parents or guardians of the sibling, determine whether they are willing to be considered as placement resources for the child, and, if so, determine whether it is in the best interests of the child to be placed in the home with the sibling. If the Department determines that it is in the child's best interests to be placed in the home with the sibling, and the sibling's adoptive parents or guardians are willing and capable, the Department shall make the placement. A determination that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling shall be made in accordance with Department rule, and documented in the child's file.

(3) This subsection applies when a child in Department custody or guardianship requires a change of placement, and the child has siblings who have been adopted or placed in private guardianship. When a child in care requires a new placement, the Department may consider placing the child with the adoptive parent or guardian of a sibling under the same procedures and standards set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(4) When the Department determines it is not in the best interest of one or more siblings to be placed together the Department shall ensure that the child requiring placement is placed in a home or program where the caregiver is willing and able to be actively involved in supporting the sibling relationship to the extent doing so is in the child's best interest.

(f) When siblings in care are placed in separate placements, the Department shall develop a Sibling Contact Support Plan. The Department shall convene a meeting to develop the Support Plan. The meeting shall include, at a minimum, the case managers for the siblings, the foster parents or other care providers if a child is in a non-foster home placement and the child, when developmentally and clinically appropriate. The Department shall make all reasonable efforts to promote the participation of the foster parents. Parents whose parental rights are intact shall be invited to the meeting. Others, such as therapists and mentors, shall be invited as appropriate. The Support Plan shall set forth future contact and visits between the siblings to develop or preserve, and nurture the siblings' relationships. The Support Plan shall set forth the role of the foster parents and caregivers and others in implementing the Support Plan. The Support Plan must meet the minimum standards regarding frequency of in-person visits provided for in Department rule. The Support Plan will be incorporated in the child's service plan and reviewed at each administrative case review. The Support Plan should be modified if one of the children moves to a new placement, or as necessary to meet the needs of the children. The Sibling Contact Support Plan for a child in care may include siblings who are not in the care of the Department, with the consent and participation of that child's parent or guardian.

(g) By January 1, 2013, the Department shall develop a registry so that placement information regarding adopted siblings and siblings in private guardianship is readily available to Department and private agency caseworkers responsible for placing children in the Department's care. When a child is adopted or placed in private guardianship from foster care the Department shall inform the adoptive parents or guardians that they may be contacted in the future regarding placement of or contact with siblings subsequently requiring placement.

(h) When a child is in need of an adoptive placement, the Department shall examine its files and other available resources and attempt to determine whether a sibling of the child has been adopted or placed in private guardianship after being in the Department's custody or guardianship. If the Department determines that a sibling of the child has been adopted or placed in private guardianship, the Department shall make a good faith effort to locate the adoptive parents or guardians of the sibling and inform them of the availability of the child for adoption. The Department may determine not to inform the adoptive parents or guardians of a sibling of a child that the child is available for adoption only for a reason permitted under criteria adopted by the Department by rule, and documented in the child's case file. If a child available for adoption has a sibling who has been adopted or placed in guardianship, and the adoptive parents or guardians of that sibling apply to adopt the child, the Department shall consider them as adoptive applicants for the adoption of the child. The Department's final decision as to whether it will consent to the adoptive parents or guardians of a sibling being the adoptive parents of the child shall be based upon the welfare and best interest of the child. In arriving at its decision, the Department shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited to:

(1) the wishes of the child;

(2) the interaction and interrelationship of the child with the applicant to adopt the child;

(3) the child's need for stability and continuity of relationship with parent figures;

(4) the child's adjustment to the child's present home, school, and community;

(5) the mental and physical health of all individuals involved;

(6) the family ties between the child and the child's relatives, including siblings;

(7) the background, age, and living arrangements of the applicant to adopt the child;

(8) a criminal background report of the applicant to adopt the child.

If placement of the child available for adoption with the adopted sibling or sibling in private guardianship is not feasible, but it is in the child's best interest to develop a relationship with the child's sibling, the Department shall invite the adoptive parents, guardian, or guardians for a mediation or joint team decision-making meeting to facilitate a discussion regarding future sibling contact.

(i) Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. When a child in the Department's care has a permanency goal of adoption or private guardianship, and the Department is preparing to finalize the adoption or guardianship, the Department shall convene a meeting with the pre-adoptive parent or prospective guardian and the case manager for the child being adopted or placed in guardianship and the foster parents and case managers for the child's siblings, and others as applicable. The children should participate as is developmentally appropriate. Others, such as therapists and mentors, may participate as appropriate. At the meeting the Department shall encourage the parties to discuss sibling contact post permanency. The Department may assist the parties in drafting a Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement.

(1) Parties to the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement shall include:

(A) The adoptive parent or parents or guardian.

(B) The child's sibling or siblings, parents, or guardians.

(C) The child.

(2) Consent of child 14 and over. The written consent of a child age 14 and over to the terms and conditions of the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement and subsequent modifications is required.

(3) In developing this Agreement, the Department shall encourage the parties to consider the following factors:

(A) the physical and emotional safety and welfare of the child;

(B) the child's wishes;

(C) the interaction and interrelationship of the child with the child's sibling or siblings who would be visiting or communicating with the child, including:

(i) the quality of the relationship between the child and the sibling or siblings, and

(ii) the benefits and potential harms to the child in allowing the relationship or relationships to continue or in ending them;

(D) the child's sense of attachments to the birth sibling or siblings and adoptive family, including:

(i) the child's sense of being valued;

(ii) the child's sense of familiarity; and

(iii) continuity of affection for the child; and

(E) other factors relevant to the best interest of the child.

(4) In considering the factors in paragraph (3) of this subsection, the Department shall encourage the parties to recognize the importance to a child of developing a relationship with siblings including siblings with whom the child does not yet have a relationship; and the value of preserving family ties between the child and the child's siblings, including:

(A) the child's need for stability and continuity of relationships with siblings, and

(B) the importance of sibling contact in the development of the child's identity.

(5) Modification or termination of Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. The parties to the agreement may modify or terminate the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. If the parties cannot agree to modification or termination, they may request the assistance of the Department of Children and Family Services or another agency identified and agreed upon by the parties to the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. Any and all terms may be modified by agreement of the parties. Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreements may also be modified to include contact with siblings whose whereabouts were unknown or who had not yet been born when the Judgment Order for Adoption or Order for Private Guardianship was entered.

(6) Adoptions and private guardianships finalized prior to August 24, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1076) amendatory Act. Nothing in this Section prohibits the parties from entering into a Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement if the adoption or private guardianship was finalized prior to the effective date of this Section. If the Agreement is completed and signed by the parties, the Department shall include the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement in the child's Post Adoption or Private Guardianship case record and in the case file of siblings who are parties to the agreement who are in the Department's custody or guardianship.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; revised 1-30-24.)

(20 ILCS 505/17) (from Ch. 23, par. 5017)

Sec. 17. Youth and Community Services Program. The Department of Human Services shall develop a State program for youth and community services which will assure that youth who come into contact or may come into contact with either the child welfare system or the juvenile justice system will have access to needed community, prevention, diversion, emergency, and independent living services. The term "youth" means a person under the age of 19 years. The term "homeless youth" means a youth who cannot be reunited with the youth's family and is not in a safe and stable living situation. This Section shall not be construed to require the Department of Human Services to provide services under this Section to any homeless youth who is at least 18 years of age but is younger than 19 years of age; however, the Department may, in its discretion, provide services under this Section to any such homeless youth.

(a) The goals of the program shall be to:

(1) maintain children and youths in their own community;

(2) eliminate unnecessary categorical funding of programs by funding more comprehensive and integrated programs;

(3) encourage local volunteers and voluntary associations in developing programs aimed at preventing and controlling juvenile delinquency;

(4) address voids in services and close service gaps;

(5) develop program models aimed at strengthening the relationships between youth and their families and aimed at developing healthy, independent lives for homeless youth;

(6) contain costs by redirecting funding to more comprehensive and integrated community-based services; and

(7) coordinate education, employment, training and other programs for youths with other State agencies.

(b) The duties of the Department under the program shall be to:

(1) design models for service delivery by local communities;

(2) test alternative systems for delivering youth services;

(3) develop standards necessary to achieve and maintain, on a statewide basis, more comprehensive and integrated community-based youth services;

(4) monitor and provide technical assistance to local boards and local service systems;

(5) assist local organizations in developing programs which address the problems of youths and their families through direct services, advocacy with institutions, and improvement of local conditions;

(6) (blank); and

(7) establish temporary emergency placements for youth in crisis as defined by the Children's Behavioral Health Transformation Team through comprehensive community-based youth services provider grants.

(A) Temporary emergency placements:

(i) must be licensed through the Department of Children and Family Services or, in the case of a foster home or host home, by the supervising child welfare agency;

(ii) must be strategically situated to meet regional need and minimize geographic disruption in consultation with the Children's Behavioral Health Transformation Officer and the Children's Behavioral Health Transformation Team; and

(iii) shall include Comprehensive Community-Based Youth Services program host homes, foster homes, homeless youth shelters, Department of Children and Family Services youth shelters, or other licensed placements for minor youth compliant with the Child Care Act of 1969 provided under the Comprehensive Community-Based Youth Services program.

(B) Beginning on August 11, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-546) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, once sufficient capacity has been developed, temporary emergency placements must also include temporary emergency placement shelters provided under the Comprehensive Community-Based Youth Services program. Temporary emergency placement shelters shall be managed by Comprehensive Community-Based Youth Services provider organizations and shall be available to house youth receiving interim 24/7 crisis intervention services as defined by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the Comprehensive Community-Based Youth Services program grant and the Department, and shall provide access to clinical supports for youth while staying at the shelter.

(C) Comprehensive Community-Based Youth Services organizations shall retain the sole authority to place youth in host homes and temporary emergency placement shelters provided under the Comprehensive Community-Based Youth Services program.

(D) Crisis youth, as defined by the Children's Behavioral Health Transformation Team, shall be prioritized in temporary emergency placements.

(E) Additional placement options may be authorized for crisis and non-crisis program youth with the permission of the youth's parent or legal guardian.

(F) While in a temporary emergency placement, the organization shall work with the parent, guardian, or custodian to effectuate the youth's return home or to an alternative long-term living arrangement. As necessary, the agency or association shall also work with the youth's local school district, the Department, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, and the Department of Juvenile Justice to identify immediate and long-term services, treatment, or placement.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed or applied in a manner that would conflict with, diminish, or infringe upon, any State agency's obligation to comply fully with requirements imposed under a court order or State or federal consent decree applicable to that agency.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-546, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-28-23.)

(20 ILCS 505/21)

Sec. 21. Investigative powers; training.

(a) To make such investigations as it may deem necessary to the performance of its duties.

(b) In the course of any such investigation any qualified person authorized by the Director may administer oaths and secure by its subpoena both the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of books and papers relevant to such investigation. Any person who is served with a subpoena by the Department to appear and testify or to produce books and papers, in the course of an investigation authorized by law, and who refuses or neglects to appear, or to testify, or to produce books and papers relevant to such investigation, as commanded in such subpoena, shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. The fees of witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the same as the fees of witnesses before the circuit courts of this State. Any circuit court of this State, upon application of the person requesting the hearing or the Department, may compel the attendance of witnesses, the production of books and papers, and giving of testimony before the Department or before any authorized officer or employee thereof, by an attachment for contempt or otherwise, in the same manner as production of evidence may be compelled before such court. Every person who, having taken an oath or made affirmation before the Department or any authorized officer or employee thereof, shall willfully swear or affirm falsely, shall be guilty of perjury and upon conviction shall be punished accordingly.

(c) Investigations initiated under this Section shall provide individuals due process of law, including the right to a hearing, to cross-examine witnesses, to obtain relevant documents, and to present evidence. Administrative findings shall be subject to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(d) Beginning July 1, 1988, any child protective investigator or supervisor or child welfare specialist or supervisor employed by the Department on January 1, 1988 (the effective date of Public Act 85-206) this amendatory Act of 1987 shall have completed a training program which shall be instituted by the Department. The training program shall include, but not be limited to, the following: (1) training in the detection of symptoms of child neglect and drug abuse; (2) specialized training for dealing with families and children of drug abusers; and (3) specific training in child development, family dynamics and interview techniques. Such program shall conform to the criteria and curriculum developed under Section 4 of the Child Protective Investigator and Child Welfare Specialist Certification Act of 1987. Failure to complete such training due to lack of opportunity provided by the Department shall in no way be grounds for any disciplinary or other action against an investigator or a specialist.

The Department shall develop a continuous inservice staff development program and evaluation system. Each child protective investigator and supervisor and child welfare specialist and supervisor shall participate in such program and evaluation and shall complete a minimum of 20 hours of inservice education and training every 2 years in order to maintain certification.

Any child protective investigator or child protective supervisor, or child welfare specialist or child welfare specialist supervisor hired by the Department who begins actual employment after January 1, 1988 (the effective date of Public Act 85-206) this amendatory Act of 1987, shall be certified pursuant to the Child Protective Investigator and Child Welfare Specialist Certification Act of 1987 before beginning such employment. Nothing in this Act shall replace or diminish the rights of employees under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, as amended, or the National Labor Relations Act. In the event of any conflict between either of those Acts, or any collective bargaining agreement negotiated thereunder, and the provisions of subsections (d) and (e), the former shall prevail and control.

(e) The Department shall develop and implement the following:

(1) A safety-based child welfare intervention system.

(2) Related training procedures.

(3) A standardized method for demonstration of proficiency in application of the safety-based child welfare intervention system.

(4) An evaluation of the reliability and validity of the safety-based child welfare intervention system. All child protective investigators and supervisors and child welfare specialists and supervisors employed by the Department or its contractors shall be required, subsequent to the availability of training under this Act, to demonstrate proficiency in application of the safety-based child welfare intervention system previous to being permitted to make safety decisions about the children for whom they are responsible. The Department shall establish a multi-disciplinary advisory committee appointed by the Director, including, but not limited to, representatives from the fields of child development, domestic violence, family systems, juvenile justice, law enforcement, health care, mental health, substance abuse, and social service to advise the Department and its related contractors in the development and implementation of the safety-based child welfare intervention system, related training, method for demonstration of proficiency in application of the safety-based child welfare intervention system, and evaluation of the reliability and validity of the safety-based child welfare intervention system. The Department shall develop the safety-based child welfare intervention system, training curriculum, method for demonstration of proficiency in application of the safety-based child welfare intervention system, and method for evaluation of the reliability and validity of the safety-based child welfare intervention system. Training and demonstration of proficiency in application of the safety-based child welfare intervention system for all child protective investigators and supervisors and child welfare specialists and supervisors shall be completed as soon as practicable. The Department shall submit to the General Assembly on or before December 31, 2026, and every year thereafter, an annual report on the evaluation of the reliability and validity of the safety-based child welfare intervention system. The Department shall contract with a not-for-profit not for profit organization with demonstrated expertise in the field of safety-based child welfare intervention to assist in the development and implementation of the safety-based child welfare intervention system, related training, method for demonstration of proficiency in application of the safety-based child welfare intervention system, and evaluation of the reliability and validity of the safety-based child welfare intervention system.

(f) The Department shall provide each parent or guardian and responsible adult caregiver participating in a safety plan a copy of the written safety plan as signed by each parent or guardian and responsible adult caregiver and by a representative of the Department. The Department shall also provide each parent or guardian and responsible adult caregiver safety plan information on their rights and responsibilities that shall include, but need not be limited to, information on how to obtain medical care, emergency phone numbers, and information on how to notify schools or day care providers as appropriate. The Department's representative shall ensure that the safety plan is reviewed and approved by the child protection supervisor.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-460, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-11-23.)

Section 75. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by renumbering Section 1105 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-1103)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2024)

Sec. 605-1103 1105. Power price mitigation assistance. Subject to appropriation from such funds made available, the Department shall reimburse up to $200,000,000 to an eligible electric utility serving adversely impacted residential and small commercial customers pursuant to Section 16-107.7 of the Public Utilities Act. This Section is repealed December 31, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 102-1123, eff. 1-27-23; revised 10-18-23.)

Section 80. The Illinois Enterprise Zone Act is amended by changing Section 5.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 655/5.5) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 609.1)

Sec. 5.5. High Impact Business.

(a) In order to respond to unique opportunities to assist in the encouragement, development, growth, and expansion of the private sector through large scale investment and development projects, the Department is authorized to receive and approve applications for the designation of "High Impact Businesses" in Illinois, for an initial term of 20 years with an option for renewal for a term not to exceed 20 years, subject to the following conditions:

(1) such applications may be submitted at any time during the year;

(2) such business is not located, at the time of designation, in an enterprise zone designated pursuant to this Act;

(3) the business intends to do, commits to do, or is one or more of the following:

(A) the business intends to make a minimum investment of $12,000,000 which will be placed in service in qualified property and intends to create 500 full-time equivalent jobs at a designated location in Illinois or intends to make a minimum investment of $30,000,000 which will be placed in service in qualified property and intends to retain 1,500 full-time retained jobs at a designated location in Illinois. The terms "placed in service" and "qualified property" have the same meanings as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(B) the business intends to establish a new electric generating facility at a designated location in Illinois. "New electric generating facility", for purposes of this Section, means a newly constructed electric generation plant or a newly constructed generation capacity expansion at an existing electric generation plant, including the transmission lines and associated equipment that transfers electricity from points of supply to points of delivery, and for which such new foundation construction commenced not sooner than July 1, 2001. Such facility shall be designed to provide baseload electric generation and shall operate on a continuous basis throughout the year; and (i) shall have an aggregate rated generating capacity of at least 1,000 megawatts for all new units at one site if it uses natural gas as its primary fuel and foundation construction of the facility is commenced on or before December 31, 2004, or shall have an aggregate rated generating capacity of at least 400 megawatts for all new units at one site if it uses coal or gases derived from coal as its primary fuel and shall support the creation of at least 150 new Illinois coal mining jobs, or (ii) shall be funded through a federal Department of Energy grant before December 31, 2010 and shall support the creation of Illinois coal mining coal-mining jobs, or (iii) shall use coal gasification or integrated gasification-combined cycle units that generate electricity or chemicals, or both, and shall support the creation of Illinois coal mining coal-mining jobs. The term "placed in service" has the same meaning as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(B-5) the business intends to establish a new gasification facility at a designated location in Illinois. As used in this Section, "new gasification facility" means a newly constructed coal gasification facility that generates chemical feedstocks or transportation fuels derived from coal (which may include, but are not limited to, methane, methanol, and nitrogen fertilizer), that supports the creation or retention of Illinois coal mining coal-mining jobs, and that qualifies for financial assistance from the Department before December 31, 2010. A new gasification facility does not include a pilot project located within Jefferson County or within a county adjacent to Jefferson County for synthetic natural gas from coal; or

(C) the business intends to establish production operations at a new coal mine, re-establish production operations at a closed coal mine, or expand production at an existing coal mine at a designated location in Illinois not sooner than July 1, 2001; provided that the production operations result in the creation of 150 new Illinois coal mining jobs as described in subdivision (a)(3)(B) of this Section, and further provided that the coal extracted from such mine is utilized as the predominant source for a new electric generating facility. The term "placed in service" has the same meaning as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(D) the business intends to construct new transmission facilities or upgrade existing transmission facilities at designated locations in Illinois, for which construction commenced not sooner than July 1, 2001. For the purposes of this Section, "transmission facilities" means transmission lines with a voltage rating of 115 kilovolts or above, including associated equipment, that transfer electricity from points of supply to points of delivery and that transmit a majority of the electricity generated by a new electric generating facility designated as a High Impact Business in accordance with this Section. The term "placed in service" has the same meaning as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(E) the business intends to establish a new wind power facility at a designated location in Illinois. For purposes of this Section, "new wind power facility" means a newly constructed electric generation facility, a newly constructed expansion of an existing electric generation facility, or the replacement of an existing electric generation facility, including the demolition and removal of an electric generation facility irrespective of whether it will be replaced, placed in service or replaced on or after July 1, 2009, that generates electricity using wind energy devices, and such facility shall be deemed to include any permanent structures associated with the electric generation facility and all associated transmission lines, substations, and other equipment related to the generation of electricity from wind energy devices. For purposes of this Section, "wind energy device" means any device, with a nameplate capacity of at least 0.5 megawatts, that is used in the process of converting kinetic energy from the wind to generate electricity; or

(E-5) the business intends to establish a new utility-scale solar facility at a designated location in Illinois. For purposes of this Section, "new utility-scale solar power facility" means a newly constructed electric generation facility, or a newly constructed expansion of an existing electric generation facility, placed in service on or after July 1, 2021, that (i) generates electricity using photovoltaic cells and (ii) has a nameplate capacity that is greater than 5,000 kilowatts, and such facility shall be deemed to include all associated transmission lines, substations, energy storage facilities, and other equipment related to the generation and storage of electricity from photovoltaic cells; or

(F) the business commits to (i) make a minimum investment of $500,000,000, which will be placed in service in a qualified property, (ii) create 125 full-time equivalent jobs at a designated location in Illinois, (iii) establish a fertilizer plant at a designated location in Illinois that complies with the set-back standards as described in Table 1: Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the 2012 Emergency Response Guidebook published by the United States Department of Transportation, (iv) pay a prevailing wage for employees at that location who are engaged in construction activities, and (v) secure an appropriate level of general liability insurance to protect against catastrophic failure of the fertilizer plant or any of its constituent systems; in addition, the business must agree to enter into a construction project labor agreement including provisions establishing wages, benefits, and other compensation for employees performing work under the project labor agreement at that location; for the purposes of this Section, "fertilizer plant" means a newly constructed or upgraded plant utilizing gas used in the production of anhydrous ammonia and downstream nitrogen fertilizer products for resale; for the purposes of this Section, "prevailing wage" means the hourly cash wages plus fringe benefits for training and apprenticeship programs approved by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, health and welfare, insurance, vacations and pensions paid generally, in the locality in which the work is being performed, to employees engaged in work of a similar character on public works; this paragraph (F) applies only to businesses that submit an application to the Department within 60 days after July 25, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-109); or

(G) the business intends to establish a new cultured cell material food production facility at a designated location in Illinois. As used in this paragraph (G):

"Cultured cell material food production facility" means a facility (i) at which cultured animal cell food is developed using animal cell culture technology, (ii) at which production processes occur that include the establishment of cell lines and cell banks, manufacturing controls, and all components and inputs, and (iii) that complies with all existing registrations, inspections, licensing, and approvals from all applicable and participating State and federal food agencies, including the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, and the United States Food and Drug Administration, to ensure that all food production is safe and lawful under provisions of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act related to the development, production, and storage of cultured animal cell food.

"New cultured cell material food production facility" means a newly constructed cultured cell material food production facility that is placed in service on or after June 7, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-9) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly or a newly constructed expansion of an existing cultured cell material food production facility, in a controlled environment, when the improvements are placed in service on or after June 7, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-9) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly; or and

(H) (G) the business is an existing or planned grocery store, as that term is defined in Section 5 of the Grocery Initiative Act, and receives financial support under that Act within the 10 years before submitting its application under this Act; and

(4) no later than 90 days after an application is submitted, the Department shall notify the applicant of the Department's determination of the qualification of the proposed High Impact Business under this Section.

(b) Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses pursuant to subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section shall qualify for the credits and exemptions described in the following Acts: Section 9-222 and Section 9-222.1A of the Public Utilities Act, subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, and Section 1d of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act; provided that these credits and exemptions described in these Acts shall not be authorized until the minimum investments set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section have been placed in service in qualified properties and, in the case of the exemptions described in the Public Utilities Act and Section 1d of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the minimum full-time equivalent jobs or full-time retained jobs set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section have been created or retained. Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses under this Section shall also qualify for the exemption described in Section 5l of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The credit provided in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act shall be applicable to investments in qualified property as set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section.

(b-5) Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses pursuant to subdivisions (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(B-5), (a)(3)(C), (a)(3)(D), and (a)(3)(G), and (a)(3)(H) of this Section shall qualify for the credits and exemptions described in the following Acts: Section 51 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9-222 and Section 9-222.1A of the Public Utilities Act, and subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; however, the credits and exemptions authorized under Section 9-222 and Section 9-222.1A of the Public Utilities Act, and subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act shall not be authorized until the new electric generating facility, the new gasification facility, the new transmission facility, the new, expanded, or reopened coal mine, or the new cultured cell material food production facility, or the existing or planned grocery store is operational, except that a new electric generating facility whose primary fuel source is natural gas is eligible only for the exemption under Section 5l of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(b-6) Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses pursuant to subdivision (a)(3)(E) or (a)(3)(E-5) of this Section shall qualify for the exemptions described in Section 5l of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act; any business so designated as a High Impact Business being, for purposes of this Section, a "Wind Energy Business".

(b-7) Beginning on January 1, 2021, businesses designated as High Impact Businesses by the Department shall qualify for the High Impact Business construction jobs credit under subsection (h-5) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act if the business meets the criteria set forth in subsection (i) of this Section. The total aggregate amount of credits awarded under the Blue Collar Jobs Act (Article 20 of Public Act 101-9) shall not exceed $20,000,000 in any State fiscal year.

(c) High Impact Businesses located in federally designated foreign trade zones or sub-zones are also eligible for additional credits, exemptions and deductions as described in the following Acts: Section 9-221 and Section 9-222.1 of the Public Utilities Act; and subsection (g) of Section 201, and Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(d) Except for businesses contemplated under subdivision (a)(3)(E), (a)(3)(E-5), or (a)(3)(G), or (a)(3)(H) of this Section, existing Illinois businesses which apply for designation as a High Impact Business must provide the Department with the prospective plan for which 1,500 full-time retained jobs would be eliminated in the event that the business is not designated.

(e) Except for new businesses contemplated under subdivision (a)(3)(E), or subdivision (a)(3)(G), or subdivision (a)(3)(H) of this Section, new proposed facilities which apply for designation as High Impact Business must provide the Department with proof of alternative non-Illinois sites which would receive the proposed investment and job creation in the event that the business is not designated as a High Impact Business.

(f) Except for businesses contemplated under subdivision (a)(3)(E), or subdivision (a)(3)(G), or subdivision (a)(3)(H) of this Section, in the event that a business is designated a High Impact Business and it is later determined after reasonable notice and an opportunity for a hearing as provided under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, that the business would have placed in service in qualified property the investments and created or retained the requisite number of jobs without the benefits of the High Impact Business designation, the Department shall be required to immediately revoke the designation and notify the Director of the Department of Revenue who shall begin proceedings to recover all wrongfully exempted State taxes with interest. The business shall also be ineligible for all State funded Department programs for a period of 10 years.

(g) The Department shall revoke a High Impact Business designation if the participating business fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the designation.

(h) Prior to designating a business, the Department shall provide the members of the General Assembly and Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability with a report setting forth the terms and conditions of the designation and guarantees that have been received by the Department in relation to the proposed business being designated.

(i) High Impact Business construction jobs credit. Beginning on January 1, 2021, a High Impact Business may receive a tax credit against the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act in an amount equal to 50% of the amount of the incremental income tax attributable to High Impact Business construction jobs credit employees employed in the course of completing a High Impact Business construction jobs project. However, the High Impact Business construction jobs credit may equal 75% of the amount of the incremental income tax attributable to High Impact Business construction jobs credit employees if the High Impact Business construction jobs credit project is located in an underserved area.

The Department shall certify to the Department of Revenue: (1) the identity of taxpayers that are eligible for the High Impact Business construction jobs credit; and (2) the amount of High Impact Business construction jobs credits that are claimed pursuant to subsection (h-5) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act in each taxable year. Any business entity that receives a High Impact Business construction jobs credit shall maintain a certified payroll pursuant to subsection (j) of this Section.

As used in this subsection (i):

"High Impact Business construction jobs credit" means an amount equal to 50% (or 75% if the High Impact Business construction project is located in an underserved area) of the incremental income tax attributable to High Impact Business construction job employees. The total aggregate amount of credits awarded under the Blue Collar Jobs Act (Article 20 of Public Act 101-9) shall not exceed $20,000,000 in any State fiscal year

"High Impact Business construction job employee" means a laborer or worker who is employed by an Illinois contractor or subcontractor in the actual construction work on the site of a High Impact Business construction job project.

"High Impact Business construction jobs project" means building a structure or building or making improvements of any kind to real property, undertaken and commissioned by a business that was designated as a High Impact Business by the Department. The term "High Impact Business construction jobs project" does not include the routine operation, routine repair, or routine maintenance of existing structures, buildings, or real property.

"Incremental income tax" means the total amount withheld during the taxable year from the compensation of High Impact Business construction job employees.

"Underserved area" means a geographic area that meets one or more of the following conditions:

(1) the area has a poverty rate of at least 20% according to the latest American Community Survey;

(2) 35% or more of the families with children in the area are living below 130% of the poverty line, according to the latest American Community Survey;

(3) at least 20% of the households in the area receive assistance under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP); or

(4) the area has an average unemployment rate, as determined by the Illinois Department of Employment Security, that is more than 120% of the national unemployment average, as determined by the U.S. Department of Labor, for a period of at least 2 consecutive calendar years preceding the date of the application.

(j) Each contractor and subcontractor who is engaged in and executing a High Impact Business construction Construction jobs project, as defined under subsection (i) of this Section, for a business that is entitled to a credit pursuant to subsection (i) of this Section shall:

(1) make and keep, for a period of 5 years from the date of the last payment made on or after June 5, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-9) on a contract or subcontract for a High Impact Business construction jobs project Construction Jobs Project, records for all laborers and other workers employed by the contractor or subcontractor on the project; the records shall include:

(A) the worker's name;

(B) the worker's address;

(C) the worker's telephone number, if available;

(D) the worker's social security number;

(E) the worker's classification or classifications;

(F) the worker's gross and net wages paid in each pay period;

(G) the worker's number of hours worked each day;

(H) the worker's starting and ending times of work each day;

(I) the worker's hourly wage rate;

(J) the worker's hourly overtime wage rate;

(K) the worker's race and ethnicity; and

(L) the worker's gender;

(2) no later than the 15th day of each calendar month, provide a certified payroll for the immediately preceding month to the taxpayer in charge of the High Impact Business construction jobs project; within 5 business days after receiving the certified payroll, the taxpayer shall file the certified payroll with the Department of Labor and the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity; a certified payroll must be filed for only those calendar months during which construction on a High Impact Business construction jobs project has occurred; the certified payroll shall consist of a complete copy of the records identified in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j), but may exclude the starting and ending times of work each day; the certified payroll shall be accompanied by a statement signed by the contractor or subcontractor or an officer, employee, or agent of the contractor or subcontractor which avers that:

(A) he or she has examined the certified payroll records required to be submitted by the Act and such records are true and accurate; and

(B) the contractor or subcontractor is aware that filing a certified payroll that he or she knows to be false is a Class A misdemeanor.

A general contractor is not prohibited from relying on a certified payroll of a lower-tier subcontractor, provided the general contractor does not knowingly rely upon a subcontractor's false certification.

Any contractor or subcontractor subject to this subsection, and any officer, employee, or agent of such contractor or subcontractor whose duty as an officer, employee, or agent it is to file a certified payroll under this subsection, who willfully fails to file such a certified payroll on or before the date such certified payroll is required by this paragraph to be filed and any person who willfully files a false certified payroll that is false as to any material fact is in violation of this Act and guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

The taxpayer in charge of the project shall keep the records submitted in accordance with this subsection on or after June 5, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-9) for a period of 5 years from the date of the last payment for work on a contract or subcontract for the High Impact Business construction jobs project.

The records submitted in accordance with this subsection shall be considered public records, except an employee's address, telephone number, and social security number, and made available in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act. The Department of Labor shall share the information with the Department in order to comply with the awarding of a High Impact Business construction jobs credit. A contractor, subcontractor, or public body may retain records required under this Section in paper or electronic format.

(k) Upon 7 business days' notice, each contractor and subcontractor shall make available for inspection and copying at a location within this State during reasonable hours, the records identified in this subsection (j) to the taxpayer in charge of the High Impact Business construction jobs project, its officers and agents, the Director of the Department of Labor and his or her deputies and agents, and to federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies and prosecutors.

(l) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 102-1125 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, other than the changes in subsection (a), apply to High Impact Businesses high impact businesses that submit applications on or after February 3, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1125) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-108, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-605, eff. 8-27-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; 102-673, eff. 11-30-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-561, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-27-23.)

Section 85. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Sections 10-75 and 80-45 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/10-75)

Sec. 10-75. Homelessness supports in Illinois.

(a) The Office to Prevent and End Homelessness (Office) is created within the Department of Human Services to facilitate the implementation of a strategic plan and initiatives aimed at decreasing homelessness and unnecessary institutionalization in Illinois, improving health and human services outcomes for people who experience homelessness, and strengthening the safety nets that contribute to housing stability. The Office shall be led by the State Homelessness Chief Officer who shall report to the Secretary of the Department. The Chief Officer shall also chair the Interagency Task Force on Homelessness, co-chair the Community Advisory Council on Homelessness, and lead the State's comprehensive efforts related to homelessness prevention. The Chief Officer shall serve as a policymaker and spokesperson on homelessness prevention, including coordinating the multi-agency effort through legislation, rules, and budgets and communicating with the General Assembly and federal and local leaders on these critical issues.

(b) The Interagency Task Force on Homelessness is created within the Department of Human Services to facilitate and implement initiatives related to decreasing homelessness and unnecessary institutionalization in this State, improve health and human services outcomes for people who experience homelessness, and strengthen the safety nets that contribute to housing stability. The Task Force shall:

(1) Implement the State Plan which is aimed at addressing homelessness and unnecessary institutionalization with the goals of achieving functional zero homelessness, improving health and human services outcomes for people experiencing homelessness, and strengthening the safety nets that contribute to housing stability.

(2) Recommend policy, regulatory, and resource changes necessary to accomplish goals and objectives laid out in the State Plan.

(3) Serve within State government and in the State at large as an advocate for people experiencing homelessness.

(4) Provide leadership for and collaborate with those developing and implementing local plans to end homelessness in Illinois, including, but not limited to, the Community Advisory Council and its members.

(5) Recommend the resources needed for successful implementation and oversee that implementation.

(6) Recommend and promote effective interagency collaboration and system integration to converge related efforts, including coordination with the Illinois Youth Homelessness Prevention Subcommittee, the Illinois Commission on the Elimination of Poverty, and the Illinois Commission to End Hunger on drafting policy recommendations related to the intersection of homelessness and poverty.

(7) Recommend needed policy, regulatory, and resource distribution changes; make oversight recommendations that will ensure accountability, results, and sustained success; and develop specific proposals and recommendations for action to provide to the Governor and the General Assembly.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Task Force may solicit feedback from stakeholders, customers, and advocates to inform Task Force recommendations as necessary.

(e) On or before December 1, 2024, and each year thereafter, the Task Force shall submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly regarding the Task Force's work during the year prior, any new recommendations developed by the Task Force, any recommendations made by the Community Advisory Council on Homelessness, and any key outcomes and measures related to homelessness.

(f) The Task Force shall include the following members appointed by the Governor:

(1) The Chief Homelessness Officer, who shall serve as Chair.

(2) The Secretary of Human Services, or his or her designee.

(3) The Executive Director of the Illinois Housing Development Authority, or his or her designee.

(4) The Director of Healthcare and Family Services, or his or her designee.

(5) The Superintendent of the State Board of Education, or his or her designee.

(6) The Executive Director of the Board of Higher Education, or his or her designee.

(7) The Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board, or his or her designee.

(8) The Director of Corrections, or his or her designee.

(9) The Director of Veterans' Affairs, or his or her designee.

(10) The Director of Children and Family Services, or his or her designee.

(11) The Director of Public Health, or his or her designee.

(12) The Director of Aging, or his or her designee.

(13) The Director of Juvenile Justice, or his or her designee.

(14) The Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or his or her designee.

(15) The Director of Employment Security, or his or her designee.

(16) The Director of the Illinois State Police, or his or her designee.

(17) The Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, or his or her designee.

(18) The Director of the Office of Management and Budget, or his or her designee.

(g) The Task Force shall also include the following members:

(1) One member appointed by the President of the Senate.

(2) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(3) One member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(4) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(h) The Chair of the Task Force may appoint additional representatives from State agencies as needed.

(i) The Task Force shall meet at the call of the chair, at least 4 times per year. Members shall serve without compensation.

(j) The Task Force may establish subcommittees to address specific issues or populations and may collaborate with individuals with relevant expertise who are not members of the Task Force to assist the subcommittee in carrying out its duties.

(k) The Department of Human Services shall provide administrative support to the Task Force.

(l) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to contravene any federal or State law or regulation. Unless specifically referenced in this Act, nothing in this Act shall affect or alter the existing statutory powers of any State agency or be construed as a reassignment or reorganization of any State agency.

(m) Community Advisory Council. The Community Advisory Council on Homelessness is created within the Department of Human Services to make recommendations to the Interagency Task Force on Homelessness regarding homelessness and unnecessary institutionalization with the goals of achieving functional zero homelessness, improving health and human services outcomes for people experiencing homelessness and strengthening the safety nets that contribute to housing stability.

(1) The Advisory Council shall be co-chaired by the Chief Homelessness Officer and a member of the Advisory Council designated by the Governor. The Advisory Council shall consist of all of the following members appointed by the Governor. Members appointed to the Advisory Council must reflect the racial, ethnic, and geographic diversity of this State. The Chief may include any State agency staff that they deem necessary as ex officio, nonvoting members of the Community Advisory Council.

(A) Three members with lived experience of homelessness or housing insecurity, which may include, but are not limited to, formerly incarcerated persons, veterans, and youth (16 to 25 years old).

(B) One member representing individuals with disabilities.

(C) Two members representing the philanthropic private funding sector.

(D) One member representing a statewide behavioral health advocacy organization.

(E) One member representing a statewide housing advocacy organization.

(F) At least 2 members representing local Continuums of Care.

(G) At least 3 members representing local units of government (municipal, county, or township).

(H) One member representing an organization that supports victims of domestic violence.

(I) A minimum of 4 members representing providers of the homeless response system inclusive of, but not limited to, emergency supportive housing, rapid rehousing, permanent supportive housing, homeless youth programs, and homeless prevention.

(J) Two members, who may or may not meet the qualification requirements for the other appointees.

The Advisory Council shall meet at least 4 times per year.

(2) Members shall serve without compensation, but public members may be reimbursed for reasonable and necessary travel expenses connected to Task Force business. Persons with lived experience of homelessness and housing insecurity, who are not otherwise compensated by employers to attend the Community Advisory Council, shall receive compensation for each quarterly Council meeting attended.

(3) The meetings of the Advisory Council shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of Section 2 of the Open Meetings Act. The Department of Human Services shall provide staff and administrative support to assist the Advisory Council in carrying out its duties.

(4) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to contravene any federal or State law or regulation. Unless specifically referenced in this Act, nothing in this Act shall affect or alter the existing statutory powers of any State agency or be construed as a reassignment or reorganization of any State agency.

(5) On or before November 15, 2023, and each year thereafter, the Advisory Council shall submit recommendations to the Interagency Task Force on Homelessness.

(Source: P.A. 103-269, eff. 7-26-23; revised 1-20-24.)

(20 ILCS 1305/80-45)

Sec. 80-45. Funding agent and administration.

(a) The Department shall act as funding agent under the terms of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act and shall administer other appropriations for the use of the Illinois Housing Development Authority.

(b) The Department may enter into contracts, intergovernmental agreements, grants, cooperative agreements, memoranda of understanding, or other instruments with any federal, State, or local government agency as necessary to fulfill its role as funding agent in compliance with State and federal law. The Department and the Department of Revenue shall coordinate, in consultation with the Illinois Housing Development Authority, the transition of the funding agent role, including the transfer of any and all books, records, or documents, in whatever form stored, necessary to the Department's execution of the duties of the funding agent, and the Department may submit to the Governor's Office of Management and Budget requests for exception pursuant to Section 55 of the Grant Accountability and Transparency Act. Notwithstanding Section 5 of the Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act, for State fiscal years 2023 and 2024 only, in order to accomplish the transition of the funding agent role to the Department, grant funds may be made available for expenditure by a grantee for a period of 3 years from the date the funds were distributed by the State.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 7-1-23; revised 9-25-23.)

Section 90. The Department of Innovation and Technology Act is amended by changing Section 1-80 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1370/1-80)

Sec. 1-80. Generative AI and Natural Language Processing Task Force.

(a) As used in this Section, "Task Force" means the Generative AI and Natural Language Processing Task Force established by this Section.

(b) The Department shall establish the Generative AI and Natural Language Processing Task Force. The Task Force shall investigate and provide a report on generative artificial intelligence software and natural language processing software.

(c) The Task Force shall be composed of all of the following members:

(1) One member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, who shall serve as a co-chairperson.

(2) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(3) One member appointed by the President of the Senate, who shall serve as a co-chairperson.

(4) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(5) The Secretary of the Department of Innovation and Technology or his or her designee.

(6) The State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee.

(7) The Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board or his or her designee.

(8) The Executive Director of the Board of Higher Education or his or her designee.

(9) Two teachers recommended by a statewide association representing teachers, appointed by the Governor.

(10) Two principals recommended by a statewide principals association, appointed by the Governor.

(11) Two experts on cybersecurity, appointed by the Governor.

(12) Two experts on artificial intelligence, appointed by the Governor.

(13) Two members of statewide business associations, appointed by the Governor.

(14) The Statewide Chief Information Security Officer or his or her designee.

(15) Two members of statewide labor associations, appointed by the Governor.

(16) The Attorney General or his or her designee.

(d) The Task Force shall hold at least 5 public meetings in a hybrid format, with both virtual and in-person options to attend. Of those required 5 meetings, one shall be held in each of the following locations:

(1) Chicago;

(2) Springfield;

(3) the Metro East region;

(4) the Quad Cities region; and

(5) Southern Illinois.

(e) The responsibilities of the Task Force shall include all of the following:

(1) recommending legislation or regulations to protect consumer information as it relates to generative artificial intelligence;

(2) recommending model policies for schools to address the use of generative artificial intelligence by students in the classroom;

(3) assessing the use of generative artificial intelligence to improve delivery of public services;

(4) (5) protecting civil rights and civil liberties of individuals and consumers as it relates to generative artificial intelligence;

(5) (6) assessing the use of generative artificial intelligence in the workforce and how this could affect employment levels, types of employment, and the deployment of workers;

(6) (7) assessing the challenges of generative artificial intelligence for cybersecurity; and

(7) (8) other topics related to generative artificial intelligence software and natural language processing software that may arise from testimony or reports to the Task Force submitted by its members or the public.

(f) The Department shall provide administrative and technical support to the Task Force.

(g) The Task Force shall file a report by December 31, 2024 with the Governor and the General Assembly covering the Task Force's investigation into generative artificial intelligence software and natural language processing software and the Task Force's responsibilities under subsection (e).

(Source: P.A. 103-451, eff. 8-4-23; revised 11-1-23.)

Section 95. The Department of Insurance Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1405-50 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1405/1405-50)

Sec. 1405-50. Marketplace Director of the Illinois Health Benefits Exchange. The Governor shall appoint, with the advice and consent of the Senate, a person within the Department of Insurance to serve as the Marketplace Director of the Illinois Health Benefits Exchange. The Governor may make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate. This person may be an existing employee with other duties. The Marketplace Director shall receive an annual salary as set by the Governor and shall be paid out of the appropriations to the Department. The Marketplace Director shall not be subject to the Personnel Code. The Marketplace Director, under the direction of the Director, shall manage the operations and staff of the Illinois Health Benefits Exchange to ensure optimal exchange performance.

(Source: P.A. 103-103, eff. 6-27-23.)

(20 ILCS 1405/1405-51)

Sec. 1405-51 1405-50. Health insurance coverage, affordability, and cost transparency annual report.

(a) On or before May 1, 2026, and each May 1 thereafter, the Department of Insurance shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly on health insurance coverage, affordability, and cost trends, including:

(1) medical cost trends by major service category, including prescription drugs;

(2) utilization patterns of services by major service categories;

(3) impact of benefit changes, including essential health benefits and non-essential health benefits;

(4) enrollment trends;

(5) demographic shifts;

(6) geographic factors and variations, including changes in provider availability;

(7) health care quality improvement initiatives;

(8) inflation and other factors impacting this State's economic condition;

(9) the availability of financial assistance and tax credits to pay for health insurance coverage for individuals and small businesses;

(10) trends in out-of-pocket costs for consumers; and

(11) factors contributing to costs that are not otherwise specified in paragraphs (1) through (10) of this subsection.

(b) This report shall not attribute any information or trend to a specific company and shall not disclose any information otherwise considered confidential or proprietary.

(Source: P.A. 103-106, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-19-23.)

Section 100. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2105-15 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2105-370 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-15)

Sec. 2105-15. General powers and duties.

(a) The Department has, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the following powers and duties:

(1) To authorize examinations in English to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants to exercise the profession, trade, or occupation for which the examination is held.

(2) To prescribe rules and regulations for a fair and wholly impartial method of examination of candidates to exercise the respective professions, trades, or occupations.

(3) To pass upon the qualifications of applicants for licenses, certificates, and authorities, whether by examination, by reciprocity, or by endorsement.

(4) To prescribe rules and regulations defining, for the respective professions, trades, and occupations, what shall constitute a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, and to determine the reputability and good standing of a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, by reference to a compliance with those rules and regulations; provided, that no school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution that refuses admittance to applicants solely on account of race, color, creed, sex, sexual orientation, or national origin shall be considered reputable and in good standing.

(5) To conduct hearings on proceedings to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to licenses, certificates, or authorities of persons exercising the respective professions, trades, or occupations and to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to those licenses, certificates, or authorities.

The Department shall issue a monthly disciplinary report.

The Department shall refuse to issue or renew a license to, or shall suspend or revoke a license of, any person who, after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or child support proceeding. However, the Department may issue a license or renewal upon compliance with the subpoena or warrant.

The Department, without further process or hearings, shall revoke, suspend, or deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to a person who is certified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as being more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order or who is certified by a court as being in violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act for more than 60 days. The Department may, however, issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or if the person is determined by the court to be in compliance with the Non-Support Punishment Act. The Department may implement this paragraph as added by Public Act 89-6 through the use of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of rules to implement this paragraph shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(6) To transfer jurisdiction of any realty under the control of the Department to any other department of the State Government or to acquire or accept federal lands when the transfer, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(7) To formulate rules and regulations necessary for the enforcement of any Act administered by the Department.

(8) To exchange with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall not be liable under any federal or State law to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this paragraph (8) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (8).

(8.3) To exchange information with the Department of Human Rights regarding recommendations received under paragraph (B) of Section 8-109 of the Illinois Human Rights Act regarding a licensee or candidate for licensure who has committed a civil rights violation that may lead to the refusal, suspension, or revocation of a license from the Department.

(8.5) To accept continuing education credit for mandated reporter training on how to recognize and report child abuse offered by the Department of Children and Family Services and completed by any person who holds a professional license issued by the Department and who is a mandated reporter under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this paragraph.

(9) To perform other duties prescribed by law.

(a-5) Except in cases involving delinquency in complying with a child support order or violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act and notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing Act or administrative rule, no person or entity whose license, certificate, or authority has been revoked as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department may apply for restoration of that license, certification, or authority until 3 years after the effective date of the revocation.

(b) (Blank).

(c) For the purpose of securing and preparing evidence, and for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities, recoupment of investigative costs, and other activities directed at suppressing the misuse and abuse of controlled substances, including those activities set forth in Sections 504 and 508 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Director and agents appointed and authorized by the Director may expend sums from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund that the Director deems necessary from the amounts appropriated for that purpose. Those sums may be advanced to the agent when the Director deems that procedure to be in the public interest. Sums for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities and other activities as set forth in this Section shall be advanced to the agent who is to make the purchase from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund on vouchers signed by the Director. The Director and those agents are authorized to maintain one or more commercial checking accounts with any State banking corporation or corporations organized under or subject to the Illinois Banking Act for the deposit and withdrawal of moneys to be used for the purposes set forth in this Section; provided, that no check may be written nor any withdrawal made from any such account except upon the written signatures of 2 persons designated by the Director to write those checks and make those withdrawals. Vouchers for those expenditures must be signed by the Director. All such expenditures shall be audited by the Director, and the audit shall be submitted to the Department of Central Management Services for approval.

(d) Whenever the Department is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Illinois State Police Law, the Illinois State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files that is necessary to fulfill the request.

(e) The provisions of this Section do not apply to private business and vocational schools as defined by Section 15 of the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(f-5) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall allow an applicant to provide his or her individual taxpayer identification number as an alternative to providing a social security number when applying for a license.

(g) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall deny any license application or renewal authorized under any licensing Act administered by the Department to any person who has failed to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirement of any such tax Act are satisfied; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue. For the purpose of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

In addition, a complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Department of Revenue that includes a certification, signed by its Director or designee, attesting to the amount of the unpaid tax liability or the years for which a return was not filed, or both, is prima facie evidence of the licensee's failure to comply with the tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order to the licensee's address of record or emailing a copy of the order to the licensee's email address of record. The notice shall advise the licensee that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the Department's order unless the Department receives, from the licensee, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Any suspension imposed under this subsection (g) shall be terminated by the Department upon notification from the Illinois Department of Revenue that the licensee is in compliance with all tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department may promulgate rules for the administration of this subsection (g).

(g-5) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall refuse the issuance or renewal of a license to, or suspend or revoke the license of, any individual, corporation, partnership, or other business entity that has been found by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance to have failed to (i) secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act, (ii) pay in full a fine or penalty imposed due to a failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act, or (iii) fulfill all obligations assumed pursuant to a settlement reached with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance relating to a failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act. No initial or renewal license shall be issued, and no suspended license shall be reinstated, until such time that the Department is notified by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance that the licensee's or applicant's failure to comply with subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act has been corrected or otherwise resolved to satisfaction of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance.

In addition, a complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance that includes a certification, signed by its Director or Chairman, or the Director or Chairman's designee, attesting to a finding of the failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act or the failure to pay any fines or penalties or to discharge any obligation under a settlement relating to the failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act is prima facie evidence of the licensee's or applicant's failure to comply with subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee or the processing of any application from the applicant. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order to the licensee's address of record or emailing a copy of the order to the licensee's email address of record. The notice shall advise the licensee that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the Department's order unless the Department receives from the licensee or applicant a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Any suspension imposed under this subsection shall be terminated by the Department upon notification from the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance that the licensee's or applicant's failure to comply with subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act has been corrected or otherwise resolved to the satisfaction of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Commissions or the Department of Insurance.

No license shall be suspended or revoked until after the licensee is afforded any due process protection guaranteed by statute or rule adopted by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance.

The Department may adopt rules for the administration of this subsection.

(h) The Department may grant the title "Retired", to be used immediately adjacent to the title of a profession regulated by the Department, to eligible retirees. For individuals licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the title "Retired" may be used in the profile required by the Patients' Right to Know Act. The use of the title "Retired" shall not constitute representation of current licensure, registration, or certification. Any person without an active license, registration, or certificate in a profession that requires licensure, registration, or certification shall not be permitted to practice that profession.

(i) The Department shall make available on its website general information explaining how the Department utilizes criminal history information in making licensure application decisions, including a list of enumerated offenses that serve as a statutory bar to licensure.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-26, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-368)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 2105-368 2105-370. Data on applications. In conjunction with applications for licensure, the Department shall request, and applicants may voluntarily provide, demographic information that includes sex, ethnicity, race, and disability. On or before March 1 of each calendar year, the Department shall publish a report on the Department's website that contains the demographic information it collected the preceding calendar year, the number of applications for licensure and renewal of licensure it received in the preceding calendar year, and the number of applicants who were denied licensure in the preceding calendar year regardless of whether application was made in that calendar year.

(Source: P.A. 103-522, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-25-23.)

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-370)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 2105-370. Continuing education; cultural competency.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Cultural competency" means a set of integrated attitudes, knowledge, and skills that enables a health care professional or organization to care effectively for patients from diverse cultures, groups, and communities.

"Health care professional" means a person licensed or registered by the Department under the following Acts: the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or the Behavior Analyst Licensing Act.

(b) For health care professional license or registration renewals occurring on or after January 1, 2025, a health care professional who has continuing education requirements must complete at least a one-hour course in training on cultural competency. A health care professional may count this one hour for completion of this course toward meeting the minimum credit hours required for continuing education.

(c) The Department may adopt rules for the implementation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-531, eff. 1-1-25.)

Section 105. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2310-130 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2310-720 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-130)

Sec. 2310-130. Long term care surveyors; surveyor development unit. Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Beginning July 1, 2011, the Department shall employ a minimum of one surveyor for every 500 licensed long term care beds. Beginning July 1, 2012, the Department shall employ a minimum of one surveyor for every 400 licensed long term care beds. Beginning July 1, 2013, the Department shall employ a minimum of one surveyor for every 300 licensed long term care beds.

The Department shall establish a surveyor development unit funded from money deposited in the Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-127, eff. 1-1-24; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; revised 12-12-23.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-720)

Sec. 2310-720. Pilot program with municipalities that employ a certified plumbing inspector. The Department shall create a pilot program to allow the Department to enter into an agreement with a municipality that employs a State of Illinois certified plumbing inspector to do inspections on behalf of the Department and submit appropriate documentation as requested to verify the inspections were completed to the standards required by the Department and outlined in the partnership.

(Source: P.A. 103-321, eff. 1-1-24.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-725)

Sec. 2310-725 2310-720. Public educational effort on mental health and wellness. Subject to appropriation, the Department shall undertake a public educational campaign to bring broad public awareness to communities across this State on the importance of mental health and wellness, including the expanded coverage of mental health treatment, and consistent with the recommendations of the Illinois Children's Mental Health Partnership's Children's Mental Health Plan of 2022 and Public Act 102-899. The Department shall look to other successful public educational campaigns to guide this effort, such as the public educational campaign related to Get Covered Illinois. Additionally, the Department shall work with the Department of Insurance, the Illinois State Board of Education, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Children and Family Services, and other State agencies as necessary to promote consistency in messaging and distribution methods between this campaign and other concurrent public educational campaigns related to mental health and mental wellness. Public messaging for this campaign shall be simple, be easy to understand, and include culturally competent messaging for different communities and regions throughout this State.

(Source: P.A. 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; revised 9-25-23.)

Section 110. The Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2605-52 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-52)

Sec. 2605-52. Division of Statewide 9-1-1.

(a) There shall be established an Office of the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator within the Division of Statewide 9-1-1. Beginning January 1, 2016, the Office of the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator shall be responsible for developing, implementing, and overseeing a uniform statewide 9-1-1 system for all areas of the State outside of municipalities having a population over 500,000.

(b) The Governor shall appoint, with the advice and consent of the Senate, a Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator. The Administrator shall serve for a term of 2 years, and until a successor is appointed and qualified; except that the term of the first 9-1-1 Administrator appointed under this Act shall expire on the third Monday in January, 2017. The Administrator shall not hold any other remunerative public office. The Administrator shall receive an annual salary as set by the Governor.

(c) The Illinois State Police, from appropriations made to it for that purpose, shall make grants to 9-1-1 Authorities for the purpose of defraying costs associated with 9-1-1 system consolidations awarded by the Administrator under Section 15.4b of the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(d) The Division of Statewide 9-1-1 shall exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested by law in the Illinois State Police by the Illinois State Police Radio Act and shall oversee the Illinois State Police radio network, including the Illinois State Police Emergency Radio Network and Illinois State Police's STARCOM21.

(e) The Division of Statewide 9-1-1 shall also conduct the following communication activities:

(1) Acquire and operate one or more radio broadcasting stations in the State to be used for police purposes.

(2) Operate a statewide communications network to gather and disseminate information for law enforcement agencies.

(3) Undertake other communication activities that may be required by law.

(4) Oversee Illinois State Police telecommunications.

(f) The Division of Statewide 9-1-1 shall oversee the Illinois State Police fleet operations.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-34, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 115. The Illinois State Police Act is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2610/16) (from Ch. 121, par. 307.16)

Sec. 16. State policemen shall enforce the provisions of the Illinois Vehicle Code, approved September 29, 1969, as amended, and Article 9 of the "Illinois Highway Code" as amended; and shall patrol the public highways and rural districts to make arrests for violations of the provisions of such Acts. They are conservators of the peace and as such have all powers possessed by policemen in cities, and sheriffs, except that they may exercise such powers anywhere in this State. The State policemen shall cooperate with the police of cities, villages, and incorporated towns, and with the police officers of any county, in enforcing the laws of the State and in making arrests and recovering property. They may be equipped with standardized and tested devices for weighing motor vehicles and may stop and weigh, acting reasonably, or cause to be weighed, any motor vehicle which appears to weigh in excess of the weight permitted by law. It shall also be the duty of the Illinois State Police to determine, whenever possible, the person or persons or the causes responsible for the breaking or destruction of any improved hard-surfaced roadway; and to arrest all persons criminally responsible for such breaking or destruction and bring them before the proper officer for trial. The Illinois State Police shall divide the State into zones, troops, or regions and assign each zone, troop, or region to one or more policemen. No person employed under this Act, however, shall serve or execute civil process, except for process issued under the authority of the General Assembly, or a committee or commission thereof vested with subpoena powers when the county sheriff refuses or fails to serve such process, and except for process allowed by statute or issued under the authority of the Illinois Department of Revenue.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; revised 9-25-23.)

Section 120. The Human Remains Protection Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3440/13) (from Ch. 127, par. 2673)

Sec. 13. Notification.

(a) If an undertaking will occur on property that the property owner has been notified in writing by the Department that the land is likely to contain human remains, unregistered graves, grave markers, or grave artifacts, a permit shall be obtained by the landowner from the Department.

(b) If human remains, unregistered graves, grave markers, or grave artifacts that were unknown and were encountered by any person, a permit shall be obtained from the Department before any work on the undertaking may continue.

(c) The Department of Natural Resources shall adopt administrative rules whereby permits shall be issued for the avoidance, disturbance, or removal of human remains, unregistered graves, grave markers, or grave artifacts, or a combination of those activities. The Department may adopt emergency rules in accordance with Sections 5-45 and 5-45.47 5-45.35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Sections 5-45 and 5-45.47 5-45.35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and this paragraph is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(d) Each permit shall specify all terms and conditions under which the avoidance, removal, or disturbance of human remains, grave artifacts, grave markers, or unregistered graves shall be carried out. All costs accrued in the removal of the aforementioned materials shall be borne by the permit applicant. Within 60 days of the completion of the undertaking, the permit holder shall submit a report, on a form provided by the Department, of the results to the Department.

(Source: P.A. 103-446, eff. 8-4-23; revised 10-5-23.)

Section 125. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by changing Section 1-56 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3855/1-56)

Sec. 1-56. Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund; Illinois Solar for All Program.

(a) The Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury.

(b) The Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall be administered by the Agency as described in this subsection (b), provided that the changes to this subsection (b) made by Public Act 99-906 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall not interfere with existing contracts under this Section.

(1) The Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall be used to purchase renewable energy credits according to any approved procurement plan developed by the Agency prior to June 1, 2017.

(2) The Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall also be used to create the Illinois Solar for All Program, which provides incentives for low-income distributed generation and community solar projects, and other associated approved expenditures. The objectives of the Illinois Solar for All Program are to bring photovoltaics to low-income communities in this State in a manner that maximizes the development of new photovoltaic generating facilities, to create a long-term, low-income solar marketplace throughout this State, to integrate, through interaction with stakeholders, with existing energy efficiency initiatives, and to minimize administrative costs. The Illinois Solar for All Program shall be implemented in a manner that seeks to minimize administrative costs, and maximize efficiencies and synergies available through coordination with similar initiatives, including the Adjustable Block program described in subparagraphs (K) through (M) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75, energy efficiency programs, job training programs, and community action agencies. The Agency shall strive to ensure that renewable energy credits procured through the Illinois Solar for All Program and each of its subprograms are purchased from projects across the breadth of low-income and environmental justice communities in Illinois, including both urban and rural communities, are not concentrated in a few communities, and do not exclude particular low-income or environmental justice communities. The Agency shall include a description of its proposed approach to the design, administration, implementation and evaluation of the Illinois Solar for All Program, as part of the long-term renewable resources procurement plan authorized by subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act, and the program shall be designed to grow the low-income solar market. The Agency or utility, as applicable, shall purchase renewable energy credits from the (i) photovoltaic distributed renewable energy generation projects and (ii) community solar projects that are procured under procurement processes authorized by the long-term renewable resources procurement plans approved by the Commission.

The Illinois Solar for All Program shall include the program offerings described in subparagraphs (A) through (E) of this paragraph (2), which the Agency shall implement through contracts with third-party providers and, subject to appropriation, pay the approximate amounts identified using monies available in the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund. Each contract that provides for the installation of solar facilities shall provide that the solar facilities will produce energy and economic benefits, at a level determined by the Agency to be reasonable, for the participating low-income low income customers. The monies available in the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund and not otherwise committed to contracts executed under subsection (i) of this Section, as well as, in the case of the programs described under subparagraphs (A) through (E) of this paragraph (2), funding authorized pursuant to subparagraph (O) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act, shall initially be allocated among the programs described in this paragraph (2), as follows: 35% of these funds shall be allocated to programs described in subparagraphs (A) and (E) of this paragraph (2), 40% of these funds shall be allocated to programs described in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (2), and 25% of these funds shall be allocated to programs described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (2). The allocation of funds among subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), and (E) of this paragraph (2) may be changed if the Agency, after receiving input through a stakeholder process, determines incentives in subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), or (E) of this paragraph (2) have not been adequately subscribed to fully utilize available Illinois Solar for All Program funds.

Contracts that will be paid with funds in the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall be executed by the Agency. Contracts that will be paid with funds collected by an electric utility shall be executed by the electric utility.

Contracts under the Illinois Solar for All Program shall include an approach, as set forth in the long-term renewable resources procurement plans, to ensure the wholesale market value of the energy is credited to participating low-income customers or organizations and to ensure tangible economic benefits flow directly to program participants, except in the case of low-income multi-family housing where the low-income customer does not directly pay for energy. Priority shall be given to projects that demonstrate meaningful involvement of low-income community members in designing the initial proposals. Acceptable proposals to implement projects must demonstrate the applicant's ability to conduct initial community outreach, education, and recruitment of low-income participants in the community. Projects must include job training opportunities if available, with the specific level of trainee usage to be determined through the Agency's long-term renewable resources procurement plan, and the Illinois Solar for All Program Administrator shall coordinate with the job training programs described in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 16-108.12 of the Public Utilities Act and in the Energy Transition Act.

The Agency shall make every effort to ensure that small and emerging businesses, particularly those located in low-income and environmental justice communities, are able to participate in the Illinois Solar for All Program. These efforts may include, but shall not be limited to, proactive support from the program administrator, different or preferred access to subprograms and administrator-identified customers or grassroots education provider-identified customers, and different incentive levels. The Agency shall report on progress and barriers to participation of small and emerging businesses in the Illinois Solar for All Program at least once a year. The report shall be made available on the Agency's website and, in years when the Agency is updating its long-term renewable resources procurement plan, included in that Plan.

(A) Low-income single-family and small multifamily solar incentive. This program will provide incentives to low-income customers, either directly or through solar providers, to increase the participation of low-income households in photovoltaic on-site distributed generation at residential buildings containing one to 4 units. Companies participating in this program that install solar panels shall commit to hiring job trainees for a portion of their low-income installations, and an administrator shall facilitate partnering the companies that install solar panels with entities that provide solar panel installation job training. It is a goal of this program that a minimum of 25% of the incentives for this program be allocated to projects located within environmental justice communities. Contracts entered into under this paragraph may be entered into with an entity that will develop and administer the program and shall also include contracts for renewable energy credits from the photovoltaic distributed generation that is the subject of the program, as set forth in the long-term renewable resources procurement plan. Additionally:

(i) The Agency shall reserve a portion of this program for projects that promote energy sovereignty through ownership of projects by low-income households, not-for-profit organizations providing services to low-income households, affordable housing owners, community cooperatives, or community-based limited liability companies providing services to low-income households. Projects that feature energy ownership should ensure that local people have control of the project and reap benefits from the project over and above energy bill savings. The Agency may consider the inclusion of projects that promote ownership over time or that involve partial project ownership by communities, as promoting energy sovereignty. Incentives for projects that promote energy sovereignty may be higher than incentives for equivalent projects that do not promote energy sovereignty under this same program.

(ii) Through its long-term renewable resources procurement plan, the Agency shall consider additional program and contract requirements to ensure faithful compliance by applicants benefiting from preferences for projects designated to promote energy sovereignty. The Agency shall make every effort to enable solar providers already participating in the Adjustable Block Program Block-Program under subparagraph (K) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act, and particularly solar providers developing projects under item (i) of subparagraph (K) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act to easily participate in the Low-Income Distributed Generation Incentive program described under this subparagraph (A), and vice versa. This effort may include, but shall not be limited to, utilizing similar or the same application systems and processes, similar or the same forms and formats of communication, and providing active outreach to companies participating in one program but not the other. The Agency shall report on efforts made to encourage this cross-participation in its long-term renewable resources procurement plan.

(B) Low-Income Community Solar Project Initiative. Incentives shall be offered to low-income customers, either directly or through developers, to increase the participation of low-income subscribers of community solar projects. The developer of each project shall identify its partnership with community stakeholders regarding the location, development, and participation in the project, provided that nothing shall preclude a project from including an anchor tenant that does not qualify as low-income. Companies participating in this program that develop or install solar projects shall commit to hiring job trainees for a portion of their low-income installations, and an administrator shall facilitate partnering the companies that install solar projects with entities that provide solar installation and related job training. It is a goal of this program that a minimum of 25% of the incentives for this program be allocated to community photovoltaic projects in environmental justice communities. The Agency shall reserve a portion of this program for projects that promote energy sovereignty through ownership of projects by low-income households, not-for-profit organizations providing services to low-income households, affordable housing owners, or community-based limited liability companies providing services to low-income households. Projects that feature energy ownership should ensure that local people have control of the project and reap benefits from the project over and above energy bill savings. The Agency may consider the inclusion of projects that promote ownership over time or that involve partial project ownership by communities, as promoting energy sovereignty. Incentives for projects that promote energy sovereignty may be higher than incentives for equivalent projects that do not promote energy sovereignty under this same program. Contracts entered into under this paragraph may be entered into with developers and shall also include contracts for renewable energy credits related to the program.

(C) Incentives for non-profits and public facilities. Under this program funds shall be used to support on-site photovoltaic distributed renewable energy generation devices to serve the load associated with not-for-profit customers and to support photovoltaic distributed renewable energy generation that uses photovoltaic technology to serve the load associated with public sector customers taking service at public buildings. Companies participating in this program that develop or install solar projects shall commit to hiring job trainees for a portion of their low-income installations, and an administrator shall facilitate partnering the companies that install solar projects with entities that provide solar installation and related job training. Through its long-term renewable resources procurement plan, the Agency shall consider additional program and contract requirements to ensure faithful compliance by applicants benefiting from preferences for projects designated to promote energy sovereignty. It is a goal of this program that at least 25% of the incentives for this program be allocated to projects located in environmental justice communities. Contracts entered into under this paragraph may be entered into with an entity that will develop and administer the program or with developers and shall also include contracts for renewable energy credits related to the program.

(D) (Blank).

(E) Low-income large multifamily solar incentive. This program shall provide incentives to low-income customers, either directly or through solar providers, to increase the participation of low-income households in photovoltaic on-site distributed generation at residential buildings with 5 or more units. Companies participating in this program that develop or install solar projects shall commit to hiring job trainees for a portion of their low-income installations, and an administrator shall facilitate partnering the companies that install solar projects with entities that provide solar installation and related job training. It is a goal of this program that a minimum of 25% of the incentives for this program be allocated to projects located within environmental justice communities. The Agency shall reserve a portion of this program for projects that promote energy sovereignty through ownership of projects by low-income households, not-for-profit organizations providing services to low-income households, affordable housing owners, or community-based limited liability companies providing services to low-income households. Projects that feature energy ownership should ensure that local people have control of the project and reap benefits from the project over and above energy bill savings. The Agency may consider the inclusion of projects that promote ownership over time or that involve partial project ownership by communities, as promoting energy sovereignty. Incentives for projects that promote energy sovereignty may be higher than incentives for equivalent projects that do not promote energy sovereignty under this same program.

The requirement that a qualified person, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (i) of this Section, install photovoltaic devices does not apply to the Illinois Solar for All Program described in this subsection (b).

In addition to the programs outlined in paragraphs (A) through (E), the Agency and other parties may propose additional programs through the Long-Term Renewable Resources Procurement Plan developed and approved under paragraph (5) of subsection (b) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. Additional programs may target market segments not specified above and may also include incentives targeted to increase the uptake of nonphotovoltaic technologies by low-income customers, including energy storage paired with photovoltaics, if the Commission determines that the Illinois Solar for All Program would provide greater benefits to the public health and well-being of low-income residents through also supporting that additional program versus supporting programs already authorized.

(3) Costs associated with the Illinois Solar for All Program and its components described in paragraph (2) of this subsection (b), including, but not limited to, costs associated with procuring experts, consultants, and the program administrator referenced in this subsection (b) and related incremental costs, costs related to income verification and facilitating customer participation in the program, and costs related to the evaluation of the Illinois Solar for All Program, may be paid for using monies in the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund, and funds allocated pursuant to subparagraph (O) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75, but the Agency or program administrator shall strive to minimize costs in the implementation of the program. The Agency or contracting electric utility shall purchase renewable energy credits from generation that is the subject of a contract under subparagraphs (A) through (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b), and may pay for such renewable energy credits through an upfront payment per installed kilowatt of nameplate capacity paid once the device is interconnected at the distribution system level of the interconnecting utility and verified as energized. Payments for renewable energy credits shall be in exchange for all renewable energy credits generated by the system during the first 15 years of operation and shall be structured to overcome barriers to participation in the solar market by the low-income community. The incentives provided for in this Section may be implemented through the pricing of renewable energy credits where the prices paid for the credits are higher than the prices from programs offered under subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act to account for the additional capital necessary to successfully access targeted market segments. The Agency or contracting electric utility shall retire any renewable energy credits purchased under this program and the credits shall count toward towards the obligation under subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act for the electric utility to which the project is interconnected, if applicable.

The Agency shall direct that up to 5% of the funds available under the Illinois Solar for All Program to community-based groups and other qualifying organizations to assist in community-driven education efforts related to the Illinois Solar for All Program, including general energy education, job training program outreach efforts, and other activities deemed to be qualified by the Agency. Grassroots education funding shall not be used to support the marketing by solar project development firms and organizations, unless such education provides equal opportunities for all applicable firms and organizations.

(4) The Agency shall, consistent with the requirements of this subsection (b), propose the Illinois Solar for All Program terms, conditions, and requirements, including the prices to be paid for renewable energy credits, and which prices may be determined through a formula, through the development, review, and approval of the Agency's long-term renewable resources procurement plan described in subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. In the course of the Commission proceeding initiated to review and approve the plan, including the Illinois Solar for All Program proposed by the Agency, a party may propose an additional low-income solar or solar incentive program, or modifications to the programs proposed by the Agency, and the Commission may approve an additional program, or modifications to the Agency's proposed program, if the additional or modified program more effectively maximizes the benefits to low-income customers after taking into account all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the extent to which a competitive market for low-income solar has developed. Following the Commission's approval of the Illinois Solar for All Program, the Agency or a party may propose adjustments to the program terms, conditions, and requirements, including the price offered to new systems, to ensure the long-term viability and success of the program. The Commission shall review and approve any modifications to the program through the plan revision process described in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(5) The Agency shall issue a request for qualifications for a third-party program administrator or administrators to administer all or a portion of the Illinois Solar for All Program. The third-party program administrator shall be chosen through a competitive bid process based on selection criteria and requirements developed by the Agency, including, but not limited to, experience in administering low-income energy programs and overseeing statewide clean energy or energy efficiency services. If the Agency retains a program administrator or administrators to implement all or a portion of the Illinois Solar for All Program, each administrator shall periodically submit reports to the Agency and Commission for each program that it administers, at appropriate intervals to be identified by the Agency in its long-term renewable resources procurement plan, provided that the reporting interval is at least quarterly. The third-party program administrator may be, but need not be, the same administrator as for the Adjustable Block program described in subparagraphs (K) through (M) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75. The Agency, through its long-term renewable resources procurement plan approval process, shall also determine if individual subprograms of the Illinois Solar for All Program are better served by a different or separate Program Administrator.

The third-party administrator's responsibilities shall also include facilitating placement for graduates of Illinois-based renewable energy-specific job training programs, including the Clean Jobs Workforce Network Program and the Illinois Climate Works Preapprenticeship Program administered by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and programs administered under Section 16-108.12 of the Public Utilities Act. To increase the uptake of trainees by participating firms, the administrator shall also develop a web-based clearinghouse for information available to both job training program graduates and firms participating, directly or indirectly, in Illinois solar incentive programs. The program administrator shall also coordinate its activities with entities implementing electric and natural gas income-qualified energy efficiency programs, including customer referrals to and from such programs, and connect prospective low-income solar customers with any existing deferred maintenance programs where applicable.

(6) The long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall also provide for an independent evaluation of the Illinois Solar for All Program. At least every 2 years, the Agency shall select an independent evaluator to review and report on the Illinois Solar for All Program and the performance of the third-party program administrator of the Illinois Solar for All Program. The evaluation shall be based on objective criteria developed through a public stakeholder process. The process shall include feedback and participation from Illinois Solar for All Program stakeholders, including participants and organizations in environmental justice and historically underserved communities. The report shall include a summary of the evaluation of the Illinois Solar for All Program based on the stakeholder developed objective criteria. The report shall include the number of projects installed; the total installed capacity in kilowatts; the average cost per kilowatt of installed capacity to the extent reasonably obtainable by the Agency; the number of jobs or job opportunities created; economic, social, and environmental benefits created; and the total administrative costs expended by the Agency and program administrator to implement and evaluate the program. The report shall be delivered to the Commission and posted on the Agency's website, and shall be used, as needed, to revise the Illinois Solar for All Program. The Commission shall also consider the results of the evaluation as part of its review of the long-term renewable resources procurement plan under subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act.

(7) If additional funding for the programs described in this subsection (b) is available under subsection (k) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act, then the Agency shall submit a procurement plan to the Commission no later than September 1, 2018, that proposes how the Agency will procure programs on behalf of the applicable utility. After notice and hearing, the Commission shall approve, or approve with modification, the plan no later than November 1, 2018.

(8) As part of the development and update of the long-term renewable resources procurement plan authorized by subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act, the Agency shall plan for: (A) actions to refer customers from the Illinois Solar for All Program to electric and natural gas income-qualified energy efficiency programs, and vice versa, with the goal of increasing participation in both of these programs; (B) effective procedures for data sharing, as needed, to effectuate referrals between the Illinois Solar for All Program and both electric and natural gas income-qualified energy efficiency programs, including sharing customer information directly with the utilities, as needed and appropriate; and (C) efforts to identify any existing deferred maintenance programs for which prospective Solar for All Program customers may be eligible and connect prospective customers for whom deferred maintenance is or may be a barrier to solar installation to those programs.

As used in this subsection (b), "low-income households" means persons and families whose income does not exceed 80% of area median income, adjusted for family size and revised every 5 years.

For the purposes of this subsection (b), the Agency shall define "environmental justice community" based on the methodologies and findings established by the Agency and the Administrator for the Illinois Solar for All Program in its initial long-term renewable resources procurement plan and as updated by the Agency and the Administrator for the Illinois Solar for All Program as part of the long-term renewable resources procurement plan update.

(b-5) After the receipt of all payments required by Section 16-115D of the Public Utilities Act, no additional funds shall be deposited into the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund unless directed by order of the Commission.

(b-10) After the receipt of all payments required by Section 16-115D of the Public Utilities Act and payment in full of all contracts executed by the Agency under subsections (b) and (i) of this Section, if the balance of the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund is under $5,000, then the Fund shall be inoperative and any remaining funds and any funds submitted to the Fund after that date, shall be transferred to the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund for use in the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Program, as authorized by the Energy Assistance Act.

(b-15) The prevailing wage requirements set forth in the Prevailing Wage Act apply to each project that is undertaken pursuant to one or more of the programs of incentives and initiatives described in subsection (b) of this Section and for which a project application is submitted to the program after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, except (i) projects that serve single-family or multi-family residential buildings and (ii) projects with an aggregate capacity of less than 100 kilowatts that serve houses of worship. The Agency shall require verification that all construction performed on a project by the renewable energy credit delivery contract holder, its contractors, or its subcontractors relating to the construction of the facility is performed by workers receiving an amount for that work that is greater than or equal to the general prevailing rate of wages as that term is defined in the Prevailing Wage Act, and the Agency may adjust renewable energy credit prices to account for increased labor costs.

In this subsection (b-15), "house of worship" has the meaning given in subparagraph (Q) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75.

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) All renewable energy credits procured using monies from the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall be permanently retired.

(f) The selection of one or more third-party program managers or administrators, the selection of the independent evaluator, and the procurement processes described in this Section are exempt from the requirements of the Illinois Procurement Code, under Section 20-10 of that Code.

(g) All disbursements from the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall be made only upon warrants of the Comptroller drawn upon the Treasurer as custodian of the Fund upon vouchers signed by the Director or by the person or persons designated by the Director for that purpose. The Comptroller is authorized to draw the warrant upon vouchers so signed. The Treasurer shall accept all warrants so signed and shall be released from liability for all payments made on those warrants.

(h) The Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall not be subject to sweeps, administrative charges, or chargebacks, including, but not limited to, those authorized under Section 8h of the State Finance Act, that would in any way result in the transfer of any funds from this Fund to any other fund of this State or in having any such funds utilized for any purpose other than the express purposes set forth in this Section.

(h-5) The Agency may assess fees to each bidder to recover the costs incurred in connection with a procurement process held under this Section. Fees collected from bidders shall be deposited into the Renewable Energy Resources Fund.

(i) Supplemental procurement process.

(1) Within 90 days after June 30, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-672) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the Agency shall develop a one-time supplemental procurement plan limited to the procurement of renewable energy credits, if available, from new or existing photovoltaics, including, but not limited to, distributed photovoltaic generation. Nothing in this subsection (i) requires procurement of wind generation through the supplemental procurement.

Renewable energy credits procured from new photovoltaics, including, but not limited to, distributed photovoltaic generation, under this subsection (i) must be procured from devices installed by a qualified person. In its supplemental procurement plan, the Agency shall establish contractually enforceable mechanisms for ensuring that the installation of new photovoltaics is performed by a qualified person.

For the purposes of this paragraph (1), "qualified person" means a person who performs installations of photovoltaics, including, but not limited to, distributed photovoltaic generation, and who: (A) has completed an apprenticeship as a journeyman electrician from a United States Department of Labor registered electrical apprenticeship and training program and received a certification of satisfactory completion; or (B) does not currently meet the criteria under clause (A) of this paragraph (1), but is enrolled in a United States Department of Labor registered electrical apprenticeship program, provided that the person is directly supervised by a person who meets the criteria under clause (A) of this paragraph (1); or (C) has obtained one of the following credentials in addition to attesting to satisfactory completion of at least 5 years or 8,000 hours of documented hands-on electrical experience: (i) a North American Board of Certified Energy Practitioners (NABCEP) Installer Certificate for Solar PV; (ii) an Underwriters Laboratories (UL) PV Systems Installer Certificate; (iii) an Electronics Technicians Association, International (ETAI) Level 3 PV Installer Certificate; or (iv) an Associate in Applied Science degree from an Illinois Community College Board approved community college program in renewable energy or a distributed generation technology.

For the purposes of this paragraph (1), "directly supervised" means that there is a qualified person who meets the qualifications under clause (A) of this paragraph (1) and who is available for supervision and consultation regarding the work performed by persons under clause (B) of this paragraph (1), including a final inspection of the installation work that has been directly supervised to ensure safety and conformity with applicable codes.

For the purposes of this paragraph (1), "install" means the major activities and actions required to connect, in accordance with applicable building and electrical codes, the conductors, connectors, and all associated fittings, devices, power outlets, or apparatuses mounted at the premises that are directly involved in delivering energy to the premises' electrical wiring from the photovoltaics, including, but not limited to, to distributed photovoltaic generation.

The renewable energy credits procured pursuant to the supplemental procurement plan shall be procured using up to $30,000,000 from the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund. The Agency shall not plan to use funds from the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund in excess of the monies on deposit in such fund or projected to be deposited into such fund. The supplemental procurement plan shall ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable renewable energy resources (including credits) at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability.

To the extent available, 50% of the renewable energy credits procured from distributed renewable energy generation shall come from devices of less than 25 kilowatts in nameplate capacity. Procurement of renewable energy credits from distributed renewable energy generation devices shall be done through multi-year contracts of no less than 5 years. The Agency shall create credit requirements for counterparties. In order to minimize the administrative burden on contracting entities, the Agency shall solicit the use of third parties to aggregate distributed renewable energy. These third parties shall enter into and administer contracts with individual distributed renewable energy generation device owners. An individual distributed renewable energy generation device owner shall have the ability to measure the output of his or her distributed renewable energy generation device.

In developing the supplemental procurement plan, the Agency shall hold at least one workshop open to the public within 90 days after June 30, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-672) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and shall consider any comments made by stakeholders or the public. Upon development of the supplemental procurement plan within this 90-day period, copies of the supplemental procurement plan shall be posted and made publicly available on the Agency's and Commission's websites. All interested parties shall have 14 days following the date of posting to provide comment to the Agency on the supplemental procurement plan. All comments submitted to the Agency shall be specific, supported by data or other detailed analyses, and, if objecting to all or a portion of the supplemental procurement plan, accompanied by specific alternative wording or proposals. All comments shall be posted on the Agency's and Commission's websites. Within 14 days following the end of the 14-day review period, the Agency shall revise the supplemental procurement plan as necessary based on the comments received and file its revised supplemental procurement plan with the Commission for approval.

(2) Within 5 days after the filing of the supplemental procurement plan at the Commission, any person objecting to the supplemental procurement plan shall file an objection with the Commission. Within 10 days after the filing, the Commission shall determine whether a hearing is necessary. The Commission shall enter its order confirming or modifying the supplemental procurement plan within 90 days after the filing of the supplemental procurement plan by the Agency.

(3) The Commission shall approve the supplemental procurement plan of renewable energy credits to be procured from new or existing photovoltaics, including, but not limited to, distributed photovoltaic generation, if the Commission determines that it will ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service in the form of renewable energy credits at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability.

(4) The supplemental procurement process under this subsection (i) shall include each of the following components:

(A) Procurement administrator. The Agency may retain a procurement administrator in the manner set forth in item (2) of subsection (a) of Section 1-75 of this Act to conduct the supplemental procurement or may elect to use the same procurement administrator administering the Agency's annual procurement under Section 1-75.

(B) Procurement monitor. The procurement monitor retained by the Commission pursuant to Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act shall:

(i) monitor interactions among the procurement administrator and bidders and suppliers;

(ii) monitor and report to the Commission on the progress of the supplemental procurement process;

(iii) provide an independent confidential report to the Commission regarding the results of the procurement events;

(iv) assess compliance with the procurement plan approved by the Commission for the supplemental procurement process;

(v) preserve the confidentiality of supplier and bidding information in a manner consistent with all applicable laws, rules, regulations, and tariffs;

(vi) provide expert advice to the Commission and consult with the procurement administrator regarding issues related to procurement process design, rules, protocols, and policy-related matters;

(vii) consult with the procurement administrator regarding the development and use of benchmark criteria, standard form contracts, credit policies, and bid documents; and

(viii) perform, with respect to the supplemental procurement process, any other procurement monitor duties specifically delineated within subsection (i) of this Section.

(C) Solicitation, prequalification pre-qualification, and registration of bidders. The procurement administrator shall disseminate information to potential bidders to promote a procurement event, notify potential bidders that the procurement administrator may enter into a post-bid price negotiation with bidders that meet the applicable benchmarks, provide supply requirements, and otherwise explain the competitive procurement process. In addition to such other publication as the procurement administrator determines is appropriate, this information shall be posted on the Agency's and the Commission's websites. The procurement administrator shall also administer the prequalification process, including evaluation of credit worthiness, compliance with procurement rules, and agreement to the standard form contract developed pursuant to item (D) of this paragraph (4). The procurement administrator shall then identify and register bidders to participate in the procurement event.

(D) Standard contract forms and credit terms and instruments. The procurement administrator, in consultation with the Agency, the Commission, and other interested parties and subject to Commission oversight, shall develop and provide standard contract forms for the supplier contracts that meet generally accepted industry practices as well as include any applicable State of Illinois terms and conditions that are required for contracts entered into by an agency of the State of Illinois. Standard credit terms and instruments that meet generally accepted industry practices shall be similarly developed. Contracts for new photovoltaics shall include a provision attesting that the supplier will use a qualified person for the installation of the device pursuant to paragraph (1) of subsection (i) of this Section. The procurement administrator shall make available to the Commission all written comments it receives on the contract forms, credit terms, or instruments. If the procurement administrator cannot reach agreement with the parties as to the contract terms and conditions, the procurement administrator must notify the Commission of any disputed terms and the Commission shall resolve the dispute. The terms of the contracts shall not be subject to negotiation by winning bidders, and the bidders must agree to the terms of the contract in advance so that winning bids are selected solely on the basis of price.

(E) Requests for proposals; competitive procurement process. The procurement administrator shall design and issue requests for proposals to supply renewable energy credits in accordance with the supplemental procurement plan, as approved by the Commission. The requests for proposals shall set forth a procedure for sealed, binding commitment bidding with pay-as-bid settlement, and provision for selection of bids on the basis of price, provided, however, that no bid shall be accepted if it exceeds the benchmark developed pursuant to item (F) of this paragraph (4).

(F) Benchmarks. Benchmarks for each product to be procured shall be developed by the procurement administrator in consultation with Commission staff, the Agency, and the procurement monitor for use in this supplemental procurement.

(G) A plan for implementing contingencies in the event of supplier default, Commission rejection of results, or any other cause.

(5) Within 2 business days after opening the sealed bids, the procurement administrator shall submit a confidential report to the Commission. The report shall contain the results of the bidding for each of the products along with the procurement administrator's recommendation for the acceptance and rejection of bids based on the price benchmark criteria and other factors observed in the process. The procurement monitor also shall submit a confidential report to the Commission within 2 business days after opening the sealed bids. The report shall contain the procurement monitor's assessment of bidder behavior in the process as well as an assessment of the procurement administrator's compliance with the procurement process and rules. The Commission shall review the confidential reports submitted by the procurement administrator and procurement monitor and shall accept or reject the recommendations of the procurement administrator within 2 business days after receipt of the reports.

(6) Within 3 business days after the Commission decision approving the results of a procurement event, the Agency shall enter into binding contractual arrangements with the winning suppliers using the standard form contracts.

(7) The names of the successful bidders and the average of the winning bid prices for each contract type and for each contract term shall be made available to the public within 2 days after the supplemental procurement event. The Commission, the procurement monitor, the procurement administrator, the Agency, and all participants in the procurement process shall maintain the confidentiality of all other supplier and bidding information in a manner consistent with all applicable laws, rules, regulations, and tariffs. Confidential information, including the confidential reports submitted by the procurement administrator and procurement monitor pursuant to this Section, shall not be made publicly available and shall not be discoverable by any party in any proceeding, absent a compelling demonstration of need, nor shall those reports be admissible in any proceeding other than one for law enforcement purposes.

(8) The supplemental procurement provided in this subsection (i) shall not be subject to the requirements and limitations of subsections (c) and (d) of this Section.

(9) Expenses incurred in connection with the procurement process held pursuant to this Section, including, but not limited to, the cost of developing the supplemental procurement plan, the procurement administrator, procurement monitor, and the cost of the retirement of renewable energy credits purchased pursuant to the supplemental procurement shall be paid for from the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund. The Agency shall enter into an interagency agreement with the Commission to reimburse the Commission for its costs associated with the procurement monitor for the supplemental procurement process.

(Source: P.A. 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; 103-188, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 130. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3930/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 210-4)

Sec. 4. Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority; creation, membership, and meetings. There is created an Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority consisting of 25 members. The membership of the Authority shall consist of:

(1) the Illinois Attorney General or the Illinois Attorney General's designee;

(2) the Director of Corrections or the Director's designee;

(3) the Director of the Illinois State Police or the Director's designee;

(4) the Director of Public Health or the Director's designee;

(5) the Director of Children and Family Services or the Director's designee;

(6) the Sheriff of Cook County or the Sheriff's designee;

(7) the State's Attorney of Cook County or the State's Attorney's designee;

(8) the clerk of the circuit court of Cook County or the clerk's designee;

(9) the President of the Cook County Board of Commissioners or the President's designee;

(10) the Superintendent of the Chicago Police Department or the Superintendent's designee;

(11) the Director of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor or the Director's designee;

(12) the Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board or the Executive Director's designee;

(13) the State Appellate Defender or the State Appellate Defender's designee;

(14) the Public Defender of Cook County or the Public Defender's designee; and

(15) the following additional members, each of whom shall be appointed by the Governor:

(A) a circuit court clerk;

(B) a sheriff;

(C) a State's Attorney of a county other than Cook;

(D) a Public Defender of a county other than Cook;

(E) a chief of police; and

(F) 2 individuals who report having been incarcerated; and ,

(G) (F) 4 members of the general public.

Members appointed on and after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-955) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall be confirmed by the Senate.

The Governor from time to time shall designate a Chairman of the Authority from the membership. All members of the Authority appointed by the Governor shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor for a term not to exceed 4 years. The initial appointed members of the Authority shall serve from January, 1983 until the third Monday in January, 1987 or until their successors are appointed.

The Authority shall meet at least quarterly, and all meetings of the Authority shall be called by the Chairman.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1129, eff. 2-10-23; 103-276, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-7-23.)

Section 132. The Illinois Workforce Innovation Board Act is amended by changing the title of the Act as follows:

(20 ILCS 3975/Act title)

An Act to create the Illinois Workforce Innovation Board Human Resource Investment Council.

Section 135. The Illinois State Auditing Act is amended by changing Section 3-2.3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 5/3-2.3)

Sec. 3-2.3. Report on Chicago Transit Authority.

(a) No less than 60 days prior to the issuance of bonds or notes by the Chicago Transit Authority (referred to as the "Authority" in this Section) pursuant to Section 12c of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act, the following documentation shall be submitted to the Auditor General and the Regional Transportation Authority:

(1) Retirement Plan Documentation. The Authority shall submit a certification that:

(A) it is legally authorized to issue the bonds or notes;

(B) scheduled annual payments of principal and interest on the bonds and notes to be issued meet the requirements of Section 12c(b)(5) of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act;

(C) no bond or note shall mature later than December 31, 2040;

(D) after payment of costs of issuance and necessary deposits to funds and accounts established with respect to debt service on the bonds or notes, the net bond and note proceeds (exclusive of any proceeds to be used to refund outstanding bonds or notes) will be deposited in the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees and used only for the purposes required by Section 22-101 of the Illinois Pension Code; and

(E) it has entered into an intergovernmental agreement with the City of Chicago under which the City of Chicago will provide financial assistance to the Authority in an amount equal to the net receipts, after fees for costs of collection, from a tax on the privilege of transferring title to real estate in the City of Chicago in an amount up to $1.50 per $500 of value or fraction thereof under the provisions of Section 8-3-19 of the Illinois Municipal Code, which agreement shall be for a term expiring no earlier than the final maturity of bonds or notes that it proposes to issue under Section 12c of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act.

(2) The Board of Trustees of the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees shall submit a certification that the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees is operating in accordance with all applicable legal and contractual requirements, including the following:

(A) the members of a new Board of Trustees have been appointed according to the requirements of Section 22-101(b) of the Illinois Pension Code; and

(B) contribution levels for employees and the Authority have been established according to the requirements of Section 22-101(d) of the Illinois Pension Code.

(3) Actuarial Report. The Board of Trustees of the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees shall submit an actuarial report prepared by an enrolled actuary setting forth:

(A) the method of valuation and the underlying assumptions;

(B) a comparison of the debt service schedules of the bonds or notes proposed to be issued to the Retirement Plan's current unfunded actuarial accrued liability amortization schedule, as required by Section 22-101(e) of the Illinois Pension Code, using the projected interest cost of the bond or note issue as the discount rate to calculate the estimated net present value savings;

(C) the amount of the estimated net present value savings comparing the true interest cost of the bonds or notes with the actuarial investment return assumption of the Retirement Plan; and

(D) a certification that the net proceeds of the bonds or notes, together with anticipated earnings on contributions and deposits, will be sufficient to reasonably conclude on an actuarial basis that the total retirement assets of the Retirement Plan will not be less than 90% of its liabilities by the end of fiscal year 2059.

(4) The Authority shall submit a financial analysis prepared by an independent advisor. The financial analysis must include a determination that the issuance of bonds is in the best interest of the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees and the Chicago Transit Authority. The independent advisor shall not act as underwriter or receive a legal, consulting, or other fee related to the issuance of any bond or notes issued by the Authority pursuant to Section 12c of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act except compensation due for the preparation of the financial analysis.

(5) Retiree Health Care Trust Documentation. The Authority shall submit a certification that:

(A) it is legally authorized to issue the bonds or notes;

(B) scheduled annual payments of principal and interest on the bonds and notes to be issued meets the requirements of Section 12c(b)(5) of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act;

(C) no bond or note shall mature later than December 31, 2040;

(D) after payment of costs of issuance and necessary deposits to funds and accounts established with respect to debt service on the bonds or notes, the net bond and note proceeds (exclusive of any proceeds to be used to refund outstanding bonds or notes) will be deposited in the Retiree Health Care Trust and used only for the purposes required by Section 22-101B of the Illinois Pension Code; and

(E) it has entered into an intergovernmental agreement with the City of Chicago under which the City of Chicago will provide financial assistance to the Authority in an amount equal to the net receipts, after fees for costs of collection, from a tax on the privilege of transferring title to real estate in the City of Chicago in an amount up to $1.50 per $500 of value or fraction thereof under the provisions of Section 8-3-19 of the Illinois Municipal Code, which agreement shall be for a term expiring no earlier than the final maturity of bonds or notes that it proposes to issue under Section 12c of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act.

(6) The Board of Trustees of the Retiree Health Care Trust shall submit a certification that the Retiree Health Care Trust has been established in accordance with all applicable legal requirements, including the following:

(A) the Retiree Health Care Trust has been established and a Trust document is in effect to govern the Retiree Health Care Trust;

(B) the members of the Board of Trustees of the Retiree Health Care Trust have been appointed according to the requirements of Section 22-101B(b)(1) of the Illinois Pension Code;

(C) a health care benefit program for eligible retirees and their dependents and survivors has been established by the Board of Trustees according to the requirements of Section 22-101B(b)(2) of the Illinois Pension Code;

(D) contribution levels have been established for retirees, dependents and survivors according to the requirements of Section 22-101B(b)(5) of the Illinois Pension Code; and

(E) contribution levels have been established for employees of the Authority according to the requirements of Section 22-101B(b)(6) of the Illinois Pension Code.

(7) Actuarial Report. The Board of Trustees of the Retiree Health Care Trust shall submit an actuarial report prepared by an enrolled actuary setting forth:

(A) the method of valuation and the underlying assumptions;

(B) a comparison of the projected interest cost of the bonds or notes proposed to be issued with the actuarial investment return assumption of the Retiree Health Care Trust; and

(C) a certification that the net proceeds of the bonds or notes, together with anticipated earnings on contributions and deposits, will be sufficient to adequately fund the actuarial present value of projected benefits expected to be paid under the Retiree Health Care Trust, or a certification of the increases in contribution levels and decreases in benefit levels that would be required in order to cure any funding shortfall over a period of not more than 10 years.

(8) The Authority shall submit a financial analysis prepared by an independent advisor. The financial analysis must include a determination that the issuance of bonds is in the best interest of the Retiree Health Care Trust and the Chicago Transit Authority. The independent advisor shall not act as underwriter or receive a legal, consulting, or other fee related to the issuance of any bond or notes issued by the Authority pursuant to Section 12c of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act except compensation due for the preparation of the financial analysis.

(b) The Auditor General shall examine the information submitted pursuant to Section 3-2.3(a)(1) through (4) and submit a report to the General Assembly, the Legislative Audit Commission, the Governor, the Regional Transportation Authority and the Authority indicating whether (i) the required certifications by the Authority and the Board of Trustees of the Retirement Plan have been made, and (ii) the actuarial reports have been provided, the reports include all required information, the assumptions underlying those reports are not unreasonable in the aggregate, and the reports appear to comply with all pertinent professional standards, including those issued by the Actuarial Standards Board. The Auditor General shall submit such report no later than 60 days after receiving the information required to be submitted by the Authority and the Board of Trustees of the Retirement Plan. Any bonds or notes issued by the Authority under item (1) of subsection (b) of Section 12c of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act shall be issued within 120 days after receiving such report from the Auditor General. The Authority may not issue bonds or notes until it receives the report from the Auditor General indicating the above requirements have been met.

(c) The Auditor General shall examine the information submitted pursuant to Section 3-2.3(a)(5) through (8) and submit a report to the General Assembly, the Legislative Audit Commission, the Governor, the Regional Transportation Authority and the Authority indicating whether (i) the required certifications by the Authority and the Board of Trustees of the Retiree Health Care Trust have been made, and (ii) the actuarial reports have been provided, the reports include all required information, the assumptions underlying those reports are not unreasonable in the aggregate, and the reports appear to comply with all pertinent professional standards, including those issued by the Actuarial Standards Board. The Auditor General shall submit such report no later than 60 days after receiving the information required to be submitted by the Authority and the Board of Trustees of the Retiree Health Care Trust. Any bonds or notes issued by the Authority under item (2) of subsection (b) of Section 12c of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act shall be issued within 120 days after receiving such report from the Auditor General. The Authority may not issue bonds or notes until it receives a report from the Auditor General indicating the above requirements have been met.

(d) In fulfilling this duty, after receiving the information submitted pursuant to Section 3-2.3(a), the Auditor General may request additional information and support pertaining to the data and conclusions contained in the submitted documents and the Authority, the Board of Trustees of the Retirement Plan and the Board of Trustees of the Retiree Health Care Trust shall cooperate with the Auditor General and provide additional information as requested in a timely manner. The Auditor General may also request from the Regional Transportation Authority an analysis of the information submitted by the Authority relating to the sources of funds to be utilized for payment of the proposed bonds or notes of the Authority. The Auditor General's report shall not be in the nature of a post-audit or examination and shall not lead to the issuance of an opinion as that term is defined in generally accepted government auditing standards.

(e) Annual Retirement Plan Submission to Auditor General. The Board of Trustees of the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees established by Section 22-101 of the Illinois Pension Code shall provide the following documents to the Auditor General annually no later than September 30:

(1) the most recent audit or examination of the Retirement Plan;

(2) an annual statement containing the information specified in Section 1A-109 of the Illinois Pension Code; and

(3) a complete actuarial statement applicable to the prior plan year, which may be the annual report of an enrolled actuary retained by the Retirement Plan specified in Section 22-101(e) of the Illinois Pension Code.

The Auditor General shall annually examine the information provided pursuant to this subsection and shall submit a report of the analysis thereof to the General Assembly, including the report specified in Section 22-101(e) of the Illinois Pension Code.

(f) The Auditor General shall annually examine the information submitted pursuant to Section 22-101B(b)(3)(iii) of the Illinois Pension Code and shall prepare the determination specified in Section 22-101B(b)(3)(iv) of the Illinois Pension Code.

(g) In fulfilling the duties under Sections 3-2.3(e) and (f), the Auditor General may request additional information and support pertaining to the data and conclusions contained in the submitted documents, and the Authority, the Board of Trustees of the Retirement Plan, and the Board of Trustees of the Retiree Health Care Trust shall cooperate with the Auditor General and provide additional information as requested in a timely manner. The Auditor General's review shall not be in the nature of a post-audit or examination and shall not lead to the issuance of an opinion as that term is defined in generally accepted government auditing standards. Upon request of the Auditor General, the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability and the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance Illinois Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall cooperate with and assist the Auditor General in the conduct of his review.

(h) The Auditor General shall submit a bill to the Authority for costs associated with the examinations and reports specified in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section 3-2.3, which the Authority shall reimburse in a timely manner. The costs associated with the examinations and reports which are reimbursed by the Authority shall constitute a cost of issuance of the bonds or notes under Section 12c(b)(1) and (2) of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act. The amount received shall be deposited into the fund or funds from which such costs were paid by the Auditor General. The Auditor General shall submit a bill to the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees for costs associated with the examinations and reports specified in subsection (e) of this Section, which the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees shall reimburse in a timely manner. The amount received shall be deposited into the fund or funds from which such costs were paid by the Auditor General. The Auditor General shall submit a bill to the Retiree Health Care Trust for costs associated with the determination specified in subsection (f) of this Section, which the Retiree Health Care Trust shall reimburse in a timely manner. The amount received shall be deposited into the fund or funds from which such costs were paid by the Auditor General.

(Source: P.A. 95-708, eff. 1-18-08; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 140. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.990 and 5.991 and by changing Sections 6z-32, 6z-82, 8.3, and 12-2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.990)

Sec. 5.990. The Public Defender Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1104, eff. 12-6-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.991)

Sec. 5.991. The Due Process for Youth and Families Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1115, eff. 1-9-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.993)

Sec. 5.993 5.990. The Abortion Care Clinical Training Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; revised 3-27-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.994)

Sec. 5.994 5.990. The Paid Leave for All Workers Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1143, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.995)

Sec. 5.995 5.990. The Hate Crimes and Bias Incident Prevention and Response Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1115, eff. 1-9-23; revised 9-7-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.996)

Sec. 5.996 5.990. The Imagination Library of Illinois Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; revised 9-7-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.997)

Sec. 5.997 5.990. The Illinois Bullying and Cyberbullying Prevention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-47, eff. 6-9-23; revised 9-7-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.999)

Sec. 5.999 5.990. The Illinois Health Benefits Exchange Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-103, eff. 6-27-23; revised 9-7-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1000)

Sec. 5.1000 5.990. The Tick Research, Education, and Evaluation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-163, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1001)

Sec. 5.1001 5.990. The License to Read Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-267, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1002)

Sec. 5.1002 5.990. The Outdoor Rx Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-284, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1003)

Sec. 5.1003 5.990. The UNCF Scholarship Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-381, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1004)

Sec. 5.1004 5.990. The Hunger-Free Campus Grant Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-435, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1005)

Sec. 5.1005 5.990. The Repatriation and Reinterment Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-446, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1006)

Sec. 5.1006 5.990. The Illinois Graduate and Retain Our Workforce (iGROW) Tech Scholarship Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-519, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1007)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 5.1007 5.990. The Antitrust Enforcement Fund. This Section is repealed on January 1, 2027.

(Source: P.A. 103-526, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1008)

Sec. 5.1008 5.990. The MAP Refund Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-536, eff. 8-11-23; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1009)

Sec. 5.1009 5.990. The Lyme Disease Awareness Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-557, eff. 8-11-23; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1010)

Sec. 5.1010 5.991. The Industrial Biotechnology Human Capital Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1011)

Sec. 5.1011 5.991. The Illinois DREAM Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-381, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-22-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-32)

Sec. 6z-32. Partners for Planning and Conservation.

(a) The Partners for Conservation Fund (formerly known as the Conservation 2000 Fund) and the Partners for Conservation Projects Fund (formerly known as the Conservation 2000 Projects Fund) are created as special funds in the State Treasury. These funds shall be used to establish a comprehensive program to protect Illinois' natural resources through cooperative partnerships between State government and public and private landowners. Moneys in these Funds may be used, subject to appropriation, by the Department of Natural Resources, Environmental Protection Agency, and the Department of Agriculture for purposes relating to natural resource protection, planning, recreation, tourism, climate resilience, and compatible agricultural and economic development activities. Without limiting these general purposes, moneys in these Funds may be used, subject to appropriation, for the following specific purposes:

(1) To foster sustainable agriculture practices and control soil erosion, sedimentation, and nutrient loss from farmland, including grants to Soil and Water Conservation Districts for conservation practice cost-share grants and for personnel, educational, and administrative expenses.

(2) To establish and protect a system of ecosystems in public and private ownership through conservation easements, incentives to public and private landowners, natural resource restoration and preservation, water quality protection and improvement, land use and watershed planning, technical assistance and grants, and land acquisition provided these mechanisms are all voluntary on the part of the landowner and do not involve the use of eminent domain.

(3) To develop a systematic and long-term program to effectively measure and monitor natural resources and ecological conditions through investments in technology and involvement of scientific experts.

(4) To initiate strategies to enhance, use, and maintain Illinois' inland lakes through education, technical assistance, research, and financial incentives.

(5) To partner with private landowners and with units of State, federal, and local government and with not-for-profit organizations in order to integrate State and federal programs with Illinois' natural resource protection and restoration efforts and to meet requirements to obtain federal and other funds for conservation or protection of natural resources.

(6) To support the State's Nutrient Loss Reduction Strategy, including, but not limited to, funding the resources needed to support the Strategy's Policy Working Group, cover water quality monitoring in support of Strategy implementation, prepare a biennial report on the progress made on the Strategy every 2 years, and provide cost share funding for nutrient capture projects.

(7) To provide capacity grants to support soil and water conservation districts, including, but not limited to, developing soil health plans, conducting soil health assessments, peer-to-peer training, convening producer-led dialogues, professional memberships, lab analysis, and and travel stipends for meetings and educational events.

(8) To develop guidelines and local soil health assessments for advancing soil health.

(b) The State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall automatically transfer on the last day of each month, beginning on September 30, 1995 and ending on June 30, 2024, from the General Revenue Fund to the Partners for Conservation Fund, an amount equal to 1/10 of the amount set forth below in fiscal year 1996 and an amount equal to 1/12 of the amount set forth below in each of the other specified fiscal years:

(c) The State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall automatically transfer on the last day of each month beginning on July 31, 2021 and ending June 30, 2022, from the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund to the Partners for Conservation Fund, an amount equal to 1/12 of $4,135,000.

(c-1) The State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall automatically transfer on the last day of each month beginning on July 31, 2022 and ending June 30, 2023, from the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund to the Partners for Conservation Fund, an amount equal to 1/12 of $5,900,000.

(d) There shall be deposited into the Partners for Conservation Projects Fund such bond proceeds and other moneys as may, from time to time, be provided by law.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-494, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-7-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-82)

Sec. 6z-82. State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(a-5) (Blank). This Fund may charge, collect, and receive fees or moneys as described in Section 15-312 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and receive all fees received by the Illinois State Police under that Section. The moneys shall be used by the Illinois State Police for its expenses in providing police escorts and commercial vehicle enforcement activities.

(b) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes or functions.

(c) Expenditures may be made from the Fund only as appropriated by the General Assembly by law.

(d) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(e) The State Police Operations Assistance Fund shall not be subject to administrative chargebacks.

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided by law, on June 9, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-34) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the State Police Streetgang-Related Crime Fund to the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. Upon completion of the transfers, the State Police Streetgang-Related Crime Fund is dissolved, and any future deposits into the State Police Streetgang-Related Crime Fund and any outstanding obligations or liabilities of the State Police Streetgang-Related Crime Fund pass to the State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-7-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.3)

Sec. 8.3. Money in the Road Fund shall, if and when the State of Illinois incurs any bonded indebtedness for the construction of permanent highways, be set aside and used for the purpose of paying and discharging annually the principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then due and payable, and for no other purpose. The surplus, if any, in the Road Fund after the payment of principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then annually due shall be used as follows:

first -- to pay the cost of administration of Chapters 2 through 10 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except the cost of administration of Articles I and II of Chapter 3 of that Code, and to pay the costs of the Executive Ethics Commission for oversight and administration of the Chief Procurement Officer appointed under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 10-20 of the Illinois Procurement Code for transportation; and

secondly -- for expenses of the Department of Transportation for construction, reconstruction, improvement, repair, maintenance, operation, and administration of highways in accordance with the provisions of laws relating thereto, or for any purpose related or incident to and connected therewith, including the separation of grades of those highways with railroads and with highways and including the payment of awards made by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under the terms of the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act for injury or death of an employee of the Division of Highways in the Department of Transportation; or for the acquisition of land and the erection of buildings for highway purposes, including the acquisition of highway right-of-way or for investigations to determine the reasonably anticipated future highway needs; or for making of surveys, plans, specifications and estimates for and in the construction and maintenance of flight strips and of highways necessary to provide access to military and naval reservations, to defense industries and defense-industry sites, and to the sources of raw materials and for replacing existing highways and highway connections shut off from general public use at military and naval reservations and defense-industry sites, or for the purchase of right-of-way, except that the State shall be reimbursed in full for any expense incurred in building the flight strips; or for the operating and maintaining of highway garages; or for patrolling and policing the public highways and conserving the peace; or for the operating expenses of the Department relating to the administration of public transportation programs; or, during fiscal year 2023, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $8,394,800 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or, during fiscal year 2024, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $9,108,400 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or for any of those purposes or any other purpose that may be provided by law.

Appropriations for any of those purposes are payable from the Road Fund. Appropriations may also be made from the Road Fund for the administrative expenses of any State agency that are related to motor vehicles or arise from the use of motor vehicles.

Beginning with fiscal year 1980 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Department of Public Health;

2. Department of Transportation, only with respect to subsidies for one-half fare Student Transportation and Reduced Fare for Elderly, except fiscal year 2023 when no more than $17,570,000 may be expended and except fiscal year 2024 when no more than $19,063,500 may be expended;

3. Department of Central Management Services, except for expenditures incurred for group insurance premiums of appropriate personnel;

4. Judicial Systems and Agencies.

Beginning with fiscal year 1981 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Illinois State Police, except for expenditures with respect to the Division of Patrol and Division of Criminal Investigation;

2. Department of Transportation, only with respect to Intercity Rail Subsidies, except fiscal year 2023 when no more than $55,000,000 may be expended and except fiscal year 2024 when no more than $60,000,000 may be expended, and Rail Freight Services.

Beginning with fiscal year 1982 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement: Department of Central Management Services, except for awards made by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under the terms of the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act for injury or death of an employee of the Division of Highways in the Department of Transportation.

Beginning with fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Illinois State Police, except not more than 40% of the funds appropriated for the Division of Patrol and Division of Criminal Investigation;

2. State Officers.

Beginning with fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to any Department or agency of State government for administration, grants, or operations except as provided hereafter; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement. It shall not be lawful to circumvent the above appropriation limitations by governmental reorganization or other methods. Appropriations shall be made from the Road Fund only in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

Money in the Road Fund shall, if and when the State of Illinois incurs any bonded indebtedness for the construction of permanent highways, be set aside and used for the purpose of paying and discharging during each fiscal year the principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness as it becomes due and payable as provided in the Transportation Bond Act, and for no other purpose. The surplus, if any, in the Road Fund after the payment of principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then annually due shall be used as follows:

first -- to pay the cost of administration of Chapters 2 through 10 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and

secondly -- no Road Fund monies derived from fees, excises, or license taxes relating to registration, operation and use of vehicles on public highways or to fuels used for the propulsion of those vehicles, shall be appropriated or expended other than for costs of administering the laws imposing those fees, excises, and license taxes, statutory refunds and adjustments allowed thereunder, administrative costs of the Department of Transportation, including, but not limited to, the operating expenses of the Department relating to the administration of public transportation programs, payment of debts and liabilities incurred in construction and reconstruction of public highways and bridges, acquisition of rights-of-way for and the cost of construction, reconstruction, maintenance, repair, and operation of public highways and bridges under the direction and supervision of the State, political subdivision, or municipality collecting those monies, or during fiscal year 2023 for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $8,394,800 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, or during fiscal year 2024 for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $9,108,400 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, and the costs for patrolling and policing the public highways (by the State, political subdivision, or municipality collecting that money) for enforcement of traffic laws. The separation of grades of such highways with railroads and costs associated with protection of at-grade highway and railroad crossing shall also be permissible.

Appropriations for any of such purposes are payable from the Road Fund or the Grade Crossing Protection Fund as provided in Section 8 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law.

Except as provided in this paragraph, beginning with fiscal year 1991 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Illinois State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of its total fiscal year 1990 Road Fund appropriations for those purposes unless otherwise provided in Section 5g of this Act. For fiscal years 2003, 2004, 2005, 2006, and 2007 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $97,310,000. For fiscal year 2008 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $106,100,000. For fiscal year 2009 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $114,700,000. Beginning in fiscal year 2010, no Road Fund road fund moneys shall be appropriated to the Illinois State Police. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods unless otherwise provided in Section 5g of this Act.

In fiscal year 1994, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section in excess of the total fiscal year 1991 Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for those purposes, plus $9,800,000. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other method.

Beginning with fiscal year 1995 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section in excess of the total fiscal year 1994 Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for those purposes. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods.

Beginning with fiscal year 2000, total Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section shall not exceed the amounts specified for the following fiscal years:

For fiscal year 2010, no road fund moneys shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State.

Beginning in fiscal year 2011, moneys in the Road Fund shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the exclusive purpose of paying refunds due to overpayment of fees related to Chapter 3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code unless otherwise provided for by law.

It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods.

No new program may be initiated in fiscal year 1991 and thereafter that is not consistent with the limitations imposed by this Section for fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, insofar as appropriation of Road Fund monies is concerned.

Nothing in this Section prohibits transfers from the Road Fund to the State Construction Account Fund under Section 5e of this Act; nor to the General Revenue Fund, as authorized by Public Act 93-25.

The additional amounts authorized for expenditure in this Section by Public Acts 92-0600, 93-0025, 93-0839, and 94-91 shall be repaid to the Road Fund from the General Revenue Fund in the next succeeding fiscal year that the General Revenue Fund has a positive budgetary balance, as determined by generally accepted accounting principles applicable to government.

The additional amounts authorized for expenditure by the Secretary of State and the Department of State Police in this Section by Public Act 94-91 shall be repaid to the Road Fund from the General Revenue Fund in the next succeeding fiscal year that the General Revenue Fund has a positive budgetary balance, as determined by generally accepted accounting principles applicable to government.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/12-2) (from Ch. 127, par. 148-2)

Sec. 12-2. Travel Regulation Council; State travel reimbursement.

(a) The chairmen of the travel control boards established by Section 12-1, or their designees, shall together comprise the Travel Regulation Council. The Travel Regulation Council shall be chaired by the Director of Central Management Services, who shall be a nonvoting member of the Council, unless he is otherwise qualified to vote by virtue of being the designee of a voting member. No later than March 1, 1986, and at least biennially thereafter, the Council shall adopt State Travel Regulations and Reimbursement Rates which shall be applicable to all personnel subject to the jurisdiction of the travel control boards established by Section 12-1. An affirmative vote of a majority of the members of the Council shall be required to adopt regulations and reimbursement rates. If the Council fails to adopt regulations by March 1 of any odd-numbered year, the Director of Central Management Services shall adopt emergency regulations and reimbursement rates pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. As soon as practicable after January 23, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1119) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Travel Regulation Council and the Higher Education Travel Control Board shall adopt amendments to their existing rules to ensure that reimbursement rates for public institutions of higher education, as defined in Section 1-13 of the Illinois Procurement Code, are set in accordance with the requirements of subsection (f) of this Section.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Reimbursements to travelers shall be made pursuant to the rates and regulations applicable to the respective State agency as of January 1, 1986 (the effective date of Public Act 84-345) this amendatory Act, until the State Travel Regulations and Reimbursement Rates established by this Section are adopted and effective.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (f) Notwithstanding any rule or law to the contrary, State travel reimbursement rates for lodging and mileage for automobile travel, as well as allowances for meals, shall be set at the maximum rates established by the federal government for travel expenses, subsistence expenses, and mileage allowances under 5 U.S.C. 5701 through 5711 and any regulations promulgated thereunder. If the rates set under federal regulations increase or decrease during the course of the State's fiscal year, the effective date of the new rate shall be the effective date of the change in the federal rate.

(Source: P.A. 102-1119, eff. 1-23-23; 103-8, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 145. The General Obligation Bond Act is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(30 ILCS 330/11) (from Ch. 127, par. 661)

Sec. 11. Sale of Bonds. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, Bonds shall be sold from time to time pursuant to notice of sale and public bid or by negotiated sale in such amounts and at such times as is directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. At least 25%, based on total principal amount, of all Bonds issued each fiscal year shall be sold pursuant to notice of sale and public bid. At all times during each fiscal year, no more than 75%, based on total principal amount, of the Bonds issued each fiscal year, shall have been sold by negotiated sale. Failure to satisfy the requirements in the preceding 2 sentences shall not affect the validity of any previously issued Bonds; provided that all Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-43 and Public Act 96-1497 shall not be included in determining compliance for any fiscal year with the requirements of the preceding 2 sentences; and further provided that refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 16 of this Act shall not be subject to the requirements in the preceding 2 sentences.

The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall comply in the selection of any bond counsel with the competitive request for proposal process set forth in the Illinois Procurement Code and all other applicable requirements of that Code. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget may select any financial advisor from a pool of qualified advisors established pursuant to a request for qualifications. If any Bonds, including refunding Bonds, are to be sold by negotiated sale, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall select any underwriter from a pool of qualified underwriters established pursuant to a request for qualifications.

If Bonds are to be sold pursuant to notice of sale and public bid, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget may, from time to time, as Bonds are to be sold, advertise the sale of the Bonds in at least 2 daily newspapers, one of which is published in the City of Springfield and one in the City of Chicago. The sale of the Bonds shall be advertised in the BidBuy eProcurement System or any successor procurement platform maintained by the Chief Procurement Officer for General Services, and shall be published once at least 10 days prior to the date fixed for the opening of the bids. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget may reschedule the date of sale upon the giving of such additional notice as the Director deems adequate to inform prospective bidders of such change; provided, however, that all other conditions of the sale shall continue as originally advertised.

Executed Bonds shall, upon payment therefor, be delivered to the purchaser, and the proceeds of Bonds shall be paid into the State Treasury as directed by Section 12 of this Act.

All Income Tax Proceed Bonds shall comply with this Section. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, however, for purposes of complying with this Section, Income Tax Proceed Bonds, regardless of the number of series or issuances sold thereunder, shall be considered a single issue or series. Furthermore, for purposes of complying with the competitive bidding requirements of this Section, the words "at all times" shall not apply to any such sale of the Income Tax Proceed Bonds. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall determine the time and manner of any competitive sale of the Income Tax Proceed Bonds; however, that sale shall under no circumstances take place later than 60 days after the State closes the sale of 75% of the Income Tax Proceed Bonds by negotiated sale.

All State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds shall comply with this Section. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, however, for purposes of complying with this Section, State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds, regardless of the number of series or issuances sold thereunder, shall be considered a single issue or series. Furthermore, for purposes of complying with the competitive bidding requirements of this Section, the words "at all times" shall not apply to any such sale of the State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall determine the time and manner of any competitive sale of the State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds; however, that sale shall under no circumstances take place later than 60 days after the State closes the sale of 75% of the State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds by negotiated sale.

(Source: P.A. 103-7, eff. 7-1-23; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 150. The Capital Development Bond Act of 1972 is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 420/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 753)

Sec. 3. The State of Illinois is authorized to issue, sell and provide for the retirement of general obligation bonds of the State of Illinois in the amount of $1,737,000,000 hereinafter called the "Bonds", for the specific purpose of providing funds for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interests in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection therewith and for the acquisition, protection and development of natural resources, including water related resources, within the State of Illinois for open spaces, water resource management, recreational and conservation purposes, all within the State of Illinois.

The Bonds shall be used in the following specific manner:

(a) $636,697,287 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for educational purposes by State universities and colleges, the Illinois Community College Board created by the Public Community College Act "An Act in relation to the establishment, operation and maintenance of public community colleges", approved July 15, 1965, as amended and by the School Building Commission created by "An Act to provide for the acquisition, construction, rental, and disposition of buildings used for school purposes", approved June 21, 1957, as amended, or its successor, all within the State of Illinois, and for grants to public community colleges as authorized by Section 5-11 of the Public Community College Act; and for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction rehabilitation, improvement, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of durable movable equipment, including antennas and structures necessarily relating thereto, for the Board of Governors of State Colleges and Universities to construct educational television facilities, which educational television facilities may be located upon land or structures not owned by the State providing that the Board of Governors has at least a 25-year lease for the use of such non-state owned land or structures, which lease may contain a provision making it subject to annual appropriations by the General Assembly;

(b) $323,000,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for correctional purposes at State prisons and correctional centers, all within the State of Illinois;

(c) $157,020,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment, and land for open spaces, recreational and conservation purposes and the protection of land, all within the State of Illinois;

(d) $146,580,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for child care facilities, mental and public health facilities, and facilities for the care of veterans with disabilities and their spouses, all within the State of Illinois;

(e) $348,846,200 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for use by the State, its departments, authorities, public corporations, commissions and agencies;

(f) To reimburse the Illinois Building Authority created by the Building Authority Act "An Act to create the Illinois Building Authority and to define its powers and duties", as approved August 15, 1961, as amended, for any and all costs and expenses incurred, and to be incurred, by the Illinois Building Authority in connection with the acquisition, construction, development, reconstruction, improvement, planning, installation and financing of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, equipment and land as enumerated in subsections (a) through (e) hereof, and in connection therewith to acquire from the Illinois Building Authority any such capital facilities; provided, however, that nothing in this subparagraph shall be construed to require or permit the acquisition of facilities financed by the Illinois Building authority through the issuance of bonds;

(g) $24,853,800 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of buildings, structures, durable equipment, and land for:

(1) Cargo handling facilities for use by port districts, and

(2) Breakwaters, including harbor entrances incident thereto, for use by port districts in conjunction with facilities for small boats and pleasure craft;

(h) $39,900,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, modification, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for water resource management projects, all within the State of Illinois;

(i) $9,852,713 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for educational purposes by nonprofit, nonpublic health service educational institutions;

(j) $48,000,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for the provision of facilities for food production research and related instructional and public service activities at the State universities and public community colleges, all within the State of Illinois;

(k) $2,250,000 for grants by the Secretary of State, as State Librarian, for the construction, acquisition, development, reconstruction and improvement of central library facilities authorized under Section 8 of the "The Illinois Library System Act", as amended.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 155. The Build Illinois Bond Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(30 ILCS 425/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 2805)

Sec. 5. Bond sale expenses.

(a) Costs for advertising, printing, bond rating, travel of outside vendors, security, delivery, and legal and financial advisory services, initial fees of trustees, registrars, paying agents, and other fiduciaries, initial costs of credit or liquidity enhancement arrangements, initial fees of indexing and remarketing agents, and initial costs of interest rate swaps, guarantees, or arrangements to limit interest rate risk, as determined in the related Bond Sale Order, may be paid as reasonable costs of issuance and sale from the proceeds of each Bond sale. An amount not to exceed 1% of the principal amount of the proceeds of the sale of each bond sale is authorized to be used to pay additional reasonable costs of each issuance and sale of Bonds authorized and sold pursuant to this Act, including, without limitation, underwriter's discounts and fees, but excluding bond insurance; provided that no salaries of State employees or other State office operating expenses shall be paid out of non-appropriated proceeds. The Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall compile a summary of all costs of issuance on each sale (including both costs paid out of proceeds and those paid out of appropriated funds) and post that summary on its web site within 20 business days after the issuance of the bonds. The summary shall include, as applicable, the respective percentage of participation and compensation of each underwriter that is a member of the underwriting syndicate, legal counsel, financial advisors, and other professionals for the Bond issue, and an identification of all costs of issuance paid to minority-owned businesses, women-owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities. The terms "minority-owned businesses", "women-owned businesses", and "business owned by a person with a disability" have the meanings given to those terms in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act. The summary shall be posted on the website for a period of at least 30 days. In addition, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall provide a written copy of each summary of costs to the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President and Minority Leader of the Senate, and the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability within 20 business days after each issuance of the bonds. In addition, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall provide copies of all contracts under which any costs of issuance are paid or to be paid to the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability within 20 business days after the issuance of Bonds for which those costs are paid or to be paid. Instead of filing a second or subsequent copy of the same contract, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget may file a statement that specified costs are paid under specified contracts filed earlier with the Commission.

(b) The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall not, in connection with the issuance of Bonds, contract with any underwriter, financial advisor, or attorney unless that underwriter, financial advisor, or attorney certifies that the underwriter, financial advisor, or attorney has not and will not pay a contingent fee, whether directly or indirectly, to any third party for having promoted the selection of the underwriter, financial advisor, or attorney for that contract. In the event that the Governor's Office of Management and Budget determines that an underwriter, financial advisor, or attorney has filed a false certification with respect to the payment of contingent fees, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall not contract with that underwriter, financial advisor, or attorney, or with any firm employing any person who signed false certifications, for a period of 2 calendar years, beginning with the date the determination is made. The validity of Bonds issued under such circumstances of violation pursuant to this Section shall not be affected.

(Source: P.A. 103-7, eff. 7-1-23; revised 9-21-23.)

Section 160. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Sections 1-10 and 10-20 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Application.

(a) This Code applies only to procurements for which bidders, offerors, potential contractors, or contractors were first solicited on or after July 1, 1998. This Code shall not be construed to affect or impair any contract, or any provision of a contract, entered into based on a solicitation prior to the implementation date of this Code as described in Article 99, including, but not limited to, any covenant entered into with respect to any revenue bonds or similar instruments. All procurements for which contracts are solicited between the effective date of Articles 50 and 99 and July 1, 1998 shall be substantially in accordance with this Code and its intent.

(b) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of the funds with which the contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. This Code shall not apply to:

(1) Contracts between the State and its political subdivisions or other governments, or between State governmental bodies, except as specifically provided in this Code.

(2) Grants, except for the filing requirements of Section 20-80.

(3) Purchase of care, except as provided in Section 5-30.6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and this Section.

(4) Hiring of an individual as an employee and not as an independent contractor, whether pursuant to an employment code or policy or by contract directly with that individual.

(5) Collective bargaining contracts.

(6) Purchase of real estate, except that notice of this type of contract with a value of more than $25,000 must be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 10 calendar days after the deed is recorded in the county of jurisdiction. The notice shall identify the real estate purchased, the names of all parties to the contract, the value of the contract, and the effective date of the contract.

(7) Contracts necessary to prepare for anticipated litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations, provided that the chief legal counsel to the Governor shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring agency is one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor, and provided that the chief legal counsel of any other procuring entity subject to this Code shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring entity is not one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor.

(8) (Blank).

(9) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Conservation Foundation when only private funds are used.

(10) (Blank).

(11) Public-private agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 20 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act and design-build agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 25 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act.

(12) (A) Contracts for legal, financial, and other professional and artistic services entered into by the Illinois Finance Authority in which the State of Illinois is not obligated. Such contracts shall be awarded through a competitive process authorized by the members of the Illinois Finance Authority and are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final approval by the members of the Illinois Finance Authority of the terms of the contract.

(B) Contracts for legal and financial services entered into by the Illinois Housing Development Authority in connection with the issuance of bonds in which the State of Illinois is not obligated. Such contracts shall be awarded through a competitive process authorized by the members of the Illinois Housing Development Authority and are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final approval by the members of the Illinois Housing Development Authority of the terms of the contract.

(13) Contracts for services, commodities, and equipment to support the delivery of timely forensic science services in consultation with and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer as provided in subsection (d) of Section 5-4-3a of the Unified Code of Corrections, except for the requirements of Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code; however, the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50 of this Code. For any contracts for services which are currently provided by members of a collective bargaining agreement, the applicable terms of the collective bargaining agreement concerning subcontracting shall be followed.

On and after January 1, 2019, this paragraph (13), except for this sentence, is inoperative.

(14) Contracts for participation expenditures required by a domestic or international trade show or exhibition of an exhibitor, member, or sponsor.

(15) Contracts with a railroad or utility that requires the State to reimburse the railroad or utilities for the relocation of utilities for construction or other public purpose. Contracts included within this paragraph (15) shall include, but not be limited to, those associated with: relocations, crossings, installations, and maintenance. For the purposes of this paragraph (15), "railroad" means any form of non-highway ground transportation that runs on rails or electromagnetic guideways and "utility" means: (1) public utilities as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, (2) telecommunications carriers as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, (3) electric cooperatives as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, (4) telephone or telecommunications cooperatives as defined in Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, (5) rural water or waste water systems with 10,000 connections or less, (6) a holder as defined in Section 21-201 of the Public Utilities Act, and (7) municipalities owning or operating utility systems consisting of public utilities as that term is defined in Section 11-117-2 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(16) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Public Health to provide the delivery of timely newborn screening services in accordance with the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act.

(17) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Public Health to implement the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program requirements and ensure access to medical cannabis for patients with debilitating medical conditions in accordance with the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(18) This Code does not apply to any procurements necessary for the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and the Department of Public Health to implement the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act if the applicable agency has made a good faith determination that it is necessary and appropriate for the expenditure to fall within this exemption and if the process is conducted in a manner substantially in accordance with the requirements of Sections 20-160, 25-60, 30-22, 50-5, 50-10, 50-10.5, 50-12, 50-13, 50-15, 50-20, 50-21, 50-35, 50-36, 50-37, 50-38, and 50-50 of this Code; however, for Section 50-35, compliance applies only to contracts or subcontracts over $100,000. Notice of each contract entered into under this paragraph (18) that is related to the procurement of goods and services identified in paragraph (1) through (9) of this subsection shall be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 14 calendar days after contract execution. The Chief Procurement Officer shall prescribe the form and content of the notice. Each agency shall provide the Chief Procurement Officer, on a monthly basis, in the form and content prescribed by the Chief Procurement Officer, a report of contracts that are related to the procurement of goods and services identified in this subsection. At a minimum, this report shall include the name of the contractor, a description of the supply or service provided, the total amount of the contract, the term of the contract, and the exception to this Code utilized. A copy of any or all of these contracts shall be made available to the Chief Procurement Officer immediately upon request. The Chief Procurement Officer shall submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than November 1 of each year that includes, at a minimum, an annual summary of the monthly information reported to the Chief Procurement Officer. This exemption becomes inoperative 5 years after June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27).

(19) Acquisition of modifications or adjustments, limited to assistive technology devices and assistive technology services, adaptive equipment, repairs, and replacement parts to provide reasonable accommodations (i) that enable a qualified applicant with a disability to complete the job application process and be considered for the position such qualified applicant desires, (ii) that modify or adjust the work environment to enable a qualified current employee with a disability to perform the essential functions of the position held by that employee, (iii) to enable a qualified current employee with a disability to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment as are enjoyed by other similarly situated employees without disabilities, and (iv) that allow a customer, client, claimant, or member of the public seeking State services full use and enjoyment of and access to its programs, services, or benefits.

For purposes of this paragraph (19):

"Assistive technology devices" means any item, piece of equipment, or product system, whether acquired commercially off the shelf, modified, or customized, that is used to increase, maintain, or improve functional capabilities of individuals with disabilities.

"Assistive technology services" means any service that directly assists an individual with a disability in selection, acquisition, or use of an assistive technology device.

"Qualified" has the same meaning and use as provided under the federal Americans with Disabilities Act when describing an individual with a disability.

(20) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Illinois Commerce Commission to hire third-party facilitators pursuant to Sections 16-105.17 and 16-108.18 of the Public Utilities Act or an ombudsman pursuant to Section 16-107.5 of the Public Utilities Act, a facilitator pursuant to Section 16-105.17 of the Public Utilities Act, or a grid auditor pursuant to Section 16-105.10 of the Public Utilities Act.

(21) Procurement expenditures for the purchase, renewal, and expansion of software, software licenses, or software maintenance agreements that support the efforts of the Illinois State Police to enforce, regulate, and administer the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the Firearms Restraining Order Act, the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act, the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS), the Uniform Crime Reporting Act, the Criminal Identification Act, the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act, and the Gun Trafficking Information Act, or establish or maintain record management systems necessary to conduct human trafficking investigations or gun trafficking or other stolen firearm investigations. This paragraph (21) applies to contracts entered into on or after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) and the renewal of contracts that are in effect on January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116).

(22) Contracts for project management services and system integration services required for the completion of the State's enterprise resource planning project. This exemption becomes inoperative 5 years after June 7, 2023 (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-8). This paragraph (22) applies to contracts entered into on or after June 7, 2023 (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-8) and the renewal of contracts that are in effect on June 7, 2023 (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-8).

(23) Procurements necessary for the Department of Insurance to implement the Illinois Health Benefits Exchange Law if the Department of Insurance has made a good faith determination that it is necessary and appropriate for the expenditure to fall within this exemption. The procurement process shall be conducted in a manner substantially in accordance with the requirements of Sections 20-160 and 25-60 and Article 50 of this Code. A copy of these contracts shall be made available to the Chief Procurement Officer immediately upon request. This paragraph is inoperative 5 years after June 27, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-103).

(24) (22) Contracts for public education programming, noncommercial sustaining announcements, public service announcements, and public awareness and education messaging with the nonprofit trade associations of the providers of those services that inform the public on immediate and ongoing health and safety risks and hazards.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for contracts with an annual value of more than $100,000 entered into on or after October 1, 2017 under an exemption provided in any paragraph of this subsection (b), except paragraph (1), (2), or (5), each State agency shall post to the appropriate procurement bulletin the name of the contractor, a description of the supply or service provided, the total amount of the contract, the term of the contract, and the exception to the Code utilized. The chief procurement officer shall submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than November 1 of each year that shall include, at a minimum, an annual summary of the monthly information reported to the chief procurement officer.

(c) This Code does not apply to the electric power procurement process provided for under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. This Code does not apply to the procurement of technical and policy experts pursuant to Section 1-129 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(d) Except for Section 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code, and as expressly required by Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law, the provisions of this Code do not apply to the procurement process provided for under Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(e) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain a person or entity to assist the Capital Development Board with its duties related to the determination of costs of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined by Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required in subsection (h-3) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act, including calculating the range of capital costs, the range of operating and maintenance costs, or the sequestration costs or monitoring the construction of clean coal SNG brownfield facility for the full duration of construction.

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) This Code does not apply to the process to procure or contracts entered into in accordance with Sections 11-5.2 and 11-5.3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(i) Each chief procurement officer may access records necessary to review whether a contract, purchase, or other expenditure is or is not subject to the provisions of this Code, unless such records would be subject to attorney-client privilege.

(j) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain an artist or work or works of art as required in Section 14 of the Capital Development Board Act.

(k) This Code does not apply to the process to procure contracts, or contracts entered into, by the State Board of Elections or the State Electoral Board for hearing officers appointed pursuant to the Election Code.

(l) This Code does not apply to the processes used by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission to procure supplies and services paid for from the private funds of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Fund. As used in this subsection (l), "private funds" means funds derived from deposits paid into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund and the earnings thereon.

(m) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of funds with which contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. Except as specifically provided in this Code, this Code shall not apply to procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Public Health to conduct the Healthy Illinois Survey in accordance with Section 2310-431 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 102-175, eff. 7-29-21; 102-483, eff 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-600, eff. 8-27-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; 102-721, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-103, eff. 6-27-23; 103-570, eff. 1-1-24; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; revised 1-2-24.)

(30 ILCS 500/10-20)

Sec. 10-20. Independent chief procurement officers.

(a) Appointment. Within 60 calendar days after July 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-795) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the Executive Ethics Commission, with the advice and consent of the Senate shall appoint or approve 4 chief procurement officers, one for each of the following categories:

(1) for procurements for construction and construction-related services committed by law to the jurisdiction or responsibility of the Capital Development Board;

(2) for procurements for all construction, construction-related services, operation of any facility, and the provision of any service or activity committed by law to the jurisdiction or responsibility of the Illinois Department of Transportation, including the direct or reimbursable expenditure of all federal funds for which the Department of Transportation is responsible or accountable for the use thereof in accordance with federal law, regulation, or procedure, the chief procurement officer recommended for approval under this item appointed by the Secretary of Transportation after consent by the Executive Ethics Commission;

(3) for all procurements made by a public institution of higher education; and

(4) for all other procurement needs of State agencies.

For fiscal year 2024, the Executive Ethics Commission shall set aside from its appropriation those amounts necessary for the use of the 4 chief procurement officers for the ordinary and contingent expenses of their respective procurement offices. From the amounts set aside by the Commission, each chief procurement officer shall control the internal operations of his or her procurement office and shall procure the necessary equipment, materials, and services to perform the duties of that office, including hiring necessary procurement personnel, legal advisors, and other employees, and may establish, in the exercise of the chief procurement officer's discretion, the compensation of the office's employees, which includes the State purchasing officers and any legal advisors. The Executive Ethics Commission shall have no control over the employees of the chief procurement officers. The Executive Ethics Commission shall provide administrative support services, including payroll, for each procurement office.

(b) Terms and independence. Each chief procurement officer appointed under this Section shall serve for a term of 5 years beginning on the date of the officer's appointment. The chief procurement officer may be removed for cause after a hearing by the Executive Ethics Commission. The Governor or the director of a State agency directly responsible to the Governor may institute a complaint against the officer by filing such complaint with the Commission. The Commission shall have a hearing based on the complaint. The officer and the complainant shall receive reasonable notice of the hearing and shall be permitted to present their respective arguments on the complaint. After the hearing, the Commission shall make a finding on the complaint and may take disciplinary action, including but not limited to removal of the officer.

The salary of a chief procurement officer shall be established by the Executive Ethics Commission and may not be diminished during the officer's term. The salary may not exceed the salary of the director of a State agency for which the officer serves as chief procurement officer.

(c) Qualifications. In addition to any other requirement or qualification required by State law, each chief procurement officer must within 12 months of employment be a Certified Professional Public Buyer or a Certified Public Purchasing Officer, pursuant to certification by the Universal Public Purchasing Certification Council, and must reside in Illinois.

(d) Fiduciary duty. Each chief procurement officer owes a fiduciary duty to the State.

(e) Vacancy. In case of a vacancy in one or more of the offices of a chief procurement officer under this Section during the recess of the Senate, the Executive Ethics Commission shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when the Executive Ethics Commission shall nominate some person to fill the office, and any person so nominated who is confirmed by the Senate shall hold office during the remainder of the term and until his or her successor is appointed and qualified. If the Senate is not in session at the time Public Act 96-920 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly takes effect, the Executive Ethics Commission shall make a temporary appointment as in the case of a vacancy.

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; revised 9-26-23.)

Section 165. The Illinois Works Jobs Program Act is amended by changing Section 20-15 as follows:

(30 ILCS 559/20-15)

Sec. 20-15. Illinois Works Preapprenticeship Program; Illinois Works Bid Credit Program.

(a) The Illinois Works Preapprenticeship Program is established and shall be administered by the Department. The goal of the Illinois Works Preapprenticeship Program is to create a network of community-based organizations throughout the State that will recruit, prescreen, and provide preapprenticeship skills training, for which participants may attend free of charge and receive a stipend, to create a qualified, diverse pipeline of workers who are prepared for careers in the construction and building trades. Upon completion of the Illinois Works Preapprenticeship Program, the candidates will be skilled and work-ready.

(b) There is created the Illinois Works Fund, a special fund in the State treasury. The Illinois Works Fund shall be administered by the Department. The Illinois Works Fund shall be used to provide funding for community-based organizations throughout the State. In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2019 at the direction of the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $50,000,000 from the Rebuild Illinois Projects Fund to the Illinois Works Fund.

(c) Each community-based organization that receives funding from the Illinois Works Fund shall provide an annual report to the Illinois Works Review Panel by April 1 of each calendar year. The annual report shall include the following information:

(1) a description of the community-based organization's recruitment, screening, and training efforts;

(2) the number of individuals who apply to, participate in, and complete the community-based organization's program, broken down by race, gender, age, and veteran status; and

(3) the number of the individuals referenced in item (2) of this subsection who are initially accepted and placed into apprenticeship programs in the construction and building trades.

(d) The Department shall create and administer the Illinois Works Bid Credit Program that shall provide economic incentives, through bid credits, to encourage contractors and subcontractors to provide contracting and employment opportunities to historically underrepresented populations in the construction industry.

The Illinois Works Bid Credit Program shall allow contractors and subcontractors to earn bid credits for use toward future bids for public works projects contracted by the State or an agency of the State in order to increase the chances that the contractor and the subcontractors will be selected.

Contractors or subcontractors may be eligible to earn bid credits for employing apprentices who have completed the Illinois Works Preapprenticeship Program. Contractors or subcontractors shall earn bid credits at a rate established by the Department and based on labor hours worked by apprentices who have completed the Illinois Works Preapprenticeship Program. In order to earn bid credits, contractors and subcontractors shall provide the Department with certified payroll documenting the hours performed by apprentices who have completed the Illinois Works Preapprenticeship Program. Contractors and subcontractors can use bid credits toward future bids for public works projects contracted or funded by the State or an agency of the State in order to increase the likelihood of being selected as the contractor for the public works project toward which they have applied the bid credit. The Department shall establish the rate by rule and shall publish it on the Department's website. The rule may include maximum bid credits allowed per contractor, per subcontractor, per apprentice, per bid, or per year.

The Illinois Works Credit Bank is hereby created and shall be administered by the Department. The Illinois Works Credit Bank shall track the bid credits.

A contractor or subcontractor who has been awarded bid credits under any other State program for employing apprentices who have completed the Illinois Works Preapprenticeship Program is not eligible to receive bid credits under the Illinois Works Bid Credit Program relating to the same contract.

The Department shall report to the Illinois Works Review Panel the following: (i) the number of bid credits awarded by the Department; (ii) the number of bid credits submitted by the contractor or subcontractor to the agency administering the public works contract; and (iii) the number of bid credits accepted by the agency for such contract. Any agency that awards bid credits pursuant to the Illinois Works Credit Bank Program shall report to the Department the number of bid credits it accepted for the public works contract.

Upon a finding that a contractor or subcontractor has reported falsified records to the Department in order to fraudulently obtain bid credits, the Department may bar the contractor or subcontractor from participating in the Illinois Works Bid Credit Program and may suspend the contractor or subcontractor from bidding on or participating in any public works project. False or fraudulent claims for payment relating to false bid credits may be subject to damages and penalties under applicable law.

(e) The Department shall adopt any rules deemed necessary to implement this Section. In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of this Act, the Department may adopt emergency rules. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-305, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-6-23.)

Section 170. The Build Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 10-6 as follows:

(30 ILCS 750/10-6) (from Ch. 127, par. 2710-6)

Sec. 10-6. Large Business Attraction Fund.

(a) There is created the Large Business Attraction Fund to be held as part of the State Treasury. The Department is authorized to make loans from the Fund for the purposes established under this Article. The State Treasurer shall have custody of the Fund and may invest in securities constituting direct obligations of the United States Government, in obligations the principal of and interest on which are guaranteed by the United States Government, or in certificates of deposit of any State or national bank that are fully secured by obligations guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States Government. The purpose of the Fund is to offer loans to finance large firms considering the location of a proposed plant in the State and to provide financing to carry out the purposes and provisions of paragraph (h) of Section 10-3. Financing shall be in the form of a loan, mortgage, or other debt instrument. All loans shall be conditioned on the project receiving financing from participating lenders or other sources. Loan proceeds shall be available for project costs associated with an expansion of business capacity and employment, except for debt refinancing. Targeted companies for the program shall primarily consist of established industrial and service companies with proven records of earnings that will sell their product to markets beyond Illinois and have proven multistate location options. New ventures shall be considered only if the entity is protected with adequate security with regard to its financing and operation. The limitations and conditions with respect to the use of this Fund shall not apply in carrying out the purposes and provisions of paragraph (h) of Section 10-3.

(b) Deposits into the Fund shall include, but are not limited to:

(1) Any appropriations, grants, or gifts made to the Fund.

(2) Any income received from interest on investments of amounts from the Fund not currently needed to meet the obligations of the Fund.

(c) The State Comptroller and the State Treasurer shall from time to time, upon the written direction of the Governor, transfer from the Fund to the General Revenue Fund or the Budget Stabilization Fund, those amounts that the Governor determines are in excess of the amounts required to meet the obligations of the Fund. Any amounts transferred to the Budget Stabilization Fund may be transferred back to the Large Business Attraction Fund by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer, upon the written direction of the Governor.

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the Large Business Attraction Fund may be used for the purposes established under the Invest in Illinois Act, including for awards, grants, loans, contracts, and administrative expenses.

(Source: P.A. 102-1115, eff. 1-9-23; 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; revised 2-23-23.)

Section 175. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Sections 8.46 and 8.47 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.46)

Sec. 8.46. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by 102-707, 102-764, 102-806, 102-811, 102-836, 102-856, 102-857, 102-884, 102-943, 102-1061, 102-1064, 102-1088, or 102-1131 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by the Decennial Committees on Local Government Efficiency Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-707, eff. 4-22-22; 102-764, eff. 5-13-22; 102-806, eff. 5-13-22; 102-811, eff. 1-1-23; 102-836, eff. 5-13-22; 102-856, eff. 1-1-23; 102-857, eff. 5-13-22; 102-884, eff. 5-13-22; 102-943, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1061, eff. 6-10-22; 102-1064, eff. 6-10-22; 102-1088, eff. 6-10-22; 102-1131, eff. 6-1-23; revised 9-19-23.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.47)

Sec. 8.47. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 103-2, 103-110, 103-409, 103-455, 103-529, 103-552, 103-553, 103-579, or 103-582 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by the Decennial Committees on Local Government Efficiency Act.

(c) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of the mandate created by Section 2.10a of the Regional Transportation Authority Act in Public Act 103-281 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1136, eff. 2-10-23; 103-2, eff. 5-10-23; 103-110, eff. 6-29-23; 103-281, eff. 1-1-24; 103-409, eff. 1-1-24; 103-455, eff. 1-1-24; 103-529, eff. 8-11-23; 103-552, eff. 8-11-23; 103-553, eff. 8-11-23; 103-579, eff. 12-8-23; 103-582, eff. 12-8-23; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 180. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 201, 203, 228, and 237 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/201)

Sec. 201. Tax imposed.

(a) In general. A tax measured by net income is hereby imposed on every individual, corporation, trust and estate for each taxable year ending after July 31, 1969 on the privilege of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this State. Such tax shall be in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(b) Rates. The tax imposed by subsection (a) of this Section shall be determined as follows, except as adjusted by subsection (d-1):

(1) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(2) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.

(3) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, and ending prior to January 1, 2011, an amount equal to 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(4) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2011, and ending after December 31, 2010, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2011, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2010, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(5) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2011, and ending prior to January 1, 2015, an amount equal to 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(5.1) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2015, and ending after December 31, 2014, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2015, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2014, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(5.2) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, and ending prior to July 1, 2017, an amount equal to 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(5.3) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 2017, and ending after June 30, 2017, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 2017, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 4.95% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 2017, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(5.4) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning on or after July 1, 2017, an amount equal to 4.95% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(6) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 4% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(7) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.

(8) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, and ending prior to January 1, 2011, an amount equal to 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(9) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2011, and ending after December 31, 2010, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2011, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2010, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(10) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2011, and ending prior to January 1, 2015, an amount equal to 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(11) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2015, and ending after December 31, 2014, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2015, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 5.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2014, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(12) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, and ending prior to July 1, 2017, an amount equal to 5.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(13) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 2017, and ending after June 30, 2017, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 5.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 2017, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 2017, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(14) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning on or after July 1, 2017, an amount equal to 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

The rates under this subsection (b) are subject to the provisions of Section 201.5.

(b-5) Surcharge; sale or exchange of assets, properties, and intangibles of organization gaming licensees. For each of taxable years 2019 through 2027, a surcharge is imposed on all taxpayers on income arising from the sale or exchange of capital assets, depreciable business property, real property used in the trade or business, and Section 197 intangibles (i) of an organization licensee under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 and (ii) of an organization gaming licensee under the Illinois Gambling Act. The amount of the surcharge is equal to the amount of federal income tax liability for the taxable year attributable to those sales and exchanges. The surcharge imposed shall not apply if:

(1) the organization gaming license, organization license, or racetrack property is transferred as a result of any of the following:

(A) bankruptcy, a receivership, or a debt adjustment initiated by or against the initial licensee or the substantial owners of the initial licensee;

(B) cancellation, revocation, or termination of any such license by the Illinois Gaming Board or the Illinois Racing Board;

(C) a determination by the Illinois Gaming Board that transfer of the license is in the best interests of Illinois gaming;

(D) the death of an owner of the equity interest in a licensee;

(E) the acquisition of a controlling interest in the stock or substantially all of the assets of a publicly traded company;

(F) a transfer by a parent company to a wholly owned subsidiary; or

(G) the transfer or sale to or by one person to another person where both persons were initial owners of the license when the license was issued; or

(2) the controlling interest in the organization gaming license, organization license, or racetrack property is transferred in a transaction to lineal descendants in which no gain or loss is recognized or as a result of a transaction in accordance with Section 351 of the Internal Revenue Code in which no gain or loss is recognized; or

(3) live horse racing was not conducted in 2010 at a racetrack located within 3 miles of the Mississippi River under a license issued pursuant to the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975.

The transfer of an organization gaming license, organization license, or racetrack property by a person other than the initial licensee to receive the organization gaming license is not subject to a surcharge. The Department shall adopt rules necessary to implement and administer this subsection.

(c) Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax. Beginning on July 1, 1979 and thereafter, in addition to such income tax, there is also hereby imposed the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax measured by net income on every corporation (including Subchapter S corporations), partnership and trust, for each taxable year ending after June 30, 1979. Such taxes are imposed on the privilege of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this State. The Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax shall be in addition to the income tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section and in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(d) Additional Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax Rates. The personal property tax replacement income tax imposed by this subsection and subsection (c) of this Section in the case of a corporation, other than a Subchapter S corporation and except as adjusted by subsection (d-1), shall be an additional amount equal to 2.85% of such taxpayer's net income for the taxable year, except that beginning on January 1, 1981, and thereafter, the rate of 2.85% specified in this subsection shall be reduced to 2.5%, and in the case of a partnership, trust or a Subchapter S corporation shall be an additional amount equal to 1.5% of such taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(d-1) Rate reduction for certain foreign insurers. In the case of a foreign insurer, as defined by Section 35A-5 of the Illinois Insurance Code, whose state or country of domicile imposes on insurers domiciled in Illinois a retaliatory tax (excluding any insurer whose premiums from reinsurance assumed are 50% or more of its total insurance premiums as determined under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 304, except that for purposes of this determination premiums from reinsurance do not include premiums from inter-affiliate reinsurance arrangements), beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1999, the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections (b) and (d) shall be reduced (but not increased) to the rate at which the total amount of tax imposed under this Act, net of all credits allowed under this Act, shall equal (i) the total amount of tax that would be imposed on the foreign insurer's net income allocable to Illinois for the taxable year by such foreign insurer's state or country of domicile if that net income were subject to all income taxes and taxes measured by net income imposed by such foreign insurer's state or country of domicile, net of all credits allowed or (ii) a rate of zero if no such tax is imposed on such income by the foreign insurer's state of domicile. For the purposes of this subsection (d-1), an inter-affiliate includes a mutual insurer under common management.

(1) For the purposes of subsection (d-1), in no event shall the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections (b) and (d) be reduced below the rate at which the sum of:

(A) the total amount of tax imposed on such foreign insurer under this Act for a taxable year, net of all credits allowed under this Act, plus

(B) the privilege tax imposed by Section 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the fire insurance company tax imposed by Section 12 of the Fire Investigation Act, and the fire department taxes imposed under Section 11-10-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code,

equals 1.25% for taxable years ending prior to December 31, 2003, or 1.75% for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2003, of the net taxable premiums written for the taxable year, as described by subsection (1) of Section 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code. This paragraph will in no event increase the rates imposed under subsections (b) and (d).

(2) Any reduction in the rates of tax imposed by this subsection shall be applied first against the rates imposed by subsection (b) and only after the tax imposed by subsection (a) net of all credits allowed under this Section other than the credit allowed under subsection (i) has been reduced to zero, against the rates imposed by subsection (d).

This subsection (d-1) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(e) Investment credit. A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for investment in qualified property.

(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 1984. There shall be allowed an additional credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 1986, and the taxpayer's base employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in which they file employment records with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. The provisions added to this Section by Public Act 85-1200 (and restored by Public Act 87-895) shall be construed as declaratory of existing law and not as a new enactment. If, in any year, the increase in base employment within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the numerator of which is .5% and the denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed .5%. The investment credit shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability in any tax year below zero, nor may any credit for qualified property be allowed for any year other than the year in which the property was placed in service in Illinois. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1987, and on or before December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit years if the taxpayer (i) makes investments which cause the creation of a minimum of 2,000 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois, (ii) is located in an enterprise zone established pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act and (iii) is certified by the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) as complying with the requirements specified in clause (i) and (ii) by July 1, 1986. The Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) shall notify the Department of Revenue of all such certifications immediately. For tax years ending after December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit years. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, earlier credit shall be applied first.

(2) The term "qualified property" means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings and signs that are real property, but not including land or improvements to real property that are not a structural component of a building such as landscaping, sewer lines, local access roads, fencing, parking lots, and other appurtenances;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (e);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D) is used in Illinois by a taxpayer who is primarily engaged in manufacturing, or in mining coal or fluorite, or in retailing, or was placed in service on or after July 1, 2006 in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act; and

(E) has not previously been used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this subsection (e) or subsection (f).

(3) For purposes of this subsection (e), "manufacturing" means the material staging and production of tangible personal property by procedures commonly regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabrication, or assembling which changes some existing material into new shapes, new qualities, or new combinations. For purposes of this subsection (e) the term "mining" shall have the same meaning as the term "mining" in Section 613(c) of the Internal Revenue Code. For purposes of this subsection (e), the term "retailing" means the sale of tangible personal property for use or consumption and not for resale, or services rendered in conjunction with the sale of tangible personal property for use or consumption and not for resale. For purposes of this subsection (e), "tangible personal property" has the same meaning as when that term is used in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and, for taxable years ending after December 31, 2008, does not include the generation, transmission, or distribution of electricity.

(4) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(5) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(6) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(7) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48 months after being placed in service, the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation and, (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (7), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(8) Unless the investment credit is extended by law, the basis of qualified property shall not include costs incurred after December 31, 2018, except for costs incurred pursuant to a binding contract entered into on or before December 31, 2018.

(9) Each taxable year ending before December 31, 2000, a partnership may elect to pass through to its partners the credits to which the partnership is entitled under this subsection (e) for the taxable year. A partner may use the credit allocated to him or her under this paragraph only against the tax imposed in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section. If the partnership makes that election, those credits shall be allocated among the partners in the partnership in accordance with the rules set forth in Section 704(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and the rules promulgated under that Section, and the allocated amount of the credits shall be allowed to the partners for that taxable year. The partnership shall make this election on its Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax return for that taxable year. The election to pass through the credits shall be irrevocable.

For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2000, a partner that qualifies its partnership for a subtraction under subparagraph (I) of paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 203 or a shareholder that qualifies a Subchapter S corporation for a subtraction under subparagraph (S) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 203 shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (e) equal to its share of the credit earned under this subsection (e) during the taxable year by the partnership or Subchapter S corporation, determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(f) Investment credit; Enterprise Zone; River Edge Redevelopment Zone.

(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified property which is placed in service in an Enterprise Zone created pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or, for property placed in service on or after July 1, 2006, a River Edge Redevelopment Zone established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. For partners, shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, for taxable years ending before December 31, 2023, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (f) to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2023, for partners and shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, the provisions of Section 251 shall apply with respect to the credit under this subsection. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1985, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (f);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D) is used in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer; and

(E) has not been previously used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this subsection (f) or subsection (e).

(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(7) There shall be allowed an additional credit equal to 0.5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 2006, and the taxpayer's base employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in which they file employment records with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. If, in any year, the increase in base employment within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the numerator of which is 0.5% and the denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed 0.5%.

(8) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2021, there shall be allowed an Enterprise Zone construction jobs credit against the taxes imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section as provided in Section 13 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act.

The credit or credits may not reduce the taxpayer's liability to less than zero. If the amount of the credit or credits exceeds the taxpayer's liability, the excess may be carried forward and applied against the taxpayer's liability in succeeding calendar years in the same manner provided under paragraph (4) of Section 211 of this Act. The credit or credits shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one taxable year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first.

For partners, shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for the purposes of federal and State income taxation, for taxable years ending before December 31, 2023, there shall be allowed a credit under this Section to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2023, for partners and shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, the provisions of Section 251 shall apply with respect to the credit under this subsection.

The total aggregate amount of credits awarded under the Blue Collar Jobs Act (Article 20 of Public Act 101-9) shall not exceed $20,000,000 in any State fiscal year.

This paragraph (8) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Investment credit; High Impact Business.

(1) Subject to subsections (b) and (b-5) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified property which is placed in service by a Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity designated High Impact Business. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall not be available (i) until the minimum investments in qualified property set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act have been satisfied or (ii) until the time authorized in subsection (b-5) of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act for entities designated as High Impact Businesses under subdivisions (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(C), and (a)(3)(D) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. The credit applicable to such investments shall be taken in the taxable year in which such investments have been completed. The credit for additional investments beyond the minimum investment by a designated high impact business authorized under subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1987, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

Changes made in this subdivision (h)(1) by Public Act 88-670 restore changes made by Public Act 85-1182 and reflect existing law.

(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (h);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(D) is not eligible for the Enterprise Zone Investment Credit provided by subsection (f) of this Section.

(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) If during any taxable year ending on or before December 31, 1996, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(7) Beginning with tax years ending after December 31, 1996, if a taxpayer qualifies for the credit under this subsection (h) and thereby is granted a tax abatement and the taxpayer relocates its entire facility in violation of the explicit terms and length of the contract under Section 18-183 of the Property Tax Code, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section shall be increased for the taxable year in which the taxpayer relocated its facility by an amount equal to the amount of credit received by the taxpayer under this subsection (h).

(h-5) High Impact Business construction jobs credit. For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2021, there shall also be allowed a High Impact Business construction jobs credit against the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section as provided in subsections (i) and (j) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act.

The credit or credits may not reduce the taxpayer's liability to less than zero. If the amount of the credit or credits exceeds the taxpayer's liability, the excess may be carried forward and applied against the taxpayer's liability in succeeding calendar years in the manner provided under paragraph (4) of Section 211 of this Act. The credit or credits shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one taxable year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first.

For partners, shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, for taxable years ending before December 31, 2023, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for the purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this Section to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2023, for partners and shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, the provisions of Section 251 shall apply with respect to the credit under this subsection.

The total aggregate amount of credits awarded under the Blue Collar Jobs Act (Article 20 of Public Act 101-9) shall not exceed $20,000,000 in any State fiscal year.

This subsection (h-5) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(i) Credit for Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax. For tax years ending prior to December 31, 2003, a credit shall be allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section. This credit shall be computed by multiplying the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by a fraction, the numerator of which is base income allocable to Illinois and the denominator of which is Illinois base income, and further multiplying the product by the tax rate imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.

Any credit earned on or after December 31, 1986 under this subsection which is unused in the year the credit is computed because it exceeds the tax liability imposed by subsections (a) and (b) for that year (whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended) may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year, provided that no credit may be carried forward to any year ending on or after December 31, 2003. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first.

If, during any taxable year ending on or after December 31, 1986, the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section for which a taxpayer has claimed a credit under this subsection (i) is reduced, the amount of credit for such tax shall also be reduced. Such reduction shall be determined by recomputing the credit to take into account the reduced tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d). If any portion of the reduced amount of credit has been carried to a different taxable year, an amended return shall be filed for such taxable year to reduce the amount of credit claimed.

(j) Training expense credit. Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1986 and prior to December 31, 2003, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) under this Section for all amounts paid or accrued, on behalf of all persons employed by the taxpayer in Illinois or Illinois residents employed outside of Illinois by a taxpayer, for educational or vocational training in semi-technical or technical fields or semi-skilled or skilled fields, which were deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income. The credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be 1.6% of such training expenses. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, for taxable years ending before December 31, 2023, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (j) to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2023, for partners and shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, the provisions of Section 251 shall apply with respect to the credit under this subsection.

Any credit allowed under this subsection which is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first computed until it is used. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. No carryforward credit may be claimed in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 2003.

(k) Research and development credit. For tax years ending after July 1, 1990 and prior to December 31, 2003, and beginning again for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2004, and ending prior to January 1, 2027, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for increasing research activities in this State. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 6 1/2% of the qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in this State. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, for taxable years ending before December 31, 2023, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2023, for partners and shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, the provisions of Section 251 shall apply with respect to the credit under this subsection.

For purposes of this subsection, "qualifying expenditures" means the qualifying expenditures as defined for the federal credit for increasing research activities which would be allowable under Section 41 of the Internal Revenue Code and which are conducted in this State, "qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in this State" means the excess of qualifying expenditures for the taxable year in which incurred over qualifying expenditures for the base period, "qualifying expenditures for the base period" means the average of the qualifying expenditures for each year in the base period, and "base period" means the 3 taxable years immediately preceding the taxable year for which the determination is being made.

Any credit in excess of the tax liability for the taxable year may be carried forward. A taxpayer may elect to have the unused credit shown on its final completed return carried over as a credit against the tax liability for the following 5 taxable years or until it has been fully used, whichever occurs first; provided that no credit earned in a tax year ending prior to December 31, 2003 may be carried forward to any year ending on or after December 31, 2003.

If an unused credit is carried forward to a given year from 2 or more earlier years, that credit arising in the earliest year will be applied first against the tax liability for the given year. If a tax liability for the given year still remains, the credit from the next earliest year will then be applied, and so on, until all credits have been used or no tax liability for the given year remains. Any remaining unused credit or credits then will be carried forward to the next following year in which a tax liability is incurred, except that no credit can be carried forward to a year which is more than 5 years after the year in which the expense for which the credit is given was incurred.

No inference shall be drawn from Public Act 91-644 in construing this Section for taxable years beginning before January 1, 1999.

It is the intent of the General Assembly that the research and development credit under this subsection (k) shall apply continuously for all tax years ending on or after December 31, 2004 and ending prior to January 1, 2027, including, but not limited to, the period beginning on January 1, 2016 and ending on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-22). All actions taken in reliance on the continuation of the credit under this subsection (k) by any taxpayer are hereby validated.

(l) Environmental Remediation Tax Credit.

(i) For tax years ending after December 31, 1997 and on or before December 31, 2001, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14 of the Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing environmental remediation at a site for which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the Environmental Protection Act. After the Pollution Control Board rules are adopted pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental Protection Act, determinations as to credit availability for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with those rules. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site, except that the $100,000 threshold shall not apply to any site contained in an enterprise zone as determined by the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity). The total credit allowed shall not exceed $40,000 per year with a maximum total of $150,000 per site. For partners and shareholders of subchapter S corporations, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first earned until it is used. The term "unused credit" does not include any amounts of unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of the maximum credit per site authorized under paragraph (i). This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of all or part of the remediation site for which the credit was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the chain of title for the site and provide written notice to the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).

(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site" shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(m) Education expense credit. Beginning with tax years ending after December 31, 1999, a taxpayer who is the custodian of one or more qualifying pupils shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for qualified education expenses incurred on behalf of the qualifying pupils. The credit shall be equal to 25% of qualified education expenses, but in no event may the total credit under this subsection claimed by a family that is the custodian of qualifying pupils exceed (i) $500 for tax years ending prior to December 31, 2017, and (ii) $750 for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2017. In no event shall a credit under this subsection reduce the taxpayer's liability under this Act to less than zero. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, no taxpayer may claim a credit under this subsection (m) if the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year exceeds (i) $500,000, in the case of spouses filing a joint federal tax return or (ii) $250,000, in the case of all other taxpayers. This subsection is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Qualifying pupils" means individuals who (i) are residents of the State of Illinois, (ii) are under the age of 21 at the close of the school year for which a credit is sought, and (iii) during the school year for which a credit is sought were full-time pupils enrolled in a kindergarten through twelfth grade education program at any school, as defined in this subsection.

"Qualified education expense" means the amount incurred on behalf of a qualifying pupil in excess of $250 for tuition, book fees, and lab fees at the school in which the pupil is enrolled during the regular school year.

"School" means any public or nonpublic elementary or secondary school in Illinois that is in compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and attendance at which satisfies the requirements of Section 26-1 of the School Code, except that nothing shall be construed to require a child to attend any particular public or nonpublic school to qualify for the credit under this Section.

"Custodian" means, with respect to qualifying pupils, an Illinois resident who is a parent, the parents, a legal guardian, or the legal guardians of the qualifying pupils.

(n) River Edge Redevelopment Zone site remediation tax credit.

(i) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 2006, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14a of the Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing environmental remediation at a site within a River Edge Redevelopment Zone for which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the Environmental Protection Act. Determinations as to credit availability for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental Protection Act. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site.

(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first earned until it is used. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of all or part of the remediation site for which the credit was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the chain of title for the site and provide written notice to the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).

(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site" shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(o) For each of taxable years during the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program, a surcharge is imposed on all taxpayers on income arising from the sale or exchange of capital assets, depreciable business property, real property used in the trade or business, and Section 197 intangibles of an organization registrant under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act. The amount of the surcharge is equal to the amount of federal income tax liability for the taxable year attributable to those sales and exchanges. The surcharge imposed does not apply if:

(1) the medical cannabis cultivation center registration, medical cannabis dispensary registration, or the property of a registration is transferred as a result of any of the following:

(A) bankruptcy, a receivership, or a debt adjustment initiated by or against the initial registration or the substantial owners of the initial registration;

(B) cancellation, revocation, or termination of any registration by the Illinois Department of Public Health;

(C) a determination by the Illinois Department of Public Health that transfer of the registration is in the best interests of Illinois qualifying patients as defined by the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act;

(D) the death of an owner of the equity interest in a registrant;

(E) the acquisition of a controlling interest in the stock or substantially all of the assets of a publicly traded company;

(F) a transfer by a parent company to a wholly owned subsidiary; or

(G) the transfer or sale to or by one person to another person where both persons were initial owners of the registration when the registration was issued; or

(2) the cannabis cultivation center registration, medical cannabis dispensary registration, or the controlling interest in a registrant's property is transferred in a transaction to lineal descendants in which no gain or loss is recognized or as a result of a transaction in accordance with Section 351 of the Internal Revenue Code in which no gain or loss is recognized.

(p) Pass-through entity tax.

(1) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2021 and beginning prior to January 1, 2026, a partnership (other than a publicly traded partnership under Section 7704 of the Internal Revenue Code) or Subchapter S corporation may elect to apply the provisions of this subsection. A separate election shall be made for each taxable year. Such election shall be made at such time, and in such form and manner as prescribed by the Department, and, once made, is irrevocable.

(2) Entity-level tax. A partnership or Subchapter S corporation electing to apply the provisions of this subsection shall be subject to a tax for the privilege of earning or receiving income in this State in an amount equal to 4.95% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(3) Net income defined.

(A) In general. For purposes of paragraph (2), the term net income has the same meaning as defined in Section 202 of this Act, except that, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2023, a deduction shall be allowed in computing base income for distributions to a retired partner to the extent that the partner's distributions are exempt from tax under Section 203(a)(2)(F) of this Act. In addition, the following modifications shall not apply:

(i) the standard exemption allowed under Section 204;

(ii) the deduction for net losses allowed under Section 207;

(iii) in the case of an S corporation, the modification under Section 203(b)(2)(S); and

(iv) in the case of a partnership, the modifications under Section 203(d)(2)(H) and Section 203(d)(2)(I).

(B) Special rule for tiered partnerships. If a taxpayer making the election under paragraph (1) is a partner of another taxpayer making the election under paragraph (1), net income shall be computed as provided in subparagraph (A), except that the taxpayer shall subtract its distributive share of the net income of the electing partnership (including its distributive share of the net income of the electing partnership derived as a distributive share from electing partnerships in which it is a partner).

(4) Credit for entity level tax. Each partner or shareholder of a taxpayer making the election under this Section shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act for the taxable year of the partnership or Subchapter S corporation for which an election is in effect ending within or with the taxable year of the partner or shareholder in an amount equal to 4.95% times the partner or shareholder's distributive share of the net income of the electing partnership or Subchapter S corporation, but not to exceed the partner's or shareholder's share of the tax imposed under paragraph (1) which is actually paid by the partnership or Subchapter S corporation. If the taxpayer is a partnership or Subchapter S corporation that is itself a partner of a partnership making the election under paragraph (1), the credit under this paragraph shall be allowed to the taxpayer's partners or shareholders (or if the partner is a partnership or Subchapter S corporation then its partners or shareholders) in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. If the amount of the credit allowed under this paragraph exceeds the partner's or shareholder's liability for tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act for the taxable year, such excess shall be treated as an overpayment for purposes of Section 909 of this Act.

(5) Nonresidents. A nonresident individual who is a partner or shareholder of a partnership or Subchapter S corporation for a taxable year for which an election is in effect under paragraph (1) shall not be required to file an income tax return under this Act for such taxable year if the only source of net income of the individual (or the individual and the individual's spouse in the case of a joint return) is from an entity making the election under paragraph (1) and the credit allowed to the partner or shareholder under paragraph (4) equals or exceeds the individual's liability for the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act for the taxable year.

(6) Liability for tax. Except as provided in this paragraph, a partnership or Subchapter S making the election under paragraph (1) is liable for the entity-level tax imposed under paragraph (2). If the electing partnership or corporation fails to pay the full amount of tax deemed assessed under paragraph (2), the partners or shareholders shall be liable to pay the tax assessed (including penalties and interest). Each partner or shareholder shall be liable for the unpaid assessment based on the ratio of the partner's or shareholder's share of the net income of the partnership over the total net income of the partnership. If the partnership or Subchapter S corporation fails to pay the tax assessed (including penalties and interest) and thereafter an amount of such tax is paid by the partners or shareholders, such amount shall not be collected from the partnership or corporation.

(7) Foreign tax. For purposes of the credit allowed under Section 601(b)(3) of this Act, tax paid by a partnership or Subchapter S corporation to another state which, as determined by the Department, is substantially similar to the tax imposed under this subsection, shall be considered tax paid by the partner or shareholder to the extent that the partner's or shareholder's share of the income of the partnership or Subchapter S corporation allocated and apportioned to such other state bears to the total income of the partnership or Subchapter S corporation allocated or apportioned to such other state.

(8) Suspension of withholding. The provisions of Section 709.5 of this Act shall not apply to a partnership or Subchapter S corporation for the taxable year for which an election under paragraph (1) is in effect.

(9) Requirement to pay estimated tax. For each taxable year for which an election under paragraph (1) is in effect, a partnership or Subchapter S corporation is required to pay estimated tax for such taxable year under Sections 803 and 804 of this Act if the amount payable as estimated tax can reasonably be expected to exceed $500.

(10) The provisions of this subsection shall apply only with respect to taxable years for which the limitation on individual deductions applies under Section 164(b)(6) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-658, eff. 8-27-21; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-396, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

(35 ILCS 5/203)

Sec. 203. Base income defined.

(a) Individuals.

(1) In general. In the case of an individual, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The adjusted gross income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income, except stock dividends of qualified public utilities described in Section 305(e) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income for the taxable year;

(C) An amount equal to the amount received during the taxable year as a recovery or refund of real property taxes paid with respect to the taxpayer's principal residence under the Revenue Act of 1939 and for which a deduction was previously taken under subparagraph (L) of this paragraph (2) prior to July 1, 1991, the retrospective application date of Article 4 of Public Act 87-17. In the case of multi-unit or multi-use structures and farm dwellings, the taxes on the taxpayer's principal residence shall be that portion of the total taxes for the entire property which is attributable to such principal residence;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income;

(D-5) An amount, to the extent not included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of money withdrawn by the taxpayer in the taxable year from a medical care savings account and the interest earned on the account in the taxable year of a withdrawal pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act or subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000;

(D-10) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the individual deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the individual claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(D-15) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-16) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (Z) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (Z) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (Z), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-17) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-18) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-19) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) or Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) of this Act;

(D-20) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2006, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, or (iii) a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that (I) adopts and determines that its offering materials comply with the College Savings Plans Network's disclosure principles and (II) has made reasonable efforts to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs by informing Illinois residents directly and, where applicable, to inform financial intermediaries distributing the program to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs at least annually, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B).

For the purposes of this subparagraph (D-20), a qualified tuition program has made reasonable efforts if it makes disclosures (which may use the term "in-state program" or "in-state plan" and need not specifically refer to Illinois or its qualified programs by name) (i) directly to prospective participants in its offering materials or makes a public disclosure, such as a website posting; and (ii) where applicable, to intermediaries selling the out-of-state program in the same manner that the out-of-state program distributes its offering materials;

(D-20.5) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, in the case of a distribution from a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code, other than a distribution from a qualified ABLE program created under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529A(c)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-21) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by the State to an out-of-state program, an amount equal to the amount of moneys previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section;

(D-21.5) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, in the case of the transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 or a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by this State to an ABLE account established under an out-of-state ABLE account program, an amount equal to the contribution component of the transferred amount that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) or subsection (a)(2)(HH) of this Section;

(D-22) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2009, and prior to January 1, 2018, in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State that is not used for qualified expenses at an eligible education institution, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(y) of this Section, provided that the withdrawal or refund did not result from the beneficiary's death or disability. For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018: (1) in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund, as defined under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section, and (2) in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund from a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State that is not used for qualified disability expenses, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(HH) of this Section;

(D-23) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(D-24) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(D-25) In the case of a resident, an amount equal to the amount of tax for which a credit is allowed pursuant to Section 201(p)(7) of this Act;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(E) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being on active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 1971 or thereafter for annual training performed pursuant to Sections 502 and 503, Title 32, United States Code as a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being a member of any component of the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 2001 or thereafter by reason of being a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. The provisions of this subparagraph (E) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(F) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a), and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(G) The valuation limitation amount;

(H) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(J) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (J) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (J) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (K);

(L) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1983, an amount equal to all social security benefits and railroad retirement benefits included in such total pursuant to Sections 72(r) and 86 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(M) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (N), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(O) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code or of any itemized deduction taken from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year;

(Q) An amount equal to any amounts included in such total, received by the taxpayer as an acceleration in the payment of life, endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable as an indemnity for a terminal illness;

(R) An amount equal to the amount of any federal or State bonus paid to veterans of the Persian Gulf War;

(S) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of a contribution made in the taxable year on behalf of the taxpayer to a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 to the extent the contribution is accepted by the account administrator as provided in that Act;

(T) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of interest earned in the taxable year on a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 on behalf of the taxpayer, other than interest added pursuant to item (D-5) of this paragraph (2);

(U) For one taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, an amount equal to the total amount of tax imposed and paid under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act on grant amounts received by the taxpayer under the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Act during the taxpayer's taxable years 1992 and 1993;

(V) Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with tax years ending on or before December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount paid by a taxpayer who is a self-employed taxpayer, a partner of a partnership, or a shareholder in a Subchapter S corporation for health insurance or long-term care insurance for that taxpayer or that taxpayer's spouse or dependents, to the extent that the amount paid for that health insurance or long-term care insurance may be deducted under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code, has not been deducted on the federal income tax return of the taxpayer, and does not exceed the taxable income attributable to that taxpayer's income, self-employment income, or Subchapter S corporation income; except that no deduction shall be allowed under this item (V) if the taxpayer is eligible to participate in any health insurance or long-term care insurance plan of an employer of the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse. The amount of the health insurance and long-term care insurance subtracted under this item (V) shall be determined by multiplying total health insurance and long-term care insurance premiums paid by the taxpayer times a number that represents the fractional percentage of eligible medical expenses under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 not actually deducted on the taxpayer's federal income tax return;

(W) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1998, all amounts included in the taxpayer's federal gross income in the taxable year from amounts converted from a regular IRA to a Roth IRA. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2004, moneys contributed in the taxable year to a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2005, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to (i) a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For purposes of this subparagraph, contributions made by an employer on behalf of an employee, or matching contributions made by an employee, shall be treated as made by the employee. This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1-bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(AA) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (Z) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (AA) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(BB) Any amount included in adjusted gross income, other than salary, received by a driver in a ridesharing arrangement using a motor vehicle;

(CC) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification, and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (CC) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(DD) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (DD) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(EE) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (EE) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(FF) An amount equal to any amount awarded to the taxpayer during the taxable year by the Court of Claims under subsection (c) of Section 8 of the Court of Claims Act for time unjustly served in a State prison. This subparagraph (FF) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(GG) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (GG), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (GG). This subparagraph (GG) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(HH) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018 and prior to January 1, 2028, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to a qualified ABLE account under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) or Section 529A(c)(1)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (HH). For purposes of this subparagraph (HH), contributions made by an employer on behalf of an employee, or matching contributions made by an employee, shall be treated as made by the employee;

(II) For taxable years that begin on or after January 1, 2021 and begin before January 1, 2026, the amount that is included in the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income pursuant to Section 61 of the Internal Revenue Code as discharge of indebtedness attributable to student loan forgiveness and that is not excluded from the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income pursuant to paragraph (5) of subsection (f) of Section 108 of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(JJ) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (JJ) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and .

(KK) (JJ) To the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, any amount awarded or paid to the taxpayer as a result of a judgment or settlement for fertility fraud as provided in Section 15 of the Illinois Fertility Fraud Act, donor fertility fraud as provided in Section 20 of the Illinois Fertility Fraud Act, or similar action in another state.

(b) Corporations.

(1) In general. In the case of a corporation, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest and all distributions received from regulated investment companies during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(C) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the excess of (i) the net long-term capital gain for the taxable year, over (ii) the amount of the capital gain dividends designated as such in accordance with Section 852(b)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code and any amount designated under Section 852(b)(3)(D) of the Internal Revenue Code, attributable to the taxable year (this amendatory Act of 1995 (Public Act 89-89) is declarative of existing law and is not a new enactment);

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such earlier taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(E-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the corporation deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the corporation claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(E-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(E-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (T) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (T) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (T), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(E-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) or Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) of this Act;

(E-15) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2008, any deduction for dividends paid by a captive real estate investment trust that is allowed to a real estate investment trust under Section 857(b)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code for dividends paid;

(E-16) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(E-17) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-18) for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2018, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 250(a)(1)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-19) for taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 250(a)(1)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-20) for taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Sections 243(e) and 245A(a) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year.

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to any amount included in such total under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(H) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the amount of exempt interest dividends as defined in subsection (b)(5) of Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, paid to shareholders for the taxable year;

(I) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (J), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) and amounts disallowed as interest expense by Section 291(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, 291(a)(3), and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2011, amounts disallowed as deductions by Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code and the policyholders' share of tax-exempt interest of a life insurance company under Section 807(a)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (in the case of a life insurance company with gross income from a decrease in reserves for the tax year) or Section 807(b)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (in the case of a life insurance company allowed a deduction for an increase in reserves for the tax year); the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph 2 of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (L);

(M) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(f) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(f) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in the River Edge Redevelopment Zone. The subtraction modification available to the taxpayer in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M-1) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the High Impact Business Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(h) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(h) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois. No taxpayer that is eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M-1). The subtraction modification available to taxpayers in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence;

(N) Two times any contribution made during the taxable year to a designated zone organization to the extent that the contribution (i) qualifies as a charitable contribution under subsection (c) of Section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code and (ii) must, by its terms, be used for a project approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Section 11 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or under Section 10-10 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. This subparagraph (N) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(O) An amount equal to: (i) 85% for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 1992, or, a percentage equal to the percentage allowable under Section 243(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 for taxable years ending after December 31, 1992, of the amount by which dividends included in taxable income and received from a corporation that is not created or organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 965 of the Internal Revenue Code, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends, and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust; plus (ii) 100% of the amount by which dividends, included in taxable income and received, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust, from any such corporation specified in clause (i) that would but for the provisions of Section 1504(b)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code be treated as a member of the affiliated group which includes the dividend recipient, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends. For taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, (i) for purposes of this subparagraph, the term "dividend" does not include any amount treated as a dividend under Section 1248 of the Internal Revenue Code, and (ii) this subparagraph shall not apply to dividends for which a deduction is allowed under Section 245(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act;

(P) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(Q) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(R) On and after July 20, 1999, in the case of an attorney-in-fact with respect to whom an interinsurer or a reciprocal insurer has made the election under Section 835 of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 835, an amount equal to the excess, if any, of the amounts paid or incurred by that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer in the taxable year to the attorney-in-fact over the deduction allowed to that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer with respect to the attorney-in-fact under Section 835(b) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1997, in the case of a Subchapter S corporation, an amount equal to all amounts of income allocable to a shareholder subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, including amounts allocable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1-bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (T) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) The amount of: (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, and (iii) any insurance premium income (net of deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), or Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (Y), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) The difference between the nondeductible controlled foreign corporation dividends under Section 965(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code over the taxable income of the taxpayer, computed without regard to Section 965(e)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, and without regard to any net operating loss deduction. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(AA) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (AA) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(3) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (2)(A), "gross income" in the case of a life insurance company, for tax years ending on and after December 31, 1994, and prior to December 31, 2011, shall mean the gross investment income for the taxable year and, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall mean all amounts included in life insurance gross income under Section 803(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) Trusts and estates.

(1) In general. In the case of a trust or estate, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (3), the taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) In the case of (i) an estate, $600; (ii) a trust which, under its governing instrument, is required to distribute all of its income currently, $300; and (iii) any other trust, $100, but in each such case, only to the extent such amount was deducted in the computation of taxable income;

(C) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(F) For taxable years ending on or after January 1, 1989, an amount equal to the tax deducted pursuant to Section 164 of the Internal Revenue Code if the trust or estate is claiming the same tax for purposes of the Illinois foreign tax credit under Section 601 of this Act;

(G) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(G-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the trust or estate deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the trust or estate claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(G-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(G-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (R) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (R) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (R), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(G-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes: (1) expenses, losses, and costs for or related to the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) or Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) of this Act;

(G-15) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(G-16) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(H) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a) and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(I) The valuation limitation amount;

(J) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(K) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(L) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (K), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, (iii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(O) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (O);

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(Q) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(R) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1-bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (R) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) in the case of an estate, an amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted by the decedent from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from Section 250;

(X) an amount equal to the refund included in such total of any tax deducted for federal income tax purposes, to the extent that deduction was added back under subparagraph (F). This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (Y), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2026, the amount of excess business loss of the taxpayer disallowed as a deduction by Section 461(l)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(AA) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (AA) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(3) Limitation. The amount of any modification otherwise required under this subsection shall, under regulations prescribed by the Department, be adjusted by any amounts included therein which were properly paid, credited, or required to be distributed, or permanently set aside for charitable purposes pursuant to Internal Revenue Code Section 642(c) during the taxable year.

(d) Partnerships.

(1) In general. In the case of a partnership, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income for the taxable year;

(C) The amount of deductions allowed to the partnership pursuant to Section 707 (c) of the Internal Revenue Code in calculating its taxable income;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(D-5) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-6) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (O) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (O) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (O), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-7) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act; and

(D-8) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets;

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-9) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) or Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) of this Act;

(D-10) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(D-11) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the following amounts:

(E) The valuation limitation amount;

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C) and (D) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(H) Any income of the partnership which constitutes personal service income as defined in Section 1348(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code (as in effect December 31, 1981) or a reasonable allowance for compensation paid or accrued for services rendered by partners to the partnership, whichever is greater; this subparagraph (H) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts of income distributable to an entity subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act including amounts distributable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code; this subparagraph (I) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (G), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, (iii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations from a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Real Property Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M);

(N) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(O) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1-bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(P) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (O) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (P) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Q) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (Q) is exempt from Section 250;

(R) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from Section 250;

(S) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from Section 250;

(T) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (T), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (T). This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(U) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (U) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(e) Gross income; adjusted gross income; taxable income.

(1) In general. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) and subsection (b)(3), for purposes of this Section and Section 803(e), a taxpayer's gross income, adjusted gross income, or taxable income for the taxable year shall mean the amount of gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year under the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code. Taxable income may be less than zero. However, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1986, net operating loss carryforwards from taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, may not exceed the sum of federal taxable income for the taxable year before net operating loss deduction, plus the excess of addition modifications over subtraction modifications for the taxable year. For taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, taxable income may never be an amount in excess of the net operating loss for the taxable year as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code, provided that when taxable income of a corporation (other than a Subchapter S corporation), trust, or estate is less than zero and addition modifications, other than those provided by subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) for corporations or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) for trusts and estates, exceed subtraction modifications, an addition modification must be made under those subparagraphs for any other taxable year to which the taxable income less than zero (net operating loss) is applied under Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code or under subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (e) applied in conjunction with Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection, the taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes shall mean:

(A) Certain life insurance companies. In the case of a life insurance company subject to the tax imposed by Section 801 of the Internal Revenue Code, life insurance company taxable income, plus the amount of distribution from pre-1984 policyholder surplus accounts as calculated under Section 815a of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) Certain other insurance companies. In the case of mutual insurance companies subject to the tax imposed by Section 831 of the Internal Revenue Code, insurance company taxable income;

(C) Regulated investment companies. In the case of a regulated investment company subject to the tax imposed by Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, investment company taxable income;

(D) Real estate investment trusts. In the case of a real estate investment trust subject to the tax imposed by Section 857 of the Internal Revenue Code, real estate investment trust taxable income;

(E) Consolidated corporations. In the case of a corporation which is a member of an affiliated group of corporations filing a consolidated income tax return for the taxable year for federal income tax purposes, taxable income determined as if such corporation had filed a separate return for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year and each preceding taxable year for which it was a member of an affiliated group. For purposes of this subparagraph, the taxpayer's separate taxable income shall be determined as if the election provided by Section 243(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code had been in effect for all such years;

(F) Cooperatives. In the case of a cooperative corporation or association, the taxable income of such organization determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 1381 through 1388 of the Internal Revenue Code, but without regard to the prohibition against offsetting losses from patronage activities against income from nonpatronage activities; except that a cooperative corporation or association may make an election to follow its federal income tax treatment of patronage losses and nonpatronage losses. In the event such election is made, such losses shall be computed and carried over in a manner consistent with subsection (a) of Section 207 of this Act and apportioned by the apportionment factor reported by the cooperative on its Illinois income tax return filed for the taxable year in which the losses are incurred. The election shall be effective for all taxable years with original returns due on or after the date of the election. In addition, the cooperative may file an amended return or returns, as allowed under this Act, to provide that the election shall be effective for losses incurred or carried forward for taxable years occurring prior to the date of the election. Once made, the election may only be revoked upon approval of the Director. The Department shall adopt rules setting forth requirements for documenting the elections and any resulting Illinois net loss and the standards to be used by the Director in evaluating requests to revoke elections. Public Act 96-932 is declaratory of existing law;

(G) Subchapter S corporations. In the case of: (i) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect an election for the taxable year under Section 1362 of the Internal Revenue Code, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with Section 1363(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 1363(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code to be separately stated; and (ii) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect a federal election to opt out of the provisions of the Subchapter S Revision Act of 1982 and have applied instead the prior federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with the federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982; and

(H) Partnerships. In the case of a partnership, taxable income determined in accordance with Section 703 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 703(a)(1) to be separately stated but which would be taken into account by an individual in calculating his taxable income.

(3) Recapture of business expenses on disposition of asset or business. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, if in prior years income from an asset or business has been classified as business income and in a later year is demonstrated to be non-business income, then all expenses, without limitation, deducted in such later year and in the 2 immediately preceding taxable years related to that asset or business that generated the non-business income shall be added back and recaptured as business income in the year of the disposition of the asset or business. Such amount shall be apportioned to Illinois using the greater of the apportionment fraction computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year or the average of the apportionment fractions computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year and for the 2 immediately preceding taxable years.

(f) Valuation limitation amount.

(1) In general. The valuation limitation amount referred to in subsections (a)(2)(G), (c)(2)(I) and (d)(2)(E) is an amount equal to:

(A) The sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of gain reportable under the provisions of Section 1245 or 1250 of the Internal Revenue Code) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for the taxable year; plus

(B) The lesser of (i) the sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of capital gain) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or (ii) the net capital gain for the taxable year, reduced in either case by any amount of such gain included in the amount determined under subsection (a)(2)(F) or (c)(2)(H).

(2) Pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount.

(A) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is the lesser of (i) the excess of such fair market value over the taxpayer's basis (for determining gain) for such property on that date (determined under the Internal Revenue Code as in effect on that date), or (ii) the total gain realized and reportable for federal income tax purposes in respect of the sale, exchange or other disposition of such property.

(B) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was not readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is that amount which bears the same ratio to the total gain reported in respect of the property for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, as the number of full calendar months in that part of the taxpayer's holding period for the property ending July 31, 1969 bears to the number of full calendar months in the taxpayer's entire holding period for the property.

(C) The Department shall prescribe such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this paragraph.

(g) Double deductions. Unless specifically provided otherwise, nothing in this Section shall permit the same item to be deducted more than once.

(h) Legislative intention. Except as expressly provided by this Section there shall be no modifications or limitations on the amounts of income, gain, loss or deduction taken into account in determining gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or in the amount of such items entering into the computation of base income and net income under this Act for such taxable year, whether in respect of property values as of August 1, 1969 or otherwise.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-658, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1112, eff. 12-21-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-478, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-26-23.)

(35 ILCS 5/228)

Sec. 228. Historic preservation credit. For tax years beginning on or after January 1, 2019 and ending on or before December 31, 2028, a taxpayer who qualifies for a credit under the Historic Preservation Tax Credit Act is entitled to a credit against the taxes imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act as provided in that Act. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2023, if the taxpayer is a partnership, Subchapter S corporation, or a limited liability company, the credit shall be allowed to the partners, shareholders, or members in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code provided that credits granted to a partnership, a limited liability company taxed as a partnership, or other multiple owners of property shall be passed through to the partners, members, or owners respectively on a pro rata basis or pursuant to an executed agreement among the partners, members, or owners documenting any alternate distribution method. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2023, if the taxpayer is a partnership or a Subchapter S corporation, then the provisions of Section 251 apply. If the amount of any tax credit awarded under this Section exceeds the qualified taxpayer's income tax liability for the year in which the qualified rehabilitation plan was placed in service, the excess amount may be carried forward as provided in the Historic Preservation Tax Credit Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-741, eff. 5-6-22; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-396, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

(35 ILCS 5/237)

Sec. 237. REV Illinois Investment Tax credits.

(a) For tax years beginning on or after November 16, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-669) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 for investment in qualified property which is placed in service at the site of a REV Illinois Project subject to an agreement between the taxpayer and the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity pursuant to the Reimagining Energy and Vehicles in Illinois Act. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2023, for partners, shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this Section to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2023, partners and shareholders of subchapter S corporations are entitled to a credit under this Section as provided in Section 251. The credit shall be 0.5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 to below zero. The credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

(b) The term qualified property means property which:

(1) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(2) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this Section;

(3) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(4) is used at the site of the REV Illinois Project by the taxpayer; and

(5) has not been previously used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this Section.

(c) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(d) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service at the site of the REV Illinois Project by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(e) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(f) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved from the REV Illinois Project site within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this subsection (f), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(Source: P.A. 102-669, eff. 11-16-21; 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; 103-396, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 185. The Manufacturing Illinois Chips for Real Opportunity (MICRO) Act is amended by changing Sections 110-30 and 110-40 as follows:

(35 ILCS 45/110-30)

Sec. 110-30. Tax credit awards.

(a) Subject to the conditions set forth in this Act, a taxpayer is entitled to a credit against the tax imposed pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act for a taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 2025 if the taxpayer is awarded a credit by the Department in accordance with an agreement under this Act. The Department has authority to award credits under this Act on and after January 1, 2023.

(b) A taxpayer may receive a tax credit against the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, not to exceed the sum of (i) 75% of the incremental income tax attributable to new employees at the applicant's project and (ii) 10% of the training costs of the new employees. If the project is located in an underserved area or an energy transition area, then the amount of the credit may not exceed the sum of (i) 100% of the incremental income tax attributable to new employees at the applicant's project; and (ii) 10% of the training costs of the new employees. The percentage of training costs includable in the calculation may be increased by an additional 15% for training costs associated with new employees that are recent (2 years or less) graduates, certificate holders, or credential recipients from an institution of higher education in Illinois, or, if the training is provided by an institution of higher education in Illinois, the Clean Jobs Workforce Network Program, or an apprenticeship and training program located in Illinois and approved by and registered with the United States Department of Labor's Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training. An applicant is also eligible for a training credit that shall not exceed 10% of the training costs of retained employees for the purpose of upskilling to meet the operational needs of the applicant or the project. The percentage of training costs includable in the calculation shall not exceed a total of 25%. If an applicant agrees to hire the required number of new employees, then the maximum amount of the credit for that applicant may be increased by an amount not to exceed 75% of the incremental income tax attributable to retained employees at the applicant's project; provided that, in order to receive the increase for retained employees, the applicant must, if applicable, meet or exceed the statewide baseline. If the Project is in an underserved area or an energy transition area, the maximum amount of the credit attributable to retained employees for the applicant may be increased to an amount not to exceed 100% of the incremental income tax attributable to retained employees at the applicant's project; provided that, in order to receive the increase for retained employees, the applicant must meet or exceed the statewide baseline. Credits awarded may include credit earned for incremental income tax withheld and training costs incurred by the taxpayer beginning on or after January 1, 2023. Credits so earned and certified by the Department may be applied against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2025.

(c) MICRO Construction Jobs Credit. For construction wages associated with a project that qualified for a credit under subsection (b), the taxpayer may receive a tax credit against the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act in an amount equal to 50% of the incremental income tax attributable to construction wages paid in connection with construction of the project facilities, as a jobs credit for workers hired to construct the project.

The MICRO Construction Jobs Credit may not exceed 75% of the amount of the incremental income tax attributable to construction wages paid in connection with construction of the project facilities if the project is in an underserved area or an energy transition area.

(d) The Department shall certify to the Department of Revenue: (1) the identity of taxpayers that are eligible for the MICRO Credit and MICRO Construction Jobs Credit; (2) the amount of the MICRO Credits and MICRO Construction Jobs Credits awarded in each calendar year; and (3) the amount of the MICRO Credit and MICRO Construction Jobs Credit claimed in each calendar year. MICRO Credits awarded may include credit earned for incremental income tax withheld and training costs incurred by the taxpayer beginning on or after January 1, 2023. Credits so earned and certified by the Department may be applied against the tax imposed by Section 201(a) and (b) of the Illinois Income Tax Act for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2025.

(e) Applicants seeking certification for a tax credits related to the construction of the project facilities in the State shall require the contractor to enter into a project labor agreement that conforms with the Project Labor Agreements Act.

(f) Any applicant issued a certificate for a tax credit or tax exemption under this Act must annually report to the Department the total project tax benefits received. Reports are due no later than May 31 of each year and shall cover the previous calendar year. The first report is for the 2023 calendar year and is due no later than May 31, 2023. For applicants issued a certificate of exemption under Section 110-105 of this Act, the report shall be the same as required for a High Impact Business under subsection (a-5) of Section 8.1 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act. Each person required to file a return under the Gas Revenue Tax Act, the Electricity Excise Tax Act, or the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act shall file a report on customers issued an exemption certificate under Section 110-95 of this Act in the same manner and form as they are required to report under subsection (b) of Section 8.1 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act.

(g) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit an award of credit to an applicant that uses a PEO if all other award criteria are satisfied.

(h) With respect to any portion of a credit that is based on the incremental income tax attributable to new employees or retained employees, in lieu of the credit allowed under this Act against the taxes imposed pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, a taxpayer that otherwise meets the criteria set forth in this Section, the taxpayer may elect to claim the credit, on or after January 1, 2025, against its obligation to pay over withholding under Section 704A of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The election shall be made in the manner prescribed by the Department of Revenue and once made shall be irrevocable.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; revised 4-5-23.)

(35 ILCS 45/110-40)

Sec. 110-40. Amount and duration of the credits; limitation to amount of costs of specified items. The Department shall determine the amount and duration of the credit awarded under this Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act. For a project that qualified under paragraph (1), (2), or (4) of subsection (c) of Section 110-20, the duration of the credit may not exceed 15 taxable years, with an option to renew the agreement for no more than one term not to exceed an additional 15 taxable years. For a project that qualified under paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 110-20, the duration of the credit may not exceed 10 taxable years, with an option to renew the agreement for no more than one term not to exceed an additional 10 taxable years. The credit may be stated as a percentage of the incremental income tax and training costs attributable to the applicant's project and may include a fixed dollar limitation.

Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department, in consultation with the Department of Revenue, from adopting rules to extend the sunset of any earned, existing, and unused tax credit or credits a taxpayer may be in possession of.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; revised 4-5-23.)

Section 190. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Except as otherwise provided in this Act, personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (18).

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment, including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, farm machinery and equipment also includes electrical power generation equipment used primarily for production agriculture.

This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (18) includes production related tangible personal property, as defined in Section 3-50, purchased on or after July 1, 2019. The exemption provided by this paragraph (18) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (18) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (6) of this Section.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item (21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including, but not limited to, municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(31) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise, whether for-hire or not.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2029, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft. However, until January 1, 2024, this exemption excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films.

Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2023, this exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. From January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2029, this exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by: (A) persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations; and (B) persons who engage in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants without regard to whether or not those persons meet the qualifications of item (A).

The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (35) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (35) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629).

(36) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(37) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(38) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental-purchase rental purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental-Purchase Rental Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(39) Tangible personal property purchased by a purchaser who is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(40) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 been in effect may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (40) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (40):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated into in to the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (40) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(41) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (41) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90. As used in this item (41):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(42) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (42) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(43) Beginning on January 1, 2024, tangible personal property purchased by an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States who presents valid military identification and purchases the property using a form of payment where the federal government is the payor. The member of the armed forces must complete, at the point of sale, a form prescribed by the Department of Revenue documenting that the transaction is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph. Retailers must keep the form as documentation of the exemption in their records for a period of not less than 6 years. "Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; 103-9, Article 5, Section 5-5, eff. 6-7-23; 103-9, Article 15, Section 15-5, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-384, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 195. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under Section 2 of this Act.

(6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment, including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, farm machinery and equipment also includes electrical power generation equipment used primarily for production agriculture.

This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item (14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including, but not limited to, municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(24) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(25) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2029, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft. However, until January 1, 2024, this exemption excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films.

Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2023, this exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property transferred incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. From January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2029, this exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by: (A) persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations; and (B) persons who engage in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants without regard to whether or not those persons meet the qualifications of item (A).

The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (27) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (27) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629).

(28) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(30) Tangible personal property transferred to a purchaser who is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(31) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 been in effect, may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (31) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (31):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated into in to the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (31) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(32) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (32) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75. As used in this item (32):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(33) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (33) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(34) Beginning on January 1, 2024, tangible personal property purchased by an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States who presents valid military identification and purchases the property using a form of payment where the federal government is the payor. The member of the armed forces must complete, at the point of sale, a form prescribed by the Department of Revenue documenting that the transaction is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph. Retailers must keep the form as documentation of the exemption in their records for a period of not less than 6 years. "Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; 103-9, Article 5, Section 5-10, eff. 6-7-23; 103-9, Article 15, Section 15-10, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-384, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 200. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5, 9, and 12 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. The following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by any not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under Section 2 of this Act.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment, including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, farm machinery and equipment also includes electrical power generation equipment used primarily for production agriculture.

This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(13) Beginning January 1, 1992 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(14) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(15) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (15) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55, and the exemption provided for under this item (15) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(16) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(17) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(19) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including, but not limited to, municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(20) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(21) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(23) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(24) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(25) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(26) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (26). The permit issued under this paragraph (26) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(28) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2029, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft. However, until January 1, 2024, this exemption excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films.

Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2023, this exemption applies only to the transfer of qualifying tangible personal property incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of an aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. From January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2029, this exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by: (A) persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations; and (B) persons who engage in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants without regard to whether or not those persons meet the qualifications of item (A).

The changes made to this paragraph (29) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (29) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629).

(30) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(31) Tangible personal property transferred to a purchaser who is exempt from tax by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(32) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 been in effect, may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (32) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (32):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated into in to the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (32) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(33) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (33) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55. As used in this item (33):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(34) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (34) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(35) Beginning on January 1, 2024, tangible personal property purchased by an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States who presents valid military identification and purchases the property using a form of payment where the federal government is the payor. The member of the armed forces must complete, at the point of sale, a form prescribed by the Department of Revenue documenting that the transaction is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph. Retailers must keep the form as documentation of the exemption in their records for a period of not less than 6 years. "Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; 103-9, Article 5, Section 5-15, eff. 6-7-23; 103-9, Article 15, Section 15-15, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-384, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

(35 ILCS 115/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.109)

Sec. 9. Each serviceman required or authorized to collect the tax herein imposed shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collectible, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990, and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the serviceman for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax, and supplying data to the Department on request. When determining the discount allowed under this Section, servicemen shall include the amount of tax that would have been due at the 1% rate but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. The discount under this Section is not allowed for the 1.25% portion of taxes paid on aviation fuel that is subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for servicemen whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final.

Where such tangible personal property is sold under a conditional sales contract, or under any other form of sale wherein the payment of the principal sum, or a part thereof, is extended beyond the close of the period for which the return is filed, the serviceman, in collecting the tax may collect, for each tax return period, only the tax applicable to the part of the selling price actually received during such tax return period.

Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such serviceman shall file a return for the preceding calendar month in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be promulgated by the Department of Revenue. Such return shall be filed on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain such information as the Department may reasonably require. The return shall include the gross receipts which were received during the preceding calendar month or quarter on the following items upon which tax would have been due but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly: (i) food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption); and (ii) food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Use Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. The return shall also include the amount of tax that would have been due on the items listed in the previous sentence but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

On and after January 1, 2018, with respect to servicemen whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Servicemen who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in business as a serviceman in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Each serviceman required or authorized to collect the tax herein imposed on aviation fuel acquired as an incident to the purchase of a service in this State during the preceding calendar month shall, instead of reporting and paying tax as otherwise required by this Section, report and pay such tax on a separate aviation fuel tax return. The requirements related to the return shall be as otherwise provided in this Section. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, servicemen transferring aviation fuel incident to sales of service shall file all aviation fuel tax returns and shall make all aviation fuel tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department. For purposes of this Section, "aviation fuel" means jet fuel and aviation gasoline.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, servicemen subject to tax on cannabis shall file all cannabis tax returns and shall make all cannabis tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004 a serviceman may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Service Use Tax as provided in Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted prior to October 1, 2003 or on or after September 1, 2004 by a serviceman as provided in Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act, may be used by that serviceman to satisfy Service Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

Beginning on July 1, 2023 and through December 31, 2032, a serviceman may accept a Sustainable Aviation Fuel Purchase Credit certification from an air common carrier-purchaser in satisfaction of Service Use Tax as provided in Section 3-72 of the Service Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-72 of the Service Use Tax Act. A Sustainable Aviation Fuel Purchase Credit certification accepted by a serviceman in accordance with this paragraph may be used by that serviceman to satisfy service occupation tax liability (but not in satisfaction of penalty or interest) in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a sale of aviation fuel. In addition, for a sale of aviation fuel to qualify to earn the Sustainable Aviation Fuel Purchase Credit, servicemen must retain in their books and records a certification from the producer of the aviation fuel that the aviation fuel sold by the serviceman and for which a sustainable aviation fuel purchase credit was earned meets the definition of sustainable aviation fuel under Section 3-72 of the Service Use Tax Act. The documentation must include detail sufficient for the Department to determine the number of gallons of sustainable aviation fuel sold.

If the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February, and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May, and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August, and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November, and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a serviceman may file his return, in the case of any serviceman who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such serviceman shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one 1 month after discontinuing such business.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Where a serviceman collects the tax with respect to the selling price of tangible personal property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such tangible personal property and the serviceman refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such serviceman shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the serviceman may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other Service Occupation Tax, Service Use Tax, Retailers' Occupation Tax, or Use Tax which such serviceman may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, provided that the amount of the tax to be deducted shall previously have been remitted to the Department by such serviceman. If the serviceman shall not previously have remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he shall be entitled to no deduction hereunder upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable servicemen, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, or the Service Use Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by all said Acts on the one form.

Where the serviceman has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations hereunder, such serviceman shall file separate returns for each registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax imposed under this Act.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 4% of the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on sales of tangible personal property other than aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019. This exception for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on transfers of tangible personal property other than aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019. This exception for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

For aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, each month the Department shall pay into the State Aviation Program Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of aviation fuel, less an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 20% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act, which amount shall be deposited into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall only pay moneys into the State Aviation Program Fund and the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this Act for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, this Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Capital Projects Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, for aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, the Department shall each month deposit into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 80% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act. The Department shall only deposit moneys into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this paragraph for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, and the Illinois Tax Increment Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Subject to payments of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, beginning on July 1, 2018 the Department shall pay each month into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund the moneys required to be so paid under Section 2-3 of the Downstate Public Transportation Act.

Subject to successful execution and delivery of a public-private agreement between the public agency and private entity and completion of the civic build, beginning on July 1, 2023, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, the Department shall deposit the following specified deposits in the aggregate from collections under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, as required under Section 8.25g of the State Finance Act for distribution consistent with the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Civic and Transit Infrastructure Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 25-55 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. As used in this paragraph, "civic build", "private entity", "public-private agreement", and "public agency" have the meanings provided in Section 25-10 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act.

Fiscal Year............................Total Deposit

2024....................................$200,000,000

2025....................................$206,000,000

2026....................................$212,200,000

2027....................................$218,500,000

2028....................................$225,100,000

2029....................................$288,700,000

2030....................................$298,900,000

2031....................................$309,300,000

2032....................................$320,100,000

2033....................................$331,200,000

2034....................................$341,200,000

2035....................................$351,400,000

2036....................................$361,900,000

2037....................................$372,800,000

2038....................................$384,000,000

2039....................................$395,500,000

2040....................................$407,400,000

2041....................................$419,600,000

2042....................................$432,200,000

2043....................................$445,100,000

Beginning July 1, 2021 and until July 1, 2022, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 16% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 32% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2023 and until July 1, 2024, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 48% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2024 and until July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 64% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning on July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 80% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. As used in this paragraph "motor fuel" has the meaning given to that term in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and "gasohol" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund of the State treasury Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the taxpayer's last federal Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the federal Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the taxpayer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The taxpayer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the taxpayer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, cost of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the taxpayer during such year, pay roll information of the taxpayer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such taxpayer as hereinbefore provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner, or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The foregoing portion of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return shall not apply to a serviceman who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, it shall be permissible for manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold by numerous servicemen in Illinois, and who wish to do so, to assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the servicemen who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(35 ILCS 115/12) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.112)

Sec. 12. All of the provisions of Sections 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1j.1, 1k, 1m, 1n, 1o, 2-6, 2-12, 2-54, 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition by the Department of the tax collected under this Act), 4 (except that the time limitation provisions shall run from the date when the tax is due rather than from the date when gross receipts are received), 5 (except that the time limitation provisions on the issuance of notices of tax liability shall run from the date when the tax is due rather than from the date when gross receipts are received), 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5j, 5k, 5l, 5m, 5n, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, and 12 of the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" which are not inconsistent with this Act, and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act shall apply, as far as practicable, to the subject matter of this Act to the same extent as if such provisions were included herein.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; revised 9-26-23.)

Section 205. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2-5 and 3 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-5)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, farm machinery and equipment also includes electrical power generation equipment used primarily for production agriculture.

This item (2) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (14).

(5) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) (Blank).

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (14) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (14) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (4) of this Section.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Tangible personal property sold to a purchaser if the purchaser is exempt from use tax by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(22) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois. The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state that does not allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from this state following the filing of an intent to title the vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30 days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general rate imposed under this Act.

(25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after the later of either the issuance of the final billing for the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for return to service, completion of the maintenance record entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test for inspection, as required by 14 CFR 91.407;

(2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this State after the sale of the aircraft; and

(3) the seller retains in his or her books and records and provides to the Department a signed and dated certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, certifying that the requirements of this item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the name and address of the purchaser, the address of the location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered, the address of the primary physical location of the aircraft, and other information that the Department may reasonably require.

For purposes of this item (25-7):

"Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.

"Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division, or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation Administration to an address located in this State.

This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item (27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including, but not limited to, municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(40) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2029, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft. However, until January 1, 2024, this exemption excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films.

Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2023, this exemption applies only to the sale of qualifying tangible personal property to persons who modify, refurbish, complete, replace, or maintain an aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. From January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2029, this exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by: (A) persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations; and (B) persons who engage in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants without regard to whether or not those persons meet the qualifications of item (A).

The changes made to this paragraph (40) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (40) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629).

(41) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(42) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(43) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental-purchase rental purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental-Purchase Rental Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(44) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 been in effect, may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (44) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (44):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated into the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (44) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(45) Beginning January 1, 2020 and through December 31, 2020, sales of tangible personal property made by a marketplace seller over a marketplace for which tax is due under this Act but for which use tax has been collected and remitted to the Department by a marketplace facilitator under Section 2d of the Use Tax Act are exempt from tax under this Act. A marketplace seller claiming this exemption shall maintain books and records demonstrating that the use tax on such sales has been collected and remitted by a marketplace facilitator. Marketplace sellers that have properly remitted tax under this Act on such sales may file a claim for credit as provided in Section 6 of this Act. No claim is allowed, however, for such taxes for which a credit or refund has been issued to the marketplace facilitator under the Use Tax Act, or for which the marketplace facilitator has filed a claim for credit or refund under the Use Tax Act.

(46) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (46) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70. As used in this item (46):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(47) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (47) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(48) Beginning on January 1, 2024, tangible personal property purchased by an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States who presents valid military identification and purchases the property using a form of payment where the federal government is the payor. The member of the armed forces must complete, at the point of sale, a form prescribed by the Department of Revenue documenting that the transaction is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph. Retailers must keep the form as documentation of the exemption in their records for a period of not less than 6 years. "Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-634, eff. 8-27-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-20, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-20, eff. 4-19-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; 103-9, Article 5, Section 5-20, eff. 6-7-23; 103-9, Article 15, Section 15-20, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-384, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

(35 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 120, par. 442)

Sec. 3. Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, every person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. His residence address and the address of his principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. Total amount of receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter, as the case may be, from sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him during such preceding calendar month or quarter;

4. Total amount received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter on charge and time sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him prior to the month or quarter for which the return is filed;

5. Deductions allowed by law;

6. Gross receipts which were received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed, including gross receipts on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) which were received during the preceding calendar month or quarter and upon which tax would have been due but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700;

7. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

8. The amount of tax due, including the amount of tax that would have been due on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700;

9. The signature of the taxpayer; and

10. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

On and after January 1, 2018, except for returns required to be filed prior to January 1, 2023 for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. On and after January 1, 2023, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act, including, but not limited to, returns for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be filed electronically. Retailers who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Each return shall be accompanied by the statement of prepaid tax issued pursuant to Section 2e for which credit is claimed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004, a retailer may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Use Tax as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted by a retailer prior to October 1, 2003 and on and after September 1, 2004 as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act, may be used by that retailer to satisfy Retailers' Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

Beginning on July 1, 2023 and through December 31, 2032, a retailer may accept a Sustainable Aviation Fuel Purchase Credit certification from an air common carrier-purchaser in satisfaction of Use Tax on aviation fuel as provided in Section 3-87 of the Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-87 of the Use Tax Act. A Sustainable Aviation Fuel Purchase Credit certification accepted by a retailer in accordance with this paragraph may be used by that retailer to satisfy Retailers' Occupation Tax liability (but not in satisfaction of penalty or interest) in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a sale of aviation fuel. In addition, for a sale of aviation fuel to qualify to earn the Sustainable Aviation Fuel Purchase Credit, retailers must retain in their books and records a certification from the producer of the aviation fuel that the aviation fuel sold by the retailer and for which a sustainable aviation fuel purchase credit was earned meets the definition of sustainable aviation fuel under Section 3-87 of the Use Tax Act. The documentation must include detail sufficient for the Department to determine the number of gallons of sustainable aviation fuel sold.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first 2 two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Every person engaged in the business of selling aviation fuel at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall, instead of reporting and paying tax as otherwise required by this Section, report and pay such tax on a separate aviation fuel tax return. The requirements related to the return shall be as otherwise provided in this Section. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, retailers selling aviation fuel shall file all aviation fuel tax returns and shall make all aviation fuel tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department. For purposes of this Section, "aviation fuel" means jet fuel and aviation gasoline.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, any person who is not a licensed distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer, as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, but is engaged in the business of selling, at retail, alcoholic liquor shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, in a format and at a time prescribed by the Department, showing the total amount paid for alcoholic liquor purchased during the preceding month and such other information as is reasonably required by the Department. The Department may adopt rules to require that this statement be filed in an electronic or telephonic format. Such rules may provide for exceptions from the filing requirements of this paragraph. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term "alcoholic liquor" shall have the meaning prescribed in the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, every distributor, importing distributor, and manufacturer of alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which transactions occurred, by electronic means, showing the total amount of gross receipts from the sale of alcoholic liquor sold or distributed during the preceding month to purchasers; identifying the purchaser to whom it was sold or distributed; the purchaser's tax registration number; and such other information reasonably required by the Department. A distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer of alcoholic liquor must personally deliver, mail, or provide by electronic means to each retailer listed on the monthly statement a report containing a cumulative total of that distributor's, importing distributor's, or manufacturer's total sales of alcoholic liquor to that retailer no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which the transaction occurred. The distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall notify the retailer as to the method by which the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer will provide the sales information. If the retailer is unable to receive the sales information by electronic means, the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall furnish the sales information by personal delivery or by mail. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "electronic means" includes, but is not limited to, the use of a secure Internet website, e-mail, or facsimile.

If a total amount of less than $1 is payable, refundable or creditable, such amount shall be disregarded if it is less than 50 cents and shall be increased to $1 if it is 50 cents or more.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, retailers subject to tax on cannabis shall file all cannabis tax returns and shall make all cannabis tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Any amount which is required to be shown or reported on any return or other document under this Act shall, if such amount is not a whole-dollar amount, be increased to the nearest whole-dollar amount in any case where the fractional part of a dollar is 50 cents or more, and decreased to the nearest whole-dollar amount where the fractional part of a dollar is less than 50 cents.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February, and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May, and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August, and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November, and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability with the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

Where the same person has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations under this Act, such person may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, except as otherwise provided in this Section, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle retailer, or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 2-5 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every person who is engaged in the business of leasing or renting such items and who, in connection with such business, sells any such item to a retailer for the purpose of resale is, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, authorized to meet the return-filing requirement of this Act by reporting the transfer of all the aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transferred for resale during a month to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form on or before the 20th of the month following the month in which the transfer takes place. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, all returns filed under this paragraph must be filed by electronic means in the manner and form as required by the Department.

Any retailer who sells only motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, so that all retailers' occupation tax liability is required to be reported, and is reported, on such transaction reporting returns and who is not otherwise required to file monthly or quarterly returns, need not file monthly or quarterly returns. However, those retailers shall be required to file returns on an annual basis.

The transaction reporting return, in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft or aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the day of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the Illinois use tax may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a use tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of the tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Refunds made by the seller during the preceding return period to purchasers, on account of tangible personal property returned to the seller, shall be allowed as a deduction under subdivision 5 of his monthly or quarterly return, as the case may be, in case the seller had theretofore included the receipts from the sale of such tangible personal property in a return filed by him and had paid the tax imposed by this Act with respect to such receipts.

Where the seller is a corporation, the return filed on behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president, vice-president, secretary, or treasurer or by the properly accredited agent of such corporation.

Where the seller is a limited liability company, the return filed on behalf of the limited liability company shall be signed by a manager, member, or properly accredited agent of the limited liability company.

Except as provided in this Section, the retailer filing the return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. On and after January 1, 2021, a certified service provider, as defined in the Leveling the Playing Field for Illinois Retail Act, filing the return under this Section on behalf of a remote retailer shall, at the time of such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 1.75%. A remote retailer using a certified service provider to file a return on its behalf, as provided in the Leveling the Playing Field for Illinois Retail Act, is not eligible for the discount. When determining the discount allowed under this Section, retailers shall include the amount of tax that would have been due at the 1% rate but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700. When determining the discount allowed under this Section, retailers shall include the amount of tax that would have been due at the 6.25% rate but for the 1.25% rate imposed on sales tax holiday items under Public Act 102-700. The discount under this Section is not allowed for the 1.25% portion of taxes paid on aviation fuel that is subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133. Any prepayment made pursuant to Section 2d of this Act shall be included in the amount on which such 2.1% or 1.75% discount is computed. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985 and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987 and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $10,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $20,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. Quarter monthly payment status shall be determined under this paragraph as if the rate reduction to 0% in Public Act 102-700 on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) had not occurred. For quarter monthly payments due under this paragraph on or after July 1, 2023 and through June 30, 2024, "25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year" shall be determined as if the rate reduction to 0% in Public Act 102-700 had not occurred. Quarter monthly payment status shall be determined under this paragraph as if the rate reduction to 1.25% in Public Act 102-700 on sales tax holiday items had not occurred. For quarter monthly payments due on or after July 1, 2023 and through June 30, 2024, "25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year" shall be determined as if the rate reduction to 1.25% in Public Act 102-700 on sales tax holiday items had not occurred. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

The provisions of this paragraph apply before October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes which average in excess of $25,000 per month during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters, shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to September 1, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 84-221), each payment shall be in an amount not less than 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability under Section 2d. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1986, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding calendar year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters is $25,000 or less. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

The provisions of this paragraph apply on and after October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes that average in excess of $20,000 per month during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd, and last day of the month during which the liability is incurred. Each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of the quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until the taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarters is less than $20,000. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown on an original monthly return, the Department shall, if requested by the taxpayer, issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment. The credit evidenced by such credit memorandum may be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determined that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% and 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and that taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If a retailer of motor fuel is entitled to a credit under Section 2d of this Act which exceeds the taxpayer's liability to the Department under this Act for the month for which the taxpayer is filing a return, the Department shall issue the taxpayer a credit memorandum for the excess.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax imposed under this Act.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate other than aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019. This exception for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. If, in any month, the tax on sales tax holiday items, as defined in Section 2-8, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the Department shall pay 20% of the net revenue realized for that month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items into the County and Mass Transit District Fund.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property other than aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019. This exception for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

For aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, each month the Department shall pay into the State Aviation Program Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of aviation fuel, less an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 20% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act, which amount shall be deposited into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall only pay moneys into the State Aviation Program Fund and the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this Act for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. If, in any month, the tax on sales tax holiday items, as defined in Section 2-8, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the Department shall pay 80% of the net revenue realized for that month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items into the Local Government Tax Fund.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total payment into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund under this Act and the Use Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as hereinafter defined), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; the "Annual Specified Amount" means the amounts specified below for fiscal years 1986 through 1993: and means the Certified Annual Debt Service Requirement (as defined in Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act) or the Tax Act Amount, whichever is greater, for fiscal year 1994 and each fiscal year thereafter; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year. The amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under clause (b) of the first sentence in this paragraph shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the first sentence of this paragraph and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to that clause (b). The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Capital Projects Fund, the Clean Air Act Permit Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, for aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, the Department shall each month deposit into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 80% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act. The Department shall only deposit moneys into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this paragraph for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, and the Illinois Tax Increment Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Subject to payments of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, beginning on July 1, 2018 the Department shall pay each month into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund the moneys required to be so paid under Section 2-3 of the Downstate Public Transportation Act.

Subject to successful execution and delivery of a public-private agreement between the public agency and private entity and completion of the civic build, beginning on July 1, 2023, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, the Department shall deposit the following specified deposits in the aggregate from collections under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, as required under Section 8.25g of the State Finance Act for distribution consistent with the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Civic and Transit Infrastructure Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 25-55 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. As used in this paragraph, "civic build", "private entity", "public-private agreement", and "public agency" have the meanings provided in Section 25-10 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act.

Fiscal Year.............................Total Deposit

2024.....................................$200,000,000

2025....................................$206,000,000

2026....................................$212,200,000

2027....................................$218,500,000

2028....................................$225,100,000

2029....................................$288,700,000

2030....................................$298,900,000

2031....................................$309,300,000

2032....................................$320,100,000

2033....................................$331,200,000

2034....................................$341,200,000

2035....................................$351,400,000

2036....................................$361,900,000

2037....................................$372,800,000

2038....................................$384,000,000

2039....................................$395,500,000

2040....................................$407,400,000

2041....................................$419,600,000

2042....................................$432,200,000

2043....................................$445,100,000

Beginning July 1, 2021 and until July 1, 2022, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 16% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 32% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2023 and until July 1, 2024, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 48% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2024 and until July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 64% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning on July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 80% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. As used in this paragraph "motor fuel" has the meaning given to that term in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and "gasohol" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the retailer's last federal Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the federal Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the retailer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The retailer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the retailer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, costs of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the retailer during such year, payroll information of the retailer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly, or annual returns filed by such retailer as provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner, or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The provisions of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return do not apply to a retailer who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

Any person who promotes, organizes, or provides retail selling space for concessionaires or other types of sellers at the Illinois State Fair, DuQuoin State Fair, county fairs, local fairs, art shows, flea markets, and similar exhibitions or events, including any transient merchant as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, is required to file a report with the Department providing the name of the merchant's business, the name of the person or persons engaged in merchant's business, the permanent address and Illinois Retailers Occupation Tax Registration Number of the merchant, the dates and location of the event, and other reasonable information that the Department may require. The report must be filed not later than the 20th day of the month next following the month during which the event with retail sales was held. Any person who fails to file a report required by this Section commits a business offense and is subject to a fine not to exceed $250.

Any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail as a concessionaire or other type of seller at the Illinois State Fair, county fairs, art shows, flea markets, and similar exhibitions or events, or any transient merchants, as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, may be required to make a daily report of the amount of such sales to the Department and to make a daily payment of the full amount of tax due. The Department shall impose this requirement when it finds that there is a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State at such an exhibition or event. Such a finding shall be based on evidence that a substantial number of concessionaires or other sellers who are not residents of Illinois will be engaging in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail at the exhibition or event, or other evidence of a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State. The Department shall notify concessionaires and other sellers affected by the imposition of this requirement. In the absence of notification by the Department, the concessionaires and other sellers shall file their returns as otherwise required in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-634, eff. 8-27-21; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-30, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 65, Section 65-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1019, eff. 1-1-23; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-27-23.)

Section 210. The Cigarette Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(35 ILCS 130/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 453.2)

Sec. 2. Tax imposed; rate; collection, payment, and distribution; discount.

(a) Beginning on July 1, 2019, in place of the aggregate tax rate of 99 mills previously imposed by this Act, a tax is imposed upon any person engaged in business as a retailer of cigarettes at the rate of 149 mills per cigarette sold or otherwise disposed of in the course of such business in this State.

(b) The payment of such taxes shall be evidenced by a stamp affixed to each original package of cigarettes, or an authorized substitute for such stamp imprinted on each original package of such cigarettes underneath the sealed transparent outside wrapper of such original package, as hereinafter provided. However, such taxes are not imposed upon any activity in such business in interstate commerce or otherwise, which activity may not under the Constitution and statutes of the United States be made the subject of taxation by this State.

Out of the 149 mills per cigarette tax imposed by subsection (a), until July 1, 2023, the revenues received from 4 mills shall be paid into the Common School Fund each month, not to exceed $9,000,000 per month. Out of the 149 mills per cigarette tax imposed by subsection (a), until July 1, 2023, all of the revenues received from 7 mills shall be paid into the Common School Fund each month. Out of the 149 mills per cigarette tax imposed by subsection (a), until July 1, 2023, 50 mills per cigarette each month shall be paid into the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.

Beginning on July 1, 2006 and until July 1, 2023, all of the moneys received by the Department of Revenue pursuant to this Act and the Cigarette Use Tax Act, other than the moneys that are dedicated to the Common School Fund and, beginning on June 14, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-688) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, other than the moneys from the additional taxes imposed by Public Act 97-688 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that must be paid each month into the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund, and other than the moneys from the additional taxes imposed by Public Act 101-31 this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly that must be paid each month under subsection (c), shall be distributed each month as follows: first, there shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund an amount that, when added to the amount paid into the Common School Fund for that month, equals $29,200,000; then, from the moneys remaining, if any amounts required to be paid into the General Revenue Fund in previous months remain unpaid, those amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund; then from the moneys remaining, $5,000,000 per month shall be paid into the School Infrastructure Fund; then, if any amounts required to be paid into the School Infrastructure Fund in previous months remain unpaid, those amounts shall be paid into the School Infrastructure Fund; then the moneys remaining, if any, shall be paid into the Long-Term Care Provider Fund. Any amounts required to be paid into the General Revenue Fund, the School Infrastructure Fund, the Long-Term Care Provider Fund, the Common School Fund, the Capital Projects Fund, or the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund under this subsection that remain unpaid as of July 1, 2023 shall be deemed satisfied on that date, eliminating any deficiency accrued through that date.

(c) Beginning on July 1, 2019 and until July 1, 2023, all of the moneys from the additional taxes imposed by Public Act 101-31, except for moneys received from the tax on electronic cigarettes, received by the Department of Revenue pursuant to this Act, the Cigarette Use Tax Act, and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995 shall be distributed each month into the Capital Projects Fund.

(c-5) Beginning on July 1, 2023, all of the moneys received by the Department of Revenue pursuant to (i) this Act, (ii) the Cigarette Use Tax Act, and (iii) the tax imposed on little cigars under Section 10-10 of the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995 shall be paid each month as follows:

(1) 7% into the Common School Fund;

(2) 34% into the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund;

(3) 34% into the Capital Projects Fund; and

(4) 25% into the General Revenue Fund.

(d) Until July 1, 2023, except for moneys received from the additional taxes imposed by Public Act 101-31, moneys collected from the tax imposed on little cigars under Section 10-10 of the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995 shall be included with the moneys collected under the Cigarette Tax Act and the Cigarette Use Tax Act when making distributions to the Common School Fund, the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund, the General Revenue Fund, the School Infrastructure Fund, and the Long-Term Care Provider Fund under this Section. Any amounts, including moneys collected from the tax imposed on little cigars under Section 10-10 of the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995, that are required to be paid into the General Revenue Fund, the School Infrastructure Fund, the Long-Term Care Provider Fund, the Common School Fund, the Capital Projects Fund, or the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund under subsection (b) that remain unpaid as of July 1, 2023 shall be deemed satisfied on that date, eliminating any deficiency accrued through that date. Beginning on July 1, 2023, moneys collected from the tax imposed on little cigars under Section 10-10 of the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995 shall be included with the moneys collected under the Cigarette Tax Act and the Cigarette Use Tax Act when making distributions under subsection subsections (c-5).

(e) If the tax imposed herein terminates or has terminated, distributors who have bought stamps while such tax was in effect and who therefore paid such tax, but who can show, to the Department's satisfaction, that they sold the cigarettes to which they affixed such stamps after such tax had terminated and did not recover the tax or its equivalent from purchasers, shall be allowed by the Department to take credit for such absorbed tax against subsequent tax stamp purchases from the Department by such distributor.

(f) The impact of the tax levied by this Act is imposed upon the retailer and shall be prepaid or pre-collected by the distributor for the purpose of convenience and facility only, and the amount of the tax shall be added to the price of the cigarettes sold by such distributor. Collection of the tax shall be evidenced by a stamp or stamps affixed to each original package of cigarettes, as hereinafter provided. Any distributor who purchases stamps may credit any excess payments verified by the Department against amounts subsequently due for the purchase of additional stamps, until such time as no excess payment remains.

(g) Each distributor shall collect the tax from the retailer at or before the time of the sale, shall affix the stamps as hereinafter required, and shall remit the tax collected from retailers to the Department, as hereinafter provided. Any distributor who fails to properly collect and pay the tax imposed by this Act shall be liable for the tax.

(h) Any distributor having cigarettes in his or her possession on July 1, 2019 to which tax stamps have been affixed, and any distributor having stamps in his or her possession on July 1, 2019 that have not been affixed to packages of cigarettes before July 1, 2019, is required to pay the additional tax that begins on July 1, 2019 imposed by Public Act 101-31 this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly to the extent that the volume of affixed and unaffixed stamps in the distributor's possession on July 1, 2019 exceeds the average monthly volume of cigarette stamps purchased by the distributor in calendar year 2018. This payment, less the discount provided in subsection (l), is due when the distributor first makes a purchase of cigarette stamps on or after July 1, 2019 or on the first due date of a return under this Act occurring on or after July 1, 2019, whichever occurs first. Those distributors may elect to pay the additional tax on packages of cigarettes to which stamps have been affixed and on any stamps in the distributor's possession that have not been affixed to packages of cigarettes in their possession on July 1, 2019 over a period not to exceed 12 months from the due date of the additional tax by notifying the Department in writing. The first payment for distributors making such election is due when the distributor first makes a purchase of cigarette tax stamps on or after July 1, 2019 or on the first due date of a return under this Act occurring on or after July 1, 2019, whichever occurs first. Distributors making such an election are not entitled to take the discount provided in subsection (l) on such payments.

(i) Any retailer having cigarettes in its possession on July 1, 2019 to which tax stamps have been affixed is not required to pay the additional tax that begins on July 1, 2019 imposed by Public Act 101-31 this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly on those stamped cigarettes.

(j) Distributors making sales of cigarettes to secondary distributors shall add the amount of the tax to the price of the cigarettes sold by the distributors. Secondary distributors making sales of cigarettes to retailers shall include the amount of the tax in the price of the cigarettes sold to retailers. The amount of tax shall not be less than the amount of taxes imposed by the State and all local jurisdictions. The amount of local taxes shall be calculated based on the location of the retailer's place of business shown on the retailer's certificate of registration or sub-registration issued to the retailer pursuant to Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The original packages of cigarettes sold to the retailer shall bear all the required stamps, or other indicia, for the taxes included in the price of cigarettes.

(k) The amount of the Cigarette Tax imposed by this Act shall be separately stated, apart from the price of the goods, by distributors, manufacturer representatives, secondary distributors, and retailers, in all bills and sales invoices.

(l) The distributor shall be required to collect the tax provided under subsection (a) paragraph (a) hereof, and, to cover the costs of such collection, shall be allowed a discount during any year commencing July 1st and ending the following June 30th in accordance with the schedule set out hereinbelow, which discount shall be allowed at the time of purchase of the stamps when purchase is required by this Act, or at the time when the tax is remitted to the Department without the purchase of stamps from the Department when that method of paying the tax is required or authorized by this Act.

On and after December 1, 1985, a discount equal to 1.75% of the amount of the tax payable under this Act up to and including the first $3,000,000 paid hereunder by such distributor to the Department during any such year and 1.5% of the amount of any additional tax paid hereunder by such distributor to the Department during any such year shall apply.

Two or more distributors that use a common means of affixing revenue tax stamps or that are owned or controlled by the same interests shall be treated as a single distributor for the purpose of computing the discount.

(m) The taxes herein imposed are in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by the State of Illinois, or by any political subdivision thereof, or by any municipal corporation.

(Source: P.A. 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; revised 9-28-23.)

Section 215. The Uniform Penalty and Interest Act is amended by changing Section 3-3 as follows:

(35 ILCS 735/3-3) (from Ch. 120, par. 2603-3)

Sec. 3-3. Penalty for failure to file or pay.

(a) This subsection (a) is applicable before January 1, 1996. A penalty of 5% of the tax required to be shown due on a return shall be imposed for failure to file the tax return on or before the due date prescribed for filing determined with regard for any extension of time for filing (penalty for late filing or nonfiling). If any unprocessable return is corrected and filed within 21 days after notice by the Department, the late filing or nonfiling penalty shall not apply. If a penalty for late filing or nonfiling is imposed in addition to a penalty for late payment, the total penalty due shall be the sum of the late filing penalty and the applicable late payment penalty. Beginning on August 18, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-379) this amendatory Act of 1995, in the case of any type of tax return required to be filed more frequently than annually, when the failure to file the tax return on or before the date prescribed for filing (including any extensions) is shown to be nonfraudulent and has not occurred in the 2 years immediately preceding the failure to file on the prescribed due date, the penalty imposed by Section 3-3(a) shall be abated.

(a-5) This subsection (a-5) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 1996 and on or before December 31, 2000. A penalty equal to 2% of the tax required to be shown due on a return, up to a maximum amount of $250, determined without regard to any part of the tax that is paid on time or by any credit that was properly allowable on the date the return was required to be filed, shall be imposed for failure to file the tax return on or before the due date prescribed for filing determined with regard for any extension of time for filing. However, if any return is not filed within 30 days after notice of nonfiling mailed by the Department to the last known address of the taxpayer contained in Department records, an additional penalty amount shall be imposed equal to the greater of $250 or 2% of the tax shown on the return. However, the additional penalty amount may not exceed $5,000 and is determined without regard to any part of the tax that is paid on time or by any credit that was properly allowable on the date the return was required to be filed (penalty for late filing or nonfiling). If any unprocessable return is corrected and filed within 30 days after notice by the Department, the late filing or nonfiling penalty shall not apply. If a penalty for late filing or nonfiling is imposed in addition to a penalty for late payment, the total penalty due shall be the sum of the late filing penalty and the applicable late payment penalty. In the case of any type of tax return required to be filed more frequently than annually, when the failure to file the tax return on or before the date prescribed for filing (including any extensions) is shown to be nonfraudulent and has not occurred in the 2 years immediately preceding the failure to file on the prescribed due date, the penalty imposed by Section 3-3(a-5) shall be abated.

(a-10) This subsection (a-10) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2001. A penalty equal to 2% of the tax required to be shown due on a return, up to a maximum amount of $250, reduced by any tax that is paid on time or by any credit that was properly allowable on the date the return was required to be filed, shall be imposed for failure to file the tax return on or before the due date prescribed for filing determined with regard for any extension of time for filing. However, if any return is not filed within 30 days after notice of nonfiling mailed by the Department to the last known address of the taxpayer contained in Department records, an additional penalty amount shall be imposed equal to the greater of $250 or 2% of the tax shown on the return. However, the additional penalty amount may not exceed $5,000 and is determined without regard to any part of the tax that is paid on time or by any credit that was properly allowable on the date the return was required to be filed (penalty for late filing or nonfiling). If any unprocessable return is corrected and filed within 30 days after notice by the Department, the late filing or nonfiling penalty shall not apply. If a penalty for late filing or nonfiling is imposed in addition to a penalty for late payment, the total penalty due shall be the sum of the late filing penalty and the applicable late payment penalty. In the case of any type of tax return required to be filed more frequently than annually, when the failure to file the tax return on or before the date prescribed for filing (including any extensions) is shown to be nonfraudulent and has not occurred in the 2 years immediately preceding the failure to file on the prescribed due date, the penalty imposed by this subsection (a-10) shall be abated. This subsection (a-10) does not apply to transaction reporting returns required by Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 9 of the Use Tax Act that would not, when properly prepared and filed, result in the imposition of a tax; however, those returns are subject to the penalty set forth in subsection (a-15).

(a-15) A penalty of $100 shall be imposed for failure to file a transaction reporting return required by Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 9 of the Use Tax Act on or before the date a return is required to be filed; provided, however, that this penalty shall be imposed only if the return when properly prepared and filed would not result in the imposition of a tax. If such a transaction reporting return would result in the imposition of a tax when properly prepared and filed, then that return is subject to the provisions of subsection (a-10).

(b) This subsection is applicable before January 1, 1998. A penalty of 15% of the tax shown on the return or the tax required to be shown due on the return shall be imposed for failure to pay:

(1) the tax shown due on the return on or before the due date prescribed for payment of that tax, an amount of underpayment of estimated tax, or an amount that is reported in an amended return other than an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability); or

(2) the full amount of any tax required to be shown due on a return and which is not shown (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of additional liability), within 30 days after a notice of arithmetic error, notice and demand, or a final assessment is issued by the Department. In the case of a final assessment arising following a protest and hearing, the 30-day period shall not begin until all proceedings in court for review of the final assessment have terminated or the period for obtaining a review has expired without proceedings for a review having been instituted. In the case of a notice of tax liability that becomes a final assessment without a protest and hearing, the penalty provided in this paragraph (2) shall be imposed at the expiration of the period provided for the filing of a protest.

(b-5) This subsection is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 1998 and on or before December 31, 2000. A penalty of 20% of the tax shown on the return or the tax required to be shown due on the return shall be imposed for failure to pay:

(1) the tax shown due on the return on or before the due date prescribed for payment of that tax, an amount of underpayment of estimated tax, or an amount that is reported in an amended return other than an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability); or

(2) the full amount of any tax required to be shown due on a return and which is not shown (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of additional liability), within 30 days after a notice of arithmetic error, notice and demand, or a final assessment is issued by the Department. In the case of a final assessment arising following a protest and hearing, the 30-day period shall not begin until all proceedings in court for review of the final assessment have terminated or the period for obtaining a review has expired without proceedings for a review having been instituted. In the case of a notice of tax liability that becomes a final assessment without a protest and hearing, the penalty provided in this paragraph (2) shall be imposed at the expiration of the period provided for the filing of a protest.

(b-10) This subsection (b-10) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2001 and on or before December 31, 2003. A penalty shall be imposed for failure to pay:

(1) the tax shown due on a return on or before the due date prescribed for payment of that tax, an amount of underpayment of estimated tax, or an amount that is reported in an amended return other than an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability). The amount of penalty imposed under this subsection (b-10)(1) shall be 2% of any amount that is paid no later than 30 days after the due date, 5% of any amount that is paid later than 30 days after the due date and not later than 90 days after the due date, 10% of any amount that is paid later than 90 days after the due date and not later than 180 days after the due date, and 15% of any amount that is paid later than 180 days after the due date. If notice and demand is made for the payment of any amount of tax due and if the amount due is paid within 30 days after the date of the notice and demand, then the penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability under this subsection (b-10)(1) on the amount so paid shall not accrue for the period after the date of the notice and demand.

(2) the full amount of any tax required to be shown due on a return and that is not shown (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of additional liability), within 30 days after a notice of arithmetic error, notice and demand, or a final assessment is issued by the Department. In the case of a final assessment arising following a protest and hearing, the 30-day period shall not begin until all proceedings in court for review of the final assessment have terminated or the period for obtaining a review has expired without proceedings for a review having been instituted. The amount of penalty imposed under this subsection (b-10)(2) shall be 20% of any amount that is not paid within the 30-day period. In the case of a notice of tax liability that becomes a final assessment without a protest and hearing, the penalty provided in this subsection (b-10)(2) shall be imposed at the expiration of the period provided for the filing of a protest.

(b-15) This subsection (b-15) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2004 and on or before December 31, 2004. A penalty shall be imposed for failure to pay the tax shown due or required to be shown due on a return on or before the due date prescribed for payment of that tax, an amount of underpayment of estimated tax, or an amount that is reported in an amended return other than an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability). The amount of penalty imposed under this subsection (b-15)(1) shall be 2% of any amount that is paid no later than 30 days after the due date, 10% of any amount that is paid later than 30 days after the due date and not later than 90 days after the due date, 15% of any amount that is paid later than 90 days after the due date and not later than 180 days after the due date, and 20% of any amount that is paid later than 180 days after the due date. If notice and demand is made for the payment of any amount of tax due and if the amount due is paid within 30 days after the date of this notice and demand, then the penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability under this subsection (b-15)(1) on the amount so paid shall not accrue for the period after the date of the notice and demand.

(b-20) This subsection (b-20) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2005 and before January 1, 2024.

(1) A penalty shall be imposed for failure to pay, prior to the due date for payment, any amount of tax the payment of which is required to be made prior to the filing of a return or without a return (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of estimated or accelerated tax). The amount of penalty imposed under this paragraph (1) shall be 2% of any amount that is paid no later than 30 days after the due date and 10% of any amount that is paid later than 30 days after the due date.

(2) A penalty shall be imposed for failure to pay the tax shown due or required to be shown due on a return on or before the due date prescribed for payment of that tax or an amount that is reported in an amended return other than an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of tax). The amount of penalty imposed under this paragraph (2) shall be 2% of any amount that is paid no later than 30 days after the due date, 10% of any amount that is paid later than 30 days after the due date and prior to the date the Department has initiated an audit or investigation of the taxpayer, and 20% of any amount that is paid after the date the Department has initiated an audit or investigation of the taxpayer; provided that the penalty shall be reduced to 15% if the entire amount due is paid not later than 30 days after the Department has provided the taxpayer with an amended return (following completion of an occupation, use, or excise tax audit) or a form for waiver of restrictions on assessment (following completion of an income tax audit); provided further that the reduction to 15% shall be rescinded if the taxpayer makes any claim for refund or credit of the tax, penalties, or interest determined to be due upon audit, except in the case of a claim filed pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act or to claim a carryover of a loss or credit, the availability of which was not determined in the audit. For purposes of this paragraph (2), any overpayment reported on an original return that has been allowed as a refund or credit to the taxpayer shall be deemed to have not been paid on or before the due date for payment and any amount paid under protest pursuant to the provisions of the State Officers and Employees Money Disposition Act shall be deemed to have been paid after the Department has initiated an audit and more than 30 days after the Department has provided the taxpayer with an amended return (following completion of an occupation, use, or excise tax audit) or a form for waiver of restrictions on assessment (following completion of an income tax audit).

(3) The penalty imposed under this subsection (b-20) shall be deemed assessed at the time the tax upon which the penalty is computed is assessed, except that, if the reduction of the penalty imposed under paragraph (2) of this subsection (b-20) to 15% is rescinded because a claim for refund or credit has been filed, the increase in penalty shall be deemed assessed at the time the claim for refund or credit is filed.

(b-25) This subsection (b-25) is applicable to returns due on or after January 1, 2024.

(1) A penalty shall be imposed for failure to pay, prior to the due date for payment, any amount of tax the payment of which is required to be made prior to the filing of a return or without a return (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of estimated or accelerated tax). The amount of penalty imposed under this paragraph (1) shall be 2% of any amount that is paid no later than 30 days after the due date and 10% of any amount that is paid later than 30 days after the due date.

(2) A penalty shall be imposed for failure to pay the tax shown due or required to be shown due on a return on or before the due date prescribed for payment of that tax (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of tax). The amount of penalty imposed under this paragraph (2) shall be 2% of any amount that is paid no later than 30 days after the due date, 10% of any amount that is paid later than 30 days after the due date and prior to the date the Department initiates an audit or investigation of the taxpayer, and 20% of any amount that is paid after the date the Department initiates an audit or investigation of the taxpayer; provided that the penalty shall be reduced to 15% if the entire amount due is paid not later than 30 days after the Department provides the taxpayer with an amended return (following completion of an occupation, use, or excise tax audit) or a form for waiver of restrictions on assessment (following completion of an income tax audit); provided further that the reduction to 15% shall be rescinded if the taxpayer makes any claim for refund or credit of the tax, penalties, or interest determined to be due upon audit, except in the case of a claim filed pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act or to claim a carryover of a loss or credit, the availability of which was not determined in the audit. For purposes of this paragraph (2):

(A) any overpayment reported on an original return that has been allowed as a refund or credit to the taxpayer shall be deemed to have not been paid on or before the due date for payment;

(B) any amount paid under protest pursuant to the provisions of the State Officers and Employees Money Disposition Act shall be deemed to have been paid after the Department has initiated an audit and more than 30 days after the Department has provided the taxpayer with an amended return (following completion of an occupation, use, or excise tax audit) or a form for waiver of restrictions on assessment (following completion of an income tax audit); and

(C) any liability resulting from a federal change required to be reported under subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act that is reported and paid no later than the due date for filing the federal change amended return shall be deemed to have been paid on or before the due date prescribed for payment.

(3) The penalty imposed under this subsection (b-25) shall be deemed assessed at the time the tax upon which the penalty is computed is assessed, except that, if the reduction of the penalty imposed under paragraph (2) of this subsection (b-25) to 15% is rescinded because a claim for refund or credit has been filed, the increase in penalty shall be deemed assessed at the time the claim for refund or credit is filed.

(c) For purposes of the late payment penalties, the basis of the penalty shall be the tax shown or required to be shown on a return, whichever is applicable, reduced by any part of the tax which is paid on time and by any credit which was properly allowable on the date the return was required to be filed.

(d) A penalty shall be applied to the tax required to be shown even if that amount is less than the tax shown on the return.

(e) This subsection (e) is applicable to returns due before January 1, 2001. If both a subsection (b)(1) or (b-5)(1) penalty and a subsection (b)(2) or (b-5)(2) penalty are assessed against the same return, the subsection (b)(2) or (b-5)(2) penalty shall be assessed against only the additional tax found to be due.

(e-5) This subsection (e-5) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2001. If both a subsection (b-10)(1) penalty and a subsection (b-10)(2) penalty are assessed against the same return, the subsection (b-10)(2) penalty shall be assessed against only the additional tax found to be due.

(f) If the taxpayer has failed to file the return, the Department shall determine the correct tax according to its best judgment and information, which amount shall be prima facie evidence of the correctness of the tax due.

(g) The time within which to file a return or pay an amount of tax due without imposition of a penalty does not extend the time within which to file a protest to a notice of tax liability or a notice of deficiency.

(h) No return shall be determined to be unprocessable because of the omission of any information requested on the return pursuant to Section 2505-575 of the Department of Revenue Law (20 ILCS 2505/2505-575).

(i) If a taxpayer has a tax liability for the taxable period ending after June 30, 1983 and prior to July 1, 2002 that is eligible for amnesty under the Tax Delinquency Amnesty Act and the taxpayer fails to satisfy the tax liability during the amnesty period provided for in that Act for that taxable period, then the penalty imposed by the Department under this Section shall be imposed in an amount that is 200% of the amount that would otherwise be imposed under this Section.

(j) If a taxpayer has a tax liability for the taxable period ending after June 30, 2002 and prior to July 1, 2009 that is eligible for amnesty under the Tax Delinquency Amnesty Act, except for any tax liability reported pursuant to Section 506(b) of the Illinois Income Tax Act (35 ILCS 5/506(b)) that is not final, and the taxpayer fails to satisfy the tax liability during the amnesty period provided for in that Act for that taxable period, then the penalty imposed by the Department under this Section shall be imposed in an amount that is 200% of the amount that would otherwise be imposed under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-98, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 220. The Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012 is amended by changing Section 1-60 as follows:

(35 ILCS 1010/1-60)

Sec. 1-60. Discovery and stipulation.

(a) The parties to the proceeding shall comply with the Supreme Court Rules for Civil Proceedings in the Trial Court regarding Discovery, Requests for Admission, and Pre-Trial Procedure.

(b) An A administrative law judge or the clerk of the Tax Tribunal, on the request of any party to the proceeding, shall issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and giving of testimony and subpoenas duces tecum requiring the production of evidence or things.

(c) Any employee of the Tax Tribunal designated in writing for that purpose by the Chief Administrative Law Judge may administer oaths.

(d) The Tax Tribunal may enforce its order on discovery and other procedural issues, among other means, by deciding issues wholly or partly against the offending party.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 9-21-23.)

Section 225. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 15-198 and 16-127 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/15-198)

Sec. 15-198. Application and expiration of new benefit increases.

(a) As used in this Section, "new benefit increase" means an increase in the amount of any benefit provided under this Article, or an expansion of the conditions of eligibility for any benefit under this Article, that results from an amendment to this Code that takes effect after June 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-4). "New benefit increase", however, does not include any benefit increase resulting from the changes made to Article 1 or this Article by Public Act 100-23, Public Act 100-587, Public Act 100-769, Public Act 101-10, Public Act 101-610, Public Act 102-16, Public Act 103-80, or Public Act 103-548 or this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code or any subsequent amendment to this Code, every new benefit increase is subject to this Section and shall be deemed to be granted only in conformance with and contingent upon compliance with the provisions of this Section.

(c) The Public Act enacting a new benefit increase must identify and provide for payment to the System of additional funding at least sufficient to fund the resulting annual increase in cost to the System as it accrues.

Every new benefit increase is contingent upon the General Assembly providing the additional funding required under this subsection. The Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability shall analyze whether adequate additional funding has been provided for the new benefit increase and shall report its analysis to the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance. A new benefit increase created by a Public Act that does not include the additional funding required under this subsection is null and void. If the Public Pension Division determines that the additional funding provided for a new benefit increase under this subsection is or has become inadequate, it may so certify to the Governor and the State Comptroller and, in the absence of corrective action by the General Assembly, the new benefit increase shall expire at the end of the fiscal year in which the certification is made.

(d) Every new benefit increase shall expire 5 years after its effective date or on such earlier date as may be specified in the language enacting the new benefit increase or provided under subsection (c). This does not prevent the General Assembly from extending or re-creating a new benefit increase by law.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the language creating the new benefit increase, a new benefit increase that expires under this Section continues to apply to persons who applied and qualified for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect and to the affected beneficiaries and alternate payees of such persons, but does not apply to any other person, including, without limitation, a person who continues in service after the expiration date and did not apply and qualify for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 103-80, eff. 6-9-23; 103-548, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-31-23.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-127) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-127)

Sec. 16-127. Computation of creditable service.

(a) Each member shall receive regular credit for all service as a teacher from the date membership begins, for which satisfactory evidence is supplied and all contributions have been paid.

(b) The following periods of service shall earn optional credit and each member shall receive credit for all such service for which satisfactory evidence is supplied and all contributions have been paid as of the date specified:

(1) Prior service as a teacher.

(2) Service in a capacity essentially similar or equivalent to that of a teacher, in the public common schools in school districts in this State not included within the provisions of this System, or of any other State, territory, dependency or possession of the United States, or in schools operated by or under the auspices of the United States, or under the auspices of any agency or department of any other State, and service during any period of professional speech correction or special education experience for a public agency within this State or any other State, territory, dependency or possession of the United States, and service prior to February 1, 1951 as a recreation worker for the Illinois Department of Public Safety, for a period not exceeding the lesser of 2/5 of the total creditable service of the member or 10 years. The maximum service of 10 years which is allowable under this paragraph shall be reduced by the service credit which is validated by other retirement systems under paragraph (i) of Section 15-113 and paragraph 1 of Section 17-133. Credit granted under this paragraph may not be used in determination of a retirement annuity or disability benefits unless the member has at least 5 years of creditable service earned subsequent to this employment with one or more of the following systems: Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, State Universities Retirement System, and the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago. Whenever such service credit exceeds the maximum allowed for all purposes of this Article, the first service rendered in point of time shall be considered. The changes to this paragraph subdivision (b)(2) made by Public Act 86-272 shall apply not only to persons who on or after its effective date (August 23, 1989) are in service as a teacher under the System, but also to persons whose status as such a teacher terminated prior to such effective date, whether or not such person is an annuitant on that date.

(3) Any periods immediately following teaching service, under this System or under Article 17, (or immediately following service prior to February 1, 1951 as a recreation worker for the Illinois Department of Public Safety) spent in active service with the military forces of the United States; periods spent in educational programs that prepare for return to teaching sponsored by the federal government following such active military service; if a teacher returns to teaching service within one calendar year after discharge or after the completion of the educational program, a further period, not exceeding one calendar year, between time spent in military service or in such educational programs and the return to employment as a teacher under this System; and a period of up to 2 years of active military service not immediately following employment as a teacher.

The changes to this Section and Section 16-128 relating to military service made by Public Act P.A. 87-794 shall apply not only to persons who on or after its effective date are in service as a teacher under the System, but also to persons whose status as a teacher terminated prior to that date, whether or not the person is an annuitant on that date. In the case of an annuitant who applies for credit allowable under this Section for a period of military service that did not immediately follow employment, and who has made the required contributions for such credit, the annuity shall be recalculated to include the additional service credit, with the increase taking effect on the date the System received written notification of the annuitant's intent to purchase the credit, if payment of all the required contributions is made within 60 days of such notice, or else on the first annuity payment date following the date of payment of the required contributions. In calculating the automatic annual increase for an annuity that has been recalculated under this Section, the increase attributable to the additional service allowable under Public Act P.A. 87-794 shall be included in the calculation of automatic annual increases accruing after the effective date of the recalculation.

Credit for military service shall be determined as follows: if entry occurs during the months of July, August, or September and the member was a teacher at the end of the immediately preceding school term, credit shall be granted from July 1 of the year in which he or she entered service; if entry occurs during the school term and the teacher was in teaching service at the beginning of the school term, credit shall be granted from July 1 of such year. In all other cases where credit for military service is allowed, credit shall be granted from the date of entry into the service.

The total period of military service for which credit is granted shall not exceed 5 years for any member unless the service: (A) is validated before July 1, 1964, and (B) does not extend beyond July 1, 1963. Credit for military service shall be granted under this Section only if not more than 5 years of the military service for which credit is granted under this Section is used by the member to qualify for a military retirement allotment from any branch of the armed forces of the United States. The changes to this paragraph subdivision (b)(3) made by Public Act 86-272 shall apply not only to persons who on or after its effective date (August 23, 1989) are in service as a teacher under the System, but also to persons whose status as such a teacher terminated prior to such effective date, whether or not such person is an annuitant on that date.

(4) Any periods served as a member of the General Assembly.

(5)(i) Any periods for which a teacher, as defined in Section 16-106, is granted a leave of absence, provided he or she returns to teaching service creditable under this System or the State Universities Retirement System following the leave; (ii) periods during which a teacher is involuntarily laid off from teaching, provided he or she returns to teaching following the lay-off; (iii) periods prior to July 1, 1983 during which a teacher ceased covered employment due to pregnancy, provided that the teacher returned to teaching service creditable under this System or the State Universities Retirement System following the pregnancy and submits evidence satisfactory to the Board documenting that the employment ceased due to pregnancy; and (iv) periods prior to July 1, 1983 during which a teacher ceased covered employment for the purpose of adopting an infant under 3 years of age or caring for a newly adopted infant under 3 years of age, provided that the teacher returned to teaching service creditable under this System or the State Universities Retirement System following the adoption and submits evidence satisfactory to the Board documenting that the employment ceased for the purpose of adopting an infant under 3 years of age or caring for a newly adopted infant under 3 years of age. However, total credit under this paragraph (5) may not exceed 3 years.

Any qualified member or annuitant may apply for credit under item (iii) or (iv) of this paragraph (5) without regard to whether service was terminated before June 27, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 90-32) this amendatory Act of 1997. In the case of an annuitant who establishes credit under item (iii) or (iv), the annuity shall be recalculated to include the additional service credit. The increase in annuity shall take effect on the date the System receives written notification of the annuitant's intent to purchase the credit, if the required evidence is submitted and the required contribution paid within 60 days of that notification, otherwise on the first annuity payment date following the System's receipt of the required evidence and contribution. The increase in an annuity recalculated under this provision shall be included in the calculation of automatic annual increases in the annuity accruing after the effective date of the recalculation.

Optional credit may be purchased under this paragraph subsection (b)(5) for periods during which a teacher has been granted a leave of absence pursuant to Section 24-13 of the School Code. A teacher whose service under this Article terminated prior to the effective date of Public Act P.A. 86-1488 shall be eligible to purchase such optional credit. If a teacher who purchases this optional credit is already receiving a retirement annuity under this Article, the annuity shall be recalculated as if the annuitant had applied for the leave of absence credit at the time of retirement. The difference between the entitled annuity and the actual annuity shall be credited to the purchase of the optional credit. The remainder of the purchase cost of the optional credit shall be paid on or before April 1, 1992.

The change in this paragraph made by Public Act 86-273 shall be applicable to teachers who retire after June 1, 1989, as well as to teachers who are in service on that date.

(6) Any days of unused and uncompensated accumulated sick leave earned by a teacher. The service credit granted under this paragraph shall be the ratio of the number of unused and uncompensated accumulated sick leave days to 170 days, subject to a maximum of 2 years of service credit. Prior to the member's retirement, each former employer shall certify to the System the number of unused and uncompensated accumulated sick leave days credited to the member at the time of termination of service. The period of unused sick leave shall not be considered in determining the effective date of retirement. A member is not required to make contributions in order to obtain service credit for unused sick leave.

Credit for sick leave shall, at retirement, be granted by the System for any retiring regional or assistant regional superintendent of schools at the rate of 6 days per year of creditable service or portion thereof established while serving as such superintendent or assistant superintendent.

(7) Periods prior to February 1, 1987 served as an employee of the Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy for which credit has not been terminated under Section 15-113.9 of this Code.

(8) Service as a substitute teacher for work performed prior to July 1, 1990.

(9) Service as a part-time teacher for work performed prior to July 1, 1990.

(10) Up to 2 years of employment with Southern Illinois University - Carbondale from September 1, 1959 to August 31, 1961, or with Governors State University from September 1, 1972 to August 31, 1974, for which the teacher has no credit under Article 15. To receive credit under this item (10), a teacher must apply in writing to the Board and pay the required contributions before May 1, 1993 and have at least 12 years of service credit under this Article.

(11) Periods of service as a student teacher as described in Section 24-8.5 of the School Code for which the student teacher received a salary.

(b-1) A member may establish optional credit for up to 2 years of service as a teacher or administrator employed by a private school recognized by the Illinois State Board of Education, provided that the teacher (i) was certified under the law governing the certification of teachers at the time the service was rendered, (ii) applies in writing on or before June 30, 2028, (iii) supplies satisfactory evidence of the employment, (iv) completes at least 10 years of contributing service as a teacher as defined in Section 16-106, and (v) pays the contribution required in subsection (d-5) of Section 16-128. The member may apply for credit under this subsection and pay the required contribution before completing the 10 years of contributing service required under item (iv), but the credit may not be used until the item (iv) contributing service requirement has been met.

(c) The service credits specified in this Section shall be granted only if: (1) such service credits are not used for credit in any other statutory tax-supported public employee retirement system other than the federal Social Security program; and (2) the member makes the required contributions as specified in Section 16-128. Except as provided in subsection (b-1) of this Section, the service credit shall be effective as of the date the required contributions are completed.

Any service credits granted under this Section shall terminate upon cessation of membership for any cause.

Credit may not be granted under this Section covering any period for which an age retirement or disability retirement allowance has been paid.

Credit may not be granted under this Section for service as an employee of an entity that provides substitute teaching services under Section 2-3.173 of the School Code and is not a school district.

(Source: P.A. 102-525, eff. 8-20-21; 103-17, eff. 6-9-23; 103-525, eff. 8-11-23; revised 9-5-23.)

Section 230. The Local Government Taxpayers' Bill of Rights Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(50 ILCS 45/30)

Sec. 30. Statute of limitations. Units of local government have an obligation to review tax returns in a timely manner and issue any determination of tax due as promptly as possible so that taxpayers may make timely corrections of future returns and minimize any interest charges applied to tax underpayments. Each unit of local government must provide appropriate statutes of limitation for the determination and assessment of taxes covered by this Act, provided, however, that a statute of limitations may not exceed the following:

(1) No notice of determination of tax due or assessment may be issued more than 5 years after the end of the calendar year for which the return for the period was filed or the end of the calendar year in which the return for the period was due, whichever occurs later. An audit or review that is timely performed under Section 35 of this Act or Section 8-11-2.5 of the Illinois Municipal Code shall toll the applicable 5-year period for a period of not more than one 1 year.

(2) If any tax return was not filed or if during any 4-year period for which a notice of tax determination or assessment may be issued by the unit of local government the tax paid or remitted was less than 75% of the tax due for that period, the statute of limitations shall be no more than 6 years after the end of the calendar year in which the return for the period was due or the end of the calendar year in which the return for the period was filed, whichever occurs later. In the event that a unit of local government fails to provide a statute of limitations, the maximum statutory period provided in this Section applies.

(3) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 102-1144 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly do not revive any determination and assessment of tax due where the statute of limitations has expired as of March 17, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1144) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, but the changes do extend the statute of limitations for the determination and assessment of taxes where the statute of limitation has not expired as of March 17, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1144) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

This Section does not place any limitation on a unit of local government if a fraudulent tax return is filed.

(Source: P.A. 102-1144, eff. 3-17-23; revised 4-5-23.)

Section 235. The Uniform Peace Officers' Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 7.2 as follows:

(50 ILCS 725/7.2)

Sec. 7.2. Possession of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. An employer of an officer shall not make possession of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card a condition of continued employment if the officer's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is revoked or seized because the officer has been a patient of a mental health facility and the officer has not been determined to pose a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner. Nothing in is this Section shall otherwise impair an employer's ability to determine an officer's fitness for duty. On and after August 17, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-911) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, Section 6 of this Act shall not apply to the prohibition requiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card as a condition of continued employment, but a collective bargaining agreement already in effect on that issue on August 17, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-911) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly cannot be modified. The employer shall document if and why an officer has been determined to pose a clear and present danger.

(Source: P.A. 100-911, eff. 8-17-18; 101-375, eff. 8-16-19; revised 4-5-23.)

Section 240. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-8002, 4-7001, 5-1022, and 5-1069.3 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-8002) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-8002)

Sec. 3-8002. Applicability and adoption. The county board of every county having a county police department merit board established under the "The County Police Department Act", approved August 7, 1967, as amended (repealed), or a merit commission for sheriff's personnel established under Section 58.1 of "An Act to revise the law in relation to counties", approved March 31, 1874, as amended (repealed), shall adopt and implement the merit system provided by this Division and shall modify the merit system now in effect in that county as may be necessary to comply with this Division.

The county board of any county having a population of less than 1,000,000 which does not have a merit board or merit commission for sheriff's personnel may adopt and implement by ordinance the merit system provided by this Division. If the county board does not adopt such a merit system by an ordinance and if a petition signed by not fewer than 5% or 1000, whichever is less, of the registered electors of any such county is filed with the county clerk requesting a referendum on the adoption of a merit system for deputies in the office of the Sheriff, the county board shall, by appropriate ordinance, cause the question to be submitted to the electors of the county, at a special or general election specified in such ordinance, in accordance with the provisions of Section 28-3 of the "The Election Code", approved May 11, 1943, as now or hereafter amended. Notice of the election shall be given as provided in Article 12 of that Code such code. If a majority of those voting on the proposition at such election vote in favor thereof, the county board shall adopt and implement a merit system provided in this Division. When a merit board or merit commission for sheriff's personnel has been established in a county, it may be abolished by the same procedure in which it was established.

This Division does not apply to any county having a population of more than 1,000,000 nor to any county which has not elected to adopt the merit system provided by this Division and which is not required to do so under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 9-25-23.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-7001)

Sec. 4-7001. Coroner's fees. The fees of the coroner's office shall be as follows:

1. For a copy of a transcript of sworn testimony: $5.00 per page.

2. For a copy of an autopsy report (if not included in transcript): $50.00.

3. For a copy of the verdict of a coroner's jury: $5.00.

4. For a copy of a toxicology report: $25.00.

5. For a print of or an electronic file containing a picture obtained by the coroner: actual cost or $3.00, whichever is greater.

6. For each copy of miscellaneous reports, including artist's drawings but not including police reports: actual cost or $25.00, whichever is greater.

7. For a coroner's or medical examiner's permit to cremate a dead human body: $100. The coroner may waive, at his or her discretion, the permit fee if the coroner determines that the person is indigent and unable to pay the permit fee or under other special circumstances.

8. Except in a county with a population over 3,000,000, on and after January 1, 2024, for a certified copy of a transcript of sworn testimony of a coroner's inquest made by written request declaring the request is for research or genealogy purposes: $15.00 for the entire transcript. A request shall be deemed a proper request for purpose of research or genealogy if the requested inquest occurred not less than 20 years prior to the date of the written request. The transcript shall be stamped with the words "FOR GENEALOGY OR RESEARCH PURPOSES ONLY".

All of which fees shall be certified by the court; in the case of inmates of any State charitable or penal institution, the fees shall be paid by the operating department or commission, out of the State Treasury. The coroner shall file his or her claim in probate for his or her fees and he or she shall render assistance to the State's Attorney attorney in the collection of such fees out of the estate of the deceased. In counties of less than 1,000,000 population, the State's Attorney attorney shall collect such fees out of the estate of the deceased.

Except in a county with a population over 3,000,000, on and after January 1, 2024, the coroner may waive, at his or her discretion, any fees under this Section if the coroner determines that the person is indigent and unable to pay the fee or under other special circumstances as determined by the coroner.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, whenever the coroner is required by law to perform any of the duties of the office of the sheriff, the coroner is entitled to the like fees and compensation as are allowed by law to the sheriff for the performance of similar services.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, whenever the coroner of any county is required to travel in the performance of his or her duties, he or she shall receive the same mileage fees as are authorized for the sheriff of such county.

All fees under this Section collected by or on behalf of the coroner's office shall be paid over to the county treasurer and deposited into a special account in the county treasury. Moneys in the special account shall be used solely for the purchase of electronic and forensic identification equipment or other related supplies and the operating expenses of the coroner's office.

The changes made by Public Act 103-73 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly do not apply retroactively.

(Source: P.A. 103-29, eff. 7-1-23; 103-73, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1022)

Sec. 5-1022. Competitive bids.

(a) Any purchase by a county with fewer than 2,000,000 inhabitants of services, materials, equipment or supplies in excess of $30,000, other than professional services, shall be contracted for in one of the following ways:

(1) by a contract let to the lowest responsible bidder after advertising for bids in a newspaper published within the county or, if no newspaper is published within the county, then a newspaper having general circulation within the county; or

(2) by a contract let without advertising for bids in the case of an emergency if authorized by the county board; or .

(3) by a contract let without advertising for bids in the case of the expedited replacement of a disabled, inoperable, or damaged patrol vehicle of the sheriff's department if authorized by the county board.

(b) In determining the lowest responsible bidder, the county board shall take into consideration the qualities of the articles supplied; their conformity with the specifications; their suitability to the requirements of the county; the availability of support services; the uniqueness of the service, materials, equipment, or supplies as it applies to networked, integrated computer systems; the compatibility to existing equipment; and the delivery terms. In addition, the county board may take into consideration the bidder's active participation in an applicable apprenticeship program registered with the United States Department of Labor. The county board also may take into consideration whether a bidder is a private enterprise or a State-controlled enterprise and, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section or a lower bid by a State-controlled enterprise, may let a contract to the lowest responsible bidder that is a private enterprise.

(c) This Section does not apply to contracts by a county with the federal government or to purchases of used equipment, purchases at auction or similar transactions which by their very nature are not suitable to competitive bids, pursuant to an ordinance adopted by the county board.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, a county may let without advertising for bids in the case of purchases and contracts, when individual orders do not exceed $35,000, for the use, purchase, delivery, movement, or installation of data processing equipment, software, or services and telecommunications and inter-connect equipment, software, and services.

(e) A county may require, as a condition of any contract for goods and services, that persons awarded a contract with the county and all affiliates of the person collect and remit Illinois Use Tax on all sales of tangible personal property into the State of Illinois in accordance with the provisions of the Illinois Use Tax Act regardless of whether the person or affiliate is a "retailer maintaining a place of business within this State" as defined in Section 2 of the Use Tax Act. For purposes of this subsection (e), the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (e), an entity controls another entity if it owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (e), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

(f) Bids submitted to, and contracts executed by, the county may require a certification by the bidder or contractor that the bidder or contractor is not barred from bidding for or entering into a contract under this Section and that the bidder or contractor acknowledges that the county may declare the contract void if the certification completed pursuant to this subsection (f) is false.

(Source: P.A. 103-14, eff. 1-1-24; 103-286, eff. 7-28-23; revised 12-12-23.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, and 356z.61, and 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 245. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-4-1 and 10-4-2.3 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-4-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-4-1)

Sec. 8-4-1. No bonds shall be issued by the corporate authorities of any municipality until the question of authorizing such bonds has been submitted to the electors of that municipality provided that notice of the bond referendum, if held before July 1, 1999, has been given in accordance with the provisions of Section 12-5 of the Election Code in effect at the time of the bond referendum, at least 10 and not more than 45 days before the date of the election, notwithstanding the time for publication otherwise imposed by Section 12-5, and approved by a majority of the electors voting upon that question. Notices required in connection with the submission of public questions on or after July 1, 1999 shall be as set forth in Section 12-5 of the Election Code. The clerk shall certify the proposition of the corporate authorities to the proper election authority who shall submit the question at an election in accordance with the general election law, subject to the notice provisions set forth in this Section.

Notice of any such election shall contain the amount of the bond issue, purpose for which issued, and maximum rate of interest.

In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Village of Indian Head Park is authorized to issue bonds for the purpose of paying the costs of making roadway improvements in an amount not to exceed the aggregate principal amount of $2,500,000, provided that 60% of the votes cast at the general primary election held on March 18, 2014 are cast in favor of the issuance of the bonds, and the bonds are issued by December 31, 2014.

However, without the submission of the question of issuing bonds to the electors, the corporate authorities of any municipality may authorize the issuance of any of the following bonds:

(1) Bonds to refund any existing bonded indebtedness;

(2) Bonds to fund or refund any existing judgment indebtedness;

(3) In any municipality of less than 500,000 population, bonds to anticipate the collection of installments of special assessments and special taxes against property owned by the municipality and to anticipate the collection of the amount apportioned to the municipality as public benefits under Article 9;

(4) Bonds issued by any municipality under Sections 8-4-15 through 8-4-23, 11-23-1 through 11-23-12, 11-26-1 through 11-26-6, 11-71-1 through 11-71-10, 11-74.3-1 through 11-74.3-7, 11-74.4-1 through 11-74.4-11, 11-74.5-1 through 11-74.5-15, 11-94-1 through 11-94-7, 11-102-1 through 11-102-10, 11-103-11 through 11-103-15, 11-118-1 through 11-118-6, 11-119-1 through 11-119-5, 11-129-1 through 11-129-7, 11-133-1 through 11-133-4, 11-139-1 through 11-139-12, 11-141-1 through 11-141-18 of this Code, or 10-801 through 10-808 of the Illinois Highway Code, as amended;

(5) Bonds issued by the board of education of any school district under the provisions of Sections 34-30 through 34-36 of the The School Code, as amended;

(6) Bonds issued by any municipality under the provisions of Division 6 of this Article 8; and by any municipality under the provisions of Division 7 of this Article 8; or under the provisions of Sections 11-121-4 and 11-121-5;

(7) Bonds to pay for the purchase of voting machines by any municipality that has adopted Article 24 of the The Election Code, approved May 11, 1943, as amended;

(8) Bonds issued by any municipality under Sections 15 and 46 of the "Environmental Protection Act", approved June 29, 1970;

(9) Bonds issued by the corporate authorities of any municipality under the provisions of Section 8-4-25 of this Article 8;

(10) Bonds issued under Section 8-4-26 of this Article 8 by any municipality having a board of election commissioners;

(11) Bonds issued under the provisions of the Special Service Area Tax Act (repealed) "An Act to provide the manner of levying or imposing taxes for the provision of special services to areas within the boundaries of home rule units and nonhome rule municipalities and counties", approved September 21, 1973;

(12) Bonds issued under Section 8-5-16 of this Code;

(13) Bonds to finance the cost of the acquisition, construction, or improvement of water or wastewater treatment facilities mandated by an enforceable compliance schedule developed in connection with the federal Clean Water Act or a compliance order issued by the United States Environmental Protection Agency or the Illinois Pollution Control Board; provided that such bonds are authorized by an ordinance adopted by a three-fifths majority of the corporate authorities of the municipality issuing the bonds which ordinance shall specify that the construction or improvement of such facilities is necessary to alleviate an emergency condition in such municipality;

(14) Bonds issued by any municipality pursuant to Section 11-113.1-1;

(15) Bonds issued under Sections 11-74.6-1 through 11-74.6-45, the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law of this Code;

(16) Bonds issued under the Innovation Development and Economy Act, except as may be required by Section 35 of that Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-587, eff. 1-1-22; revised 9-25-23.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, and 356z.61, and 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 250. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/20) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 38.3)

Sec. 20. Disconnection by operation of law.

(a) Any territory within a fire protection district that is or has been annexed to a municipality that provides fire protection for property within such city, village or incorporated town is, by operation of law, disconnected from the fire protection district as of the January first after such territory is annexed to the municipality as long as the municipality has conducted a response-time study that shows, at a minimum, estimated response times from the fire protection district to the territory and estimated response times of the municipal fire department from the territory or in case any such territory has been so annexed prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1965, as of January 1, 1966.

(b) The disconnection by operation of law does not occur if, within 60 days after such annexation or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1965, whichever is later, the fire protection district files with the appropriate court and with the County Clerk of each county in which the fire protection district is located, a petition alleging that such disconnection will cause the territory remaining in the district to be noncontiguous or that the loss of assessed valuation by reason of such disconnection will impair the ability of the district to render fully adequate fire protection service to the territory remaining with the district. When such a petition is filed, with the court and with the County Clerk of each county in which the fire protection district is located, the court shall set it for hearing, and further proceedings shall be held, as provided in Section 15 of this Act, except that the city, village or incorporated town that annexed the territory shall be a necessary party to the proceedings, and it shall be served with summons in the manner for a party defendant under the Civil Practice Law. At such hearing, the district has the burden of proving the truth of the allegations in its petition.

(c) If disconnection does not occur, then the city, village or incorporated town in which part of a fire protection district's territory is located, is prohibited from levying the tax provided for by Section 11-7-1 of the "Illinois Municipal Code" in such fire protection district territory for services provided to the residents of such territory by the fire protection district.

(d) If there are any general obligation bonds of the fire protection district outstanding and unpaid at the time such territory is disconnected from the fire protection district by operation of this Section, such territory shall remain liable for its proportionate share of such bonded indebtedness and the fire protection district may continue to levy and extend taxes upon the taxable property in such territory for the purpose of amortizing such bonds until such time as sufficient funds to retire such bonds have been collected.

(e) On and after January 1, 2000 (the effective date of Public Act 91-307) this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, when territory is disconnected from a fire protection district under this Section, the annexing municipality shall pay, on or before December 31 of each year for a period of 5 years after the effective date of the disconnection, to the fire protection district from which the territory was disconnected, an amount as follows:

(1) In the first year after the disconnection, an amount equal to the real estate tax collected on the property in the disconnected territory by the fire protection district in the tax year immediately preceding the year in which the disconnection took effect.

(2) In the second year after the disconnection, an amount equal to 80% of the real estate tax collected on the property in the disconnected territory by the fire protection district in the tax year immediately preceding the year in which the disconnection took effect.

(3) In the third year after the disconnection, an amount equal to 60% of the real estate tax collected on the property in the disconnected territory by the fire protection district in the tax year immediately preceding the year in which the disconnection took effect.

(4) In the fourth year after the disconnection, an amount equal to 40% of the real estate tax collected on the property in the disconnected territory by the fire protection district in the tax year immediately preceding the year in which the disconnection took effect.

(5) In the fifth year after the disconnection, an amount equal to 20% of the real estate tax collected on the property in the disconnected territory by the fire protection district in the tax year immediately preceding the year in which the disconnection took effect.

This subsection (e) applies to a fire protection district only if the corporate authorities of the district do not file a petition against the disconnection under subsection (b).

(f) A municipality that does not timely make the payment required in subsection (e) and which refuses to make such payment within 30 days following a written demand by the fire protection district entitled to the payment or which causes a fire protection district to incur an expense in order to collect the amount to which it is entitled under subsection (e) shall, in addition to the amount due under subsection (e), be responsible to reimburse the fire protection district for all costs incurred by the fire protection district in collecting the amount due, including, but not limited to, reasonable legal fees and court costs.

(Source: P.A. 102-574, eff. 1-1-22; 102-773, eff. 1-1-23; revised 4-5-23.)

Section 255. The Illinois Waterway Ports Commission Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1816/15)

Sec. 15. Powers.

(a) The Commission may request funding from any federal, state, municipal, or local government or any other person or organization for purposes of the Commission within the Commission's jurisdiction. The individual port districts within the Commission's jurisdiction retain authority to request funding from any federal, state, municipal, or local government or any other person or organization for purposes of the individual port districts within the Commission area.

(b) The Commission may enter into a memorandum of understanding or intergovernmental agreement with the State, a unit of local government, or a federal governmental organization in the performance of its duties. The Commission may not exercise control over an a operation of a port district established by any other law except by voluntary agreement between the port district and the Commission.

(c) The Commission may perform any other act that may be useful in performing its duties under Section 10 or powers under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-214, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-25-23.)

Section 260. The Emergency Services Districts Act is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2005/11)

Sec. 11. Property tax; fees.

(a) An emergency services district organized under this Act may levy and collect a general tax on the property situated in the district, but the aggregate amount of taxes levied for any one year shall not exceed the rate of .20% of value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. The board of trustees shall determine and certify the amount to be levied and shall return the same to the county clerk. The limitation upon the tax rate may be increased or decreased under the referendum provisions of the General Revenue Law of Illinois.

In case the district is located in more than one county, the board of trustees shall determine and certify the amount to be levied upon the taxable property lying in each county and return the same to the respective county clerks of the counties in which the amount is to be levied. In order to determine the amount to be levied upon the taxable property of that part of the district lying in each county, the board shall ascertain from the county clerk of the respective counties in which the district lies the last ascertained equalized value of the taxable property of the district lying in their respective counties, then shall ascertain the rate per cent required and shall, accordingly, apportion the whole amount to be raised between the several parts of the district so lying in the different counties. The tax provided for in this Section shall be levied at the same time and in the same manner as nearly as practicable as taxes are now levied for municipal purposes under the laws of this State.

All general taxes under this Act, when collected, shall be paid over to the treasurer of the board of trustees, who is authorized to receive and receipt for the same.

(b) An emergency services A rescue squad district organized under this Act may fix, charge, and collect fees for rescue squad services and ambulance services within or outside of the rescue squad district not exceeding the reasonable cost of the service.

(Source: P.A. 103-134, eff. 1-1-24; 103-174, eff. 6-30-23; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 265. The Metropolitan Transit Authority Act is amended by changing Section 51 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3605/51)

Sec. 51. Free and reduced fare services; eligibility.

(a) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following January 18, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-708) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and until subsection (b) is implemented, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, the Board shall be provided without charge to all senior citizens of the Metropolitan Region (as such term is defined in Section 1.03 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act 70 ILCS 3615/1.03) aged 65 and older, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the Board.

(b) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 180 days following February 14, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1527) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, the Board shall be provided without charge to senior citizens aged 65 and older who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the Board. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section. After an initial eligibility determination is made, an individual's eligibility for free services shall automatically renew every 5 years after receipt by the Authority of a copy of the individual's government-issued identification card validating Illinois residency. Nothing in this Section shall relieve the Board from providing reduced fares as may be required by federal law.

(c) The Board shall partner with the City of Chicago to provide transportation at reduced fares for participants in programs that offer employment and internship opportunities to youth and young adults ages 14 through 24.

(Source: P.A. 103-241, eff. 1-1-24; 103-281, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 270. The Illinois Library System Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(75 ILCS 10/3) (from Ch. 81, par. 113)

Sec. 3. The State Librarian and the Illinois State Library staff shall administer the provisions of this Act and shall prescribe such rules and regulations as are necessary to carry the provisions of this Act into effect.

The rules and regulations established by the State Librarian for the administration of this Act shall be designed to achieve the following standards and objectives:

(A) Provide A provide library service for every citizen in the State by extending library facilities to areas not now served.

(B) Provide B provide library materials for student needs at every educational level.

(C) Provide C provide adequate library materials to satisfy the reference and research needs of the people of this State.

(D) Provide D provide an adequate staff of professionally trained librarians for the State.

(E) Adopt E adopt the American Library Association's Library Bill of Rights that indicates materials should not be proscribed or removed because of partisan or doctrinal disapproval or, in the alternative, develop a written statement declaring the inherent authority of the library or library system to provide an adequate collection of books and other materials sufficient in size and varied in kind and subject matter to satisfy the library needs of the people of this State and prohibit the practice of banning specific books or resources.

(F) Provide F provide adequate library outlets and facilities convenient in time and place to serve the people of this State.

(G) Encourage G encourage existing and new libraries to develop library systems serving a sufficiently large population to support adequate library service at reasonable cost.

(H) Foster H foster the economic and efficient utilization of public funds.

(I) Promote I promote the full utilization of local pride, responsibility, initiative, and support of library service and, at the same time, employ State aid as a supplement to local support.

The Advisory Committee of the Illinois State Library shall confer with, advise, and make recommendations to the State Librarian regarding any matter under this Act and particularly with reference to the formation of library systems.

(Source: P.A. 103-100, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 275. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.25d-5, 2-3.25o, 2-3.163, 3-11, 10-17a, 10-20.67, 10-22.3f, 10-22.36, 10-22.39, 14-7.02, 14-8.02, 18-8.15, 19-6, 21B-30, 21B-50, 21B-70, 22-30, 24-2, 24-12, 24A-5, 26A-40, 27-23.1, 27A-3, 27A-5, 27A-6, 27A-7, 27A-11.5, and 34-84, by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 2-3.196, 10-20.85, and 34-18.82, and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 22-95 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.25d-5)

Sec. 2-3.25d-5. Targeted, Comprehensive, and Intensive schools.

(a) Beginning in 2018, a school designated as "Comprehensive" shall be defined as:

(1) a school that is among the lowest performing 5% of schools in this State based on the multi-measures accountability system defined in the State Plan, with respect to the performance of the "all students" group;

(2) any high school with a graduation rate of less than 67%;

(2.5) any school that has completed a full 4-year cycle of Targeted School Improvement but remains identified for Targeted Support for one or more of the same student groups originally identified for Targeted Support; or

(3) (blank).

The State Board of Education shall work with districts with one or more schools in Comprehensive School Improvement Status to perform a needs assessment to determine the district's core functions that are areas of strength and weakness. The results from the needs assessment shall be used by the district and school to identify goals and objectives for improvement. The needs assessment shall include, at a minimum, a review of the following areas: student performance on State assessments; student performance on local assessments; finances, including resource allocation reviews; governance, including effectiveness of school leadership; student engagement opportunities and access to those opportunities; instructional practices; standards-aligned curriculum; school climate and culture survey results; family and community engagement; reflective stakeholder engagement; continuous school improvement practices; educator and employee quality, including staff continuity and turnover rates; and alignment of professional development to continuous improvement efforts.

(b) Beginning in 2018, a school designated as "Targeted" shall be defined as a school in which one or more student groups is performing at or below the level of the "all students" group of schools designated Comprehensive, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) Beginning in 2023, a school designated as "Intensive" shall be defined as a school that has completed a full 4-year cycle of Comprehensive School Improvement but does not meet the criteria to exit that status, as defined in the State Plan referenced in subsection (b) of Section 2-3.25a of this Code, at the end of the cycle.

(d) All schools in school improvement status, including Comprehensive, Targeted, and Intensive schools, must complete a school-level needs assessment and develop and implement a continuous improvement plan.

(Source: P.A. 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-22-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.25o)

Sec. 2-3.25o. Registration and recognition of non-public elementary and secondary schools.

(a) Findings. The General Assembly finds and declares (i) that the Constitution of the State of Illinois provides that a "fundamental goal of the People of the State is the educational development of all persons to the limits of their capacities" and (ii) that the educational development of every school student serves the public purposes of the State. In order to ensure that all Illinois students and teachers have the opportunity to enroll and work in State-approved educational institutions and programs, the State Board of Education shall provide for the voluntary registration and recognition of non-public elementary and secondary schools.

(b) Registration. All non-public elementary and secondary schools in the State of Illinois may voluntarily register with the State Board of Education on an annual basis. Registration shall be completed in conformance with procedures prescribed by the State Board of Education. Information required for registration shall include assurances of compliance (i) with federal and State laws regarding health examination and immunization, attendance, length of term, and nondiscrimination, including assurances that the school will not prohibit hairstyles historically associated with race, ethnicity, or hair texture, including, but not limited to, protective hairstyles such as braids, locks, and twists, and (ii) with applicable fire and health safety requirements.

(c) Recognition. All non-public elementary and secondary schools in the State of Illinois may voluntarily seek the status of "Non-public School Recognition" from the State Board of Education. This status may be obtained by compliance with administrative guidelines and review procedures as prescribed by the State Board of Education. The guidelines and procedures must recognize that some of the aims and the financial bases of non-public schools are different from public schools and will not be identical to those for public schools, nor will they be more burdensome. The guidelines and procedures must also recognize the diversity of non-public schools and shall not impinge upon the noneducational relationships between those schools and their clientele.

(c-5) Prohibition against recognition. A non-public elementary or secondary school may not obtain "Non-public School Recognition" status unless the school requires all certified and non-certified applicants for employment with the school, after July 1, 2007, to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check as a condition of employment to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State.

Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one non-public school, a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one non-public school (as a reading specialist, special education teacher, or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one non-public school, then only one of the non-public schools employing the individual shall request the authorization. Upon receipt of this authorization, the non-public school shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police.

The Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereafter, until expunged, to the president or principal of the non-public school that requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge that school a fee for conducting such check, which fee must be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and must not exceed the cost of the inquiry. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse non-public schools for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

A non-public school may not obtain recognition status unless the school also performs a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, and the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, for each applicant for employment, after July 1, 2007, to determine whether the applicant has been adjudicated of a sex offense or of a murder or other violent crime against youth. The checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and the Statewide Stateside Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database must be conducted by the non-public school once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the non-public school..

Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by a non-public school's president or principal under this Section is confidential and may be disseminated only to the governing body of the non-public school or any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, the non-public school shall notify the applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Sex Offender Database as a sex offender. Any information concerning the records of conviction obtained by the non-public school's president or principal under this Section for a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one non-public school, a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one non-public school (as a reading specialist, special education teacher, or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one non-public school may be shared with another non-public school's principal or president to which the applicant seeks employment. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

No non-public school may obtain recognition status that knowingly employs a person, hired after July 1, 2007, for whom an Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation fingerprint-based criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check has not been initiated or who has been convicted of any offense enumerated in Section 21B-80 of this Code or any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of those offenses. No non-public school may obtain recognition status under this Section that knowingly employs a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of a minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

In order to obtain recognition status under this Section, a non-public school must require compliance with the provisions of this subsection (c-5) from all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with the school, including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers, and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with pupils. Any information concerning the records of conviction or identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the non-public school principal or president must be promptly reported to the school's governing body.

Prior to the commencement of any student teaching experience or required internship (which is referred to as student teaching in this Section) in any non-public elementary or secondary school that has obtained or seeks to obtain recognition status under this Section, a student teacher is required to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check. Authorization for and payment of the costs of the check must be furnished by the student teacher to the chief administrative officer of the non-public school where the student teaching is to be completed. Upon receipt of this authorization and payment, the chief administrative officer of the non-public school shall submit the student teacher's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the chief administrative officer of the non-public school that requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school a fee for conducting the check, which fee must be passed on to the student teacher, must not exceed the cost of the inquiry, and must be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The school shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, and of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, for each student teacher. No school that has obtained or seeks to obtain recognition status under this Section may knowingly allow a person to student teach for whom a criminal history records check, a Statewide Sex Offender Database check, and a Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database check have not been completed and reviewed by the chief administrative officer of the non-public school.

A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police must be provided to the student teacher. Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the chief administrative officer of the non-public school is confidential and may be transmitted only to the chief administrative officer of the non-public school or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, or, for clarification purposes, the Illinois State Police or the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

No school that has obtained or seeks to obtain recognition status under this Section may knowingly allow a person to student teach who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to Section 21B-80 of this Code or who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of a minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

Any school that has obtained or seeks to obtain recognition status under this Section may not prohibit hairstyles historically associated with race, ethnicity, or hair texture, including, but not limited to, protective hairstyles such as braids, locks, and twists.

(d) Public purposes. The provisions of this Section are in the public interest, for the public benefit, and serve secular public purposes.

(e) Definition. For purposes of this Section, a non-public school means any non-profit, non-home-based, and non-public elementary or secondary school that is in compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and attendance at which satisfies the requirements of Section 26-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-111, eff. 6-29-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.163)

Sec. 2-3.163. PUNS database information for students and parents or guardians.

(a) The General Assembly makes all of the following findings:

(1) Pursuant to Section 10-26 of the Department of Human Services Act, the Department of Human Services maintains a statewide database known as the PUNS database that records information about individuals with intellectual disabilities or developmental disabilities who are potentially in need of services.

(2) The Department of Human Services uses the data on PUNS to select individuals for services as funding becomes available, to develop proposals and materials for budgeting, and to plan for future needs.

(3) The PUNS database is available for adults with intellectual disabilities or developmental disabilities who have unmet service needs anticipated in the next 5 years. The PUNS database is also available for children with intellectual disabilities or developmental disabilities with unmet service needs.

(4) Registration to be included on the PUNS database is the first step toward receiving developmental disabilities services in this State. A child or an adult who is not on the PUNS database will not be in queue for State developmental disabilities services.

(5) Lack of awareness and information about the PUNS database results in underutilization or delays in registration for the PUNS database by students with intellectual disabilities or developmental disabilities and their parents or guardians.

(a-5) The purpose of this Section is to ensure that each student with an intellectual disability or a developmental disability who has an individualized education program ("IEP") and the student's parents or guardian are informed about the PUNS database, where to register for the PUNS database, and whom they can contact for information about the PUNS database and the PUNS database registration process. This Section is not intended to change the PUNS database registration process established by the Department of Human Services or to impose any responsibility on the State Board of Education or a school district to register students for the PUNS database.

(a-10) As used in this Section, "PUNS" means the Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services database or PUNS database developed and maintained by the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 10-26 of the Department of Human Services Act.

(b) The State Board of Education may work in consultation with the Department of Human Services and with school districts to ensure that all students with intellectual disabilities or developmental disabilities and their parents or guardians are informed about the PUNS database, as described in subsections (c), (c-5), and (d) of this Section.

(c) The Department of Human Services, in consultation with the State Board of Education, shall develop and implement an online, computer-based training program for at least one designated employee in every public school in this State to educate the designated employee or employees about the PUNS database and steps required to register students for the PUNS database, including the documentation and information parents or guardians will need for the registration process. The training shall include instruction on identifying and contacting the appropriate developmental disabilities Independent Service Coordination agency ("ISC") to register students for the PUNS database. The training of the designated employee or employees shall also include information about organizations and programs available in this State that offer assistance to families in understanding the PUNS database and navigating the PUNS database registration process. Each school district shall post on its public website and include in its student handbook the names of the designated trained employee or employees in each school within the school district.

(c-5) During the student's annual IEP review meeting, if the student has an intellectual disability or a developmental disability, the student's IEP team shall determine the student's PUNS database registration status based upon information provided by the student's parents or guardian or by the student. If it is determined that the student is not registered for the PUNS database or if it is unclear whether the student is registered for the PUNS database, the parents or guardian and the student shall be referred to a designated employee of the public school who has completed the training described in subsection (c). The designated trained employee shall provide the student's parents or guardian and the student with the name, location, and contact information of the appropriate ISC to contact in order to register the student for the PUNS database. The designated trained employee shall also identify for the parents or guardian and the student the information and documentation they will need to complete the PUNS database registration process with the ISC, and shall also provide information to the parents or guardian and the student about organizations and programs available in this State that offer information to families about the PUNS database and the PUNS database registration process.

(d) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the Department of Human Services, through school districts, shall provide to the parents and guardians of each student with an IEP a copy of the latest version of the Department of Human Services's guide titled "Understanding PUNS: A Guide to Prioritization for Urgency of Need for Services" each year at the annual review meeting for the student's individualized education program.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services shall expand its selection of individuals from the PUNS Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services database to include individuals who receive services through the Children and Young Adults with Developmental Disabilities - Support Waiver.

(Source: P.A. 102-57, eff. 7-9-21; 103-504, eff. 1-1-24; 103-546, eff. 8-11-23; revised 9-28-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.196)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2029)

Sec. 2-3.196. Discrimination, harassment, and retaliation reporting.

(a) The requirements of this Section are subject to appropriation.

(b) The State Board of Education shall build data collection systems to allow the collection of data on reported allegations of the conduct described in paragraph (1). Beginning on August 1 of the year after the systems are implemented and for each reporting school year beginning on August 1 and ending on July 31 thereafter, each school district, charter school, and nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school shall disclose to the State Board of Education all of the following information:

(1) The total number of reported allegations of discrimination, harassment, or retaliation against students received by each school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school during the reporting school year, defined as August 1 to July 31, in each of the following categories:

(A) sexual harassment;

(B) discrimination or harassment on the basis of race, color, or national origin;

(C) discrimination or harassment on the basis of sex;

(D) discrimination or harassment on the basis of religion;

(E) discrimination or harassment on the basis of disability; and

(F) retaliation.

(2) The status of allegations, as of the last day of the reporting period, in each category under paragraph (1).

Allegations shall be reported as unfounded, founded, or investigation pending by the school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school.

(c) A school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school may not include in any disclosures required under this Section any information by which an individual may be personally identified, including the name of the victim or victims or those accused of an act of alleged discrimination, harassment, or retaliation.

(d) If a school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school fails to disclose the information required in subsection (b) of this Section by July 31 of the reporting school year, the State Board of Education shall provide a written request for disclosure to the school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school, thereby providing the period of time in which the required information must be disclosed. If a school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school fails to disclose the information within 14 days after receipt of that written request, the State Board of Education may petition the Department of Human Rights to initiate a charge of a civil rights violation pursuant to Section 5A-102 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(e) The State Board of Education shall publish an annual report aggregating the information reported by school districts, charter schools, and nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary schools under subsection (b) of this Section. Data included in the report shall not be publicly attributed to any individual school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school. The report shall include the number of incidents reported between August 1 and July 31 of the preceding reporting school year, based on each of the categories identified under paragraph (1) of this subsection (b).

The annual report shall be filed with the Department of Human Rights and the General Assembly and made available to the public by July 1 of the year following the reporting school year. Data submitted by a school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school to comply with this Section is confidential and exempt from the Freedom of Information Act.

(f) The State Board of Education may adopt any rules deemed necessary for implementation of this Section.

(g) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2029.

(Source: P.A. 103-472, eff. 8-1-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.198)

Sec. 2-3.198 2-3.196. Teacher Vacancy Grant Pilot Program.

(a) Subject to appropriation, beginning in Fiscal Year 2024, the State Board of Education shall administer a 3-year Teacher Vacancy Grant Pilot Program for the allocation of formula grant funds to school districts to support the reduction of unfilled teaching positions throughout the State. The State Board shall identify which districts are eligible to apply for a 3-year grant under this Section by reviewing the State Board's Fiscal Year 2023 annual unfilled teaching positions report to determine which districts designated as Tier 1, Tier 2, and Tier 3 under Section 18-8.15 have the greatest need for funds. Based on the National Center for Education Statistics locale classifications, 60% of eligible districts shall be rural districts and 40% of eligible districts shall be urban districts. Continued funding for the grant in Fiscal Year 2025 and Fiscal Year 2026 is subject to appropriation. The State Board shall post, on its website, information about the grant program and the list of identified districts that are eligible to apply for a grant under this subsection.

(b) A school district that is determined to be eligible for a grant under subsection (a) and that chooses to participate in the program must submit an application to the State Board that describes the relevant context for the need for teacher vacancy support, suspected causes of teacher vacancies in the district, and the district's plan in utilizing grant funds to reduce unfilled teaching positions throughout the district. If an eligible school district chooses not to participate in the program, the State Board shall identify a potential replacement district by using the same methodology described in subsection (a).

(c) Grant funds awarded under this Section may be used for financial incentives to support the recruitment and hiring of teachers, programs and incentives to strengthen teacher pipelines, or investments to sustain teachers and reduce attrition among teachers. Grant funds shall be used only for the purposes outlined in the district's application to the State Board to reduce unfilled teaching positions. Grant funds shall not be used for any purposes not approved by the State Board.

(d) A school district that receives grant funds under this Section shall submit an annual report to the State Board that includes, but is not limited to, a summary of all grant-funded activities implemented to reduce unfilled teaching positions, progress towards reducing unfilled teaching positions, the number of unfilled teaching positions in the district in the preceding fiscal year, the number of new teachers hired during the program, the teacher attrition rate, the number of individuals participating in any programs designed to reduce attrition, the number of teachers retained using support of the grant funds, participation in any strategic pathway programs created under the program, and the number of and participation in any new pathways into teaching positions created under the program.

(e) No later than March 1, 2027, the State Board shall submit a report to the Governor and the General Assembly on the efficacy of the pilot program that includes a summary of the information received under subsection (d) and an overview of its activities to support grantees.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.199)

Sec. 2-3.199 2-3.196. Computer Science Equity Grant Program.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the State Board shall establish a competitive grant program to support the development or enhancement of computer science programs in the K-12 schools. Eligible entities are regional offices of education, intermediate service centers, State higher education institutions, schools designated as laboratory schools, and school districts. Approved entities shall be responsible for ensuring that appropriate facilities are available and educators are appropriately trained on the use of any technologies or devices acquired for the purposes of the grant.

(b) Computer Science Equity Grant Program funds shall be used in the following manner consistent with application requirements established by the State Board of Education as provided in this Article:

(1) to expand learning opportunities in grades K-12 to ensure that all students have access to computer science coursework that is aligned to rigorous State standards and emerging labor market needs;

(2) to train and retrain teachers of grades K-12 to be more proficient in the teaching of computer science by providing professional development opportunities;

(3) to supply classrooms with materials and equipment related to the teaching and learning of computer science; and

(4) to more effectively recruit and better serve K-12 learners who are underrepresented in the computer science labor market for enrollment in computer science coursework.

(c) Computer Science Equity Grant Program funds shall be made available to each eligible entity upon completion of an application process that is consistent with rules established by the State Board of Education. The application shall include the planned use of the funds; identification of need for the funds that is supported by local, regional, and state data; a plan for long-term sustainability; and a long-term plan for continuous improvement.

(d) The State Board of Education shall adopt rules as may be necessary to implement the provision of this Article, including, but not limited to, the identification of additional prioritization areas for each competitive grant application cycle that are within the scope of the authorized uses. Priority consideration for all applications will be given for proposals that intend to serve a majority of learners or teachers with gender or racial/ethnic identities that are underrepresented in the computer science labor market.

(e) Up to 2 renewals of the grant will be allowed, providing the entity awarded satisfactorily completes programmatic reporting and meets program objectives commensurate with application requirements set forth by the State Board of Education.

(f) Grants under the Computer Science Equity Grant Program and funding levels for satisfactory applications may be prorated according to the amount appropriated.

(Source: P.A. 103-264, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-25-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.200)

Sec. 2-3.200 2-3.196. State Board of Education literacy assistance.

(a) The State Board of Education shall adopt and make available all of the following to each publicly funded school district by July 1, 2024:

(1) A rubric by which districts may evaluate curricula and select and implement evidence-based, culturally inclusive core reading instruction programs aligned with the comprehensive literacy plan for the State described in subsection (c).

(2) A template to support districts when developing comprehensive, district-wide literacy plans that include support for special student populations, including, at a minimum, students with disabilities, multilingual students, and bidialectal students.

(3) Guidance on evidence-based practices for effective structures for training and deploying literacy coaches to support teachers and close opportunity gaps among student demographic groups.

(b) On or before January 1, 2025, the State Board of Education shall develop and make available training opportunities for educators in teaching reading that are aligned with the comprehensive literacy plan described in subsection (c) and consistent with State learning standards. This support may include:

(1) the development of a microcredential or a series of microcredentials in literacy instruction aligned with the comprehensive literacy plan described in subsection (c) to be affixed to educator licenses upon successful demonstration of the skill or completion of the required coursework or assessment, or both, or online training modules on literacy instruction, aligned with the comprehensive literacy plan described in subsection (c) and consistent with State learning standards, accepted for continuing professional development units; and

(2) the creation and dissemination of a tool that school districts, educators, and the public may use to evaluate professional development and training programs related to literacy instruction.

(c) In consultation with education stakeholders, the State Board of Education shall develop and adopt a comprehensive literacy plan for the State on or before January 31, 2024. The comprehensive literacy plan shall consider, without limitation, evidence-based research and culturally and linguistically sustaining pedagogical approaches to meet the needs of all students and shall, at a minimum, do all of the following:

(1) Consider core instructional literacy practices and practices related to the unique needs of and support for specific student populations, including, at a minimum, students with disabilities, multilingual students, and bidialectal students, and the resources and support, including professional learning for teachers, needed to effectively implement the literacy instruction.

(2) Provide guidance related to screening tools, the administration of such screening tools, and the interpretation of the resulting data to identify students at risk of reading difficulties in grades kindergarten through 2. This guidance shall outline instances in which dyslexia screenings and other universal screeners are appropriate for use with English learners.

(3) Provide guidance related to early literacy intervention for students in grades kindergarten through 2 for schools to implement with students at risk of reading difficulties, as well as literacy intervention for students in grades 3 through 12 demonstrating reading difficulties.

(4) Consider the impact of second language acquisition and bilingual education on reading instruction in the student's native language and English.

(5) Define key terminology, such as "evidence-based".

(6) Contextualize the interaction between elements of the plan and existing laws and regulations that have overlapping components, such as a multi-tiered system of support.

(7) Focus on a comprehensive range of elements of literacy, including phonological awareness; decoding (phonics); encoding (spelling); vocabulary development, including morphology, oracy, and reading fluency; and reading comprehension, including syntax and background and content knowledge.

(Source: P.A. 103-402, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.201)

Sec. 2-3.201 2-3.196. Children's Adversity Index. The Illinois State Board of Education shall develop a community or district-level Children's Adversity Index ("index") to measure community childhood trauma exposure across the population of children 3 through 18 years of age by May 31, 2025. This cross-agency effort shall be led by the State Board of Education and must include agencies that both collect the data and will have an ultimate use for the index information, including, but not limited to, the Governor's Office of Early Childhood Development, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Innovation and Technology, the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, the Department of Children and Family Services, and the Department of Juvenile Justice. The State Board of Education may also involve non-agency personnel with relevant expertise. The index shall be informed by research and include both adverse incident data, such as the number or rates of students and families experiencing homelessness and the number or percentages of children who have had contact with the child welfare system, and indicators of aspects of a child's environment that can undermine the child's sense of safety, stability, and bonding, including growing up in a household with caregivers struggling with substance disorders or instability due to parent or guardian separation or incarceration of a parent or guardian, sibling, or other member of the household, or exposure to community violence. The index shall provide information that allows for measuring progress, comparing school districts to the State average, and that enables the index to be updated at least every 2 years. The data shall be made publicly available. The initial development of the index should leverage available data. Personally identifiable information of any individual shall not be revealed within this index.

(Source: P.A. 103-413, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-25-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.202)

Sec. 2-3.202 2-3.196. Clothing resource materials. By no later than July 1, 2024, the State Board of Education shall make available to schools resource materials developed in consultation with stakeholders regarding a student wearing or accessorizing the student's graduation attire with general items that may be used by the student to associate with, identify, or declare the student's cultural, ethnic, or religious identity or any other protected characteristic or category identified in subsection (Q) of Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act. The State Board of Education shall make the resource materials available on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-463, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.203)

Sec. 2-3.203 2-3.196. Mental health screenings. On or before December 15, 2023, the State Board of Education, in consultation with the Children's Behavioral Health Transformation Officer, Children's Behavioral Health Transformation Team, and the Office of the Governor, shall file a report with the Governor and the General Assembly that includes recommendations for implementation of mental health screenings in schools for students enrolled in kindergarten through grade 12. This report must include a landscape scan of current district-wide screenings, recommendations for screening tools, training for staff, and linkage and referral for identified students.

(Source: P.A. 103-546, eff. 8-11-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/3-11)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-542)

Sec. 3-11. Institutes or inservice training workshops.

(a) In counties of less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, the regional superintendent may arrange for or conduct district, regional, or county institutes, or equivalent professional educational experiences, not more than 4 days annually. Of those 4 days, 2 days may be used as a teacher's and educational support personnel workshop, when approved by the regional superintendent, up to 2 days may be used for conducting parent-teacher conferences, or up to 2 days may be utilized as parental institute days as provided in Section 10-22.18d. Educational support personnel may be exempt from a workshop if the workshop is not relevant to the work they do. A school district may use one of its 4 institute days on the last day of the school term. "Institute" or "Professional educational experiences" means any educational gathering, demonstration of methods of instruction, visitation of schools or other institutions or facilities, sexual abuse and sexual assault awareness seminar, or training in First Aid (which may include cardiopulmonary resuscitation or defibrillator training) held or approved by the regional superintendent and declared by the regional superintendent him to be an institute day, or parent-teacher conferences. With the concurrence of the State Superintendent of Education, he or she may employ such assistance as is necessary to conduct the institute. Two or more adjoining counties may jointly hold an institute. Institute instruction shall be free to holders of licenses good in the county or counties holding the institute and to those who have paid an examination fee and failed to receive a license.

In counties of 2,000,000 or more inhabitants, the regional superintendent may arrange for or conduct district, regional, or county inservice training workshops, or equivalent professional educational experiences, not more than 4 days annually. Of those 4 days, 2 days may be used as a teacher's and educational support personnel workshop, when approved by the regional superintendent, up to 2 days may be used for conducting parent-teacher conferences, or up to 2 days may be utilized as parental institute days as provided in Section 10-22.18d. Educational support personnel may be exempt from a workshop if the workshop is not relevant to the work they do. A school district may use one of those 4 days on the last day of the school term. "Inservice Training Workshops" or "Professional educational experiences" means any educational gathering, demonstration of methods of instruction, visitation of schools or other institutions or facilities, sexual abuse and sexual assault awareness seminar, or training in First Aid (which may include cardiopulmonary resuscitation or defibrillator training) held or approved by the regional superintendent and declared by him to be an inservice training workshop, or parent-teacher conferences. With the concurrence of the State Superintendent of Education, he may employ such assistance as is necessary to conduct the inservice training workshop. With the approval of the regional superintendent, 2 or more adjoining districts may jointly hold an inservice training workshop. In addition, with the approval of the regional superintendent, one district may conduct its own inservice training workshop with subject matter consultants requested from the county, State or any State institution of higher learning.

Such teachers institutes as referred to in this Section may be held on consecutive or separate days at the option of the regional superintendent having jurisdiction thereof.

Whenever reference is made in this Act to "teachers institute", it shall be construed to include the inservice training workshops or equivalent professional educational experiences provided for in this Section.

Any institute advisory committee existing on April 1, 1995, is dissolved and the duties and responsibilities of the institute advisory committee are assumed by the regional office of education advisory board.

Districts providing inservice training programs shall constitute inservice committees, 1/2 of which shall be teachers, 1/4 school service personnel and 1/4 administrators to establish program content and schedules.

The teachers institutes shall include teacher training committed to (i) peer counseling programs and other anti-violence and conflict resolution programs, including without limitation programs for preventing at risk students from committing violent acts, and (ii) educator ethics and teacher-student conduct. Beginning with the 2009-2010 school year, the teachers institutes shall include instruction on prevalent student chronic health conditions. Beginning with the 2016-2017 school year, the teachers institutes shall include, at least once every 2 years, instruction on the federal Americans with Disabilities Act as it pertains to the school environment.

(b) In this subsection (b):

"Trauma" is defined according to an event, an experience, and effects. Individual trauma results from an event, series of events, or set of circumstances that is experienced by an individual as physically or emotionally harmful or life threatening and that has lasting adverse effects on the individual's functioning and mental, physical, social, or emotional well-being. Collective trauma is a psychological reaction to a traumatic event shared by any group of people. This may include, but is not limited to, community violence, experiencing racism and discrimination, and the lack of the essential supports for well-being, such as educational or economic opportunities, food, health care, housing, and community cohesion. Trauma can be experienced by anyone, though it is disproportionately experienced by members of marginalized groups. Systemic and historical oppression, such as racism, is often at the root of this inequity. Symptoms may vary at different developmental stages and across different cultural groups and different communities.

"Trauma-responsive learning environments" means learning environments developed during an ongoing, multiyear-long process that typically progresses across the following 3 stages:

(1) A school or district is "trauma aware" when it:

(A) has personnel that demonstrate a foundational understanding of a broad definition of trauma that is developmentally and culturally based; includes students, personnel, and communities; and recognizes the potential effect on biological, cognitive, academic, and social-emotional functioning; and

(B) recognizes that traumatic exposure can impact behavior and learning and should be acknowledged in policies, strategies, and systems of support for students, families, and personnel.

(2) A school or district is "trauma responsive" when it progresses from awareness to action in the areas of policy, practice, and structural changes within a multi-tiered system of support to promote safety, positive relationships, and self-regulation while underscoring the importance of personal well-being and cultural responsiveness. Such progress may:

(A) be aligned with the Illinois Quality Framework and integrated into a school or district's continuous improvement process as evidence to support allocation of financial resources;

(B) be assessed and monitored by a multidisciplinary leadership team on an ongoing basis; and

(C) involve the engagement and capacity building of personnel at all levels to ensure that adults in the learning environment are prepared to recognize and respond to those impacted by trauma.

(3) A school or district is healing centered when it acknowledges its role and responsibility to the community, fully responds to trauma, and promotes resilience and healing through genuine, trusting, and creative relationships. Such school schools or district districts may:

(A) promote holistic and collaborative approaches that are grounded in culture, spirituality, civic engagement, and equity; and

(B) support agency within individuals, families, and communities while engaging people in collective action that moves from transactional to transformational.

"Whole child" means using a child-centered, holistic, equitable lens across all systems that prioritizes physical, mental, and social-emotional health to ensure that every child is healthy, safe, supported, challenged, engaged, and protected.

Starting with the 2024-2025 school year, the teachers institutes shall provide instruction on trauma-informed practices and include the definitions of trauma, trauma-responsive learning environments, and whole child set forth in this subsection (b) before the first student attendance day of each school year.

(Source: P.A. 103-413, eff. 1-1-24; revised 11-27-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-542)

Sec. 3-11. Institutes or inservice training workshops.

(a) In counties of less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, the regional superintendent may arrange for or conduct district, regional, or county institutes, or equivalent professional educational experiences, not more than 4 days annually. Of those 4 days, 2 days may be used as a teachers, administrators, and school support personnel workshop, when approved by the regional superintendent, up to 2 days may be used for conducting parent-teacher conferences, or up to 2 days may be utilized as parental institute days as provided in Section 10-22.18d. School support personnel may be exempt from a workshop if the workshop is not relevant to the work they do. A school district may use one of its 4 institute days on the last day of the school term. "Institute" or "Professional educational experiences" means any educational gathering, demonstration of methods of instruction, visitation of schools or other institutions or facilities, sexual abuse and sexual assault awareness seminar, or training in First Aid (which may include cardiopulmonary resuscitation or defibrillator training) held or approved by the regional superintendent and declared by the regional superintendent him to be an institute day, or parent-teacher conferences. With the concurrence of the State Superintendent of Education, the regional superintendent may employ such assistance as is necessary to conduct the institute. Two or more adjoining counties may jointly hold an institute. Institute instruction shall be free to holders of licenses good in the county or counties holding the institute and to those who have paid an examination fee and failed to receive a license.

In counties of 2,000,000 or more inhabitants, the regional superintendent may arrange for or conduct district, regional, or county inservice training workshops, or equivalent professional educational experiences, not more than 4 days annually. Of those 4 days, 2 days may be used as a teachers, administrators, and school support personnel workshop, when approved by the regional superintendent, up to 2 days may be used for conducting parent-teacher conferences, or up to 2 days may be utilized as parental institute days as provided in Section 10-22.18d. School support personnel may be exempt from a workshop if the workshop is not relevant to the work they do. A school district may use one of those 4 days on the last day of the school term. "Inservice Training Workshops" or "Professional educational experiences" means any educational gathering, demonstration of methods of instruction, visitation of schools or other institutions or facilities, sexual abuse and sexual assault awareness seminar, or training in First Aid (which may include cardiopulmonary resuscitation or defibrillator training) held or approved by the regional superintendent and declared by the regional superintendent to be an inservice training workshop, or parent-teacher conferences. With the concurrence of the State Superintendent of Education, the regional superintendent may employ such assistance as is necessary to conduct the inservice training workshop. With the approval of the regional superintendent, 2 or more adjoining districts may jointly hold an inservice training workshop. In addition, with the approval of the regional superintendent, one district may conduct its own inservice training workshop with subject matter consultants requested from the county, State or any State institution of higher learning.

Such institutes as referred to in this Section may be held on consecutive or separate days at the option of the regional superintendent having jurisdiction thereof.

Whenever reference is made in this Act to "institute", it shall be construed to include the inservice training workshops or equivalent professional educational experiences provided for in this Section.

Any institute advisory committee existing on April 1, 1995, is dissolved and the duties and responsibilities of the institute advisory committee are assumed by the regional office of education advisory board.

Districts providing inservice training programs shall constitute inservice committees, 1/2 of which shall be teachers, 1/4 school service personnel and 1/4 administrators to establish program content and schedules.

In addition to other topics not listed in this Section, the teachers institutes may include training committed to health conditions of students; social-emotional learning; developing cultural competency; identifying warning signs of mental illness and suicidal behavior in youth; domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth; protections and accommodations for students; educator ethics; responding to child sexual abuse and grooming behavior; and effective instruction in violence prevention and conflict resolution. Institute programs in these topics shall be credited toward hours of professional development required for license renewal as outlined in subsection (e) of Section 21B-45.

(b) In this subsection (b):

"Trauma" is defined according to an event, an experience, and effects. Individual trauma results from an event, series of events, or set of circumstances that is experienced by an individual as physically or emotionally harmful or life threatening and that has lasting adverse effects on the individual's functioning and mental, physical, social, or emotional well-being. Collective trauma is a psychological reaction to a traumatic event shared by any group of people. This may include, but is not limited to, community violence, experiencing racism and discrimination, and the lack of the essential supports for well-being, such as educational or economic opportunities, food, health care, housing, and community cohesion. Trauma can be experienced by anyone, though it is disproportionately experienced by members of marginalized groups. Systemic and historical oppression, such as racism, is often at the root of this inequity. Symptoms may vary at different developmental stages and across different cultural groups and different communities.

"Trauma-responsive learning environments" means learning environments developed during an ongoing, multiyear-long process that typically progresses across the following 3 stages:

(1) A school or district is "trauma aware" when it:

(A) has personnel that demonstrate a foundational understanding of a broad definition of trauma that is developmentally and culturally based; includes students, personnel, and communities; and recognizes the potential effect on biological, cognitive, academic, and social-emotional functioning; and

(B) recognizes that traumatic exposure can impact behavior and learning and should be acknowledged in policies, strategies, and systems of support for students, families, and personnel.

(2) A school or district is "trauma responsive" when it progresses from awareness to action in the areas of policy, practice, and structural changes within a multi-tiered system of support to promote safety, positive relationships, and self-regulation while underscoring the importance of personal well-being and cultural responsiveness. Such progress may:

(A) be aligned with the Illinois Quality Framework and integrated into a school or district's continuous improvement process as evidence to support allocation of financial resources;

(B) be assessed and monitored by a multidisciplinary leadership team on an ongoing basis; and

(C) involve the engagement and capacity building of personnel at all levels to ensure that adults in the learning environment are prepared to recognize and respond to those impacted by trauma.

(3) A school or district is healing centered when it acknowledges its role and responsibility to the community, fully responds to trauma, and promotes resilience and healing through genuine, trusting, and creative relationships. Such school schools or district districts may:

(A) promote holistic and collaborative approaches that are grounded in culture, spirituality, civic engagement, and equity; and

(B) support agency within individuals, families, and communities while engaging people in collective action that moves from transactional to transformational.

"Whole child" means using a child-centered, holistic, equitable lens across all systems that prioritizes physical, mental, and social-emotional health to ensure that every child is healthy, safe, supported, challenged, engaged, and protected.

Starting with the 2024-2025 school year, the teachers institutes shall provide instruction on trauma-informed practices and include the definitions of trauma, trauma-responsive learning environments, and whole child set forth in this subsection (b) before the first student attendance day of each school year.

(Source: P.A. 103-413, eff. 1-1-24; 103-542, eff. 7-1-24 (see Section 905 of P.A. 103-563 for effective date of P.A. 103-542); revised 11-27-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-17a)

Sec. 10-17a. State, school district, and school report cards; Expanded High School Snapshot Report.

(1) By October 31, 2013 and October 31 of each subsequent school year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a State report card, school district report cards, and school report cards, and shall by the most economical means provide to each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, the report cards for the school district and each of its schools. Because of the impacts of the COVID-19 public health emergency during school year 2020-2021, the State Board of Education shall have until December 31, 2021 to prepare and provide the report cards that would otherwise be due by October 31, 2021. During a school year in which the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, the report cards for the school districts and each of its schools shall be prepared by December 31.

(2) In addition to any information required by federal law, the State Superintendent shall determine the indicators and presentation of the school report card, which must include, at a minimum, the most current data collected and maintained by the State Board of Education related to the following:

(A) school characteristics and student demographics, including average class size, average teaching experience, student racial/ethnic breakdown, and the percentage of students classified as low-income; the percentage of students classified as English learners, the number of students who graduate from a bilingual or English learner program, and the number of students who graduate from, transfer from, or otherwise leave bilingual programs; the percentage of students who have individualized education plans or 504 plans that provide for special education services; the number and the percentage of all students in grades kindergarten through 8, disaggregated by the student students demographics described in this paragraph (A), in each of the following categories: (i) those who have been assessed for placement in a gifted education program or accelerated placement, (ii) those who have enrolled in a gifted education program or in accelerated placement, and (iii) for each of categories (i) and (ii), those who received direct instruction from a teacher who holds a gifted education endorsement; the number and the percentage of all students in grades 9 through 12, disaggregated by the student demographics described in this paragraph (A), who have been enrolled in an advanced academic program; the percentage of students scoring at the "exceeds expectations" level on the assessments required under Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code; the percentage of students who annually transferred in or out of the school district; average daily attendance; the per-pupil operating expenditure of the school district; and the per-pupil State average operating expenditure for the district type (elementary, high school, or unit);

(B) curriculum information, including, where applicable, Advanced Placement, International Baccalaureate or equivalent courses, dual credit courses, foreign language classes, computer science courses, school personnel resources (including Career Technical Education teachers), before and after school programs, extracurricular activities, subjects in which elective classes are offered, health and wellness initiatives (including the average number of days of Physical Education per week per student), approved programs of study, awards received, community partnerships, and special programs such as programming for the gifted and talented, students with disabilities, and work-study students;

(C) student outcomes, including, where applicable, the percentage of students deemed proficient on assessments of State standards, the percentage of students in the eighth grade who pass Algebra, the percentage of students who participated in workplace learning experiences, the percentage of students enrolled in post-secondary institutions (including colleges, universities, community colleges, trade/vocational schools, and training programs leading to career certification within 2 semesters of high school graduation), the percentage of students graduating from high school who are college and career ready, the percentage of graduates enrolled in community colleges, colleges, and universities who are in one or more courses that the community college, college, or university identifies as a developmental course, and the percentage of students with disabilities under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act and Article 14 of this Code who have fulfilled the minimum State graduation requirements set forth in Section 27-22 of this Code and have been issued a regular high school diploma;

(D) student progress, including, where applicable, the percentage of students in the ninth grade who have earned 5 credits or more without failing more than one core class, a measure of students entering kindergarten ready to learn, a measure of growth, and the percentage of students who enter high school on track for college and career readiness;

(E) the school environment, including, where applicable, high school dropout rate by grade level, the percentage of students with less than 10 absences in a school year, the percentage of teachers with less than 10 absences in a school year for reasons other than professional development, leaves taken pursuant to the federal Family Medical Leave Act of 1993, long-term disability, or parental leaves, the 3-year average of the percentage of teachers returning to the school from the previous year, the number of different principals at the school in the last 6 years, the number of teachers who hold a gifted education endorsement, the process and criteria used by the district to determine whether a student is eligible for participation in a gifted education program or advanced academic program and the manner in which parents and guardians are made aware of the process and criteria, the number of teachers who are National Board Certified Teachers, disaggregated by race and ethnicity, 2 or more indicators from any school climate survey selected or approved by the State and administered pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, with the same or similar indicators included on school report cards for all surveys selected or approved by the State pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, the combined percentage of teachers rated as proficient or excellent in their most recent evaluation, and, beginning with the 2022-2023 school year, data on the number of incidents of violence that occurred on school grounds or during school-related activities and that resulted in an out-of-school suspension, expulsion, or removal to an alternative setting, as reported pursuant to Section 2-3.162;

(F) a school district's and its individual schools' balanced accountability measure, in accordance with Section 2-3.25a of this Code;

(G) the total and per pupil normal cost amount the State contributed to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois in the prior fiscal year for the school's employees, which shall be reported to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois;

(H) for a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code only, State contributions to the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago and State contributions for health care for employees of that school district;

(I) a school district's Final Percent of Adequacy, as defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code;

(J) a school district's Local Capacity Target, as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount;

(K) a school district's Real Receipts, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, divided by a school district's Adequacy Target, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount;

(L) a school district's administrative costs;

(M) whether or not the school has participated in the Illinois Youth Survey. In this paragraph (M), "Illinois Youth Survey" means a self-report survey, administered in school settings every 2 years, designed to gather information about health and social indicators, including substance abuse patterns and the attitudes of students in grades 8, 10, and 12;

(N) whether the school offered its students career and technical education opportunities; and

(O) beginning Beginning with the October 2024 report card, the total number of school counselors, school social workers, school nurses, and school psychologists by school, district, and State, the average number of students per school counselor in the school, district, and State, the average number of students per school social worker in the school, district, and State, the average number of students per school nurse in the school, district, and State, and the average number of students per school psychologist in the school, district, and State.

The school report card shall also provide information that allows for comparing the current outcome, progress, and environment data to the State average, to the school data from the past 5 years, and to the outcomes, progress, and environment of similar schools based on the type of school and enrollment of low-income students, special education students, and English learners.

As used in this subsection (2):

"Accelerated placement" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 14A-17 of this Code.

"Administrative costs" means costs associated with executive, administrative, or managerial functions within the school district that involve planning, organizing, managing, or directing the school district.

"Advanced academic program" means a course of study, including, but not limited to, accelerated placement, advanced placement coursework, International Baccalaureate coursework, dual credit, or any course designated as enriched or honors, that a student is enrolled in based on advanced cognitive ability or advanced academic achievement compared to local age peers and in which the curriculum is substantially differentiated from the general curriculum to provide appropriate challenge and pace.

"Computer science" means the study of computers and algorithms, including their principles, their hardware and software designs, their implementation, and their impact on society. "Computer science" does not include the study of everyday uses of computers and computer applications, such as keyboarding or accessing the Internet.

"Gifted education" means educational services, including differentiated curricula and instructional methods, designed to meet the needs of gifted children as defined in Article 14A of this Code.

For the purposes of paragraph (A) of this subsection (2), "average daily attendance" means the average of the actual number of attendance days during the previous school year for any enrolled student who is subject to compulsory attendance by Section 26-1 of this Code at each school and charter school.

(2.5) For any school report card prepared after July 1, 2025, for all high school graduation completion rates that are reported on the school report card as required under this Section or by any other State or federal law, the State Superintendent of Education shall also report the percentage of students who did not meet the requirements of high school graduation completion for any reason and, of those students, the percentage that are classified as students who fulfill the requirements of Section 14-16 of this Code.

The State Superintendent shall ensure that for the 2023-2024 school year there is a specific code for districts to report students who fulfill the requirements of Section 14-16 of this Code to ensure accurate reporting under this Section.

All reporting requirements under this subsection (2.5) shall be included on the school report card where high school graduation completion rates are reported, along with a brief explanation of how fulfilling the requirements of Section 14-16 of this Code is different from receiving a regular high school diploma.

(3) At the discretion of the State Superintendent, the school district report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section, as well as information relating to the operating expense per pupil and other finances of the school district, and the State report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) and paragraph (N) of subsection (2) of this Section. The school district report card shall include the average daily attendance, as that term is defined in subsection (2) of this Section, of students who have individualized education programs and students who have 504 plans that provide for special education services within the school district.

(4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, in consultation with key education stakeholders, the State Superintendent shall at any time have the discretion to amend or update any and all metrics on the school, district, or State report card.

(5) Annually, no more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the school district and school report cards from the State Superintendent of Education, each school district, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall present such report cards at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, post the report cards on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, make the report cards available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, send the report cards home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card.

(6) Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(7) As used in this subsection (7):

"Advanced-track coursework or programs" means any high school courses, sequence of courses, or class or grouping of students organized to provide more rigorous, enriched, advanced, accelerated, gifted, or above grade-level instruction. This may include, but is not limited to, Advanced Placement courses, International Baccalaureate courses, honors, weighted, advanced, or enriched courses, or gifted or accelerated programs, classrooms, or courses.

"Course" means any high school class or course offered by a school that is assigned a school course code by the State Board of Education.

"English learner coursework or English learner program" means a high school English learner course or program designated to serve English learners, who may be designated as English language learners or limited English proficiency learners.

"Standard coursework or programs" means any high school courses or classes other than advanced-track coursework or programs, English learner coursework or programs, or special education coursework or programs.

By October 31, 2027 and by October 31 of each subsequent year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a stand-alone report covering high schools, to be referred to as the Expanded High School Snapshot Report. The State Board shall post the Report on the State Board's Internet website. Each school district with a high school shall include on the school district's Internet website, if the district maintains an Internet website, a hyperlink to the Report on the State Board's Internet website titled "Expanded High School Snapshot Report". Hyperlinks under this subsection (7) shall be displayed in a manner that is easily accessible to the public.

The Expanded High School Snapshot Report shall include:

(A) a listing of all standard coursework or programs offered by a high school;

(B) a listing of all advanced-track coursework or programs offered by a high school;

(C) a listing of all English learner coursework or programs offered by a high school;

(D) a listing of all special education coursework or programs offered by a high school;

(E) data tables and graphs comparing advanced-track coursework or programs with standard coursework or programs according to the following parameters:

(i) the average years of experience of all teachers in a high school who are assigned to teach advanced-track coursework or programs compared with the average years of experience of all teachers in the high school who are assigned to teach standard coursework or programs;

(ii) the average years of experience of all teachers in a high school who are assigned to teach special education coursework or programs compared with the average years of experience of all teachers in the high school who are assigned to teach standard coursework or programs;

(iii) the average years of experience of all teachers in a high school who are assigned to teach English learner coursework or programs compared with the average years of experience of all teachers in the high school who are assigned to teach standard coursework or programs;

(iv) the number of high school teachers who possess bachelor's, master's, or doctorate degrees and who are assigned to teach advanced-track courses or programs compared with the number of teachers who possess bachelor's, master's, or doctorate degrees and who are assigned to teach standard coursework or programs;

(v) the number of high school teachers who possess bachelor's, master's, or doctorate degrees and who are assigned to teach special education coursework or programs compared with the number of teachers who possess bachelor's, master's, or doctorate degrees and who are assigned to teach standard coursework or programs;

(vi) the number of high school teachers who possess bachelor's, master's, or doctorate degrees and who are assigned to teach English learner coursework or programs compared with the number of teachers who possess bachelor's, master's, or doctorate degrees and who are assigned to teach standard coursework or programs;

(vii) the average student enrollment and class size of advanced-track coursework or programs offered in a high school compared with the average student enrollment and class size of standard coursework or programs;

(viii) the percentages of students delineated by gender who are enrolled in advanced-track coursework or programs in a high school compared with the gender of students enrolled in standard coursework or programs;

(ix) the percentages of students delineated by gender who are enrolled in special education coursework or programs in a high school compared with the percentages of students enrolled in standard coursework or programs;

(x) the percentages of students delineated by gender who are enrolled in English learner coursework or programs in a high school compared with the gender of students enrolled in standard coursework or programs;

(xi) the percentages of high school students in each individual race and ethnicity category, as defined in the most recent federal decennial census, who are enrolled in advanced-track coursework or programs compared with the percentages of students in each individual race and ethnicity category enrolled in standard coursework or programs;

(xii) the percentages of high school students in each of the race and ethnicity categories, as defined in the most recent federal decennial census, who are enrolled in special education coursework or programs compared with the percentages of students in each of the race and ethnicity categories who are enrolled in standard coursework or programs;

(xiii) the percentages of high school students in each of the race and ethnicity categories, as defined in the most recent federal decennial census, who are enrolled in English learner coursework or programs in a high school compared with the percentages of high school students in each of the race and ethnicity categories who are enrolled in standard coursework or programs;

(xiv) the percentage of high school students who reach proficiency (the equivalent of a C grade or higher on a grade A through F scale) in advanced-track coursework or programs compared with the percentage of students who earn proficiency (the equivalent of a C grade or higher on a grade A through F scale) in standard coursework or programs;

(xv) the percentage of high school students who reach proficiency (the equivalent of a C grade or higher on a grade A through F scale) in special education coursework or programs compared with the percentage of high school students who earn proficiency (the equivalent of a C grade or higher on a grade A through F scale) in standard coursework or programs; and

(xvi) the percentage of high school students who reach proficiency (the equivalent of a C grade or higher on a grade A through F scale) in English learner coursework or programs compared with the percentage of high school students who earn proficiency (the equivalent of a C grade or higher on a grade A through F scale) in standard coursework or programs; and

(F) data tables and graphs for each race and ethnicity category, as defined in the most recent federal decennial census, and gender category, as defined in the most recent federal decennial census, describing:

(i) the total number of Advanced Placement courses taken by race and ethnicity category and gender category, as defined in the most recent federal decennial census;

(ii) the total number of International Baccalaureate courses taken by race and ethnicity category and gender category, as defined in the most recent federal decennial census;

(iii) for each race and ethnicity category and gender category, as defined in the most recent federal decennial census, the percentage of high school students enrolled in Advanced Placement courses;

(iv) for each race and ethnicity category and gender category, as defined in the most recent federal decennial census, the percentage of high school students enrolled in International Baccalaureate courses; and

(v) for each race and ethnicity category, as defined in the most recent federal decennial census, the total number and percentage of high school students who earn a score of 3 or higher on the Advanced Placement exam associated with an Advanced Placement course.

For data on teacher experience and education under this subsection (7), a teacher who teaches a combination of courses designated as advanced-track coursework or programs, English learner coursework or programs, or standard coursework or programs shall be included in all relevant categories and the teacher's level of experience shall be added to the categories.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-294, eff. 1-1-22; 102-539, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-594, eff. 7-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-116, eff. 6-30-23; 103-263, eff. 6-30-23; 103-413, eff, 1-1-24; 103-503, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-12-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.67)

Sec. 10-20.67. Short-term substitute teacher training.

(a) Each school board shall, in collaboration with its teachers or, if applicable, the exclusive bargaining representative of its teachers, jointly develop a short-term substitute teacher training program that provides individuals who hold a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License under Section 21B-20 of this Code with information on curriculum, classroom management techniques, school safety, and district and building operations. The State Board of Education may develop a model short-term substitute teacher training program for use by a school board under this subsection (a) if the school board and its teachers or, if applicable, the exclusive bargaining representative of its teachers agree to use the State Board's model. A school board with a substitute teacher training program in place before July 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-596) may utilize that program to satisfy the requirements of this subsection (a).

(b) Nothing in this Section prohibits a school board from offering substitute training to substitute teachers licensed under paragraph (3) of Section 21B-20 of this Code or to substitute teachers holding a Professional Educator License.

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-111, eff. 6-29-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.85)

Sec. 10-20.85. Trauma kit.

(a) In this Section, "trauma kit" means a first aid response kit that contains, at a minimum, all of the following:

(1) One tourniquet endorsed by the Committee on Tactical Combat Casualty Care.

(2) One compression bandage.

(3) One hemostatic bleeding control dressing endorsed by the Committee on Tactical Combat Casualty Care.

(4) Protective gloves and a marker.

(5) Scissors.

(6) Instructional documents developed by the Stop the Bleed national awareness campaign of the United States Department of Homeland Security or the American College of Surgeons' Committee on Trauma, or both.

(7) Any other medical materials or equipment similar to those described in paragraphs (1) through (3) or any other items that (i) are approved by a local law enforcement agency or first responders, (ii) can adequately treat a traumatic injury, and (iii) can be stored in a readily available kit.

(b) Each school district may maintain an on-site trauma kit at each school of the district for bleeding emergencies.

(c) Products purchased for the trauma kit, including those products endorsed by the Committee on Tactical Combat Casualty Care, shall, whenever possible, be manufactured in the United States.

(Source: P.A. 103-128, eff. 6-30-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.86)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 10-20.86 10-20.85. Community input on local assessments.

(a) As used in this Section, "district-administered assessment" means an assessment that requires all student test takers at any grade level to answer the same questions, or a selection of questions from a common bank of questions, in the same manner or substantially the same questions in the same manner. The term does not include an observational assessment tool used to satisfy the requirements of Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code or an assessment developed by district teachers or administrators that will be used to measure student progress at an attendance center within the school district.

(b) Prior to approving a new contract for any district-administered assessment, a school board must hold a public vote at a regular meeting of the school board, at which the terms of the proposal must be substantially presented and an opportunity for allowing public comments must be provided, subject to applicable notice requirements. However, if the assessment being made available to review is subject to copyright, trademark, or other intellectual property protection, the review process shall include technical and procedural safeguards to ensure that the materials are not able to be widely disseminated to the general public in violation of the intellectual property rights of the publisher and to ensure content validity is not undermined.

(Source: P.A. 103-393, eff. 7-1-24; revised 8-30-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.3f)

Sec. 10-22.3f. Required health benefits. Insurance protection and benefits for employees shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, and 356z.61, and 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70 of the Illinois Insurance Code. Insurance policies shall comply with Section 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.36) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.36)

Sec. 10-22.36. Buildings for school purposes.

(a) To build or purchase a building for school classroom or instructional purposes upon the approval of a majority of the voters upon the proposition at a referendum held for such purpose or in accordance with Section 17-2.11, 19-3.5, or 19-3.10. The board may initiate such referendum by resolution. The board shall certify the resolution and proposition to the proper election authority for submission in accordance with the general election law.

The questions of building one or more new buildings for school purposes or office facilities, and issuing bonds for the purpose of borrowing money to purchase one or more buildings or sites for such buildings or office sites, to build one or more new buildings for school purposes or office facilities or to make additions and improvements to existing school buildings, may be combined into one or more propositions on the ballot.

Before erecting, or purchasing or remodeling such a building the board shall submit the plans and specifications respecting heating, ventilating, lighting, seating, water supply, toilets and safety against fire to the regional superintendent of schools having supervision and control over the district, for approval in accordance with Section 2-3.12.

Notwithstanding any of the foregoing, no referendum shall be required if the purchase, construction, or building of any such building (1) occurs while the building is being leased by the school district or (2) is paid with (A) funds derived from the sale or disposition of other buildings, land, or structures of the school district or (B) funds received (i) as a grant under the School Construction Law or (ii) as gifts or donations, provided that no funds to purchase, construct, or build such building, other than lease payments, are derived from the district's bonded indebtedness or the tax levy of the district.

Notwithstanding any of the foregoing, no referendum shall be required if the purchase, construction, or building of any such building is paid with funds received from the County School Facility and Resources Occupation Tax Law under Section 5-1006.7 of the Counties Code or from the proceeds of bonds or other debt obligations secured by revenues obtained from that Law.

Notwithstanding any of the foregoing, for Decatur School District Number 61, no referendum shall be required if at least 50% of the cost of the purchase, construction, or building of any such building is paid, or will be paid, with funds received or expected to be received as part of, or otherwise derived from, any COVID-19 pandemic relief program or funding source, including, but not limited to, Elementary and Secondary School Emergency Relief Fund grant proceeds.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), for any school district: (i) that is a tier 1 school, (ii) that has a population of less than 50,000 inhabitants, (iii) whose student population is between 5,800 and 6,300, (iv) in which 57% to 62% of students are low-income, and (v) whose average district spending is between $10,000 to $12,000 per pupil, until July 1, 2025, no referendum shall be required if at least 50% of the cost of the purchase, construction, or building of any such building is paid, or will be paid, with funds received or expected to be received as part of, or otherwise derived from, the federal Consolidated Appropriations Act and the federal American Rescue Plan Act of 2021.

For this subsection (b), the school board must hold at least 2 public hearings, the sole purpose of which shall be to discuss the decision to construct a school building and to receive input from the community. The notice of each public hearing that sets forth the time, date, place, and name or description of the school building that the school board is considering constructing must be provided at least 10 days prior to the hearing by publication on the school board's Internet website.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections subsection (a) and (b), for Cahokia Community Unit School District 187, no referendum shall be required for the lease of any building for school or educational purposes if the cost is paid or will be paid with funds available at the time of the lease in the district's existing fund balances to fund the lease of a building during the 2023-2024 or 2024-2025 school year.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), the school board must hold at least 2 public hearings, the sole purpose of which shall be to discuss the decision to lease a school building and to receive input from the community. The notice of each public hearing that sets forth the time, date, place, and name or description of the school building that the school board is considering leasing must be provided at least 10 days prior to the hearing by publication on the school district's website.

(d) (c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections subsection (a) and (b), for Bloomington School District 87, no referendum shall be required for the purchase, construction, or building of any building for school or education purposes if such cost is paid, or will be paid with funds available at the time of contract, purchase, construction, or building in Bloomington School District Number 87's existing fund balances to fund the procurement or requisition of a building or site during the 2022-2023, 2023-2024, or 2024-2025 school year years.

For this subsection (d) (c), the school board must hold at least 2 public hearings, the sole purpose of which shall be to discuss the decision to construct a school building and to receive input from the community. The notice of each public hearing that sets forth the time, date, place, and name or description of the school building that the school board is considering constructing must be provided at least 10 days prior to the hearing by publication on the school board's website.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-699, eff. 7-1-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-509, eff. 8-4-23; revised 8-31-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.39)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-41 and P.A. 103-542)

Sec. 10-22.39. In-service training programs.

(a) To conduct in-service training programs for teachers.

(b) In addition to other topics at in-service training programs, at least once every 2 years, licensed school personnel and administrators who work with pupils in kindergarten through grade 12 shall be trained to identify the warning signs of mental illness, trauma, and suicidal behavior in youth and shall be taught appropriate intervention and referral techniques. A school district may utilize the Illinois Mental Health First Aid training program, established under the Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act and administered by certified instructors trained by a national association recognized as an authority in behavioral health, to provide the training and meet the requirements under this subsection. If licensed school personnel or an administrator obtains mental health first aid training outside of an in-service training program, he or she may present a certificate of successful completion of the training to the school district to satisfy the requirements of this subsection.

Training regarding the implementation of trauma-informed practices satisfies the requirements of this subsection (b).

A course of instruction as described in this subsection (b) must include the definitions of trauma, trauma-responsive learning environments, and whole child set forth in subsection (b) of Section 3-11 of this Code and may provide information that is relevant to and within the scope of the duties of licensed school personnel or school administrators. Such information may include, but is not limited to:

(1) the recognition of and care for trauma in students and staff;

(2) the relationship between educator wellness and student learning;

(3) the effect of trauma on student behavior and learning;

(4) the prevalence of trauma among students, including the prevalence of trauma among student populations at higher risk of experiencing trauma;

(5) the effects of implicit or explicit bias on recognizing trauma among various student groups in connection with race, ethnicity, gender identity, sexual orientation, socio-economic status, and other relevant factors; and

(6) effective district practices that are shown to:

(A) prevent and mitigate the negative effect of trauma on student behavior and learning; and

(B) support the emotional wellness of staff.

(c) School counselors, nurses, teachers and other school personnel who work with pupils may be trained to have a basic knowledge of matters relating to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), including the nature of the disease, its causes and effects, the means of detecting it and preventing its transmission, and the availability of appropriate sources of counseling and referral, and any other information that may be appropriate considering the age and grade level of such pupils. The School Board shall supervise such training. The State Board of Education and the Department of Public Health shall jointly develop standards for such training.

(d) In this subsection (d):

"Domestic violence" means abuse by a family or household member, as "abuse" and "family or household members" are defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Sexual violence" means sexual assault, abuse, or stalking of an adult or minor child proscribed in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-12, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16, including sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are strangers to the victim and sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are known or related by blood or marriage to the victim.

At least once every 2 years, an in-service training program for school personnel who work with pupils, including, but not limited to, school and school district administrators, teachers, school social workers, school counselors, school psychologists, and school nurses, must be conducted by persons with expertise in domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth and shall include training concerning (i) communicating with and listening to youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth, (ii) connecting youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth to appropriate in-school services and other agencies, programs, and services as needed, and (iii) implementing the school district's policies, procedures, and protocols with regard to such youth, including confidentiality. At a minimum, school personnel must be trained to understand, provide information and referrals, and address issues pertaining to youth who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence.

(e) At least every 2 years, an in-service training program for school personnel who work with pupils must be conducted by persons with expertise in anaphylactic reactions and management.

(f) At least once every 2 years, a school board shall conduct in-service training on educator ethics, teacher-student conduct, and school employee-student conduct for all personnel.

(g) At least once every 2 years, a school board shall conduct in-service training for all school district employees on the methods to respond to trauma. The training must include instruction on how to respond to an incident involving life-threatening bleeding and, if applicable, how to use a school's trauma kit. A school board may satisfy the training requirements under this subsection by using the training, including online training, available from the American College of Surgeons or any other similar organization.

School district employees who are trained to respond to trauma pursuant to this subsection (g) shall be immune from civil liability in the use of a trauma kit unless the action constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-638, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-128, eff. 6-30-23; 103-413, eff. 1-1-24; revised 11-27-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-542 but before amendment by P.A. 103-41)

Sec. 10-22.39. In-service training programs.

(a) To conduct in-service training programs for teachers, administrators, and school support personnel.

(b) In addition to other topics at in-service training programs listed in this Section, teachers, administrators, and school support personnel who work with pupils must be trained in the following topics: health conditions of students; social-emotional learning; developing cultural competency; identifying warning signs of mental illness and suicidal behavior in youth; domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth; protections and accommodations for students; educator ethics; responding to child sexual abuse and grooming behavior; and effective instruction in violence prevention and conflict resolution. In-service training programs in these topics shall be credited toward hours of professional development required for license renewal as outlined in subsection (e) of Section 21B-45.

School support personnel may be exempt from in-service training if the training is not relevant to the work they do.

Nurses and school nurses, as defined by Section 10-22.23, are exempt from training required in subsection (b-5).

Beginning July 1, 2024, all teachers, administrators, and school support personnel shall complete training as outlined in Section 10-22.39 during an in-service training program conducted by their school board or through other training opportunities, including, but not limited to, institutes under Section 3-11. Such training must be completed within 6 months of employment by a school board and renewed at least once every 5 years, unless required more frequently by other State or federal law or in accordance with this Section. If teachers, administrators, or school support personnel obtain training outside of an in-service training program or from a previous public school district or nonpublic school employer, they may present documentation showing current compliance with this subsection to satisfy the requirement of receiving training within 6 months of first being employed. Training may be delivered through online, asynchronous means.

(b-5) Training regarding health conditions of students for staff required by this Section shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) Chronic health conditions of students.

(2) Anaphylactic reactions and management. Such training shall be conducted by persons with expertise in anaphylactic reactions and management.

(3) The management of asthma, the prevention of asthma symptoms, and emergency response in the school setting.

(4) The basics of seizure recognition and first aid and appropriate emergency protocols. Such training must be fully consistent with the best practice guidelines issued by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

(5) The basics of diabetes care, how to identify when a student with diabetes needs immediate or emergency medical attention, and whom to contact in the case of an emergency.

(6) Current best practices regarding the identification and treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

(7) Instruction on how to respond to an incident involving life-threatening bleeding and, if applicable, how to use a school's trauma kit. Beginning with the 2024-2025 school year, training on life-threatening bleeding must be completed within 6 months of the employee first being employed by a school board and renewed within 2 years. Beginning with the 2027-2028 school year, the training must be completed within 6 months of the employee first being employed by a school board and renewed at least once every 5 years thereafter.

In consultation with professional organizations with expertise in student health issues, including, but not limited to, asthma management, anaphylactic reactions, seizure recognition, and diabetes care, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials for educating school personnel about student health conditions and emergency response in the school setting.

A school board may satisfy the life-threatening bleeding training under this subsection by using the training, including online training, available from the American College of Surgeons or any other similar organization.

(b-10) The training regarding social-emotional learning, for staff required by this Section may include, at a minimum, providing education to all school personnel about the content of the Illinois Social and Emotional Learning Standards, how those standards apply to everyday school interactions, and examples of how social emotional learning can be integrated into instructional practices across all grades and subjects.

(b-15) The training regarding developing cultural competency for staff required by this Section shall include, but is not limited to, understanding and reducing implicit bias, including implicit racial bias. As used in this subsection, "implicit racial bias" has the meaning set forth in Section 10-20.61.

(b-20) The training regarding identifying warning signs of mental illness, trauma, and suicidal behavior in youth for staff required by this Section shall include, but is not limited to, appropriate intervention and referral techniques, including resources and guidelines as outlined in Section 2-3.166, and must include the definitions of trauma, trauma-responsive learning environments, and whole child set forth in subsection (b) of Section 3-11 of this Code.

Illinois Mental Health First Aid training, established under the Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act, may satisfy the requirements of this subsection.

If teachers, administrators, or school support personnel obtain mental health first aid training outside of an in-service training program, they may present a certificate of successful completion of the training to the school district to satisfy the requirements of this subsection. Training regarding the implementation of trauma-informed practices satisfies the requirements of this subsection.

(b-25) As used in this subsection:

"Domestic violence" means abuse by a family or household member, as "abuse" and "family or household members" are defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Sexual violence" means sexual assault, abuse, or stalking of an adult or minor child proscribed in the Criminal Code of 1961 or in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-12, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 2012, including sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are strangers to the victim and sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are known or related by blood or marriage to the victim.

The training regarding domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth for staff required by this Section must be conducted by persons with expertise in domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth, and shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) communicating with and listening to youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth;

(2) connecting youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth to appropriate in-school services and other agencies, programs, and services as needed;

(3) implementing the school district's policies, procedures, and protocols with regard to such youth, including confidentiality; at . At a minimum, school personnel must be trained to understand, provide information and referrals, and address issues pertaining to youth who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence; and

(4) procedures for responding to incidents of teen dating violence that take place at the school, on school grounds, at school-sponsored activities, or in vehicles used for school-provided transportation as outlined in Section 3.10 of the Critical Health Problems and Comprehensive Health Education Act.

(b-30) The training regarding protections and accommodations for students shall include, but is not limited to, instruction on the federal Americans with Disabilities Act, as it pertains to the school environment, and homelessness. Beginning with the 2024-2025 school year, training on homelessness must be completed within 6 months of an employee first being employed by a school board and renewed within 2 years. Beginning with the 2027-2028 school year, the training must be completed within 6 months of the employee first being employed by a school board and renewed at least once every 5 years thereafter. Training on homelessness shall include the following:

(1) the definition of homeless children and youths under 42 U.S.C. 11434a;

(2) the signs of homelessness and housing insecurity;

(3) the rights of students experiencing homelessness under State and federal law;

(4) the steps to take when a homeless or housing-insecure student is identified; and

(5) the appropriate referral techniques, including the name and contact number of the school or school district homeless liaison.

School boards may work with a community-based organization that specializes in working with homeless children and youth to develop and provide the training.

(b-35) The training regarding educator ethics and responding to child sexual abuse and grooming behavior shall include, but is not limited to, teacher-student conduct, school employee-student conduct, and evidence-informed training on preventing, recognizing, reporting, and responding to child sexual abuse and grooming as outlined in Section 10-23.13.

(b-40) The training regarding effective instruction in violence prevention and conflict resolution required by this Section shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of Section 27-23.4.

(b-45) (c) Beginning July 1, 2024, all nonpublic elementary and secondary school teachers, administrators, and school support personnel shall complete the training set forth in subsection (b-5). Training must be completed within 6 months of first being employed by a nonpublic school and renewed at least once every 5 years, unless required more frequently by other State or federal law. If nonpublic teachers, administrators, or school support personnel obtain training from a public school district or nonpublic school employer, the teacher, administrator, or school support personnel may present documentation to the nonpublic school showing current compliance with this subsection to satisfy the requirement of receiving training within 6 months of first being employed. must include the definitions of trauma, trauma-responsive learning environments, and whole child set forth in subsection (b) of Section 3-11 of this Code and

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) At least once every 2 years, a school board shall conduct in-service training for all school district employees on the methods to respond to trauma. The training must include instruction on how to respond to an incident involving life-threatening bleeding and, if applicable, how to use a school's trauma kit. A school board may satisfy the training requirements under this subsection by using the training, including online training, available from the American College of Surgeons or any other similar organization.

School district employees who are trained to respond to trauma pursuant to this subsection (g) shall be immune from civil liability in the use of a trauma kit unless the action constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-638, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-128, eff. 6-30-23; 103-413, eff. 1-1-24; 103-542, eff. 7-1-24 (see Section 905 of P.A. 103-563 for effective date of P.A. 103-542); revised 11-27-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-41)

Sec. 10-22.39. In-service training programs.

(a) To conduct in-service training programs for teachers, administrators, and school support personnel.

(b) In addition to other topics at in-service training programs listed in this Section, teachers, administrators, and school support personnel who work with pupils must be trained in the following topics: health conditions of students; social-emotional learning; developing cultural competency; identifying warning signs of mental illness and suicidal behavior in youth; domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth; protections and accommodations for students; educator ethics; responding to child sexual abuse and grooming behavior; and effective instruction in violence prevention and conflict resolution. In-service training programs in these topics shall be credited toward hours of professional development required for license renewal as outlined in subsection (e) of Section 21B-45.

School support personnel may be exempt from in-service training if the training is not relevant to the work they do.

Nurses and school nurses, as defined by Section 10-22.23, are exempt from training required in subsection (b-5).

Beginning July 1, 2024, all teachers, administrators, and school support personnel shall complete training as outlined in Section 10-22.39 during an in-service training program conducted by their school board or through other training opportunities, including, but not limited to, institutes under Section 3-11. Such training must be completed within 6 months of employment by a school board and renewed at least once every 5 years, unless required more frequently by other State or federal law or in accordance with this Section. If teachers, administrators, or school support personnel obtain training outside of an in-service training program or from a previous public school district or nonpublic school employer, they may present documentation showing current compliance with this subsection to satisfy the requirement of receiving training within 6 months of first being employed. Training may be delivered through online, asynchronous means.

(b-5) Training regarding health conditions of students for staff required by this Section shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) Chronic health conditions of students.

(2) Anaphylactic reactions and management. Such training shall be conducted by persons with expertise in anaphylactic reactions and management.

(3) The management of asthma, the prevention of asthma symptoms, and emergency response in the school setting.

(4) The basics of seizure recognition and first aid and appropriate emergency protocols. Such training must be fully consistent with the best practice guidelines issued by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

(5) The basics of diabetes care, how to identify when a student with diabetes needs immediate or emergency medical attention, and whom to contact in the case of an emergency.

(6) Current best practices regarding the identification and treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

(7) Instruction on how to respond to an incident involving life-threatening bleeding and, if applicable, how to use a school's trauma kit. Beginning with the 2024-2025 school year, training on life-threatening bleeding must be completed within 6 months of the employee first being employed by a school board and renewed within 2 years. Beginning with the 2027-2028 school year, the training must be completed within 6 months of the employee first being employed by a school board and renewed at least once every 5 years thereafter.

In consultation with professional organizations with expertise in student health issues, including, but not limited to, asthma management, anaphylactic reactions, seizure recognition, and diabetes care, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials for educating school personnel about student health conditions and emergency response in the school setting.

A school board may satisfy the life-threatening bleeding training under this subsection by using the training, including online training, available from the American College of Surgeons or any other similar organization.

(b-10) The training regarding social-emotional learning, for staff required by this Section may include, at a minimum, providing education to all school personnel about the content of the Illinois Social and Emotional Learning Standards, how those standards apply to everyday school interactions, and examples of how social emotional learning can be integrated into instructional practices across all grades and subjects.

(b-15) The training regarding developing cultural competency for staff required by this Section shall include, but is not limited to, understanding and reducing implicit bias, including implicit racial bias. As used in this subsection, "implicit racial bias" has the meaning set forth in Section 10-20.61.

(b-20) The training regarding identifying warning signs of mental illness, trauma, and suicidal behavior in youth for staff required by this Section shall include, but is not limited to, appropriate intervention and referral techniques, including resources and guidelines as outlined in Section 2-3.166, and must include the definitions of trauma, trauma-responsive learning environments, and whole child set forth in subsection (b) of Section 3-11 of this Code.

Illinois Mental Health First Aid training, established under the Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act, may satisfy the requirements of this subsection.

If teachers, administrators, or school support personnel obtain mental health first aid training outside of an in-service training program, they may present a certificate of successful completion of the training to the school district to satisfy the requirements of this subsection. Training regarding the implementation of trauma-informed practices satisfies the requirements of this subsection.

(b-25) As used in this subsection:

"Domestic violence" means abuse by a family or household member, as "abuse" and "family or household members" are defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Sexual violence" means sexual assault, abuse, or stalking of an adult or minor child proscribed in the Criminal Code of 1961 or in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-12, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 2012, including sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are strangers to the victim and sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are known or related by blood or marriage to the victim.

The training regarding domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth for staff required by this Section must be conducted by persons with expertise in domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth, and shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) communicating with and listening to youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth;

(2) connecting youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth to appropriate in-school services and other agencies, programs, and services as needed;

(3) implementing the school district's policies, procedures, and protocols with regard to such youth, including confidentiality; at . At a minimum, school personnel must be trained to understand, provide information and referrals, and address issues pertaining to youth who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence; and

(4) procedures for responding to incidents of teen dating violence that take place at the school, on school grounds, at school-sponsored activities, or in vehicles used for school-provided transportation as outlined in Section 3.10 of the Critical Health Problems and Comprehensive Health Education Act.

(b-30) The training regarding protections and accommodations for students shall include, but is not limited to, instruction on the federal Americans with Disabilities Act, as it pertains to the school environment, and homelessness. Beginning with the 2024-2025 school year, training on homelessness must be completed within 6 months of an employee first being employed by a school board and renewed within 2 years. Beginning with the 2027-2028 school year, the training must be completed within 6 months of the employee first being employed by a school board and renewed at least once every 5 years thereafter. Training on homelessness shall include the following:

(1) the definition of homeless children and youths under 42 U.S.C. 11434a;

(2) the signs of homelessness and housing insecurity;

(3) the rights of students experiencing homelessness under State and federal law;

(4) the steps to take when a homeless or housing-insecure student is identified; and

(5) the appropriate referral techniques, including the name and contact number of the school or school district homeless liaison.

School boards may work with a community-based organization that specializes in working with homeless children and youth to develop and provide the training.

(b-35) The training regarding educator ethics and responding to child sexual abuse and grooming behavior shall include, but is not limited to, teacher-student conduct, school employee-student conduct, and evidence-informed training on preventing, recognizing, reporting, and responding to child sexual abuse and grooming as outlined in Section 10-23.13.

(b-40) The training regarding effective instruction in violence prevention and conflict resolution required by this Section shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of Section 27-23.4.

(b-45) (c) Beginning July 1, 2024, all nonpublic elementary and secondary school teachers, administrators, and school support personnel shall complete the training set forth in subsection (b-5). Training must be completed within 6 months of first being employed by a nonpublic school and renewed at least once every 5 years, unless required more frequently by other State or federal law. If nonpublic teachers, administrators, or school support personnel obtain training from a public school district or nonpublic school employer, the teacher, administrator, or school support personnel may present documentation to the nonpublic school showing current compliance with this subsection to satisfy the requirement of receiving training within 6 months of first being employed. must include the definitions of trauma, trauma-responsive learning environments, and whole child set forth in subsection (b) of Section 3-11 of this Code and

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) At least once every 2 years, a school board shall conduct in-service training for all school district employees on the methods to respond to trauma. The training must include instruction on how to respond to an incident involving life-threatening bleeding and, if applicable, how to use a school's trauma kit. A school board may satisfy the training requirements under this subsection by using the training, including online training, available from the American College of Surgeons or any other similar organization.

School district employees who are trained to respond to trauma pursuant to this subsection (g) shall be immune from civil liability in the use of a trauma kit unless the action constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(h) (g) At least once every 2 years, a school board shall conduct in-service training on homelessness for all school personnel. The training shall include:

(1) the definition of homeless children and youth under Section 11434a of Title 42 of the United States Code;

(2) the signs of homelessness and housing insecurity;

(3) the rights of students experiencing homelessness under State and federal law;

(4) the steps to take when a homeless or housing-insecure student is identified; and

(5) the appropriate referral techniques, including the name and contact number of the school or school district homeless liaison.

A school board may work with a community-based organization that specializes in working with homeless children and youth to develop and provide the training.

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-638, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-41, eff. 8-20-24; 103-128, eff. 6-30-23; 103-413, eff. 1-1-24; 103-542, eff. 7-1-24 (see Section 905 of P.A. 103-563 for effective date of P.A. 103-542); revised 11-27-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-7.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-7.02)

Sec. 14-7.02. Children attending private schools, public out-of-state schools, public school residential facilities or private special education facilities.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes that non-public schools or special education facilities provide an important service in the educational system in Illinois.

(b) If a student's individualized education program (IEP) team determines that because of his or her disability the special education program of a district is unable to meet the needs of the child and the child attends a non-public school or special education facility, a public out-of-state school or a special education facility owned and operated by a county government unit that provides special educational services required by the child and is in compliance with the appropriate rules and regulations of the State Superintendent of Education, the school district in which the child is a resident shall pay the actual cost of tuition for special education and related services provided during the regular school term and during the summer school term if the child's educational needs so require, excluding room, board and transportation costs charged the child by that non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school or county special education facility, or $4,500 per year, whichever is less, and shall provide him any necessary transportation. "Nonpublic special education facility" shall include a residential facility, within or without the State of Illinois, which provides special education and related services to meet the needs of the child by utilizing private schools or public schools, whether located on the site or off the site of the residential facility. Resident district financial responsibility and reimbursement applies for both nonpublic special education facilities that are approved by the State Board of Education pursuant to 23 Ill. Adm. Code 401 or other applicable laws or rules and for emergency residential placements in nonpublic special education facilities that are not approved by the State Board of Education pursuant to 23 Ill. Adm. Code 401 or other applicable laws or rules, subject to the requirements of this Section.

(c) Prior to the placement of a child in an out-of-state special education residential facility, the school district must refer to the child or the child's parent or guardian the option to place the child in a special education residential facility located within this State, if any, that provides treatment and services comparable to those provided by the out-of-state special education residential facility. The school district must review annually the placement of a child in an out-of-state special education residential facility. As a part of the review, the school district must refer to the child or the child's parent or guardian the option to place the child in a comparable special education residential facility located within this State, if any.

(c-5) Before a provider that operates a nonpublic special education facility terminates a student's placement in that facility, the provider must request an IEP meeting from the contracting school district. If the provider elects to terminate the student's placement following the IEP meeting, the provider must give written notice to this effect to the parent or guardian, the contracting public school district, and the State Board of Education no later than 20 business days before the date of termination, unless the health and safety of any student are endangered. The notice must include the detailed reasons for the termination and any actions taken to address the reason for the termination.

(d) Payments shall be made by the resident school district to the entity providing the educational services, whether the entity is the nonpublic special education facility or the school district wherein the facility is located, no less than once per quarter, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by the parties.

(e) A school district may residentially place a student in a nonpublic special education facility providing educational services, but not approved by the State Board of Education pursuant to 23 Ill. Adm. Code 401 or other applicable laws or rules, provided that the State Board of Education provides an emergency and student-specific approval for residential placement. The State Board of Education shall promptly, within 10 days after the request, approve a request for emergency and student-specific approval for residential placement if the following have been demonstrated to the State Board of Education:

(1) the facility demonstrates appropriate licensure of teachers for the student population;

(2) the facility demonstrates age-appropriate curriculum;

(3) the facility provides enrollment and attendance data;

(4) the facility demonstrates the ability to implement the child's IEP; and

(5) the school district demonstrates that it made good faith efforts to residentially place the student in an approved facility, but no approved facility has accepted the student or has availability for immediate residential placement of the student. A resident school district may also submit such proof to the State Board of Education as may be required for its student. The State Board of Education may not unreasonably withhold approval once satisfactory proof is provided to the State Board.

(f) If an impartial due process hearing officer who is contracted by the State Board of Education pursuant to this Article orders placement of a student with a disability in a residential facility that is not approved by the State Board of Education, then, for purposes of this Section, the facility shall be deemed approved for placement and school district payments and State reimbursements shall be made accordingly.

(g) Emergency residential placement in a facility approved pursuant to subsection (e) or (f) may continue to be utilized so long as (i) the student's IEP team determines annually that such placement continues to be appropriate to meet the student's needs and (ii) at least every 3 years following the student's residential placement, the IEP team reviews appropriate placements approved by the State Board of Education pursuant to 23 Ill. Adm. Code 401 or other applicable laws or rules to determine whether there are any approved placements that can meet the student's needs, have accepted the student, and have availability for placement of the student.

(h) The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and regulations for determining when placement in a private special education facility is appropriate. Such rules and regulations shall take into account the various types of services needed by a child and the availability of such services to the particular child in the public school. In developing these rules and regulations the State Board of Education shall consult with the Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities and hold public hearings to secure recommendations from parents, school personnel, and others concerned about this matter.

The State Board of Education shall also promulgate rules and regulations for transportation to and from a residential school. Transportation to and from home to a residential school more than once each school term shall be subject to prior approval by the State Superintendent in accordance with the rules and regulations of the State Board.

(i) A school district making tuition payments pursuant to this Section is eligible for reimbursement from the State for the amount of such payments actually made in excess of the district per capita tuition charge for students not receiving special education services. Such reimbursement shall be approved in accordance with Section 14-12.01 and each district shall file its claims, computed in accordance with rules prescribed by the State Board of Education, on forms prescribed by the State Superintendent of Education. Data used as a basis of reimbursement claims shall be for the preceding regular school term and summer school term. Each school district shall transmit its claims to the State Board of Education on or before August 15. The State Board of Education, before approving any such claims, shall determine their accuracy and whether they are based upon services and facilities provided under approved programs. Upon approval the State Board shall cause vouchers to be prepared showing the amount due for payment of reimbursement claims to school districts, for transmittal to the State Comptroller on the 30th day of September, December, and March, respectively, and the final voucher, no later than June 20. If the money appropriated by the General Assembly for such purpose for any year is insufficient, it shall be apportioned on the basis of the claims approved.

(j) No child shall be placed in a special education program pursuant to this Section if the tuition cost for special education and related services increases more than 10 percent over the tuition cost for the previous school year or exceeds $4,500 per year unless such costs have been approved by the Illinois Purchased Care Review Board. The Illinois Purchased Care Review Board shall consist of the following persons, or their designees: the Directors of Children and Family Services, Public Health, Public Aid, and the Governor's Office of Management and Budget; the Secretary of Human Services; the State Superintendent of Education; and such other persons as the Governor may designate. The Review Board shall also consist of one non-voting member who is an administrator of a private, nonpublic, special education school. The Review Board shall establish rules and regulations for its determination of allowable costs and payments made by local school districts for special education, room and board, and other related services provided by non-public schools or special education facilities and shall establish uniform standards and criteria which it shall follow. The Review Board shall approve the usual and customary rate or rates of a special education program that (i) is offered by an out-of-state, non-public provider of integrated autism specific educational and autism specific residential services, (ii) offers 2 or more levels of residential care, including at least one locked facility, and (iii) serves 12 or fewer Illinois students.

(k) In determining rates based on allowable costs, the Review Board shall consider any wage increases awarded by the General Assembly to front line personnel defined as direct support persons, aides, front-line supervisors, qualified intellectual disabilities professionals, nurses, and non-administrative support staff working in service settings in community-based settings within the State and adjust customary rates or rates of a special education program to be equitable to the wage increase awarded to similar staff positions in a community residential setting. Any wage increase awarded by the General Assembly to front line personnel defined as direct support persons, aides, front-line supervisors, qualified intellectual disabilities professionals, nurses, and non-administrative support staff working in community-based settings within the State, including the $0.75 per hour increase contained in Public Act 100-23 and the $0.50 per hour increase included in Public Act 100-23, shall also be a basis for any facility covered by this Section to appeal its rate before the Review Board under the process defined in Title 89, Part 900, Section 340 of the Illinois Administrative Code. Illinois Administrative Code Title 89, Part 900, Section 342 shall be updated to recognize wage increases awarded to community-based settings to be a basis for appeal. However, any wage increase that is captured upon appeal from a previous year shall not be counted by the Review Board as revenue for the purpose of calculating a facility's future rate.

(l) Any definition used by the Review Board in administrative rule or policy to define "related organizations" shall include any and all exceptions contained in federal law or regulation as it pertains to the federal definition of "related organizations".

(m) The Review Board shall establish uniform definitions and criteria for accounting separately by special education, room and board and other related services costs. The Board shall also establish guidelines for the coordination of services and financial assistance provided by all State agencies to assure that no otherwise qualified child with a disability receiving services under Article 14 shall be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity provided by any State agency.

(n) The Review Board shall review the costs for special education and related services provided by non-public schools or special education facilities and shall approve or disapprove such facilities in accordance with the rules and regulations established by it with respect to allowable costs.

(o) The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and staff support for the Review Board as deemed reasonable by the State Superintendent of Education. This support shall not include travel expenses or other compensation for any Review Board member other than the State Superintendent of Education.

(p) The Review Board shall seek the advice of the Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the rules and regulations to be promulgated by it relative to providing special education services.

(q) If a child has been placed in a program in which the actual per pupil costs of tuition for special education and related services based on program enrollment, excluding room, board and transportation costs, exceed $4,500 and such costs have been approved by the Review Board, the district shall pay such total costs which exceed $4,500. A district making such tuition payments in excess of $4,500 pursuant to this Section shall be responsible for an amount in excess of $4,500 equal to the district per capita tuition charge and shall be eligible for reimbursement from the State for the amount of such payments actually made in excess of the districts per capita tuition charge for students not receiving special education services.

(r) If a child has been placed in an approved individual program and the tuition costs including room and board costs have been approved by the Review Board, then such room and board costs shall be paid by the appropriate State agency subject to the provisions of Section 14-8.01 of this Act. Room and board costs not provided by a State agency other than the State Board of Education shall be provided by the State Board of Education on a current basis. In no event, however, shall the State's liability for funding of these tuition costs begin until after the legal obligations of third party payors have been subtracted from such costs. If the money appropriated by the General Assembly for such purpose for any year is insufficient, it shall be apportioned on the basis of the claims approved. Each district shall submit estimated claims to the State Superintendent of Education. Upon approval of such claims, the State Superintendent of Education shall direct the State Comptroller to make payments on a monthly basis. The frequency for submitting estimated claims and the method of determining payment shall be prescribed in rules and regulations adopted by the State Board of Education. Such current state reimbursement shall be reduced by an amount equal to the proceeds which the child or child's parents are eligible to receive under any public or private insurance or assistance program. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as relieving an insurer or similar third party from an otherwise valid obligation to provide or to pay for services provided to a child with a disability.

(s) If it otherwise qualifies, a school district is eligible for the transportation reimbursement under Section 14-13.01 and for the reimbursement of tuition payments under this Section whether the non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school or county special education facility, attended by a child who resides in that district and requires special educational services, is within or outside of the State of Illinois. However, a district is not eligible to claim transportation reimbursement under this Section unless the district certifies to the State Superintendent of Education that the district is unable to provide special educational services required by the child for the current school year.

(t) Nothing in this Section authorizes the reimbursement of a school district for the amount paid for tuition of a child attending a non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school or county special education facility unless the school district certifies to the State Superintendent of Education that the special education program of that district is unable to meet the needs of that child because of his disability and the State Superintendent of Education finds that the school district is in substantial compliance with Section 14-4.01. However, if a child is unilaterally placed by a State agency or any court in a non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school, or county special education facility, a school district shall not be required to certify to the State Superintendent of Education, for the purpose of tuition reimbursement, that the special education program of that district is unable to meet the needs of a child because of his or her disability.

(u) Any educational or related services provided, pursuant to this Section in a non-public school or special education facility or a special education facility owned and operated by a county government unit shall be at no cost to the parent or guardian of the child. However, current law and practices relative to contributions by parents or guardians for costs other than educational or related services are not affected by this amendatory Act of 1978.

(v) Reimbursement for children attending public school residential facilities shall be made in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(w) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district receiving a payment under this Section or under Section 14-7.02b, 14-13.01, or 29-5 of this Code may classify all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular fiscal year or from general State aid pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code as funds received in connection with any funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation, any funding program referenced in this Section), regardless of the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not classify more funds as funds received in connection with the funding program than the district is entitled to receive in that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a district must be made by a resolution of its board of education. The resolution must identify the amount of any payments or general State aid to be classified under this paragraph and must specify the funding program to which the funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith. This resolution is controlling as to the classification of funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of Education in a timely manner. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall affect the total amount or timing of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall in any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements that otherwise would apply with respect to that funding program, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting requirements, or requirements of providing services.

(Source: P.A. 102-254, eff. 8-6-21; 102-703, eff. 4-22-22; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-546, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-8.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-8.02)

Sec. 14-8.02. Identification, evaluation, and placement of children.

(a) The State Board of Education shall make rules under which local school boards shall determine the eligibility of children to receive special education. Such rules shall ensure that a free appropriate public education be available to all children with disabilities as defined in Section 14-1.02. The State Board of Education shall require local school districts to administer non-discriminatory procedures or tests to English learners coming from homes in which a language other than English is used to determine their eligibility to receive special education. The placement of low English proficiency students in special education programs and facilities shall be made in accordance with the test results reflecting the student's linguistic, cultural and special education needs. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions of "case study", "staff conference", "individualized educational program", and "qualified specialist" appropriate to each category of children with disabilities as defined in this Article. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children from homes in which a language other than English is used, the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions for "qualified bilingual specialists" and "linguistically and culturally appropriate individualized educational programs". For purposes of this Section, as well as Sections 14-8.02a, 14-8.02b, and 14-8.02c of this Code, "parent" means a parent as defined in the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1401(23)).

(b) No child shall be eligible for special education facilities except with a carefully completed case study fully reviewed by professional personnel in a multidisciplinary staff conference and only upon the recommendation of qualified specialists or a qualified bilingual specialist, if available. At the conclusion of the multidisciplinary staff conference, the parent of the child and, if the child is in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services shall be given a copy of the multidisciplinary conference summary report and recommendations, which includes options considered, and, in the case of the parent, be informed of his or her right to obtain an independent educational evaluation if he or she disagrees with the evaluation findings conducted or obtained by the school district. If the school district's evaluation is shown to be inappropriate, the school district shall reimburse the parent for the cost of the independent evaluation. The State Board of Education shall, with advice from the State Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the inclusion of specific independent educational evaluators, prepare a list of suggested independent educational evaluators. The State Board of Education shall include on the list clinical psychologists licensed pursuant to the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. Such psychologists shall not be paid fees in excess of the amount that would be received by a school psychologist for performing the same services. The State Board of Education shall supply school districts with such list and make the list available to parents at their request. School districts shall make the list available to parents at the time they are informed of their right to obtain an independent educational evaluation. However, the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section within 5 days of any written parent request for an independent educational evaluation to show that its evaluation is appropriate. If the final decision is that the evaluation is appropriate, the parent still has a right to an independent educational evaluation, but not at public expense. An independent educational evaluation at public expense must be completed within 30 days of a parent's parent written request unless the school district initiates an impartial due process hearing or the parent or school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30-day time period should be extended. If the due process hearing decision indicates that the parent is entitled to an independent educational evaluation, it must be completed within 30 days of the decision unless the parent or the school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30-day period should be extended. If a parent disagrees with the summary report or recommendations of the multidisciplinary conference or the findings of any educational evaluation which results therefrom, the school district shall not proceed with a placement based upon such evaluation and the child shall remain in his or her regular classroom setting. No child shall be eligible for admission to a special class for children with a mental disability who are educable or for children with a mental disability who are trainable except with a psychological evaluation and recommendation by a school psychologist. Consent shall be obtained from the parent of a child before any evaluation is conducted. If consent is not given by the parent or if the parent disagrees with the findings of the evaluation, then the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section. The school district may evaluate the child if that is the decision resulting from the impartial due process hearing and the decision is not appealed or if the decision is affirmed on appeal. The determination of eligibility shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed within 60 school days from the date of written parental consent. In those instances when written parental consent is obtained with fewer than 60 pupil attendance days left in the school year, the eligibility determination shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed prior to the first day of the following school year. Special education and related services must be provided in accordance with the student's IEP no later than 10 school attendance days after notice is provided to the parents pursuant to Section 300.503 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations and implementing rules adopted by the State Board of Education. The appropriate program pursuant to the individualized educational program of students whose native tongue is a language other than English shall reflect the special education, cultural and linguistic needs. No later than September 1, 1993, the State Board of Education shall establish standards for the development, implementation and monitoring of appropriate bilingual special individualized educational programs. The State Board of Education shall further incorporate appropriate monitoring procedures to verify implementation of these standards. The district shall indicate to the parent, the State Board of Education, and, if applicable, the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services the nature of the services the child will receive for the regular school term while awaiting placement in the appropriate special education class. At the child's initial IEP meeting and at each annual review meeting, the child's IEP team shall provide the child's parent or guardian and, if applicable, the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services with a written notification that informs the parent or guardian or the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services that the IEP team is required to consider whether the child requires assistive technology in order to receive free, appropriate public education. The notification must also include a toll-free telephone number and internet address for the State's assistive technology program.

If the child is deaf, hard of hearing, blind, or visually impaired or has an orthopedic impairment or physical disability and he or she might be eligible to receive services from the Illinois School for the Deaf, the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, or the Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Roosevelt, the school district shall notify the parents, in writing, of the existence of these schools and the services they provide and shall make a reasonable effort to inform the parents of the existence of other, local schools that provide similar services and the services that these other schools provide. This notification shall include, without limitation, information on school services, school admissions criteria, and school contact information.

In the development of the individualized education program for a student who has a disability on the autism spectrum (which includes autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, childhood disintegrative disorder, and Rett Syndrome, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition (DSM-IV, 2000)), the IEP team shall consider all of the following factors:

(1) The verbal and nonverbal communication needs of the child.

(2) The need to develop social interaction skills and proficiencies.

(3) The needs resulting from the child's unusual responses to sensory experiences.

(4) The needs resulting from resistance to environmental change or change in daily routines.

(5) The needs resulting from engagement in repetitive activities and stereotyped movements.

(6) The need for any positive behavioral interventions, strategies, and supports to address any behavioral difficulties resulting from autism spectrum disorder.

(7) Other needs resulting from the child's disability that impact progress in the general curriculum, including social and emotional development. Public Act 95-257 does not create any new entitlement to a service, program, or benefit, but must not affect any entitlement to a service, program, or benefit created by any other law.

If the student may be eligible to participate in the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities authorized under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act upon becoming an adult, the student's individualized education program shall include plans for (i) determining the student's eligibility for those home-based services, (ii) enrolling the student in the program of home-based services, and (iii) developing a plan for the student's most effective use of the home-based services after the student becomes an adult and no longer receives special educational services under this Article. The plans developed under this paragraph shall include specific actions to be taken by specified individuals, agencies, or officials.

(c) In the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind, it shall be presumed that proficiency in Braille reading and writing is essential for the student's satisfactory educational progress. For purposes of this subsection, the State Board of Education shall determine the criteria for a student to be classified as functionally blind. Students who are not currently identified as functionally blind who are also entitled to Braille instruction include: (i) those whose vision loss is so severe that they are unable to read and write at a level comparable to their peers solely through the use of vision, and (ii) those who show evidence of progressive vision loss that may result in functional blindness. Each student who is functionally blind shall be entitled to Braille reading and writing instruction that is sufficient to enable the student to communicate with the same level of proficiency as other students of comparable ability. Instruction should be provided to the extent that the student is physically and cognitively able to use Braille. Braille instruction may be used in combination with other special education services appropriate to the student's educational needs. The assessment of each student who is functionally blind for the purpose of developing the student's individualized education program shall include documentation of the student's strengths and weaknesses in Braille skills. Each person assisting in the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind shall receive information describing the benefits of Braille instruction. The individualized education program for each student who is functionally blind shall specify the appropriate learning medium or media based on the assessment report.

(d) To the maximum extent appropriate, the placement shall provide the child with the opportunity to be educated with children who do not have a disability; provided that children with disabilities who are recommended to be placed into regular education classrooms are provided with supplementary services to assist the children with disabilities to benefit from the regular classroom instruction and are included on the teacher's regular education class register. Subject to the limitation of the preceding sentence, placement in special classes, separate schools or other removal of the child with a disability from the regular educational environment shall occur only when the nature of the severity of the disability is such that education in the regular classes with the use of supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily. The placement of English learners with disabilities shall be in non-restrictive environments which provide for integration with peers who do not have disabilities in bilingual classrooms. Annually, each January, school districts shall report data on students from non-English speaking backgrounds receiving special education and related services in public and private facilities as prescribed in Section 2-3.30. If there is a disagreement between parties involved regarding the special education placement of any child, either in-state or out-of-state, the placement is subject to impartial due process procedures described in Article 10 of the Rules and Regulations to Govern the Administration and Operation of Special Education.

(e) No child who comes from a home in which a language other than English is the principal language used may be assigned to any class or program under this Article until he has been given, in the principal language used by the child and used in his home, tests reasonably related to his cultural environment. All testing and evaluation materials and procedures utilized for evaluation and placement shall not be linguistically, racially or culturally discriminatory.

(f) Nothing in this Article shall be construed to require any child to undergo any physical examination or medical treatment whose parents object thereto on the grounds that such examination or treatment conflicts with his religious beliefs.

(g) School boards or their designee shall provide to the parents of a child or, if applicable, the Department of Children and Family Services' Office of Education and Transition Services prior written notice of any decision (a) proposing to initiate or change, or (b) refusing to initiate or change, the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of the child or the provision of a free appropriate public education to their child, and the reasons therefor. For a parent, such written notification shall also inform the parent of the opportunity to present complaints with respect to any matter relating to the educational placement of the student, or the provision of a free appropriate public education and to have an impartial due process hearing on the complaint. The notice shall inform the parents in the parents' native language, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so, of their rights and all procedures available pursuant to this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446); it shall be the responsibility of the State Superintendent to develop uniform notices setting forth the procedures available under this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446) to be used by all school boards. The notice shall also inform the parents of the availability upon request of a list of free or low-cost legal and other relevant services available locally to assist parents in initiating an impartial due process hearing. The State Superintendent shall revise the uniform notices required by this subsection (g) to reflect current law and procedures at least once every 2 years. Any parent who is deaf or does not normally communicate using spoken English and who participates in a meeting with a representative of a local educational agency for the purposes of developing an individualized educational program or attends a multidisciplinary conference shall be entitled to the services of an interpreter. The State Board of Education must adopt rules to establish the criteria, standards, and competencies for a bilingual language interpreter who attends an individualized education program meeting under this subsection to assist a parent who has limited English proficiency.

(g-5) For purposes of this subsection (g-5), "qualified professional" means an individual who holds credentials to evaluate the child in the domain or domains for which an evaluation is sought or an intern working under the direct supervision of a qualified professional, including a master's or doctoral degree candidate.

To ensure that a parent can participate fully and effectively with school personnel in the development of appropriate educational and related services for his or her child, the parent, an independent educational evaluator, or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access to educational facilities, personnel, classrooms, and buildings and to the child as provided in this subsection (g-5). The requirements of this subsection (g-5) apply to any public school facility, building, or program and to any facility, building, or program supported in whole or in part by public funds. Prior to visiting a school, school building, or school facility, the parent, independent educational evaluator, or qualified professional may be required by the school district to inform the building principal or supervisor in writing of the proposed visit, the purpose of the visit, and the approximate duration of the visit. The visitor and the school district shall arrange the visit or visits at times that are mutually agreeable. Visitors shall comply with school safety, security, and visitation policies at all times. School district visitation policies must not conflict with this subsection (g-5). Visitors shall be required to comply with the requirements of applicable privacy laws, including those laws protecting the confidentiality of education records such as the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act and the Illinois School Student Records Act. The visitor shall not disrupt the educational process.

(1) A parent must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of observing his or her child in the child's current educational placement, services, or program or for the purpose of visiting an educational placement or program proposed for the child.

(2) An independent educational evaluator or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of conducting an evaluation of the child, the child's performance, the child's current educational program, placement, services, or environment, or any educational program, placement, services, or environment proposed for the child, including interviews of educational personnel, child observations, assessments, tests or assessments of the child's educational program, services, or placement or of any proposed educational program, services, or placement. If one or more interviews of school personnel are part of the evaluation, the interviews must be conducted at a mutually agreed-upon agreed upon time, date, and place that do not interfere with the school employee's school duties. The school district may limit interviews to personnel having information relevant to the child's current educational services, program, or placement or to a proposed educational service, program, or placement.

(h) In the development of the individualized education program or federal Section 504 plan for a student, if the student needs extra accommodation during emergencies, including natural disasters or an active shooter situation, then that accommodation shall be taken into account when developing the student's individualized education program or federal Section 504 plan.

(Source: P.A. 102-199, eff. 7-1-22; 102-264, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1072, eff. 6-10-22; 103-197, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-30-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/18-8.15)

Sec. 18-8.15. Evidence-Based Funding for student success for the 2017-2018 and subsequent school years.

(a) General provisions.

(1) The purpose of this Section is to ensure that, by June 30, 2027 and beyond, this State has a kindergarten through grade 12 public education system with the capacity to ensure the educational development of all persons to the limits of their capacities in accordance with Section 1 of Article X of the Constitution of the State of Illinois. To accomplish that objective, this Section creates a method of funding public education that is evidence-based; is sufficient to ensure every student receives a meaningful opportunity to learn irrespective of race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, gender, or community-income level; and is sustainable and predictable. When fully funded under this Section, every school shall have the resources, based on what the evidence indicates is needed, to:

(A) provide all students with a high quality education that offers the academic, enrichment, social and emotional support, technical, and career-focused programs that will allow them to become competitive workers, responsible parents, productive citizens of this State, and active members of our national democracy;

(B) ensure all students receive the education they need to graduate from high school with the skills required to pursue post-secondary education and training for a rewarding career;

(C) reduce, with a goal of eliminating, the achievement gap between at-risk and non-at-risk students by raising the performance of at-risk students and not by reducing standards; and

(D) ensure this State satisfies its obligation to assume the primary responsibility to fund public education and simultaneously relieve the disproportionate burden placed on local property taxes to fund schools.

(2) The Evidence-Based Funding formula under this Section shall be applied to all Organizational Units in this State. The Evidence-Based Funding formula outlined in this Act is based on the formula outlined in Senate Bill 1 of the 100th General Assembly, as passed by both legislative chambers. As further defined and described in this Section, there are 4 major components of the Evidence-Based Funding model:

(A) First, the model calculates a unique Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit in this State that considers the costs to implement research-based activities, the unit's student demographics, and regional wage differences.

(B) Second, the model calculates each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity, or the amount each Organizational Unit is assumed to contribute toward its Adequacy Target from local resources.

(C) Third, the model calculates how much funding the State currently contributes to the Organizational Unit and adds that to the unit's Local Capacity to determine the unit's overall current adequacy of funding.

(D) Finally, the model's distribution method allocates new State funding to those Organizational Units that are least well-funded, considering both Local Capacity and State funding, in relation to their Adequacy Target.

(3) An Organizational Unit receiving any funding under this Section may apply those funds to any fund so received for which that Organizational Unit is authorized to make expenditures by law.

(4) As used in this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings ascribed in this paragraph (4):

"Adequacy Target" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section.

"Adjusted EAV" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Adjusted Local Capacity Target" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Adjusted Operating Tax Rate" means a tax rate for all Organizational Units, for which the State Superintendent shall calculate and subtract for the Operating Tax Rate a transportation rate based on total expenses for transportation services under this Code, as reported on the most recent Annual Financial Report in Pupil Transportation Services, function 2550 in both the Education and Transportation funds and functions 4110 and 4120 in the Transportation fund, less any corresponding fiscal year State of Illinois scheduled payments excluding net adjustments for prior years for regular, vocational, or special education transportation reimbursement pursuant to Section 29-5 or subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 of this Code divided by the Adjusted EAV. If an Organizational Unit's corresponding fiscal year State of Illinois scheduled payments excluding net adjustments for prior years for regular, vocational, or special education transportation reimbursement pursuant to Section 29-5 or subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 of this Code exceed the total transportation expenses, as defined in this paragraph, no transportation rate shall be subtracted from the Operating Tax Rate.

"Allocation Rate" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"Alternative School" means a public school that is created and operated by a regional superintendent of schools and approved by the State Board.

"Applicable Tax Rate" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Assessment" means any of those benchmark, progress monitoring, formative, diagnostic, and other assessments, in addition to the State accountability assessment, that assist teachers' needs in understanding the skills and meeting the needs of the students they serve.

"Assistant principal" means a school administrator duly endorsed to be employed as an assistant principal in this State.

"At-risk student" means a student who is at risk of not meeting the Illinois Learning Standards or not graduating from elementary or high school and who demonstrates a need for vocational support or social services beyond that provided by the regular school program. All students included in an Organizational Unit's Low-Income Count, as well as all English learner and disabled students attending the Organizational Unit, shall be considered at-risk students under this Section.

"Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" for fiscal year 2018 means, for an Organizational Unit, the greater of the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 in the immediately preceding school year, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services of 2 or more hours a day as reported to the State Board on December 1 in the immediately preceding school year, or the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services of 2 or more hours a day as reported to the State Board on December 1, for each of the immediately preceding 3 school years. For fiscal year 2019 and each subsequent fiscal year, "Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" means, for an Organizational Unit, the greater of the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 and March 1 in the immediately preceding school year, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services as reported to the State Board on October 1 and March 1 in the immediately preceding school year, or the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 and March 1, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services as reported to the State Board on October 1 and March 1, for each of the immediately preceding 3 school years. For the purposes of this definition, "enrolled in the Organizational Unit" means the number of students reported to the State Board who are enrolled in schools within the Organizational Unit that the student attends or would attend if not placed or transferred to another school or program to receive needed services. For the purposes of calculating "ASE", all students, grades K through 12, excluding those attending kindergarten for a half day and students attending an alternative education program operated by a regional office of education or intermediate service center, shall be counted as 1.0. All students attending kindergarten for a half day shall be counted as 0.5, unless in 2017 by June 15 or by March 1 in subsequent years, the school district reports to the State Board of Education the intent to implement full-day kindergarten district-wide for all students, then all students attending kindergarten shall be counted as 1.0. Special education pre-kindergarten students shall be counted as 0.5 each. If the State Board does not collect or has not collected both an October 1 and March 1 enrollment count by grade or a December 1 collection of special education pre-kindergarten students as of August 31, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-465), it shall establish such collection for all future years. For any year in which a count by grade level was collected only once, that count shall be used as the single count available for computing a 3-year average ASE. Funding for programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be calculated using the Evidence-Based Funding formula under this Section for the 2019-2020 school year and each subsequent school year until separate adequacy formulas are developed and adopted for each type of program. ASE for a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be determined by the March 1 enrollment for the program. For the 2019-2020 school year, the ASE used in the calculation must be the first-year ASE and, in that year only, the assignment of students served by a regional office of education or intermediate service center shall not result in a reduction of the March enrollment for any school district. For the 2020-2021 school year, the ASE must be the greater of the current-year ASE or the 2-year average ASE. Beginning with the 2021-2022 school year, the ASE must be the greater of the current-year ASE or the 3-year average ASE. School districts shall submit the data for the ASE calculation to the State Board within 45 days of the dates required in this Section for submission of enrollment data in order for it to be included in the ASE calculation. For fiscal year 2018 only, the ASE calculation shall include only enrollment taken on October 1. In recognition of the impact of COVID-19, the definition of "Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" shall be adjusted for calculations under this Section for fiscal years 2022 through 2024. For fiscal years 2022 through 2024, the enrollment used in the calculation of ASE representing the 2020-2021 school year shall be the greater of the enrollment for the 2020-2021 school year or the 2019-2020 school year.

"Base Funding Guarantee" is defined in paragraph (10) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"Base Funding Minimum" is defined in subsection (e) of this Section.

"Base Tax Year" means the property tax levy year used to calculate the Budget Year allocation of primary State aid.

"Base Tax Year's Extension" means the product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the county clerk in the Base Tax Year multiplied by the limiting rate as calculated by the county clerk and defined in PTELL.

"Bilingual Education Allocation" means the amount of an Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to bilingual education divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the product of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to bilingual education shall include all additional investments in English learner students' adequacy elements.

"Budget Year" means the school year for which primary State aid is calculated and awarded under this Section.

"Central office" means individual administrators and support service personnel charged with managing the instructional programs, business and operations, and security of the Organizational Unit.

"Comparable Wage Index" or "CWI" means a regional cost differentiation metric that measures systemic, regional variations in the salaries of college graduates who are not educators. The CWI utilized for this Section shall, for the first 3 years of Evidence-Based Funding implementation, be the CWI initially developed by the National Center for Education Statistics, as most recently updated by Texas A & M University. In the fourth and subsequent years of Evidence-Based Funding implementation, the State Superintendent shall re-determine the CWI using a similar methodology to that identified in the Texas A & M University study, with adjustments made no less frequently than once every 5 years.

"Computer technology and equipment" means computers servers, notebooks, network equipment, copiers, printers, instructional software, security software, curriculum management courseware, and other similar materials and equipment.

"Computer technology and equipment investment allocation" means the final Adequacy Target amount of an Organizational Unit assigned to Tier 1 or Tier 2 in the prior school year attributable to the additional $285.50 per student computer technology and equipment investment grant divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the result of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit assigned to a Tier 1 or Tier 2 final Adequacy Target attributable to the received computer technology and equipment investment grant shall include all additional investments in computer technology and equipment adequacy elements.

"Core subject" means mathematics; science; reading, English, writing, and language arts; history and social studies; world languages; and subjects taught as Advanced Placement in high schools.

"Core teacher" means a regular classroom teacher in elementary schools and teachers of a core subject in middle and high schools.

"Core Intervention teacher (tutor)" means a licensed teacher providing one-on-one or small group tutoring to students struggling to meet proficiency in core subjects.

"CPPRT" means corporate personal property replacement tax funds paid to an Organizational Unit during the calendar year one year before the calendar year in which a school year begins, pursuant to "An Act in relation to the abolition of ad valorem personal property tax and the replacement of revenues lost thereby, and amending and repealing certain Acts and parts of Acts in connection therewith", certified August 14, 1979, as amended (Public Act 81-1st S.S.-1).

"EAV" means equalized assessed valuation as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section and calculated in accordance with paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"ECI" means the Bureau of Labor Statistics' national employment cost index for civilian workers in educational services in elementary and secondary schools on a cumulative basis for the 12-month calendar year preceding the fiscal year of the Evidence-Based Funding calculation.

"EIS Data" means the employment information system data maintained by the State Board on educators within Organizational Units.

"Employee benefits" means health, dental, and vision insurance offered to employees of an Organizational Unit, the costs associated with the statutorily required payment of the normal cost of the Organizational Unit's teacher pensions, Social Security employer contributions, and Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund employer contributions.

"English learner" or "EL" means a child included in the definition of "English learners" under Section 14C-2 of this Code participating in a program of transitional bilingual education or a transitional program of instruction meeting the requirements and program application procedures of Article 14C of this Code. For the purposes of collecting the number of EL students enrolled, the same collection and calculation methodology as defined above for "ASE" shall apply to English learners, with the exception that EL student enrollment shall include students in grades pre-kindergarten through 12.

"Essential Elements" means those elements, resources, and educational programs that have been identified through academic research as necessary to improve student success, improve academic performance, close achievement gaps, and provide for other per student costs related to the delivery and leadership of the Organizational Unit, as well as the maintenance and operations of the unit, and which are specified in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section.

"Evidence-Based Funding" means State funding provided to an Organizational Unit pursuant to this Section.

"Extended day" means academic and enrichment programs provided to students outside the regular school day before and after school or during non-instructional times during the school day.

"Extension Limitation Ratio" means a numerical ratio in which the numerator is the Base Tax Year's Extension and the denominator is the Preceding Tax Year's Extension.

"Final Percent of Adequacy" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Final Resources" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Full-time equivalent" or "FTE" means the full-time equivalency compensation for staffing the relevant position at an Organizational Unit.

"Funding Gap" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (g).

"Hybrid District" means a partial elementary unit district created pursuant to Article 11E of this Code.

"Instructional assistant" means a core or special education, non-licensed employee who assists a teacher in the classroom and provides academic support to students.

"Instructional facilitator" means a qualified teacher or licensed teacher leader who facilitates and coaches continuous improvement in classroom instruction; provides instructional support to teachers in the elements of research-based instruction or demonstrates the alignment of instruction with curriculum standards and assessment tools; develops or coordinates instructional programs or strategies; develops and implements training; chooses standards-based instructional materials; provides teachers with an understanding of current research; serves as a mentor, site coach, curriculum specialist, or lead teacher; or otherwise works with fellow teachers, in collaboration, to use data to improve instructional practice or develop model lessons.

"Instructional materials" means relevant instructional materials for student instruction, including, but not limited to, textbooks, consumable workbooks, laboratory equipment, library books, and other similar materials.

"Laboratory School" means a public school that is created and operated by a public university and approved by the State Board.

"Librarian" means a teacher with an endorsement as a library information specialist or another individual whose primary responsibility is overseeing library resources within an Organizational Unit.

"Limiting rate for Hybrid Districts" means the combined elementary school and high school limiting rates.

"Local Capacity" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Percentage" is defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Ratio" is defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Target" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Low-Income Count" means, for an Organizational Unit in a fiscal year, the higher of the average number of students for the prior school year or the immediately preceding 3 school years who, as of July 1 of the immediately preceding fiscal year (as determined by the Department of Human Services), are eligible for at least one of the following low-income programs: Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program, Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF), or the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, excluding pupils who are eligible for services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services. Until such time that grade level low-income populations become available, grade level low-income populations shall be determined by applying the low-income percentage to total student enrollments by grade level. The low-income percentage is determined by dividing the Low-Income Count by the Average Student Enrollment. The low-income percentage for programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be set to the weighted average of the low-income percentages of all of the school districts in the service region. The weighted low-income percentage is the result of multiplying the low-income percentage of each school district served by the regional office of education or intermediate service center by each school district's Average Student Enrollment, summarizing those products and dividing the total by the total Average Student Enrollment for the service region.

"Maintenance and operations" means custodial services, facility and ground maintenance, facility operations, facility security, routine facility repairs, and other similar services and functions.

"Minimum Funding Level" is defined in paragraph (9) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds" means, for any given fiscal year, all State funds appropriated under Section 2-3.170 of this Code.

"New State Funds" means, for a given school year, all State funds appropriated for Evidence-Based Funding in excess of the amount needed to fund the Base Funding Minimum for all Organizational Units in that school year.

"Nurse" means an individual licensed as a certified school nurse, in accordance with the rules established for nursing services by the State Board, who is an employee of and is available to provide health care-related services for students of an Organizational Unit.

"Operating Tax Rate" means the rate utilized in the previous year to extend property taxes for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes. For Hybrid Districts, the Operating Tax Rate shall be the combined elementary and high school rates utilized in the previous year to extend property taxes for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes.

"Organizational Unit" means a Laboratory School or any public school district that is recognized as such by the State Board and that contains elementary schools typically serving kindergarten through 5th grades, middle schools typically serving 6th through 8th grades, high schools typically serving 9th through 12th grades, a program established under Section 2-3.66 or 2-3.41, or a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center under Article 13A or 13B. The General Assembly acknowledges that the actual grade levels served by a particular Organizational Unit may vary slightly from what is typical.

"Organizational Unit CWI" is determined by calculating the CWI in the region and original county in which an Organizational Unit's primary administrative office is located as set forth in this paragraph, provided that if the Organizational Unit CWI as calculated in accordance with this paragraph is less than 0.9, the Organizational Unit CWI shall be increased to 0.9. Each county's current CWI value shall be adjusted based on the CWI value of that county's neighboring Illinois counties, to create a "weighted adjusted index value". This shall be calculated by summing the CWI values of all of a county's adjacent Illinois counties and dividing by the number of adjacent Illinois counties, then taking the weighted value of the original county's CWI value and the adjacent Illinois county average. To calculate this weighted value, if the number of adjacent Illinois counties is greater than 2, the original county's CWI value will be weighted at 0.25 and the adjacent Illinois county average will be weighted at 0.75. If the number of adjacent Illinois counties is 2, the original county's CWI value will be weighted at 0.33 and the adjacent Illinois county average will be weighted at 0.66. The greater of the county's current CWI value and its weighted adjusted index value shall be used as the Organizational Unit CWI.

"Preceding Tax Year" means the property tax levy year immediately preceding the Base Tax Year.

"Preceding Tax Year's Extension" means the product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the county clerk in the Preceding Tax Year multiplied by the Operating Tax Rate.

"Preliminary Percent of Adequacy" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Preliminary Resources" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Principal" means a school administrator duly endorsed to be employed as a principal in this State.

"Professional development" means training programs for licensed staff in schools, including, but not limited to, programs that assist in implementing new curriculum programs, provide data focused or academic assessment data training to help staff identify a student's weaknesses and strengths, target interventions, improve instruction, encompass instructional strategies for English learner, gifted, or at-risk students, address inclusivity, cultural sensitivity, or implicit bias, or otherwise provide professional support for licensed staff.

"Prototypical" means 450 special education pre-kindergarten and kindergarten through grade 5 students for an elementary school, 450 grade 6 through 8 students for a middle school, and 600 grade 9 through 12 students for a high school.

"PTELL" means the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

"PTELL EAV" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Pupil support staff" means a nurse, psychologist, social worker, family liaison personnel, or other staff member who provides support to at-risk or struggling students.

"Real Receipts" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Regionalization Factor" means, for a particular Organizational Unit, the figure derived by dividing the Organizational Unit CWI by the Statewide Weighted CWI.

"School counselor" means a licensed school counselor who provides guidance and counseling support for students within an Organizational Unit.

"School site staff" means the primary school secretary and any additional clerical personnel assigned to a school.

"Special education" means special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code.

"Special Education Allocation" means the amount of an Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to special education divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the product of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to special education shall include all special education investment adequacy elements.

"Specialist teacher" means a teacher who provides instruction in subject areas not included in core subjects, including, but not limited to, art, music, physical education, health, driver education, career-technical education, and such other subject areas as may be mandated by State law or provided by an Organizational Unit.

"Specially Funded Unit" means an Alternative School, safe school, Department of Juvenile Justice school, special education cooperative or entity recognized by the State Board as a special education cooperative, State-approved charter school, or alternative learning opportunities program that received direct funding from the State Board during the 2016-2017 school year through any of the funding sources included within the calculation of the Base Funding Minimum or Glenwood Academy.

"Supplemental Grant Funding" means supplemental general State aid funding received by an Organizational Unit during the 2016-2017 school year pursuant to subsection (H) of Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed).

"State Adequacy Level" is the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Organizational Units.

"State Board" means the State Board of Education.

"State Superintendent" means the State Superintendent of Education.

"Statewide Weighted CWI" means a figure determined by multiplying each Organizational Unit CWI times the ASE for that Organizational Unit creating a weighted value, summing all Organizational Units' weighted values, and dividing by the total ASE of all Organizational Units, thereby creating an average weighted index.

"Student activities" means non-credit producing after-school programs, including, but not limited to, clubs, bands, sports, and other activities authorized by the school board of the Organizational Unit.

"Substitute teacher" means an individual teacher or teaching assistant who is employed by an Organizational Unit and is temporarily serving the Organizational Unit on a per diem or per period-assignment basis to replace another staff member.

"Summer school" means academic and enrichment programs provided to students during the summer months outside of the regular school year.

"Supervisory aide" means a non-licensed staff member who helps in supervising students of an Organizational Unit, but does so outside of the classroom, in situations such as, but not limited to, monitoring hallways and playgrounds, supervising lunchrooms, or supervising students when being transported in buses serving the Organizational Unit.

"Target Ratio" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (g).

"Tier 1", "Tier 2", "Tier 3", and "Tier 4" are defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (g).

"Tier 1 Aggregate Funding", "Tier 2 Aggregate Funding", "Tier 3 Aggregate Funding", and "Tier 4 Aggregate Funding" are defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (g).

(b) Adequacy Target calculation.

(1) Each Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target is the sum of the Organizational Unit's cost of providing Essential Elements, as calculated in accordance with this subsection (b), with the salary amounts in the Essential Elements multiplied by a Regionalization Factor calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (b).

(2) The Essential Elements are attributable on a pro rata basis related to defined subgroups of the ASE of each Organizational Unit as specified in this paragraph (2), with investments and FTE positions pro rata funded based on ASE counts in excess of or less than the thresholds set forth in this paragraph (2). The method for calculating attributable pro rata costs and the defined subgroups thereto are as follows:

(A) Core class size investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding required to support that number of FTE core teacher positions as is needed to keep the respective class sizes of the Organizational Unit to the following maximum numbers:

(i) For grades kindergarten through 3, the Organizational Unit shall receive funding required to support one FTE core teacher position for every 15 Low-Income Count students in those grades and one FTE core teacher position for every 20 non-Low-Income Count students in those grades.

(ii) For grades 4 through 12, the Organizational Unit shall receive funding required to support one FTE core teacher position for every 20 Low-Income Count students in those grades and one FTE core teacher position for every 25 non-Low-Income Count students in those grades.

The number of non-Low-Income Count students in a grade shall be determined by subtracting the Low-Income students in that grade from the ASE of the Organizational Unit for that grade.

(B) Specialist teacher investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover that number of FTE specialist teacher positions that correspond to the following percentages:

(i) if the Organizational Unit operates an elementary or middle school, then 20.00% of the number of the Organizational Unit's core teachers, as determined under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (2); and

(ii) if such Organizational Unit operates a high school, then 33.33% of the number of the Organizational Unit's core teachers.

(C) Instructional facilitator investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE instructional facilitator position for every 200 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students of the Organizational Unit.

(D) Core intervention teacher (tutor) investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE teacher position for each prototypical elementary, middle, and high school.

(E) Substitute teacher investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover substitute teacher costs that is equal to 5.70% of the minimum pupil attendance days required under Section 10-19 of this Code for all full-time equivalent core, specialist, and intervention teachers, school nurses, special education teachers and instructional assistants, instructional facilitators, and summer school and extended day teacher positions, as determined under this paragraph (2), at a salary rate of 33.33% of the average salary for grade K through 12 teachers and 33.33% of the average salary of each instructional assistant position.

(F) Core school counselor investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE school counselor for each 450 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE school counselor for each 250 grades 6 through 8 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE school counselor for each 250 grades 9 through 12 ASE high school students.

(G) Nurse investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE nurse for each 750 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students across all grade levels it serves.

(H) Supervisory aide investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE for each 225 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE for each 225 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE for each 200 ASE high school students.

(I) Librarian investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE librarian for each prototypical elementary school, middle school, and high school and one FTE aide or media technician for every 300 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students.

(J) Principal investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE principal position for each prototypical elementary school, plus one FTE principal position for each prototypical middle school, plus one FTE principal position for each prototypical high school.

(K) Assistant principal investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical elementary school, plus one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical middle school, plus one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical high school.

(L) School site staff investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed for one FTE position for each 225 ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE position for each 225 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE position for each 200 ASE high school students.

(M) Gifted investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $40 per kindergarten through grade 12 ASE.

(N) Professional development investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $125 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students for trainers and other professional development-related expenses for supplies and materials.

(O) Instructional material investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $190 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover instructional material costs.

(P) Assessment investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $25 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover assessment costs.

(Q) Computer technology and equipment investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $285.50 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover computer technology and equipment costs. For the 2018-2019 school year and subsequent school years, Organizational Units assigned to Tier 1 and Tier 2 in the prior school year shall receive an additional $285.50 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover computer technology and equipment costs in the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target. The State Board may establish additional requirements for Organizational Unit expenditures of funds received pursuant to this subparagraph (Q), including a requirement that funds received pursuant to this subparagraph (Q) may be used only for serving the technology needs of the district. It is the intent of Public Act 100-465 that all Tier 1 and Tier 2 districts receive the addition to their Adequacy Target in the following year, subject to compliance with the requirements of the State Board.

(R) Student activities investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the following funding amounts to cover student activities: $100 per kindergarten through grade 5 ASE student in elementary school, plus $200 per ASE student in middle school, plus $675 per ASE student in high school.

(S) Maintenance and operations investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $1,038 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students for day-to-day maintenance and operations expenditures, including salary, supplies, and materials, as well as purchased services, but excluding employee benefits. The proportion of salary for the application of a Regionalization Factor and the calculation of benefits is equal to $352.92.

(T) Central office investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $742 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover central office operations, including administrators and classified personnel charged with managing the instructional programs, business and operations of the school district, and security personnel. The proportion of salary for the application of a Regionalization Factor and the calculation of benefits is equal to $368.48.

(U) Employee benefit investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive 30% of the total of all salary-calculated elements of the Adequacy Target, excluding substitute teachers and student activities investments, to cover benefit costs. For central office and maintenance and operations investments, the benefit calculation shall be based upon the salary proportion of each investment. If at any time the responsibility for funding the employer normal cost of teacher pensions is assigned to school districts, then that amount certified by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois to be paid by the Organizational Unit for the preceding school year shall be added to the benefit investment. For any fiscal year in which a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code is responsible for paying the employer normal cost of teacher pensions, then that amount of its employer normal cost plus the amount for retiree health insurance as certified by the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago to be paid by the school district for the preceding school year that is statutorily required to cover employer normal costs and the amount for retiree health insurance shall be added to the 30% specified in this subparagraph (U). The Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois and the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago shall submit such information as the State Superintendent may require for the calculations set forth in this subparagraph (U).

(V) Additional investments in low-income students. In addition to and not in lieu of all other funding under this paragraph (2), each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover the costs of:

(i) one FTE intervention teacher (tutor) position for every 125 Low-Income Count students;

(ii) one FTE pupil support staff position for every 125 Low-Income Count students;

(iii) one FTE extended day teacher position for every 120 Low-Income Count students; and

(iv) one FTE summer school teacher position for every 120 Low-Income Count students.

(W) Additional investments in English learner students. In addition to and not in lieu of all other funding under this paragraph (2), each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover the costs of:

(i) one FTE intervention teacher (tutor) position for every 125 English learner students;

(ii) one FTE pupil support staff position for every 125 English learner students;

(iii) one FTE extended day teacher position for every 120 English learner students;

(iv) one FTE summer school teacher position for every 120 English learner students; and

(v) one FTE core teacher position for every 100 English learner students.

(X) Special education investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover special education as follows:

(i) one FTE teacher position for every 141 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students;

(ii) one FTE instructional assistant for every 141 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students; and

(iii) one FTE psychologist position for every 1,000 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students.

(3) For calculating the salaries included within the Essential Elements, the State Superintendent shall annually calculate average salaries to the nearest dollar using the employment information system data maintained by the State Board, limited to public schools only and excluding special education and vocational cooperatives, schools operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice, and charter schools, for the following positions:

(A) Teacher for grades K through 8.

(B) Teacher for grades 9 through 12.

(C) Teacher for grades K through 12.

(D) School counselor for grades K through 8.

(E) School counselor for grades 9 through 12.

(F) School counselor for grades K through 12.

(G) Social worker.

(H) Psychologist.

(I) Librarian.

(J) Nurse.

(K) Principal.

(L) Assistant principal.

For the purposes of this paragraph (3), "teacher" includes core teachers, specialist and elective teachers, instructional facilitators, tutors, special education teachers, pupil support staff teachers, English learner teachers, extended day teachers, and summer school teachers. Where specific grade data is not required for the Essential Elements, the average salary for corresponding positions shall apply. For substitute teachers, the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 shall apply.

For calculating the salaries included within the Essential Elements for positions not included within EIS Data, the following salaries shall be used in the first year of implementation of Evidence-Based Funding:

(i) school site staff, $30,000; and

(ii) non-instructional assistant, instructional assistant, library aide, library media tech, or supervisory aide: $25,000.

In the second and subsequent years of implementation of Evidence-Based Funding, the amounts in items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph (3) shall annually increase by the ECI.

The salary amounts for the Essential Elements determined pursuant to subparagraphs (A) through (L), (S) and (T), and (V) through (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section shall be multiplied by a Regionalization Factor.

(c) Local Capacity calculation.

(1) Each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity represents an amount of funding it is assumed to contribute toward its Adequacy Target for purposes of the Evidence-Based Funding formula calculation. "Local Capacity" means either (i) the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target as calculated in accordance with paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) if its Real Receipts are equal to or less than its Local Capacity Target or (ii) the Organizational Unit's Adjusted Local Capacity, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) if Real Receipts are more than its Local Capacity Target.

(2) "Local Capacity Target" means, for an Organizational Unit, that dollar amount that is obtained by multiplying its Adequacy Target by its Local Capacity Ratio.

(A) An Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Percentage is the conversion of the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio, as such ratio is determined in accordance with subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (2), into a cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking to determine each Organizational Unit's relative position to all other Organizational Units in this State. The calculation of Local Capacity Percentage is described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (2).

(B) An Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio in a given year is the percentage obtained by dividing its Adjusted EAV or PTELL EAV, whichever is less, by its Adequacy Target, with the resulting ratio further adjusted as follows:

(i) for Organizational Units serving grades kindergarten through 12 and Hybrid Districts, no further adjustments shall be made;

(ii) for Organizational Units serving grades kindergarten through 8, the ratio shall be multiplied by 9/13;

(iii) for Organizational Units serving grades 9 through 12, the Local Capacity Ratio shall be multiplied by 4/13; and

(iv) for an Organizational Unit with a different grade configuration than those specified in items (i) through (iii) of this subparagraph (B), the State Superintendent shall determine a comparable adjustment based on the grades served.

(C) The Local Capacity Percentage is equal to the percentile ranking of the district. Local Capacity Percentage converts each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio to a cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking to determine each Organizational Unit's relative position to all other Organizational Units in this State. The Local Capacity Percentage cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking for each Organizational Unit shall be calculated using the standard normal distribution of the score in relation to the weighted mean and weighted standard deviation and Local Capacity Ratios of all Organizational Units. If the value assigned to any Organizational Unit is in excess of 90%, the value shall be adjusted to 90%. For Laboratory Schools, the Local Capacity Percentage shall be set at 10% in recognition of the absence of EAV and resources from the public university that are allocated to the Laboratory School. For programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center, the Local Capacity Percentage must be set at 10% in recognition of the absence of EAV and resources from school districts that are allocated to the regional office of education or intermediate service center. The weighted mean for the Local Capacity Percentage shall be determined by multiplying each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio times the ASE for the unit creating a weighted value, summing the weighted values of all Organizational Units, and dividing by the total ASE of all Organizational Units. The weighted standard deviation shall be determined by taking the square root of the weighted variance of all Organizational Units' Local Capacity Ratio, where the variance is calculated by squaring the difference between each unit's Local Capacity Ratio and the weighted mean, then multiplying the variance for each unit times the ASE for the unit to create a weighted variance for each unit, then summing all units' weighted variance and dividing by the total ASE of all units.

(D) For any Organizational Unit, the Organizational Unit's Adjusted Local Capacity Target shall be reduced by either (i) the school board's remaining contribution pursuant to paragraph (ii) of subsection (b-4) of Section 16-158 of the Illinois Pension Code in a given year or (ii) the board of education's remaining contribution pursuant to paragraph (iv) of subsection (b) of Section 17-129 of the Illinois Pension Code absent the employer normal cost portion of the required contribution and amount allowed pursuant to subdivision (3) of Section 17-142.1 of the Illinois Pension Code in a given year. In the preceding sentence, item (i) shall be certified to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois and item (ii) shall be certified to the State Board of Education by the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of the City of Chicago.

(3) If an Organizational Unit's Real Receipts are more than its Local Capacity Target, then its Local Capacity shall equal an Adjusted Local Capacity Target as calculated in accordance with this paragraph (3). The Adjusted Local Capacity Target is calculated as the sum of the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target and its Real Receipts Adjustment. The Real Receipts Adjustment equals the Organizational Unit's Real Receipts less its Local Capacity Target, with the resulting figure multiplied by the Local Capacity Percentage.

As used in this paragraph (3), "Real Percent of Adequacy" means the sum of an Organizational Unit's Real Receipts, CPPRT, and Base Funding Minimum, with the resulting figure divided by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target.

(d) Calculation of Real Receipts, EAV, and Adjusted EAV for purposes of the Local Capacity calculation.

(1) An Organizational Unit's Real Receipts are the product of its Applicable Tax Rate and its Adjusted EAV. An Organizational Unit's Applicable Tax Rate is its Adjusted Operating Tax Rate for property within the Organizational Unit.

(2) The State Superintendent shall calculate the equalized assessed valuation, or EAV, of all taxable property of each Organizational Unit as of September 30 of the previous year in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (d). The State Superintendent shall then determine the Adjusted EAV of each Organizational Unit in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), which Adjusted EAV figure shall be used for the purposes of calculating Local Capacity.

(3) To calculate Real Receipts and EAV, the Department of Revenue shall supply to the State Superintendent the value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue of all taxable property of every Organizational Unit, together with (i) the applicable tax rate used in extending taxes for the funds of the Organizational Unit as of September 30 of the previous year and (ii) the limiting rate for all Organizational Units subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under PTELL.

(A) The Department of Revenue shall add to the equalized assessed value of all taxable property of each Organizational Unit situated entirely or partially within a county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code (i) an amount equal to the total amount by which the homestead exemption allowed under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code for real property situated in that Organizational Unit exceeds the total amount that would have been allowed in that Organizational Unit if the maximum reduction under Section 15-176 was (I) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003 or (II) $5,000 in all counties in tax year 2004 and thereafter and (ii) an amount equal to the aggregate amount for the taxable year of all additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. The county clerk of any county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code shall annually calculate and certify to the Department of Revenue for each Organizational Unit all homestead exemption amounts under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and all amounts of additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. It is the intent of this subparagraph (A) that if the general homestead exemption for a parcel of property is determined under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code rather than Section 15-175, then the calculation of EAV shall not be affected by the difference, if any, between the amount of the general homestead exemption allowed for that parcel of property under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and the amount that would have been allowed had the general homestead exemption for that parcel of property been determined under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code. It is further the intent of this subparagraph (A) that if additional exemptions are allowed under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of less than $30,000, then the calculation of EAV shall not be affected by the difference, if any, because of those additional exemptions.

(B) With respect to any part of an Organizational Unit within a redevelopment project area in respect to which a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, Division 74.4 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law, Division 74.6 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code, no part of the current EAV of real property located in any such project area that is attributable to an increase above the total initial EAV of such property shall be used as part of the EAV of the Organizational Unit, until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid, as provided in Section 11-74.4-8 of the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act or in Section 11-74.6-35 of the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law. For the purpose of the EAV of the Organizational Unit, the total initial EAV or the current EAV, whichever is lower, shall be used until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid.

(B-5) The real property equalized assessed valuation for a school district shall be adjusted by subtracting from the real property value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, for the district an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under Section 18-170 of the Property Tax Code by 3.00% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, by 2.30% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, or by 1.05% for a district maintaining grades 9 through 12 and adjusted by an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under subsection (a) of Section 18-165 of the Property Tax Code by the same percentage rates for district type as specified in this subparagraph (B-5).

(C) For Organizational Units that are Hybrid Districts, the State Superintendent shall use the lesser of the adjusted equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for elementary purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, or the adjusted equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for high school purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code.

(D) If a school district's boundaries span multiple counties, then the Department of Revenue shall send to the State Board, for the purposes of calculating Evidence-Based Funding, the limiting rate and individual rates by purpose for the county that contains the majority of the school district's equalized assessed valuation.

(4) An Organizational Unit's Adjusted EAV shall be the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 3 years or the lesser of its EAV in the immediately preceding year or the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 3 years if the EAV in the immediately preceding year has declined by 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years. In the event of Organizational Unit reorganization, consolidation, or annexation, the Organizational Unit's Adjusted EAV for the first 3 years after such change shall be as follows: the most current EAV shall be used in the first year, the average of a 2-year EAV or its EAV in the immediately preceding year if the EAV declines by 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years for the second year, and the lesser of a 3-year average EAV or its EAV in the immediately preceding year if the Adjusted EAV declines by 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years for the third year. For any school district whose EAV in the immediately preceding year is used in calculations, in the following year, the Adjusted EAV shall be the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 2 years or the immediately preceding year if that year represents a decline of 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years.

"PTELL EAV" means a figure calculated by the State Board for Organizational Units subject to PTELL as described in this paragraph (4) for the purposes of calculating an Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (4), the PTELL EAV of an Organizational Unit shall be equal to the product of the equalized assessed valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) or Evidence-Based Funding under this Section and the Organizational Unit's Extension Limitation Ratio. If an Organizational Unit has approved or does approve an increase in its limiting rate, pursuant to Section 18-190 of the Property Tax Code, affecting the Base Tax Year, the PTELL EAV shall be equal to the product of the equalized assessed valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) or Evidence-Based Funding under this Section multiplied by an amount equal to one plus the percentage increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor for the 12-month calendar year preceding the Base Tax Year, plus the equalized assessed valuation of new property, annexed property, and recovered tax increment value and minus the equalized assessed valuation of disconnected property.

As used in this paragraph (4), "new property" and "recovered tax increment value" shall have the meanings set forth in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

(e) Base Funding Minimum calculation.

(1) For the 2017-2018 school year, the Base Funding Minimum of an Organizational Unit or a Specially Funded Unit shall be the amount of State funds distributed to the Organizational Unit or Specially Funded Unit during the 2016-2017 school year prior to any adjustments and specified appropriation amounts described in this paragraph (1) from the following Sections, as calculated by the State Superintendent: Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed); Section 5 of Article 224 of Public Act 99-524 (equity grants); Section 14-7.02b of this Code (funding for children requiring special education services); Section 14-13.01 of this Code (special education facilities and staffing), except for reimbursement of the cost of transportation pursuant to Section 14-13.01; Section 14C-12 of this Code (English learners); and Section 18-4.3 of this Code (summer school), based on an appropriation level of $13,121,600. For a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code, the Base Funding Minimum also includes (i) the funds allocated to the school district pursuant to Section 1D-1 of this Code attributable to funding programs authorized by the Sections of this Code listed in the preceding sentence and (ii) the difference between (I) the funds allocated to the school district pursuant to Section 1D-1 of this Code attributable to the funding programs authorized by Section 14-7.02 (non-public special education reimbursement), subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 (special education transportation), Section 29-5 (transportation), Section 2-3.80 (agricultural education), Section 2-3.66 (truants' alternative education), Section 2-3.62 (educational service centers), and Section 14-7.03 (special education - orphanage) of this Code and Section 15 of the Childhood Hunger Relief Act (free breakfast program) and (II) the school district's actual expenditures for its non-public special education, special education transportation, transportation programs, agricultural education, truants' alternative education, services that would otherwise be performed by a regional office of education, special education orphanage expenditures, and free breakfast, as most recently calculated and reported pursuant to subsection (f) of Section 1D-1 of this Code. The Base Funding Minimum for Glenwood Academy shall be $952,014. For programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center, the Base Funding Minimum must be the total amount of State funds allocated to those programs in the 2018-2019 school year and amounts provided pursuant to Article 34 of Public Act 100-586 and Section 3-16 of this Code. All programs established after June 5, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-10) and administered by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must have an initial Base Funding Minimum set to an amount equal to the first-year ASE multiplied by the amount of per pupil funding received in the previous school year by the lowest funded similar existing program type. If the enrollment for a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center is zero, then it may not receive Base Funding Minimum funds for that program in the next fiscal year, and those funds must be distributed to Organizational Units under subsection (g).

(2) For the 2018-2019 and subsequent school years, the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units and Specially Funded Units shall be the sum of (i) the amount of Evidence-Based Funding for the prior school year, (ii) the Base Funding Minimum for the prior school year, and (iii) any amount received by a school district pursuant to Section 7 of Article 97 of Public Act 100-21.

For the 2022-2023 school year, the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units shall be the amounts recalculated by the State Board of Education for Fiscal Year 2019 through Fiscal Year 2022 that were necessary due to average student enrollment errors for districts organized under Article 34 of this Code, plus the Fiscal Year 2022 property tax relief grants provided under Section 2-3.170 of this Code, ensuring each Organizational Unit has the correct amount of resources for Fiscal Year 2023 Evidence-Based Funding calculations and that Fiscal Year 2023 Evidence-Based Funding Distributions are made in accordance with this Section.

(3) Subject to approval by the General Assembly as provided in this paragraph (3), an Organizational Unit that meets all of the following criteria, as determined by the State Board, shall have District Intervention Money added to its Base Funding Minimum at the time the Base Funding Minimum is calculated by the State Board:

(A) The Organizational Unit is operating under an Independent Authority under Section 2-3.25f-5 of this Code for a minimum of 4 school years or is subject to the control of the State Board pursuant to a court order for a minimum of 4 school years.

(B) The Organizational Unit was designated as a Tier 1 or Tier 2 Organizational Unit in the previous school year under paragraph (3) of subsection (g) of this Section.

(C) The Organizational Unit demonstrates sustainability through a 5-year financial and strategic plan.

(D) The Organizational Unit has made sufficient progress and achieved sufficient stability in the areas of governance, academic growth, and finances.

As part of its determination under this paragraph (3), the State Board may consider the Organizational Unit's summative designation, any accreditations of the Organizational Unit, or the Organizational Unit's financial profile, as calculated by the State Board.

If the State Board determines that an Organizational Unit has met the criteria set forth in this paragraph (3), it must submit a report to the General Assembly, no later than January 2 of the fiscal year in which the State Board makes it determination, on the amount of District Intervention Money to add to the Organizational Unit's Base Funding Minimum. The General Assembly must review the State Board's report and may approve or disapprove, by joint resolution, the addition of District Intervention Money. If the General Assembly fails to act on the report within 40 calendar days from the receipt of the report, the addition of District Intervention Money is deemed approved. If the General Assembly approves the amount of District Intervention Money to be added to the Organizational Unit's Base Funding Minimum, the District Intervention Money must be added to the Base Funding Minimum annually thereafter.

For the first 4 years following the initial year that the State Board determines that an Organizational Unit has met the criteria set forth in this paragraph (3) and has received funding under this Section, the Organizational Unit must annually submit to the State Board, on or before November 30, a progress report regarding its financial and strategic plan under subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (3). The plan shall include the financial data from the past 4 annual financial reports or financial audits that must be presented to the State Board by November 15 of each year and the approved budget financial data for the current year. The plan shall be developed according to the guidelines presented to the Organizational Unit by the State Board. The plan shall further include financial projections for the next 3 fiscal years and include a discussion and financial summary of the Organizational Unit's facility needs. If the Organizational Unit does not demonstrate sufficient progress toward its 5-year plan or if it has failed to file an annual financial report, an annual budget, a financial plan, a deficit reduction plan, or other financial information as required by law, the State Board may establish a Financial Oversight Panel under Article 1H of this Code. However, if the Organizational Unit already has a Financial Oversight Panel, the State Board may extend the duration of the Panel.

(f) Percent of Adequacy and Final Resources calculation.

(1) The Evidence-Based Funding formula establishes a Percent of Adequacy for each Organizational Unit in order to place such units into tiers for the purposes of the funding distribution system described in subsection (g) of this Section. Initially, an Organizational Unit's Preliminary Resources and Preliminary Percent of Adequacy are calculated pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection (f). Then, an Organizational Unit's Final Resources and Final Percent of Adequacy are calculated to account for the Organizational Unit's poverty concentration levels pursuant to paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (f).

(2) An Organizational Unit's Preliminary Resources are equal to the sum of its Local Capacity Target, CPPRT, and Base Funding Minimum. An Organizational Unit's Preliminary Percent of Adequacy is the lesser of (i) its Preliminary Resources divided by its Adequacy Target or (ii) 100%.

(3) Except for Specially Funded Units, an Organizational Unit's Final Resources are equal to the sum of its Local Capacity, CPPRT, and Adjusted Base Funding Minimum. The Base Funding Minimum of each Specially Funded Unit shall serve as its Final Resources, except that the Base Funding Minimum for State-approved charter schools shall not include any portion of general State aid allocated in the prior year based on the per capita tuition charge times the charter school enrollment.

(4) An Organizational Unit's Final Percent of Adequacy is its Final Resources divided by its Adequacy Target. An Organizational Unit's Adjusted Base Funding Minimum is equal to its Base Funding Minimum less its Supplemental Grant Funding, with the resulting figure added to the product of its Supplemental Grant Funding and Preliminary Percent of Adequacy.

(g) Evidence-Based Funding formula distribution system.

(1) In each school year under the Evidence-Based Funding formula, each Organizational Unit receives funding equal to the sum of its Base Funding Minimum and the unit's allocation of New State Funds determined pursuant to this subsection (g). To allocate New State Funds, the Evidence-Based Funding formula distribution system first places all Organizational Units into one of 4 tiers in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), based on the Organizational Unit's Final Percent of Adequacy. New State Funds are allocated to each of the 4 tiers as follows: Tier 1 Aggregate Funding equals 50% of all New State Funds, Tier 2 Aggregate Funding equals 49% of all New State Funds, Tier 3 Aggregate Funding equals 0.9% of all New State Funds, and Tier 4 Aggregate Funding equals 0.1% of all New State Funds. Each Organizational Unit within Tier 1 or Tier 2 receives an allocation of New State Funds equal to its tier Funding Gap, as defined in the following sentence, multiplied by the tier's Allocation Rate determined pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (g). For Tier 1, an Organizational Unit's Funding Gap equals the tier's Target Ratio, as specified in paragraph (5) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target, with the resulting amount reduced by the Organizational Unit's Final Resources. For Tier 2, an Organizational Unit's Funding Gap equals the tier's Target Ratio, as described in paragraph (5) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target, with the resulting amount reduced by the Organizational Unit's Final Resources and its Tier 1 funding allocation. To determine the Organizational Unit's Funding Gap, the resulting amount is then multiplied by a factor equal to one minus the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target percentage. Each Organizational Unit within Tier 3 or Tier 4 receives an allocation of New State Funds equal to the product of its Adequacy Target and the tier's Allocation Rate, as specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection (g).

(2) To ensure equitable distribution of dollars for all Tier 2 Organizational Units, no Tier 2 Organizational Unit shall receive fewer dollars per ASE than any Tier 3 Organizational Unit. Each Tier 2 and Tier 3 Organizational Unit shall have its funding allocation divided by its ASE. Any Tier 2 Organizational Unit with a funding allocation per ASE below the greatest Tier 3 allocation per ASE shall get a funding allocation equal to the greatest Tier 3 funding allocation per ASE multiplied by the Organizational Unit's ASE. Each Tier 2 Organizational Unit's Tier 2 funding allocation shall be multiplied by the percentage calculated by dividing the original Tier 2 Aggregate Funding by the sum of all Tier 2 Organizational Units' Tier 2 funding allocation after adjusting districts' funding below Tier 3 levels.

(3) Organizational Units are placed into one of 4 tiers as follows:

(A) Tier 1 consists of all Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy less than the Tier 1 Target Ratio. The Tier 1 Target Ratio is the ratio level that allows for Tier 1 Aggregate Funding to be distributed, with the Tier 1 Allocation Rate determined pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (g).

(B) Tier 2 consists of all Tier 1 Units and all other Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy of less than 0.90.

(C) Tier 3 consists of all Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy of at least 0.90 and less than 1.0.

(D) Tier 4 consists of all Organizational Units with a Percent of Adequacy of at least 1.0.

(4) The Allocation Rates for Tiers 1 through 4 are determined as follows:

(A) The Tier 1 Allocation Rate is 30%.

(B) The Tier 2 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 2 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Funding Gaps for all Tier 2 Organizational Units, unless the result of such equation is higher than 1.0. If the result of such equation is higher than 1.0, then the Tier 2 Allocation Rate is 1.0.

(C) The Tier 3 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 3 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Tier 3 Organizational Units.

(D) The Tier 4 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 4 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Tier 4 Organizational Units.

(5) A tier's Target Ratio is determined as follows:

(A) The Tier 1 Target Ratio is the ratio level that allows for Tier 1 Aggregate Funding to be distributed with the Tier 1 Allocation Rate.

(B) The Tier 2 Target Ratio is 0.90.

(C) The Tier 3 Target Ratio is 1.0.

(6) If, at any point, the Tier 1 Target Ratio is greater than 90%, then all Tier 1 funding shall be allocated to Tier 2 and no Tier 1 Organizational Unit's funding may be identified.

(7) In the event that all Tier 2 Organizational Units receive funding at the Tier 2 Target Ratio level, any remaining New State Funds shall be allocated to Tier 3 and Tier 4 Organizational Units.

(8) If any Specially Funded Units, excluding Glenwood Academy, recognized by the State Board do not qualify for direct funding following the implementation of Public Act 100-465 from any of the funding sources included within the definition of Base Funding Minimum, the unqualified portion of the Base Funding Minimum shall be transferred to one or more appropriate Organizational Units as determined by the State Superintendent based on the prior year ASE of the Organizational Units.

(8.5) If a school district withdraws from a special education cooperative, the portion of the Base Funding Minimum that is attributable to the school district may be redistributed to the school district upon withdrawal. The school district and the cooperative must include the amount of the Base Funding Minimum that is to be reapportioned in their withdrawal agreement and notify the State Board of the change with a copy of the agreement upon withdrawal.

(9) The Minimum Funding Level is intended to establish a target for State funding that will keep pace with inflation and continue to advance equity through the Evidence-Based Funding formula. The target for State funding of New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds is $50,000,000 for State fiscal year 2019 and subsequent State fiscal years. The Minimum Funding Level is equal to $350,000,000. In addition to any New State Funds, no more than $50,000,000 New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds may be counted toward the Minimum Funding Level. If the sum of New State Funds and applicable New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds are less than the Minimum Funding Level, than funding for tiers shall be reduced in the following manner:

(A) First, Tier 4 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds until such time as Tier 4 funding is exhausted.

(B) Next, Tier 3 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 4 funding until such time as Tier 3 funding is exhausted.

(C) Next, Tier 2 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 4 and Tier 3.

(D) Finally, Tier 1 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 2, 3, and 4 funding. In addition, the Allocation Rate for Tier 1 shall be reduced to a percentage equal to the Tier 1 Allocation Rate set by paragraph (4) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the result of New State Funds divided by the Minimum Funding Level.

(9.5) For State fiscal year 2019 and subsequent State fiscal years, if New State Funds exceed $300,000,000, then any amount in excess of $300,000,000 shall be dedicated for purposes of Section 2-3.170 of this Code up to a maximum of $50,000,000.

(10) In the event of a decrease in the amount of the appropriation for this Section in any fiscal year after implementation of this Section, the Organizational Units receiving Tier 1 and Tier 2 funding, as determined under paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), shall be held harmless by establishing a Base Funding Guarantee equal to the per pupil kindergarten through grade 12 funding received in accordance with this Section in the prior fiscal year. Reductions shall be made to the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units in Tier 3 and Tier 4 on a per pupil basis equivalent to the total number of the ASE in Tier 3-funded and Tier 4-funded Organizational Units divided by the total reduction in State funding. The Base Funding Minimum as reduced shall continue to be applied to Tier 3 and Tier 4 Organizational Units and adjusted by the relative formula when increases in appropriations for this Section resume. In no event may State funding reductions to Organizational Units in Tier 3 or Tier 4 exceed an amount that would be less than the Base Funding Minimum established in the first year of implementation of this Section. If additional reductions are required, all school districts shall receive a reduction by a per pupil amount equal to the aggregate additional appropriation reduction divided by the total ASE of all Organizational Units.

(11) The State Superintendent shall make minor adjustments to the distribution formula set forth in this subsection (g) to account for the rounding of percentages to the nearest tenth of a percentage and dollar amounts to the nearest whole dollar.

(h) State Superintendent administration of funding and district submission requirements.

(1) The State Superintendent shall, in accordance with appropriations made by the General Assembly, meet the funding obligations created under this Section.

(2) The State Superintendent shall calculate the Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit under this Section. No Evidence-Based Funding shall be distributed within an Organizational Unit without the approval of the unit's school board.

(3) Annually, the State Superintendent shall calculate and report to each Organizational Unit the unit's aggregate financial adequacy amount, which shall be the sum of the Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit. The State Superintendent shall calculate and report separately for each Organizational Unit the unit's total State funds allocated for its students with disabilities. The State Superintendent shall calculate and report separately for each Organizational Unit the amount of funding and applicable FTE calculated for each Essential Element of the unit's Adequacy Target.

(4) Annually, the State Superintendent shall calculate and report to each Organizational Unit the amount the unit must expend on special education and bilingual education and computer technology and equipment for Organizational Units assigned to Tier 1 or Tier 2 that received an additional $285.50 per student computer technology and equipment investment grant to their Adequacy Target pursuant to the unit's Base Funding Minimum, Special Education Allocation, Bilingual Education Allocation, and computer technology and equipment investment allocation.

(5) Moneys distributed under this Section shall be calculated on a school year basis, but paid on a fiscal year basis, with payments beginning in August and extending through June. Unless otherwise provided, the moneys appropriated for each fiscal year shall be distributed in 22 equal payments at least 2 times monthly to each Organizational Unit. If moneys appropriated for any fiscal year are distributed other than monthly, the distribution shall be on the same basis for each Organizational Unit.

(6) Any school district that fails, for any given school year, to maintain school as required by law or to maintain a recognized school is not eligible to receive Evidence-Based Funding. In case of non-recognition of one or more attendance centers in a school district otherwise operating recognized schools, the claim of the district shall be reduced in the proportion that the enrollment in the attendance center or centers bears to the enrollment of the school district. "Recognized school" means any public school that meets the standards for recognition by the State Board. A school district or attendance center not having recognition status at the end of a school term is entitled to receive State aid payments due upon a legal claim that was filed while it was recognized.

(7) School district claims filed under this Section are subject to Sections 18-9 and 18-12 of this Code, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(8) Each fiscal year, the State Superintendent shall calculate for each Organizational Unit an amount of its Base Funding Minimum and Evidence-Based Funding that shall be deemed attributable to the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, in a manner that ensures compliance with maintenance of State financial support requirements under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. An Organizational Unit must use such funds only for the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, and must comply with any expenditure verification procedures adopted by the State Board.

(9) All Organizational Units in this State must submit annual spending plans, as part of the budget submission process, no later than October 31 of each year to the State Board. The spending plan shall describe how each Organizational Unit will utilize the Base Funding Minimum and Evidence-Based Funding it receives from this State under this Section with specific identification of the intended utilization of Low-Income, English learner, and special education resources. Additionally, the annual spending plans of each Organizational Unit shall describe how the Organizational Unit expects to achieve student growth and how the Organizational Unit will achieve State education goals, as defined by the State Board. The State Superintendent may, from time to time, identify additional requisites for Organizational Units to satisfy when compiling the annual spending plans required under this subsection (h). The format and scope of annual spending plans shall be developed by the State Superintendent and the State Board of Education. School districts that serve students under Article 14C of this Code shall continue to submit information as required under Section 14C-12 of this Code.

(10) No later than January 1, 2018, the State Superintendent shall develop a 5-year strategic plan for all Organizational Units to help in planning for adequacy funding under this Section. The State Superintendent shall submit the plan to the Governor and the General Assembly, as provided in Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act. The plan shall include recommendations for:

(A) a framework for collaborative, professional, innovative, and 21st century learning environments using the Evidence-Based Funding model;

(B) ways to prepare and support this State's educators for successful instructional careers;

(C) application and enhancement of the current financial accountability measures, the approved State plan to comply with the federal Every Student Succeeds Act, and the Illinois Balanced Accountability Measures in relation to student growth and elements of the Evidence-Based Funding model; and

(D) implementation of an effective school adequacy funding system based on projected and recommended funding levels from the General Assembly.

(11) On an annual basis, the State Superintendent must recalibrate all of the following per pupil elements of the Adequacy Target and applied to the formulas, based on the study of average expenses and as reported in the most recent annual financial report:

(A) Gifted under subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(B) Instructional materials under subparagraph (O) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(C) Assessment under subparagraph (P) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(D) Student activities under subparagraph (R) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(E) Maintenance and operations under subparagraph (S) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(F) Central office under subparagraph (T) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(i) Professional Review Panel.

(1) A Professional Review Panel is created to study and review topics related to the implementation and effect of Evidence-Based Funding, as assigned by a joint resolution or Public Act of the General Assembly or a motion passed by the State Board of Education. The Panel must provide recommendations to and serve the Governor, the General Assembly, and the State Board. The State Superintendent or his or her designee must serve as a voting member and chairperson of the Panel. The State Superintendent must appoint a vice chairperson from the membership of the Panel. The Panel must advance recommendations based on a three-fifths majority vote of Panel members present and voting. A minority opinion may also accompany any recommendation of the Panel. The Panel shall be appointed by the State Superintendent, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (i) and include the following members:

(A) Two appointees that represent district superintendents, recommended by a statewide organization that represents district superintendents.

(B) Two appointees that represent school boards, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school boards.

(C) Two appointees from districts that represent school business officials, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school business officials.

(D) Two appointees that represent school principals, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school principals.

(E) Two appointees that represent teachers, recommended by a statewide organization that represents teachers.

(F) Two appointees that represent teachers, recommended by another statewide organization that represents teachers.

(G) Two appointees that represent regional superintendents of schools, recommended by organizations that represent regional superintendents.

(H) Two independent experts selected solely by the State Superintendent.

(I) Two independent experts recommended by public universities in this State.

(J) One member recommended by a statewide organization that represents parents.

(K) Two representatives recommended by collective impact organizations that represent major metropolitan areas or geographic areas in Illinois.

(L) One member from a statewide organization focused on research-based education policy to support a school system that prepares all students for college, a career, and democratic citizenship.

(M) One representative from a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code.

The State Superintendent shall ensure that the membership of the Panel includes representatives from school districts and communities reflecting the geographic, socio-economic, racial, and ethnic diversity of this State. The State Superintendent shall additionally ensure that the membership of the Panel includes representatives with expertise in bilingual education and special education. Staff from the State Board shall staff the Panel.

(2) In addition to those Panel members appointed by the State Superintendent, 4 members of the General Assembly shall be appointed as follows: one member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, one member of the Senate appointed by the President of the Senate, one member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and one member of the Senate appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate. There shall be one additional member appointed by the Governor. All members appointed by legislative leaders or the Governor shall be non-voting, ex officio members.

(3) The Panel must study topics at the direction of the General Assembly or State Board of Education, as provided under paragraph (1). The Panel may also study the following topics at the direction of the chairperson:

(A) The format and scope of annual spending plans referenced in paragraph (9) of subsection (h) of this Section.

(B) The Comparable Wage Index under this Section.

(C) Maintenance and operations, including capital maintenance and construction costs.

(D) "At-risk student" definition.

(E) Benefits.

(F) Technology.

(G) Local Capacity Target.

(H) Funding for Alternative Schools, Laboratory Schools, safe schools, and alternative learning opportunities programs.

(I) Funding for college and career acceleration strategies.

(J) Special education investments.

(K) Early childhood investments, in collaboration with the Illinois Early Learning Council.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Within 5 years after the implementation of this Section, and every 5 years thereafter, the Panel shall complete an evaluative study of the entire Evidence-Based Funding model, including an assessment of whether or not the formula is achieving State goals. The Panel shall report to the State Board, the General Assembly, and the Governor on the findings of the study.

(6) (Blank).

(7) To ensure that (i) the Adequacy Target calculation under subsection (b) accurately reflects the needs of students living in poverty or attending schools located in areas of high poverty, (ii) racial equity within the Evidence-Based Funding formula is explicitly explored and advanced, and (iii) the funding goals of the formula distribution system established under this Section are sufficient to provide adequate funding for every student and to fully fund every school in this State, the Panel shall review the Essential Elements under paragraph (2) of subsection (b). The Panel shall consider all of the following in its review:

(A) The financial ability of school districts to provide instruction in a foreign language to every student and whether an additional Essential Element should be added to the formula to ensure that every student has access to instruction in a foreign language.

(B) The adult-to-student ratio for each Essential Element in which a ratio is identified. The Panel shall consider whether the ratio accurately reflects the staffing needed to support students living in poverty or who have traumatic backgrounds.

(C) Changes to the Essential Elements that may be required to better promote racial equity and eliminate structural racism within schools.

(D) The impact of investing $350,000,000 in additional funds each year under this Section and an estimate of when the school system will become fully funded under this level of appropriation.

(E) Provide an overview of alternative funding structures that would enable the State to become fully funded at an earlier date.

(F) The potential to increase efficiency and to find cost savings within the school system to expedite the journey to a fully funded system.

(G) The appropriate levels for reenrolling and graduating high-risk high school students who have been previously out of school. These outcomes shall include enrollment, attendance, skill gains, credit gains, graduation or promotion to the next grade level, and the transition to college, training, or employment, with an emphasis on progressively increasing the overall attendance.

(H) The evidence-based or research-based practices that are shown to reduce the gaps and disparities experienced by African American students in academic achievement and educational performance, including practices that have been shown to reduce disparities in disciplinary rates, drop-out rates, graduation rates, college matriculation rates, and college completion rates.

On or before December 31, 2021, the Panel shall report to the State Board, the General Assembly, and the Governor on the findings of its review. This paragraph (7) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2022.

(8) On or before April 1, 2024, the Panel must submit a report to the General Assembly on annual adjustments to Glenwood Academy's base-funding minimum in a similar fashion to school districts under this Section.

(j) References. Beginning July 1, 2017, references in other laws to general State aid funds or calculations under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) shall be deemed to be references to evidence-based model formula funds or calculations under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-33, eff. 6-25-21; 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-782, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/19-6) (from Ch. 122, par. 19-6)

Sec. 19-6. Bond money to school treasurer; delivery treasurer - Delivery of bonds; record; payment bonds - Record - Payment. All moneys borrowed under the authority of this Act, except money borrowed by school districts having a population of more than 500,000 inhabitants, shall be paid to the school treasurer of the district. The treasurer shall, before receiving any of the money, execute a bond with a surety company authorized to do business in this State, as surety, payable to the school board of the district in Class I county school units or township trustees in Class II county school units and conditioned upon the faithful discharge of his duties, except that the bond required of the school treasurer of a school district which is located in a Class II county school unit but which no longer is subject to the jurisdiction and authority of a township treasurer or trustees of schools of a township because the district has withdrawn from the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of the township or because those offices have been abolished as provided in subsection (b) or (c) of Section 5-1 shall be payable to the school board of such district and conditioned upon the faithful discharge of his duties. The bond shall be submitted for approval or rejection to the school board of the district or to the township trustees to which such bond is payable. The penalty of the bond or bonds shall be an amount no less than 10% of the amount of such bond issue, whether individuals act as surety or whether the surety is given by a surety company authorized to transact business in this State. The bond shall be in substantially the same form as that required by Section 8-2 of this Act and when so given shall fully describe the bond issue which it specifically covers and shall remain in force until the funds of the bond issue are taken into account in determining the penalty amount for the surety bond required by Section 8-2 of this Code. Upon receiving such moneys the treasurer shall deliver the bonds issued therefor to the persons entitled to receive them, and shall credit the funds received to the district issuing the bonds. The treasurer shall record the amount received for each bond issued. When any bonds are paid the treasurer shall cancel them and shall enter, against the record of the bonds, the words, "paid and cancelled the .... day of ...., 1 ....," filling the blanks with the day, month, and year corresponding to the date of payment.

(Source: P.A. 103-49, eff. 6-9-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-30)

Sec. 21B-30. Educator testing.

(a) (Blank).

(b) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall design and implement a system of examinations, which shall be required prior to the issuance of educator licenses. These examinations and indicators must be based on national and State professional teaching standards, as determined by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The State Board of Education may adopt such rules as may be necessary to implement and administer this Section.

(c) (Blank).

(c-5) The State Board must adopt rules to implement a paraprofessional competency test. This test would allow an applicant seeking an Educator License with Stipulations with a paraprofessional educator endorsement to obtain the endorsement if he or she passes the test and meets the other requirements of subparagraph (J) of paragraph (2) of Section 21B-20 other than the higher education requirements.

(d) All applicants seeking a State license shall be required to pass a test of content area knowledge for each area of endorsement for which there is an applicable test. There shall be no exception to this requirement. No candidate shall be allowed to student teach or serve as the teacher of record until he or she has passed the applicable content area test.

(d-5) The State Board shall consult with any applicable vendors within 90 days after July 28, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-402) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly to develop a plan to transition the test of content area knowledge in the endorsement area of elementary education, grades one through 6, by July 1, 2026 to a content area test that contains testing elements that cover bilingualism, biliteracy, oral language development, foundational literacy skills, and developmentally appropriate higher-order comprehension and on which a valid and reliable language and literacy subscore can be determined. The State Board shall base its rules concerning the passing subscore on the language and literacy portion of the test on the recommended cut-score determined in the formal standard-setting process. Candidates need not achieve a particular subscore in the area of language and literacy. The State Board shall aggregate and publish the number of candidates in each preparation program who take the test and the number who pass the language and literacy portion.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Beginning on August 4, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-488) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly through August 31, 2025, no candidate completing a teacher preparation program in this State or candidate subject to Section 21B-35 of this Code is required to pass a teacher performance assessment. Except as otherwise provided in this Article, beginning on September 1, 2015 until August 4, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-488) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly and beginning again on September 1, 2025, all candidates completing teacher preparation programs in this State and all candidates subject to Section 21B-35 of this Code are required to pass a teacher performance assessment approved by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. A candidate may not be required to submit test materials by video submission. Subject to appropriation, an individual who holds a Professional Educator License and is employed for a minimum of one school year by a school district designated as Tier 1 under Section 18-8.15 may, after application to the State Board, receive from the State Board a refund for any costs associated with completing the teacher performance assessment under this subsection.

(f-5) The Teacher Performance Assessment Task Force is created to evaluate potential performance-based and objective teacher performance assessment systems for implementation across all educator preparation programs in this State, with the intention of ensuring consistency across programs and supporting a thoughtful and well-rounded licensure system. Members appointed to the Task Force must reflect the racial, ethnic, and geographic diversity of this State. The Task Force shall consist of all of the following members:

(1) One member of the Senate, appointed by the President of the Senate.

(2) One member of the Senate, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(3) One member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(4) One member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(5) One member who represents a statewide professional teachers' organization, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(6) One member who represents a different statewide professional teachers' organization, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(7) One member from a statewide organization representing school principals, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(8) One member from a statewide organization representing regional superintendents of schools, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(9) One member from a statewide organization representing school administrators, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(10) One member representing a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(11) One member of an association representing rural and small schools, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(12) One member representing a suburban school district, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(13) One member from a statewide organization representing school districts in the southern suburbs of the City of Chicago, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(14) One member from a statewide organization representing large unit school districts, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(15) One member from a statewide organization representing school districts in the collar counties of the City of Chicago, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(16) Three members, each representing a different public university in this State and each a current member of the faculty of an approved educator preparation program, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(17) Three members, each representing a different 4-year nonpublic university or college in this State and each a current member of the faculty of an approved educator preparation program, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(18) One member of the Board of Higher Education, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(19) One member representing a statewide policy organization advocating on behalf of multilingual students and families, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(20) One member representing a statewide organization focused on research-based education policy to support a school system that prepares all students for college, a career, and democratic citizenship, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(21) Two members representing an early childhood advocacy organization, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(22) One member representing a statewide organization that partners with educator preparation programs and school districts to support the growth and development of preservice teachers, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(23) One member representing a statewide organization that advocates for educational equity and racial justice in schools, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(24) One member representing a statewide organization that represents school boards, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(25) One member who has, within the last 5 years, served as a cooperating teacher, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

Members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation. The Task Force shall first meet at the call of the State Superintendent of Education, and each subsequent meeting shall be called by the chairperson of the Task Force, who shall be designated by the State Superintendent of Education. The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and other support to the Task Force.

On or before August 1, 2024, the Task Force shall report on its work, including recommendations on a teacher performance assessment system in this State, to the State Board of Education and the General Assembly. The Task Force is dissolved upon submission of this report.

(g) The content area knowledge test and the teacher performance assessment shall be the tests that from time to time are designated by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, and may be tests prepared by an educational testing organization or tests designed by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The test of content area knowledge shall assess content knowledge in a specific subject field. The tests must be designed to be racially neutral to ensure that no person taking the tests is discriminated against on the basis of race, color, national origin, or other factors unrelated to the person's ability to perform as a licensed employee. The score required to pass the tests shall be fixed by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The tests shall be administered not fewer than 3 times a year at such time and place as may be designated by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

The State Board shall implement a test or tests to assess the speaking, reading, writing, and grammar skills of applicants for an endorsement or a license issued under subdivision (G) of paragraph (2) of Section 21B-20 of this Code in the English language and in the language of the transitional bilingual education program requested by the applicant.

(h) Except as provided in Section 34-6 of this Code, the provisions of this Section shall apply equally in any school district subject to Article 34 of this Code.

(i) The rules developed to implement and enforce the testing requirements under this Section shall include, without limitation, provisions governing test selection, test validation, and determination of a passing score, administration of the tests, frequency of administration, applicant fees, frequency of applicants taking the tests, the years for which a score is valid, and appropriate special accommodations. The State Board of Education shall develop such rules as may be needed to ensure uniformity from year to year in the level of difficulty for each form of an assessment.

(Source: P.A. 102-301, eff. 8-26-21; 103-402, eff. 7-28-23; 103-488, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-1-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-50)

Sec. 21B-50. Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers.

(a) There is established an alternative educator licensure program, to be known as the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers.

(b) The Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers may be offered by a recognized institution approved to offer educator preparation programs by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

The program shall be comprised of up to 3 phases:

(1) A course of study that at a minimum includes instructional planning; instructional strategies, including special education, reading, and English language learning; classroom management; and the assessment of students and use of data to drive instruction.

(2) A year of residency, which is a candidate's assignment to a full-time teaching position or as a co-teacher for one full school year. An individual must hold an Educator License with Stipulations with an alternative provisional educator endorsement in order to enter the residency. In residency, the candidate must: be assigned an effective, fully licensed teacher by the principal or principal equivalent to act as a mentor and coach the candidate through residency, complete additional program requirements that address required State and national standards, pass the State Board's teacher performance assessment, if required under Section 21B-30, and be recommended by the principal or qualified equivalent of a principal, as required under subsection (d) of this Section, and the program coordinator to be recommended for full licensure or to continue with a second year of the residency.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A comprehensive assessment of the candidate's teaching effectiveness, as evaluated by the principal or qualified equivalent of a principal, as required under subsection (d) of this Section, and the program coordinator, at the end of either the first or the second year of residency. If there is disagreement between the 2 evaluators about the candidate's teaching effectiveness at the end of the first year of residency, a second year of residency shall be required. If there is disagreement between the 2 evaluators at the end of the second year of residency, the candidate may complete one additional year of residency teaching under a professional development plan developed by the principal or qualified equivalent and the preparation program. At the completion of the third year, a candidate must have positive evaluations and a recommendation for full licensure from both the principal or qualified equivalent and the program coordinator or no Professional Educator License shall be issued.

Successful completion of the program shall be deemed to satisfy any other practice or student teaching and content matter requirements established by law.

(c) An alternative provisional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for up to 2 years of teaching in the public schools, including without limitation a preschool educational program under Section 2-3.71 of this Code or charter school, or in a State-recognized nonpublic school in which the chief administrator is required to have the licensure necessary to be a principal in a public school in this State and in which a majority of the teachers are required to have the licensure necessary to be instructors in a public school in this State, but may be renewed for a third year if needed to complete the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers. The endorsement shall be issued only once to an individual who meets all of the following requirements:

(1) Has graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a bachelor's degree or higher.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Has completed a major in the content area if seeking a middle or secondary level endorsement or, if seeking an early childhood, elementary, or special education endorsement, has completed a major in the content area of early childhood reading, English/language arts, mathematics, or one of the sciences. If the individual does not have a major in a content area for any level of teaching, he or she must submit transcripts to the State Board of Education to be reviewed for equivalency.

(4) Has successfully completed phase (1) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(5) Has passed a content area test required for the specific endorsement for admission into the program, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

A candidate possessing the alternative provisional educator endorsement may receive a salary, benefits, and any other terms of employment offered to teachers in the school who are members of an exclusive bargaining representative, if any, but a school is not required to provide these benefits during the years of residency if the candidate is serving only as a co-teacher. If the candidate is serving as the teacher of record, the candidate must receive a salary, benefits, and any other terms of employment. Residency experiences must not be counted towards tenure.

(d) The recognized institution offering the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers must partner with a school district, including without limitation a preschool educational program under Section 2-3.71 of this Code or charter school, or a State-recognized, nonpublic school in this State in which the chief administrator is required to have the licensure necessary to be a principal in a public school in this State and in which a majority of the teachers are required to have the licensure necessary to be instructors in a public school in this State. A recognized institution that partners with a public school district administering a preschool educational program under Section 2-3.71 of this Code must require a principal to recommend or evaluate candidates in the program. A recognized institution that partners with an eligible entity administering a preschool educational program under Section 2-3.71 of this Code and that is not a public school district must require a principal or qualified equivalent of a principal to recommend or evaluate candidates in the program. The program presented for approval by the State Board of Education must demonstrate the supports that are to be provided to assist the provisional teacher during the one-year 1-year or 2-year residency period and if the residency period is to be less than 2 years in length, assurances from the partner school districts to provide intensive mentoring and supports through at least the end of the second full year of teaching for educators who completed the Alternative Educator Educators Licensure Program for Teachers in less than 2 years. These supports must, at a minimum, provide additional contact hours with mentors during the first year of residency.

(e) Upon completion of phases under paragraphs (1), (2), (4), and, if needed, (3) in subsection (b) of this Section and all assessments required under Section 21B-30 of this Code, an individual shall receive a Professional Educator License.

(f) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may adopt such rules as may be necessary to establish and implement the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers.

(Source: P.A. 103-111, eff. 6-29-23; 103-488, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-1-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-70)

Sec. 21B-70. Illinois Teaching Excellence Program.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Diverse candidate" means a candidate who identifies with any of the ethnicities reported on the Illinois Report Card other than White.

"Hard-to-staff school" means a public school in which no less than 30% of the student enrollment is considered low-income as reported by the report card under Section 10-17a of this Code.

"National Board certified teacher candidate cohort facilitator" means a National Board certified teacher who collaborates to advance the goal of supporting all other candidate cohorts other than diverse candidate cohorts through the Illinois National Board for Professional Teaching Standards Comprehensive Support System.

"National Board certified teacher diverse candidate cohort facilitator" means a National Board certified teacher who collaborates to advance the goal of supporting racially and ethnically diverse candidates through the Illinois National Board for Professional Teaching Standards Comprehensive Support System.

"National Board certified teacher diverse liaison" means an individual or entity that supports the National Board certified teacher leading a diverse candidate cohort.

"National Board certified teacher liaison" means an individual or entity that supports the National Board certified teacher leading candidate cohorts other than diverse candidate cohorts.

"National Board certified teacher rural or remote or distant candidate cohort facilitator" means a National Board certified teacher who collaborates to advance the goal of supporting rural or remote candidates through the Illinois National Board for Professional Teaching Standards Comprehensive Support System.

"National Board certified teacher rural or remote or distant liaison" means an individual or entity that supports the National Board certified teacher leading a rural or remote candidate cohort.

"Qualified educator" means a teacher or school counselor currently employed in a school district who is in the process of obtaining certification through the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards or who has completed certification and holds a current Professional Educator License with a National Board for Professional Teaching Standards designation or a retired teacher or school counselor who holds a Professional Educator License with a National Board for Professional Teaching Standards designation.

"Rural or remote" or "rural or remote or distant" means local codes 32, 33, 41, 42, and 43 of the New Urban-Centric Locale Codes, as defined by the National Center for Education Statistics.

"Tier 1" has the meaning given to that term under Section 18-8.15.

"Tier 2" has the meaning given to that term under Section 18-8.15.

(b) Any funds appropriated for the Illinois Teaching Excellence Program must be used to provide monetary assistance and incentives for qualified educators who are employed by or retired from school districts and who have or are in the process of obtaining licensure through the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards. The goal of the program is to improve instruction and student performance.

The State Board of Education shall allocate an amount as annually appropriated by the General Assembly for the Illinois Teaching Excellence Program for (i) application or re-take fees for each qualified educator seeking to complete certification through the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards, to be paid directly to the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards, and (ii) incentives under paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of subsection (c) for each qualified educator, to be distributed to the respective school district, and incentives under paragraph (5) of subsection (c), to be distributed to the respective school district or directly to the qualified educator. The school district shall distribute this payment to each eligible teacher or school counselor as a single payment.

The State Board of Education's annual budget must set out by separate line item the appropriation for the program. Unless otherwise provided by appropriation, qualified educators are eligible for monetary assistance and incentives outlined in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section.

(c) When there are adequate funds available, monetary assistance and incentives shall include the following:

(1) A maximum of $2,000 toward towards the application or re-take fee for teachers or school counselors in a Tier 1 school district who apply on a first-come, first-serve basis for National Board certification.

(2) A maximum of $2,000 toward towards the application or re-take fee for teachers or school counselors in a school district other than a Tier 1 school district who apply on a first-come, first-serve basis for National Board certification.

(3) A maximum of $1,000 toward towards the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards' renewal application fee.

(4) (Blank).

(5) An annual incentive of no more than $2,250 prorated at $50 per hour, which shall be paid to each qualified educator currently employed in a school district who holds both a National Board for Professional Teaching Standards designation and a current corresponding certificate issued by the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards and who agrees, in writing, to provide up to 45 hours of mentoring or National Board for Professional Teaching Standards professional development or both during the school year to classroom teachers or school counselors, as applicable. Funds must be disbursed on a first-come, first-serve basis, with priority given to Tier 1 school districts. Mentoring shall include, either singly or in combination, the following:

(A) National Board for Professional Teaching Standards certification candidates.

(B) National Board for Professional Teaching Standards re-take candidates.

(C) National Board for Professional Teaching Standards renewal candidates.

(D) (Blank).

Funds may also be used for professional development training provided by the National Board Resource Center.

Funds may also be used for instructional leadership training for qualified educators interested in supporting implementation of the Illinois Learning Standards or teaching and learning priorities of the State Board of Education or both.

(d) In addition to the monetary assistance and incentives provided under subsection (c), if adequate funds are available, incentives shall include the following incentives for the program in rural or remote schools or school districts or for programs working with diverse candidates or for retention bonuses for hard-to-staff hard to staff schools, to be distributed to the respective school district or directly to the qualified educator or entity:

(1) A one-time incentive of $3,000 payable to National Board certified teachers teaching in Tier 1 or Tier 2 rural or remote school districts or rural or remote schools in Tier 1 or Tier 2 school districts, with priority given to teachers teaching in Tier 1 rural or remote school districts or rural or remote schools in Tier 1 school districts.

(2) An annual incentive of $3,200 for National Board certified teacher rural or remote or distant candidate cohort facilitators, diverse candidate cohort facilitators, and candidate cohort facilitators. Priority shall be given to rural or remote candidate cohort facilitators and diverse candidate cohort facilitators.

(3) An annual incentive of $2,500 for National Board certified teacher rural or remote or distant liaisons, diverse liaisons, and liaisons. Priority shall be given to rural or remote liaisons and diverse liaisons.

(4) An annual retention bonus of $4,000 per year for 2 consecutive years shall be awarded to National Board certified teachers employed in hard-to-staff schools. Funds must be disbursed on a first-come, first-served basis.

(Source: P.A. 103-122, eff. 6-30-23; 103-207, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-30)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-542)

Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication and epinephrine injectors; administration of undesignated epinephrine injectors; administration of an opioid antagonist; administration of undesignated asthma medication; supply of undesignated oxygen tanks; asthma episode emergency response protocol.

(a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

"Asthma action plan" means a written plan developed with a pupil's medical provider to help control the pupil's asthma. The goal of an asthma action plan is to reduce or prevent flare-ups and emergency department visits through day-to-day management and to serve as a student-specific document to be referenced in the event of an asthma episode.

"Asthma episode emergency response protocol" means a procedure to provide assistance to a pupil experiencing symptoms of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, or breathing difficulty.

"Epinephrine injector" includes an auto-injector approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the administration of epinephrine and a pre-filled syringe approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and used for the administration of epinephrine that contains a pre-measured dose of epinephrine that is equivalent to the dosages used in an auto-injector.

"Asthma medication" means quick-relief asthma medication, including albuterol or other short-acting bronchodilators, that is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of respiratory distress. "Asthma medication" includes medication delivered through a device, including a metered dose inhaler with a reusable or disposable spacer or a nebulizer with a mouthpiece or mask.

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Respiratory distress" means the perceived or actual presence of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, breathing difficulty, or any other symptoms consistent with asthma. Respiratory distress may be categorized as "mild-to-moderate" or "severe".

"School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.

"Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine injector.

"Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine injector.

"Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority.

"Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, an opioid overdose, or respiratory distress.

"Undesignated asthma medication" means asthma medication prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school.

"Undesignated epinephrine injector" means an epinephrine injector prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school.

(b) A school, whether public, charter, or nonpublic, must permit the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector by a pupil, provided that:

(1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) written authorization from the parents or guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector or (B) the self-carry of an epinephrine injector, written authorization from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse; and

(2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, and the time at which or circumstances under which the asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine injector, a written statement from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse containing the following information:

(A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine injector;

(B) the prescribed dosage; and

(C) the time or times at which or the special circumstances under which the epinephrine injector is to be administered. The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school's administrator.

(b-5) A school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may authorize the provision of a student-specific or undesignated epinephrine injector to a student or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, allergy emergency action plan, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine injector to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file.

(b-10) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine injector to a student for self-administration only or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, allergy emergency action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan to administer to the student that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) administer an undesignated epinephrine injector that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan, allergy emergency action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan that authorizes the use of an epinephrine injector; (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine injector to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; (iv) administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose; (v) provide undesignated asthma medication to a student for self-administration only or to any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan or asthma action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan to administer to the student that meets the student's prescription on file; (vi) administer undesignated asthma medication that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan or asthma action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan that authorizes the use of asthma medication; and (vii) administer undesignated asthma medication to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel believes in good faith is having respiratory distress.

(c) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol and a prescription for school epinephrine injectors, an opioid antagonist, or undesignated asthma medication, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(c-5) When a school nurse or trained personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, administers an opioid antagonist to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose, or administers undesignated asthma medication to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having respiratory distress, notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol and a prescription for undesignated epinephrine injectors, an opioid antagonist, or undesignated asthma medication, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated epinephrine injector, the use of an opioid antagonist, or the use of undesignated asthma medication, regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector is effective for the school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of this Section.

(e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus.

(e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an undesignated epinephrine injector to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine injectors on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry an opioid antagonist on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-15) If the requirements of this Section are met, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer undesignated asthma medication to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be experiencing respiratory distress (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, including before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated asthma medication on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(f) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors in any secure location that is accessible before, during, and after school where an allergic person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine injectors in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure location where an individual may have an opioid overdose, unless there is a shortage of opioid antagonists, in which case the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall make a reasonable effort to maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist. Unless the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school is able to obtain opioid antagonists without a prescription, a health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act shall prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of asthma medication in any secure location that is accessible before, during, or after school where a person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, a classroom or the nurse's office. A physician, a physician assistant who has prescriptive authority under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has prescriptive authority under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated asthma medication in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of undesignated asthma medication must be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

A school district that provides special educational facilities for children with disabilities under Section 14-4.01 of this Code may maintain a supply of undesignated oxygen tanks in any secure location that is accessible before, during, and after school where a person with developmental disabilities is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated oxygen tanks in the name of the school district that provides special educational facilities for children with disabilities under Section 14-4.01 of this Code to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of oxygen tanks shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and with the local fire department's rules.

(f-3) Whichever entity initiates the process of obtaining undesignated epinephrine injectors and providing training to personnel for carrying and administering undesignated epinephrine injectors shall pay for the costs of the undesignated epinephrine injectors.

(f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine injector, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

(f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provided the standing protocol and a prescription for the undesignated epinephrine injector of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the health care professional who provided the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of undesignated asthma medication, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the student's parent or guardian or emergency contact, if known, and the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provided the standing protocol and a prescription for the undesignated asthma medication of its use. The district or school must follow up with the school nurse, if available, and may, with the consent of the child's parent or guardian, notify the child's health care provider of record, as determined under this Section, of its use.

(g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to the training curriculum and trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of undesignated asthma medication, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to respiratory distress, which must meet the requirements of subsection (h-10) of this Section. Training must be completed annually, and the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

(h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, may be conducted online or in person.

Training shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, including anaphylaxis;

(2) how to administer an epinephrine injector; and

(3) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine injector.

Training may also include, but is not limited to:

(A) a review of high-risk areas within a school and its related facilities;

(B) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;

(C) emergency follow-up procedures, including the importance of calling 9-1-1 or, if 9-1-1 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(D) how to respond to a student with a known allergy, as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy;

(E) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section; and

(F) any policy developed by the State Board of Education under Section 2-3.190.

In consultation with statewide professional organizations representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by other states, as well as any other curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State Board is not required to create new resource materials. The State Board shall make these resource materials available on its Internet website.

(h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act and the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose;

(2) information on drug overdose prevention and recognition;

(3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid overdose;

(5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration;

(6) the importance of calling 9-1-1 or, if 9-1-1 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(7) care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist;

(8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a dose of an opioid antagonist; and

(9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

(h-10) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to respiratory distress, including the administration of undesignated asthma medication, may be conducted online or in person. The training must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of respiratory distress and how to distinguish respiratory distress from anaphylaxis;

(2) how to respond to an emergency involving respiratory distress;

(3) asthma medication dosage and administration;

(4) the importance of calling 9-1-1 or, if 9-1-1 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(5) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize respiratory distress and administer asthma medication; and

(6) other criteria as determined in rules adopted under this Section.

(i) Within 3 days after the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board the following information:

(1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine (student, staff, visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;

(3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;

(4) location where symptoms developed;

(5) number of doses administered;

(6) type of person administering epinephrine (school nurse, trained personnel, student); and

(7) any other information required by the State Board.

If a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school maintains or has an independent contractor providing transportation to students who maintains a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors, then the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must report that information to the State Board of Education upon adoption or change of the policy of the school district, public school, charter school, nonpublic school, or independent contractor, in a manner as prescribed by the State Board. The report must include the number of undesignated epinephrine injectors in supply.

(i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school must report to the State Board of Education, in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid antagonist (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) the location where symptoms developed;

(3) the type of person administering the opioid antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and

(4) any other information required by the State Board.

(i-10) Within 3 days after the administration of undesignated asthma medication by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education, on a form and in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Education, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the asthma medication (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of asthma for the person;

(3) the trigger that precipitated respiratory distress, if identifiable;

(4) the location of where the symptoms developed;

(5) the number of doses administered;

(6) the type of person administering the asthma medication (school nurse, trained personnel, or student);

(7) the outcome of the asthma medication administration; and

(8) any other information required by the State Board.

(j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of undesignated epinephrine and undesignated asthma medication administration during the preceding academic year. Beginning with the 2017 report, the report shall also contain information on which school districts, public schools, charter schools, and nonpublic schools maintain or have independent contractors providing transportation to students who maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(j-5) Annually, each school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall request an asthma action plan from the parents or guardians of a pupil with asthma. If provided, the asthma action plan must be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school administrator. Copies of the asthma action plan may be distributed to appropriate school staff who interact with the pupil on a regular basis, and, if applicable, may be attached to the pupil's federal Section 504 plan or individualized education program plan.

(j-10) To assist schools with emergency response procedures for asthma, the State Board of Education, in consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management and a statewide organization representing school administrators, shall develop a model asthma episode emergency response protocol before September 1, 2016. Each school district, charter school, and nonpublic school shall adopt an asthma episode emergency response protocol before January 1, 2017 that includes all of the components of the State Board's model protocol.

(j-15) Every 2 years, school personnel who work with pupils shall complete an in-person or online training program on the management of asthma, the prevention of asthma symptoms, and emergency response in the school setting. In consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials for educating school personnel about asthma and emergency response in the school setting.

(j-20) On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the Department of Public Health identifying the frequency and circumstances of opioid antagonist administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(k) The State Board of Education may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(l) Nothing in this Section shall limit the amount of epinephrine injectors that any type of school or student may carry or maintain a supply of.

(Source: P.A. 102-413, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-196, eff. 1-1-24; 103-348, eff. 1-1-24; revised 11-27-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-542)

Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication and epinephrine injectors; administration of undesignated epinephrine injectors; administration of an opioid antagonist; administration of undesignated asthma medication; supply of undesignated oxygen tanks; asthma episode emergency response protocol.

(a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

"Asthma action plan" means a written plan developed with a pupil's medical provider to help control the pupil's asthma. The goal of an asthma action plan is to reduce or prevent flare-ups and emergency department visits through day-to-day management and to serve as a student-specific document to be referenced in the event of an asthma episode.

"Asthma episode emergency response protocol" means a procedure to provide assistance to a pupil experiencing symptoms of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, or breathing difficulty.

"Epinephrine injector" includes an auto-injector approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the administration of epinephrine and a pre-filled syringe approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and used for the administration of epinephrine that contains a pre-measured dose of epinephrine that is equivalent to the dosages used in an auto-injector.

"Asthma medication" means quick-relief asthma medication, including albuterol or other short-acting bronchodilators, that is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of respiratory distress. "Asthma medication" includes medication delivered through a device, including a metered dose inhaler with a reusable or disposable spacer or a nebulizer with a mouthpiece or mask.

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Respiratory distress" means the perceived or actual presence of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, breathing difficulty, or any other symptoms consistent with asthma. Respiratory distress may be categorized as "mild-to-moderate" or "severe".

"School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.

"Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine injector.

"Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine injector.

"Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority.

"Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, an opioid overdose, or respiratory distress.

"Undesignated asthma medication" means asthma medication prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school.

"Undesignated epinephrine injector" means an epinephrine injector prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school.

(b) A school, whether public, charter, or nonpublic, must permit the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector by a pupil, provided that:

(1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) written authorization from the parents or guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector or (B) the self-carry of an epinephrine injector, written authorization from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse; and

(2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, and the time at which or circumstances under which the asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine injector, a written statement from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse containing the following information:

(A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine injector;

(B) the prescribed dosage; and

(C) the time or times at which or the special circumstances under which the epinephrine injector is to be administered. The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school's administrator.

(b-5) A school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may authorize the provision of a student-specific or undesignated epinephrine injector to a student or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, allergy emergency action plan, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine injector to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file.

(b-10) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine injector to a student for self-administration only or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, allergy emergency action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan to administer to the student that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) administer an undesignated epinephrine injector that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan, allergy emergency action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan that authorizes the use of an epinephrine injector; (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine injector to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; (iv) administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose; (v) provide undesignated asthma medication to a student for self-administration only or to any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan or asthma action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan to administer to the student that meets the student's prescription on file; (vi) administer undesignated asthma medication that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan or asthma action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan that authorizes the use of asthma medication; and (vii) administer undesignated asthma medication to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel believes in good faith is having respiratory distress.

(c) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol and a prescription for school epinephrine injectors, an opioid antagonist, or undesignated asthma medication, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(c-5) When a school nurse or trained personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, administers an opioid antagonist to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose, or administers undesignated asthma medication to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having respiratory distress, notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol and a prescription for undesignated epinephrine injectors, an opioid antagonist, or undesignated asthma medication, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated epinephrine injector, the use of an opioid antagonist, or the use of undesignated asthma medication, regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector is effective for the school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of this Section.

(e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus.

(e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an undesignated epinephrine injector to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine injectors on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry an opioid antagonist on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-15) If the requirements of this Section are met, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer undesignated asthma medication to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be experiencing respiratory distress (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, including before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated asthma medication on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(f) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors in any secure location that is accessible before, during, and after school where an allergic person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine injectors in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure location where an individual may have an opioid overdose, unless there is a shortage of opioid antagonists, in which case the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall make a reasonable effort to maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist. Unless the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school is able to obtain opioid antagonists without a prescription, a health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act shall prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of asthma medication in any secure location that is accessible before, during, or after school where a person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, a classroom or the nurse's office. A physician, a physician assistant who has prescriptive authority under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has prescriptive authority under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated asthma medication in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of undesignated asthma medication must be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

A school district that provides special educational facilities for children with disabilities under Section 14-4.01 of this Code may maintain a supply of undesignated oxygen tanks in any secure location that is accessible before, during, and after school where a person with developmental disabilities is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated oxygen tanks in the name of the school district that provides special educational facilities for children with disabilities under Section 14-4.01 of this Code to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of oxygen tanks shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and with the local fire department's rules.

(f-3) Whichever entity initiates the process of obtaining undesignated epinephrine injectors and providing training to personnel for carrying and administering undesignated epinephrine injectors shall pay for the costs of the undesignated epinephrine injectors.

(f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine injector, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

(f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provided the standing protocol and a prescription for the undesignated epinephrine injector of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the health care professional who provided the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of undesignated asthma medication, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the student's parent or guardian or emergency contact, if known, and the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provided the standing protocol and a prescription for the undesignated asthma medication of its use. The district or school must follow up with the school nurse, if available, and may, with the consent of the child's parent or guardian, notify the child's health care provider of record, as determined under this Section, of its use.

(g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to the training curriculum and trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of undesignated asthma medication, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to respiratory distress, which must meet the requirements of subsection (h-10) of this Section. Training must be completed annually, and the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

(h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, may be conducted online or in person.

Training shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, including anaphylaxis;

(2) how to administer an epinephrine injector; and

(3) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine injector.

Training may also include, but is not limited to:

(A) a review of high-risk areas within a school and its related facilities;

(B) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;

(C) emergency follow-up procedures, including the importance of calling 9-1-1 or, if 9-1-1 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(D) how to respond to a student with a known allergy, as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy;

(E) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section; and

(F) any policy developed by the State Board of Education under Section 2-3.190.

In consultation with statewide professional organizations representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by other states, as well as any other curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State Board is not required to create new resource materials. The State Board shall make these resource materials available on its Internet website.

(h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act and the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose;

(2) information on drug overdose prevention and recognition;

(3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid overdose;

(5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration;

(6) the importance of calling 9-1-1 or, if 9-1-1 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(7) care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist;

(8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a dose of an opioid antagonist; and

(9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

(h-10) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to respiratory distress, including the administration of undesignated asthma medication, may be conducted online or in person. The training must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of respiratory distress and how to distinguish respiratory distress from anaphylaxis;

(2) how to respond to an emergency involving respiratory distress;

(3) asthma medication dosage and administration;

(4) the importance of calling 9-1-1 or, if 9-1-1 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(5) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize respiratory distress and administer asthma medication; and

(6) other criteria as determined in rules adopted under this Section.

(i) Within 3 days after the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board the following information:

(1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine (student, staff, visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;

(3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;

(4) location where symptoms developed;

(5) number of doses administered;

(6) type of person administering epinephrine (school nurse, trained personnel, student); and

(7) any other information required by the State Board.

If a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school maintains or has an independent contractor providing transportation to students who maintains a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors, then the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must report that information to the State Board of Education upon adoption or change of the policy of the school district, public school, charter school, nonpublic school, or independent contractor, in a manner as prescribed by the State Board. The report must include the number of undesignated epinephrine injectors in supply.

(i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school must report to the State Board of Education, in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid antagonist (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) the location where symptoms developed;

(3) the type of person administering the opioid antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and

(4) any other information required by the State Board.

(i-10) Within 3 days after the administration of undesignated asthma medication by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education, on a form and in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Education, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the asthma medication (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of asthma for the person;

(3) the trigger that precipitated respiratory distress, if identifiable;

(4) the location of where the symptoms developed;

(5) the number of doses administered;

(6) the type of person administering the asthma medication (school nurse, trained personnel, or student);

(7) the outcome of the asthma medication administration; and

(8) any other information required by the State Board.

(j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of undesignated epinephrine and undesignated asthma medication administration during the preceding academic year. Beginning with the 2017 report, the report shall also contain information on which school districts, public schools, charter schools, and nonpublic schools maintain or have independent contractors providing transportation to students who maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(j-5) Annually, each school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall request an asthma action plan from the parents or guardians of a pupil with asthma. If provided, the asthma action plan must be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school administrator. Copies of the asthma action plan may be distributed to appropriate school staff who interact with the pupil on a regular basis, and, if applicable, may be attached to the pupil's federal Section 504 plan or individualized education program plan.

(j-10) To assist schools with emergency response procedures for asthma, the State Board of Education, in consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management and a statewide organization representing school administrators, shall develop a model asthma episode emergency response protocol before September 1, 2016. Each school district, charter school, and nonpublic school shall adopt an asthma episode emergency response protocol before January 1, 2017 that includes all of the components of the State Board's model protocol.

(j-15) (Blank).

(j-20) On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the Department of Public Health identifying the frequency and circumstances of opioid antagonist administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(k) The State Board of Education may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(l) Nothing in this Section shall limit the amount of epinephrine injectors that any type of school or student may carry or maintain a supply of.

(Source: P.A. 102-413, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-196, eff. 1-1-24; 103-348, eff. 1-1-24; 103-542, eff. 7-1-24 (see Section 905 of P.A. 103-563 for effective date of P.A. 103-542); revised 11-27-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-95)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 22-95. Policy on discrimination, harassment, and retaliation; response procedures.

(a) As used in this Section, "policy" means either the use of a singular policy or multiple policies.

(b) Each school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school must create, implement, and maintain at least one written policy that prohibits discrimination and harassment based on race, color, and national origin and prohibits retaliation. The policy may be included as part of a broader anti-harassment or anti-discrimination policy, provided that the policy prohibiting discrimination and harassment based on race, color, and national origin and retaliation shall be distinguished with an appropriate title, heading, or label. This policy must comply with and be distributed in accordance with all of the following:

(1) The policy must be in writing and must include at a minimum, the following information:

(A) descriptions of various forms of discrimination and harassment based on race, color, and national origin, including examples;

(B) the school district's, charter school's, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school's internal process for filing a complaint regarding a violation of the policy described in this subsection, or a reference to that process if described elsewhere in policy;

(C) an overview of the school district's, charter school's, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school's prevention and response program pursuant to subsection (c);

(D) potential remedies for a violation of the policy described in this subsection;

(E) a prohibition on retaliation for making a complaint or participating in the complaint process;

(F) the legal recourse available through the Department of Human Rights and through federal agencies if a school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school fails to take corrective action, or a reference to that process if described elsewhere in policy; and

(G) directions on how to contact the Department of Human Rights or a reference to those directions if described elsewhere in the policy.

The policy shall make clear that the policy does not impair or otherwise diminish the rights of unionized employees under federal law, State law, or a collective bargaining agreement to request an exclusive bargaining representative to be present during investigator interviews, nor does the policy diminish any rights available under the applicable negotiated collective bargaining agreement, including, but not limited to, the grievance procedure.

(2) The policy described in this subsection shall be posted in a prominent and accessible location and distributed in such a manner as to ensure notice of the policy to all employees. If the school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school maintains an Internet website or has an employee Intranet, the website or Intranet shall be considered a prominent and accessible location for the purpose of this paragraph (2). Posting and distribution shall be effectuated by the beginning of the 2024-2025 school year and shall occur annually thereafter.

(3) The policy described in this subsection shall be published on the school district's, charter school's, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school's Internet website, if one exists, and in a student handbook, if one exists. A summary of the policy in accessible, age-appropriate language shall be distributed annually to students and to the parents or guardians of minor students. School districts, charter schools, and nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary schools shall provide a summary of the policy in the parent or guardian's native language. For the annual distribution of the summary, inclusion of the summary in a student handbook is deemed compliant.

(c) Each school district, charter school, and nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school must establish procedures for responding to complaints of discrimination and harassment based on race, color, and national origin and retaliation. These procedures must comply with subsection (b) of this Section. Based on these procedures, school districts, charter schools, and nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary schools:

(1) shall reduce or remove, to the extent practicable, barriers to reporting discrimination, harassment, and retaliation;

(2) shall permit any person who reports or is the victim of an incident of alleged discrimination, harassment, or retaliation to be accompanied when making a report by a support individual of the person's choice who complies with the school district's, charter school's, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school's policies or rules;

(3) shall permit anonymous reporting, except that this paragraph (3) may not be construed to permit formal disciplinary action solely on the basis of an anonymous report;

(4) shall offer remedial interventions or take such disciplinary action as may be appropriate on a case-by-case basis;

(5) may offer, but not require or unduly influence, a person who reports or is the victim of an incident of discrimination, harassment, or retaliation the option to resolve allegations directly with the offender; and

(6) may not cause a person who reports or is the victim of an incident of discrimination, harassment, or retaliation to suffer adverse consequences as a result of a report of, an investigation of, or a response to the incident; this protection may not permit victims to engage in retaliation against the offender or limit a school district, charter school, or nonpublic, nonsectarian elementary or secondary school from applying disciplinary measures in response to other acts or conduct not related to the process of reporting, investigating, or responding to a report of an incident of discrimination, harassment, or retaliation.

(Source: P.A. 103-472, eff. 8-1-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-97)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on February 1, 2029)

Sec. 22-97 22-95. Whole Child Task Force.

(a) The General Assembly makes all of the following findings:

(1) The COVID-19 pandemic has exposed systemic inequities in American society. Students, educators, and families throughout this State have been deeply affected by the pandemic, and the impact of the pandemic will be felt for years to come. The negative consequences of the pandemic have impacted students and communities differently along the lines of race, income, language, and special needs. However, students in this State faced significant unmet physical health, mental health, and social and emotional needs even prior to the pandemic.

(2) The path to recovery requires a commitment from adults in this State to address our students cultural, physical, emotional, and mental health needs and to provide them with stronger and increased systemic support and intervention.

(3) It is well documented that trauma and toxic stress diminish a child's ability to thrive. Forms of childhood trauma and toxic stress include adverse childhood experiences, systemic racism, poverty, food and housing insecurity, and gender-based violence. The COVID-19 pandemic has exacerbated these issues and brought them into focus.

(4) It is estimated that, overall, approximately 40% of children in this State have experienced at least one adverse childhood experience and approximately 10% have experienced 3 or more adverse childhood experiences. However, the number of adverse childhood experiences is higher for Black and Hispanic children who are growing up in poverty. The COVID-19 pandemic has amplified the number of students who have experienced childhood trauma. Also, the COVID-19 pandemic has highlighted preexisting inequities in school disciplinary practices that disproportionately impact Black and Brown students. Research shows, for example, that girls of color are disproportionately impacted by trauma, adversity, and abuse, and instead of receiving the care and trauma-informed support they may need, many Black girls in particular face disproportionately harsh disciplinary measures.

(5) The cumulative effects of trauma and toxic stress adversely impact the physical health of students, as well as the students' ability to learn, form relationships, and self-regulate. If left unaddressed, these effects increase a student's risk for depression, alcoholism, anxiety, asthma, smoking, and suicide, all of which are risks that disproportionately affect Black youth and may lead to a host of medical diseases as an adult. Access to infant and early childhood mental health services is critical to ensure the social and emotional well-being of this State's youngest children, particularly those children who have experienced trauma.

(6) Although this State enacted measures through Public Act 100-105 to address the high rate of early care and preschool expulsions of infants, toddlers, and preschoolers and the disproportionately higher rate of expulsion for Black and Hispanic children, a recent study found a wide variation in the awareness, understanding, and compliance with the law by providers of early childhood care. Further work is needed to implement the law, which includes providing training to early childhood care providers to increase the providers' understanding of the law, increasing the availability and access to infant and early childhood mental health services, and building aligned data collection systems to better understand expulsion rates and to allow for accurate reporting as required by the law.

(7) Many educators and schools in this State have embraced and implemented evidence-based restorative justice and trauma-responsive and culturally relevant practices and interventions. However, the use of these interventions on students is often isolated or is implemented occasionally and only if the school has the appropriate leadership, resources, and partners available to engage seriously in this work. It would be malpractice to deny our students access to these practices and interventions, especially in the aftermath of a once-in-a-century pandemic.

(b) The Whole Child Task Force created by Public Act 101-654 is reestablished for the purpose of establishing an equitable, inclusive, safe, and supportive environment in all schools for every student in this State. The task force shall have all of the following goals, which means key steps have to be taken to ensure that every child in every school in this State has access to teachers, social workers, school leaders, support personnel, and others who have been trained in evidence-based interventions and restorative practices:

(1) To create a common definition of a trauma-responsive school, a trauma-responsive district, and a trauma-responsive community.

(2) To outline the training and resources required to create and sustain a system of support for trauma-responsive schools, districts, and communities and to identify this State's role in that work, including recommendations concerning options for redirecting resources from school resource officers to classroom-based support.

(3) To identify or develop a process to conduct an analysis of the organizations that provide training in restorative practices, implicit bias, anti-racism, and trauma-responsive systems, mental health services, and social and emotional services to schools.

(4) To provide recommendations concerning the key data to be collected and reported to ensure that this State has a full and accurate understanding of the progress toward ensuring that all schools, including programs and providers of care to pre-kindergarten children, employ restorative, anti-racist, and trauma-responsive strategies and practices. The data collected must include information relating to the availability of trauma responsive support structures in schools, as well as disciplinary practices employed on students in person or through other means, including during remote or blended learning. It should also include information on the use of and funding for school resource officers and other similar police personnel in school programs.

(5) To recommend an implementation timeline, including the key roles, responsibilities, and resources to advance this State toward a system in which every school, district, and community is progressing toward becoming trauma-responsive.

(6) To seek input and feedback from stakeholders, including parents, students, and educators, who reflect the diversity of this State.

(7) To recommend legislation, policies, and practices to prevent learning loss in students during periods of suspension and expulsion, including, but not limited to, remote instruction.

(c) Members of the Whole Child Task Force shall be appointed by the State Superintendent of Education. Members of this task force must represent the diversity of this State and possess the expertise needed to perform the work required to meet the goals of the task force set forth under subsection (a). Members of the task force shall include all of the following:

(1) One member of a statewide professional teachers' organization.

(2) One member of another statewide professional teachers' organization.

(3) One member who represents a school district serving a community with a population of 500,000 or more.

(4) One member of a statewide organization representing social workers.

(5) One member of an organization that has specific expertise in trauma-responsive school practices and experience in supporting schools in developing trauma-responsive and restorative practices.

(6) One member of another organization that has specific expertise in trauma-responsive school practices and experience in supporting schools in developing trauma-responsive and restorative practices.

(7) One member of a statewide organization that represents school administrators.

(8) One member of a statewide policy organization that works to build a healthy public education system that prepares all students for a successful college, career, and civic life.

(9) One member of a statewide organization that brings teachers together to identify and address issues critical to student success.

(10) One member of the General Assembly recommended by the President of the Senate.

(11) One member of the General Assembly recommended by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(12) One member of the General Assembly recommended by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(13) One member of the General Assembly recommended by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(14) One member of a civil rights organization that works actively on issues regarding student support.

(15) One administrator from a school district that has actively worked to develop a system of student support that uses a trauma-informed lens.

(16) One educator from a school district that has actively worked to develop a system of student support that uses a trauma-informed lens.

(17) One member of a youth-led organization.

(18) One member of an organization that has demonstrated expertise in restorative practices.

(19) One member of a coalition of mental health and school practitioners who assist schools in developing and implementing trauma-informed and restorative strategies and systems.

(20) One member of an organization whose mission is to promote the safety, health, and economic success of children, youth, and families in this State.

(21) One member who works or has worked as a restorative justice coach or disciplinarian.

(22) One member who works or has worked as a social worker.

(23) One member of the State Board of Education.

(24) One member who represents a statewide principals' organization.

(25) One member who represents a statewide organization of school boards.

(26) One member who has expertise in pre-kindergarten education.

(27) One member who represents a school social worker association.

(28) One member who represents an organization that represents school districts in the south suburbs of the City of Chicago.

(29) One member who is a licensed clinical psychologist who (i) has a doctor of philosophy in the field of clinical psychology and has an appointment at an independent free-standing children's hospital located in the City of Chicago, (ii) serves as an associate professor at a medical school located in the City of Chicago, and (iii) serves as the clinical director of a coalition of voluntary collaboration of organizations that are committed to applying a trauma lens to the member's efforts on behalf of families and children in the State.

(30) One member who represents a school district in the west suburbs of the City of Chicago.

(31) One member from a governmental agency who has expertise in child development and who is responsible for coordinating early childhood mental health programs and services.

(32) One member who has significant expertise in early childhood mental health and childhood trauma.

(33) One member who represents an organization that represents school districts in the collar counties around the City of Chicago.

(34) One member who represents an organization representing regional offices of education.

(d) The Whole Child Task Force shall meet at the call of the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee, who shall serve as the chairperson. The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and other support to the task force. Members of the task force shall serve without compensation.

(e) The Whole Child Task Force shall reconvene by March 2027 to review progress on the recommendations in the March 2022 report submitted pursuant to Public Act 101-654 and shall submit a new report on its assessment of the State's progress and any additional recommendations to the General Assembly, the Illinois Legislative Black Caucus, the State Board of Education, and the Governor on or before December 31, 2027.

(f) This Section is repealed on February 1, 2029.

(Source: P.A. 103-413, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-25-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-98)

Sec. 22-98 22-95. Retirement and deferred compensation plans.

(a) This Section applies only to school districts, other than a school district organized under Article 34, with a full-time licensed teacher population of 575 or more teachers that maintain a 457 plan. Every applicable school district shall make available to participants more than one financial institution or investment provider to provide services to the school district's 457 plan.

(b) A financial institution or investment provider, by entering into a written agreement, may offer or provide services to a plan offered, established, or maintained by a school district under Section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 if the written agreement is not combined with any other written agreement for the administration of the school district's 457 plan.

Each school district that offers a 457 plan shall make available to participants, in the manner provided in subsection (d), more than one financial institution or investment provider that has not entered into a written agreement to provide administration services and that provides services to a 457 plan offered to school districts.

(c) A financial institution or investment provider providing services for any plan offered, established, or maintained by a school district under Section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 shall:

(1) enter into an agreement with the school district or the school district's independent compliance administrator that requires the financial institution or investment provider to provide, in an electronic format, all data necessary for the administration of the 457 plan, as determined by the school district or the school district's compliance administrator;

(2) provide all data required by the school district or the school district's compliance administrator to facilitate disclosure of all fees, charges, expenses, commissions, compensation, and payments to third parties related to investments offered under the 457 plan; and

(3) cover all plan administration costs agreed to by the school district relating to the administration of the 457 plan.

(d) A school district that offers, establishes, or maintains a plan under Section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, except for a plan established under Section 16-204 of the Illinois Pension Code, shall select more than one financial institution or investment provider, in addition to the financial institution or investment provider that has entered into a written agreement under subsection (b), to provide services to the 457 plan. A financial institution or investment provider shall be designated a 457 plan provider if the financial institution or investment provider enters into an agreement in accordance with subsection (c).

(e) A school district shall have one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly to find a 457 plan provider under this Section.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall apply to or impact the optional defined contribution benefit established by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois under Section 16-204 of the Illinois Pension Code. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Teachers' Retirement System may elect to share plan data for the 457 plan established pursuant to Section 16-204 of the Illinois Pension Code with the school district, upon request by the school district, in order to facilitate school districts' compliance with this Section and Section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986. If a school district requests that the Teachers' Retirement System share plan information for the 457 plan established pursuant to Section 16-204 of the Illinois Pension Code, the Teachers' Retirement System may assess a fee on the applicable school district.

(Source: P.A. 103-481, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-25-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-99)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2031)

Sec. 22-99 22-95. Rural Education Advisory Council.

(a) The Rural Education Advisory Council is created as a statewide advisory council to exchange thoughtful dialogue concerning the needs, challenges, and opportunities of rural school schools districts and to provide policy recommendations to the State. The Council shall perform all of the following functions:

(1) Convey and impart the perspective of rural communities and provide context during policy discussions on various statewide issues with the State Superintendent of Education.

(2) Present to the State Superintendent of Education the opportunity to speak directly with representatives of rural communities on various policy and legal issues, to present feedback on critical issues facing rural communities, to generate ideas, and to communicate information to the State Superintendent.

(3) Provide feedback about this State's pre-kindergarten through grade 12 practices and policies so that the application of policies in rural areas may be more fully understood.

(b) The Council shall consist of all of the following members:

(1) The State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee.

(2) One representative of an association representing rural and small schools, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(3) Five superintendents of rural school districts who represent 3 super-regions of this State and who are recommended by an association representing rural and small schools, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(4) One principal from a rural school district recommended by a statewide organization representing school principals, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(5) One representative from a rural school district recommended by a statewide organization representing school boards, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(6) One representative of a statewide organization representing district superintendents, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(7) One representative of a statewide organization representing regional superintendents of schools, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(8) One student who is at least 15 years old, who is a member of the State Board of Education's Student Advisory Council, and who is from a rural school district, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

Council members must reflect, as much as possible, the racial and ethnic diversity of this State.

Council members shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for their reasonable and necessary expenses from funds appropriated to the State Board of Education for that purpose, subject to the rules of the appropriate travel control board.

(c) The Council shall meet initially at the call of the State Superintendent of Education, shall select one member as chairperson at its initial meeting, and shall thereafter meet at the call of the chairperson.

(d) The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and other support to the Council as needed.

(e) The Council is dissolved and this Section is repealed on December 31, 2031.

(Source: P.A. 103-497, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-30-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Holidays.

(a) Teachers shall not be required to teach on Saturdays, nor, except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, shall teachers, educational support personnel employees, or other school employees, other than noncertificated school employees whose presence is necessary because of an emergency or for the continued operation and maintenance of school facilities or property, be required to work on legal school holidays, which are January 1, New Year's Day; the third Monday in January, the Birthday of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.; February 12, the Birthday of President Abraham Lincoln; the first Monday in March (to be known as Casimir Pulaski's birthday); Good Friday; the day designated as Memorial Day by federal law; June 19, Juneteenth National Freedom Day; July 4, Independence Day; the first Monday in September, Labor Day; the second Monday in October, Columbus Day; November 11, Veterans' Day; the Thursday in November commonly called Thanksgiving Day; and December 25, Christmas Day. School boards may grant special holidays whenever in their judgment such action is advisable. No deduction shall be made from the time or compensation of a school employee, including an educational support personnel employee, on account of any legal or special holiday in which that employee would have otherwise been scheduled to work but for the legal or special holiday.

(b) A school board or other entity eligible to apply for waivers and modifications under Section 2-3.25g of this Code is authorized to hold school or schedule teachers' institutes, parent-teacher conferences, or staff development on the third Monday in January (the Birthday of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.); February 12 (the Birthday of President Abraham Lincoln); the first Monday in March (known as Casimir Pulaski's birthday); the second Monday in October (Columbus Day); and November 11 (Veterans' Day), provided that:

(1) the person or persons honored by the holiday are recognized through instructional activities conducted on that day or, if the day is not used for student attendance, on the first school day preceding or following that day; and

(2) the entity that chooses to exercise this authority first holds a public hearing about the proposal. The entity shall provide notice preceding the public hearing to both educators and parents. The notice shall set forth the time, date, and place of the hearing, describe the proposal, and indicate that the entity will take testimony from educators and parents about the proposal.

(c) Commemorative holidays, which recognize specified patriotic, civic, cultural or historical persons, activities, or events, are regular school days. Commemorative holidays are: January 17 (the birthday of Muhammad Ali), January 28 (to be known as Christa McAuliffe Day and observed as a commemoration of space exploration), February 15 (the birthday of Susan B. Anthony), March 29 (Viet Nam War Veterans' Day), September 11 (September 11th Day of Remembrance), September 17 (Constitution Day), the school day immediately preceding Veterans' Day (Korean War Veterans' Day), October 1 (Recycling Day), October 7 (Iraq and Afghanistan Veterans Remembrance Day), December 7 (Pearl Harbor Veterans' Day), and any day so appointed by the President or Governor. School boards may establish commemorative holidays whenever in their judgment such action is advisable. School boards shall include instruction relative to commemorated persons, activities, or events on the commemorative holiday or at any other time during the school year and at any point in the curriculum when such instruction may be deemed appropriate. The State Board of Education shall prepare and make available to school boards instructional materials relative to commemorated persons, activities, or events which may be used by school boards in conjunction with any instruction provided pursuant to this paragraph.

(d) City of Chicago School District 299 shall observe March 4 of each year as a commemorative holiday. This holiday shall be known as Mayors' Day which shall be a day to commemorate and be reminded of the past Chief Executive Officers of the City of Chicago, and in particular the late Mayor Richard J. Daley and the late Mayor Harold Washington. If March 4 falls on a Saturday or Sunday, Mayors' Day shall be observed on the following Monday.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary, November 3, 2020 shall be a State holiday known as 2020 General Election Day and shall be observed throughout the State pursuant to Public Act 101-642 this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. All government offices, with the exception of election authorities, shall be closed unless authorized to be used as a location for election day services or as a polling place.

Notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary, November 8, 2022 shall be a State holiday known as 2022 General Election Day and shall be observed throughout the State under Public Act 102-15.

Notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary, November 5, 2024 shall be a State holiday known as 2024 General Election Day and shall be observed throughout this State pursuant to Public Act 103-467 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-14, eff. 1-1-22; 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; 102-334, eff. 8-9-21; 102-411, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-15, eff. 7-1-23; 103-395, eff. 1-1-24; 103-467, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-1-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-12)

Sec. 24-12. Removal or dismissal of teachers in contractual continued service.

(a) This subsection (a) applies only to honorable dismissals and recalls in which the notice of dismissal is provided on or before the end of the 2010-2011 school term. If a teacher in contractual continued service is removed or dismissed as a result of a decision of the board to decrease the number of teachers employed by the board or to discontinue some particular type of teaching service, written notice shall be mailed to the teacher and also given the teacher either by certified mail, return receipt requested or personal delivery with receipt at least 60 days before the end of the school term, together with a statement of honorable dismissal and the reason therefor, and in all such cases the board shall first remove or dismiss all teachers who have not entered upon contractual continued service before removing or dismissing any teacher who has entered upon contractual continued service and who is legally qualified to hold a position currently held by a teacher who has not entered upon contractual continued service.

As between teachers who have entered upon contractual continued service, the teacher or teachers with the shorter length of continuing service with the district shall be dismissed first unless an alternative method of determining the sequence of dismissal is established in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization and except that this provision shall not impair the operation of any affirmative action program in the district, regardless of whether it exists by operation of law or is conducted on a voluntary basis by the board. Any teacher dismissed as a result of such decrease or discontinuance shall be paid all earned compensation on or before the third business day following the last day of pupil attendance in the regular school term.

If the board has any vacancies for the following school term or within one calendar year from the beginning of the following school term, the positions thereby becoming available shall be tendered to the teachers so removed or dismissed so far as they are legally qualified to hold such positions; provided, however, that if the number of honorable dismissal notices based on economic necessity exceeds 15% of the number of full-time equivalent positions filled by certified employees (excluding principals and administrative personnel) during the preceding school year, then if the board has any vacancies for the following school term or within 2 calendar years from the beginning of the following school term, the positions so becoming available shall be tendered to the teachers who were so notified and removed or dismissed whenever they are legally qualified to hold such positions. Each board shall, in consultation with any exclusive employee representatives, each year establish a list, categorized by positions, showing the length of continuing service of each teacher who is qualified to hold any such positions, unless an alternative method of determining a sequence of dismissal is established as provided for in this Section, in which case a list shall be made in accordance with the alternative method. Copies of the list shall be distributed to the exclusive employee representative on or before February 1 of each year. Whenever the number of honorable dismissal notices based upon economic necessity exceeds 5, or 150% of the average number of teachers honorably dismissed in the preceding 3 years, whichever is more, then the board also shall hold a public hearing on the question of the dismissals. Following the hearing and board review, the action to approve any such reduction shall require a majority vote of the board members.

(b) If any teacher, whether or not in contractual continued service, is removed or dismissed as a result of a decision of a school board to decrease the number of teachers employed by the board, a decision of a school board to discontinue some particular type of teaching service, or a reduction in the number of programs or positions in a special education joint agreement, then written notice must be mailed to the teacher and also given to the teacher either by electronic mail, certified mail, return receipt requested, or personal delivery with receipt on or before April 15, together with a statement of honorable dismissal and the reason therefor, and in all such cases the sequence of dismissal shall occur in accordance with this subsection (b); except that this subsection (b) shall not impair the operation of any affirmative action program in the school district, regardless of whether it exists by operation of law or is conducted on a voluntary basis by the board.

Each teacher must be categorized into one or more positions for which the teacher is qualified to hold, based upon legal qualifications and any other qualifications established in a district or joint agreement job description, on or before the May 10 prior to the school year during which the sequence of dismissal is determined. Within each position and subject to agreements made by the joint committee on honorable dismissals that are authorized by subsection (c) of this Section, the school district or joint agreement must establish 4 groupings of teachers qualified to hold the position as follows:

(1) Grouping one shall consist of each teacher who is not in contractual continued service and who (i) has not received a performance evaluation rating, (ii) is employed for one school term or less to replace a teacher on leave, or (iii) is employed on a part-time basis. "Part-time basis" for the purposes of this subsection (b) means a teacher who is employed to teach less than a full-day, teacher workload or less than 5 days of the normal student attendance week, unless otherwise provided for in a collective bargaining agreement between the district and the exclusive representative of the district's teachers. For the purposes of this Section, a teacher (A) who is employed as a full-time teacher but who actually teaches or is otherwise present and participating in the district's educational program for less than a school term or (B) who, in the immediately previous school term, was employed on a full-time basis and actually taught or was otherwise present and participated in the district's educational program for 120 days or more is not considered employed on a part-time basis.

(2) Grouping 2 shall consist of each teacher with a Needs Improvement or Unsatisfactory performance evaluation rating on either of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings.

(3) Grouping 3 shall consist of each teacher with a performance evaluation rating of at least Satisfactory or Proficient on both of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings, if 2 ratings are available, or on the teacher's last performance evaluation rating, if only one rating is available, unless the teacher qualifies for placement into grouping 4.

(4) Grouping 4 shall consist of each teacher whose last 2 performance evaluation ratings are Excellent and each teacher with 2 Excellent performance evaluation ratings out of the teacher's last 3 performance evaluation ratings with a third rating of Satisfactory or Proficient.

Among teachers qualified to hold a position, teachers must be dismissed in the order of their groupings, with teachers in grouping one dismissed first and teachers in grouping 4 dismissed last.

Within grouping one, the sequence of dismissal must be at the discretion of the school district or joint agreement. Within grouping 2, the sequence of dismissal must be based upon average performance evaluation ratings, with the teacher or teachers with the lowest average performance evaluation rating dismissed first. A teacher's average performance evaluation rating must be calculated using the average of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings, if 2 ratings are available, or the teacher's last performance evaluation rating, if only one rating is available, using the following numerical values: 4 for Excellent; 3 for Proficient or Satisfactory; 2 for Needs Improvement; and 1 for Unsatisfactory. As between or among teachers in grouping 2 with the same average performance evaluation rating and within each of groupings 3 and 4, the teacher or teachers with the shorter length of continuing service with the school district or joint agreement must be dismissed first unless an alternative method of determining the sequence of dismissal is established in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization.

Each board, including the governing board of a joint agreement, shall, in consultation with any exclusive employee representatives, each year establish a sequence of honorable dismissal list categorized by positions and the groupings defined in this subsection (b). Copies of the list showing each teacher by name, along with the race or ethnicity of the teacher if provided by the teacher, and categorized by positions and the groupings defined in this subsection (b) must be distributed to the exclusive bargaining representative at least 75 days before the end of the school term, provided that the school district or joint agreement may, with notice to any exclusive employee representatives, move teachers from grouping one into another grouping during the period of time from 75 days until April 15. Each year, each board shall also establish, in consultation with any exclusive employee representatives, a list showing the length of continuing service of each teacher who is qualified to hold any such positions, unless an alternative method of determining a sequence of dismissal is established as provided for in this Section, in which case a list must be made in accordance with the alternative method. Copies of the list must be distributed to the exclusive employee representative at least 75 days before the end of the school term.

Any teacher dismissed as a result of such decrease or discontinuance must be paid all earned compensation on or before the third business day following the last day of pupil attendance in the regular school term.

If the board or joint agreement has any vacancies for the following school term or within one calendar year from the beginning of the following school term, the positions thereby becoming available must be tendered to the teachers so removed or dismissed who were in grouping 3 or 4 of the sequence of dismissal and are qualified to hold the positions, based upon legal qualifications and any other qualifications established in a district or joint agreement job description, on or before the May 10 prior to the date of the positions becoming available, provided that if the number of honorable dismissal notices based on economic necessity exceeds 15% of the number of full-time equivalent positions filled by certified employees (excluding principals and administrative personnel) during the preceding school year, then the recall period is for the following school term or within 2 calendar years from the beginning of the following school term. If the board or joint agreement has any vacancies within the period from the beginning of the following school term through February 1 of the following school term (unless a date later than February 1, but no later than 6 months from the beginning of the following school term, is established in a collective bargaining agreement), the positions thereby becoming available must be tendered to the teachers so removed or dismissed who were in grouping 2 of the sequence of dismissal due to one "needs improvement" rating on either of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings, provided that, if 2 ratings are available, the other performance evaluation rating used for grouping purposes is "satisfactory", "proficient", or "excellent", and are qualified to hold the positions, based upon legal qualifications and any other qualifications established in a district or joint agreement job description, on or before the May 10 prior to the date of the positions becoming available. On and after July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648), the preceding sentence shall apply to teachers removed or dismissed by honorable dismissal, even if notice of honorable dismissal occurred during the 2013-2014 school year. Among teachers eligible for recall pursuant to the preceding sentence, the order of recall must be in inverse order of dismissal, unless an alternative order of recall is established in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization. Whenever the number of honorable dismissal notices based upon economic necessity exceeds 5 notices or 150% of the average number of teachers honorably dismissed in the preceding 3 years, whichever is more, then the school board or governing board of a joint agreement, as applicable, shall also hold a public hearing on the question of the dismissals. Following the hearing and board review, the action to approve any such reduction shall require a majority vote of the board members.

For purposes of this subsection (b), subject to agreement on an alternative definition reached by the joint committee described in subsection (c) of this Section, a teacher's performance evaluation rating means the overall performance evaluation rating resulting from an annual or biennial performance evaluation conducted pursuant to Article 24A of this Code by the school district or joint agreement determining the sequence of dismissal, not including any performance evaluation conducted during or at the end of a remediation period. No more than one evaluation rating each school term shall be one of the evaluation ratings used for the purpose of determining the sequence of dismissal. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection for any performance evaluations conducted during or at the end of a remediation period, if multiple performance evaluations are conducted in a school term, only the rating from the last evaluation conducted prior to establishing the sequence of honorable dismissal list in such school term shall be the one evaluation rating from that school term used for the purpose of determining the sequence of dismissal. Averaging ratings from multiple evaluations is not permitted unless otherwise agreed to in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization. The preceding 3 sentences are not a legislative declaration that existing law does or does not already require that only one performance evaluation each school term shall be used for the purpose of determining the sequence of dismissal. For performance evaluation ratings determined prior to September 1, 2012, any school district or joint agreement with a performance evaluation rating system that does not use either of the rating category systems specified in subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code for all teachers must establish a basis for assigning each teacher a rating that complies with subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code for all of the performance evaluation ratings that are to be used to determine the sequence of dismissal. A teacher's grouping and ranking on a sequence of honorable dismissal shall be deemed a part of the teacher's performance evaluation, and that information shall be disclosed to the exclusive bargaining representative as part of a sequence of honorable dismissal list, notwithstanding any laws prohibiting disclosure of such information. A performance evaluation rating may be used to determine the sequence of dismissal, notwithstanding the pendency of any grievance resolution or arbitration procedures relating to the performance evaluation. If a teacher has received at least one performance evaluation rating conducted by the school district or joint agreement determining the sequence of dismissal and a subsequent performance evaluation is not conducted in any school year in which such evaluation is required to be conducted under Section 24A-5 of this Code, the teacher's performance evaluation rating for that school year for purposes of determining the sequence of dismissal is deemed Proficient, except that, during any time in which the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, this default to Proficient does not apply to any teacher who has entered into contractual continued service and who was deemed Excellent on his or her most recent evaluation. During any time in which the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act and unless the school board and any exclusive bargaining representative have completed the performance rating for teachers or have mutually agreed to an alternate performance rating, any teacher who has entered into contractual continued service, whose most recent evaluation was deemed Excellent, and whose performance evaluation is not conducted when the evaluation is required to be conducted shall receive a teacher's performance rating deemed Excellent. A school board and any exclusive bargaining representative may mutually agree to an alternate performance rating for teachers not in contractual continued service during any time in which the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, as long as the agreement is in writing. If a performance evaluation rating is nullified as the result of an arbitration, administrative agency, or court determination, then the school district or joint agreement is deemed to have conducted a performance evaluation for that school year, but the performance evaluation rating may not be used in determining the sequence of dismissal.

Nothing in this subsection (b) shall be construed as limiting the right of a school board or governing board of a joint agreement to dismiss a teacher not in contractual continued service in accordance with Section 24-11 of this Code.

Any provisions regarding the sequence of honorable dismissals and recall of honorably dismissed teachers in a collective bargaining agreement entered into on or before January 1, 2011 and in effect on June 13, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-8) that may conflict with Public Act 97-8 shall remain in effect through the expiration of such agreement or June 30, 2013, whichever is earlier.

(c) Each school district and special education joint agreement must use a joint committee composed of equal representation selected by the school board and its teachers or, if applicable, the exclusive bargaining representative of its teachers, to address the matters described in paragraphs (1) through (5) of this subsection (c) pertaining to honorable dismissals under subsection (b) of this Section.

(1) The joint committee must consider and may agree to criteria for excluding from grouping 2 and placing into grouping 3 a teacher whose last 2 performance evaluations include a Needs Improvement and either a Proficient or Excellent.

(2) The joint committee must consider and may agree to an alternative definition for grouping 4, which definition must take into account prior performance evaluation ratings and may take into account other factors that relate to the school district's or program's educational objectives. An alternative definition for grouping 4 may not permit the inclusion of a teacher in the grouping with a Needs Improvement or Unsatisfactory performance evaluation rating on either of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings.

(3) The joint committee may agree to including within the definition of a performance evaluation rating a performance evaluation rating administered by a school district or joint agreement other than the school district or joint agreement determining the sequence of dismissal.

(4) For each school district or joint agreement that administers performance evaluation ratings that are inconsistent with either of the rating category systems specified in subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code, the school district or joint agreement must consult with the joint committee on the basis for assigning a rating that complies with subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code to each performance evaluation rating that will be used in a sequence of dismissal.

(5) Upon request by a joint committee member submitted to the employing board by no later than 10 days after the distribution of the sequence of honorable dismissal list, a representative of the employing board shall, within 5 days after the request, provide to members of the joint committee a list showing the most recent and prior performance evaluation ratings of each teacher identified only by length of continuing service in the district or joint agreement and not by name. If, after review of this list, a member of the joint committee has a good faith belief that a disproportionate number of teachers with greater length of continuing service with the district or joint agreement have received a recent performance evaluation rating lower than the prior rating, the member may request that the joint committee review the list to assess whether such a trend may exist. Following the joint committee's review, but by no later than the end of the applicable school term, the joint committee or any member or members of the joint committee may submit a report of the review to the employing board and exclusive bargaining representative, if any. Nothing in this paragraph (5) shall impact the order of honorable dismissal or a school district's or joint agreement's authority to carry out a dismissal in accordance with subsection (b) of this Section.

Agreement by the joint committee as to a matter requires the majority vote of all committee members, and if the joint committee does not reach agreement on a matter, then the otherwise applicable requirements of subsection (b) of this Section shall apply. Except as explicitly set forth in this subsection (c), a joint committee has no authority to agree to any further modifications to the requirements for honorable dismissals set forth in subsection (b) of this Section. The joint committee must be established, and the first meeting of the joint committee each school year must occur on or before December 1.

The joint committee must reach agreement on a matter on or before February 1 of a school year in order for the agreement of the joint committee to apply to the sequence of dismissal determined during that school year. Subject to the February 1 deadline for agreements, the agreement of a joint committee on a matter shall apply to the sequence of dismissal until the agreement is amended or terminated by the joint committee.

The provisions of the Open Meetings Act shall not apply to meetings of a joint committee created under this subsection (c).

(d) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this subsection (d), the requirements and dismissal procedures of Section 24-16.5 of this Code shall apply to any dismissal sought under Section 24-16.5 of this Code.

(1) If a dismissal of a teacher in contractual continued service is sought for any reason or cause other than an honorable dismissal under subsections (a) or (b) of this Section or a dismissal sought under Section 24-16.5 of this Code, including those under Section 10-22.4, the board must first approve a motion containing specific charges by a majority vote of all its members. Written notice of such charges, including a bill of particulars and the teacher's right to request a hearing, must be mailed to the teacher and also given to the teacher either by electronic mail, certified mail, return receipt requested, or personal delivery with receipt within 5 days of the adoption of the motion. Any written notice sent on or after July 1, 2012 shall inform the teacher of the right to request a hearing before a mutually selected hearing officer, with the cost of the hearing officer split equally between the teacher and the board, or a hearing before a board-selected hearing officer, with the cost of the hearing officer paid by the board.

Before setting a hearing on charges stemming from causes that are considered remediable, a board must give the teacher reasonable warning in writing, stating specifically the causes that, if not removed, may result in charges; however, no such written warning is required if the causes have been the subject of a remediation plan pursuant to Article 24A of this Code.

If, in the opinion of the board, the interests of the school require it, the board may suspend the teacher without pay, pending the hearing, but if the board's dismissal or removal is not sustained, the teacher shall not suffer the loss of any salary or benefits by reason of the suspension.

(2) No hearing upon the charges is required unless the teacher within 17 days after receiving notice requests in writing of the board that a hearing be scheduled before a mutually selected hearing officer or a hearing officer selected by the board. The secretary of the school board shall forward a copy of the notice to the State Board of Education.

(3) Within 5 business days after receiving a notice of hearing in which either notice to the teacher was sent before July 1, 2012 or, if the notice was sent on or after July 1, 2012, the teacher has requested a hearing before a mutually selected hearing officer, the State Board of Education shall provide a list of 5 prospective, impartial hearing officers from the master list of qualified, impartial hearing officers maintained by the State Board of Education. Each person on the master list must (i) be accredited by a national arbitration organization and have had a minimum of 5 years of experience directly related to labor and employment relations matters between employers and employees or their exclusive bargaining representatives and (ii) beginning September 1, 2012, have participated in training provided or approved by the State Board of Education for teacher dismissal hearing officers so that he or she is familiar with issues generally involved in evaluative and non-evaluative dismissals.

If notice to the teacher was sent before July 1, 2012 or, if the notice was sent on or after July 1, 2012, the teacher has requested a hearing before a mutually selected hearing officer, the board and the teacher or their legal representatives within 3 business days shall alternately strike one name from the list provided by the State Board of Education until only one name remains. Unless waived by the teacher, the teacher shall have the right to proceed first with the striking. Within 3 business days of receipt of the list provided by the State Board of Education, the board and the teacher or their legal representatives shall each have the right to reject all prospective hearing officers named on the list and notify the State Board of Education of such rejection. Within 3 business days after receiving this notification, the State Board of Education shall appoint a qualified person from the master list who did not appear on the list sent to the parties to serve as the hearing officer, unless the parties notify it that they have chosen to alternatively select a hearing officer under paragraph (4) of this subsection (d).

If the teacher has requested a hearing before a hearing officer selected by the board, the board shall select one name from the master list of qualified impartial hearing officers maintained by the State Board of Education within 3 business days after receipt and shall notify the State Board of Education of its selection.

A hearing officer mutually selected by the parties, selected by the board, or selected through an alternative selection process under paragraph (4) of this subsection (d) (A) must not be a resident of the school district, (B) must be available to commence the hearing within 75 days and conclude the hearing within 120 days after being selected as the hearing officer, and (C) must issue a decision as to whether the teacher must be dismissed and give a copy of that decision to both the teacher and the board within 30 days from the conclusion of the hearing or closure of the record, whichever is later.

Any hearing convened during a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act may be convened remotely. Any hearing officer for a hearing convened during a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act may voluntarily withdraw from the hearing and another hearing officer shall be selected or appointed pursuant to this Section.

In this paragraph, "pre-hearing procedures" refers to the pre-hearing procedures under Section 51.55 of Title 23 of the Illinois Administrative Code and "hearing" refers to the hearing under Section 51.60 of Title 23 of the Illinois Administrative Code. Any teacher who has been charged with engaging in acts of corporal punishment, physical abuse, grooming, or sexual misconduct and who previously paused pre-hearing procedures or a hearing pursuant to Public Act 101-643 must proceed with selection of a hearing officer or hearing date, or both, within the timeframes established by this paragraph (3) and paragraphs (4) through (6) of this subsection (d), unless the timeframes are mutually waived in writing by both parties, and all timelines set forth in this Section in cases concerning corporal punishment, physical abuse, grooming, or sexual misconduct shall be reset to begin the day after April 22, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-708) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. Any teacher charged with engaging in acts of corporal punishment, physical abuse, grooming, or sexual misconduct on or after April 22, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-708) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly may not pause pre-hearing procedures or a hearing.

(4) In the alternative to selecting a hearing officer from the list received from the State Board of Education or accepting the appointment of a hearing officer by the State Board of Education or if the State Board of Education cannot provide a list or appoint a hearing officer that meets the foregoing requirements, the board and the teacher or their legal representatives may mutually agree to select an impartial hearing officer who is not on the master list either by direct appointment by the parties or by using procedures for the appointment of an arbitrator established by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service or the American Arbitration Association. The parties shall notify the State Board of Education of their intent to select a hearing officer using an alternative procedure within 3 business days of receipt of a list of prospective hearing officers provided by the State Board of Education, notice of appointment of a hearing officer by the State Board of Education, or receipt of notice from the State Board of Education that it cannot provide a list that meets the foregoing requirements, whichever is later.

(5) If the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher before July 1, 2012, the fees and costs for the hearing officer must be paid by the State Board of Education. If the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher on or after July 1, 2012, the hearing officer's fees and costs must be paid as follows in this paragraph (5). The fees and permissible costs for the hearing officer must be determined by the State Board of Education. If the board and the teacher or their legal representatives mutually agree to select an impartial hearing officer who is not on a list received from the State Board of Education, they may agree to supplement the fees determined by the State Board to the hearing officer, at a rate consistent with the hearing officer's published professional fees. If the hearing officer is mutually selected by the parties, then the board and the teacher or their legal representatives shall each pay 50% of the fees and costs and any supplemental allowance to which they agree. If the hearing officer is selected by the board, then the board shall pay 100% of the hearing officer's fees and costs. The fees and costs must be paid to the hearing officer within 14 days after the board and the teacher or their legal representatives receive the hearing officer's decision set forth in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d).

(6) The teacher is required to answer the bill of particulars and aver affirmative matters in his or her defense, and the time for initially doing so and the time for updating such answer and defenses after pre-hearing discovery must be set by the hearing officer. The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules so that each party has a fair opportunity to present its case and to ensure that the dismissal process proceeds in a fair and expeditious manner. These rules shall address, without limitation, discovery and hearing scheduling conferences; the teacher's initial answer and affirmative defenses to the bill of particulars and the updating of that information after pre-hearing discovery; provision for written interrogatories and requests for production of documents; the requirement that each party initially disclose to the other party and then update the disclosure no later than 10 calendar days prior to the commencement of the hearing, the names and addresses of persons who may be called as witnesses at the hearing, a summary of the facts or opinions each witness will testify to, and all other documents and materials, including information maintained electronically, relevant to its own as well as the other party's case (the hearing officer may exclude witnesses and exhibits not identified and shared, except those offered in rebuttal for which the party could not reasonably have anticipated prior to the hearing); pre-hearing discovery and preparation, including provision for written interrogatories and requests for production of documents, provided that discovery depositions are prohibited; the conduct of the hearing; the right of each party to be represented by counsel, the offer of evidence and witnesses and the cross-examination of witnesses; the authority of the hearing officer to issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, provided that the hearing officer may limit the number of witnesses to be subpoenaed on behalf of each party to no more than 7; the length of post-hearing briefs; and the form, length, and content of hearing officers' decisions. The hearing officer shall hold a hearing and render a final decision for dismissal pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or shall report to the school board findings of fact and a recommendation as to whether or not the teacher must be dismissed for conduct. The hearing officer shall commence the hearing within 75 days and conclude the hearing within 120 days after being selected as the hearing officer, provided that the hearing officer may modify these timelines upon the showing of good cause or mutual agreement of the parties. Good cause for the purpose of this subsection (d) shall mean the illness or otherwise unavoidable emergency of the teacher, district representative, their legal representatives, the hearing officer, or an essential witness as indicated in each party's pre-hearing submission. In a dismissal hearing pursuant to Article 24A of this Code in which a witness is a student or is under the age of 18, the hearing officer must make accommodations for the witness, as provided under paragraph (6.5) of this subsection. The hearing officer shall consider and give weight to all of the teacher's evaluations written pursuant to Article 24A that are relevant to the issues in the hearing.

Each party shall have no more than 3 days to present its case, unless extended by the hearing officer to enable a party to present adequate evidence and testimony, including due to the other party's cross-examination of the party's witnesses, for good cause or by mutual agreement of the parties. The State Board of Education shall define in rules the meaning of "day" for such purposes. All testimony at the hearing shall be taken under oath administered by the hearing officer. The hearing officer shall cause a record of the proceedings to be kept and shall employ a competent reporter to take stenographic or stenotype notes of all the testimony. The costs of the reporter's attendance and services at the hearing shall be paid by the party or parties who are responsible for paying the fees and costs of the hearing officer. Either party desiring a transcript of the hearing shall pay for the cost thereof. Any post-hearing briefs must be submitted by the parties by no later than 21 days after a party's receipt of the transcript of the hearing, unless extended by the hearing officer for good cause or by mutual agreement of the parties.

(6.5) In the case of charges involving any witness who is or was at the time of the alleged conduct a student or a person under the age of 18, the hearing officer shall make accommodations to protect a witness from being intimidated, traumatized, or re-traumatized. No alleged victim or other witness who is or was at the time of the alleged conduct a student or under the age of 18 may be compelled to testify in the physical or visual presence of a teacher or other witness. If such a witness invokes this right, then the hearing officer must provide an accommodation consistent with the invoked right and use a procedure by which each party may hear such witness's witness' testimony. Accommodations may include, but are not limited to: (i) testimony made via a telecommunication device in a location other than the hearing room and outside the physical or visual presence of the teacher and other hearing participants, but accessible to the teacher via a telecommunication device, (ii) testimony made in the hearing room but outside the physical presence of the teacher and accessible to the teacher via a telecommunication device, (iii) non-public testimony, (iv) testimony made via videoconference with the cameras and microphones of the teacher turned off, or (v) pre-recorded testimony, including, but not limited to, a recording of a forensic interview conducted at an accredited Children's Advocacy Center. With all accommodations, the hearing officer shall give such testimony the same consideration as if the witness testified without the accommodation. The teacher may not directly, or through a representative, question a witness called by the school board who is or was a student or under 18 years of age at the time of the alleged conduct. The hearing officer must permit the teacher to submit all relevant questions and follow-up questions for such a witness to have the questions posed by the hearing officer. All questions must exclude evidence of the witness' sexual behavior or predisposition, unless the evidence is offered to prove that someone other than the teacher subject to the dismissal hearing engaged in the charge at issue.

(7) The hearing officer shall, within 30 days from the conclusion of the hearing or closure of the record, whichever is later, make a decision as to whether or not the teacher shall be dismissed pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or report to the school board findings of fact and a recommendation as to whether or not the teacher shall be dismissed for cause and shall give a copy of the decision or findings of fact and recommendation to both the teacher and the school board. If a hearing officer fails without good cause, specifically provided in writing to both parties and the State Board of Education, to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation within 30 days after the hearing is concluded or the record is closed, whichever is later, the parties may mutually agree to select a hearing officer pursuant to the alternative procedure, as provided in this Section, to rehear the charges heard by the hearing officer who failed to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation or to review the record and render a decision. If any hearing officer fails without good cause, specifically provided in writing to both parties and the State Board of Education, to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation within 30 days after the hearing is concluded or the record is closed, whichever is later, or if any hearing officer fails to make an accommodation as described in paragraph (6.5), the hearing officer shall be removed from the master list of hearing officers maintained by the State Board of Education for not more than 24 months. The parties and the State Board of Education may also take such other actions as it deems appropriate, including recovering, reducing, or withholding any fees paid or to be paid to the hearing officer. If any hearing officer repeats such failure, he or she must be permanently removed from the master list maintained by the State Board of Education and may not be selected by parties through the alternative selection process under this paragraph (7) or paragraph (4) of this subsection (d). The board shall not lose jurisdiction to discharge a teacher if the hearing officer fails to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation within the time specified in this Section. If the decision of the hearing officer for dismissal pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board for dismissal for cause is in favor of the teacher, then the hearing officer or school board shall order reinstatement to the same or substantially equivalent position and shall determine the amount for which the school board is liable, including, but not limited to, loss of income and benefits.

(8) The school board, within 45 days after receipt of the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation as to whether (i) the conduct at issue occurred, (ii) the conduct that did occur was remediable, and (iii) the proposed dismissal should be sustained, shall issue a written order as to whether the teacher must be retained or dismissed for cause from its employ. The school board's written order shall incorporate the hearing officer's findings of fact, except that the school board may modify or supplement the findings of fact if, in its opinion, the findings of fact are against the manifest weight of the evidence.

If the school board dismisses the teacher notwithstanding the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation, the school board shall make a conclusion in its written order, giving its reasons therefor, and such conclusion and reasons must be included in its written order. The failure of the school board to strictly adhere to the timelines contained in this Section shall not render it without jurisdiction to dismiss the teacher. The school board shall not lose jurisdiction to discharge the teacher for cause if the hearing officer fails to render a recommendation within the time specified in this Section. The decision of the school board is final, unless reviewed as provided in paragraph (9) of this subsection (d).

If the school board retains the teacher, the school board shall enter a written order stating the amount of back pay and lost benefits, less mitigation, to be paid to the teacher, within 45 days after its retention order. Should the teacher object to the amount of the back pay and lost benefits or amount mitigated, the teacher shall give written objections to the amount within 21 days. If the parties fail to reach resolution within 7 days, the dispute shall be referred to the hearing officer, who shall consider the school board's written order and teacher's written objection and determine the amount to which the school board is liable. The costs of the hearing officer's review and determination must be paid by the board.

(9) The decision of the hearing officer pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board's decision to dismiss for cause is final unless reviewed as provided in Section 24-16 of this Code. If the school board's decision to dismiss for cause is contrary to the hearing officer's recommendation, the court on review shall give consideration to the school board's decision and its supplemental findings of fact, if applicable, and the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation in making its decision. In the event such review is instituted, the school board shall be responsible for preparing and filing the record of proceedings, and such costs associated therewith must be divided equally between the parties.

(10) If a decision of the hearing officer for dismissal pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board for dismissal for cause is adjudicated upon review or appeal in favor of the teacher, then the trial court shall order reinstatement and shall remand the matter to the school board with direction for entry of an order setting the amount of back pay, lost benefits, and costs, less mitigation. The teacher may challenge the school board's order setting the amount of back pay, lost benefits, and costs, less mitigation, through an expedited arbitration procedure, with the costs of the arbitrator borne by the school board.

Any teacher who is reinstated by any hearing or adjudication brought under this Section shall be assigned by the board to a position substantially similar to the one which that teacher held prior to that teacher's suspension or dismissal.

(11) Subject to any later effective date referenced in this Section for a specific aspect of the dismissal process, the changes made by Public Act 97-8 shall apply to dismissals instituted on or after September 1, 2011. Any dismissal instituted prior to September 1, 2011 must be carried out in accordance with the requirements of this Section prior to amendment by Public Act 97-8.

(e) Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(Source: P.A. 102-708, eff. 4-22-22; 103-354, eff. 1-1-24; 103-398, eff. 1-1-24; 103-500, eff. 8-4-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/24A-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 24A-5)

Sec. 24A-5. Content of evaluation plans. This Section does not apply to teachers assigned to schools identified in an agreement entered into between the board of a school district operating under Article 34 of this Code and the exclusive representative of the district's teachers in accordance with Section 34-85c of this Code.

Each school district to which this Article applies shall establish a teacher evaluation plan which ensures that each teacher in contractual continued service is evaluated at least once in the course of every 2 or 3 school years as provided in this Section.

Each school district shall establish a teacher evaluation plan that ensures that:

(1) each teacher not in contractual continued service is evaluated at least once every school year; and

(2) except as otherwise provided in this Section, each teacher in contractual continued service is evaluated at least once in the course of every 2 school years. However, any teacher in contractual continued service whose performance is rated as either "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory" must be evaluated at least once in the school year following the receipt of such rating.

No later than September 1, 2022, each school district must establish a teacher evaluation plan that ensures that each teacher in contractual continued service whose performance is rated as either "excellent" or "proficient" is evaluated at least once in the course of the 3 school years after receipt of the rating and implement an informal teacher observation plan established by agency rule and by agreement of the joint committee established under subsection (b) of Section 24A-4 of this Code that ensures that each teacher in contractual continued service whose performance is rated as either "excellent" or "proficient" is informally observed at least once in the course of the 2 school years after receipt of the rating.

For the 2022-2023 school year only, if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, a school district may waive the evaluation requirement of all teachers in contractual continued service whose performances were rated as either "excellent" or "proficient" during the last school year in which the teachers were evaluated under this Section.

Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section or any other Section of this Code, a principal shall not be prohibited from evaluating any teachers within a school during his or her first year as principal of such school. If a first-year principal exercises this option in a school district where the evaluation plan provides for a teacher in contractual continued service to be evaluated once in the course of every 2 or 3 school years, as applicable, then a new 2-year or 3-year evaluation plan must be established.

The evaluation plan shall comply with the requirements of this Section and of any rules adopted by the State Board of Education pursuant to this Section.

The plan shall include a description of each teacher's duties and responsibilities and of the standards to which that teacher is expected to conform, and shall include at least the following components:

(a) personal observation of the teacher in the classroom by the evaluator, unless the teacher has no classroom duties.

(b) consideration of the teacher's attendance, planning, instructional methods, classroom management, where relevant, and competency in the subject matter taught.

(c) by no later than the applicable implementation date, consideration of student growth as a significant factor in the rating of the teacher's performance.

(d) prior to September 1, 2012, rating of the performance of teachers in contractual continued service as either:

(i) "excellent", "satisfactory" or "unsatisfactory"; or

(ii) "excellent", "proficient", "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory".

(e) on and after September 1, 2012, rating of the performance of all teachers as "excellent", "proficient", "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory".

(f) specification as to the teacher's strengths and weaknesses, with supporting reasons for the comments made.

(g) inclusion of a copy of the evaluation in the teacher's personnel file and provision of a copy to the teacher.

(h) within 30 school days after the completion of an evaluation rating a teacher in contractual continued service as "needs improvement", development by the evaluator, in consultation with the teacher, and taking into account the teacher's on-going professional responsibilities including his or her regular teaching assignments, of a professional development plan directed to the areas that need improvement and any supports that the district will provide to address the areas identified as needing improvement.

(i) within 30 school days after completion of an evaluation rating a teacher in contractual continued service as "unsatisfactory", development and commencement by the district of a remediation plan designed to correct deficiencies cited, provided the deficiencies are deemed remediable. In all school districts the remediation plan for unsatisfactory, tenured teachers shall provide for 90 school days of remediation within the classroom, unless an applicable collective bargaining agreement provides for a shorter duration. In all school districts evaluations issued pursuant to this Section shall be issued within 10 days after the conclusion of the respective remediation plan. However, the school board or other governing authority of the district shall not lose jurisdiction to discharge a teacher in the event the evaluation is not issued within 10 days after the conclusion of the respective remediation plan.

(j) participation in the remediation plan by the teacher in contractual continued service rated "unsatisfactory", an evaluator and a consulting teacher selected by the evaluator of the teacher who was rated "unsatisfactory", which consulting teacher is an educational employee as defined in the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, has at least 5 years' teaching experience, and a reasonable familiarity with the assignment of the teacher being evaluated, and who received an "excellent" rating on his or her most recent evaluation. Where no teachers who meet these criteria are available within the district, the district shall request and the applicable regional office of education shall supply, to participate in the remediation process, an individual who meets these criteria.

In a district having a population of less than 500,000 with an exclusive bargaining agent, the bargaining agent may, if it so chooses, supply a roster of qualified teachers from whom the consulting teacher is to be selected. That roster shall, however, contain the names of at least 5 teachers, each of whom meets the criteria for consulting teacher with regard to the teacher being evaluated, or the names of all teachers so qualified if that number is less than 5. In the event of a dispute as to qualification, the State Board shall determine qualification.

(k) a mid-point and final evaluation by an evaluator during and at the end of the remediation period, immediately following receipt of a remediation plan provided for under subsections (i) and (j) of this Section. Each evaluation shall assess the teacher's performance during the time period since the prior evaluation; provided that the last evaluation shall also include an overall evaluation of the teacher's performance during the remediation period. A written copy of the evaluations and ratings, in which any deficiencies in performance and recommendations for correction are identified, shall be provided to and discussed with the teacher within 10 school days after the date of the evaluation, unless an applicable collective bargaining agreement provides to the contrary. These subsequent evaluations shall be conducted by an evaluator. The consulting teacher shall provide advice to the teacher rated "unsatisfactory" on how to improve teaching skills and to successfully complete the remediation plan. The consulting teacher shall participate in developing the remediation plan, but the final decision as to the evaluation shall be done solely by the evaluator, unless an applicable collective bargaining agreement provides to the contrary. Evaluations at the conclusion of the remediation process shall be separate and distinct from the required annual evaluations of teachers and shall not be subject to the guidelines and procedures relating to those annual evaluations. The evaluator may but is not required to use the forms provided for the annual evaluation of teachers in the district's evaluation plan.

(l) reinstatement to the evaluation schedule set forth in the district's evaluation plan for any teacher in contractual continued service who achieves a rating equal to or better than "satisfactory" or "proficient" in the school year following a rating of "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory".

(m) dismissal in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 24-12 or Section 24-16.5 or 34-85 of this Code of any teacher who fails to complete any applicable remediation plan with a rating equal to or better than a "satisfactory" or "proficient" rating. Districts and teachers subject to dismissal hearings are precluded from compelling the testimony of consulting teachers at such hearings under subsection (d) of Section 24-12 or Section 24-16.5 or 34-85 of this Code, either as to the rating process or for opinions of performances by teachers under remediation.

(n) After the implementation date of an evaluation system for teachers in a district as specified in Section 24A-2.5 of this Code, if a teacher in contractual continued service successfully completes a remediation plan following a rating of "unsatisfactory" in an overall performance evaluation received after the foregoing implementation date and receives a subsequent rating of "unsatisfactory" in any of the teacher's overall performance evaluation ratings received during the 36-month period following the teacher's completion of the remediation plan, then the school district may forgo forego remediation and seek dismissal in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 24-12 or Section 34-85 of this Code.

(o) Teachers who are due to be evaluated in the last year before they are set to retire shall be offered the opportunity to waive their evaluation and to retain their most recent rating, unless the teacher was last rated as "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory". The school district may still reserve the right to evaluate a teacher provided the district gives notice to the teacher at least 14 days before the evaluation and a reason for evaluating the teacher.

Nothing in this Section or Section 24A-4 shall be construed as preventing immediate dismissal of a teacher for deficiencies which are deemed irremediable or for actions which are injurious to or endanger the health or person of students in the classroom or school, or preventing the dismissal or non-renewal of teachers not in contractual continued service for any reason not prohibited by applicable employment, labor, and civil rights laws. Failure to strictly comply with the time requirements contained in Section 24A-5 shall not invalidate the results of the remediation plan.

Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

If the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act that suspends in-person instruction, the timelines in this Section connected to the commencement and completion of any remediation plan are waived. Except if the parties mutually agree otherwise and the agreement is in writing, any remediation plan that had been in place for more than 45 days prior to the suspension of in-person instruction shall resume when in-person instruction resumes and any remediation plan that had been in place for fewer than 45 days prior to the suspension of in-person instruction shall be discontinued and a new remediation period shall begin when in-person instruction resumes. The requirements of this paragraph apply regardless of whether they are included in a school district's teacher evaluation plan.

(Source: P.A. 102-252, eff. 1-1-22; 102-729, eff. 5-6-22; 103-85, eff. 6-9-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/26A-40)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 26A-40. Support and services.

(a) To facilitate the full participation of students who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence, each school district must provide those students with in-school support services and information regarding nonschool-based support services, and the ability to make up work missed on account of circumstances related to the student's status as a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence. Victims of domestic or sexual violence must have access to those supports and services regardless of when or where the violence for which they are seeking supports and services occurred. All supports and services must be offered for as long as necessary to maintain the mental and physical well-being and safety of the student. Schools may periodically check on students receiving supports and services to determine whether each support and service continues to be necessary to maintain the mental and physical well-being and safety of the student or whether termination is appropriate.

(b) Supports provided under subsection (a) shall include, but are not limited to (i) the provision of sufficiently private settings to ensure confidentiality and time off from class for meetings with counselors or other service providers, (ii) assisting the student with a student success plan, (iii) transferring a victim of domestic or sexual violence or the student perpetrator to a different classroom or school, if available, (iv) changing a seating assignment, (v) implementing in-school, school grounds, and bus safety procedures, (vi) honoring court orders, including orders of protection and no-contact orders to the fullest extent possible, and (vii) providing any other supports that may facilitate the full participation in the regular education program of students who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence.

(c) If a student who is a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence is a student at risk of academic failure or displays poor academic performance, the student or the student's parent or guardian may request that the school district provide the student with or refer the student to education and support services designed to assist the student in meeting State learning standards. A school district may either provide education or support services directly or may collaborate with public or private State, local, or community-based organizations or agencies that provide these services. A school district must also inform those students about support services of nonschool-based organizations and agencies from which those students typically receive services in the community.

(d) Any student who is unable, because of circumstances related to the student's status as a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence, to participate in classes on a particular day or days or at the particular time of day must be excused in accordance with the procedures set forth in this Code. Upon student or parent or guardian's request, the teachers and of the school administrative personnel and officials shall make available to each student who is unable to participate because of circumstances related to the student's status as a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence a meaningful opportunity to make up any examination, study, or work requirement that the student has missed because of the inability to participate on any particular day or days or at any particular time of day. For a student receiving homebound instruction, it is the responsibility of the student and parent to work with the school or school district to meet academic standards for matriculation, as defined by school district policy. Costs assessed by the school district on the student for participation in those activities shall be considered waivable fees for any student whose parent or guardian is unable to afford them, consistent with Section 10-20.13. Each school district must adopt written policies for waiver of those fees in accordance with rules adopted by the State Board of Education.

(e) If a school or school district employee or agent becomes aware of or suspects a student's status as a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence, it is the responsibility of the employee or agent of the school or school district to refer the student to the school district's domestic or sexual violence and parenting resource personnel set forth in Section 26A-35. A school district must make respecting a student's privacy, confidentiality, mental and physical health, and safety a paramount concern.

(f) Each school must honor a student's and a parent's or guardian's decision to obtain education and support services and nonschool-based support services, to terminate the receipt of those education and support services, or nonschool-based support services, or to decline participation in those education and support services, or nonschool-based support services. No student is obligated to use education and support services, or nonschool-based support services. In developing educational support services, the privacy, mental and physical health, and safety of the student shall be of paramount concern. No adverse or prejudicial effects may result to any student because of the student's availing of or declining the provisions of this Section as long as the student is working with the school to meet academic standards for matriculation as defined by school district policy.

(g) Any support services must be available in any school or by home or hospital instruction to the highest quality and fullest extent possible for the individual setting.

(h) School-based counseling services, if available, must be offered to students who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence consistent with the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. At least once every school year, each school district must inform, in writing, all school personnel and all students 12 years of age or older of the availability of counseling without parental or guardian consent under Section 3-5A-105 (to be renumbered as Section 3-550 in a revisory bill as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly) of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. This information must also be provided to students immediately after any school personnel becomes aware that a student is a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence.

(i) All domestic or sexual violence organizations and their staff and any other nonschool organization and its staff shall maintain confidentiality under federal and State laws and their professional ethics policies regardless of when or where information, advice, counseling, or any other interaction with students takes place. A school or school district may not request or require those organizations or individuals to breach confidentiality.

(Source: P.A. 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; revised 4-3-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-23.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-23.1)

Sec. 27-23.1. Parenting education.

(a) The State Board of Education must assist each school district that offers an evidence-based parenting education model. School districts may provide instruction in parenting education for grades 6 through 12 and include such instruction in the courses of study regularly taught therein. School districts may give regular school credit for satisfactory completion by the student of such courses.

As used in this subsection (a), "parenting education" means and includes instruction in the following:

(1) Child growth and development, including prenatal development.

(2) Childbirth and child care.

(3) Family structure, function, and management.

(4) Prenatal and postnatal care for mothers and infants.

(5) Prevention of child abuse.

(6) The physical, mental, emotional, social, economic, and psychological aspects of interpersonal and family relationships.

(7) Parenting skill development.

The State Board of Education shall assist those districts offering parenting education instruction, upon request, in developing instructional materials, training teachers, and establishing appropriate time allotments for each of the areas included in such instruction.

School districts may offer parenting education courses during that period of the day which is not part of the regular school day. Residents of the school district may enroll in such courses. The school board may establish fees and collect such charges as may be necessary for attendance at such courses in an amount not to exceed the per capita cost of the operation thereof, except that the board may waive all or part of such charges if it determines that the individual is indigent or that the educational needs of the individual requires his or her attendance at such courses.

(b) Beginning with the 2019-2020 school year, from appropriations made for the purposes of this Section, the State Board of Education shall implement and administer a 7-year pilot program supporting the health and wellness student-learning requirement by utilizing a unit of instruction on parenting education in participating school districts that maintain grades 9 through 12, to be determined by the participating school districts. The program is encouraged to include, but is not be limited to, instruction on (i) family structure, function, and management, (ii) the prevention of child abuse, (iii) the physical, mental, emotional, social, economic, and psychological aspects of interpersonal and family relationships, and (iv) parenting education competency development that is aligned to the social and emotional learning standards of the student's grade level. Instruction under this subsection (b) may be included in the Comprehensive Health Education Program set forth under Section 3 of the Critical Health Problems and Comprehensive Health Education Act. The State Board of Education is authorized to make grants to school districts that apply to participate in the pilot program under this subsection (b). The provisions of this subsection (b), other than this sentence, are inoperative at the conclusion of the pilot program.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-5-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-3)

Sec. 27A-3. Definitions. For purposes of this Article:

"At-risk pupil" means a pupil who, because of physical, emotional, socioeconomic, or cultural factors, is less likely to succeed in a conventional educational environment.

"Authorizer" means an entity authorized under this Article to review applications, decide whether to approve or reject applications, enter into charter contracts with applicants, oversee charter schools, and decide whether to renew, not renew, or revoke a charter.

"Local school board" means the duly elected or appointed school board or board of education of a public school district, including special charter districts and school districts located in cities having a population of more than 500,000, organized under the laws of this State.

"State Board" means the State Board of Education.

"Union neutrality clause" means a provision whereby a charter school agrees: (1) to be neutral regarding the unionization of any of its employees, such that the charter school will not at any time express a position on the matter of whether its employees will be unionized and such that the charter school will not threaten, intimidate, discriminate against, retaliate against, or take any adverse action against any employees based on their decision to support or oppose union representation; (2) to provide any bona fide labor organization access at reasonable times to areas in which the charter school's employees work for the purpose of meeting with employees to discuss their right to representation, employment rights under the law, and terms and conditions of employment; and (3) that union recognition shall be through a majority card check verified by a neutral third-party arbitrator mutually selected by the charter school and the bona fide labor organization through alternate striking from a panel of arbitrators provided by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service. As used in this definition, "bona fide labor organization" means a labor organization recognized under the National Labor Relations Act or the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act. As used in this definition, "employees" means non-represented, non-management, and non-confidential employees of a charter school.

(Source: P.A. 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-416, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-5-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-466 and 103-472)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. In all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. This limitation does not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003.

(b-5) (Blank).

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. A charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. The State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Sections 22-90 and 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code;

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code;

(19) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code;

(20) Section 10-22.25b of this Code;

(21) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) Section 27-9.1b of this Code;

(23) Section 34-18.8 of this Code;

(25) Section 2-3.188 of this Code;

(26) Section 22-85.5 of this Code;

(27) subsections (d-10), (d-15), and (d-20) of Section 10-20.56 of this Code;

(28) Sections 10-20.83 and 34-18.78 of this Code;

(29) Section 10-20.13 of this Code;

(30) Section 28-19.2 of this Code;

(31) Section 34-21.6 of this Code; and

(32) Section 22-85.10 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is authorized by the State Board, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; 102-702, eff. 7-1-23; 102-805, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-472 but before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. In all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. This limitation does not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003.

(b-5) (Blank).

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. A charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. The State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Sections 22-90 and 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code;

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code;

(19) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code;

(20) Section 10-22.25b of this Code;

(21) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) Section 27-9.1b of this Code;

(23) Section 34-18.8 of this Code;

(25) Section 2-3.188 of this Code;

(26) Section 22-85.5 of this Code;

(27) subsections (d-10), (d-15), and (d-20) of Section 10-20.56 of this Code;

(28) Sections 10-20.83 and 34-18.78 of this Code;

(29) Section 10-20.13 of this Code;

(30) Section 28-19.2 of this Code;

(31) Section 34-21.6 of this Code; and

(32) Section 22-85.10 of this Code;

(33) Section 2-3.196 of this Code;

(34) Section 22-95 of this Code;

(35) Section 34-18.62 of this Code; and

(36) the Illinois Human Rights Act.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is authorized by the State Board, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; 102-702, eff. 7-1-23; 102-805, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-472, eff. 8-1-24; revised 8-31-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. In all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. This limitation does not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003.

(b-5) (Blank).

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. A charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. The State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Sections 22-90 and 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code;

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code;

(19) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code;

(20) Section 10-22.25b of this Code;

(21) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) Section 27-9.1b of this Code;

(23) Section 34-18.8 of this Code;

(24) Article 26A of this Code;

(25) Section 2-3.188 of this Code;

(26) Section 22-85.5 of this Code;

(27) subsections (d-10), (d-15), and (d-20) of Section 10-20.56 of this Code;

(28) Sections 10-20.83 and 34-18.78 of this Code;

(29) Section 10-20.13 of this Code;

(30) Section 28-19.2 of this Code;

(31) Section 34-21.6 of this Code; and

(32) Section 22-85.10 of this Code;

(33) Section 2-3.196 of this Code;

(34) Section 22-95 of this Code;

(35) Section 34-18.62 of this Code; and

(36) the Illinois Human Rights Act.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is authorized by the State Board, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; 102-702, eff. 7-1-23; 102-805, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-472, eff. 8-1-24; revised 8-31-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-6)

Sec. 27A-6. Contract contents; applicability of laws and regulations.

(a) A certified charter shall constitute a binding contract and agreement between the charter school and a local school board under the terms of which the local school board authorizes the governing body of the charter school to operate the charter school on the terms specified in the contract.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the certified charter may not waive or release the charter school from the State goals, standards, and assessments established pursuant to Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code. The certified charter for a charter school operating in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 shall require the charter school to administer any other nationally recognized standardized tests to its students that the chartering entity administers to other students, and the results on such tests shall be included in the chartering entity's assessment reports.

(c) Subject to the provisions of subsection (e), a material revision to a previously certified contract or a renewal shall be made with the approval of both the local school board and the governing body of the charter school.

(c-5) The proposed contract shall include a provision on how both parties will address minor violations of the contract.

(c-10) After August 4, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-416) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, any renewal of a certified charter must include a union neutrality clause.

(d) The proposed contract between the governing body of a proposed charter school and the local school board as described in Section 27A-7 must be submitted to and certified by the State Board before it can take effect. If the State Board recommends that the proposed contract be modified for consistency with this Article before it can be certified, the modifications must be consented to by both the governing body of the charter school and the local school board, and resubmitted to the State Board for its certification. If the proposed contract is resubmitted in a form that is not consistent with this Article, the State Board may refuse to certify the charter.

The State Board shall assign a number to each submission or resubmission in chronological order of receipt, and shall determine whether the proposed contract is consistent with the provisions of this Article. If the proposed contract complies, the State Board shall so certify.

(e) No renewal of a previously certified contract is effective unless and until the State Board certifies that the renewal is consistent with the provisions of this Article. A material revision to a previously certified contract may go into effect immediately upon approval of both the local school board and the governing body of the charter school, unless either party requests in writing that the State Board certify that the material revision is consistent with the provisions of this Article. If such a request is made, the proposed material revision is not effective unless and until the State Board so certifies.

(Source: P.A. 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-416, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-5-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-7)

Sec. 27A-7. Charter submission.

(a) A proposal to establish a charter school shall be submitted to the local school board and the State Board for certification under Section 27A-6 of this Code in the form of a proposed contract entered into between the local school board and the governing body of a proposed charter school. The charter school proposal shall include:

(1) The name of the proposed charter school, which must include the words "Charter School".

(2) The age or grade range, areas of focus, minimum and maximum numbers of pupils to be enrolled in the charter school, and any other admission criteria that would be legal if used by a school district.

(3) A description of and address for the physical plant in which the charter school will be located; provided that nothing in the Article shall be deemed to justify delaying or withholding favorable action on or approval of a charter school proposal because the building or buildings in which the charter school is to be located have not been acquired or rented at the time a charter school proposal is submitted or approved or a charter school contract is entered into or submitted for certification or certified, so long as the proposal or submission identifies and names at least 2 sites that are potentially available as a charter school facility by the time the charter school is to open.

(4) The mission statement of the charter school, which must be consistent with the General Assembly's declared purposes; provided that nothing in this Article shall be construed to require that, in order to receive favorable consideration and approval, a charter school proposal demonstrate unequivocally that the charter school will be able to meet each of those declared purposes, it being the intention of the Charter Schools Law that those purposes be recognized as goals that charter schools must aspire to attain.

(5) The goals, objectives, and pupil performance standards to be achieved by the charter school.

(6) In the case of a proposal to establish a charter school by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status, evidence that the proposed formation of the charter school has received the approval of certified teachers, parents and guardians, and, if applicable, a local school council as provided in subsection (b) of Section 27A-8.

(7) A description of the charter school's educational program, pupil performance standards, curriculum, school year, school days, and hours of operation.

(8) A description of the charter school's plan for evaluating pupil performance, the types of assessments that will be used to measure pupil progress toward towards achievement of the school's pupil performance standards, the timeline for achievement of those standards, and the procedures for taking corrective action in the event that pupil performance at the charter school falls below those standards.

(9) Evidence that the terms of the charter as proposed are economically sound for both the charter school and the school district, a proposed budget for the term of the charter, a description of the manner in which an annual audit of the financial and administrative operations of the charter school, including any services provided by the school district, are to be conducted, and a plan for the displacement of pupils, teachers, and other employees who will not attend or be employed in the charter school.

(10) A description of the governance and operation of the charter school, including the nature and extent of parental, professional educator, and community involvement in the governance and operation of the charter school.

(11) An explanation of the relationship that will exist between the charter school and its employees, including evidence that the terms and conditions of employment have been addressed with affected employees and their recognized representative, if any. However, a bargaining unit of charter school employees shall be separate and distinct from any bargaining units formed from employees of a school district in which the charter school is located.

(12) An agreement between the parties regarding their respective legal liability and applicable insurance coverage.

(13) A description of how the charter school plans to meet the transportation needs of its pupils, and a plan for addressing the transportation needs of low-income and at-risk pupils.

(14) The proposed effective date and term of the charter; provided that the first day of the first academic year shall be no earlier than August 15 and no later than September 15 of a calendar year, and the first day of the fiscal year shall be July 1.

(14.5) Disclosure of any known active civil or criminal investigation by a local, state, or federal law enforcement agency into an organization submitting the charter school proposal or a criminal investigation by a local, state, or federal law enforcement agency into any member of the governing body of that organization. For the purposes of this subdivision (14.5), a known investigation means a request for an interview by a law enforcement agency, a subpoena, an arrest, or an indictment. Such disclosure is required for a period from the initial application submission through 10 business days prior to the authorizer's scheduled decision date.

(14.7) A union neutrality clause.

(15) Any other information reasonably required by the State Board.

(b) A proposal to establish a charter school may be initiated by individuals or organizations that will have majority representation on the board of directors or other governing body of the corporation or other discrete legal entity that is to be established to operate the proposed charter school, by a board of education or an intergovernmental agreement between or among boards of education, or by the board of directors or other governing body of a discrete legal entity already existing or established to operate the proposed charter school. The individuals or organizations referred to in this subsection may be school teachers, school administrators, local school councils, colleges or universities or their faculty members, public community colleges or their instructors or other representatives, corporations, or other entities or their representatives. The proposal shall be submitted to the local school board for consideration and, if appropriate, for development of a proposed contract to be submitted to the State Board for certification under Section 27A-6.

(c) The local school board may not without the consent of the governing body of the charter school condition its approval of a charter school proposal on acceptance of an agreement to operate under State laws and regulations and local school board policies from which the charter school is otherwise exempted under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-416, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-6-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-11.5)

Sec. 27A-11.5. State financing. The State Board shall make the following funds available to school districts and charter schools:

(1) From a separate appropriation made to the State Board for purposes of this subdivision (1), the State Board shall make transition impact aid available to school districts that approve a new charter school. The amount of the aid shall equal 90% of the per capita funding paid to the charter school during the first year of its initial charter term, 65% of the per capita funding paid to the charter school during the second year of its initial term, and 35% of the per capita funding paid to the charter school during the third year of its initial term. This transition impact aid shall be paid to the local school board in equal quarterly installments, with the payment of the installment for the first quarter being made by August 1st immediately preceding the first, second, and third years of the initial term. The district shall file an application for this aid with the State Board in a format designated by the State Board. If the appropriation is insufficient in any year to pay all approved claims, the impact aid shall be prorated.. If any funds remain after these claims have been paid, then the State Board may pay all other approved claims on a pro rata basis. Transition impact aid shall be paid for charter schools that are in the first, second, or third year of their initial term. Transition impact aid shall not be paid for any charter school that is proposed and created by one or more boards of education, as authorized under subsection (b) of Section 27A-7.

(2) From a separate appropriation made for the purpose of this subdivision (2), the State Board shall make grants to charter schools to pay their start-up costs of acquiring educational materials and supplies, textbooks, electronic textbooks and the technological equipment necessary to gain access to and use electronic textbooks, furniture, and other equipment or materials needed during their initial term. The State Board shall annually establish the time and manner of application for these grants, which shall not exceed $250 per student enrolled in the charter school.

(3) The Charter Schools Revolving Loan Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Federal funds, such other funds as may be made available for costs associated with the establishment of charter schools in Illinois, and amounts repaid by charter schools that have received a loan from the Charter Schools Revolving Loan Fund shall be deposited into the Charter Schools Revolving Loan Fund, and the moneys in the Charter Schools Revolving Loan Fund shall be appropriated to the State Board and used to provide interest-free loans to charter schools. These funds shall be used to pay start-up costs of acquiring educational materials and supplies, textbooks, electronic textbooks and the technological equipment necessary to gain access to and use electronic textbooks, furniture, and other equipment or materials needed in the initial term of the charter school and for acquiring and remodeling a suitable physical plant, within the initial term of the charter school. Loans shall be limited to one loan per charter school and shall not exceed $750 per student enrolled in the charter school. A loan shall be repaid by the end of the initial term of the charter school. The State Board may deduct amounts necessary to repay the loan from funds due to the charter school or may require that the local school board that authorized the charter school deduct such amounts from funds due the charter school and remit these amounts to the State Board, provided that the local school board shall not be responsible for repayment of the loan. The State Board may use up to 3% of the appropriation to contract with a non-profit entity to administer the loan program.

(4) A charter school may apply for and receive, subject to the same restrictions applicable to school districts, any grant administered by the State Board that is available for school districts.

If a charter school fails to make payments toward administrative costs, the State Board may withhold State funds from that school until it has made all payments for those costs.

(Source: P.A. 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.82)

Sec. 34-18.82. Trauma kit; trauma response training.

(a) In this Section, "trauma kit" means a first aid response kit that contains, at a minimum, all of the following:

(1) One tourniquet endorsed by the Committee on Tactical Combat Casualty Care.

(2) One compression bandage.

(3) One hemostatic bleeding control dressing endorsed by the Committee on Tactical Combat Casualty Care.

(4) Protective gloves and a marker.

(5) Scissors.

(6) Instructional documents developed by the Stop the Bleed national awareness campaign of the United States Department of Homeland Security or the American College of Surgeons' Committee on Trauma, or both.

(7) Any other medical materials or equipment similar to those described in paragraphs (1) through (3) or any other items that (i) are approved by a local law enforcement agency or first responders, (ii) can adequately treat a traumatic injury, and (iii) can be stored in a readily available kit.

(b) The school district may maintain an on-site trauma kit at each school for bleeding emergencies.

(c) Products purchased for the trauma kit, including those products endorsed by the Committee on Tactical Combat Casualty Care, shall, whenever possible, be manufactured in the United States.

(d) At least once every 2 years, the board shall conduct in-service training for all school district employees on the methods to respond to trauma. The training must include instruction on how to respond to an incident involving life-threatening bleeding and, if applicable, how to use a school's trauma kit. The board may satisfy the training requirements under this subsection by using the training, including online training, available from the American College of Surgeons or any other similar organization.

School district employees who are trained to respond to trauma pursuant to this subsection (d) shall be immune from civil liability in the use of a trauma kit unless the action constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 103-128, eff. 6-30-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.83)

Sec. 34-18.83 34-18.82. Subsequent teaching endorsements for employees.

(a) Subsequent teaching endorsements may be granted to employees licensed under Article 21B of this Code for specific content areas and grade levels as part of a pilot program.

(b) The school district is authorized to prepare educators for subsequent teaching endorsements on licenses issued under paragraph (1) of Section 21B-20 of this Code to applicants who meet all of the requirements for the endorsement or endorsements, including passing any required content area knowledge tests. If seeking to provide subsequent endorsements, the school district must establish professional development sequences to be offered instead of coursework required for issuance of the subsequent endorsement and must apply for approval of these professional development sequences by the State Board of Education, in collaboration with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The professional development sequences under this Section shall include a comprehensive review of relevant State learning standards, the applicable State content-test framework, and, if applicable, relevant educator preparation standards.

(c) The State Board of Education shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section no later than June 30, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 103-157, eff. 6-30-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.84)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 34-18.84 34-18.82. Community input on local assessments.

(a) As used in this Section, "district-administered assessment" means an assessment that requires all student test takers at any grade level to answer the same questions, or a selection of questions from a common bank of questions, in the same manner or substantially the same questions in the same manner. The term does not include an observational assessment tool used to satisfy the requirements of Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code or an assessment developed by district teachers or administrators that will be used to measure student progress at an attendance center within the school district.

(b) Prior to approving a new contract for any district-administered assessment, the board must hold a public vote at a regular meeting of the board, at which the terms of the proposal must be substantially presented and an opportunity for allowing public comments must be provided, subject to applicable notice requirements. However, if the assessment being made available to review is subject to copyright, trademark, or other intellectual property protection, the review process shall include technical and procedural safeguards to ensure that the materials are not able to be widely disseminated to the general public in violation of the intellectual property rights of the publisher and to ensure content validity is not undermined.

(Source: P.A. 103-393, eff. 7-1-24; revised 8-30-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-84) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-84)

Sec. 34-84. Appointments and promotions of teachers. Appointments and promotions of teachers shall be made for merit only, and after satisfactory service for a probationary period of 3 years with respect to probationary employees employed as full-time teachers in the public school system of the district before January 1, 1998 or on or after July 1, 2023 and 4 years with respect to probationary employees who are first employed as full-time teachers in the public school system of the district on or after January 1, 1998 but before July 1, 2023, during which period the board may dismiss or discharge any such probationary employee upon the recommendation, accompanied by the written reasons therefor, of the general superintendent of schools and after which period appointments of teachers shall become permanent, subject to removal for cause in the manner provided by Section 34-85.

For a probationary-appointed teacher in full-time service who is appointed on or after July 1, 2013 and who receives ratings of "excellent" during his or her first 3 school terms of full-time service, the probationary period shall be 3 school terms of full-time service. For a probationary-appointed teacher in full-time service who is appointed on or after July 1, 2013 and who had previously entered into contractual continued service in another school district in this State or a program of a special education joint agreement in this State, as defined in Section 24-11 of this Code, the probationary period shall be 2 school terms of full-time service, provided that (i) the teacher voluntarily resigned or was honorably dismissed from the prior district or program within the 3-month period preceding his or her appointment date, (ii) the teacher's last 2 ratings in the prior district or program were at least "proficient" and were issued after the prior district's or program's PERA implementation date, as defined in Section 24-11 of this Code, and (iii) the teacher receives ratings of "excellent" during his or her first 2 school terms of full-time service.

For a probationary-appointed teacher in full-time service who has not entered into contractual continued service after 2 or 3 school terms of full-time service as provided in this Section, the probationary period shall be 3 school terms of full-time service, provided that the teacher holds a Professional Educator License and receives a rating of at least "proficient" in the last school term and a rating of at least "proficient" in either the second or third school term.

As used in this Section, "school term" means the school term established by the board pursuant to Section 10-19 of this Code, and "full-time service" means the teacher has actually worked at least 150 days during the school term. As used in this Article, "teachers" means and includes all members of the teaching force excluding the general superintendent and principals.

There shall be no reduction in teachers because of a decrease in student membership or a change in subject requirements within the attendance center organization after the 20th day following the first day of the school year, except that: (1) this provision shall not apply to desegregation positions, special education positions, or any other positions funded by State or federal categorical funds, and (2) at attendance centers maintaining any of grades 9 through 12, there may be a second reduction in teachers on the first day of the second semester of the regular school term because of a decrease in student membership or a change in subject requirements within the attendance center organization.

A teacher Teachers who is are due to be evaluated in the last year before the teacher is they are set to retire shall be offered the opportunity to waive the their evaluation and to retain the teacher's their most recent rating, unless the teacher was last rated as "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory". The school district may still reserve the right to evaluate a teacher provided the district gives notice to the teacher at least 14 days before the evaluation and a reason for evaluating the teacher.

The school principal shall make the decision in selecting teachers to fill new and vacant positions consistent with Section 34-8.1.

(Source: P.A. 103-85, eff. 6-9-23; 103-500, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-6-23.)

Section 280. The Asbestos Abatement Act is amended by changing Section 10a as follows:

(105 ILCS 105/10a) (from Ch. 122, par. 1410a)

Sec. 10a. Licensing. No inspector, management planner, project designer, project manager, air sampling professional, asbestos abatement contractor, worker or project supervisor may be employed as a response action contractor unless that individual or entity is licensed by the Department. Those individuals and entities wishing to be licensed shall make application on forms prescribed and furnished by the Department. A license shall expire annually according to a schedule determined by the Department. Applications for renewal of licenses shall be filed with the Department at least 30 days before the expiration date. When a licensure examination is required, the application for licensure shall be submitted to the Department at least 30 days prior to the date of the scheduled examination. The Department shall evaluate each application based on its minimum standards for licensure, promulgated as rules, and render a decision. Such standards may include a requirement for the successful completion of a course of training approved by the Department. If the Department denies the application, the applicant may appeal such decision pursuant to the provisions of the "Administrative Review Law".

The Department, upon notification by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance, shall refuse the issuance or renewal of a license to, or suspend or revoke the license of, any individual, corporation, partnership, or other business entity that has been found by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance to have failed:

(a) to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act;

(b) to pay in full a fine or penalty imposed by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance due to a failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act; or

(c) to fulfill all obligations assumed pursuant to any settlement reached with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance due to a failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act.

A complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance that includes a certification, signed by its Director or Chairman, or the Director or Chairman's designee, attesting to a finding of the failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act or the failure to pay any fines or penalties or to discharge any obligation under a settlement relating to the failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act is prima facie evidence of the licensee's or applicant's failure to comply with subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee or the processing of any application from the applicant. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order to the licensee's or applicant's address of record or emailing a copy of the order to the licensee's or applicant's email address of record. The notice shall advise the licensee or applicant that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the order unless the Department receives, from the licensee or applicant, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Upon receiving notice from the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance that the violation has been corrected or otherwise resolved, the Department shall vacate the order suspending a licensee's license or the processing of an applicant's application.

No license shall be suspended or revoked until after the licensee is afforded any due process protection guaranteed by statute or rule adopted by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance.

(Source: P.A. 103-26, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 285. The Critical Health Problems and Comprehensive Health Education Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(105 ILCS 110/3)

Sec. 3. Comprehensive Health Education Program. The program established under this Act shall include, but not be limited to, the following major educational areas as a basis for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this State: human ecology and health; human growth and development; the emotional, psychological, physiological, hygienic, and social responsibilities of family life, including sexual abstinence until marriage; the prevention and control of disease, including instruction in grades 6 through 12 on the prevention, transmission, and spread of AIDS; age-appropriate sexual abuse and assault awareness and prevention education in grades pre-kindergarten through 12; public and environmental health; consumer health; safety education and disaster survival; mental health and illness; personal health habits; alcohol and drug use and abuse, including the medical and legal ramifications of alcohol, drug, and tobacco use; abuse during pregnancy; evidence-based and medically accurate information regarding sexual abstinence; tobacco and e-cigarettes and other vapor devices; nutrition; and dental health. The instruction on mental health and illness must evaluate the multiple dimensions of health by reviewing the relationship between physical and mental health so as to enhance student understanding, attitudes, and behaviors that promote health, well-being, and human dignity and must include how and where to find mental health resources and specialized treatment in the State. The program shall also provide course material and instruction to advise pupils of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act. The program shall include information about cancer, including, without limitation, types of cancer, signs and symptoms, risk factors, the importance of early prevention and detection, and information on where to go for help. Notwithstanding the above educational areas, the following areas may also be included as a basis for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this State: basic first aid (including, but not limited to, cardiopulmonary resuscitation and the Heimlich maneuver), heart disease, diabetes, stroke, the prevention of child abuse, neglect, and suicide, and teen dating violence in grades 7 through 12. Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, training on how to properly administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (which training must be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization) and how to use an automated external defibrillator shall be included as a basis for curricula in all secondary schools in this State.

Beginning with the 2024-2025 school year in grades 9 through 12, the program shall include instruction, study, and discussion on the dangers of allergies. Information for the instruction, study, and discussion shall come from information provided by the Department of Public Health and the federal Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. This instruction, study, and discussion shall include, at a minimum:

(1) recognizing the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, including anaphylaxis;

(2) the steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens; and

(3) safe emergency epinephrine administration.

The school board of each public elementary and secondary school in the State shall encourage all teachers and other school personnel to acquire, develop, and maintain the knowledge and skills necessary to properly administer life-saving techniques, including, without limitation, the Heimlich maneuver and rescue breathing. The training shall be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization. A school board may use the services of non-governmental entities whose personnel have expertise in life-saving techniques to instruct teachers and other school personnel in these techniques. Each school board is encouraged to have in its employ, or on its volunteer staff, at least one person who is certified, by the American Red Cross or by another qualified certifying agency, as qualified to administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In addition, each school board is authorized to allocate appropriate portions of its institute or inservice days to conduct training programs for teachers and other school personnel who have expressed an interest in becoming qualified to administer emergency first aid or cardiopulmonary resuscitation. School boards are urged to encourage their teachers and other school personnel who coach school athletic programs and other extracurricular school activities to acquire, develop, and maintain the knowledge and skills necessary to properly administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation in accordance with standards and requirements established by the American Red Cross or another qualified certifying agency. Subject to appropriation, the State Board of Education shall establish and administer a matching grant program to pay for half of the cost that a school district incurs in training those teachers and other school personnel who express an interest in becoming qualified to administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (which training must be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization) or in learning how to use an automated external defibrillator. A school district that applies for a grant must demonstrate that it has funds to pay half of the cost of the training for which matching grant money is sought. The State Board of Education shall award the grants on a first-come, first-serve basis.

No pupil shall be required to take or participate in any class or course on AIDS or family life instruction or to receive training on how to properly administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation or how to use an automated external defibrillator if his or her parent or guardian submits written objection thereto, and refusal to take or participate in the course or program or the training shall not be reason for suspension or expulsion of the pupil.

Curricula developed under programs established in accordance with this Act in the major educational area of alcohol and drug use and abuse shall include classroom instruction in grades 5 through 12. The instruction, which shall include matters relating to both the physical and legal effects and ramifications of drug and substance abuse, shall be integrated into existing curricula; and the State Board of Education shall develop and make available to all elementary and secondary schools in this State instructional materials and guidelines which will assist the schools in incorporating the instruction into their existing curricula. In addition, school districts may offer, as part of existing curricula during the school day or as part of an after-school after school program, support services and instruction for pupils or pupils whose parent, parents, or guardians are chemically dependent. Curricula developed under programs established in accordance with this Act in the major educational area of alcohol and drug use and abuse shall include the instruction, study, and discussion required under subsection (c) of Section 27-13.2 of the School Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-464, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1034, eff. 1-1-23; 103-212, eff. 1-1-24; 103-365, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 290. The School Safety Drill Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 50 as follows:

(105 ILCS 128/50)

Sec. 50. Crisis response mapping data grants.

(a) Subject to appropriation, a public school district, a charter school, a special education cooperative or district, an education for employment system, a State-approved area career center, a public university laboratory school, the Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy, the Department of Juvenile Justice School District, a regional office of education, the Illinois School for the Deaf, the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, the Philip J. Rock Center and School, an early childhood or preschool program supported by the Early Childhood Block Grant, or any other public school entity designated by the State Board of Education by rule, may apply to the State Board of Education or the State Board of Education or the State Board's designee for a grant to obtain crisis response mapping data and to provide copies of the crisis response mapping data to appropriate local, county, State, and federal first responders for use in response to emergencies. The crisis response mapping data shall be stored and provided in an electronic or digital format to assist first responders in responding to emergencies at the school.

(b) Subject to appropriation, including funding for any administrative costs reasonably incurred by the State Board of Education or the State Board's designee in the administration of the grant program described by this Section, the State Board shall provide grants to any entity in subsection (a) upon approval of an application submitted by the entity to cover the costs incurred in obtaining crisis response mapping data under this Section. The grant application must include crisis response mapping data for all schools under the jurisdiction of the entity submitting the application, including, in the case of a public school district, any charter schools authorized by the school board for the school district.

(c) To be eligible for a grant under this Section, the crisis response mapping data must, at a minimum:

(1) be compatible and integrate into security software platforms in use by the specific school for which the data is provided without requiring local law enforcement agencies or the school district to purchase additional software or requiring the integration of third-party software to view the data;

(2) be compatible with security software platforms in use by the specific school for which the data is provided without requiring local public safety agencies or the school district to purchase additional software or requiring the integration of third-party software to view the data;

(3) be capable of being provided in a printable format;

(4) be verified for accuracy by an on-site walk-through of the school building and grounds;

(5) be oriented to true north;

(6) be overlaid on current aerial imagery or plans of the school building;

(7) contain site-specific labeling that matches the structure of the school building, including room labels, hallway names, and external door or stairwell numbers and the location of hazards, critical utilities, key boxes, automated external defibrillators, and trauma kits, and that matches the school grounds, including parking areas, athletic fields, surrounding roads, and neighboring properties; and

(8) be overlaid with gridded x/y coordinates.

(d) Subject to appropriation, the crisis response mapping data may be reviewed annually to update the data as necessary.

(e) Crisis response mapping data obtained pursuant to this Section are confidential and exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(f) The State Board may adopt rules to implement the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; revised 1-20-24.)

(105 ILCS 128/55)

Sec. 55 50. Rapid entry. A school building's emergency and crisis response plan, protocol, and procedures shall include a plan for local law enforcement to rapidly enter a school building in the event of an emergency.

(Source: P.A. 103-194, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 295. The University of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 115 as follows:

(110 ILCS 305/115)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 115. Water rates report.

(a) Subject to appropriation, no later than June 30, 2023, the Government Finance Research Center at the University of Illinois at Chicago, in coordination with an intergovernmental advisory committee, must issue a report evaluating the setting of water rates throughout the Lake Michigan service area of northeastern Illinois and, no later than December 31, 2024, for the remainder of Illinois. The report must provide recommendations for policy and regulatory needs at the State and local level based on its findings. The report shall, at a minimum, address all of the following areas:

(1) The components of a water bill.

(2) Reasons for increases in water rates.

(3) The definition of affordability throughout the State and any variances to that definition.

(4) Evidence of rate-setting that utilizes inappropriate practices.

(5) The extent to which State or local policies drive cost increases or variations in rate-settings.

(6) Challenges within economically disadvantaged communities in setting water rates.

(7) Opportunities for increased intergovernmental coordination for setting equitable water rates.

(b) In developing the report under this Section, the Government Finance Research Center shall form an advisory committee, which shall be composed of all of the following members:

(1) The Director of the Environmental Protection Agency, or his or her designee.

(2) The Director of Natural Resources, or his or her designee.

(3) The Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or his or her designee.

(4) The Attorney General, or his or her designee.

(5) At least 2 members who are representatives of private water utilities operating in Illinois, appointed by the Director of the Government Finance Research Center.

(6) At least 4 members who are representatives of municipal water utilities, appointed by the Director of the Government Finance Research Center.

(7) One member who is a representative of an environmental justice advocacy organization, appointed by the Director of the Government Finance Research Center.

(8) One member who is a representative of a consumer advocacy organization, appointed by the Director of the Government Finance Research Center.

(9) One member who is a representative of an environmental planning organization that serves northeastern Illinois, appointed by the Director of the Government Finance Research Center.

(10) The Director of the Illinois State Water Survey, or his or her designee.

(11) The Chairperson of the Illinois Commerce Commission, or his or her designee.

(c) After all members are appointed, the committee shall hold its first meeting at the call of the Director of the Government Finance Research Center, at which meeting the members shall select a chairperson from among themselves. After its first meeting, the committee shall meet at the call of the chairperson. Members of the committee shall serve without compensation but may be reimbursed for their reasonable and necessary expenses incurred in performing their duties. The Government Finance Research Center shall provide administrative and other support to the committee.

(d) (Blank.).

(e) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2025.

(Source: P.A. 102-507, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-4, eff. 5-31-23; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 300. The University of Illinois Hospital Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 8h as follows:

(110 ILCS 330/8h)

Sec. 8h. Maternal milk donation education.

(a) To ensure an adequate supply of pasteurized donor human milk for premature infants in Illinois, the University of Illinois Hospital shall provide information and instructional materials to parents of each newborn, upon discharge from the University of Illinois Hospital, regarding the option to voluntarily donate milk to nonprofit non-profit milk banks that are accredited by the Human Milk Banking Association of North America or its successor organization. The materials shall be provided free of charge and shall include general information regarding nonprofit non-profit milk banking practices and contact information for area nonprofit milk banks that are accredited by the Human Milk Banking Association of North America.

(b) The information and instructional materials described in subsection (a) may be provided electronically.

(c) Nothing in this Section prohibits the University of Illinois Hospital from obtaining free and suitable information on voluntary milk donation from the Human Milk Banking Association of North America, or its successor organization, or their accredited members.

(Source: P.A. 103-160, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-26-23.)

(110 ILCS 330/8i)

Sec. 8i 8h. Emergency room treatment; delay of treatment prohibition. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the University of Illinois Hospital, in accordance with Section 1395dd(a) and 1395dd(b) of the Social Security Act, shall not delay provisions of a required appropriate medical screening examination or further medical examination and treatment for a patient in a University of Illinois Hospital emergency room in order to inquire about the individual's method of payment or insurance status.

(Source: P.A. 103-213, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 305. The Underserved Health Care Provider Workforce Act is amended by changing Section 3.09 as follows:

(110 ILCS 935/3.09)

Sec. 3.09. Eligible health care provider. "Eligible health care provider" means a primary care physician, general surgeon, emergency medicine physician, obstetrician, chiropractic physician, anesthesiologist, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant who accepts Medicaid, Medicare, the State's Children's Health Insurance Program, private insurance, and self-pay.

(Source: P.A. 102-888, eff. 5-17-22; 103-219, eff. 1-1-24; 103-507, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-5-23.)

Section 310. The Higher Education Student Assistance Act is amended by changing Sections 65.100 and 67 as follows:

(110 ILCS 947/65.100)

Sec. 65.100. AIM HIGH Grant Program.

(a) The General Assembly makes all of the following findings:

(1) Both access and affordability are important aspects of the Illinois Public Agenda for College and Career Success report.

(2) This State is in the top quartile with respect to the percentage of family income needed to pay for college.

(3) Research suggests that as loan amounts increase, rather than an increase in grant amounts, the probability of college attendance decreases.

(4) There is further research indicating that socioeconomic status may affect the willingness of students to use loans to attend college.

(5) Strategic use of tuition discounting can decrease the amount of loans that students must use to pay for tuition.

(6) A modest, individually tailored tuition discount can make the difference in a student choosing to attend college and enhance college access for low-income and middle-income families.

(7) Even if the federally calculated financial need for college attendance is met, the federally determined Expected Family Contribution can still be a daunting amount.

(8) This State is the second largest exporter of students in the country.

(9) When talented Illinois students attend universities in this State, the State and those universities benefit.

(10) State universities in other states have adopted pricing and incentives that allow many Illinois residents to pay less to attend an out-of-state university than to remain in this State for college.

(11) Supporting Illinois student attendance at Illinois public universities can assist in State efforts to maintain and educate a highly trained workforce.

(12) Modest tuition discounts that are individually targeted and tailored can result in enhanced revenue for public universities.

(13) By increasing a public university's capacity to strategically use tuition discounting, the public university will be capable of creating enhanced tuition revenue by increasing enrollment yields.

(b) In this Section:

"Eligible applicant" means a student from any high school in this State, whether or not recognized by the State Board of Education, who is engaged in a program of study that in due course will be completed by the end of the school year and who meets all of the qualifications and requirements under this Section.

"Tuition and other necessary fees" includes the customary charge for instruction and use of facilities in general and the additional fixed fees charged for specified purposes that are required generally of non-grant recipients for each academic period for which the grant applicant actually enrolls, but does not include fees payable only once or breakage fees and other contingent deposits that are refundable in whole or in part. The Commission may adopt, by rule not inconsistent with this Section, detailed provisions concerning the computation of tuition and other necessary fees.

(c) Beginning with the 2019-2020 academic year, each public university may establish a merit-based scholarship program known as the AIM HIGH Grant Program. Each year, the Commission shall receive and consider applications from public universities under this Section. Each participating public university shall indicate that grants under the program come from AIM HIGH and shall use the words "AIM HIGH" in the name of any grant under the program and in any published or posted materials about the program. Subject to appropriation and any tuition waiver limitation established by the Board of Higher Education, a public university campus may award a grant to a student under this Section if it finds that the applicant meets all of the following criteria:

(1) He or she is a resident of this State and a citizen or eligible noncitizen of the United States.

(2) He or she files a Free Application for Federal Student Aid and demonstrates financial need with a household income no greater than 8 times the poverty guidelines updated periodically in the Federal Register by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under the authority of 42 U.S.C. 9902(2). The household income of the applicant at the time of initial application shall be deemed to be the household income of the applicant for the duration of the program.

(3) He or she meets the minimum cumulative grade point average or ACT or SAT college admissions test score, as determined by the public university campus.

(4) He or she is enrolled in a public university as an undergraduate student on a full-time basis.

(5) He or she has not yet received a baccalaureate degree or the equivalent of 135 semester credit hours.

(6) He or she is not incarcerated.

(7) He or she is not in default on any student loan or does not owe a refund or repayment on any State or federal grant or scholarship.

(8) Any other reasonable criteria, as determined by the public university campus.

Each public university campus shall allow qualified full-time undergraduate students to apply for a grant, but may choose to allow qualified part-time undergraduate students who are enrolling in their final semester at the public university campus to also apply.

(d) Each public university campus shall determine grant renewal criteria consistent with the requirements under this Section.

(e) Each participating public university campus shall post on its Internet website criteria and eligibility requirements for receiving awards that use funds under this Section that include a range in the sizes of these individual awards. The criteria and amounts must also be reported to the Commission and the Board of Higher Education, who shall post the information on their respective Internet websites.

(f) After enactment of an appropriation for this Program, the Commission shall determine an allocation of funds to each public university in an amount proportionate to the number of undergraduate students who are residents of this State and citizens or eligible noncitizens of the United States and who were enrolled at each public university campus in the previous academic year. All applications must be made to the Commission on or before a date determined by the Commission and on forms that the Commission shall provide to each public university campus. The form of the application and the information required shall be determined by the Commission and shall include, without limitation, the total public university campus funds used to match funds received from the Commission in the previous academic year under this Section, if any, the total enrollment of undergraduate students who are residents of this State from the previous academic year, and any supporting documents as the Commission deems necessary. Each public university campus shall match the amount of funds received by the Commission with financial aid for eligible students.

A public university in which an average of at least 49% of the students seeking a bachelor's degree or certificate received a Pell Grant over the prior 3 academic years, as reported to the Commission, shall match 35% of the amount of funds awarded in a given academic year with non-loan financial aid for eligible students. A public university in which an average of less than 49% of the students seeking a bachelor's degree or certificate received a Pell Grant over the prior 3 academic years, as reported to the Commission, shall match 70% of the amount of funds awarded in a given academic year with non-loan financial aid for eligible students.

A public university campus is not required to claim its entire allocation. The Commission shall make available to all public universities, on a date determined by the Commission, any unclaimed funds and the funds must be made available to those public university campuses in the proportion determined under this subsection (f), excluding from the calculation those public university campuses not claiming their full allocations.

Each public university campus may determine the award amounts for eligible students on an individual or broad basis, but, subject to renewal eligibility, each renewed award may not be less than the amount awarded to the eligible student in his or her first year attending the public university campus. Notwithstanding this limitation, a renewal grant may be reduced due to changes in the student's cost of attendance, including, but not limited to, if a student reduces the number of credit hours in which he or she is enrolled, but remains a full-time student, or switches to a course of study with a lower tuition rate.

An eligible applicant awarded grant assistance under this Section is eligible to receive other financial aid. Total grant aid to the student from all sources may not exceed the total cost of attendance at the public university campus.

(g) All money allocated to a public university campus under this Section may be used only for financial aid purposes for students attending the public university campus during the academic year, not including summer terms. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, any funds received by a public university campus under this Section that are not granted to students in the academic year for which the funds are received may be retained by the public university campus for expenditure on students participating in the Program or students eligible to participate in the Program.

(h) Each public university campus that establishes a Program under this Section must annually report to the Commission, on or before a date determined by the Commission, the number of undergraduate students enrolled at that campus who are residents of this State.

(i) Each public university campus must report to the Commission the total non-loan financial aid amount given by the public university campus to undergraduate students in the 2017-2018 academic year or the 2021-2022 academic year, not including the summer terms. To be eligible to receive funds under the Program, a public university campus may not decrease the total amount of non-loan financial aid it gives to undergraduate students, not including any funds received from the Commission under this Section or any funds used to match grant awards under this Section, to an amount lower than the amount reported under this subsection (i) for the 2017-2018 academic year or the 2021-2022 academic year, whichever is less, not including the summer terms.

(j) On or before a date determined by the Commission, each public university campus that participates in the Program under this Section shall annually submit a report to the Commission with all of the following information:

(1) The Program's impact on tuition revenue and enrollment goals and increase in access and affordability at the public university campus.

(2) Total funds received by the public university campus under the Program.

(3) Total non-loan financial aid awarded to undergraduate students attending the public university campus.

(4) Total amount of funds matched by the public university campus.

(5) Total amount of claimed and unexpended funds retained by the public university campus.

(6) The percentage of total financial aid distributed under the Program by the public university campus.

(7) The total number of students receiving grants from the public university campus under the Program and those students' grade level, race, gender, income level, family size, Monetary Award Program eligibility, Pell Grant eligibility, and zip code of residence and the amount of each grant award. This information shall include unit record data on those students regarding variables associated with the parameters of the public university's Program, including, but not limited to, a student's ACT or SAT college admissions test score, high school or university cumulative grade point average, or program of study.

On or before October 1, 2020 and annually on or before October 1 through 2024, the Commission shall submit a report with the findings under this subsection (j) and any other information regarding the AIM HIGH Grant Program to (i) the Governor, (ii) the Speaker of the House of Representatives, (iii) the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, (iv) the President of the Senate, and (v) the Minority Leader of the Senate. The reports to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct. The Commission's report may not disaggregate data to a level that may disclose personally identifying information of individual students.

The sharing and reporting of student data under this subsection (j) must be in accordance with the requirements under the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974 and the Illinois School Student Records Act. All parties must preserve the confidentiality of the information as required by law. The names of the grant recipients under this Section are not subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

Public university campuses that fail to submit a report under this subsection (j) or that fail to adhere to any other requirements under this Section may not be eligible for distribution of funds under the Program for the next academic year, but may be eligible for distribution of funds for each academic year thereafter.

(k) The Commission shall adopt rules to implement this Section.

(l) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-516, eff. 8-11-23; revised 9-6-23.)

(110 ILCS 947/67)

Sec. 67. Illinois DREAM Fund Commission.

(a) The Illinois Student Assistance Commission shall establish an Illinois DREAM Fund Commission. The Governor shall appoint, with the advice and consent of the Senate, members to the Illinois DREAM Fund Commission, which shall be comprised of 9 members representing the geographic and ethnic diversity of this State, including students, college and university administrators and faculty, and other individuals committed to advancing the educational opportunities of the children of immigrants.

(b) The Illinois DREAM Fund Commission is charged with all of the following responsibilities:

(1) Administering this Section and raising funds for the Illinois DREAM Fund.

(2) Establishing a not-for-profit entity charged with raising funds for the administration of this Section, any educational or training programs the Commission is tasked with administering, and funding scholarships to students who are the children of immigrants to the United States.

(3) Publicizing the availability of scholarships from the Illinois DREAM Fund.

(4) Selecting the recipients of scholarships funded through the Illinois DREAM Fund.

(5) Researching issues pertaining to the availability of assistance with the costs of higher education for the children of immigrants and other issues regarding access for and the performance of the children of immigrants within higher education.

(6) Overseeing implementation of the other provisions of Public Act 97-233 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(7) Establishing and administering training programs for high school counselors and counselors, admissions officers, and financial aid officers of public institutions of higher education. The training programs shall instruct participants on the educational opportunities available to college-bound students who are the children of immigrants, including, but not limited to, in-state tuition and scholarship programs. The Illinois DREAM Fund Commission may also establish a public awareness campaign regarding educational opportunities available to college bound students who are the children of immigrants.

The Illinois DREAM Fund Commission shall establish, by rule, procedures for accepting and evaluating applications for scholarships from the children of immigrants and issuing scholarships to selected student applicants.

(c) To receive a scholarship under this Section, a student must meet all of the following qualifications:

(1) Have resided with his or her parents or guardian while attending a public or private high school in this State.

(2) Have graduated from a public or private high school or received the equivalent of a high school diploma in this State.

(3) Have attended school in this State for at least 3 years as of the date he or she graduated from high school or received the equivalent of a high school diploma.

(4) Have at least one parent who immigrated to the United States.

(d) The Illinois Student Assistance Commission shall establish an Illinois DREAM Fund to provide scholarships under this Section. The Illinois DREAM Fund shall be funded entirely from private contributions, gifts, grants, awards, and proceeds from the scratch-off created in Section 21.16 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(e) The Illinois DREAM Fund Commission shall develop a comprehensive program, including creation of informational materials and a marketing plan, to educate people in the State of Illinois about the purpose and benefits of contributions made to the Illinois DREAM Fund. The Illinois DREAM Fund Commission shall develop specific marketing materials for the voluntary use by persons licensed pursuant to the Transmitters of Money Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-338, eff. 7-28-23; 103-381, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-6-23.)

Section 315. The Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(115 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 48, par. 1702)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Educational employer" or "employer" means the governing body of a public school district, including the governing body of a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code or of a contract school or contract turnaround school established under paragraph 30 of Section 34-18 of the School Code, combination of public school districts, including the governing body of joint agreements of any type formed by 2 or more school districts, public community college district or State college or university, a subcontractor of instructional services of a school district (other than a school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code), combination of school districts, charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, or contract school or contract turnaround school established under paragraph 30 of Section 34-18 of the School Code, an Independent Authority created under Section 2-3.25f-5 of the School Code, and any State agency whose major function is providing educational services. "Educational employer" or "employer" does not include (1) a Financial Oversight Panel created pursuant to Section 1A-8 of the School Code due to a district violating a financial plan or (2) an approved nonpublic special education facility that contracts with a school district or combination of school districts to provide special education services pursuant to Section 14-7.02 of the School Code, but does include a School Finance Authority created under Article 1E of the School Code and a Financial Oversight Panel created under Article 1B or 1H of the School Code. The change made by Public Act 96-104 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly to this paragraph (a) to make clear that the governing body of a charter school is an "educational employer" is declaratory of existing law.

(b) "Educational employee" or "employee" means any individual, excluding supervisors, managerial, confidential, short term employees, student, and part-time academic employees of community colleges employed full or part time by an educational employer, but shall not include elected officials and appointees of the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate, firefighters as defined by subsection (g-1) of Section 3 of the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, and peace officers employed by a State university. However, with respect to an educational employer of a school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, a supervisor shall be considered an educational employee under this definition unless the supervisor is also a managerial employee. For the purposes of this Act, part-time academic employees of community colleges shall be defined as those employees who provide less than 3 credit hours of instruction per academic semester. In this subsection (b), the term "student" does not include graduate students who are research assistants primarily performing duties that involve research, graduate assistants primarily performing duties that are pre-professional, graduate students who are teaching assistants primarily performing duties that involve the delivery and support of instruction, or any other graduate assistants.

(c) "Employee organization" or "labor organization" means an organization of any kind in which membership includes educational employees, and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, employee-employer disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work, but shall not include any organization which practices discrimination in membership because of race, color, creed, age, gender, national origin or political affiliation.

(d) "Exclusive representative" means the labor organization which has been designated by the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board as the representative of the majority of educational employees in an appropriate unit, or recognized by an educational employer prior to January 1, 1984 as the exclusive representative of the employees in an appropriate unit or, after January 1, 1984, recognized by an employer upon evidence that the employee organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the employees in an appropriate unit.

(e) "Board" means the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board.

(f) "Regional Superintendent" means the regional superintendent of schools provided for in Articles 3 and 3A of The School Code.

(g) "Supervisor" means any individual having authority in the interests of the employer to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, reward or discipline other employees within the appropriate bargaining unit and adjust their grievances, or to effectively recommend such action if the exercise of such authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature but requires the use of independent judgment. The term "supervisor" includes only those individuals who devote a preponderance of their employment time to such exercising authority.

(h) "Unfair labor practice" or "unfair practice" means any practice prohibited by Section 14 of this Act.

(i) "Person" includes an individual, educational employee, educational employer, legal representative, or employee organization.

(j) "Wages" means salaries or other forms of compensation for services rendered.

(k) "Professional employee" means, in the case of a public community college, State college or university, State agency whose major function is providing educational services, the Illinois School for the Deaf, and the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, (1) any employee engaged in work (i) predominantly intellectual and varied in character as opposed to routine mental, manual, mechanical, or physical work; (ii) involving the consistent exercise of discretion and judgment in its performance; (iii) of such character that the output produced or the result accomplished cannot be standardized in relation to a given period of time; and (iv) requiring knowledge of an advanced type in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction and study in an institution of higher learning or a hospital, as distinguished from a general academic education or from an apprenticeship or from training in the performance of routine mental, manual, or physical processes; or (2) any employee, who (i) has completed the courses of specialized intellectual instruction and study described in clause (iv) of paragraph (1) of this subsection, and (ii) is performing related work under the supervision of a professional person to qualify himself or herself to become a professional as defined in paragraph (l).

(l) "Professional employee" means, in the case of any public school district, or combination of school districts pursuant to joint agreement, any employee who has a license issued under Article 21B of the School Code.

(m) "Unit" or "bargaining unit" means any group of employees for which an exclusive representative is selected.

(n) "Confidential employee" means an employee, who (i) in the regular course of his or her duties, assists and acts in a confidential capacity to persons who formulate, determine and effectuate management policies with regard to labor relations or who (ii) in the regular course of his or her duties has access to information relating to the effectuation or review of the employer's collective bargaining policies.

(o) "Managerial employee" means, with respect to an educational employer other than an educational employer of a school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, an individual who is engaged predominantly in executive and management functions and is charged with the responsibility of directing the effectuation of such management policies and practices or, with respect to an educational employer of a school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, an individual who has a significant role in the negotiation of collective bargaining agreements or who formulates and determines employer-wide management policies and practices. "Managerial employee" includes a general superintendent of schools provided for under Section 34-6 of the School Code.

(p) "Craft employee" means a skilled journeyman, craft person, and his or her apprentice or helper.

(q) "Short-term employee" is an employee who is employed for less than 2 consecutive calendar quarters during a calendar year and who does not have a reasonable expectation that he or she will be rehired by the same employer for the same service in a subsequent calendar year. Nothing in this subsection shall affect the employee status of individuals who were covered by a collective bargaining agreement on January 1, 1992 (the effective date of Public Act 87-736) this amendatory Act of 1991.

The changes made to this Section by Public Act 102-1138 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly may not be construed to void or change the powers and duties given to local school councils under Section 34-2.3 of the School Code.

(Source: P.A. 101-380, eff. 1-1-20; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; 102-1138, eff. 2-10-23; revised 3-2-23.)

Section 320. The Alternative Health Care Delivery Act is amended by changing Section 35.2 as follows:

(210 ILCS 3/35.2)

Sec. 35.2. Maternal milk donation education.

(a) To ensure an adequate supply of pasteurized donor human milk for premature infants in Illinois, a birth center with obstetrical service beds shall provide information and instructional materials to parents of each newborn, upon discharge from the birth center, regarding the option to voluntarily donate milk to nonprofit non-profit milk banks that are accredited by the Human Milk Banking Association of North America or its successor organization. The materials shall be provided free of charge and shall include general information regarding nonprofit non-profit milk banking practices and contact information for area nonprofit milk banks that are accredited by the Human Milk Banking Association of North America.

(b) The information and instructional materials described in subsection (a) may be provided electronically.

(c) Nothing in this Section prohibits a birth center from obtaining free and suitable information on voluntary milk donation from the Human Milk Banking Association of North America, or its successor organization, or its accredited members.

(Source: P.A. 103-160, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-22-23.)

Section 325. The Life Care Facilities Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 10.3 as follows:

(210 ILCS 40/10.3)

Sec. 10.3. Posting of Long Term Care Ombudsman Program information.

(a) Except as provided under subsection (b), all licensed facilities shall post on the home page of the facility's website the following:

(1) The Long Term Care Ombudsman Program's statewide toll-free telephone number.

(2) A link to the Long Term Care Ombudsman Program's website.

(b) A facility:

(1) may comply with this Section by posting the required information on the website of the facility's parent company if the facility does not maintain a unique website;

(2) is not required to comply with this Section if the facility and any parent company do not maintain a website; and

(3) is not required to comply with this Section in instances where the parent company operates in multiple states and the facility does not maintain a unique website.

(Source: P.A. 103-119, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-22-23.)

(210 ILCS 40/10.4)

Sec. 10.4 10.3. Provision of at-home continuing care.

(a) The Department shall adopt rules that:

(1) establish standards for providers of at-home continuing care;

(2) provide for the certification and registration of providers of at-home continuing care and the annual renewal of certificates of registration;

(3) provide for and encourage the establishment of at-home continuing care programs;

(4) set minimum requirements for any individual who is employed by or under contract with a provider of at-home continuing care and who will enter a provider of at-home continuing care's subscriber's home to provide at-home continuing care services, including requirements for criminal background checks of such an individual who will have routine, direct access to a subscriber;

(5) establish standards for the renewal of certificates of registration for providers of at-home continuing care;

(6) establish standards for the number of executed agreements necessary to begin operation as a provider of at-home continuing care;

(7) establish standards for when and how a provider of at-home continuing care or a subscriber may rescind an at-home continuing care agreement before at-home continuing care services are provided to the subscriber;

(8) allow a subscriber to rescind an agreement for at-home continuing care services at any time if the terms of the agreement violate this Section;

(9) establish that a provider may terminate an agreement to provide at-home continuing care services or discharge a subscriber only for just cause; and

(10) establish procedures to carry out a termination or discharge under paragraph (9).

(b) The Department shall certify and register a person as a provider of at-home continuing care services under this Section if the Department determines that:

(1) a reasonable financial plan has been developed to provide at-home continuing care services, including a plan for the number of agreements to be executed before beginning operation;

(2) a market for the at-home continuing care program exists;

(3) the provider has submitted all proposed advertisements, advertising campaigns, and other promotional materials for the program;

(4) the form and substance of all advertisements, advertising campaigns, and other promotional materials submitted are not deceptive, misleading, or likely to mislead; and

(5) an actuarial forecast supports the market for the program.

(c) A provider may not enter into an agreement to provide at-home continuing care services until the Department issues a preliminary certificate of registration to the provider. An application for a preliminary certificate of registration shall:

(1) be filed in a form determined by the Department by rule; and

(2) include:

(A) a copy of the proposed at-home continuing care agreement; and

(B) the form and substance of any proposed advertisements, advertising campaigns, or other promotional materials for the program that are is available at the time of filing the application and that have has not been filed previously with the Department.

(d) The Department shall issue a preliminary certificate of registration to a provider under subsection (c) if the Department determines that:

(1) the proposed at-home continuing care agreement is satisfactory;

(2) the provider has submitted all proposed advertisements, advertising campaigns, and other promotional materials for the program; and

(3) the form and substance of all advertisements, advertising campaigns, and other promotional materials submitted are not deceptive, misleading, or likely to mislead.

(e) A person may not provide at-home continuing care services until the Department issues a certificate of registration to the person. An application for a certificate of registration shall:

(1) be filed in a form determined by the Department by rule; and

(2) include:

(A) verification that the required number of agreements has been executed;

(B) the form and substance of any proposed advertisements, advertising campaigns, or other promotional materials for the program that are available at the time of filing and that have not been filed previously with the Department; and

(C) verification that any other license or certificate required by other appropriate State units has been issued to the provider.

(f) The Department shall issue a certificate of registration to a provider under subsection (e) if the Department determines that:

(1) the information and documents submitted and application for a preliminary certificate of registration are current and accurate or have been updated to make them accurate;

(2) the required agreements have been executed;

(3) any other license or certificate required by other appropriate State units has been issued to the provider;

(4) the provider has submitted all proposed advertisements, advertising campaigns, and other promotional materials for the program; and

(5) the material submitted is not an advertisement, advertising campaign, or other promotional material that is deceptive, misleading, or likely to mislead.

If a provider intends to advertise before the Department issues a certificate of registration, the provider shall submit to the Department any advertisement, advertising campaign, or other promotional material materials before using it.

(g) Every 2 years, within 120 days after the end of a provider's fiscal year, a provider shall file an application for a renewal certificate of registration with the Department. The application shall:

(A) be filed in a form determined by the Department by rule; and

(B) contain any reasonable and pertinent information that the Department requires.

(h) The Department shall issue a renewal certificate of registration under subsection (g) if the Department determines that:

(1) all required documents have been filed and are satisfactory;

(2) any revised agreements for at-home continuing care services meet the Department's requirements;

(3) the provider has submitted all proposed advertisements, advertising campaigns, and other promotional materials for the program; and

(4) the form and substance of all advertisements, advertising campaigns, and other promotional materials submitted are not deceptive, misleading, or likely to mislead.

(i) The Department may deny, suspend, or revoke a preliminary, initial, or renewal certificate of registration under this Section for cause. The Department shall set forth in writing its reasons for a denial, suspension, or revocation. A provider may appeal a denial in writing. Grounds for a denial, suspension, or revocation include, but are not limited to:

(1) violation of this Section;

(2) violation of a rule adopted by the Department under this Section;

(3) misrepresentation; or

(4) submission of false information.

(Source: P.A. 103-332, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 330. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Sections 3.55 and 3.116 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.55)

Sec. 3.55. Scope of practice.

(a) Any person currently licensed as an EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic may perform emergency and non-emergency medical services as defined in this Act, in accordance with his or her level of education, training and licensure, the standards of performance and conduct prescribed by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act, and the requirements of the EMS System in which he or she practices, as contained in the approved Program Plan for that System. The Director may, by written order, temporarily modify individual scopes of practice in response to public health emergencies for periods not exceeding 180 days.

(a-5) EMS personnel who have successfully completed a Department approved course in automated defibrillator operation and who are functioning within a Department approved EMS System may utilize such automated defibrillator according to the standards of performance and conduct prescribed by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act and the requirements of the EMS System in which they practice, as contained in the approved Program Plan for that System.

(a-7) An EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic who has successfully completed a Department approved course in the administration of epinephrine shall be required to carry epinephrine with him or her as part of the EMS personnel medical supplies whenever he or she is performing official duties as determined by the EMS System. The epinephrine may be administered from a glass vial, auto-injector, ampule, or pre-filled syringe.

(b) An EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic may practice as an EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or Paramedic or utilize his or her EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic license in pre-hospital or inter-hospital emergency care settings or non-emergency medical transport situations, under the written or verbal direction of the EMS Medical Director. For purposes of this Section, a "pre-hospital emergency care setting" may include a location, that is not a health care facility, which utilizes EMS personnel to render pre-hospital emergency care prior to the arrival of a transport vehicle. The location shall include communication equipment and all of the portable equipment and drugs appropriate for the EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or Paramedic's level of care, as required by this Act, rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and the protocols of the EMS Systems, and shall operate only with the approval and under the direction of the EMS Medical Director.

This Section shall not prohibit an EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic from practicing within an emergency department or other health care setting for the purpose of receiving continuing education or training approved by the EMS Medical Director. This Section shall also not prohibit an EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic from seeking credentials other than his or her EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic license and utilizing such credentials to work in emergency departments or other health care settings under the jurisdiction of that employer.

(c) An EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic may honor Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) orders and powers of attorney for health care only in accordance with rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act and protocols of the EMS System in which he or she practices.

(d) A student enrolled in a Department approved EMS personnel program, while fulfilling the clinical training and in-field supervised experience requirements mandated for licensure or approval by the System and the Department, may perform prescribed procedures under the direct supervision of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a qualified registered professional nurse, or qualified EMS personnel, only when authorized by the EMS Medical Director.

(e) An EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic may transport a police dog injured in the line of duty to a veterinary clinic or similar facility if there are no persons requiring medical attention or transport at that time. For the purposes of this subsection, "police dog" means a dog owned or used by a law enforcement department or agency in the course of the department or agency's work, including a search and rescue dog, service dog, accelerant detection canine, or other dog that is in use by a county, municipal, or State law enforcement agency.

(f) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit an EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, or PHRN from completing an initial Occupational Safety and Health Administration Respirator Medical Evaluation Questionnaire on behalf of fire service personnel, as permitted by his or her EMS System Medical Director.

(g) An EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, PHRN, PHAPRN, or PHPA shall be eligible to work for another EMS System for a period not to exceed 2 weeks if the individual is under the direct supervision of another licensed individual operating at the same or higher level as the EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, PHRN, PHAPRN, or PHPA; obtained approval in writing from the EMS System's Medical Director; and tests into the EMS System based upon appropriate standards as outlined in the EMS System Program Plan. The EMS System within which the EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, PHRN, PHAPRN, or PHPA is seeking to join must make all required testing available to the EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, PHRN, PHAPRN, or PHPA within 2 weeks after the written request. Failure to do so by the EMS System shall allow the EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, PHRN, PHAPRN, or PHPA to continue working for another EMS System until all required testing becomes available.

(h) (g) A member of a fire department's or fire protection district's collective bargaining unit shall be eligible to work under a silver spanner program for another EMS System's fire department or fire protection district that is not the full-time employer of that member, for a period not to exceed 2 weeks, if the member: (1) is under the direct supervision of another licensed individual operating at the same or higher licensure level as the member; (2) made a written request to the EMS System's Medical Director for approval to work under the silver spanner program, which shall be approved or denied within 24 hours after the EMS System's Medical Director received the request; and (3) tests into the EMS System based upon appropriate standards as outlined in the EMS System Program Plan. The EMS System within which the member is seeking to join must make all required testing available to the member within 2 weeks of the written request. Failure to do so by the EMS System shall allow the member to continue working under a silver spanner program until all required testing becomes available.

(Source: P.A. 102-79, eff. 1-1-22; 103-521, eff. 1-1-24; 103-547, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(210 ILCS 50/3.116)

Sec. 3.116. Hospital Stroke Care; definitions. As used in Sections 3.116 through 3.119, 3.130, and 3.200 of this Act:

"Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital" means a hospital that has been designated by the Department as meeting the criteria for providing emergent stroke care. Designation may be provided after a hospital has been certified or through application and designation as such.

"Certification" or "certified" means certification, using evidence-based standards, from a nationally recognized certifying body approved by the Department.

"Comprehensive Stroke Center" means a hospital that has been certified and has been designated as such.

"Designation" or "designated" means the Department's recognition of a hospital as a Comprehensive Stroke Center, Primary Stroke Center, or Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital.

"Emergent stroke care" is emergency medical care that includes diagnosis and emergency medical treatment of acute stroke patients.

"Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital" means a hospital that has been designated by the Department as meeting the criteria for providing emergent stroke care.

"Primary Stroke Center" means a hospital that has been certified by a Department-approved, nationally recognized certifying body and designated as such by the Department.

"Primary Stroke Center Plus" means a hospital that has been certified by a Department-approved, nationally recognized certifying body and designated as such by the Department.

"Regional Stroke Advisory Subcommittee" means a subcommittee formed within each Regional EMS Advisory Committee to advise the Director and the Region's EMS Medical Directors Committee on the triage, treatment, and transport of possible acute stroke patients and to select the Region's representative to the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee. At minimum, the Regional Stroke Advisory Subcommittee shall consist of: one representative from the EMS Medical Directors Committee; one EMS coordinator from a Resource Hospital; one administrative representative or his or her designee from each level of stroke care, including Comprehensive Stroke Centers within the Region, if any, Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Centers within the Region, if any, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Centers within the Region, if any, Primary Stroke Centers Plus within the Region, if any, Primary Stroke Centers within the Region, if any, and Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals within the Region, if any; one physician from each level of stroke care, including one physician who is a neurologist or who provides advanced stroke care at a Comprehensive Stroke Center in the Region, if any, one physician who is a neurologist or who provides acute stroke care at a Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center within the Region, if any, a Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center within the Region, if any, or a Primary Stroke Center Plus in the Region, if any, one physician who is a neurologist or who provides acute stroke care at a Primary Stroke Center in the Region, if any, and one physician who provides acute stroke care at an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital in the Region, if any; one nurse practicing in each level of stroke care, including one nurse from a Comprehensive Stroke Center in the Region, if any, one nurse from a Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, if any, a Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center within the Region, if any, or a Primary Stroke Center Plus in the Region, if any, one nurse from a Primary Stroke Center in the Region, if any, and one nurse from an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital in the Region, if any; one representative from both a public and a private vehicle service provider that transports possible acute stroke patients within the Region; the State-designated regional EMS Coordinator; and a fire chief or his or her designee from the EMS Region, if the Region serves a population of more than 2,000,000. The Regional Stroke Advisory Subcommittee shall establish bylaws to ensure equal membership that rotates and clearly delineates committee responsibilities and structure. Of the members first appointed, one-third shall be appointed for a term of one year, one-third shall be appointed for a term of 2 years, and the remaining members shall be appointed for a term of 3 years. The terms of subsequent appointees shall be 3 years.

"State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee" means a standing advisory body within the State Emergency Medical Services Advisory Council.

"Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center" means a hospital that has been certified by a Department-approved, nationally recognized certifying body and designated as such by the Department.

"Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center" means a hospital that has been certified by a Department-approved, nationally recognized certifying body and designated as such by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 102-687, eff. 12-17-21; 103-149, eff. 1-1-24; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; revised 12-12-23.)

Section 335. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 10.10 and 11.9 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/10.10)

Sec. 10.10. Nurse staffing by patient acuity.

(a) Findings. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

(1) The State of Illinois has a substantial interest in promoting quality care and improving the delivery of health care services.

(2) Evidence-based studies have shown that the basic principles of staffing in the acute care setting should be based on the complexity of patients' care needs aligned with available nursing skills to promote quality patient care consistent with professional nursing standards.

(3) Compliance with this Section promotes an organizational climate that values registered nurses' input in meeting the health care needs of hospital patients.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Acuity model" means an assessment tool selected and implemented by a hospital, as recommended by a nursing care committee, that assesses the complexity of patient care needs requiring professional nursing care and skills and aligns patient care needs and nursing skills consistent with professional nursing standards.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Direct patient care" means care provided by a registered professional nurse with direct responsibility to oversee or carry out medical regimens or nursing care for one or more patients.

"Nursing care committee" means a hospital-wide committee or committees of nurses whose functions, in part or in whole, contribute to the development, recommendation, and review of the hospital's nurse staffing plan established pursuant to subsection (d).

"Registered professional nurse" means a person licensed as a Registered Nurse under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Written staffing plan for nursing care services" means a written plan for the assignment of patient care nursing staff based on multiple nurse and patient considerations that yield minimum staffing levels for inpatient care units and the adopted acuity model aligning patient care needs with nursing skills required for quality patient care consistent with professional nursing standards.

(c) Written staffing plan.

(1) Every hospital shall implement a written hospital-wide staffing plan, prepared by a nursing care committee or committees, that provides for minimum direct care professional registered nurse-to-patient staffing needs for each inpatient care unit, including inpatient emergency departments. If the staffing plan prepared by the nursing care committee is not adopted by the hospital, or if substantial changes are proposed to it, the chief nursing officer shall either: (i) provide a written explanation to the committee of the reasons the plan was not adopted; or (ii) provide a written explanation of any substantial changes made to the proposed plan prior to it being adopted by the hospital. The written hospital-wide staffing plan shall include, but need not be limited to, the following considerations:

(A) The complexity of complete care, assessment on patient admission, volume of patient admissions, discharges and transfers, evaluation of the progress of a patient's problems, ongoing physical assessments, planning for a patient's discharge, assessment after a change in patient condition, and assessment of the need for patient referrals.

(B) The complexity of clinical professional nursing judgment needed to design and implement a patient's nursing care plan, the need for specialized equipment and technology, the skill mix of other personnel providing or supporting direct patient care, and involvement in quality improvement activities, professional preparation, and experience.

(C) Patient acuity and the number of patients for whom care is being provided.

(D) The ongoing assessments of a unit's patient acuity levels and nursing staff needed shall be routinely made by the unit nurse manager or his or her designee.

(E) The identification of additional registered nurses available for direct patient care when patients' unexpected needs exceed the planned workload for direct care staff.

(2) In order to provide staffing flexibility to meet patient needs, every hospital shall identify an acuity model for adjusting the staffing plan for each inpatient care unit.

(2.5) Each hospital shall implement the staffing plan and assign nursing personnel to each inpatient care unit, including inpatient emergency departments, in accordance with the staffing plan.

(A) A registered nurse may report to the nursing care committee any variations where the nurse personnel assignment in an inpatient care unit is not in accordance with the adopted staffing plan and may make a written report to the nursing care committee based on the variations.

(B) Shift-to-shift adjustments in staffing levels required by the staffing plan may be made by the appropriate hospital personnel overseeing inpatient care operations. If a registered nurse in an inpatient care unit objects to a shift-to-shift adjustment, the registered nurse may submit a written report to the nursing care committee.

(C) The nursing care committee shall develop a process to examine and respond to written reports submitted under subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph (2.5), including the ability to determine if a specific written report is resolved or should be dismissed.

(3) The written staffing plan shall be posted, either by physical or electronic means, in a conspicuous and accessible location for both patients and direct care staff, as required under the Hospital Report Card Act. A copy of the written staffing plan shall be provided to any member of the general public upon request.

(d) Nursing care committee.

(1) Every hospital shall have a nursing care committee that meets at least 6 times per year. A hospital shall appoint members of a committee whereby at least 55% of the members are registered professional nurses providing direct inpatient care, one of whom shall be selected annually by the direct inpatient care nurses to serve as co-chair of the committee.

(2) (Blank).

(2.5) A nursing care committee shall prepare and recommend to hospital administration the hospital's written hospital-wide staffing plan. If the staffing plan is not adopted by the hospital, the chief nursing officer shall provide a written statement to the committee prior to a staffing plan being adopted by the hospital that: (A) explains the reasons the committee's proposed staffing plan was not adopted; and (B) describes the changes to the committee's proposed staffing or any alternative to the committee's proposed staffing plan.

(3) A nursing care committee's or committees' written staffing plan for the hospital shall be based on the principles from the staffing components set forth in subsection (c). In particular, a committee or committees shall provide input and feedback on the following:

(A) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of minimum staffing levels for inpatient care units.

(B) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of an acuity model to provide staffing flexibility that aligns changing patient acuity with nursing skills required.

(C) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of a written staffing plan incorporating the items described in subdivisions (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this Section.

(D) Review the nurse staffing plans for all inpatient areas and current acuity tools and measures in use. The nursing care committee's review shall consider:

(i) patient outcomes;

(ii) complaints regarding staffing, including complaints about a delay in direct care nursing or an absence of direct care nursing;

(iii) the number of hours of nursing care provided through an inpatient hospital unit compared with the number of inpatients served by the hospital unit during a 24-hour period;

(iv) the aggregate hours of overtime worked by the nursing staff;

(v) the extent to which actual nurse staffing for each hospital inpatient unit differs from the staffing specified by the staffing plan; and

(vi) any other matter or change to the staffing plan determined by the committee to ensure that the hospital is staffed to meet the health care needs of patients.

(4) A nursing care committee must issue a written report addressing the items described in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of paragraph (3) semi-annually. A written copy of this report shall be made available to direct inpatient care nurses by making available a paper copy of the report, distributing it electronically, or posting it on the hospital's website.

(5) A nursing care committee must issue a written report at least annually to the hospital governing board that addresses items including, but not limited to: the items described in paragraph (3); changes made based on committee recommendations and the impact of such changes; and recommendations for future changes related to nurse staffing.

(6) A nursing care committee must annually notify the hospital nursing staff of the staff's rights under this Section. The annual notice must provide a phone number and an email address for staff to report noncompliance with the nursing staff's rights as described in this Section. The notice must be provided by email or by regular mail in a manner that effectively facilitates receipt of the notice. The Department shall monitor and enforce the requirements of this paragraph (6).

(e) Nothing in this Section 10.10 shall be construed to limit, alter, or modify any of the terms, conditions, or provisions of a collective bargaining agreement entered into by the hospital.

(f) No hospital may discipline, discharge, or take any other adverse employment action against an employee solely because the employee expresses a concern or complaint regarding an alleged violation of this Section or concerns related to nurse staffing.

(g) Any employee of a hospital may file a complaint with the Department regarding an alleged violation of this Section. The Department must forward notification of the alleged violation to the hospital in question within 10 business days after the complaint is filed. Upon receiving a complaint of a violation of this Section, the Department may take any action authorized under Section Sections 7 or 9 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-641, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-211, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(210 ILCS 85/11.9)

Sec. 11.9. Maternal milk donation education.

(a) To ensure an adequate supply of pasteurized donor human milk for premature infants in Illinois, a hospital with licensed obstetric beds shall provide information and instructional materials to parents of each newborn, upon discharge from the hospital, regarding the option to voluntarily donate milk to nonprofit non-profit milk banks that are accredited by the Human Milk Banking Association of North America or its successor organization. The materials shall be provided free of charge and shall include general information regarding nonprofit non-profit milk banking practices and contact information for area nonprofit milk banks that are accredited by the Human Milk Banking Association of North America.

(b) The information and instructional materials described in subsection (a) may be provided electronically.

(c) Nothing in this Section prohibits a hospital from obtaining free and suitable information on voluntary milk donation from the Human Milk Banking Association of North America, or its successor organization, or its accredited members.

(Source: P.A. 103-160, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-22-23.)

Section 340. The Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(210 ILCS 89/15)

Sec. 15. Patient responsibility.

(a) Hospitals may make the availability of a discount and the maximum collectible amount under this Act contingent upon the uninsured patient first applying for coverage under public health insurance programs, such as Medicare, Medicaid, AllKids, the State Children's Health Insurance Program, the Health Benefits for Immigrants program, or any other program, if there is a reasonable basis to believe that the uninsured patient may be eligible for such program. If the patient declines to apply for a public health insurance program on the basis of concern for immigration-related consequences, the hospital may refer the patient to a free, unbiased resource, such as an Immigrant Family Resource Program, to address the patient's immigration-related concerns and assist in enrolling the patient in a public health insurance program. The hospital may still screen the patient for eligibility under its financial assistance policy.

(b) Hospitals shall permit an uninsured patient to apply for a discount within 90 days of the date of discharge, date of service, completion of the screening under the Fair Patient Billing Act, or denial of an application for a public health insurance program.

Hospitals shall offer uninsured patients who receive community-based primary care provided by a community health center or a free and charitable clinic, are referred by such an entity to the hospital, and seek access to nonemergency hospital-based health care services with an opportunity to be screened for and assistance with applying for public health insurance programs if there is a reasonable basis to believe that the uninsured patient may be eligible for a public health insurance program. An uninsured patient who receives community-based primary care provided by a community health center or free and charitable clinic and is referred by such an entity to the hospital for whom there is not a reasonable basis to believe that the uninsured patient may be eligible for a public health insurance program shall be given the opportunity to apply for hospital financial assistance when hospital services are scheduled.

(1) Income verification. Hospitals may require an uninsured patient who is requesting an uninsured discount to provide documentation of family income. Acceptable family income documentation shall include any one of the following:

(A) a copy of the most recent tax return;

(B) a copy of the most recent W-2 form and 1099 forms;

(C) copies of the 2 most recent pay stubs;

(D) written income verification from an employer if paid in cash; or

(E) one other reasonable form of third-party third party income verification deemed acceptable to the hospital.

(2) Asset verification. Hospitals may require an uninsured patient who is requesting an uninsured discount to certify the existence or absence of assets owned by the patient and to provide documentation of the value of such assets, except for those assets referenced in paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 10. Acceptable documentation may include statements from financial institutions or some other third-party third party verification of an asset's value. If no third-party third party verification exists, then the patient shall certify as to the estimated value of the asset.

(3) Illinois resident verification. Hospitals may require an uninsured patient who is requesting an uninsured discount to verify Illinois residency. Acceptable verification of Illinois residency shall include any one of the following:

(A) any of the documents listed in paragraph (1);

(B) a valid state-issued identification card;

(C) a recent residential utility bill;

(D) a lease agreement;

(E) a vehicle registration card;

(F) a voter registration card;

(G) mail addressed to the uninsured patient at an Illinois address from a government or other credible source;

(H) a statement from a family member of the uninsured patient who resides at the same address and presents verification of residency;

(I) a letter from a homeless shelter, transitional house or other similar facility verifying that the uninsured patient resides at the facility; or

(J) a temporary visitor's drivers license.

(c) Hospital obligations toward an individual uninsured patient under this Act shall cease if that patient unreasonably fails or refuses to provide the hospital with information or documentation requested under subsection (b) or to apply for coverage under public programs when requested under subsection (a) within 30 days of the hospital's request.

(d) In order for a hospital to determine the 12 month maximum amount that can be collected from a patient deemed eligible under Section 10, an uninsured patient shall inform the hospital in subsequent inpatient admissions or outpatient encounters that the patient has previously received health care services from that hospital and was determined to be entitled to the uninsured discount.

(e) Hospitals may require patients to certify that all of the information provided in the application is true. The application may state that if any of the information is untrue, any discount granted to the patient is forfeited and the patient is responsible for payment of the hospital's full charges.

(f) Hospitals shall ask for an applicant's race, ethnicity, sex, and preferred language on the financial assistance application. However, the questions shall be clearly marked as optional responses for the patient and shall note that responses or nonresponses by the patient will not have any impact on the outcome of the application.

(Source: P.A. 102-581, eff. 1-1-22; 103-323, eff. 1-1-24; 103-492, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-7-23.)

Section 345. The Birth Center Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 46 as follows:

(210 ILCS 170/46)

Sec. 46. Maternal milk donation education.

(a) To ensure an adequate supply of pasteurized donor human milk for premature infants in Illinois, a birth center with obstetrical service beds shall provide information and instructional materials to parents of each newborn, upon discharge from the birth center, regarding the option to voluntarily donate milk to nonprofit non-profit milk banks that are accredited by the Human Milk Banking Association of North America or its successor organization. The materials shall be provided free of charge and shall include general information regarding nonprofit non-profit milk banking practices and contact information for area nonprofit milk banks that are accredited by the Human Milk Banking Association of North America.

(b) The information and instructional materials described in subsection (a) may be provided electronically.

(c) Nothing in this Section prohibits a birth center from obtaining free and suitable information on voluntary milk donation from the Human Milk Banking Association of North America, or its successor organization, or its accredited members.

(Source: P.A. 103-160, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-22-23.)

Section 350. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 356z.61 and by changing Section 370c.1 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/356z.61)

Sec. 356z.61. Coverage for liver disease screening. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 shall provide coverage for preventative liver disease screenings for individuals 35 years of age or older and under the age of 65 at high risk for liver disease, including liver ultrasounds and alpha-fetoprotein blood tests every 6 months, without imposing a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided; except that this Section does not apply to coverage of liver disease screenings to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-84, eff. 1-1-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.63)

Sec. 356z.63 356z.61. Coverage of pharmacy testing, screening, vaccinations, and treatment. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 shall provide coverage for health care or patient care services provided by a pharmacist if:

(1) the pharmacist meets the requirements and scope of practice described in paragraph (15), (16), or (17) of subsection (d) of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act;

(2) the health plan provides coverage for the same service provided by a licensed physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant;

(3) the pharmacist is included in the health benefit plan's network of participating providers; and

(4) reimbursement has been successfully negotiated in good faith between the pharmacist and the health plan.

(Source: P.A. 103-1, eff. 4-27-23; revised 8-29-23.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.64)

Sec. 356z.64 356z.61. Coverage for compression sleeves. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 shall provide coverage for compression sleeves that are is medically necessary for the enrollee to prevent or mitigate lymphedema.

(Source: P.A. 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-29-23.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.65)

Sec. 356z.65 356z.61. Coverage for reconstructive services.

(a) As used in this Section, "reconstructive services" means treatments performed on structures of the body damaged by trauma to restore physical appearance.

(b) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 may not deny coverage for medically necessary reconstructive services that are intended to restore physical appearance.

(Source: P.A. 103-123, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-29-23.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.66)

Sec. 356z.66 356z.61. Proton beam therapy.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Medically necessary" has the meaning given to that term in the Prior Authorization Reform Act.

"Proton beam therapy" means a type of radiation therapy treatment that utilizes protons as the radiation delivery method for the treatment of tumors and cancerous cells.

"Radiation therapy treatment" means the delivery of biological effective doses with proton therapy, intensity modulated radiation therapy, brachytherapy, stereotactic body radiation therapy, three-dimensional conformal radiation therapy, or other forms of therapy using radiation.

(b) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 that provides coverage for the treatment of cancer shall not apply a higher standard of clinical evidence for the coverage of proton beam therapy than the insurer applies for the coverage of any other form of radiation therapy treatment.

(c) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 that provides coverage or benefits to any resident of this State for radiation oncology shall include coverage or benefits for medically necessary proton beam therapy for the treatment of cancer.

(Source: P.A. 103-325, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-29-23.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.67)

Sec. 356z.67 356z.61. Coverage of prescription estrogen.

(a) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 and that provides coverage for prescription drugs shall include coverage for one or more therapeutic equivalent versions of vaginal estrogen in its formulary.

(b) If a particular vaginal estrogen product or its therapeutic equivalent version approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration is determined to be medically necessary, the issuer must cover that service or item pursuant to the cost-sharing requirement contained in subsection (c).

(c) A policy subject to this Section shall not impose a deductible, copayment, or any other cost sharing requirement that exceeds any deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement imposed on any prescription drug authorized for the treatment of erectile dysfunction covered by the policy; except that this subsection does not apply to coverage of vaginal estrogen to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(d) As used in this Section, "therapeutic equivalent version" has the meaning given to that term in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 356z.4.

(Source: P.A. 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-29-23.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.68)

Sec. 356z.68 356z.61. Home saliva cancer screening.

(a) As used in this Section, "home saliva cancer screening" means an outpatient test that utilizes an individual's saliva to detect biomarkers for early-stage cancer.

(b) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 shall cover a medically necessary home saliva cancer screening every 24 months if the patient:

(1) is asymptomatic and at high risk for the disease being tested for; or

(2) demonstrates symptoms of the disease being tested for at a physical exam.

(Source: P.A. 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-29-23.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.69)

Sec. 356z.69 356z.61. Coverage for children with neuromuscular, neurological, or cognitive impairment. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 shall provide coverage for therapy, diagnostic testing, and equipment necessary to increase quality of life for children who have been clinically or genetically diagnosed with any disease, syndrome, or disorder that includes low tone neuromuscular impairment, neurological impairment, or cognitive impairment.

(Source: P.A. 103-458, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-29-23.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.70)

Sec. 356z.70 356z.61. Coverage of no-cost mental health prevention and wellness visits.

(a) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 shall provide coverage for one annual mental health prevention and wellness visit for children and for adults.

(b) Mental health prevention and wellness visits shall include any age-appropriate screening recommended by the United States Preventive Services Task Force or by the American Academy of Pediatrics' Bright Futures: Guidelines for Health Supervision of Infants, Children, and Adolescents for purposes of identifying a mental health issue, condition, or disorder; discussing mental health symptoms that might be present, including symptoms of a previously diagnosed mental health condition or disorder; performing an evaluation of adverse childhood experiences; and discussing mental health and wellness.

(c) A mental health prevention and wellness visit shall be covered for up to 60 minutes and may be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed clinical psychologist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed clinical professional counselor, a licensed marriage and family therapist, a licensed social worker, or a licensed professional counselor.

(d) A policy subject to this Section shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or other cost-sharing requirement for mental health prevention and wellness visits. The cost-sharing prohibition in this subsection (d) does not apply to coverage of mental health prevention and wellness visits to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(e) A mental health prevention and wellness visit shall be in addition to an annual physical examination and shall not replace a well-child visit or a general health or medical visit.

(f) A mental health prevention and wellness visit shall be reimbursed through the following American Medical Association current procedural terminology codes and at the same rate that current procedural terminology codes are reimbursed for the provision of other medical care: 99381-99387 and 99391-99397. The Department shall update the current procedural terminology codes through adoption of rules if the codes listed in this subsection are altered, amended, changed, deleted, or supplemented.

(g) Reimbursement of any of the current procedural terminology codes listed in this Section shall comply with the following:

(1) reimbursement may be adjusted for payment of claims that are billed by a nonphysician clinician so long as the methodology to determine the adjustments are comparable to and applied no more stringently than the methodology for adjustments made for reimbursement of claims billed by nonphysician clinicians for other medical care, in accordance with 45 CFR 146.136(c)(4); and

(2) for a mental health prevention and wellness visit and for a service other than a mental health prevention and wellness visit, reimbursement shall not be denied if they occur on the same date by the same provider and the provider is a primary care provider.

(h) A mental health prevention and wellness visit may be incorporated into and reimbursed within any type of integrated primary care service delivery method, including, but not limited to, a psychiatric collaborative care model as provided for under this Code.

(i) The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section by no later than October 31, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

(215 ILCS 5/370c.1)

Sec. 370c.1. Mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition parity.

(a) On and after July 23, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-135), every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall ensure prior to policy issuance that:

(1) the financial requirements applicable to such mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits are no more restrictive than the predominant financial requirements applied to substantially all hospital and medical benefits covered by the policy and that there are no separate cost-sharing requirements that are applicable only with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; and

(2) the treatment limitations applicable to such mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits are no more restrictive than the predominant treatment limitations applied to substantially all hospital and medical benefits covered by the policy and that there are no separate treatment limitations that are applicable only with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits.

(b) The following provisions shall apply concerning aggregate lifetime limits:

(1) In the case of a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State on or after September 9, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-480) that provides coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions the following provisions shall apply:

(A) if the policy does not include an aggregate lifetime limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits, then the policy may not impose any aggregate lifetime limit on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(B) if the policy includes an aggregate lifetime limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits (in this subsection referred to as the "applicable lifetime limit"), then the policy shall either:

(i) apply the applicable lifetime limit both to the hospital and medical benefits to which it otherwise would apply and to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and not distinguish in the application of the limit between the hospital and medical benefits and mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(ii) not include any aggregate lifetime limit on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits that is less than the applicable lifetime limit.

(2) In the case of a policy that is not described in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section and that includes no or different aggregate lifetime limits on different categories of hospital and medical benefits, the Director shall establish rules under which subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section is applied to such policy with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits by substituting for the applicable lifetime limit an average aggregate lifetime limit that is computed taking into account the weighted average of the aggregate lifetime limits applicable to such categories.

(c) The following provisions shall apply concerning annual limits:

(1) In the case of a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State on or after September 9, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-480) that provides coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions the following provisions shall apply:

(A) if the policy does not include an annual limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits, then the policy may not impose any annual limits on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(B) if the policy includes an annual limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits (in this subsection referred to as the "applicable annual limit"), then the policy shall either:

(i) apply the applicable annual limit both to the hospital and medical benefits to which it otherwise would apply and to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and not distinguish in the application of the limit between the hospital and medical benefits and mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(ii) not include any annual limit on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits that is less than the applicable annual limit.

(2) In the case of a policy that is not described in paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section and that includes no or different annual limits on different categories of hospital and medical benefits, the Director shall establish rules under which subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section is applied to such policy with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits by substituting for the applicable annual limit an average annual limit that is computed taking into account the weighted average of the annual limits applicable to such categories.

(d) With respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions, an insurer shall use policies and procedures for the election and placement of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition treatment drugs on their formulary that are no less favorable to the insured as those policies and procedures the insurer uses for the selection and placement of drugs for medical or surgical conditions and shall follow the expedited coverage determination requirements for substance abuse treatment drugs set forth in Section 45.2 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(e) This Section shall be interpreted in a manner consistent with all applicable federal parity regulations including, but not limited to, the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008, final regulations issued under the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 and final regulations applying the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 to Medicaid managed care organizations, the Children's Health Insurance Program, and alternative benefit plans.

(f) The provisions of subsections (b) and (c) of this Section shall not be interpreted to allow the use of lifetime or annual limits otherwise prohibited by State or federal law.

(g) As used in this Section:

"Financial requirement" includes deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maximums, but does not include an aggregate lifetime limit or an annual limit subject to subsections (b) and (c).

"Mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition" means a condition or disorder that involves a mental health condition or substance use disorder that falls under any of the diagnostic categories listed in the mental and behavioral disorders chapter of the current edition of the International Classification of Disease or that is listed in the most recent version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

"Treatment limitation" includes limits on benefits based on the frequency of treatment, number of visits, days of coverage, days in a waiting period, or other similar limits on the scope or duration of treatment. "Treatment limitation" includes both quantitative treatment limitations, which are expressed numerically (such as 50 outpatient visits per year), and nonquantitative treatment limitations, which otherwise limit the scope or duration of treatment. A permanent exclusion of all benefits for a particular condition or disorder shall not be considered a treatment limitation. "Nonquantitative treatment" means those limitations as described under federal regulations (26 CFR 54.9812-1). "Nonquantitative treatment limitations" include, but are not limited to, those limitations described under federal regulations 26 CFR 54.9812-1, 29 CFR 2590.712, and 45 CFR 146.136.

(h) The Department of Insurance shall implement the following education initiatives:

(1) By January 1, 2016, the Department shall develop a plan for a Consumer Education Campaign on parity. The Consumer Education Campaign shall focus its efforts throughout the State and include trainings in the northern, southern, and central regions of the State, as defined by the Department, as well as each of the 5 managed care regions of the State as identified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. Under this Consumer Education Campaign, the Department shall: (1) by January 1, 2017, provide at least one live training in each region on parity for consumers and providers and one webinar training to be posted on the Department website and (2) establish a consumer hotline to assist consumers in navigating the parity process by March 1, 2017. By January 1, 2018 the Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly on the success of the Consumer Education Campaign, which shall indicate whether additional training is necessary or would be recommended.

(2) The Department, in coordination with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, shall convene a working group of health care insurance carriers, mental health advocacy groups, substance abuse patient advocacy groups, and mental health physician groups for the purpose of discussing issues related to the treatment and coverage of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions and compliance with parity obligations under State and federal law. Compliance shall be measured, tracked, and shared during the meetings of the working group. The working group shall meet once before January 1, 2016 and shall meet semiannually thereafter. The Department shall issue an annual report to the General Assembly that includes a list of the health care insurance carriers, mental health advocacy groups, substance abuse patient advocacy groups, and mental health physician groups that participated in the working group meetings, details on the issues and topics covered, and any legislative recommendations developed by the working group.

(3) Not later than January 1 of each year, the Department, in conjunction with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, shall issue a joint report to the General Assembly and provide an educational presentation to the General Assembly. The report and presentation shall:

(A) Cover the methodology the Departments use to check for compliance with the federal Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008, 42 U.S.C. 18031(j), and any federal regulations or guidance relating to the compliance and oversight of the federal Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 and 42 U.S.C. 18031(j).

(B) Cover the methodology the Departments use to check for compliance with this Section and Sections 356z.23 and 370c of this Code.

(C) Identify market conduct examinations or, in the case of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, audits conducted or completed during the preceding 12-month period regarding compliance with parity in mental, emotional, nervous, and substance use disorder or condition benefits under State and federal laws and summarize the results of such market conduct examinations and audits. This shall include:

(i) the number of market conduct examinations and audits initiated and completed;

(ii) the benefit classifications examined by each market conduct examination and audit;

(iii) the subject matter of each market conduct examination and audit, including quantitative and nonquantitative treatment limitations; and

(iv) a summary of the basis for the final decision rendered in each market conduct examination and audit.

Individually identifiable information shall be excluded from the reports consistent with federal privacy protections.

(D) Detail any educational or corrective actions the Departments have taken to ensure compliance with the federal Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008, 42 U.S.C. 18031(j), this Section, and Sections 356z.23 and 370c of this Code.

(E) The report must be written in non-technical, readily understandable language and shall be made available to the public by, among such other means as the Departments find appropriate, posting the report on the Departments' websites.

(i) The Parity Advancement Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys from fines and penalties collected from insurers for violations of this Section shall be deposited into the Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund for appropriation by the General Assembly to the Department shall be used for the purpose of providing financial support of the Consumer Education Campaign, parity compliance advocacy, and other initiatives that support parity implementation and enforcement on behalf of consumers.

(j) (Blank).

(j-5) The Department of Insurance shall collect the following information:

(1) The number of employment disability insurance plans offered in this State, including, but not limited to:

(A) individual short-term policies;

(B) individual long-term policies;

(C) group short-term policies; and

(D) group long-term policies.

(2) The number of policies referenced in paragraph (1) of this subsection that limit mental health and substance use disorder benefits.

(3) The average defined benefit period for the policies referenced in paragraph (1) of this subsection, both for those policies that limit and those policies that have no limitation on mental health and substance use disorder benefits.

(4) Whether the policies referenced in paragraph (1) of this subsection are purchased on a voluntary or non-voluntary basis.

(5) The identities of the individuals, entities, or a combination of the 2, that assume the cost associated with covering the policies referenced in paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(6) The average defined benefit period for plans that cover physical disability and mental health and substance abuse without limitation, including, but not limited to:

(A) individual short-term policies;

(B) individual long-term policies;

(C) group short-term policies; and

(D) group long-term policies.

(7) The average premiums for disability income insurance issued in this State for:

(A) individual short-term policies that limit mental health and substance use disorder benefits;

(B) individual long-term policies that limit mental health and substance use disorder benefits;

(C) group short-term policies that limit mental health and substance use disorder benefits;

(D) group long-term policies that limit mental health and substance use disorder benefits;

(E) individual short-term policies that include mental health and substance use disorder benefits without limitation;

(F) individual long-term policies that include mental health and substance use disorder benefits without limitation;

(G) group short-term policies that include mental health and substance use disorder benefits without limitation; and

(H) group long-term policies that include mental health and substance use disorder benefits without limitation.

The Department shall present its findings regarding information collected under this subsection (j-5) to the General Assembly no later than April 30, 2024. Information regarding a specific insurance provider's contributions to the Department's report shall be exempt from disclosure under paragraph (t) of subsection (1) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act. The aggregated information gathered by the Department shall not be exempt from disclosure under paragraph (t) of subsection (1) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act.

(k) An insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall submit an annual report, the format and definitions for which will be determined by the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and posted on their respective websites, starting on September 1, 2023 and annually thereafter, that contains the following information separately for inpatient in-network benefits, inpatient out-of-network benefits, outpatient in-network benefits, outpatient out-of-network benefits, emergency care benefits, and prescription drug benefits in the case of accident and health insurance or qualified health plans, or inpatient, outpatient, emergency care, and prescription drug benefits in the case of medical assistance:

(1) A summary of the plan's pharmacy management processes for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits compared to those for other medical benefits.

(2) A summary of the internal processes of review for experimental benefits and unproven technology for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and those for other medical benefits.

(3) A summary of how the plan's policies and procedures for utilization management for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits compare to those for other medical benefits.

(4) A description of the process used to develop or select the medical necessity criteria for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and the process used to develop or select the medical necessity criteria for medical and surgical benefits.

(5) Identification of all nonquantitative treatment limitations that are applied to both mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and medical and surgical benefits within each classification of benefits.

(6) The results of an analysis that demonstrates that for the medical necessity criteria described in subparagraph (A) and for each nonquantitative treatment limitation identified in subparagraph (B), as written and in operation, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in applying the medical necessity criteria and each nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits within each classification of benefits are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in applying the medical necessity criteria and each nonquantitative treatment limitation to medical and surgical benefits within the corresponding classification of benefits; at a minimum, the results of the analysis shall:

(A) identify the factors used to determine that a nonquantitative treatment limitation applies to a benefit, including factors that were considered but rejected;

(B) identify and define the specific evidentiary standards used to define the factors and any other evidence relied upon in designing each nonquantitative treatment limitation;

(C) provide the comparative analyses, including the results of the analyses, performed to determine that the processes and strategies used to design each nonquantitative treatment limitation, as written, for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes and strategies used to design each nonquantitative treatment limitation, as written, for medical and surgical benefits;

(D) provide the comparative analyses, including the results of the analyses, performed to determine that the processes and strategies used to apply each nonquantitative treatment limitation, in operation, for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits are comparable to, and applied no more stringently than, the processes or strategies used to apply each nonquantitative treatment limitation, in operation, for medical and surgical benefits; and

(E) disclose the specific findings and conclusions reached by the insurer that the results of the analyses described in subparagraphs (C) and (D) indicate that the insurer is in compliance with this Section and the Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 and its implementing regulations, which includes 42 CFR Parts 438, 440, and 457 and 45 CFR 146.136 and any other related federal regulations found in the Code of Federal Regulations.

(7) Any other information necessary to clarify data provided in accordance with this Section requested by the Director, including information that may be proprietary or have commercial value, under the requirements of Section 30 of the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(l) An insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024) shall, in advance of the plan year, make available to the Department or, with respect to medical assistance, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and to all plan participants and beneficiaries the information required in subparagraphs (C) through (E) of paragraph (6) of subsection (k). For plan participants and medical assistance beneficiaries, the information required in subparagraphs (C) through (E) of paragraph (6) of subsection (k) shall be made available on a publicly available publicly-available website whose web address is prominently displayed in plan and managed care organization informational and marketing materials.

(m) In conjunction with its compliance examination program conducted in accordance with the Illinois State Auditing Act, the Auditor General shall undertake a review of compliance by the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services with Section 370c and this Section. Any findings resulting from the review conducted under this Section shall be included in the applicable State agency's compliance examination report. Each compliance examination report shall be issued in accordance with Section 3-14 of the Illinois State Auditing Act. A copy of each report shall also be delivered to the head of the applicable State agency and posted on the Auditor General's website.

(Source: P.A. 102-135, eff. 7-23-21; 102-579, eff. 8-25-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-94, eff. 1-1-24; 103-105, eff. 6-27-23; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 355. The Network Adequacy and Transparency Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(215 ILCS 124/25)

Sec. 25. Network transparency.

(a) A network plan shall post electronically an up-to-date, accurate, and complete provider directory for each of its network plans, with the information and search functions, as described in this Section.

(1) In making the directory available electronically, the network plans shall ensure that the general public is able to view all of the current providers for a plan through a clearly identifiable link or tab and without creating or accessing an account or entering a policy or contract number.

(2) The network plan shall update the online provider directory at least monthly. Providers shall notify the network plan electronically or in writing of any changes to their information as listed in the provider directory, including the information required in subparagraph (K) of paragraph (1) of subsection (b). The network plan shall update its online provider directory in a manner consistent with the information provided by the provider within 10 business days after being notified of the change by the provider. Nothing in this paragraph (2) shall void any contractual relationship between the provider and the plan.

(3) The network plan shall audit periodically at least 25% of its provider directories for accuracy, make any corrections necessary, and retain documentation of the audit. The network plan shall submit the audit to the Director upon request. As part of these audits, the network plan shall contact any provider in its network that has not submitted a claim to the plan or otherwise communicated his or her intent to continue participation in the plan's network.

(4) A network plan shall provide a printed print copy of a current provider directory or a printed print copy of the requested directory information upon request of a beneficiary or a prospective beneficiary. Printed Print copies must be updated quarterly and an errata that reflects changes in the provider network must be updated quarterly.

(5) For each network plan, a network plan shall include, in plain language in both the electronic and print directory, the following general information:

(A) in plain language, a description of the criteria the plan has used to build its provider network;

(B) if applicable, in plain language, a description of the criteria the insurer or network plan has used to create tiered networks;

(C) if applicable, in plain language, how the network plan designates the different provider tiers or levels in the network and identifies for each specific provider, hospital, or other type of facility in the network which tier each is placed, for example, by name, symbols, or grouping, in order for a beneficiary-covered person or a prospective beneficiary-covered person to be able to identify the provider tier; and

(D) if applicable, a notation that authorization or referral may be required to access some providers.

(6) A network plan shall make it clear for both its electronic and print directories what provider directory applies to which network plan, such as including the specific name of the network plan as marketed and issued in this State. The network plan shall include in both its electronic and print directories a customer service email address and telephone number or electronic link that beneficiaries or the general public may use to notify the network plan of inaccurate provider directory information and contact information for the Department's Office of Consumer Health Insurance.

(7) A provider directory, whether in electronic or print format, shall accommodate the communication needs of individuals with disabilities, and include a link to or information regarding available assistance for persons with limited English proficiency.

(b) For each network plan, a network plan shall make available through an electronic provider directory the following information in a searchable format:

(1) for health care professionals:

(A) name;

(B) gender;

(C) participating office locations;

(D) specialty, if applicable;

(E) medical group affiliations, if applicable;

(F) facility affiliations, if applicable;

(G) participating facility affiliations, if applicable;

(H) languages spoken other than English, if applicable;

(I) whether accepting new patients;

(J) board certifications, if applicable; and

(K) use of telehealth or telemedicine, including, but not limited to:

(i) whether the provider offers the use of telehealth or telemedicine to deliver services to patients for whom it would be clinically appropriate;

(ii) what modalities are used and what types of services may be provided via telehealth or telemedicine; and

(iii) whether the provider has the ability and willingness to include in a telehealth or telemedicine encounter a family caregiver who is in a separate location than the patient if the patient wishes and provides his or her consent;

(2) for hospitals:

(A) hospital name;

(B) hospital type (such as acute, rehabilitation, children's, or cancer);

(C) participating hospital location; and

(D) hospital accreditation status; and

(3) for facilities, other than hospitals, by type:

(A) facility name;

(B) facility type;

(C) types of services performed; and

(D) participating facility location or locations.

(c) For the electronic provider directories, for each network plan, a network plan shall make available all of the following information in addition to the searchable information required in this Section:

(1) for health care professionals:

(A) contact information; and

(B) languages spoken other than English by clinical staff, if applicable;

(2) for hospitals, telephone number; and

(3) for facilities other than hospitals, telephone number.

(d) The insurer or network plan shall make available in print, upon request, the following provider directory information for the applicable network plan:

(1) for health care professionals:

(A) name;

(B) contact information;

(C) participating office location or locations;

(D) specialty, if applicable;

(E) languages spoken other than English, if applicable;

(F) whether accepting new patients; and

(G) use of telehealth or telemedicine, including, but not limited to:

(i) whether the provider offers the use of telehealth or telemedicine to deliver services to patients for whom it would be clinically appropriate;

(ii) what modalities are used and what types of services may be provided via telehealth or telemedicine; and

(iii) whether the provider has the ability and willingness to include in a telehealth or telemedicine encounter a family caregiver who is in a separate location than the patient if the patient wishes and provides his or her consent;

(2) for hospitals:

(A) hospital name;

(B) hospital type (such as acute, rehabilitation, children's, or cancer); and

(C) participating hospital location and telephone number; and

(3) for facilities, other than hospitals, by type:

(A) facility name;

(B) facility type;

(C) types of services performed; and

(D) participating facility location or locations and telephone numbers.

(e) The network plan shall include a disclosure in the print format provider directory that the information included in the directory is accurate as of the date of printing and that beneficiaries or prospective beneficiaries should consult the insurer's electronic provider directory on its website and contact the provider. The network plan shall also include a telephone number in the print format provider directory for a customer service representative where the beneficiary can obtain current provider directory information.

(f) The Director may conduct periodic audits of the accuracy of provider directories. A network plan shall not be subject to any fines or penalties for information required in this Section that a provider submits that is inaccurate or incomplete.

(Source: P.A. 102-92, eff. 7-9-21; revised 9-26-23.)

Section 360. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.22a, 155.49, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 355c, 356f, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.3a, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.20, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.23, 356z.24, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.28, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.30a, 356z.31, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.34, 356z.35, 356z.36, 356z.37, 356z.38, 356z.39, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.44, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.49, 356z.50, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.55, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.58, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.65, 356z.67, 356z.68, 364, 364.01, 364.3, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 370c.1, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, XXVI, and XXXIIB of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including, without limitation, the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-34, eff. 6-25-21; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-589, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-901, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-123, eff. 1-1-24; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-426, eff. 8-4-23; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 365. The Limited Health Service Organization Act is amended by changing Sections 3006 and 4003 as follows:

(215 ILCS 130/3006) (from Ch. 73, par. 1503-6)

Sec. 3006. Changes in rate methodology and benefits; material modifications; addition of limited health services.

(a) A limited health service organization shall file with the Director prior to use, a notice of any change in rate methodology, charges, or benefits and of any material modification of any matter or document furnished pursuant to Section 2001, together with such supporting documents as are necessary to fully explain the change or modification.

(1) Contract modifications described in paragraphs (5) and (6) of subsection (c) of Section 2001 shall include all agreements between the organization and enrollees, providers, administrators of services, and insurers of limited health services; also other material transactions or series of transactions, the total annual value of which exceeds the greater of $100,000 or 5% of net earned subscription revenue for the most current 12-month 12 month period as determined from filed financial statements.

(2) Contract modification for reinsurance. Any agreement between the organization and an insurer shall be subject to the provisions of Article XI of the Illinois Insurance Code, as now or hereafter amended. All reinsurance agreements must be filed with the Director. Approval of the Director in required agreements must be filed. Approval of the director is required for all agreements except individual stop loss, aggregate excess, hospitalization benefits, or out-of-area of the participating providers, unless 20% or more of the organization's total risk is reinsured, in which case all reinsurance agreements shall require approval.

(b) If a limited health service organization desires to add one or more additional limited health services, it shall file a notice with the Director and, at the same time, submit the information required by Section 2001 if different from that filed with the prepaid limited health service organization's application. Issuance of such an amended certificate of authority shall be subject to the conditions of Section 2002 of this Act.

(c) In addition to any applicable provisions of this Act, premium rate filings shall be subject to subsection (i) of Section 355 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-106, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(215 ILCS 130/4003) (from Ch. 73, par. 1504-3)

Sec. 4003. Illinois Insurance Code provisions. Limited health service organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.37, 155.49, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356q, 356v, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.10, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.41, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.61, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, 364.3, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1 and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code. Nothing in this Section shall require a limited health care plan to cover any service that is not a limited health service. For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, limited health service organizations in the following categories are deemed to be domestic companies:

(1) a corporation under the laws of this State; or

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a domestic company under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-426, eff. 8-4-23; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 370. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 136, 139, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.22a, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.3a, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, 364.01, 364.3, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-901, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 375. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Sections 8-205, 9-222.1A, and 9-229 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/8-205) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 8-205)

Sec. 8-205. (a) Termination of gas and electric utility service to all residential users, including all tenants of mastermetered apartment buildings, for nonpayment of bills, where gas or electricity is used as the only source of space heating or to control or operate the only space heating equipment at the residence is prohibited: ,

(1) on any day when the National Weather Service forecast for the following 24 hours covering the area of the utility in which the residence is located includes a forecast that the temperature will be 32 degrees Fahrenheit or below; or

(2) on any day preceding a holiday or a weekend when such a forecast indicated that the temperature will be 32 degrees Fahrenheit or below during the holiday or weekend.

(b) If gas or electricity is used as the only source of space cooling or to control or operate the only space cooling equipment at a residence, then a utility may not terminate gas or electric utility service to a residential user, including all tenants of mastermetered apartment buildings, for nonpayment of bills:

(1) on any day when the National Weather Service forecast for the following 24 hours covering the area of the utility in which the residence is located includes a forecast that the temperature will be 90 degrees Fahrenheit or above;

(2) on any day preceding a holiday or weekend when the National Weather Service for the following 24 hours covering the area of the utility in which the residence is located includes a forecast that the temperature will be 90 degrees Fahrenheit or above during the holiday or weekend; or

(3) when the National Weather Service issues an excessive heat watch, heat advisory, or excessive heat warning covering the area of the utility in which the residence is located.

(Source: P.A. 103-19, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(220 ILCS 5/9-222.1A)

Sec. 9-222.1A. High impact business. Beginning on August 1, 1998 and thereafter, a business enterprise that is certified as a High Impact Business by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity (formerly Department of Commerce and Community Affairs) is exempt from the tax imposed by Section 2-4 of the Electricity Excise Tax Law, if the High Impact Business is registered to self-assess that tax, and is exempt from any additional charges added to the business enterprise's utility bills as a pass-on of State utility taxes under Section 9-222 of this Act, to the extent the tax or charges are exempted by the percentage specified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity for State utility taxes, provided the business enterprise meets the following criteria:

(1) (A) it intends either (i) to make a minimum eligible investment of $12,000,000 that will be placed in service in qualified property in Illinois and is intended to create at least 500 full-time equivalent jobs at a designated location in Illinois; or (ii) to make a minimum eligible investment of $30,000,000 that will be placed in service in qualified property in Illinois and is intended to retain at least 1,500 full-time equivalent jobs at a designated location in Illinois; or

(B) it meets the criteria of subdivision (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(C), (a)(3)(D), (a)(3)(F), or (a)(3)(G), or (a)(3)(H) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act;

(2) it is designated as a High Impact Business by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity; and

(3) it is certified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity as complying with the requirements specified in clauses (1) and (2) of this Section.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall determine the period during which the exemption from the Electricity Excise Tax Law and the charges imposed under Section 9-222 are in effect and shall specify the percentage of the exemption from those taxes or additional charges.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity is authorized to promulgate rules and regulations to carry out the provisions of this Section, including procedures for complying with the requirements specified in clauses (1) and (2) of this Section and procedures for applying for the exemptions authorized under this Section; to define the amounts and types of eligible investments that business enterprises must make in order to receive State utility tax exemptions or exemptions from the additional charges imposed under Section 9-222 and this Section; to approve such utility tax exemptions for business enterprises whose investments are not yet placed in service; and to require that business enterprises granted tax exemptions or exemptions from additional charges under Section 9-222 repay the exempted amount if the business enterprise fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the certification.

Upon certification of the business enterprises by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall notify the Department of Revenue of the certification. The Department of Revenue shall notify the public utilities of the exemption status of business enterprises from the tax or pass-on charges of State utility taxes. The exemption status shall take effect within 3 months after certification of the business enterprise.

(Source: P.A. 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-561, eff. 1-1-24; revised 11-21-23.)

(220 ILCS 5/9-229)

Sec. 9-229. Consideration of attorney and expert compensation as an expense and intervenor compensation fund.

(a) The Commission shall specifically assess the justness and reasonableness of any amount expended by a public utility to compensate attorneys or technical experts to prepare and litigate a general rate case filing. This issue shall be expressly addressed in the Commission's final order.

(b) The State of Illinois shall create a Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund subject to the following:

(1) Provision of compensation for Consumer Interest Representatives that intervene in Illinois Commerce Commission proceedings will increase public engagement, encourage additional transparency, expand the information available to the Commission, and improve decision-making.

(2) As used in this Section, "Consumer interest representative" means:

(A) a residential utility customer or group of residential utility customers represented by a not-for-profit group or organization registered with the Illinois Attorney General under the Solicitation for of Charity Act;

(B) representatives of not-for-profit groups or organizations whose membership is limited to residential utility customers; or

(C) representatives of not-for-profit groups or organizations whose membership includes Illinois residents and that address the community, economic, environmental, or social welfare of Illinois residents, except government agencies or intervenors specifically authorized by Illinois law to participate in Commission proceedings on behalf of Illinois consumers.

(3) A consumer interest representative is eligible to receive compensation from the consumer intervenor compensation fund if its participation included lay or expert testimony or legal briefing and argument concerning the expenses, investments, rate design, rate impact, or other matters affecting the pricing, rates, costs or other charges associated with utility service, the Commission adopts a material recommendation related to a significant issue in the docket, and participation caused a significant financial hardship to the participant; however, no consumer interest representative shall be eligible to receive an award pursuant to this Section if the consumer interest representative receives any compensation, funding, or donations, directly or indirectly, from parties that have a financial interest in the outcome of the proceeding.

(4) Within 30 days after September 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, each utility that files a request for an increase in rates under Article IX or Article XVI shall deposit an amount equal to one half of the rate case attorney and expert expense allowed by the Commission, but not to exceed $500,000, into the fund within 35 days of the date of the Commission's final Order in the rate case or 20 days after the denial of rehearing under Section 10-113 of this Act, whichever is later. The Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund shall be used to provide payment to consumer interest representatives as described in this Section.

(5) An electric public utility with 3,000,000 or more retail customers shall contribute $450,000 to the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund within 60 days after September 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. A combined electric and gas public utility serving fewer than 3,000,000 but more than 500,000 retail customers shall contribute $225,000 to the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund within 60 days after September 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. A gas public utility with 1,500,000 or more retail customers that is not a combined electric and gas public utility shall contribute $225,000 to the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund within 60 days after September 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. A gas public utility with fewer than 1,500,000 retail customers but more than 300,000 retail customers that is not a combined electric and gas public utility shall contribute $80,000 to the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund within 60 days after September 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. A gas public utility with fewer than 300,000 retail customers that is not a combined electric and gas public utility shall contribute $20,000 to the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund within 60 days after September 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. A combined electric and gas public utility serving fewer than 500,000 retail customers shall contribute $20,000 to the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund within 60 days after September 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. A water or sewer public utility serving more than 100,000 retail customers shall contribute $80,000, and a water or sewer public utility serving fewer than 100,000 but more than 10,000 retail customers shall contribute $20,000.

(6)(A) Prior to the entry of a Final Order in a docketed case, the Commission Administrator shall provide a payment to a consumer interest representative that demonstrates through a verified application for funding that the consumer interest representative's participation or intervention without an award of fees or costs imposes a significant financial hardship based on a schedule to be developed by the Commission. The Administrator may require verification of costs incurred, including statements of hours spent, as a condition to paying the consumer interest representative prior to the entry of a Final Order in a docketed case.

(B) If the Commission adopts a material recommendation related to a significant issue in the docket and participation caused a financial hardship to the participant, then the consumer interest representative shall be allowed payment for some or all of the consumer interest representative's reasonable attorney's or advocate's fees, reasonable expert witness fees, and other reasonable costs of preparation for and participation in a hearing or proceeding. Expenses related to travel or meals shall not be compensable.

(C) The consumer interest representative shall submit an itemized request for compensation to the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund, including the advocate's or attorney's reasonable fee rate, the number of hours expended, reasonable expert and expert witness fees, and other reasonable costs for the preparation for and participation in the hearing and briefing within 30 days of the Commission's final order after denial or decision on rehearing, if any.

(7) Administration of the Fund.

(A) The Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All disbursements from the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund shall be made only upon warrants of the Comptroller drawn upon the Treasurer as custodian of the Fund upon vouchers signed by the Executive Director of the Commission or by the person or persons designated by the Director for that purpose. The Comptroller is authorized to draw the warrant upon vouchers so signed. The Treasurer shall accept all warrants so signed and shall be released from liability for all payments made on those warrants. The Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund shall be administered by an Administrator that is a person or entity that is independent of the Commission. The administrator will be responsible for the prudent management of the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund and for recommendations for the award of consumer intervenor compensation from the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund. The Commission shall issue a request for qualifications for a third-party program administrator to administer the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund. The third-party administrator shall be chosen through a competitive bid process based on selection criteria and requirements developed by the Commission. The Illinois Procurement Code does not apply to the hiring or payment of the Administrator. All Administrator costs may be paid for using monies from the Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund, but the Program Administrator shall strive to minimize costs in the implementation of the program.

(B) The computation of compensation awarded from the fund shall take into consideration the market rates paid to persons of comparable training and experience who offer similar services, but may not exceed the comparable market rate for services paid by the public utility as part of its rate case expense.

(C)(1) Recommendations on the award of compensation by the administrator shall include consideration of whether the Commission adopted a material recommendation related to a significant issue in the docket and whether participation caused a financial hardship to the participant and the payment of compensation is fair, just and reasonable.

(2) Recommendations on the award of compensation by the administrator shall be submitted to the Commission for approval. Unless the Commission initiates an investigation within 45 days after the notice to the Commission, the award of compensation shall be allowed 45 days after notice to the Commission. Such notice shall be given by filing with the Commission on the Commission's e-docket system, and keeping open for public inspection the award for compensation proposed by the Administrator. The Commission shall have power, and it is hereby given authority, either upon complaint or upon its own initiative without complaint, at once, and if it so orders, without answer or other formal pleadings, but upon reasonable notice, to enter upon a hearing concerning the propriety of the award.

(c) The Commission may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 1-20-24.)

Section 380. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Sections 5.1, 7.2, and 18 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/5.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 2215.1)

Sec. 5.1. (a) The Department shall ensure that no day care center, group home, or child care institution as defined in this Act shall on a regular basis transport a child or children with any motor vehicle unless such vehicle is operated by a person who complies with the following requirements:

1. is 21 years of age or older;

2. currently holds a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked or suspended for one or more traffic violations during the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

3. demonstrates physical fitness to operate vehicles by submitting the results of a medical examination conducted by a licensed physician;

4. has not been convicted of more than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles within a 12-month twelve month period;

5. has not been convicted of reckless driving or driving under the influence or manslaughter or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within the past 3 years;

6. has signed and submitted a written statement certifying that the person has not, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused a crash which resulted in the death of any person within the 5 years immediately prior to the date of application.

However, such day care centers, group homes, and child care institutions may provide for transportation of a child or children for special outings, functions, or purposes that are not scheduled on a regular basis without verification that drivers for such purposes meet the requirements of this Section.

(a-5) As a means of ensuring compliance with the requirements set forth in subsection (a), the Department shall implement appropriate measures to verify that every individual who is employed at a group home or child care institution meets those requirements.

For every person employed at a group home or child care institution who regularly transports children in the course of performing the person's duties, the Department must make the verification every 2 years. Upon the Department's request, the Secretary of State shall provide the Department with the information necessary to enable the Department to make the verifications required under subsection (a).

In the case of an individual employed at a group home or child care institution who becomes subject to subsection (a) for the first time after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-943) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, the Department must make that verification with the Secretary of State before the individual operates a motor vehicle to transport a child or children under the circumstances described in subsection (a).

In the case of an individual employed at a group home or child care institution who is subject to subsection (a) on January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-943) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, the Department must make that verification with the Secretary of State within 30 days after January 1, 2007 that effective date.

If the Department discovers that an individual fails to meet the requirements set forth in subsection (a), the Department shall promptly notify the appropriate group home or child care institution.

(b) Any individual who holds a valid Illinois school bus driver permit issued by the Secretary of State pursuant to the The Illinois Vehicle Code, and who is currently employed by a school district or parochial school, or by a contractor with a school district or parochial school, to drive a school bus transporting children to and from school, shall be deemed in compliance with the requirements of subsection (a).

(c) The Department may, pursuant to Section 8 of this Act, revoke the license of any day care center, group home, or child care institution that fails to meet the requirements of this Section.

(d) A group home or child care institution that fails to meet the requirements of this Section is guilty of a petty offense and is subject to a fine of not more than $1,000. Each day that a group home or child care institution fails to meet the requirements of this Section is a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-21-23.)

(225 ILCS 10/7.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 2217.2)

Sec. 7.2. Employer discrimination.

(a) For purposes of this Section: ,

"Employer" "employer" means a licensee or holder of a permit subject to this Act.

"Employee" means an employee of such an employer.

(b) No employer shall discharge, demote, or suspend, or threaten to discharge, demote, or suspend, or in any manner discriminate against any employee who:

(1) Makes any good faith oral or written complaint of any employer's violation of any licensing or other laws (including, but not limited to, laws concerning child abuse or the transportation of children) which may result in closure of the facility pursuant to Section 11.2 of this Act to the Department or other agency having statutory responsibility for the enforcement of such laws or to the employer or representative of the employer;

(2) Institutes or causes to be instituted against any employer any proceeding concerning the violation of any licensing or other laws, including a proceeding to revoke or to refuse to renew a license under Section 9 of this Act;

(3) Is or will be a witness or testify in any proceeding concerning the violation of any licensing or other laws, including a proceeding to revoke or to refuse to renew a license under Section 9 of this Act; or

(4) Refuses to perform work in violation of a licensing or other law or regulation after notifying the employer of the violation.

(c)(1) A claim by an employee alleging an employer's violation of subsection (b) of this Section shall be presented to the employer within 30 days after the date of the action complained of and shall be filed with the Department of Labor within 60 days after the date of the action complained of.

(2) Upon receipt of the complaint, the Department of Labor shall conduct whatever investigation it deems appropriate, and may hold a hearing. After investigation or hearing, the Department of Labor shall determine whether the employer has violated subsection (b) of this Section and it shall notify the employer and the employee of its determination.

(3) If the Department of Labor determines that the employer has violated subsection (b) of this Section, and the employer refuses to take remedial action to comply with the determination, the Department of Labor shall so notify the Attorney General, who shall bring an action against the employer in the circuit court seeking enforcement of its determination. The court may order any appropriate relief, including rehiring and reinstatement of the employee to the person's former position with backpay and other benefits.

(d) Except for any grievance procedure, arbitration, or hearing which is available to the employee pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement, this Section shall be the exclusive remedy for an employee complaining of any action described in subsection (b).

(e) Any employer who willfully refuses to rehire, promote, or otherwise restore an employee or former employee who has been determined eligible for rehiring or promotion as a result of any grievance procedure, arbitration, or hearing authorized by law shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-21-23.)

(225 ILCS 10/18) (from Ch. 23, par. 2228)

Sec. 18. Any person, group of persons, association, or corporation who:

(1) conducts, operates, or acts as a child care facility without a license or permit to do so in violation of Section 3 of this Act;

(2) makes materially false statements in order to obtain a license or permit;

(3) fails to keep the records and make the reports provided under this Act;

(4) advertises any service not authorized by license or permit held;

(5) publishes any advertisement in violation of this Act;

(6) receives within this State any child in violation of Section 16 of this Act; or

(7) violates any other provision of this Act or any reasonable rule or regulation adopted and published by the Department for the enforcement of the provisions of this Act, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and in case of an association or corporation, imprisonment may be imposed upon its officers who knowingly participated in the violation.

Any child care facility that continues to operate after its license is revoked under Section 8 of this Act or after its license expires and the Department refused to renew the license as provided in Section 8 of this Act is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined an amount in excess of $500 but not exceeding $10,000, and each day of violation is a separate offense.

In a prosecution under this Act, a defendant who relies upon the relationship of any child to the defendant has the burden of proof as to that relationship.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-21-23.)

Section 385. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/4)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Board" means the Board of Dentistry.

"Dentist" means a person who has received a general license pursuant to paragraph (a) of Section 11 of this Act and who may perform any intraoral and extraoral procedure required in the practice of dentistry and to whom is reserved the responsibilities specified in Section 17.

"Dental hygienist" means a person who holds a license under this Act to perform dental services as authorized by Section 18.

"Dental assistant" means an appropriately trained person who, under the supervision of a dentist, provides dental services as authorized by Section 17.

"Expanded function dental assistant" means a dental assistant who has completed the training required by Section 17.1 of this Act.

"Dental laboratory" means a person, firm, or corporation which:

(i) engages in making, providing, repairing, or altering dental prosthetic appliances and other artificial materials and devices which are returned to a dentist for insertion into the human oral cavity or which come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues; and

(ii) utilizes or employs a dental technician to provide such services; and

(iii) performs such functions only for a dentist or dentists.

"Supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist or a dental assistant requiring that a dentist authorize the procedure, remain in the dental facility while the procedure is performed, and approve the work performed by the dental hygienist or dental assistant before dismissal of the patient, but does not mean that the dentist must be present at all times in the treatment room.

"General supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist requiring that the patient be a patient of record, that the dentist examine the patient in accordance with Section 18 prior to treatment by the dental hygienist, and that the dentist authorize the procedures which are being carried out by a notation in the patient's record, but not requiring that a dentist be present when the authorized procedures are being performed. The issuance of a prescription to a dental laboratory by a dentist does not constitute general supervision.

"Public member" means a person who is not a health professional. For purposes of board membership, any person with a significant financial interest in a health service or profession is not a public member.

"Dentistry" means the healing art which is concerned with the examination, diagnosis, treatment planning, and care of conditions within the human oral cavity and its adjacent tissues and structures, as further specified in Section 17.

"Branches of dentistry" means the various specialties of dentistry which, for purposes of this Act, shall be limited to the following: endodontics, oral and maxillofacial surgery, orthodontics and dentofacial orthopedics, pediatric dentistry, periodontics, prosthodontics, oral and maxillofacial radiology, and dental anesthesiology.

"Specialist" means a dentist who has received a specialty license pursuant to Section 11(b).

"Dental technician" means a person who owns, operates, or is employed by a dental laboratory and engages in making, providing, repairing, or altering dental prosthetic appliances and other artificial materials and devices which are returned to a dentist for insertion into the human oral cavity or which come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues.

"Impaired dentist" or "impaired dental hygienist" means a dentist or dental hygienist who is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish the person's ability to deliver competent patient care.

"Nurse" means a registered professional nurse, a certified registered nurse anesthetist licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Patient of record" means a patient for whom the patient's most recent dentist has obtained a relevant medical and dental history and on whom the dentist has performed an examination and evaluated the condition to be treated.

"Dental responder" means a dentist or dental hygienist who is appropriately certified in disaster preparedness, immunizations, and dental humanitarian medical response consistent with the Society of Disaster Medicine and Public Health and training certified by the National Incident Management System or the National Disaster Life Support Foundation.

"Mobile dental van or portable dental unit" means any self-contained or portable dental unit in which dentistry is practiced that can be moved, towed, or transported from one location to another in order to establish a location where dental services can be provided.

"Public health dental hygienist" means a hygienist who holds a valid license to practice in the State, has 2 years of full-time clinical experience or an equivalent of 4,000 hours of clinical experience, and has completed at least 42 clock hours of additional structured courses in dental education in advanced areas specific to public health dentistry.

"Public health setting" means a federally qualified health center; a federal, State, or local public health facility; Head Start; a special supplemental nutrition program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) facility; a certified school-based health center or school-based oral health program; a prison; or a long-term care facility.

"Public health supervision" means the supervision of a public health dental hygienist by a licensed dentist who has a written public health supervision agreement with that public health dental hygienist while working in an approved facility or program that allows the public health dental hygienist to treat patients, without a dentist first examining the patient and being present in the facility during treatment, (1) who are eligible for Medicaid or (2) who are uninsured or whose household income is not greater than 300% of the federal poverty level.

"Teledentistry" means the use of telehealth systems and methodologies in dentistry and includes patient care and education delivery using synchronous and asynchronous communications under a dentist's authority as provided under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-93, eff. 1-1-22; 102-588, eff. 8-20-21; 102-936, eff. 1-1-23; 103-425, eff. 1-1-24; 103-431, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(225 ILCS 25/17)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 17. Acts constituting the practice of dentistry. A person practices dentistry, within the meaning of this Act:

(1) Who represents himself or herself as being able to diagnose or diagnoses, treats, prescribes, or operates for any disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, or physical condition of the human tooth, teeth, alveolar process, gums, or jaw; or

(2) Who is a manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor of a business where dental operations are performed; or

(3) Who performs dental operations of any kind; or

(4) Who uses an X-Ray machine or X-Ray films for dental diagnostic purposes; or

(5) Who extracts a human tooth or teeth, or corrects or attempts to correct malpositions of the human teeth or jaws; or

(6) Who offers or undertakes, by any means or method, to diagnose, treat, or remove stains, calculus, and bonding materials from human teeth or jaws; or

(7) Who uses or administers local or general anesthetics in the treatment of dental or oral diseases or in any preparation incident to a dental operation of any kind or character; or

(8) Who takes material or digital scans for final impressions of the human tooth, teeth, or jaws or performs any phase of any operation incident to the replacement of a part of a tooth, a tooth, teeth, or associated tissues by means of a filling, a crown, a bridge, a denture, or other appliance; or

(9) Who offers to furnish, supply, construct, reproduce, or repair, or who furnishes, supplies, constructs, reproduces, or repairs, prosthetic dentures, bridges, or other substitutes for natural teeth, to the user or prospective user thereof; or

(10) Who instructs students on clinical matters or performs any clinical operation included in the curricula of recognized dental schools and colleges; or

(11) Who takes material or digital scans for final impressions of human teeth or places his or her hands in the mouth of any person for the purpose of applying teeth whitening materials, or who takes impressions of human teeth or places his or her hands in the mouth of any person for the purpose of assisting in the application of teeth whitening materials. A person does not practice dentistry when he or she discloses to the consumer that he or she is not licensed as a dentist under this Act and (i) discusses the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer purchasing these materials; (ii) provides instruction on the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer purchasing these materials; or (iii) provides appropriate equipment on-site to the consumer for the consumer to self-apply teeth whitening materials.

The fact that any person engages in or performs, or offers to engage in or perform, any of the practices, acts, or operations set forth in this Section, shall be prima facie evidence that such person is engaged in the practice of dentistry.

The following practices, acts, and operations, however, are exempt from the operation of this Act:

(a) The rendering of dental relief in emergency cases in the practice of his or her profession by a physician or surgeon, licensed as such under the laws of this State, unless he or she undertakes to reproduce or reproduces lost parts of the human teeth in the mouth or to restore or replace lost or missing teeth in the mouth; or

(b) The practice of dentistry in the discharge of their official duties by dentists in any branch of the Armed Services of the United States, the United States Public Health Service, or the United States Veterans Administration; or

(c) The practice of dentistry by students in their course of study in dental schools or colleges approved by the Department, when acting under the direction and supervision of dentists acting as instructors; or

(d) The practice of dentistry by clinical instructors in the course of their teaching duties in dental schools or colleges approved by the Department:

(i) when acting under the direction and supervision of dentists, provided that such clinical instructors have instructed continuously in this State since January 1, 1986; or

(ii) when holding the rank of full professor at such approved dental school or college and possessing a current valid license or authorization to practice dentistry in another country; or

(e) The practice of dentistry by licensed dentists of other states or countries at meetings of the Illinois State Dental Society or component parts thereof, alumni meetings of dental colleges, or any other like dental organizations, while appearing as clinicians; or

(f) The use of X-Ray machines for exposing X-Ray films of dental or oral tissues by dental hygienists or dental assistants; or

(g) The performance of any dental service by a dental assistant, if such service is performed under the supervision and full responsibility of a dentist. In addition, after being authorized by a dentist, a dental assistant may, for the purpose of eliminating pain or discomfort, remove loose, broken, or irritating orthodontic appliances on a patient of record.

For purposes of this paragraph (g), "dental service" is defined to mean any intraoral procedure or act which shall be prescribed by rule or regulation of the Department. "Dental service", however, shall not include:

(1) Any and all diagnosis of or prescription for treatment of disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, or physical condition of the human teeth or jaws, or adjacent structures.

(2) Removal of, restoration of, or addition to the hard or soft tissues of the oral cavity, except for the placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam restorations and placing, packing, and finishing composite restorations by dental assistants who have had additional formal education and certification.

A dental assistant may place, carve, and finish amalgam restorations, place, pack, and finish composite restorations, and place interim restorations if he or she (A) has successfully completed a structured training program as described in item (2) of subsection (g) provided by an educational institution accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, such as a dental school or dental hygiene or dental assistant program, or (B) has at least 4,000 hours of direct clinical patient care experience and has successfully completed a structured training program as described in item (2) of subsection (g) provided by a statewide dental association, approved by the Department to provide continuing education, that has developed and conducted training programs for expanded functions for dental assistants or hygienists. The training program must: (i) include a minimum of 16 hours of didactic study and 14 hours of clinical manikin instruction; all training programs shall include areas of study in nomenclature, caries classifications, oral anatomy, periodontium, basic occlusion, instrumentations, pulp protection liners and bases, dental materials, matrix and wedge techniques, amalgam placement and carving, rubber dam clamp placement, and rubber dam placement and removal; (ii) include an outcome assessment examination that demonstrates competency; (iii) require the supervising dentist to observe and approve the completion of 8 amalgam or composite restorations; and (iv) issue a certificate of completion of the training program, which must be kept on file at the dental office and be made available to the Department upon request. A dental assistant must have successfully completed an approved coronal polishing and dental sealant course prior to taking the amalgam and composite restoration course.

A dentist utilizing dental assistants shall not supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one time for placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam restorations or for placing, packing, and finishing composite restorations.

(3) Any and all correction of malformation of teeth or of the jaws.

(4) Administration of anesthetics, except for monitoring of nitrous oxide, conscious sedation, deep sedation, and general anesthetic as provided in Section 8.1 of this Act, that may be performed only after successful completion of a training program approved by the Department. A dentist utilizing dental assistants shall not supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the monitoring of nitrous oxide.

(5) Removal of calculus from human teeth.

(6) Taking of material or digital scans for final impressions for the fabrication of prosthetic appliances, crowns, bridges, inlays, onlays, or other restorative or replacement dentistry.

(7) The operative procedure of dental hygiene consisting of oral prophylactic procedures, except for coronal polishing and pit and fissure sealants, which may be performed by a dental assistant who has successfully completed a training program approved by the Department. Dental assistants may perform coronal polishing under the following circumstances: (i) the coronal polishing shall be limited to polishing the clinical crown of the tooth and existing restorations, supragingivally; (ii) the dental assistant performing the coronal polishing shall be limited to the use of rotary instruments using a rubber cup or brush polishing method (air polishing is not permitted); and (iii) the supervising dentist shall not supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the task of coronal polishing or pit and fissure sealants.

In addition to coronal polishing and pit and fissure sealants as described in this item (7), a dental assistant who has at least 2,000 hours of direct clinical patient care experience and who has successfully completed a structured training program provided by (1) an educational institution including, but not limited to, a dental school or dental hygiene or dental assistant program, (2) a continuing education provider approved by the Department, or (3) a statewide dental or dental hygienist association that has developed and conducted a training program for expanded functions for dental assistants or hygienists may perform: (A) coronal scaling above the gum line, supragingivally, on the clinical crown of the tooth only on patients 17 years of age or younger who have an absence of periodontal disease and who are not medically compromised or individuals with special needs and (B) intracoronal temporization of a tooth. The training program must: (I) include a minimum of 32 hours of instruction in both didactic and clinical manikin or human subject instruction; all training programs shall include areas of study in dental anatomy, public health dentistry, medical history, dental emergencies, and managing the pediatric patient; (II) include an outcome assessment examination that demonstrates competency; (III) require the supervising dentist to observe and approve the completion of 6 full mouth supragingival scaling procedures unless the training was received as part of a Commission on Dental Accreditation approved dental assistant program; and (IV) issue a certificate of completion of the training program, which must be kept on file at the dental office and be made available to the Department upon request. A dental assistant must have successfully completed an approved coronal polishing course prior to taking the coronal scaling course. A dental assistant performing these functions shall be limited to the use of hand instruments only. In addition, coronal scaling as described in this paragraph shall only be utilized on patients who are eligible for Medicaid, who are uninsured, or whose household income is not greater than 300% of the federal poverty level. A dentist may not supervise more than 2 dental assistants at any one time for the task of coronal scaling. This paragraph is inoperative on and after January 1, 2026.

The limitations on the number of dental assistants a dentist may supervise contained in items (2), (4), and (7) of this paragraph (g) mean a limit of 4 total dental assistants or dental hygienists doing expanded functions covered by these Sections being supervised by one dentist; or

(h) The practice of dentistry by an individual who:

(i) has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a general dental license and has complied with all provisions of Section 9 of this Act, except for the passage of the examination specified in subsection (e) of Section 9 of this Act; or

(ii) has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a temporary dental license and has complied with all provisions of subsection (c) of Section 11 of this Act; and

(iii) has been accepted or appointed for specialty or residency training by a hospital situated in this State; or

(iv) has been accepted or appointed for specialty training in an approved dental program situated in this State; or

(v) has been accepted or appointed for specialty training in a dental public health agency situated in this State.

The applicant shall be permitted to practice dentistry for a period of 3 months from the starting date of the program, unless authorized in writing by the Department to continue such practice for a period specified in writing by the Department.

The applicant shall only be entitled to perform such acts as may be prescribed by and incidental to his or her program of residency or specialty training and shall not otherwise engage in the practice of dentistry in this State.

The authority to practice shall terminate immediately upon:

(1) the decision of the Department that the applicant has failed the examination; or

(2) denial of licensure by the Department; or

(3) withdrawal of the application.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-936, eff. 1-1-23; 103-425, eff. 1-1-24; 103-431, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 390. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/25)

Sec. 25. Hiring of people with criminal records by health care employers and long-term care facilities.

(a) A health care employer or long-term care facility may hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of clients, patients, or residents who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the following offenses under the laws of this State, or of an offense that is substantially equivalent to the following offenses under the laws of any other state or of the laws of the United States, as verified by court records, records from a state agency, or a Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records check, only with a waiver described in Section 40: those defined in Sections 8-1(b), 8-1.1, 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.1, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 9-3.4, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-7, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-9.2, 11-9.3, 11-9.4-1, 11-9.5, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-7.4, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-19, 12-20.5, 12-21, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-32, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 16-1, 16-1.3, 16-25, 16A-3, 17-3, 17-56, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-1, 19-3, 19-4, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 24-1, 24-1.2, 24-1.5, 24-1.8, 24-3.8, or 33A-2, or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, or in subsection (a) of Section 12-3 or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; those provided in Section 4 of the Wrongs to Children Act; those provided in Section 53 of the Criminal Jurisprudence Act; those defined in subsection (c), (d), (e), (f), or (g) of Section 5 or Section 5.1, 5.2, 7, or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act; those defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; those defined in Sections 401, 401.1, 404, 405, 405.1, 407, or 407.1 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; or subsection (a) of Section 3.01, Section 3.02, or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act.

(a-1) A health care employer or long-term care facility may hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of clients, patients, or residents who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the following offenses under the laws of this State, or of an offense that is substantially equivalent to the following offenses under the laws of any other state or of the laws of the United States, as verified by court records, records from a state agency, or a Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records check, only with a waiver described in Section 40: those offenses defined in Section 12-3.3, 12-4.2-5, 16-2, 16-30, 16G-15, 16G-20, 17-33, 17-34, 17-36, 17-44, 18-5, 20-1.2, 24-1.1, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-3.2, or 24-3.3, or subsection (b) of Section 17-32, subsection (b) of Section 18-1, or subsection (b) of Section 20-1, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; Section 4, 5, 6, 8, or 17.02 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act; or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or Section 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act; or (ii) violated Section 50-50 of the Nurse Practice Act.

A health care employer is not required to retain an individual in a position with duties involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility is required to retain an individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the offenses enumerated in this subsection.

(b) A health care employer shall not hire, employ, or retain, whether paid or on a volunteer basis, any individual in a position with duties involving direct care of clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility shall knowingly hire, employ, or retain, whether paid or on a volunteer basis, any individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, if the health care employer becomes aware that the individual has been convicted in another state of committing or attempting to commit an offense that has the same or similar elements as an offense listed in subsection (a) or (a-1), as verified by court records, records from a state agency, or an FBI criminal history record check, unless the applicant or employee obtains a waiver pursuant to Section 40 of this Act. This shall not be construed to mean that a health care employer has an obligation to conduct a criminal history records check in other states in which an employee has resided.

(c) A health care employer shall not hire, employ, or retain, whether paid or on a volunteer basis, any individual in a position with duties involving direct care of clients, patients, or residents, who has a finding by the Department of abuse, neglect, misappropriation of property, or theft denoted on the Health Care Worker Registry.

(d) A health care employer shall not hire, employ, or retain, whether paid or on a volunteer basis, any individual in a position with duties involving direct care of clients, patients, or residents if the individual has a verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation, as identified within the Adult Protective Service Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(e) A health care employer shall not hire, employ, or retain, whether paid or on a volunteer basis, any individual in a position with duties involving direct care of clients, patients, or residents who has a finding by the Department of Human Services denoted on the Health Care Worker Registry of physical or sexual abuse, financial exploitation, egregious neglect, or material obstruction of an investigation.

(Source: P.A. 103-76, eff. 6-9-23; 103-428, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 395. The Music Therapy Licensing and Practice Act is amended by changing Section 95 as follows:

(225 ILCS 56/95)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or nondisciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or more of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency.

(2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act, or any of its rules.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of music therapy.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(5) Negligence in the rendering of music therapy services.

(6) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or any of its rules.

(7) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department.

(9) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any information received from a client, unless otherwise authorized or required by law.

(10) Failure to maintain client records of services provided and provide copies to clients upon request.

(11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage, profit, or interest.

(12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in inability to practice with reasonable skill, judgment, or safety.

(13) Discipline by another governmental agency or unit of government, by any jurisdiction of the United States, or by a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(15) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(16) Failing to refer a client to other health care professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to adequately support or serve the client.

(17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a licensee's practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with federal or State agencies or departments.

(18) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(20) Physical or mental disability, including deterioration through the aging process or loss of abilities and skills which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(21) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(22) Fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(23) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name other than the full name as shown on the license or any other legally authorized name.

(24) Gross overcharging for professional services, including filing statements for collection of fees or moneys for which services are not rendered.

(25) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(26) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(b) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall result in an automatic suspension of the licensee's license. The suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the determination of the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(c) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend without hearing the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any Act regarding the payment of taxes administered by the Department of Revenue until the requirements of the Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(Source: P.A. 102-993, eff. 5-27-22; revised 1-3-24.)

Section 400. The Licensed Certified Professional Midwife Practice Act is amended by changing Section 100 as follows:

(225 ILCS 64/100)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 100. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to any license issued under this Act as the Department may deem proper, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act, or the rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is: (i) a felony; or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct, as defined by rule, of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in a midwife's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(11) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements, including provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits, with persons or entities authorized under this Act for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.

(12) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(13) Abandonment of a patient.

(14) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with state agencies or departments.

(15) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(16) Physical illness, or mental illness or impairment that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill.

(17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(18) Gross negligence resulting in permanent injury or death of a patient.

(19) Employment of fraud, deception, or any unlawful means in applying for or securing a license as a licensed certified professional profession midwife.

(21) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation related to the licensee's practice.

(22) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(23) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law.

(24) Making a false or misleading statement regarding his or her skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course of treatment.

(25) Allowing another person to use his or her license to practice.

(26) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug classified as a controlled substance for purposes other than medically accepted medically-accepted therapeutic purposes.

(27) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to exploit the patient for financial gain.

(28) A pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(29) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or regulations relating to controlled substances or other legend drugs or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(30) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by law.

(31) Attempting to subvert or cheat on the examination of the North American Registry of Midwives or its successor agency.

(32) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between licensed certified professional profession midwives and patient, except as required by law.

(33) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(34) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(35) Failure to report to the Department an adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or a foreign state or country, a peer review body, a health care institution, a professional society or association, a governmental agency, a law enforcement agency, or a court.

(36) Failure to provide copies of records of patient care or treatment, except as required by law.

(37) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to practice in another state or jurisdiction or current surrender by the licensee of membership professional association or society while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action under this Section.

(38) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a request for information in response to a written request made by the Department by certified or registered mail or by email to the email address of record.

(39) Failure to supervise a midwife assistant or student midwife including, but not limited to, allowing a midwife assistant or student midwife to exceed their scope.

(40) Failure to adequately inform a patient about their malpractice liability insurance coverage and the policy limits of the coverage.

(41) Failure to submit an annual report to the Department of Public Health.

(42) Failure to disclose active cardiopulmonary resuscitation certification or neonatal resuscitation provider status to clients.

(43) Engaging in one of the prohibited practices provided for in Section 85 of this Act.

(b) The Department may, without a hearing, refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, including a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the Department.

The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation.

The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. However, that physician shall be present only to observe and may not interfere in any way with the examination.

Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when ordered, shall result in an automatic suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination.

If the Department finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 102-683, eff. 10-1-22; revised 1-30-24.)

Section 405. The Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 95/7.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 7.5. Written collaborative agreements; prescriptive authority.

(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all physician assistants to practice in the State, except as provided in Section 7.7 of this Act.

(1) A written collaborative agreement shall describe the working relationship of the physician assistant with the collaborating physician and shall describe the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be provided by the physician assistant. The written collaborative agreement shall promote the exercise of professional judgment by the physician assistant commensurate with his or her education and experience. The services to be provided by the physician assistant shall be services that the collaborating physician is authorized to and generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical medical practice. The written collaborative agreement need not describe the exact steps that a physician assistant must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or symptom but must specify which authorized procedures require the presence of the collaborating physician as the procedures are being performed. The relationship under a written collaborative agreement shall not be construed to require the personal presence of a physician at the place where services are rendered. Methods of communication shall be available for consultation with the collaborating physician in person or by telecommunications or electronic communications as set forth in the written collaborative agreement. For the purposes of this Act, "generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical medical practice" means services, not specific tasks or duties, the collaborating physician routinely provides individually or through delegation to other persons so that the physician has the experience and ability to collaborate and provide consultation.

(2) The written collaborative agreement shall be adequate if a physician does each of the following:

(A) Participates in the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or guidelines with the physician assistant and he or she periodically reviews such orders and the services provided patients under such orders in accordance with accepted standards of medical practice and physician assistant practice.

(B) Provides consultation at least once a month.

(3) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement must be available to the Department upon request from both the physician assistant and the collaborating physician.

(4) A physician assistant shall inform each collaborating physician of all written collaborative agreements he or she has signed and provide a copy of these to any collaborating physician upon request.

(b) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written collaborative agreement. This authority may, but is not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, and dispensing medical devices, over-the-counter over the counter medications, legend drugs, medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as Schedule II through V controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and herbal remedies. The collaborating physician must have a valid, current Illinois controlled substance license and federal registration with the Drug Enforcement Administration to delegate the authority to prescribe controlled substances.

(1) To prescribe Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances under this Section, a physician assistant must obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license. Medication orders issued by a physician assistant shall be reviewed periodically by the collaborating physician.

(2) The collaborating physician shall file with the Department notice of delegation of prescriptive authority to a physician assistant and termination of delegation, specifying the authority delegated or terminated. Upon receipt of this notice delegating authority to prescribe controlled substances, the physician assistant shall be eligible to register for a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by the collaborating physician to a nurse or other appropriately trained persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(3) In addition to the requirements of this subsection (b), a collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate authority to a physician assistant to prescribe Schedule II controlled substances, if all of the following conditions apply:

(A) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated.

(B) (Blank).

(C) Any prescription must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician.

(D) The physician assistant must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the collaborating physician.

(E) The physician assistant meets the education requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a physician assistant to provide health care services required by law or rule to be performed by a physician. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize the delegation or performance of operative surgery. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to preclude a physician assistant from assisting in surgery.

(c-5) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to any medication authority, including Schedule II controlled substances of a licensed physician assistant for care provided in a hospital, hospital affiliate, federally qualified health center, or ambulatory surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 7.7 of this Act.

(d) (Blank).

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-65, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 410. The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 is amended by changing Section 25.2 as follows:

(225 ILCS 115/25.2) (from Ch. 111, par. 7025.2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)

Sec. 25.2. Investigation; notice and hearing. The Department may investigate the actions of any applicant or of any person or persons holding or claiming to hold a license or certificate. The Department shall, before refusing to issue, to renew or discipline a license or certificate under Section 25, at least 30 days prior to the date set for the hearing, notify the applicant or licensee in writing of the nature of the charges and the time and place for a hearing on the charges. The Department shall direct the applicant, certificate holder, or licensee to file a written answer to the charges with the Board under oath within 20 days after the service of the notice and inform the applicant, certificate holder, or licensee that failure to file an answer will result in default being taken against the applicant, certificate holder, or licensee. At the time and place fixed in the notice, the Department shall proceed to hear the charges and the parties or their counsel shall be accorded ample opportunity to present any pertinent statements, testimony, evidence, and arguments. The Department may continue the hearing from time to time. In case the person, after receiving the notice, fails to file an answer, his or her license may, in the discretion of the Department, be revoked, suspended, placed on probationary status, or the Department may take whatever disciplinary action considered proper, including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the person's practice or the imposition of a fine, without a hearing, if the act or acts charged constitute sufficient grounds for that action under the Act. The written notice and any notice in the subsequent proceeding may be served by registered or certified mail to the licensee's address of record or, if in the course of the administrative proceeding the party has previously designated a specific email address at which to accept electronic service for that specific proceeding, by sending a copy by email to the party's an email address on record.

(Source: P.A. 103-309, eff. 1-1-24; 103-505, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-28-23.)

Section 415. The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act is amended by changing Section 75 as follows:

(225 ILCS 130/75)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)

Sec. 75. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or restore a registration, may revoke or suspend a registration, or may place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to a person registered under this Act, including, but not limited to, the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as provided for in Section 90, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violating a provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, renewing, restoring, reinstating, or procuring a registration under this Act.

(5) Aiding or assisting another person in violating a provision of this Act or its rules.

(6) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public, as defined by rule of the Department.

(8) Discipline by another United States jurisdiction, governmental agency, unit of government, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(9) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (9) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the registrant's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (9) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(10) A finding by the Department that the registrant, after having the registration placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(11) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice, including, but not limited to, false records or reports filed with State agencies.

(12) Willfully making or signing a false statement, certificate, or affidavit to induce payment.

(13) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the registrant has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(15) (Blank).

(16) Failure to report to the Department (A) any adverse final action taken against the registrant by another registering or licensing jurisdiction, government agency, law enforcement agency, or any court or (B) liability for conduct that would constitute grounds for action as set forth in this Section.

(17) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(18) Physical or mental illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skills, which results in the inability to practice the profession for which the person is registered with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(19) Gross malpractice.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act related to the registrant's practice, including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation.

(21) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing the registration of a person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay a final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by a tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(b-1) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license issued under this Act to practice as a registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist based solely upon the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(b-2) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license issued under this Act to practice as a registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist based upon the registered surgical assistant's or registered surgical technologist's license being revoked or suspended, or the registered surgical assistant's or registered surgical technologist's being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist practicing in this State.

(b-3) The conduct specified in subsection (b-1) or (b-2) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 145.

(b-4) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having provided, authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a registrant is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon (1) a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, (2) issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and (3) filing of a petition for restoration demonstrating fitness to practice.

(d) (Blank).

(e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a registrant or a potential registrant is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's registration or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual registered under this Act or any individual who has applied for registration to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, that may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the registrant or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the registrant or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the registrant or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at the individual's own expense, another physician of the individual's choice present during all aspects of the examination.

Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without a hearing until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Department finds a registrant unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department shall require such registrant to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed registration.

When the Secretary immediately suspends a registration under this Section, a hearing upon such person's registration must be convened by the Department within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the registrant's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Individuals registered under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their registration.

(g) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(f) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 102-1117 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-387, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 420. The Solid Waste Site Operator Certification Law is amended by changing Section 1011 as follows:

(225 ILCS 230/1011)

Sec. 1011. Fees.

(a) Fees for the issuance or renewal of a Solid Waste Site Operator Certificate shall be as follows:

(1)(A) $400 for issuance or renewal for Solid Waste Site Operators;

(B) (blank); and

(C) $100 for issuance or renewal for special waste endorsements.

(2) If the fee for renewal is not paid within the grace period, the above fees for renewal shall each be increased by $50.

(b) (Blank).

(c) All fees collected by the Agency under this Section shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund to be used in accordance with the provisions of subsection (a) of Section 22.8 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-1017, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-21-23.)

Section 425. The Illinois Plumbing License Law is amended by changing Section 13.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 320/13.1)

Sec. 13.1. Plumbing contractors; registration; applications.

(1) On and after May 1, 2002, all persons or corporations desiring to engage in the business of plumbing contractor, other than any entity that maintains an audited net worth of shareholders' equity equal to or exceeding $100,000,000, shall register in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(2) Application for registration shall be filed with the Department each year, on or before the last day of September, in writing and on forms prepared and furnished by the Department. All plumbing contractor registrations expire on the last day of September of each year.

(3) Applications shall contain the name, address, and telephone number of the person and the plumbing license of (i) the individual, if a sole proprietorship; (ii) the partner, if a partnership; or (iii) an officer, if a corporation. The application shall contain the business name, address, and telephone number, a current copy of the plumbing license, and any other information the Department may require by rule.

(4) Applicants shall submit an original certificate of insurance documenting that the contractor carries general liability insurance with a minimum of $100,000 per occurrence, a minimum of $300,000 aggregate for bodily injury, property damage insurance with a minimum of $50,000 or a minimum of $300,000 combined single limit, and workers compensation insurance with a minimum $500,000 employer's liability. No registration may be issued in the absence of this certificate. Certificates must be in force at all times for registration to remain valid.

(5) Applicants shall submit, on a form provided by the Department, an indemnification bond in the amount of $20,000 or a letter of credit in the same amount for work performed in accordance with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act.

(5.5) The Department, upon notification by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance, shall refuse the issuance or renewal of a license to, or suspend or revoke the license of, any individual, corporation, partnership, or other business entity that has been found by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance to have failed:

(a) to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act;

(b) to pay in full a fine or penalty imposed by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance due to a failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act; or

(c) to fulfill all obligations assumed pursuant to any settlement reached with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance due to a failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act.

A complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance that includes a certification, signed by its Director or Chairman or designee, attesting to a finding of the failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act or the failure to pay any fines or penalties or to discharge any obligation under a settlement relating to the failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act is prima facie evidence of the licensee's or applicant's failure to comply with subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee or the processing of any application from the applicant. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order to the licensee's or applicant's address of record or emailing a copy of the order to the licensee's or applicant's email address of record. The notice shall advise the licensee or applicant that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the order unless the Department receives, from the licensee or applicant, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Upon receiving notice from the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance that the violation has been corrected or otherwise resolved, the Department shall vacate the order suspending a licensee's license or the processing of an applicant's application.

No license shall be suspended or revoked until after the licensee is afforded any due process protection guaranteed by statute or rule adopted by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance.

(6) All employees of a registered plumbing contractor who engage in plumbing work shall be licensed plumbers or apprentice plumbers in accordance with this Act.

(7) Plumbing contractors shall submit an annual registration fee in an amount to be established by rule.

(8) The Department shall be notified in advance of any changes in the business structure, name, or location or of the addition or deletion of the owner or officer who is the licensed plumber listed on the application. Failure to notify the Department of this information is grounds for suspension or revocation of the plumbing contractor's registration.

(9) In the event that the plumber's license on the application for registration of a plumbing contractor is a license issued by the City of Chicago, it shall be the responsibility of the applicant to forward a copy of the plumber's license to the Department, noting the name of the registered plumbing contractor, when it is renewed. In the event that the plumbing contractor's registration is suspended or revoked, the Department shall notify the City of Chicago and any corresponding plumbing contractor's license issued by the City of Chicago shall be suspended or revoked.

(Source: P.A. 103-26, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 430. The Timber Buyers Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(225 ILCS 735/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 702)

Sec. 2. Definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the term:

"Agent" means any person acting on behalf of a timber buyer, employed by a timber buyer, or under an agreement, whether oral or written, with a timber buyer who buys timber, attempts to buy timber, procures contracts for the purchase or cutting of timber, or attempts to procure contracts for the purchase or cutting of timber.

"Buying timber" means to buy, barter, cut on shares, or offer to buy, barter, cut on shares, or take possession of timber with the consent of the timber grower.

"Department" means the Department of Natural Resources.

"Director" means the Director of Natural Resources.

"Good standing" means any person who is not:

(1) currently serving a sentence of probation, or conditional discharge, for a violation of this Act or administrative rules adopted under this Act;

(2) owes any amount of money pursuant to a civil judgment regarding the sale, cutting, or transportation of timber;

(3) owes the Department any required fee, payment, or money required under this Act; or

(4) is currently serving a suspension or revocation of any privilege that is granted under this Act.

"Liability insurance" means not less than $500,000 in insurance covering a timber buyer's business and agents that shall insure against the liability of the insured for the death, injury, or disability of an employee or other person and insurance against the liability of the insured for damage to or destruction of another person's property.

"Payment receipt" means copy or duplicate of an original receipt of payment for timber to a timber grower or duplicate of electronic or direct payment verification of funds received by timber grower.

"Person" means any person, partnership, firm, association, business trust, limited liability company, or corporation.

"Proof of ownership" means a printed document provided by the Department that serves as a written bill of lading.

"Resident" means a person who in good faith makes application for any license or permit and verifies by statement that the person has maintained the person's permanent abode or headquarters in this State for a period of at least 30 consecutive days immediately preceding the person's application and who does not maintain a permanent abode or headquarters or claim residency in another state for the purposes of obtaining any of the same or similar licenses or permits covered by this Act. A person's permanent abode or headquarters is the person's fixed and permanent dwelling place or main location where the person conducts business, as distinguished from a temporary or transient place of residence or location.

"Timber" means trees, standing or felled, and parts thereof which can be used for sawing or processing into lumber for building or structural purposes or for the manufacture of any article. "Timber" does not include firewood, Christmas trees, fruit or ornamental trees, or wood products not used or to be used for building, structural, manufacturing, or processing purposes.

"Timber buyer" means any person licensed or unlicensed, who is engaged in the business of buying timber from the timber growers thereof for sawing into lumber, for processing or for resale, but does not include any person who occasionally purchases timber for sawing or processing for the person's own use and not for resale.

"Timber grower" means the owner, tenant, or operator of land in this State who has an interest in, or is entitled to receive any part of the proceeds from the sale of timber grown in this State and includes persons exercising authority to sell timber.

"Transporter" means any person acting on behalf of a timber buyer, employed by a timber buyer, or under an agreement, whether oral or written, with a timber buyer who takes or carries timber from one place to another by means of a motor vehicle.

.

(Source: P.A. 103-218, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 435. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 30 and 31 as follows:

(230 ILCS 5/30) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-30)

Sec. 30. (a) The General Assembly declares that it is the policy of this State to encourage the breeding of thoroughbred horses in this State and the ownership of such horses by residents of this State in order to provide for: sufficient numbers of high quality thoroughbred horses to participate in thoroughbred racing meetings in this State, and to establish and preserve the agricultural and commercial benefits of such breeding and racing industries to the State of Illinois. It is the intent of the General Assembly to further this policy by the provisions of this Act.

(b) Each organization licensee conducting a thoroughbred racing meeting pursuant to this Act shall provide at least two races each day limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses or Illinois foaled horses or both. A minimum of 6 races shall be conducted each week limited to Illinois conceived and foaled or Illinois foaled horses or both. No horses shall be permitted to start in such races unless duly registered under the rules of the Department of Agriculture.

(c) Conditions of races under subsection (b) shall be commensurate with past performance, quality, and class of Illinois conceived and foaled and Illinois foaled horses available. If, however, sufficient competition cannot be had among horses of that class on any day, the races may, with consent of the Board, be eliminated for that day and substitute races provided.

(d) There is hereby created a special fund of the State treasury Treasury to be known as the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund.

Beginning on June 28, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-31), the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund shall become a non-appropriated trust fund held separate from State moneys. Expenditures from this Fund shall no longer be subject to appropriation.

Except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, 8.5% of all the monies received by the State as privilege taxes on Thoroughbred racing meetings shall be paid into the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, amounts deposited into the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund from revenues generated by gaming pursuant to an organization gaming license issued under the Illinois Gambling Act after June 28, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-31) shall be in addition to tax and fee amounts paid under this Section for calendar year 2019 and thereafter.

(e) The Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund shall be administered by the Department of Agriculture with the advice and assistance of the Advisory Board created in subsection (f) of this Section.

(f) The Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board shall consist of the Director of the Department of Agriculture, who shall serve as Chairman; a member of the Illinois Racing Board, designated by it; 2 representatives of the organization licensees conducting thoroughbred racing meetings, recommended by them; 2 representatives of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders and Owners Foundation, recommended by it; one representative of the Horsemen's Benevolent Protective Association; and one representative from the Illinois Thoroughbred Horsemen's Association. Advisory Board members shall serve for 2 years commencing January 1 of each odd numbered year. If representatives of the organization licensees conducting thoroughbred racing meetings, the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders and Owners Foundation, the Horsemen's Benevolent Protection Association, and the Illinois Thoroughbred Horsemen's Association have not been recommended by January 1, of each odd numbered year, the Director of the Department of Agriculture shall make an appointment for the organization failing to so recommend a member of the Advisory Board. Advisory Board members shall receive no compensation for their services as members but shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses and disbursements incurred in the execution of their official duties.

(g) Monies expended from the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund shall be expended by the Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board, for the following purposes only:

(1) To provide purse supplements to owners of horses participating in races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled and Illinois foaled horses. Any such purse supplements shall not be included in and shall be paid in addition to any purses, stakes, or breeders' awards offered by each organization licensee as determined by agreement between such organization licensee and an organization representing the horsemen. No monies from the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund shall be used to provide purse supplements for claiming races in which the minimum claiming price is less than $7,500.

(2) To provide stakes and awards to be paid to the owners of the winning horses in certain races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled and Illinois foaled horses designated as stakes races.

(2.5) To provide an award to the owner or owners of an Illinois conceived and foaled or Illinois foaled horse that wins a maiden special weight, an allowance, overnight handicap race, or claiming race with claiming price of $10,000 or more providing the race is not restricted to Illinois conceived and foaled or Illinois foaled horses. Awards shall also be provided to the owner or owners of Illinois conceived and foaled and Illinois foaled horses that place second or third in those races. To the extent that additional moneys are required to pay the minimum additional awards of 40% of the purse the horse earns for placing first, second, or third in those races for Illinois foaled horses and of 60% of the purse the horse earns for placing first, second, or third in those races for Illinois conceived and foaled horses, those moneys shall be provided from the purse account at the track where earned.

(3) To provide stallion awards to the owner or owners of any stallion that is duly registered with the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Program whose duly registered Illinois conceived and foaled offspring wins a race conducted at an Illinois thoroughbred racing meeting other than a claiming race, provided that the stallion stood service within Illinois at the time the offspring was conceived and that the stallion did not stand for service outside of Illinois at any time during the year in which the offspring was conceived.

(4) To provide $75,000 annually for purses to be distributed to county fairs that provide for the running of races during each county fair exclusively for the thoroughbreds conceived and foaled in Illinois. The conditions of the races shall be developed by the county fair association and reviewed by the Department with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board. There shall be no wagering of any kind on the running of Illinois conceived and foaled races at county fairs.

(4.1) To provide purse money for an Illinois stallion stakes program.

(5) No less than 90% of all monies expended from the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund shall be expended for the purposes in (1), (2), (2.5), (3), (4), (4.1), and (5) as shown above.

(6) To provide for educational programs regarding the thoroughbred breeding industry.

(7) To provide for research programs concerning the health, development and care of the thoroughbred horse.

(8) To provide for a scholarship and training program for students of equine veterinary medicine.

(9) To provide for dissemination of public information designed to promote the breeding of thoroughbred horses in Illinois.

(10) To provide for all expenses incurred in the administration of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund.

(h) The Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund is not subject to administrative charges or chargebacks, including, but not limited to, those authorized under Section 8h of the State Finance Act.

(i) A sum equal to 13% of the first prize money of every purse won by an Illinois foaled or Illinois conceived and foaled horse in races not limited to Illinois foaled horses or Illinois conceived and foaled horses, or both, shall be paid by the organization licensee conducting the horse race meeting. Such sum shall be paid 50% from the organization licensee's share of the money wagered and 50% from the purse account as follows: 11 1/2% to the breeder of the winning horse and 1 1/2% to the organization representing thoroughbred breeders and owners who representative serves on the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board for verifying the amounts of breeders' awards earned, ensuring their distribution in accordance with this Act, and servicing and promoting the Illinois thoroughbred horse racing industry. Beginning in the calendar year in which an organization licensee that is eligible to receive payments under paragraph (13) of subsection (g) of Section 26 of this Act begins to receive funds from gaming pursuant to an organization gaming license issued under the Illinois Gambling Act, a sum equal to 21 1/2% of the first prize money of every purse won by an Illinois foaled or an Illinois conceived and foaled horse in races not limited to an Illinois conceived and foaled horse, or both, shall be paid 30% from the organization licensee's account and 70% from the purse account as follows: 20% to the breeder of the winning horse and 1 1/2% to the organization representing thoroughbred breeders and owners whose representatives serve on the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board for verifying the amounts of breeders' awards earned, ensuring their distribution in accordance with this Act, and servicing and promoting the Illinois Thoroughbred racing industry. The organization representing thoroughbred breeders and owners shall cause all expenditures of monies received under this subsection (i) to be audited at least annually by a registered public accountant. The organization shall file copies of each annual audit with the Racing Board, the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate, and shall make copies of each annual audit available to the public upon request and upon payment of the reasonable cost of photocopying the requested number of copies. Such payments shall not reduce any award to the owner of the horse or reduce the taxes payable under this Act. Upon completion of its racing meet, each organization licensee shall deliver to the organization representing thoroughbred breeders and owners whose representative serves on the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board a listing of all the Illinois foaled and the Illinois conceived and foaled horses which won breeders' awards and the amount of such breeders' awards under this subsection to verify accuracy of payments and assure proper distribution of breeders' awards in accordance with the provisions of this Act. Such payments shall be delivered by the organization licensee within 30 days of the end of each race meeting.

(j) A sum equal to 13% of the first prize money won in every race limited to Illinois foaled horses or Illinois conceived and foaled horses, or both, shall be paid in the following manner by the organization licensee conducting the horse race meeting, 50% from the organization licensee's share of the money wagered and 50% from the purse account as follows: 11 1/2% to the breeders of the horses in each such race which are the official first, second, third, and fourth finishers and 1 1/2% to the organization representing thoroughbred breeders and owners whose representatives serve on the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board for verifying the amounts of breeders' awards earned, ensuring their proper distribution in accordance with this Act, and servicing and promoting the Illinois horse racing industry. Beginning in the calendar year in which an organization licensee that is eligible to receive payments under paragraph (13) of subsection (g) of Section 26 of this Act begins to receive funds from gaming pursuant to an organization gaming license issued under the Illinois Gambling Act, a sum of 21 1/2% of every purse in a race limited to Illinois foaled horses or Illinois conceived and foaled horses, or both, shall be paid by the organization licensee conducting the horse race meeting. Such sum shall be paid 30% from the organization licensee's account and 70% from the purse account as follows: 20% to the breeders of the horses in each such race who are official first, second, third and fourth finishers and 1 1/2% to the organization representing thoroughbred breeders and owners whose representatives serve on the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board for verifying the amounts of breeders' awards earned, ensuring their proper distribution in accordance with this Act, and servicing and promoting the Illinois thoroughbred horse racing industry. The organization representing thoroughbred breeders and owners shall cause all expenditures of moneys received under this subsection (j) to be audited at least annually by a registered public accountant. The organization shall file copies of each annual audit with the Racing Board, the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate, and shall make copies of each annual audit available to the public upon request and upon payment of the reasonable cost of photocopying the requested number of copies. The copies of the audit to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

The amounts paid to the breeders in accordance with this subsection shall be distributed as follows:

(1) 60% of such sum shall be paid to the breeder of the horse which finishes in the official first position;

(2) 20% of such sum shall be paid to the breeder of the horse which finishes in the official second position;

(3) 15% of such sum shall be paid to the breeder of the horse which finishes in the official third position; and

(4) 5% of such sum shall be paid to the breeder of the horse which finishes in the official fourth position.

Such payments shall not reduce any award to the owners of a horse or reduce the taxes payable under this Act. Upon completion of its racing meet, each organization licensee shall deliver to the organization representing thoroughbred breeders and owners whose representative serves on the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board a listing of all the Illinois foaled and the Illinois conceived and foaled horses which won breeders' awards and the amount of such breeders' awards in accordance with the provisions of this Act. Such payments shall be delivered by the organization licensee within 30 days of the end of each race meeting.

(k) The term "breeder", as used herein, means the owner of the mare at the time the foal is dropped. An "Illinois foaled horse" is a foal dropped by a mare which enters this State on or before December 1, in the year in which the horse is bred, provided the mare remains continuously in this State until its foal is born. An "Illinois foaled horse" also means a foal born of a mare in the same year as the mare enters this State on or before March 1, and remains in this State at least 30 days after foaling, is bred back during the season of the foaling to an Illinois Registered Stallion (unless a veterinarian certifies that the mare should not be bred for health reasons), and is not bred to a stallion standing in any other state during the season of foaling. An "Illinois foaled horse" also means a foal born in Illinois of a mare purchased at public auction subsequent to the mare entering this State on or before March 1 of the foaling year providing the mare is owned solely by one or more Illinois residents or an Illinois entity that is entirely owned by one or more Illinois residents.

(l) The Department of Agriculture shall, by rule, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board:

(1) Qualify stallions for Illinois breeding; such stallions to stand for service within the State of Illinois at the time of a foal's conception. Such stallion must not stand for service at any place outside the State of Illinois during the calendar year in which the foal is conceived. The Department of Agriculture may assess and collect an application fee of up to $500 for the registration of Illinois-eligible stallions. All fees collected are to be held in trust accounts for the purposes set forth in this Act and in accordance with Section 205-15 of the Department of Agriculture Law.

(2) Provide for the registration of Illinois conceived and foaled horses and Illinois foaled horses. No such horse shall compete in the races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses or Illinois foaled horses or both unless registered with the Department of Agriculture. The Department of Agriculture may prescribe such forms as are necessary to determine the eligibility of such horses. The Department of Agriculture may assess and collect application fees for the registration of Illinois-eligible foals. All fees collected are to be held in trust accounts for the purposes set forth in this Act and in accordance with Section 205-15 of the Department of Agriculture Law. No person shall knowingly prepare or cause preparation of an application for registration of such foals containing false information.

(m) The Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board, shall provide that certain races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled and Illinois foaled horses be stakes races and determine the total amount of stakes and awards to be paid to the owners of the winning horses in such races.

In determining the stakes races and the amount of awards for such races, the Department of Agriculture shall consider factors, including, but not limited to, the amount of money transferred into the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund, organization licensees' contributions, availability of stakes caliber horses as demonstrated by past performances, whether the race can be coordinated into the proposed racing dates within organization licensees' racing dates, opportunity for colts and fillies and various age groups to race, public wagering on such races, and the previous racing schedule.

(n) The Board and the organization licensee shall notify the Department of the conditions and minimum purses for races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled and Illinois foaled horses conducted for each organization licensee conducting a thoroughbred racing meeting. The Department of Agriculture with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board may allocate monies for purse supplements for such races. In determining whether to allocate money and the amount, the Department of Agriculture shall consider factors, including, but not limited to, the amount of money transferred into the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund, the number of races that may occur, and the organization licensee's purse structure.

(o) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; revised 9-26-23.)

(230 ILCS 5/31) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-31)

Sec. 31. (a) The General Assembly declares that it is the policy of this State to encourage the breeding of standardbred horses in this State and the ownership of such horses by residents of this State in order to provide for: sufficient numbers of high quality standardbred horses to participate in harness racing meetings in this State, and to establish and preserve the agricultural and commercial benefits of such breeding and racing industries to the State of Illinois. It is the intent of the General Assembly to further this policy by the provisions of this Section of this Act.

(b) Each organization licensee conducting a harness racing meeting pursuant to this Act shall provide for at least two races each race program limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses. A minimum of 6 races shall be conducted each week limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses. No horses shall be permitted to start in such races unless duly registered under the rules of the Department of Agriculture.

(b-5) Organization licensees, not including the Illinois State Fair or the DuQuoin State Fair, shall provide stake races and early closer races for Illinois conceived and foaled horses so that purses distributed for such races shall be no less than 17% of total purses distributed for harness racing in that calendar year in addition to any stakes payments and starting fees contributed by horse owners.

(b-10) Each organization licensee conducting a harness racing meeting pursuant to this Act shall provide an owner award to be paid from the purse account equal to 12% of the amount earned by Illinois conceived and foaled horses finishing in the first 3 positions in races that are not restricted to Illinois conceived and foaled horses. The owner awards shall not be paid on races below the $10,000 claiming class.

(c) Conditions of races under subsection (b) shall be commensurate with past performance, quality, and class of Illinois conceived and foaled horses available. If, however, sufficient competition cannot be had among horses of that class on any day, the races may, with consent of the Board, be eliminated for that day and substitute races provided.

(d) There is hereby created a special fund of the State treasury Treasury to be known as the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund. Beginning on June 28, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-31), the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund shall become a non-appropriated trust fund held separate and apart from State moneys. Expenditures from this Fund shall no longer be subject to appropriation.

During the calendar year 1981, and each year thereafter, except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, eight and one-half per cent of all the monies received by the State as privilege taxes on harness racing meetings shall be paid into the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund.

(e) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, amounts deposited into the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund from revenues generated by gaming pursuant to an organization gaming license issued under the Illinois Gambling Act after June 28, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-31) shall be in addition to tax and fee amounts paid under this Section for calendar year 2019 and thereafter. The Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund shall be administered by the Department of Agriculture with the assistance and advice of the Advisory Board created in subsection (f) of this Section.

(f) The Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board is hereby created. The Advisory Board shall consist of the Director of the Department of Agriculture, who shall serve as Chairman; the Superintendent of the Illinois State Fair; a member of the Illinois Racing Board, designated by it; a representative of the largest association of Illinois standardbred owners and breeders, recommended by it; a representative of a statewide association representing agricultural fairs in Illinois, recommended by it, such representative to be from a fair at which Illinois conceived and foaled racing is conducted; a representative of the organization licensees conducting harness racing meetings, recommended by them; a representative of the Breeder's Committee of the association representing the largest number of standardbred owners, breeders, trainers, caretakers, and drivers, recommended by it; and a representative of the association representing the largest number of standardbred owners, breeders, trainers, caretakers, and drivers, recommended by it. Advisory Board members shall serve for 2 years commencing January 1 of each odd numbered year. If representatives of the largest association of Illinois standardbred owners and breeders, a statewide association of agricultural fairs in Illinois, the association representing the largest number of standardbred owners, breeders, trainers, caretakers, and drivers, a member of the Breeder's Committee of the association representing the largest number of standardbred owners, breeders, trainers, caretakers, and drivers, and the organization licensees conducting harness racing meetings have not been recommended by January 1 of each odd numbered year, the Director of the Department of Agriculture shall make an appointment for the organization failing to so recommend a member of the Advisory Board. Advisory Board members shall receive no compensation for their services as members but shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses and disbursements incurred in the execution of their official duties.

(g) Monies expended from the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund shall be expended by the Department of Agriculture, with the assistance and advice of the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board for the following purposes only:

1. To provide purses for races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses at the State Fair and the DuQuoin State Fair.

2. To provide purses for races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses at county fairs.

3. To provide purse supplements for races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses conducted by associations conducting harness racing meetings.

4. No less than 75% of all monies in the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund shall be expended for purses in 1, 2, and 3 as shown above.

5. In the discretion of the Department of Agriculture to provide awards to harness breeders of Illinois conceived and foaled horses which win races conducted by organization licensees conducting harness racing meetings. A breeder is the owner of a mare at the time of conception. No more than 10% of all moneys transferred into the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund shall be expended for such harness breeders awards. No more than 25% of the amount expended for harness breeders awards shall be expended for expenses incurred in the administration of such harness breeders awards.

6. To pay for the improvement of racing facilities located at the State Fair and County fairs.

7. To pay the expenses incurred in the administration of the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund.

8. To promote the sport of harness racing, including grants up to a maximum of $7,500 per fair per year for conducting pari-mutuel wagering during the advertised dates of a county fair.

9. To pay up to $50,000 annually for the Department of Agriculture to conduct drug testing at county fairs racing standardbred horses.

(h) The Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund is not subject to administrative charges or chargebacks, including, but not limited to, those authorized under Section 8h of the State Finance Act.

(i) A sum equal to 13% of the first prize money of the gross purse won by an Illinois conceived and foaled horse shall be paid 50% by the organization licensee conducting the horse race meeting to the breeder of such winning horse from the organization licensee's account and 50% from the purse account of the licensee. Such payment shall not reduce any award to the owner of the horse or reduce the taxes payable under this Act. Such payment shall be delivered by the organization licensee at the end of each quarter.

(j) The Department of Agriculture shall, by rule, with the assistance and advice of the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board:

1. Qualify stallions for Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund breeding. Such stallion shall stand for service at and within the State of Illinois at the time of a foal's conception, and such stallion must not stand for service at any place outside the State of Illinois during that calendar year in which the foal is conceived. However, on and after January 1, 2018, semen from an Illinois stallion may be transported outside the State of Illinois.

2. Provide for the registration of Illinois conceived and foaled horses and no such horse shall compete in the races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses unless registered with the Department of Agriculture. The Department of Agriculture may prescribe such forms as may be necessary to determine the eligibility of such horses. No person shall knowingly prepare or cause preparation of an application for registration of such foals containing false information. A mare (dam) must be in the State at least 30 days prior to foaling or remain in the State at least 30 days at the time of foaling. However, the requirement that a mare (dam) must be in the State at least 30 days before foaling or remain in the State at least 30 days at the time of foaling shall not be in effect from January 1, 2018 until January 1, 2022. Beginning with the 1996 breeding season and for foals of 1997 and thereafter, a foal conceived by transported semen may be eligible for Illinois conceived and foaled registration provided all breeding and foaling requirements are met. The stallion must be qualified for Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund breeding at the time of conception. The foal must be dropped in Illinois and properly registered with the Department of Agriculture in accordance with this Act. However, from January 1, 2018 until January 1, 2022, the requirement for a mare to be inseminated within the State of Illinois and the requirement for a foal to be dropped in Illinois are inapplicable.

3. Provide that at least a 5-day racing program shall be conducted at the State Fair each year, unless an alternate racing program is requested by the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board, which program shall include at least the following races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses: (a) a 2-year-old Trot and Pace, and Filly Division of each; (b) a 3-year-old Trot and Pace, and Filly Division of each; (c) an aged Trot and Pace, and Mare Division of each.

4. Provide for the payment of nominating, sustaining, and starting fees for races promoting the sport of harness racing and for the races to be conducted at the State Fair as provided in paragraph subsection (j) 3 of this subsection Section provided that the nominating, sustaining, and starting payment required from an entrant shall not exceed 2% of the purse of such race. All nominating, sustaining, and starting payments shall be held for the benefit of entrants and shall be paid out as part of the respective purses for such races. Nominating, sustaining, and starting fees shall be held in trust accounts for the purposes as set forth in this Act and in accordance with Section 205-15 of the Department of Agriculture Law.

5. Provide for the registration with the Department of Agriculture of Colt Associations or county fairs desiring to sponsor races at county fairs.

6. Provide for the promotion of producing standardbred racehorses by providing a bonus award program for owners of 2-year-old horses that win multiple major stakes races that are limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses.

(k) The Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board, may allocate monies for purse supplements for such races. In determining whether to allocate money and the amount, the Department of Agriculture shall consider factors, including, but not limited to, the amount of money transferred into the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund, the number of races that may occur, and an organization licensee's purse structure. The organization licensee shall notify the Department of Agriculture of the conditions and minimum purses for races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses to be conducted by each organization licensee conducting a harness racing meeting for which purse supplements have been negotiated.

(l) All races held at county fairs and the State Fair which receive funds from the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund shall be conducted in accordance with the rules of the United States Trotting Association unless otherwise modified by the Department of Agriculture.

(m) At all standardbred race meetings held or conducted under authority of a license granted by the Board, and at all standardbred races held at county fairs which are approved by the Department of Agriculture or at the Illinois or DuQuoin State Fairs, no one shall jog, train, warm up, or drive a standardbred horse unless he or she is wearing a protective safety helmet, with the chin strap fastened and in place, which meets the standards and requirements as set forth in the 1984 Standard for Protective Headgear for Use in Harness Racing and Other Equestrian Sports published by the Snell Memorial Foundation, or any standards and requirements for headgear the Illinois Racing Board may approve. Any other standards and requirements so approved by the Board shall equal or exceed those published by the Snell Memorial Foundation. Any equestrian helmet bearing the Snell label shall be deemed to have met those standards and requirements.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-689, eff. 12-17-21; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; revised 9-26-23.)

Section 440. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/5-3) (from Ch. 43, par. 118)

Sec. 5-3. License fees. Except as otherwise provided herein, at the time application is made to the State Commission for a license of any class, the applicant shall pay to the State Commission the fee hereinafter provided for the kind of license applied for.

The fee for licenses issued by the State Commission shall be as follows:

Fees collected under this Section shall be paid into the Dram Shop Fund. The State Commission shall waive license renewal fees for those retailers' licenses that are designated as "1A" by the State Commission and expire on or after July 1, 2022, and on or before June 30, 2023. One-half of the funds received for a retailer's license shall be paid into the Dram Shop Fund and one-half of the funds received for a retailer's license shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund.

No fee shall be paid for licenses issued by the State Commission to the following non-beverage users:

(a) Hospitals, sanitariums, or clinics when their use of alcoholic liquor is exclusively medicinal, mechanical, or scientific.

(b) Universities, colleges of learning, or schools when their use of alcoholic liquor is exclusively medicinal, mechanical, or scientific.

(c) Laboratories when their use is exclusively for the purpose of scientific research.

(Source: P.A. 102-442, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1142, eff. 2-17-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-5-23.)

Section 445. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-4.2, 5-5, 5-5.01a, 5-5.05, 5-5.2, 5-16.8, 5A-12.7, 6-9, and 6-12, by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 5-47, and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 12-4.57 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-4.2)

Sec. 5-4.2. Ambulance services payments.

(a) For ambulance services provided to a recipient of aid under this Article on or after January 1, 1993, the Illinois Department shall reimburse ambulance service providers at rates calculated in accordance with this Section. It is the intent of the General Assembly to provide adequate reimbursement for ambulance services so as to ensure adequate access to services for recipients of aid under this Article and to provide appropriate incentives to ambulance service providers to provide services in an efficient and cost-effective manner. Thus, it is the intent of the General Assembly that the Illinois Department implement a reimbursement system for ambulance services that, to the extent practicable and subject to the availability of funds appropriated by the General Assembly for this purpose, is consistent with the payment principles of Medicare. To ensure uniformity between the payment principles of Medicare and Medicaid, the Illinois Department shall follow, to the extent necessary and practicable and subject to the availability of funds appropriated by the General Assembly for this purpose, the statutes, laws, regulations, policies, procedures, principles, definitions, guidelines, and manuals used to determine the amounts paid to ambulance service providers under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act (Medicare).

(b) For ambulance services provided to a recipient of aid under this Article on or after January 1, 1996, the Illinois Department shall reimburse ambulance service providers based upon the actual distance traveled if a natural disaster, weather conditions, road repairs, or traffic congestion necessitates the use of a route other than the most direct route.

(c) For purposes of this Section, "ambulance services" includes medical transportation services provided by means of an ambulance, air ambulance, medi-car, service car, or taxi.

(c-1) For purposes of this Section, "ground ambulance service" means medical transportation services that are described as ground ambulance services by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and provided in a vehicle that is licensed as an ambulance by the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(c-2) For purposes of this Section, "ground ambulance service provider" means a vehicle service provider as described in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act that operates licensed ambulances for the purpose of providing emergency ambulance services, or non-emergency ambulance services, or both. For purposes of this Section, this includes both ambulance providers and ambulance suppliers as described by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

(c-3) For purposes of this Section, "medi-car" means transportation services provided to a patient who is confined to a wheelchair and requires the use of a hydraulic or electric lift or ramp and wheelchair lockdown when the patient's condition does not require medical observation, medical supervision, medical equipment, the administration of medications, or the administration of oxygen.

(c-4) For purposes of this Section, "service car" means transportation services provided to a patient by a passenger vehicle where that patient does not require the specialized modes described in subsection (c-1) or (c-3).

(c-5) For purposes of this Section, "air ambulance service" means medical transport by helicopter or airplane for patients, as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1185f(c)(1), and any service that is described as an air ambulance service by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

(d) This Section does not prohibit separate billing by ambulance service providers for oxygen furnished while providing advanced life support services.

(e) Beginning with services rendered on or after July 1, 2008, all providers of non-emergency medi-car and service car transportation must certify that the driver and employee attendant, as applicable, have completed a safety program approved by the Department to protect both the patient and the driver, prior to transporting a patient. The provider must maintain this certification in its records. The provider shall produce such documentation upon demand by the Department or its representative. Failure to produce documentation of such training shall result in recovery of any payments made by the Department for services rendered by a non-certified driver or employee attendant. Medi-car and service car providers must maintain legible documentation in their records of the driver and, as applicable, employee attendant that actually transported the patient. Providers must recertify all drivers and employee attendants every 3 years. If they meet the established training components set forth by the Department, providers of non-emergency medi-car and service car transportation that are either directly or through an affiliated company licensed by the Department of Public Health shall be approved by the Department to have in-house safety programs for training their own staff.

Notwithstanding the requirements above, any public transportation provider of medi-car and service car transportation that receives federal funding under 49 U.S.C. 5307 and 5311 need not certify its drivers and employee attendants under this Section, since safety training is already federally mandated.

(f) With respect to any policy or program administered by the Department or its agent regarding approval of non-emergency medical transportation by ground ambulance service providers, including, but not limited to, the Non-Emergency Transportation Services Prior Approval Program (NETSPAP), the Department shall establish by rule a process by which ground ambulance service providers of non-emergency medical transportation may appeal any decision by the Department or its agent for which no denial was received prior to the time of transport that either (i) denies a request for approval for payment of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service or (ii) grants a request for approval of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service at a level of service that entitles the ground ambulance service provider to a lower level of compensation from the Department than the ground ambulance service provider would have received as compensation for the level of service requested. The rule shall be filed by December 15, 2012 and shall provide that, for any decision rendered by the Department or its agent on or after the date the rule takes effect, the ground ambulance service provider shall have 60 days from the date the decision is received to file an appeal. The rule established by the Department shall be, insofar as is practical, consistent with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Director's decision on an appeal under this Section shall be a final administrative decision subject to review under the Administrative Review Law.

(f-5) Beginning 90 days after July 20, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-842), (i) no denial of a request for approval for payment of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service, and (ii) no approval of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service at a level of service that entitles the ground ambulance service provider to a lower level of compensation from the Department than would have been received at the level of service submitted by the ground ambulance service provider, may be issued by the Department or its agent unless the Department has submitted the criteria for determining the appropriateness of the transport for first notice publication in the Illinois Register pursuant to Section 5-40 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(f-6) Within 90 days after June 2, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1037) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and subject to federal approval, the Department shall file rules to allow for the approval of ground ambulance services when the sole purpose of the transport is for the navigation of stairs or the assisting or lifting of a patient at a medical facility or during a medical appointment in instances where the Department or a contracted Medicaid managed care organization or their transportation broker is unable to secure transportation through any other transportation provider.

(f-7) For non-emergency ground ambulance claims properly denied under Department policy at the time the claim is filed due to failure to submit a valid Medical Certification for Non-Emergency Ambulance on and after December 15, 2012 and prior to January 1, 2021, the Department shall allot $2,000,000 to a pool to reimburse such claims if the provider proves medical necessity for the service by other means. Providers must submit any such denied claims for which they seek compensation to the Department no later than December 31, 2021 along with documentation of medical necessity. No later than May 31, 2022, the Department shall determine for which claims medical necessity was established. Such claims for which medical necessity was established shall be paid at the rate in effect at the time of the service, provided the $2,000,000 is sufficient to pay at those rates. If the pool is not sufficient, claims shall be paid at a uniform percentage of the applicable rate such that the pool of $2,000,000 is exhausted. The appeal process described in subsection (f) shall not be applicable to the Department's determinations made in accordance with this subsection.

(g) Whenever a patient covered by a medical assistance program under this Code or by another medical program administered by the Department, including a patient covered under the State's Medicaid managed care program, is being transported from a facility and requires non-emergency transportation including ground ambulance, medi-car, or service car transportation, a Physician Certification Statement as described in this Section shall be required for each patient. Facilities shall develop procedures for a licensed medical professional to provide a written and signed Physician Certification Statement. The Physician Certification Statement shall specify the level of transportation services needed and complete a medical certification establishing the criteria for approval of non-emergency ambulance transportation, as published by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, that is met by the patient. This certification shall be completed prior to ordering the transportation service and prior to patient discharge. The Physician Certification Statement is not required prior to transport if a delay in transport can be expected to negatively affect the patient outcome. If the ground ambulance provider, medi-car provider, or service car provider is unable to obtain the required Physician Certification Statement within 10 calendar days following the date of the service, the ground ambulance provider, medi-car provider, or service car provider must document its attempt to obtain the requested certification and may then submit the claim for payment. Acceptable documentation includes a signed return receipt from the U.S. Postal Service, facsimile receipt, email receipt, or other similar service that evidences that the ground ambulance provider, medi-car provider, or service car provider attempted to obtain the required Physician Certification Statement.

The medical certification specifying the level and type of non-emergency transportation needed shall be in the form of the Physician Certification Statement on a standardized form prescribed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. Within 75 days after July 27, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-646), the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop a standardized form of the Physician Certification Statement specifying the level and type of transportation services needed in consultation with the Department of Public Health, Medicaid managed care organizations, a statewide association representing ambulance providers, a statewide association representing hospitals, 3 statewide associations representing nursing homes, and other stakeholders. The Physician Certification Statement shall include, but is not limited to, the criteria necessary to demonstrate medical necessity for the level of transport needed as required by (i) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and (ii) the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services as outlined in the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services' Medicare Benefit Policy Manual, Pub. 100-02, Chap. 10, Sec. 10.2.1, et seq. The use of the Physician Certification Statement shall satisfy the obligations of hospitals under Section 6.22 of the Hospital Licensing Act and nursing homes under Section 2-217 of the Nursing Home Care Act. Implementation and acceptance of the Physician Certification Statement shall take place no later than 90 days after the issuance of the Physician Certification Statement by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

Pursuant to subsection (E) of Section 12-4.25 of this Code, the Department is entitled to recover overpayments paid to a provider or vendor, including, but not limited to, from the discharging physician, the discharging facility, and the ground ambulance service provider, in instances where a non-emergency ground ambulance service is rendered as the result of improper or false certification.

Beginning October 1, 2018, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall collect data from Medicaid managed care organizations and transportation brokers, including the Department's NETSPAP broker, regarding denials and appeals related to the missing or incomplete Physician Certification Statement forms and overall compliance with this subsection. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall publish quarterly results on its website within 15 days following the end of each quarter.

(h) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(i) Subject to federal approval, on and after January 1, 2024 through June 30, 2026, the Department shall increase the base rate of reimbursement for both base charges and mileage charges for ground ambulance service providers not participating in the Ground Emergency Medical Transportation (GEMT) Program for medical transportation services provided by means of a ground ambulance to a level not lower than 140% of the base rate in effect as of January 1, 2023.

(j) For the purpose of understanding ground ambulance transportation services cost structures and their impact on the Medical Assistance Program, the Department shall engage stakeholders, including, but not limited to, a statewide association representing private ground ambulance service providers in Illinois, to develop recommendations for a plan for the regular collection of cost data for all ground ambulance transportation providers reimbursed under the Illinois Title XIX State Plan. Cost data obtained through this process shall be used to inform on and to ensure the effectiveness and efficiency of Illinois Medicaid rates. The Department shall establish a process to limit public availability of portions of the cost report data determined to be proprietary. This process shall be concluded and recommendations shall be provided no later than April 1, 2024.

(k) (j) Subject to federal approval, beginning on January 1, 2024, the Department shall increase the base rate of reimbursement for both base charges and mileage charges for medical transportation services provided by means of an air ambulance to a level not lower than 50% of the Medicare ambulance fee schedule rates, by designated Medicare locality, in effect on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 102-364, eff. 1-1-22; 102-650, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1037, eff. 6-2-22; 103-102, Article 70, Section 70-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 80, Section 80-5, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant individuals, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; (16.5) services performed by a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and acting within the scope of his or her license, including, but not limited to, chiropractic manipulative treatment; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, reproductive health care that is otherwise legal in Illinois shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, all tobacco cessation medications approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and all individual and group tobacco cessation counseling services and telephone-based counseling services and tobacco cessation medications provided through the Illinois Tobacco Quitline shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article. The Department shall comply with all federal requirements necessary to obtain federal financial participation, as specified in 42 CFR 433.15(b)(7), for telephone-based counseling services provided through the Illinois Tobacco Quitline, including, but not limited to: (i) entering into a memorandum of understanding or interagency agreement with the Department of Public Health, as administrator of the Illinois Tobacco Quitline; and (ii) developing a cost allocation plan for Medicaid-allowable Illinois Tobacco Quitline services in accordance with 45 CFR 95.507. The Department shall submit the memorandum of understanding or interagency agreement, the cost allocation plan, and all other necessary documentation to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for review and approval. Coverage under this paragraph shall be contingent upon federal approval.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

On and after July 1, 2018, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide dental services to any adult who is otherwise eligible for assistance under the medical assistance program. As used in this paragraph, "dental services" means diagnostic, preventative, restorative, or corrective procedures, including procedures and services for the prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease, provided by an individual who is licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery or who is under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession.

On and after July 1, 2018, targeted dental services, as set forth in Exhibit D of the Consent Decree entered by the United States District Court for the Northern District of Illinois, Eastern Division, in the matter of Memisovski v. Maram, Case No. 92 C 1982, that are provided to adults under the medical assistance program shall be established at no less than the rates set forth in the "New Rate" column in Exhibit D of the Consent Decree for targeted dental services that are provided to persons under the age of 18 under the medical assistance program.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

On and after January 1, 2022, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall administer and regulate a school-based dental program that allows for the out-of-office delivery of preventative dental services in a school setting to children under 19 years of age. The Department shall establish, by rule, guidelines for participation by providers and set requirements for follow-up referral care based on the requirements established in the Dental Office Reference Manual published by the Department that establishes the requirements for dentists participating in the All Kids Dental School Program. Every effort shall be made by the Department when developing the program requirements to consider the different geographic differences of both urban and rural areas of the State for initial treatment and necessary follow-up care. No provider shall be charged a fee by any unit of local government to participate in the school-based dental program administered by the Department. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to limit or preempt a home rule unit's or school district's authority to establish, change, or administer a school-based dental program in addition to, or independent of, the school-based dental program administered by the Department.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for individuals 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for individuals 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for individuals 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the individual's health care provider for individuals under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening and MRI of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(E) A screening MRI when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(F) A diagnostic mammogram when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

The Department shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided under this paragraph; except that this sentence does not apply to coverage of diagnostic mammograms to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223).

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool.

For purposes of this Section:

"Diagnostic mammogram" means a mammogram obtained using diagnostic mammography.

"Diagnostic mammography" means a method of screening that is designed to evaluate an abnormality in a breast, including an abnormality seen or suspected on a screening mammogram or a subjective or objective abnormality otherwise detected in the breast.

"Low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography and includes breast tomosynthesis.

"Breast tomosynthesis" means a radiologic procedure that involves the acquisition of projection images over the stationary breast to produce cross-sectional digital three-dimensional images of the breast.

If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage for breast tomosynthesis outlined in this paragraph, then the requirement that an insurer cover breast tomosynthesis is inoperative other than any such coverage authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of coverage for breast tomosynthesis set forth in this paragraph.

On and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that all networks of care for adult clients of the Department include access to at least one breast imaging Center of Imaging Excellence as certified by the American College of Radiology.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography and, after January 1, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1018), breast tomosynthesis.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards for mammography.

On and after January 1, 2017, providers participating in a breast cancer treatment quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for breast cancer treatment at a rate that is no lower than 95% of the Medicare program's rates for the data elements included in the breast cancer treatment quality program.

The Department shall convene an expert panel, including representatives of hospitals, free-standing breast cancer treatment centers, breast cancer quality organizations, and doctors, including breast surgeons, reconstructive breast surgeons, oncologists, and primary care providers to establish quality standards for breast cancer treatment.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities. By January 1, 2016, the Department shall report to the General Assembly on the status of the provision set forth in this paragraph.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind individuals who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography. The Department shall work with experts in breast cancer outreach and patient navigation to optimize these reminders and shall establish a methodology for evaluating their effectiveness and modifying the methodology based on the evaluation.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. On or after July 1, 2016, the pilot program shall be expanded to include one site in western Illinois, one site in southern Illinois, one site in central Illinois, and 4 sites within metropolitan Chicago. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

The Department shall require all networks of care to develop a means either internally or by contract with experts in navigation and community outreach to navigate cancer patients to comprehensive care in a timely fashion. The Department shall require all networks of care to include access for patients diagnosed with cancer to at least one academic commission on cancer-accredited cancer program as an in-network covered benefit.

The Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for a human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine that is approved for marketing by the federal Food and Drug Administration for all persons between the ages of 9 and 45. Subject to federal approval, the Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for a human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine for persons of the age of 46 and above who have been diagnosed with cervical dysplasia with a high risk of recurrence or progression. The Department shall disallow any preauthorization requirements for the administration of the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine.

On or after July 1, 2022, individuals who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article shall receive coverage for perinatal depression screenings for the 12-month period beginning on the last day of their pregnancy. Medical assistance coverage under this paragraph shall be conditioned on the use of a screening instrument approved by the Department.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant individual who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of having a substance use disorder as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, referral to a local substance use disorder treatment program licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant individuals under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under any program providing case management services for addicted individuals, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted individuals in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of the recipient's substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after September 16, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1439), the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall, by July 1, 2016, test the viability of the new system and implement any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms in order to allow for the direct acceptance and payment of nursing home claims.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-963), establish procedures to permit ID/DD facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and MC/DD facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon the category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, within 120 calendar days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, new admissions with associated admission documents shall be submitted through the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents, including all prescreening information, must be submitted through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including, but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre-adjudicated, or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department. Notwithstanding any provision of Section 5-5f to the contrary, the Department may, by rule, exempt certain replacement wheelchair parts from prior approval and, for wheelchairs, wheelchair parts, wheelchair accessories, and related seating and positioning items, determine the wholesale price by methods other than actual acquisition costs.

The Department shall require, by rule, all providers of durable medical equipment to be accredited by an accreditation organization approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and recognized by the Department in order to bill the Department for providing durable medical equipment to recipients. No later than 15 months after the effective date of the rule adopted pursuant to this paragraph, all providers must meet the accreditation requirement.

In order to promote environmental responsibility, meet the needs of recipients and enrollees, and achieve significant cost savings, the Department, or a managed care organization under contract with the Department, may provide recipients or managed care enrollees who have a prescription or Certificate of Medical Necessity access to refurbished durable medical equipment under this Section (excluding prosthetic and orthotic devices as defined in the Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act and complex rehabilitation technology products and associated services) through the State's assistive technology program's reutilization program, using staff with the Assistive Technology Professional (ATP) Certification if the refurbished durable medical equipment: (i) is available; (ii) is less expensive, including shipping costs, than new durable medical equipment of the same type; (iii) is able to withstand at least 3 years of use; (iv) is cleaned, disinfected, sterilized, and safe in accordance with federal Food and Drug Administration regulations and guidance governing the reprocessing of medical devices in health care settings; and (v) equally meets the needs of the recipient or enrollee. The reutilization program shall confirm that the recipient or enrollee is not already in receipt of the same or similar equipment from another service provider, and that the refurbished durable medical equipment equally meets the needs of the recipient or enrollee. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to limit recipient or enrollee choice to obtain new durable medical equipment or place any additional prior authorization conditions on enrollees of managed care organizations.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost-effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services under this Section shall be limited to services associated with kidney transplantation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, all FDA approved forms of medication assisted treatment prescribed for the treatment of alcohol dependence or treatment of opioid dependence shall be covered under both fee-for-service fee for service and managed care medical assistance programs for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject to any (1) utilization control, other than those established under the American Society of Addiction Medicine patient placement criteria, (2) prior authorization mandate, or (3) lifetime restriction limit mandate.

On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antagonists prescribed for the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication product, administration devices, and any pharmacy fees or hospital fees related to the dispensing, distribution, and administration of the opioid antagonist, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. The Department shall not impose a copayment on the coverage provided for naloxone hydrochloride under the medical assistance program.

Upon federal approval, the Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for all drugs that are approved for marketing by the federal Food and Drug Administration and that are recommended by the federal Public Health Service or the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for pre-exposure prophylaxis and related pre-exposure prophylaxis services, including, but not limited to, HIV and sexually transmitted infection screening, treatment for sexually transmitted infections, medical monitoring, assorted labs, and counseling to reduce the likelihood of HIV infection among individuals who are not infected with HIV but who are at high risk of HIV infection.

A federally qualified health center, as defined in Section 1905(l)(2)(B) of the federal Social Security Act, shall be reimbursed by the Department in accordance with the federally qualified health center's encounter rate for services provided to medical assistance recipients that are performed by a dental hygienist, as defined under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, working under the general supervision of a dentist and employed by a federally qualified health center.

Within 90 days after October 8, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-665), the Department shall seek federal approval of a State Plan amendment to expand coverage for family planning services that includes presumptive eligibility to individuals whose income is at or below 208% of the federal poverty level. Coverage under this Section shall be effective beginning no later than December 1, 2022.

Subject to approval by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of a Title XIX State Plan amendment electing the Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) as a State Medicaid option, as provided for by Subtitle I (commencing with Section 4801) of Title IV of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (Public Law 105-33) and Part 460 (commencing with Section 460.2) of Subchapter E of Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations, PACE program services shall become a covered benefit of the medical assistance program, subject to criteria established in accordance with all applicable laws.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, community-based pediatric palliative care from a trained interdisciplinary team shall be covered under the medical assistance program as provided in Section 15 of the Pediatric Palliative Care Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, within 12 months after June 2, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1037) and subject to federal approval, acupuncture services performed by an acupuncturist licensed under the Acupuncture Practice Act who is acting within the scope of his or her license shall be covered under the medical assistance program. The Department shall apply for any federal waiver or State Plan amendment, if required, to implement this paragraph. The Department may adopt any rules, including standards and criteria, necessary to implement this paragraph.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the medical assistance program shall, subject to appropriation and federal approval, reimburse hospitals for costs associated with a newborn screening test for the presence of metachromatic leukodystrophy, as required under the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act, at a rate not less than the fee charged by the Department of Public Health. The Department shall seek federal approval before the implementation of the newborn screening test fees by the Department of Public Health.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, beginning on January 1, 2024, subject to federal approval, cognitive assessment and care planning services provided to a person who experiences signs or symptoms of cognitive impairment, as defined by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, medically necessary reconstructive services that are intended to restore physical appearance shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this paragraph, "reconstructive services" means treatments performed on structures of the body damaged by trauma to restore physical appearance.

(Source: P.A. 102-43, Article 30, Section 30-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 35, Section 35-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 55, Section 55-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-95, eff. 1-1-22; 102-123, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-598, eff. 1-1-22; 102-655, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1018, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1037, eff. 6-2-22; 102-1038, eff. 1-1-23; 103-102, Article 15, Section 15-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 95, Section 95-15, eff. 1-1-24; 103-123, eff. 1-1-24; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-368, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.01a)

Sec. 5-5.01a. Supportive living facilities program.

(a) The Department shall establish and provide oversight for a program of supportive living facilities that seek to promote resident independence, dignity, respect, and well-being in the most cost-effective manner.

A supportive living facility is (i) a free-standing facility or (ii) a distinct physical and operational entity within a mixed-use building that meets the criteria established in subsection (d). A supportive living facility integrates housing with health, personal care, and supportive services and is a designated setting that offers residents their own separate, private, and distinct living units.

Sites for the operation of the program shall be selected by the Department based upon criteria that may include the need for services in a geographic area, the availability of funding, and the site's ability to meet the standards.

(b) Beginning July 1, 2014, subject to federal approval, the Medicaid rates for supportive living facilities shall be equal to the supportive living facility Medicaid rate effective on June 30, 2014 increased by 8.85%. Once the assessment imposed at Article V-G of this Code is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act, the Department shall increase the Medicaid rates for supportive living facilities effective on July 1, 2014 by 9.09%. The Department shall apply this increase retroactively to coincide with the imposition of the assessment in Article V-G of this Code in accordance with the approval for federal financial participation by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

The Medicaid rates for supportive living facilities effective on July 1, 2017 must be equal to the rates in effect for supportive living facilities on June 30, 2017 increased by 2.8%.

The Medicaid rates for supportive living facilities effective on July 1, 2018 must be equal to the rates in effect for supportive living facilities on June 30, 2018.

Subject to federal approval, the Medicaid rates for supportive living services on and after July 1, 2019 must be at least 54.3% of the average total nursing facility services per diem for the geographic areas defined by the Department while maintaining the rate differential for dementia care and must be updated whenever the total nursing facility service per diems are updated. Beginning July 1, 2022, upon the implementation of the Patient Driven Payment Model, Medicaid rates for supportive living services must be at least 54.3% of the average total nursing services per diem rate for the geographic areas. For purposes of this provision, the average total nursing services per diem rate shall include all add-ons for nursing facilities for the geographic area provided for in Section 5-5.2. The rate differential for dementia care must be maintained in these rates and the rates shall be updated whenever nursing facility per diem rates are updated.

Subject to federal approval, beginning January 1, 2024, the dementia care rate for supportive living services must be no less than the non-dementia care supportive living services rate multiplied by 1.5.

(c) The Department may adopt rules to implement this Section. Rules that establish or modify the services, standards, and conditions for participation in the program shall be adopted by the Department in consultation with the Department on Aging, the Department of Rehabilitation Services, and the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities (or their successor agencies).

(d) Subject to federal approval by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the Department shall accept for consideration of certification under the program any application for a site or building where distinct parts of the site or building are designated for purposes other than the provision of supportive living services, but only if:

(1) those distinct parts of the site or building are not designated for the purpose of providing assisted living services as required under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;

(2) those distinct parts of the site or building are completely separate from the part of the building used for the provision of supportive living program services, including separate entrances;

(3) those distinct parts of the site or building do not share any common spaces with the part of the building used for the provision of supportive living program services; and

(4) those distinct parts of the site or building do not share staffing with the part of the building used for the provision of supportive living program services.

(e) Facilities or distinct parts of facilities which are selected as supportive living facilities and are in good standing with the Department's rules are exempt from the provisions of the Nursing Home Care Act and the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act.

(f) Section 9817 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 (Public Law 117-2) authorizes a 10% enhanced federal medical assistance percentage for supportive living services for a 12-month period from April 1, 2021 through March 31, 2022. Subject to federal approval, including the approval of any necessary waiver amendments or other federally required documents or assurances, for a 12-month period the Department must pay a supplemental $26 per diem rate to all supportive living facilities with the additional federal financial participation funds that result from the enhanced federal medical assistance percentage from April 1, 2021 through March 31, 2022. The Department may issue parameters around how the supplemental payment should be spent, including quality improvement activities. The Department may alter the form, methods, or timeframes concerning the supplemental per diem rate to comply with any subsequent changes to federal law, changes made by guidance issued by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, or other changes necessary to receive the enhanced federal medical assistance percentage.

(g) All applications for the expansion of supportive living dementia care settings involving sites not approved by the Department on January 1, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-102) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly may allow new elderly non-dementia units in addition to new dementia care units. The Department may approve such applications only if the application has: (1) no more than one non-dementia care unit for each dementia care unit and (2) the site is not located within 4 miles of an existing supportive living program site in Cook County (including the City of Chicago), not located within 12 miles of an existing supportive living program site in DuPage County, Kane County, Lake County, McHenry County, or Will County, or not located within 25 miles of an existing supportive living program site in any other county.

(Source: P.A. 102-43, eff. 7-6-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 103-102, Article 20, Section 20-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 100, Section 100-5, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.05)

Sec. 5-5.05. Hospitals; psychiatric services.

(a) On and after January 1, 2024, the inpatient, per diem rate to be paid to a hospital for inpatient psychiatric services shall be not less than 90% of the per diem rate established in accordance with subsection paragraph (b-5) of this Section, subject to the provisions of Section 14-12.5.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "hospital" means a hospital with a distinct part unit for psychiatric services.

For purposes of this Section, "inpatient psychiatric services" means those services provided to patients who are in need of short-term acute inpatient hospitalization for active treatment of an emotional or mental disorder.

(b-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the inpatient, per diem rate to be paid to all safety-net hospitals for inpatient psychiatric services on and after January 1, 2021 shall be at least $630, subject to the provisions of Section 14-12.5.

(b-10) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, effective with dates of service on and after January 1, 2022, any general acute care hospital with more than 9,500 inpatient psychiatric Medicaid days in any calendar year shall be paid the inpatient per diem rate of no less than $630, subject to the provisions of Section 14-12.5.

(c) No rules shall be promulgated to implement this Section. For purposes of this Section, "rules" is given the meaning contained in Section 1-70 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(d) (Blank).

(e) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-674, eff. 11-30-21; 103-102, eff. 6-16-23; revised 9-21-23.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.2)

Sec. 5-5.2. Payment.

(a) All nursing facilities that are grouped pursuant to Section 5-5.1 of this Act shall receive the same rate of payment for similar services.

(b) It shall be a matter of State policy that the Illinois Department shall utilize a uniform billing cycle throughout the State for the long-term care providers.

(c) (Blank).

(c-1) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Code, the methodologies for reimbursement of nursing services as provided under this Article shall no longer be applicable for bills payable for nursing services rendered on or after a new reimbursement system based on the Patient Driven Payment Model (PDPM) has been fully operationalized, which shall take effect for services provided on or after the implementation of the PDPM reimbursement system begins. For the purposes of Public Act 102-1035 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the implementation date of the PDPM reimbursement system and all related provisions shall be July 1, 2022 if the following conditions are met: (i) the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services has approved corresponding changes in the reimbursement system and bed assessment; and (ii) the Department has filed rules to implement these changes no later than June 1, 2022. Failure of the Department to file rules to implement the changes provided in Public Act 102-1035 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly no later than June 1, 2022 shall result in the implementation date being delayed to October 1, 2022.

(d) The new nursing services reimbursement methodology utilizing the Patient Driven Payment Model, which shall be referred to as the PDPM reimbursement system, taking effect July 1, 2022, upon federal approval by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, shall be based on the following:

(1) The methodology shall be resident-centered, facility-specific, cost-based, and based on guidance from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

(2) Costs shall be annually rebased and case mix index quarterly updated. The nursing services methodology will be assigned to the Medicaid enrolled residents on record as of 30 days prior to the beginning of the rate period in the Department's Medicaid Management Information System (MMIS) as present on the last day of the second quarter preceding the rate period based upon the Assessment Reference Date of the Minimum Data Set (MDS).

(3) Regional wage adjustors based on the Health Service Areas (HSA) groupings and adjusters in effect on April 30, 2012 shall be included, except no adjuster shall be lower than 1.06.

(4) PDPM nursing case mix indices in effect on March 1, 2022 shall be assigned to each resident class at no less than 0.7858 of the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services PDPM unadjusted case mix values, in effect on March 1, 2022.

(5) The pool of funds available for distribution by case mix and the base facility rate shall be determined using the formula contained in subsection (d-1).

(6) The Department shall establish a variable per diem staffing add-on in accordance with the most recent available federal staffing report, currently the Payroll Based Journal, for the same period of time, and if applicable adjusted for acuity using the same quarter's MDS. The Department shall rely on Payroll Based Journals provided to the Department of Public Health to make a determination of non-submission. If the Department is notified by a facility of missing or inaccurate Payroll Based Journal data or an incorrect calculation of staffing, the Department must make a correction as soon as the error is verified for the applicable quarter.

Facilities with at least 70% of the staffing indicated by the STRIVE study shall be paid a per diem add-on of $9, increasing by equivalent steps for each whole percentage point until the facilities reach a per diem of $14.88. Facilities with at least 80% of the staffing indicated by the STRIVE study shall be paid a per diem add-on of $14.88, increasing by equivalent steps for each whole percentage point until the facilities reach a per diem add-on of $23.80. Facilities with at least 92% of the staffing indicated by the STRIVE study shall be paid a per diem add-on of $23.80, increasing by equivalent steps for each whole percentage point until the facilities reach a per diem add-on of $29.75. Facilities with at least 100% of the staffing indicated by the STRIVE study shall be paid a per diem add-on of $29.75, increasing by equivalent steps for each whole percentage point until the facilities reach a per diem add-on of $35.70. Facilities with at least 110% of the staffing indicated by the STRIVE study shall be paid a per diem add-on of $35.70, increasing by equivalent steps for each whole percentage point until the facilities reach a per diem add-on of $38.68. Facilities with at least 125% or higher of the staffing indicated by the STRIVE study shall be paid a per diem add-on of $38.68. Beginning April 1, 2023, no nursing facility's variable staffing per diem add-on shall be reduced by more than 5% in 2 consecutive quarters. For the quarters beginning July 1, 2022 and October 1, 2022, no facility's variable per diem staffing add-on shall be calculated at a rate lower than 85% of the staffing indicated by the STRIVE study. No facility below 70% of the staffing indicated by the STRIVE study shall receive a variable per diem staffing add-on after December 31, 2022.

(7) For dates of services beginning July 1, 2022, the PDPM nursing component per diem for each nursing facility shall be the product of the facility's (i) statewide PDPM nursing base per diem rate, $92.25, adjusted for the facility average PDPM case mix index calculated quarterly and (ii) the regional wage adjuster, and then add the Medicaid access adjustment as defined in (e-3) of this Section. Transition rates for services provided between July 1, 2022 and October 1, 2023 shall be the greater of the PDPM nursing component per diem or:

(A) for the quarter beginning July 1, 2022, the RUG-IV nursing component per diem;

(B) for the quarter beginning October 1, 2022, the sum of the RUG-IV nursing component per diem multiplied by 0.80 and the PDPM nursing component per diem multiplied by 0.20;

(C) for the quarter beginning January 1, 2023, the sum of the RUG-IV nursing component per diem multiplied by 0.60 and the PDPM nursing component per diem multiplied by 0.40;

(D) for the quarter beginning April 1, 2023, the sum of the RUG-IV nursing component per diem multiplied by 0.40 and the PDPM nursing component per diem multiplied by 0.60;

(E) for the quarter beginning July 1, 2023, the sum of the RUG-IV nursing component per diem multiplied by 0.20 and the PDPM nursing component per diem multiplied by 0.80; or

(F) for the quarter beginning October 1, 2023 and each subsequent quarter, the transition rate shall end and a nursing facility shall be paid 100% of the PDPM nursing component per diem.

(d-1) Calculation of base year Statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate.

(1) Base rate spending pool shall be:

(A) The base year resident days which are calculated by multiplying the number of Medicaid residents in each nursing home as indicated in the MDS data defined in paragraph (4) by 365.

(B) Each facility's nursing component per diem in effect on July 1, 2012 shall be multiplied by subsection (A).

(C) Thirteen million is added to the product of subparagraph (A) and subparagraph (B) to adjust for the exclusion of nursing homes defined in paragraph (5).

(2) For each nursing home with Medicaid residents as indicated by the MDS data defined in paragraph (4), weighted days adjusted for case mix and regional wage adjustment shall be calculated. For each home this calculation is the product of:

(A) Base year resident days as calculated in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1).

(B) The nursing home's regional wage adjustor based on the Health Service Areas (HSA) groupings and adjustors in effect on April 30, 2012.

(C) Facility weighted case mix which is the number of Medicaid residents as indicated by the MDS data defined in paragraph (4) multiplied by the associated case weight for the RUG-IV 48 grouper model using standard RUG-IV procedures for index maximization.

(D) The sum of the products calculated for each nursing home in subparagraphs (A) through (C) above shall be the base year case mix, rate adjusted weighted days.

(3) The Statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate:

(A) on January 1, 2014 shall be the quotient of the paragraph (1) divided by the sum calculated under subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2);

(B) on and after July 1, 2014 and until July 1, 2022, shall be the amount calculated under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (3) plus $1.76; and

(C) beginning July 1, 2022 and thereafter, $7 shall be added to the amount calculated under subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (3) of this Section.

(4) Minimum Data Set (MDS) comprehensive assessments for Medicaid residents on the last day of the quarter used to establish the base rate.

(5) Nursing facilities designated as of July 1, 2012 by the Department as "Institutions for Mental Disease" shall be excluded from all calculations under this subsection. The data from these facilities shall not be used in the computations described in paragraphs (1) through (4) above to establish the base rate.

(e) Beginning July 1, 2014, the Department shall allocate funding in the amount up to $10,000,000 for per diem add-ons to the RUGS methodology for dates of service on and after July 1, 2014:

(1) $0.63 for each resident who scores in I4200 Alzheimer's Disease or I4800 non-Alzheimer's Dementia.

(2) $2.67 for each resident who scores either a "1" or "2" in any items S1200A through S1200I and also scores in RUG groups PA1, PA2, BA1, or BA2.

(e-1) (Blank).

(e-2) For dates of services beginning January 1, 2014 and ending September 30, 2023, the RUG-IV nursing component per diem for a nursing home shall be the product of the statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate, the facility average case mix index, and the regional wage adjustor. For dates of service beginning July 1, 2022 and ending September 30, 2023, the Medicaid access adjustment described in subsection (e-3) shall be added to the product.

(e-3) A Medicaid Access Adjustment of $4 adjusted for the facility average PDPM case mix index calculated quarterly shall be added to the statewide PDPM nursing per diem for all facilities with annual Medicaid bed days of at least 70% of all occupied bed days adjusted quarterly. For each new calendar year and for the 6-month period beginning July 1, 2022, the percentage of a facility's occupied bed days comprised of Medicaid bed days shall be determined by the Department quarterly. For dates of service beginning January 1, 2023, the Medicaid Access Adjustment shall be increased to $4.75. This subsection shall be inoperative on and after January 1, 2028.

(e-4) Subject to federal approval, on and after January 1, 2024, the Department shall increase the rate add-on at paragraph (7) subsection (a) under 89 Ill. Adm. Code 147.335 for ventilator services from $208 per day to $481 per day. Payment is subject to the criteria and requirements under 89 Ill. Adm. Code 147.335.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, for facilities not designated by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions for Mental Disease", rates effective May 1, 2011 shall be adjusted as follows:

(1) (Blank);

(2) (Blank);

(3) Facility rates for the capital and support components shall be reduced by 1.7%.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, nursing facilities designated by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions for Mental Disease" and "Institutions for Mental Disease" that are facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall have the nursing, socio-developmental, capital, and support components of their reimbursement rate effective May 1, 2011 reduced in total by 2.7%.

(i) On and after July 1, 2014, the reimbursement rates for the support component of the nursing facility rate for facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled or intermediate care facilities shall be the rate in effect on June 30, 2014 increased by 8.17%.

(i-1) Subject to federal approval, on and after January 1, 2024, the reimbursement rates for the support component of the nursing facility rate for facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled or intermediate care facilities shall be the rate in effect on June 30, 2023 increased by 12%.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, effective July 1, 2019, sufficient funds shall be allocated for changes to rates for facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for dates of services on and after July 1, 2019: (i) to establish, through June 30, 2022 a per diem add-on to the direct care per diem rate not to exceed $70,000,000 annually in the aggregate taking into account federal matching funds for the purpose of addressing the facility's unique staffing needs, adjusted quarterly and distributed by a weighted formula based on Medicaid bed days on the last day of the second quarter preceding the quarter for which the rate is being adjusted. Beginning July 1, 2022, the annual $70,000,000 described in the preceding sentence shall be dedicated to the variable per diem add-on for staffing under paragraph (6) of subsection (d); and (ii) in an amount not to exceed $170,000,000 annually in the aggregate taking into account federal matching funds to permit the support component of the nursing facility rate to be updated as follows:

(1) 80%, or $136,000,000, of the funds shall be used to update each facility's rate in effect on June 30, 2019 using the most recent cost reports on file, which have had a limited review conducted by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and will not hold up enacting the rate increase, with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(2) After completing the calculation in paragraph (1), any facility whose rate is less than the rate in effect on June 30, 2019 shall have its rate restored to the rate in effect on June 30, 2019 from the 20% of the funds set aside.

(3) The remainder of the 20%, or $34,000,000, shall be used to increase each facility's rate by an equal percentage.

(k) During the first quarter of State Fiscal Year 2020, the Department of Healthcare of Family Services must convene a technical advisory group consisting of members of all trade associations representing Illinois skilled nursing providers to discuss changes necessary with federal implementation of Medicare's Patient-Driven Payment Model. Implementation of Medicare's Patient-Driven Payment Model shall, by September 1, 2020, end the collection of the MDS data that is necessary to maintain the current RUG-IV Medicaid payment methodology. The technical advisory group must consider a revised reimbursement methodology that takes into account transparency, accountability, actual staffing as reported under the federally required Payroll Based Journal system, changes to the minimum wage, adequacy in coverage of the cost of care, and a quality component that rewards quality improvements.

(l) The Department shall establish per diem add-on payments to improve the quality of care delivered by facilities, including:

(1) Incentive payments determined by facility performance on specified quality measures in an initial amount of $70,000,000. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit the quality of care payments in the aggregate statewide to $70,000,000, and, if quality of care has improved across nursing facilities, the Department shall adjust those add-on payments accordingly. The quality payment methodology described in this subsection must be used for at least State Fiscal Year 2023. Beginning with the quarter starting July 1, 2023, the Department may add, remove, or change quality metrics and make associated changes to the quality payment methodology as outlined in subparagraph (E). Facilities designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services as a special focus facility or a hospital-based nursing home do not qualify for quality payments.

(A) Each quality pool must be distributed by assigning a quality weighted score for each nursing home which is calculated by multiplying the nursing home's quality base period Medicaid days by the nursing home's star rating weight in that period.

(B) Star rating weights are assigned based on the nursing home's star rating for the LTS quality star rating. As used in this subparagraph, "LTS quality star rating" means the long-term stay quality rating for each nursing facility, as assigned by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services under the Five-Star Quality Rating System. The rating is a number ranging from 0 (lowest) to 5 (highest).

(i) Zero-star or one-star rating has a weight of 0.

(ii) Two-star rating has a weight of 0.75.

(iii) Three-star rating has a weight of 1.5.

(iv) Four-star rating has a weight of 2.5.

(v) Five-star rating has a weight of 3.5.

(C) Each nursing home's quality weight score is divided by the sum of all quality weight scores for qualifying nursing homes to determine the proportion of the quality pool to be paid to the nursing home.

(D) The quality pool is no less than $70,000,000 annually or $17,500,000 per quarter. The Department shall publish on its website the estimated payments and the associated weights for each facility 45 days prior to when the initial payments for the quarter are to be paid. The Department shall assign each facility the most recent and applicable quarter's STAR value unless the facility notifies the Department within 15 days of an issue and the facility provides reasonable evidence demonstrating its timely compliance with federal data submission requirements for the quarter of record. If such evidence cannot be provided to the Department, the STAR rating assigned to the facility shall be reduced by one from the prior quarter.

(E) The Department shall review quality metrics used for payment of the quality pool and make recommendations for any associated changes to the methodology for distributing quality pool payments in consultation with associations representing long-term care providers, consumer advocates, organizations representing workers of long-term care facilities, and payors. The Department may establish, by rule, changes to the methodology for distributing quality pool payments.

(F) The Department shall disburse quality pool payments from the Long-Term Care Provider Fund on a monthly basis in amounts proportional to the total quality pool payment determined for the quarter.

(G) The Department shall publish any changes in the methodology for distributing quality pool payments prior to the beginning of the measurement period or quality base period for any metric added to the distribution's methodology.

(2) Payments based on CNA tenure, promotion, and CNA training for the purpose of increasing CNA compensation. It is the intent of this subsection that payments made in accordance with this paragraph be directly incorporated into increased compensation for CNAs. As used in this paragraph, "CNA" means a certified nursing assistant as that term is described in Section 3-206 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 3-206 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, and Section 3-206 of the MC/DD Act. The Department shall establish, by rule, payments to nursing facilities equal to Medicaid's share of the tenure wage increments specified in this paragraph for all reported CNA employee hours compensated according to a posted schedule consisting of increments at least as large as those specified in this paragraph. The increments are as follows: an additional $1.50 per hour for CNAs with at least one and less than 2 years' experience plus another $1 per hour for each additional year of experience up to a maximum of $6.50 for CNAs with at least 6 years of experience. For purposes of this paragraph, Medicaid's share shall be the ratio determined by paid Medicaid bed days divided by total bed days for the applicable time period used in the calculation. In addition, and additive to any tenure increments paid as specified in this paragraph, the Department shall establish, by rule, payments supporting Medicaid's share of the promotion-based wage increments for CNA employee hours compensated for that promotion with at least a $1.50 hourly increase. Medicaid's share shall be established as it is for the tenure increments described in this paragraph. Qualifying promotions shall be defined by the Department in rules for an expected 10-15% subset of CNAs assigned intermediate, specialized, or added roles such as CNA trainers, CNA scheduling "captains", and CNA specialists for resident conditions like dementia or memory care or behavioral health.

(m) The Department shall work with nursing facility industry representatives to design policies and procedures to permit facilities to address the integrity of data from federal reporting sites used by the Department in setting facility rates.

(Source: P.A. 102-77, eff. 7-9-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1035, eff. 5-31-22; 102-1118, eff. 1-18-23; 103-102, Article 40, Section 40-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 50, Section 50-5, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)

Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical assistance program shall (i) provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.34, 356z.35, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.56, 356z.59, 356z.60, and 356z.61, 356z.64, and 356z.67 of the Illinois Insurance Code, (ii) be subject to the provisions of Sections 356z.19, 356z.44, 356z.49, 364.01, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, and (iii) be subject to the provisions of subsection (d-5) of Section 10 of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act.

The Department, by rule, shall adopt a model similar to the requirements of Section 356z.39 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

To ensure full access to the benefits set forth in this Section, on and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that provider and hospital reimbursement for post-mastectomy care benefits required under this Section are no lower than the Medicare reimbursement rate.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-144, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-530, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-47)

Sec. 5-47. Medicaid reimbursement rates; substance use disorder treatment providers and facilities.

(a) Beginning on January 1, 2024, subject to federal approval, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in conjunction with the Department of Human Services' Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery, shall provide a 30% increase in reimbursement rates for all Medicaid-covered ASAM Level 3 residential/inpatient substance use disorder treatment services.

No existing or future reimbursement rates or add-ons shall be reduced or changed to address this proposed rate increase. No later than 3 months after June 16, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-102) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall submit any necessary application to the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to implement the requirements of this Section.

(b) Parity in community-based behavioral health rates; implementation plan for cost reporting. For the purpose of understanding behavioral health services cost structures and their impact on the Medical Assistance Program, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall engage stakeholders to develop a plan for the regular collection of cost reporting for all entity-based substance use disorder providers. Data shall be used to inform on the effectiveness and efficiency of Illinois Medicaid rates. The Department and stakeholders shall develop a plan by April 1, 2024. The Department shall engage stakeholders on implementation of the plan. The plan, at minimum, shall consider all of the following:

(1) Alignment with certified community behavioral health clinic requirements, standards, policies, and procedures.

(2) Inclusion of prospective costs to measure what is needed to increase services and capacity.

(3) Consideration of differences in collection and policies based on the size of providers.

(4) Consideration of additional administrative time and costs.

(5) Goals, purposes, and usage of data collected from cost reports.

(6) Inclusion of qualitative data in addition to quantitative data.

(7) Technical assistance for providers for completing cost reports including initial training by the Department for providers.

(8) Implementation of a timeline which allows an initial grace period for providers to adjust internal procedures and data collection.

Details from collected cost reports shall be made publicly available on the Department's website and costs shall be used to ensure the effectiveness and efficiency of Illinois Medicaid rates.

(c) Reporting; access to substance use disorder treatment services and recovery supports. By no later than April 1, 2024, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, with input from the Department of Human Services' Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery, shall submit a report to the General Assembly regarding access to treatment services and recovery supports for persons diagnosed with a substance use disorder. The report shall include, but is not limited to, the following information:

(1) The number of providers enrolled in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program certified to provide substance use disorder treatment services, aggregated by ASAM level of care, and recovery supports.

(2) The number of Medicaid customers in Illinois with a diagnosed substance use disorder receiving substance use disorder treatment, aggregated by provider type and ASAM level of care.

(3) A comparison of Illinois' substance use disorder licensure and certification requirements with those of comparable state Medicaid programs.

(4) Recommendations for and an analysis of the impact of aligning reimbursement rates for outpatient substance use disorder treatment services with reimbursement rates for community-based mental health treatment services.

(5) Recommendations for expanding substance use disorder treatment to other qualified provider entities and licensed professionals of the healing arts. The recommendations shall include an analysis of the opportunities to maximize the flexibilities permitted by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for expanding access to the number and types of qualified substance use disorder providers.

(Source: P.A. 103-102, eff. 6-16-23; revised 9-26-23.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-50)

Sec. 5-50 5-47. Coverage for mental health and substance use disorder telehealth services.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Behavioral health care professional" has the meaning given to "health care professional" in Section 5 of the Telehealth Act, but only with respect to professionals licensed or certified by the Division of Mental Health or Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery of the Department of Human Services engaged in the delivery of mental health or substance use disorder treatment or services.

"Behavioral health facility" means a community mental health center, a behavioral health clinic, a substance use disorder treatment program, or a facility or provider licensed or certified by the Division of Mental Health or Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery of the Department of Human Services.

"Behavioral telehealth services" has the meaning given to the term "telehealth services" in Section 5 of the Telehealth Act, but limited solely to mental health and substance use disorder treatment or services to a patient, regardless of patient location.

"Distant site" has the meaning given to that term in Section 5 of the Telehealth Act.

"Originating site" has the meaning given to that term in Section 5 of the Telehealth Act.

(b) The Department and any managed care plans under contract with the Department for the medical assistance program shall provide for coverage of mental health and substance use disorder treatment or services delivered as behavioral telehealth services as specified in this Section. The Department and any managed care plans under contract with the Department for the medical assistance program may also provide reimbursement to a behavioral health facility that serves as the originating site at the time a behavioral telehealth service is rendered.

(c) To ensure behavioral telehealth services are equitably provided, coverage required under this Section shall comply with all of the following:

(1) The Department and any managed care plans under contract with the Department for the medical assistance program shall not:

(A) require that in-person contact occur between a behavioral health care professional and a patient before the provision of a behavioral telehealth service;

(B) require patients, behavioral health care professionals, or behavioral health facilities to prove or document a hardship or access barrier to an in-person consultation for coverage and reimbursement of behavioral telehealth services;

(C) require the use of behavioral telehealth services when the behavioral health care professional has determined that it is not appropriate;

(D) require the use of behavioral telehealth services when a patient chooses an in-person consultation;

(E) require a behavioral health care professional to be physically present in the same room as the patient at the originating site, unless deemed medically necessary by the behavioral health care professional providing the behavioral telehealth service;

(F) create geographic or facility restrictions or requirements for behavioral telehealth services;

(G) require behavioral health care professionals or behavioral health facilities to offer or provide behavioral telehealth services;

(H) require patients to use behavioral telehealth services or require patients to use a separate panel of behavioral health care professionals or behavioral health facilities to receive behavioral telehealth services; or

(I) impose upon behavioral telehealth services utilization review requirements that are unnecessary, duplicative, or unwarranted or impose any treatment limitations, prior authorization, documentation, or recordkeeping requirements that are more stringent than the requirements applicable to the same behavioral health care service when rendered in-person, except that procedure code modifiers may be required to document behavioral telehealth.

(2) Any cost sharing applicable to services provided through behavioral telehealth shall not exceed the cost sharing required by the medical assistance program for the same services provided through in-person consultation.

(3) The Department and any managed care plans under contract with the Department for the medical assistance program shall notify behavioral health care professionals and behavioral health facilities of any instructions necessary to facilitate billing for behavioral telehealth services.

(d) For purposes of reimbursement, the Department and any managed care plans under contract with the Department for the medical assistance program shall reimburse a behavioral health care professional or behavioral health facility for behavioral telehealth services on the same basis, in the same manner, and at the same reimbursement rate that would apply to the services if the services had been delivered via an in-person encounter by a behavioral health care professional or behavioral health facility. This subsection applies only to those services provided by behavioral telehealth that may otherwise be billed as an in-person service.

(e) Behavioral health care professionals and behavioral health facilities shall determine the appropriateness of specific sites, technology platforms, and technology vendors for a behavioral telehealth service, as long as delivered services adhere to all federal and State privacy, security, and confidentiality laws, rules, or regulations, including, but not limited to, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, 42 CFR Part 2, and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be deemed as precluding the Department and any managed care plans under contract with the Department for the medical assistance program from providing benefits for other telehealth services.

(g) There shall be no restrictions on originating site requirements for behavioral telehealth coverage or reimbursement to the distant site under this Section other than requiring the behavioral telehealth services to be medically necessary and clinically appropriate.

(h) Nothing in this Section shall be deemed as precluding the Department and any managed care plans under contract with the Department for the medical assistance program from establishing limits on the use of telehealth for a particular behavioral health service when the limits are consistent with generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care.

(i) The Department may adopt rules to implement the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-243, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-51)

Sec. 5-51 5-47. Proton beam therapy; managed care. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, a managed care organization under contract with the Department to provide services to recipients of medical assistance shall provide coverage for proton beam therapy.

As used in this Section: ,

"Proton "proton beam therapy" means a type of radiation therapy treatment that utilizes protons as the radiation delivery method for the treatment of tumors and cancerous cells.

"Radiation therapy treatment" means the delivery of biological effective doses with proton therapy, intensity modulated radiation therapy, brachytherapy, stereotactic body radiation therapy, three-dimensional conformal radiation therapy, or other forms of therapy using radiation.

(Source: P.A. 103-325, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-12.7)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2026)

Sec. 5A-12.7. Continuation of hospital access payments on and after July 1, 2020.

(a) To preserve and improve access to hospital services, for hospital services rendered on and after July 1, 2020, the Department shall, except for hospitals described in subsection (b) of Section 5A-3, make payments to hospitals or require capitated managed care organizations to make payments as set forth in this Section. Payments under this Section are not due and payable, however, until: (i) the methodologies described in this Section are approved by the federal government in an appropriate State Plan amendment or directed payment preprint; and (ii) the assessment imposed under this Article is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. In determining the hospital access payments authorized under subsection (g) of this Section, if a hospital ceases to qualify for payments from the pool, the payments for all hospitals continuing to qualify for payments from such pool shall be uniformly adjusted to fully expend the aggregate net amount of the pool, with such adjustment being effective on the first day of the second month following the date the hospital ceases to receive payments from such pool.

(b) Amounts moved into claims-based rates and distributed in accordance with Section 14-12 shall remain in those claims-based rates.

(c) Graduate medical education.

(1) The calculation of graduate medical education payments shall be based on the hospital's Medicare cost report ending in Calendar Year 2018, as reported in the Healthcare Cost Report Information System file, release date September 30, 2019. An Illinois hospital reporting intern and resident cost on its Medicare cost report shall be eligible for graduate medical education payments.

(2) Each hospital's annualized Medicaid Intern Resident Cost is calculated using annualized intern and resident total costs obtained from Worksheet B Part I, Columns 21 and 22 the sum of Lines 30-43, 50-76, 90-93, 96-98, and 105-112 multiplied by the percentage that the hospital's Medicaid days (Worksheet S3 Part I, Column 7, Lines 2, 3, 4, 14, 16-18, and 32) comprise of the hospital's total days (Worksheet S3 Part I, Column 8, Lines 14, 16-18, and 32).

(3) An annualized Medicaid indirect medical education (IME) payment is calculated for each hospital using its IME payments (Worksheet E Part A, Line 29, Column 1) multiplied by the percentage that its Medicaid days (Worksheet S3 Part I, Column 7, Lines 2, 3, 4, 14, 16-18, and 32) comprise of its Medicare days (Worksheet S3 Part I, Column 6, Lines 2, 3, 4, 14, and 16-18).

(4) For each hospital, its annualized Medicaid Intern Resident Cost and its annualized Medicaid IME payment are summed, and, except as capped at 120% of the average cost per intern and resident for all qualifying hospitals as calculated under this paragraph, is multiplied by the applicable reimbursement factor as described in this paragraph, to determine the hospital's final graduate medical education payment. Each hospital's average cost per intern and resident shall be calculated by summing its total annualized Medicaid Intern Resident Cost plus its annualized Medicaid IME payment and dividing that amount by the hospital's total Full Time Equivalent Residents and Interns. If the hospital's average per intern and resident cost is greater than 120% of the same calculation for all qualifying hospitals, the hospital's per intern and resident cost shall be capped at 120% of the average cost for all qualifying hospitals.

(A) For the period of July 1, 2020 through December 31, 2022, the applicable reimbursement factor shall be 22.6%.

(B) For the period of January 1, 2023 through December 31, 2026, the applicable reimbursement factor shall be 35% for all qualified safety-net hospitals, as defined in Section 5-5e.1 of this Code, and all hospitals with 100 or more Full Time Equivalent Residents and Interns, as reported on the hospital's Medicare cost report ending in Calendar Year 2018, and for all other qualified hospitals the applicable reimbursement factor shall be 30%.

(d) Fee-for-service supplemental payments. For the period of July 1, 2020 through December 31, 2022, each Illinois hospital shall receive an annual payment equal to the amounts below, to be paid in 12 equal installments on or before the seventh State business day of each month, except that no payment shall be due within 30 days after the later of the date of notification of federal approval of the payment methodologies required under this Section or any waiver required under 42 CFR 433.68, at which time the sum of amounts required under this Section prior to the date of notification is due and payable.

(1) For critical access hospitals, $385 per covered inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims and $530 per paid fee-for-service outpatient claim for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of May 11, 2020.

(2) For safety-net hospitals, $960 per covered inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims and $625 per paid fee-for-service outpatient claim for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of May 11, 2020.

(3) For long term acute care hospitals, $295 per covered inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of May 11, 2020.

(4) For freestanding psychiatric hospitals, $125 per covered inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims and $130 per paid fee-for-service outpatient claim for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of May 11, 2020.

(5) For freestanding rehabilitation hospitals, $355 per covered inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of May 11, 2020.

(6) For all general acute care hospitals and high Medicaid hospitals as defined in subsection (f), $350 per covered inpatient day for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 contained in paid fee-for-service claims and $620 per paid fee-for-service outpatient claim in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of May 11, 2020.

(7) Alzheimer's treatment access payment. Each Illinois academic medical center or teaching hospital, as defined in Section 5-5e.2 of this Code, that is identified as the primary hospital affiliate of one of the Regional Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Centers, as designated by the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act and identified in the Department of Public Health's Alzheimer's Disease State Plan dated December 2016, shall be paid an Alzheimer's treatment access payment equal to the product of the qualifying hospital's State Fiscal Year 2018 total inpatient fee-for-service days multiplied by the applicable Alzheimer's treatment rate of $226.30 for hospitals located in Cook County and $116.21 for hospitals located outside Cook County.

(d-2) Fee-for-service supplemental payments. Beginning January 1, 2023, each Illinois hospital shall receive an annual payment equal to the amounts listed below, to be paid in 12 equal installments on or before the seventh State business day of each month, except that no payment shall be due within 30 days after the later of the date of notification of federal approval of the payment methodologies required under this Section or any waiver required under 42 CFR 433.68, at which time the sum of amounts required under this Section prior to the date of notification is due and payable. The Department may adjust the rates in paragraphs (1) through (7) to comply with the federal upper payment limits, with such adjustments being determined so that the total estimated spending by hospital class, under such adjusted rates, remains substantially similar to the total estimated spending under the original rates set forth in this subsection.

(1) For critical access hospitals, as defined in subsection (f), $750 per covered inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims and $750 per paid fee-for-service outpatient claim for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of August 6, 2021.

(2) For safety-net hospitals, as described in subsection (f), $1,350 per inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims and $1,350 per paid fee-for-service outpatient claim for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of August 6, 2021.

(3) For long term acute care hospitals, $550 per covered inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of August 6, 2021.

(4) For freestanding psychiatric hospitals, $200 per covered inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims and $200 per paid fee-for-service outpatient claim for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of August 6, 2021.

(5) For freestanding rehabilitation hospitals, $550 per covered inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims and $125 per paid fee-for-service outpatient claim for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of August 6, 2021.

(6) For all general acute care hospitals and high Medicaid hospitals as defined in subsection (f), $500 per covered inpatient day for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 contained in paid fee-for-service claims and $500 per paid fee-for-service outpatient claim in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of August 6, 2021.

(7) For public hospitals, as defined in subsection (f), $275 per covered inpatient day contained in paid fee-for-service claims and $275 per paid fee-for-service outpatient claim for dates of service in Calendar Year 2019 in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of August 6, 2021.

(8) Alzheimer's treatment access payment. Each Illinois academic medical center or teaching hospital, as defined in Section 5-5e.2 of this Code, that is identified as the primary hospital affiliate of one of the Regional Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Centers, as designated by the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act and identified in the Department of Public Health's Alzheimer's Disease State Plan dated December 2016, shall be paid an Alzheimer's treatment access payment equal to the product of the qualifying hospital's Calendar Year 2019 total inpatient fee-for-service days, in the Department's Enterprise Data Warehouse as of August 6, 2021, multiplied by the applicable Alzheimer's treatment rate of $244.37 for hospitals located in Cook County and $312.03 for hospitals located outside Cook County.

(e) The Department shall require managed care organizations (MCOs) to make directed payments and pass-through payments according to this Section. Each calendar year, the Department shall require MCOs to pay the maximum amount out of these funds as allowed as pass-through payments under federal regulations. The Department shall require MCOs to make such pass-through payments as specified in this Section. The Department shall require the MCOs to pay the remaining amounts as directed Payments as specified in this Section. The Department shall issue payments to the Comptroller by the seventh business day of each month for all MCOs that are sufficient for MCOs to make the directed payments and pass-through payments according to this Section. The Department shall require the MCOs to make pass-through payments and directed payments using electronic funds transfers (EFT), if the hospital provides the information necessary to process such EFTs, in accordance with directions provided monthly by the Department, within 7 business days of the date the funds are paid to the MCOs, as indicated by the "Paid Date" on the website of the Office of the Comptroller if the funds are paid by EFT and the MCOs have received directed payment instructions. If funds are not paid through the Comptroller by EFT, payment must be made within 7 business days of the date actually received by the MCO. The MCO will be considered to have paid the pass-through payments when the payment remittance number is generated or the date the MCO sends the check to the hospital, if EFT information is not supplied. If an MCO is late in paying a pass-through payment or directed payment as required under this Section (including any extensions granted by the Department), it shall pay a penalty, unless waived by the Department for reasonable cause, to the Department equal to 5% of the amount of the pass-through payment or directed payment not paid on or before the due date plus 5% of the portion thereof remaining unpaid on the last day of each 30-day period thereafter. Payments to MCOs that would be paid consistent with actuarial certification and enrollment in the absence of the increased capitation payments under this Section shall not be reduced as a consequence of payments made under this subsection. The Department shall publish and maintain on its website for a period of no less than 8 calendar quarters, the quarterly calculation of directed payments and pass-through payments owed to each hospital from each MCO. All calculations and reports shall be posted no later than the first day of the quarter for which the payments are to be issued.

(f)(1) For purposes of allocating the funds included in capitation payments to MCOs, Illinois hospitals shall be divided into the following classes as defined in administrative rules:

(A) Beginning July 1, 2020 through December 31, 2022, critical access hospitals. Beginning January 1, 2023, "critical access hospital" means a hospital designated by the Department of Public Health as a critical access hospital, excluding any hospital meeting the definition of a public hospital in subparagraph (F).

(B) Safety-net hospitals, except that stand-alone children's hospitals that are not specialty children's hospitals will not be included. For the calendar year beginning January 1, 2023, and each calendar year thereafter, assignment to the safety-net class shall be based on the annual safety-net rate year beginning 15 months before the beginning of the first Payout Quarter of the calendar year.

(C) Long term acute care hospitals.

(D) Freestanding psychiatric hospitals.

(E) Freestanding rehabilitation hospitals.

(F) Beginning January 1, 2023, "public hospital" means a hospital that is owned or operated by an Illinois Government body or municipality, excluding a hospital provider that is a State agency, a State university, or a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more.

(G) High Medicaid hospitals.

(i) As used in this Section, "high Medicaid hospital" means a general acute care hospital that:

(I) For the payout periods July 1, 2020 through December 31, 2022, is not a safety-net hospital or critical access hospital and that has a Medicaid Inpatient Utilization Rate above 30% or a hospital that had over 35,000 inpatient Medicaid days during the applicable period. For the period July 1, 2020 through December 31, 2020, the applicable period for the Medicaid Inpatient Utilization Rate (MIUR) is the rate year 2020 MIUR and for the number of inpatient days it is State fiscal year 2018. Beginning in calendar year 2021, the Department shall use the most recently determined MIUR, as defined in subsection (h) of Section 5-5.02, and for the inpatient day threshold, the State fiscal year ending 18 months prior to the beginning of the calendar year. For purposes of calculating MIUR under this Section, children's hospitals and affiliated general acute care hospitals shall be considered a single hospital.

(II) For the calendar year beginning January 1, 2023, and each calendar year thereafter, is not a public hospital, safety-net hospital, or critical access hospital and that qualifies as a regional high volume hospital or is a hospital that has a Medicaid Inpatient Utilization Rate (MIUR) above 30%. As used in this item, "regional high volume hospital" means a hospital which ranks in the top 2 quartiles based on total hospital services volume, of all eligible general acute care hospitals, when ranked in descending order based on total hospital services volume, within the same Medicaid managed care region, as designated by the Department, as of January 1, 2022. As used in this item, "total hospital services volume" means the total of all Medical Assistance hospital inpatient admissions plus all Medical Assistance hospital outpatient visits. For purposes of determining regional high volume hospital inpatient admissions and outpatient visits, the Department shall use dates of service provided during State Fiscal Year 2020 for the Payout Quarter beginning January 1, 2023. The Department shall use dates of service from the State fiscal year ending 18 month before the beginning of the first Payout Quarter of the subsequent annual determination period.

(ii) For the calendar year beginning January 1, 2023, the Department shall use the Rate Year 2022 Medicaid inpatient utilization rate (MIUR), as defined in subsection (h) of Section 5-5.02. For each subsequent annual determination, the Department shall use the MIUR applicable to the rate year ending September 30 of the year preceding the beginning of the calendar year.

(H) General acute care hospitals. As used under this Section, "general acute care hospitals" means all other Illinois hospitals not identified in subparagraphs (A) through (G).

(2) Hospitals' qualification for each class shall be assessed prior to the beginning of each calendar year and the new class designation shall be effective January 1 of the next year. The Department shall publish by rule the process for establishing class determination.

(3) Beginning January 1, 2024, the Department may reassign hospitals or entire hospital classes as defined above, if federal limits on the payments to the class to which the hospitals are assigned based on the criteria in this subsection prevent the Department from making payments to the class that would otherwise be due under this Section. The Department shall publish the criteria and composition of each new class based on the reassignments, and the projected impact on payments to each hospital under the new classes on its website by November 15 of the year before the year in which the class changes become effective.

(g) Fixed pool directed payments. Beginning July 1, 2020, the Department shall issue payments to MCOs which shall be used to issue directed payments to qualified Illinois safety-net hospitals and critical access hospitals on a monthly basis in accordance with this subsection. Prior to the beginning of each Payout Quarter beginning July 1, 2020, the Department shall use encounter claims data from the Determination Quarter, accepted by the Department's Medicaid Management Information System for inpatient and outpatient services rendered by safety-net hospitals and critical access hospitals to determine a quarterly uniform per unit add-on for each hospital class.

(1) Inpatient per unit add-on. A quarterly uniform per diem add-on shall be derived by dividing the quarterly Inpatient Directed Payments Pool amount allocated to the applicable hospital class by the total inpatient days contained on all encounter claims received during the Determination Quarter, for all hospitals in the class.

(A) Each hospital in the class shall have a quarterly inpatient directed payment calculated that is equal to the product of the number of inpatient days attributable to the hospital used in the calculation of the quarterly uniform class per diem add-on, multiplied by the calculated applicable quarterly uniform class per diem add-on of the hospital class.

(B) Each hospital shall be paid 1/3 of its quarterly inpatient directed payment in each of the 3 months of the Payout Quarter, in accordance with directions provided to each MCO by the Department.

(2) Outpatient per unit add-on. A quarterly uniform per claim add-on shall be derived by dividing the quarterly Outpatient Directed Payments Pool amount allocated to the applicable hospital class by the total outpatient encounter claims received during the Determination Quarter, for all hospitals in the class.

(A) Each hospital in the class shall have a quarterly outpatient directed payment calculated that is equal to the product of the number of outpatient encounter claims attributable to the hospital used in the calculation of the quarterly uniform class per claim add-on, multiplied by the calculated applicable quarterly uniform class per claim add-on of the hospital class.

(B) Each hospital shall be paid 1/3 of its quarterly outpatient directed payment in each of the 3 months of the Payout Quarter, in accordance with directions provided to each MCO by the Department.

(3) Each MCO shall pay each hospital the Monthly Directed Payment as identified by the Department on its quarterly determination report.

(4) Definitions. As used in this subsection:

(A) "Payout Quarter" means each 3 month calendar quarter, beginning July 1, 2020.

(B) "Determination Quarter" means each 3 month calendar quarter, which ends 3 months prior to the first day of each Payout Quarter.

(5) For the period July 1, 2020 through December 2020, the following amounts shall be allocated to the following hospital class directed payment pools for the quarterly development of a uniform per unit add-on:

(A) $2,894,500 for hospital inpatient services for critical access hospitals.

(B) $4,294,374 for hospital outpatient services for critical access hospitals.

(C) $29,109,330 for hospital inpatient services for safety-net hospitals.

(D) $35,041,218 for hospital outpatient services for safety-net hospitals.

(6) For the period January 1, 2023 through December 31, 2023, the Department shall establish the amounts that shall be allocated to the hospital class directed payment fixed pools identified in this paragraph for the quarterly development of a uniform per unit add-on. The Department shall establish such amounts so that the total amount of payments to each hospital under this Section in calendar year 2023 is projected to be substantially similar to the total amount of such payments received by the hospital under this Section in calendar year 2021, adjusted for increased funding provided for fixed pool directed payments under subsection (g) in calendar year 2022, assuming that the volume and acuity of claims are held constant. The Department shall publish the directed payment fixed pool amounts to be established under this paragraph on its website by November 15, 2022.

(A) Hospital inpatient services for critical access hospitals.

(B) Hospital outpatient services for critical access hospitals.

(C) Hospital inpatient services for public hospitals.

(D) Hospital outpatient services for public hospitals.

(E) Hospital inpatient services for safety-net hospitals.

(F) Hospital outpatient services for safety-net hospitals.

(7) Semi-annual rate maintenance review. The Department shall ensure that hospitals assigned to the fixed pools in paragraph (6) are paid no less than 95% of the annual initial rate for each 6-month period of each annual payout period. For each calendar year, the Department shall calculate the annual initial rate per day and per visit for each fixed pool hospital class listed in paragraph (6), by dividing the total of all applicable inpatient or outpatient directed payments issued in the preceding calendar year to the hospitals in each fixed pool class for the calendar year, plus any increase resulting from the annual adjustments described in subsection (i), by the actual applicable total service units for the preceding calendar year which were the basis of the total applicable inpatient or outpatient directed payments issued to the hospitals in each fixed pool class in the calendar year, except that for calendar year 2023, the service units from calendar year 2021 shall be used.

(A) The Department shall calculate the effective rate, per day and per visit, for the payout periods of January to June and July to December of each year, for each fixed pool listed in paragraph (6), by dividing 50% of the annual pool by the total applicable reported service units for the 2 applicable determination quarters.

(B) If the effective rate calculated in subparagraph (A) is less than 95% of the annual initial rate assigned to the class for each pool under paragraph (6), the Department shall adjust the payment for each hospital to a level equal to no less than 95% of the annual initial rate, by issuing a retroactive adjustment payment for the 6-month period under review as identified in subparagraph (A).

(h) Fixed rate directed payments. Effective July 1, 2020, the Department shall issue payments to MCOs which shall be used to issue directed payments to Illinois hospitals not identified in paragraph (g) on a monthly basis. Prior to the beginning of each Payout Quarter beginning July 1, 2020, the Department shall use encounter claims data from the Determination Quarter, accepted by the Department's Medicaid Management Information System for inpatient and outpatient services rendered by hospitals in each hospital class identified in paragraph (f) and not identified in paragraph (g). For the period July 1, 2020 through December 2020, the Department shall direct MCOs to make payments as follows:

(1) For general acute care hospitals an amount equal to $1,750 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 20 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of inpatient admissions for category of service 20 for the determination quarter.

(2) For general acute care hospitals an amount equal to $160 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 21 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of inpatient admissions for category of service 21 for the determination quarter.

(3) For general acute care hospitals an amount equal to $80 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 22 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of inpatient admissions for category of service 22 for the determination quarter.

(4) For general acute care hospitals an amount equal to $375 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 24 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of category of service 24 paid EAPG (EAPGs) for the determination quarter.

(5) For general acute care hospitals an amount equal to $240 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 27 and 28 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of category of service 27 and 28 paid EAPGs for the determination quarter.

(6) For general acute care hospitals an amount equal to $290 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 29 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of category of service 29 paid EAPGs for the determination quarter.

(7) For high Medicaid hospitals an amount equal to $1,800 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 20 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of inpatient admissions for category of service 20 for the determination quarter.

(8) For high Medicaid hospitals an amount equal to $160 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 21 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of inpatient admissions for category of service 21 for the determination quarter.

(9) For high Medicaid hospitals an amount equal to $80 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 22 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of inpatient admissions for category of service 22 for the determination quarter.

(10) For high Medicaid hospitals an amount equal to $400 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 24 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of category of service 24 paid EAPG outpatient claims for the determination quarter.

(11) For high Medicaid hospitals an amount equal to $240 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 27 and 28 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of category of service 27 and 28 paid EAPGs for the determination quarter.

(12) For high Medicaid hospitals an amount equal to $290 multiplied by the hospital's category of service 29 case mix index for the determination quarter multiplied by the hospital's total number of category of service 29 paid EAPGs for the determination quarter.

(13) For long term acute care hospitals the amount of $495 multiplied by the hospital's total number of inpatient days for the determination quarter.

(14) For psychiatric hospitals the amount of $210 multiplied by the hospital's total number of inpatient days for category of service 21 for the determination quarter.

(15) For psychiatric hospitals the amount of $250 multiplied by the hospital's total number of outpatient claims for category of service 27 and 28 for the determination quarter.

(16) For rehabilitation hospitals the amount of $410 multiplied by the hospital's total number of inpatient days for category of service 22 for the determination quarter.

(17) For rehabilitation hospitals the amount of $100 multiplied by the hospital's total number of outpatient claims for category of service 29 for the determination quarter.

(18) Effective for the Payout Quarter beginning January 1, 2023, for the directed payments to hospitals required under this subsection, the Department shall establish the amounts that shall be used to calculate such directed payments using the methodologies specified in this paragraph. The Department shall use a single, uniform rate, adjusted for acuity as specified in paragraphs (1) through (12), for all categories of inpatient services provided by each class of hospitals and a single uniform rate, adjusted for acuity as specified in paragraphs (1) through (12), for all categories of outpatient services provided by each class of hospitals. The Department shall establish such amounts so that the total amount of payments to each hospital under this Section in calendar year 2023 is projected to be substantially similar to the total amount of such payments received by the hospital under this Section in calendar year 2021, adjusted for increased funding provided for fixed pool directed payments under subsection (g) in calendar year 2022, assuming that the volume and acuity of claims are held constant. The Department shall publish the directed payment amounts to be established under this subsection on its website by November 15, 2022.

(19) Each hospital shall be paid 1/3 of their quarterly inpatient and outpatient directed payment in each of the 3 months of the Payout Quarter, in accordance with directions provided to each MCO by the Department.

(20) Each MCO shall pay each hospital the Monthly Directed Payment amount as identified by the Department on its quarterly determination report.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection, if the Department determines that the actual total hospital utilization data that is used to calculate the fixed rate directed payments is substantially different than anticipated when the rates in this subsection were initially determined for unforeseeable circumstances (such as the COVID-19 pandemic or some other public health emergency), the Department may adjust the rates specified in this subsection so that the total directed payments approximate the total spending amount anticipated when the rates were initially established.

Definitions. As used in this subsection:

(A) "Payout Quarter" means each calendar quarter, beginning July 1, 2020.

(B) "Determination Quarter" means each calendar quarter which ends 3 months prior to the first day of each Payout Quarter.

(C) "Case mix index" means a hospital specific calculation. For inpatient claims the case mix index is calculated each quarter by summing the relative weight of all inpatient Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG) claims for a category of service in the applicable Determination Quarter and dividing the sum by the number of sum total of all inpatient DRG admissions for the category of service for the associated claims. The case mix index for outpatient claims is calculated each quarter by summing the relative weight of all paid EAPGs in the applicable Determination Quarter and dividing the sum by the sum total of paid EAPGs for the associated claims.

(i) Beginning January 1, 2021, the rates for directed payments shall be recalculated in order to spend the additional funds for directed payments that result from reduction in the amount of pass-through payments allowed under federal regulations. The additional funds for directed payments shall be allocated proportionally to each class of hospitals based on that class' proportion of services.

(1) Beginning January 1, 2024, the fixed pool directed payment amounts and the associated annual initial rates referenced in paragraph (6) of subsection (f) for each hospital class shall be uniformly increased by a ratio of not less than, the ratio of the total pass-through reduction amount pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (j), for the hospitals comprising the hospital fixed pool directed payment class for the next calendar year, to the total inpatient and outpatient directed payments for the hospitals comprising the hospital fixed pool directed payment class paid during the preceding calendar year.

(2) Beginning January 1, 2024, the fixed rates for the directed payments referenced in paragraph (18) of subsection (h) for each hospital class shall be uniformly increased by a ratio of not less than, the ratio of the total pass-through reduction amount pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (j), for the hospitals comprising the hospital directed payment class for the next calendar year, to the total inpatient and outpatient directed payments for the hospitals comprising the hospital fixed rate directed payment class paid during the preceding calendar year.

(j) Pass-through payments.

(1) For the period July 1, 2020 through December 31, 2020, the Department shall assign quarterly pass-through payments to each class of hospitals equal to one-fourth of the following annual allocations:

(A) $390,487,095 to safety-net hospitals.

(B) $62,553,886 to critical access hospitals.

(C) $345,021,438 to high Medicaid hospitals.

(D) $551,429,071 to general acute care hospitals.

(E) $27,283,870 to long term acute care hospitals.

(F) $40,825,444 to freestanding psychiatric hospitals.

(G) $9,652,108 to freestanding rehabilitation hospitals.

(2) For the period of July 1, 2020 through December 31, 2020, the pass-through payments shall at a minimum ensure hospitals receive a total amount of monthly payments under this Section as received in calendar year 2019 in accordance with this Article and paragraph (1) of subsection (d-5) of Section 14-12, exclusive of amounts received through payments referenced in subsection (b).

(3) For the calendar year beginning January 1, 2023, the Department shall establish the annual pass-through allocation to each class of hospitals and the pass-through payments to each hospital so that the total amount of payments to each hospital under this Section in calendar year 2023 is projected to be substantially similar to the total amount of such payments received by the hospital under this Section in calendar year 2021, adjusted for increased funding provided for fixed pool directed payments under subsection (g) in calendar year 2022, assuming that the volume and acuity of claims are held constant. The Department shall publish the pass-through allocation to each class and the pass-through payments to each hospital to be established under this subsection on its website by November 15, 2022.

(4) For the calendar years beginning January 1, 2021 and January 1, 2022, each hospital's pass-through payment amount shall be reduced proportionally to the reduction of all pass-through payments required by federal regulations. Beginning January 1, 2024, the Department shall reduce total pass-through payments by the minimum amount necessary to comply with federal regulations. Pass-through payments to safety-net hospitals, as defined in Section 5-5e.1 of this Code, shall not be reduced until all pass-through payments to other hospitals have been eliminated. All other hospitals shall have their pass-through payments reduced proportionally.

(k) At least 30 days prior to each calendar year, the Department shall notify each hospital of changes to the payment methodologies in this Section, including, but not limited to, changes in the fixed rate directed payment rates, the aggregate pass-through payment amount for all hospitals, and the hospital's pass-through payment amount for the upcoming calendar year.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, the Department may adopt rules to change the methodology for directed and pass-through payments as set forth in this Section, but only to the extent necessary to obtain federal approval of a necessary State Plan amendment or Directed Payment Preprint or to otherwise conform to federal law or federal regulation.

(m) As used in this subsection, "managed care organization" or "MCO" means an entity which contracts with the Department to provide services where payment for medical services is made on a capitated basis, excluding contracted entities for dual eligible or Department of Children and Family Services youth populations.

(n) In order to address the escalating infant mortality rates among minority communities in Illinois, the State shall, subject to appropriation, create a pool of funding of at least $50,000,000 annually to be disbursed among safety-net hospitals that maintain perinatal designation from the Department of Public Health. The funding shall be used to preserve or enhance OB/GYN services or other specialty services at the receiving hospital, with the distribution of funding to be established by rule and with consideration to perinatal hospitals with safe birthing levels and quality metrics for healthy mothers and babies.

(o) In order to address the growing challenges of providing stable access to healthcare in rural Illinois, including perinatal services, behavioral healthcare including substance use disorder services (SUDs) and other specialty services, and to expand access to telehealth services among rural communities in Illinois, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall administer a program to provide at least $10,000,000 in financial support annually to critical access hospitals for delivery of perinatal and OB/GYN services, behavioral healthcare including SUDS, other specialty services and telehealth services. The funding shall be used to preserve or enhance perinatal and OB/GYN services, behavioral healthcare including SUDS, other specialty services, as well as the explanation of telehealth services by the receiving hospital, with the distribution of funding to be established by rule.

(p) For calendar year 2023, the final amounts, rates, and payments under subsections (c), (d-2), (g), (h), and (j) shall be established by the Department, so that the sum of the total estimated annual payments under subsections (c), (d-2), (g), (h), and (j) for each hospital class for calendar year 2023, is no less than:

(1) $858,260,000 to safety-net hospitals.

(2) $86,200,000 to critical access hospitals.

(3) $1,765,000,000 to high Medicaid hospitals.

(4) $673,860,000 to general acute care hospitals.

(5) $48,330,000 to long term acute care hospitals.

(6) $89,110,000 to freestanding psychiatric hospitals.

(7) $24,300,000 to freestanding rehabilitation hospitals.

(8) $32,570,000 to public hospitals.

(q) Hospital Pandemic Recovery Stabilization Payments. The Department shall disburse a pool of $460,000,000 in stability payments to hospitals prior to April 1, 2023. The allocation of the pool shall be based on the hospital directed payment classes and directed payments issued, during Calendar Year 2022 with added consideration to safety net hospitals, as defined in subdivision (f)(1)(B) of this Section, and critical access hospitals.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-886, eff. 5-17-22; 102-1115, eff. 1-9-23; 103-102, eff. 6-16-23; revised 9-21-23.)

(305 ILCS 5/6-9) (from Ch. 23, par. 6-9)

Sec. 6-9. (a)(1) A local governmental unit may provide assistance to households under its General Assistance program following a declaration by the President of the United States of a major disaster or emergency pursuant to the Federal Disaster Relief Act of 1974, as now or hereafter amended, if the local governmental unit is within the area designated under the declaration. A local governmental government unit may also provide assistance to households under its General Assistance program following a disaster proclamation issued by the Governor if the local governmental unit is within the area designated under the proclamation. Assistance under this Section may be provided to households which have suffered damage, loss, or hardships as a result of the major disaster or emergency. Assistance under this Section may be provided to households without regard to the eligibility requirements and other requirements of this Code. Assistance under this Section may be provided only during the 90-day period following the date of declaration of a major disaster or emergency.

(2) A local governmental unit shall not use State funds to provide assistance under this Section. If a local governmental unit receives State funds to provide General Assistance under this Article, assistance provided by the local governmental unit under this Section shall not be considered in determining whether a local governmental unit has qualified to receive State funds under Article XII. A local governmental unit which provides assistance under this Section shall not, as a result of payment of such assistance, change the nature or amount of assistance provided to any other individual or family under this Article.

(3) This Section shall not apply to any municipality of more than 500,000 population in which a separate program has been established by the Illinois Department under Section 6-1.

(b)(1) A local governmental unit may provide assistance to households for food and temporary shelter. To qualify for assistance a household shall submit to the local governmental unit: (A) such application as the local governmental unit may require; (B) a copy of an application to the Federal Emergency Management Agency (hereinafter "FEMA") or the Small Business Administration (hereinafter "SBA") for assistance; (C) such other proof of damage, loss, or hardship as the local governmental unit may require; and (D) an agreement to reimburse the local governmental unit for the amount of any assistance received by the household under this subsection (b).

(2) Assistance under this subsection (b) may be in the form of cash or vouchers. The amount of assistance provided to a household in any month under this subsection (b) shall not exceed the maximum amount payable under Section 6-2.

(3) No assistance shall be provided to a household after it receives a determination of its application to FEMA or SBA for assistance.

(4) A household which has received assistance under this subsection (b) shall reimburse the local governmental unit in full for any assistance received under this subsection. If the household receives assistance from FEMA or SBA in the form of loans or grants, the household shall reimburse the local governmental unit from those funds. If the household's request for assistance is denied or rejected by the FEMA or SBA, the household shall repay the local governmental unit in accordance with a repayment schedule prescribed by the local governmental unit.

(c)(1) A local governmental unit may provide assistance to households for structural repairs to homes or for repair or replacement of home electrical or heating systems, bedding, and food refrigeration equipment. To qualify for assistance a household shall submit to the local governmental unit: (A) such application as the local governmental unit may require; (B) a copy of claim to an insurance company for reimbursement for the damage or loss for which assistance is sought; (C) such other proof of damage, loss, or hardship as the local governmental unit may require; and (D) an agreement to reimburse the local governmental unit for the amount of any assistance received by the household under this subsection (c).

(2) Any assistance provided under this subsection (c) shall be in the form of direct payments to vendors, and shall not be made directly to a household. The total amount of assistance provided to a household under this subsection (c) shall not exceed $1,500.

(3) No assistance shall be provided to a household after it receives a determination of its insurance claims.

(4) A household which has received assistance under this subsection (c) shall reimburse the local governmental unit in full for any assistance received under this subsection. If the household's insurance claim is approved, the household shall reimburse the local governmental unit from the proceeds. If the household's insurance claim is denied, the household shall repay the local governmental unit in accordance with a repayment schedule prescribed by the local governmental unit.

(Source: P.A. 103-192, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/6-12) (from Ch. 23, par. 6-12)

Sec. 6-12. General Assistance not funded by State. General Assistance programs in local governments that do not receive State funds shall continue to be governed by Sections 6-1 through 6-10, as applicable, as well as other relevant parts of this Code and other laws. However, notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, any unit of local government that does not receive State funds may implement a General Assistance program that complies with Sections Section 6-11 and 6-11a. So long as the program complies with either Section 6-11 or 6-12, the program shall not be deemed out of compliance with or in violation of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-192, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.57)

Sec. 12-4.57. Prospective Payment System rates; increase for federally qualified health centers. Beginning January 1, 2024, subject to federal approval, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall increase the Prospective Payment System rates for federally qualified health centers to a level calculated to spend an additional $50,000,000 in the first year of application using an alternative payment method acceptable to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and a trade association representing a majority of federally qualified health centers operating in Illinois, including a rate increase that is an equal percentage increase to the rates paid to each federally qualified health center.

(Source: P.A. 103-102, eff. 1-1-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.58)

Sec. 12-4.58 12-4.57. Stolen SNAP benefits via card skimming; data collection and reports.

(a) As the State administrator of benefits provided under the federally funded Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), the Department of Human Services shall track and collect data on the scope and frequency of SNAP benefits fraud in this State where a SNAP recipient's benefits are stolen from the recipient's electronic benefits transfer card by means of card skimming, card cloning, or some other similar fraudulent method. The Department shall specifically keep a record of every report made to the Department by a SNAP recipient alleging the theft of benefits due to no fault of the recipient, the benefit amount stolen, and, if practicable, how those stolen benefits were used and the location of those thefts.

(b) The Department shall report its findings to the General Assembly on an annual basis beginning on January 1, 2024. The Department shall file an annual report no later than the 60th day of the following year following each reporting period. A SNAP recipient's personally identifiable information shall be excluded from the reports consistent with State and federal privacy protections. Each annual report shall also be posted on the Department's official website.

(c) If the Department determines that a SNAP recipient has made a substantiated report of stolen benefits due to card skimming, card cloning, or some other similar fraudulent method, the Department shall refer the matter to the State's Attorney who has jurisdiction over the alleged theft or fraud and shall provide any assistance to that State's Attorney in the prosecution of the alleged theft or fraud.

(Source: P.A. 103-297, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 450. The Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 30, and 35 as follows:

(325 ILCS 2/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Abandon" has the same meaning as in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

"Abused child" has the same meaning as in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

"Child welfare agency" means an Illinois licensed public or private agency that receives a child for the purpose of placing or arranging for the placement of the child in a foster or pre-adoptive family home or other facility for child care, apart from the custody of the child's parents.

"Department" or "DCFS" means the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

"Emergency medical facility" means a freestanding emergency center or trauma center, as defined in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

"Emergency medical professional" includes licensed physicians, and any emergency medical technician, emergency medical technician-intermediate, advanced emergency medical technician, paramedic, trauma nurse specialist, and pre-hospital registered nurse, as defined in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

"Fire station" means a fire station within the State with at least one staff person.

"Hospital" has the same meaning as in the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Legal custody" means the relationship created by a court order in the best interest of a newborn infant that imposes on the infant's custodian the responsibility of physical possession of the infant, the duty to protect, train, and discipline the infant, and the duty to provide the infant with food, shelter, education, and medical care, except as these are limited by parental rights and responsibilities.

"Neglected child" has the same meaning as in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

"Newborn infant" means a child who a licensed physician reasonably believes is 30 days old or less at the time the child is initially relinquished to a hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility, and who is not an abused or a neglected child.

"Parent" or "biological parent" or "birth parent" means a person who has established maternity or paternity of the newborn infant through genetic testing.

"Police station" means a municipal police station, a county sheriff's office, a campus police department located on any college or university owned or controlled by the State or any private college or private university that is not owned or controlled by the State when employees of the campus police department are present, or any of the district headquarters of the Illinois State Police.

"Relinquish" means to bring a newborn infant, who a licensed physician reasonably believes is 30 days old or less, to a hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility and to leave the infant with personnel of the facility, if the person leaving the infant does not express an intent to return for the infant or states that the person will not return for the infant. In the case of a person who gives birth to an infant in a hospital, the person's act of leaving that newborn infant at the hospital (i) without expressing an intent to return for the infant or (ii) stating that the person will not return for the infant is not a "relinquishment" under this Act.

"Temporary protective custody" means the temporary placement of a newborn infant within a hospital or other medical facility out of the custody of the infant's parent.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-501, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-14-23.)

(325 ILCS 2/30)

Sec. 30. Anonymity of relinquishing person. If there is no evidence of abuse or neglect of a relinquished newborn infant, the relinquishing person has the right to remain anonymous and to leave the hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility at any time and not be pursued or followed. Before the relinquishing person leaves the hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility, the hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility personnel shall (i) verbally inform the relinquishing person that by relinquishing the child anonymously, the relinquishing person will have to petition the court if the relinquishing person desires to prevent the termination of parental rights and regain custody of the child and (ii) shall offer the relinquishing person the information packet described in Section 35 of this Act. However, nothing in this Act shall be construed as precluding the relinquishing person from providing the relinquishing person's identity or completing the application forms for the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange and requesting that the hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility forward those forms to the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(325 ILCS 2/35)

Sec. 35. Information for relinquishing person.

(a) The hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility that receives a newborn infant relinquished in accordance with this Act shall offer to the relinquishing person information about the relinquishment process and, either in writing or by referring such person to a website or other electronic resource, such information shall state that the relinquishing person's acceptance of the information is completely voluntary. The information packet must include all of the following:

(1) (Blank).

(2) Written notice of the following:

(A) No sooner than 60 days following the date of the initial relinquishment of the infant to a hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility, the child welfare agency or the Department will commence proceedings for the termination of parental rights and placement of the infant for adoption.

(B) Failure of a parent of the infant to contact the Department and petition for the return of custody of the infant before termination of parental rights bars any future action asserting legal rights with respect to the infant.

(3) A resource list of providers of counseling services including grief counseling, pregnancy counseling, and counseling regarding adoption and other available options for placement of the infant.

Upon request of a parent, the Department of Public Health shall provide the application forms for the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange.

(b) The information offered to a relinquishing person in accordance with this Act shall include, in addition to other information required under this Act, the following:

(1) Information that describes this Act and the rights of birth parents, including an option for the parent to complete and mail to the Department of Children and Family Services a form that shall ask for basic anonymous background information about the relinquished child. This form shall be maintained by the Department on its website.

(2) Information about the Illinois Adoption Registry, including a toll-free number and website information.

(3) Information about a mother's postpartum health.

The information provided in writing or through electronic means shall be designed in coordination between the Office of Vital Records and the Department of Children and Family Services. The Failure to provide such information under this Section or the failure of the relinquishing person to accept such information shall not invalidate the relinquishment under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-501, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-15-23.)

Section 455. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 4.5 and 7.4 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Electronic and information technology workers; reporting child pornography.

(a) In this Section:

"Child pornography" means child pornography as described in Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Electronic and information technology equipment" means equipment used in the creation, manipulation, storage, display, or transmission of data, including internet and intranet systems, software applications, operating systems, video and multimedia, telecommunications products, kiosks, information transaction machines, copiers, printers, and desktop and portable computers.

"Electronic and information technology equipment worker" means a person who in the scope and course of the person's employment or business installs, repairs, or otherwise services electronic and information technology equipment for a fee but does not include (i) an employee, independent contractor, or other agent of a telecommunications carrier or telephone or telecommunications cooperative, as those terms are defined in the Public Utilities Act, or (ii) an employee, independent contractor, or other agent of a provider of commercial mobile radio service, as defined in 47 CFR C.F.R. 20.3.

(b) If an electronic and information technology equipment worker discovers any depiction of child pornography while installing, repairing, or otherwise servicing an item of electronic and information technology equipment, that worker or the worker's employer shall immediately report the discovery to the local law enforcement agency or to the Cyber Tipline at the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children.

(c) If a report is filed in accordance with the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 13032, the requirements of this Section 4.5 will be deemed to have been met.

(d) An electronic and information technology equipment worker or electronic and information technology equipment worker's employer who reports a discovery of child pornography as required under this Section is immune from any criminal, civil, or administrative liability in connection with making the report, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(e) Failure to report a discovery of child pornography as required under this Section is a business offense subject to a fine of $1,001.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(325 ILCS 5/7.4)

Sec. 7.4. (a) The Department shall be capable of receiving reports of suspected child abuse or neglect 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. Whenever the Department receives a report alleging that a child is a truant as defined in Section 26-2a of the School Code, as now or hereafter amended, the Department shall notify the superintendent of the school district in which the child resides and the appropriate superintendent of the educational service region. The notification to the appropriate officials by the Department shall not be considered an allegation of abuse or neglect under this Act.

(a-5) The Department of Children and Family Services may implement a "differential response program" in accordance with criteria, standards, and procedures prescribed by rule. The program may provide that, upon receiving a report, the Department shall determine whether to conduct a family assessment or an investigation as appropriate to prevent or provide a remedy for child abuse or neglect.

For purposes of this subsection (a-5), "family assessment" means a comprehensive assessment of child safety, risk of subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs that is applied to a child maltreatment report that does not allege substantial child endangerment. "Family assessment" does not include a determination as to whether child maltreatment occurred but does determine the need for services to address the safety of family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.

For purposes of this subsection (a-5), "investigation" means fact-gathering related to the current safety of a child and the risk of subsequent abuse or neglect that determines whether a report of suspected child abuse or neglect should be indicated or unfounded and whether child protective services are needed.

Under the "differential response program" implemented under this subsection (a-5), the Department:

(1) Shall conduct an investigation on reports involving substantial child abuse or neglect.

(2) Shall begin an immediate investigation if, at any time when it is using a family assessment response, it determines that there is reason to believe that substantial child abuse or neglect or a serious threat to the child's safety exists.

(3) May conduct a family assessment for reports that do not allege substantial child endangerment. In determining that a family assessment is appropriate, the Department may consider issues, including, but not limited to, child safety, parental cooperation, and the need for an immediate response.

(4) Shall promulgate criteria, standards, and procedures that shall be applied in making this determination, taking into consideration the Safety-Based Child Welfare Intervention System of the Department.

(5) May conduct a family assessment on a report that was initially screened and assigned for an investigation.

In determining that a complete investigation is not required, the Department must document the reason for terminating the investigation and notify the local law enforcement agency or the Illinois State Police if the local law enforcement agency or Illinois State Police is conducting a joint investigation.

Once it is determined that a "family assessment" will be implemented, the case shall not be reported to the central register of abuse and neglect reports.

During a family assessment, the Department shall collect any available and relevant information to determine child safety, risk of subsequent abuse or neglect, and family strengths.

Information collected includes, but is not limited to, when relevant: information with regard to the person reporting the alleged abuse or neglect, including the nature of the reporter's relationship to the child and to the alleged offender, and the basis of the reporter's knowledge for the report; the child allegedly being abused or neglected; the alleged offender; the child's caretaker; and other collateral sources having relevant information related to the alleged abuse or neglect. Information relevant to the assessment must be asked for, and may include:

(A) The child's sex and age, prior reports of abuse or neglect, information relating to developmental functioning, credibility of the child's statement, and whether the information provided under this paragraph (A) is consistent with other information collected during the course of the assessment or investigation.

(B) The alleged offender's age, a record check for prior reports of abuse or neglect, and criminal charges and convictions. The alleged offender may submit supporting documentation relevant to the assessment.

(C) Collateral source information regarding the alleged abuse or neglect and care of the child. Collateral information includes, when relevant: (i) a medical examination of the child; (ii) prior medical records relating to the alleged maltreatment or care of the child maintained by any facility, clinic, or health care professional, and an interview with the treating professionals; and (iii) interviews with the child's caretakers, including the child's parent, guardian, foster parent, child care provider, teachers, counselors, family members, relatives, and other persons who may have knowledge regarding the alleged maltreatment and the care of the child.

(D) Information on the existence of domestic abuse and violence in the home of the child, and substance abuse.

Nothing in this subsection (a-5) precludes the Department from collecting other relevant information necessary to conduct the assessment or investigation. Nothing in this subsection (a-5) shall be construed to allow the name or identity of a reporter to be disclosed in violation of the protections afforded under Section 7.19 of this Act.

After conducting the family assessment, the Department shall determine whether services are needed to address the safety of the child and other family members and the risk of subsequent abuse or neglect.

Upon completion of the family assessment, if the Department concludes that no services shall be offered, then the case shall be closed. If the Department concludes that services shall be offered, the Department shall develop a family preservation plan and offer or refer services to the family.

At any time during a family assessment, if the Department believes there is any reason to stop the assessment and conduct an investigation based on the information discovered, the Department shall do so.

The procedures available to the Department in conducting investigations under this Act shall be followed as appropriate during a family assessment.

If the Department implements a differential response program authorized under this subsection (a-5), the Department shall arrange for an independent evaluation of the program for at least the first 3 years of implementation to determine whether it is meeting the goals in accordance with Section 2 of this Act.

The Department may adopt administrative rules necessary for the execution of this Section, in accordance with Section 4 of the Children and Family Services Act.

The Department shall submit a report to the General Assembly by January 15, 2018 on the implementation progress and recommendations for additional needed legislative changes.

(b)(1) The following procedures shall be followed in the investigation of all reports of suspected abuse or neglect of a child, except as provided in subsection (c) of this Section.

(2) If, during a family assessment authorized by subsection (a-5) or an investigation, it appears that the immediate safety or well-being of a child is endangered, that the family may flee or the child disappear, or that the facts otherwise so warrant, the Child Protective Service Unit shall commence an investigation immediately, regardless of the time of day or night. All other investigations shall be commenced within 24 hours of receipt of the report. Upon receipt of a report, the Child Protective Service Unit shall conduct a family assessment authorized by subsection (a-5) or begin an initial investigation and make an initial determination whether the report is a good faith indication of alleged child abuse or neglect.

(3) Based on an initial investigation, if the Unit determines the report is a good faith indication of alleged child abuse or neglect, then a formal investigation shall commence and, pursuant to Section 7.12 of this Act, may or may not result in an indicated report. The formal investigation shall include: direct contact with the subject or subjects of the report as soon as possible after the report is received; an evaluation of the environment of the child named in the report and any other children in the same environment; a determination of the risk to such children if they continue to remain in the existing environments, as well as a determination of the nature, extent and cause of any condition enumerated in such report; the name, age and condition of other children in the environment; and an evaluation as to whether there would be an immediate and urgent necessity to remove the child from the environment if appropriate family preservation services were provided. After seeing to the safety of the child or children, the Department shall forthwith notify the subjects of the report in writing, of the existence of the report and their rights existing under this Act in regard to amendment or expungement. To fulfill the requirements of this Section, the Child Protective Service Unit shall have the capability of providing or arranging for comprehensive emergency services to children and families at all times of the day or night.

(4) If (i) at the conclusion of the Unit's initial investigation of a report, the Unit determines the report to be a good faith indication of alleged child abuse or neglect that warrants a formal investigation by the Unit, the Department, any law enforcement agency or any other responsible agency and (ii) the person who is alleged to have caused the abuse or neglect is employed or otherwise engaged in an activity resulting in frequent contact with children and the alleged abuse or neglect are in the course of such employment or activity, then the Department shall, except in investigations where the Director determines that such notification would be detrimental to the Department's investigation, inform the appropriate supervisor or administrator of that employment or activity that the Unit has commenced a formal investigation pursuant to this Act, which may or may not result in an indicated report. The Department shall also notify the person being investigated, unless the Director determines that such notification would be detrimental to the Department's investigation.

(c) In an investigation of a report of suspected abuse or neglect of a child by a school employee at a school or on school grounds, the Department shall make reasonable efforts to follow the following procedures:

(1) Investigations involving teachers shall not, to the extent possible, be conducted when the teacher is scheduled to conduct classes. Investigations involving other school employees shall be conducted so as to minimize disruption of the school day. The school employee accused of child abuse or neglect may have the school employee's superior, the school employee's association or union representative, and the school employee's attorney present at any interview or meeting at which the teacher or administrator is present. The accused school employee shall be informed by a representative of the Department, at any interview or meeting, of the accused school employee's due process rights and of the steps in the investigation process. These due process rights shall also include the right of the school employee to present countervailing evidence regarding the accusations. In an investigation in which the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect is a school employee, including, but not limited to, a school teacher or administrator, and the recommendation is to determine the report to be indicated, in addition to other procedures as set forth and defined in Department rules and procedures, the employee's due process rights shall also include: (i) the right to a copy of the investigation summary; (ii) the right to review the specific allegations which gave rise to the investigation; and (iii) the right to an administrator's teleconference which shall be convened to provide the school employee with the opportunity to present documentary evidence or other information that supports the school employee's position and to provide information before a final finding is entered.

(2) If a report of neglect or abuse of a child by a teacher or administrator does not involve allegations of sexual abuse or extreme physical abuse, the Child Protective Service Unit shall make reasonable efforts to conduct the initial investigation in coordination with the employee's supervisor.

If the Unit determines that the report is a good faith indication of potential child abuse or neglect, it shall then commence a formal investigation under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(3) If a report of neglect or abuse of a child by a teacher or administrator involves an allegation of sexual abuse or extreme physical abuse, the Child Protective Unit shall commence an investigation under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(c-5) In any instance in which a report is made or caused to made by a school district employee involving the conduct of a person employed by the school district, at the time the report was made, as required under Section 4 of this Act, the Child Protective Service Unit shall send a copy of its final finding report to the general superintendent of that school district.

(c-10) The Department may recommend that a school district remove a school employee who is the subject of an investigation from the school employee's employment position pending the outcome of the investigation; however, all employment decisions regarding school personnel shall be the sole responsibility of the school district or employer. The Department may not require a school district to remove a school employee from the school employee's employment position or limit the school employee's duties pending the outcome of an investigation.

(d) If the Department has contact with an employer, or with a religious institution or religious official having supervisory or hierarchical authority over a member of the clergy accused of the abuse of a child, in the course of its investigation, the Department shall notify the employer or the religious institution or religious official, in writing, when a report is unfounded so that any record of the investigation can be expunged from the employee's or member of the clergy's personnel or other records. The Department shall also notify the employee or the member of the clergy, in writing, that notification has been sent to the employer or to the appropriate religious institution or religious official informing the employer or religious institution or religious official that the Department's investigation has resulted in an unfounded report.

(d-1) Whenever a report alleges that a child was abused or neglected while receiving care in a hospital, including a freestanding psychiatric hospital licensed by the Department of Public Health, the Department shall send a copy of its final finding to the Director of Public Health and the Director of Healthcare and Family Services.

(e) Upon request by the Department, the Illinois State Police and law enforcement agencies are authorized to provide criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Illinois State Police Law to properly designated employees of the Department of Children and Family Services if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The request shall be in the form and manner required by the Illinois State Police. Any information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services under this Section is confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Department of Children and Family Services other than to a court of competent jurisdiction or unless otherwise authorized by law. Any employee of the Department of Children and Family Services who transmits confidential information in violation of this Section or causes the information to be transmitted in violation of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless the transmittal of the information is authorized by this Section or otherwise authorized by law.

(f) For purposes of this Section, "child abuse or neglect" includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-460, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-15-23.)

Section 460. The Intergovernmental Missing Child Recovery Act of 1984 is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(325 ILCS 40/6) (from Ch. 23, par. 2256)

Sec. 6. The Illinois State Police shall:

(a) Utilize the statewide Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) for the purpose of effecting an immediate law enforcement response to reports of missing children. The Illinois State Police shall implement an automated data exchange system to compile, to maintain, and to make available for dissemination to Illinois and out-of-State law enforcement agencies, data which can assist appropriate agencies in recovering missing children.

(b) Establish contacts and exchange information regarding lost, missing, or runaway children with nationally recognized "missing person and runaway" service organizations and monitor national research and publicize important developments.

(c) Provide a uniform reporting format for the entry of pertinent information regarding reports of missing children into LEADS.

(d) Develop and implement a policy whereby a statewide or regional alert would be used in situations relating to the disappearances of children, based on criteria and in a format established by the Illinois State Police. Such a format shall include, but not be limited to, the age and physical description of the missing child and the suspected circumstances of the disappearance.

(e) Notify all law enforcement agencies that reports of missing persons shall be entered as soon as the minimum level of data specified by the Illinois State Police is available to the reporting agency and that no waiting period for entry of such data exists.

(f) Provide a procedure for prompt confirmation of the receipt and entry of the missing child report into LEADS to the parent or guardian of the missing child.

(g) Compile and retain information regarding missing children in a separate data file, in a manner that allows such information to be used by law enforcement and other agencies deemed appropriate by the Director, for investigative purposes. Such files shall be updated to reflect and include information relating to the disposition of the case.

(h) Compile and maintain a an historic data repository relating to missing children in order (1) to develop and improve techniques utilized by law enforcement agencies when responding to reports of missing children and (2) to provide a factual and statistical base for research that would address the problem of missing children.

(i) Create a quality control program to assess the timeliness of entries of missing children reports into LEADS and conduct performance audits of all entering agencies.

(j) Prepare a periodic information bulletin concerning missing children who it determines may be present in this State, compiling such bulletin from information contained in both the National Crime Information Center computer and from reports, alerts, and other information entered into LEADS or otherwise compiled and retained by the Illinois State Police pursuant to this Act. The bulletin shall indicate the name, age, physical description, suspected circumstances of disappearance if that information is available, a photograph if one is available, the name of the law enforcement agency investigating the case, and such other information as the Director considers appropriate concerning each missing child who the Illinois State Police determines may be present in this State. The Illinois State Police shall send a copy of each periodic information bulletin to the State Board of Education for its use in accordance with Section 2-3.48 of the School Code. The Illinois State Police shall provide a copy of the bulletin, upon request, to law enforcement agencies of this or any other state or of the federal government, and may provide a copy of the bulletin, upon request, to other persons or entities, if deemed appropriate by the Director, and may establish limitations on its use and a reasonable fee for so providing the same, except that no fee shall be charged for providing the periodic information bulletin to the State Board of Education, appropriate units of local government, State agencies, or law enforcement agencies of this or any other state or of the federal government.

(k) Provide for the entry into LEADS of the names and addresses of sex offenders as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act who are required to register under that Act. The information shall be immediately accessible to law enforcement agencies and peace officers of this State or any other state or of the federal government. Similar information may be requested from any other state or of the federal government for purposes of this Act.

(l) Provide for the entry into LEADS of the names and addresses of violent offenders against youth as defined in the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act who are required to register under that Act. The information shall be immediately accessible to law enforcement agencies and peace officers of this State or any other state or of the federal government. Similar information may be requested from any other state or of the federal government for purposes of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-34, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 465. The Smart Start Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 95-10 as follows:

(325 ILCS 85/95-10)

Sec. 95-10. Smart Start Child Care Workforce Compensation Program.

(a) The Department of Human Services shall create and establish the Smart Start Child Care Workforce Compensation Program. The purpose of the Smart Start Child Care Workforce Compensation Program is to invest in early childhood education and care service providers, including, but not limited to, providers participating in the Child Care Assistance Program; to expand the supply of high-quality early childhood education and care; and to create a strong and stable early childhood education and care system with attractive wages, high-quality services, and affordable costs cost.

(b) The purpose of the Smart Start Child Care Workforce Compensation Program is to stabilize community-based early childhood education and care service providers, raise the wages of early childhood educators, and support quality enhancements that can position service providers to participate in other public funding streams, such as Preschool for All, in order to further enhance and expand quality service delivery.

(c) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services shall implement the Smart Start Child Care Workforce Compensation Program for eligible licensed day care centers, licensed day care homes, and licensed group day care homes by October 1, 2024, or as soon as practicable, following completion of a planning and transition year. By October 1, 2025, or as soon as practicable, and for each year thereafter, subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services shall continue to operate the Smart Start Child Care Workforce Compensation Program annually with all licensed day care centers, and licensed day care homes, and licensed group day care homes that meet eligibility requirements. The Smart Start Child Care Workforce Compensation Program shall operate separately from and shall not supplant the Child Care Assistance Program as provided for in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(d) The Department of Human Services shall adopt administrative rules by October 1, 2024, to facilitate administration of the Smart Start Child Care Workforce Compensation Program, including, but not limited to, provisions for program eligibility, the application and funding calculation process, eligible expenses, required wage floors, and requirements for financial and personnel reporting and monitoring requirements. Eligibility and funding provisions shall be based on appropriation and a current model of the cost to provide child care services by a licensed child care center or licensed family child care home.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; revised 9-25-23.)

Section 467. The Community Mental Health Act is amended by changing Section 3e as follows:

(405 ILCS 20/3e) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 303e)

Sec. 3e. Board's powers and duties.

(1) Every community mental health board shall, within 30 days after members are first appointed and within 30 days after members are appointed or reappointed upon the expiration of a member's term, meet and organize, by the election of one of its number as president and one as secretary and such other officers as it may deem necessary. It shall make rules and regulations concerning the rendition or operation of services and facilities which it directs, supervises or funds, not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act. It shall:

(a) Hold a meeting prior to July 1 of each year at which officers shall be elected for the ensuing year beginning July 1;

(b) Hold meetings at least quarterly;

(c) Hold special meetings upon a written request signed by at least 2 members and filed with the secretary;

(d) Review and evaluate community mental health services and facilities, including services and facilities for the treatment of alcoholism, drug addiction, developmental disabilities, and intellectual disabilities;

(e) Authorize the disbursement of money from the community mental health fund for payment for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the board;

(f) Submit to the appointing officer and the members of the governing body a written plan for a program of community mental health services and facilities for persons with a mental illness, a developmental disability, or a substance use disorder. Such plan shall be for the ensuing 12 month period. In addition, a plan shall be developed for the ensuing 3 year period and such plan shall be reviewed at the end of every 12 month period and shall be modified as deemed advisable; .

(g) Within amounts appropriated therefor, execute such programs and maintain such services and facilities as may be authorized under such appropriations, including amounts appropriated under bond issues, if any;

(h) Publish the annual budget and report within 120 days after the end of the fiscal year in a newspaper distributed within the jurisdiction of the board, or, if no newspaper is published within the jurisdiction of the board, then one published in the county, or, if no newspaper is published in the county, then in a newspaper having general circulation within the jurisdiction of the board. The report shall show the condition of its trust of that year, the sums of money received from all sources, giving the name of any donor, how all monies have been expended and for what purpose, and such other statistics and program information in regard to the work of the board as it may deem of general interest. A copy of the budget and the annual report shall be made available to the Department of Human Services and to members of the General Assembly whose districts include any part of the jurisdiction of such board. The names of all employees, consultants, and other personnel shall be set forth along with the amounts of money received;

(i) Consult with other appropriate private and public agencies in the development of local plans for the most efficient delivery of mental health, developmental disabilities, and substance use disorder services. The Board is authorized to join and to participate in the activities of associations organized for the purpose of promoting more efficient and effective services and programs;

(j) Have the authority to review and comment on all applications for grants by any person, corporation, or governmental unit providing services within the geographical area of the board which provides mental health facilities and services, including services for the person with a mental illness, a developmental disability, or a substance use disorder. The board may require funding applicants to send a copy of their funding application to the board at the time such application is submitted to the Department of Human Services or to any other local, State or federal funding source or governmental agency. Within 60 days of the receipt of any application, the board shall submit its review and comments to the Department of Human Services or to any other appropriate local, State or federal funding source or governmental agency. A copy of the review and comments shall be submitted to the funding applicant. Within 60 days thereafter, the Department of Human Services or any other appropriate local or State governmental agency shall issue a written response to the board and the funding applicant. The Department of Human Services shall supply any community mental health board such information about purchase-of-care funds, State facility utilization, and costs in its geographical area as the board may request provided that the information requested is for the purpose of the Community Mental Health Board complying with the requirements of Section 3f, subsection (f) of this Act;

(k) Perform such other acts as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(2) The community mental health board has the following powers:

(a) The board may enter into multiple-year contracts for rendition or operation of services, facilities and educational programs.

(b) The board may arrange through intergovernmental agreements or intragovernmental agreements or both for the rendition of services and operation of facilities by other agencies or departments of the governmental unit or county in which the governmental unit is located with the approval of the governing body.

(c) To employ, establish compensation for, and set policies for its personnel, including legal counsel, as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this Act and prescribe the duties thereof. The board may enter into multiple-year employment contracts as may be necessary for the recruitment and retention of personnel and the proper functioning of the board.

(d) The board may enter into multiple-year joint agreements, which shall be written, with other mental health boards and boards of health to provide jointly agreed upon community mental health facilities and services and to pool such funds as may be deemed necessary and available for this purpose.

(e) The board may organize a not-for-profit corporation for the purpose of providing direct recipient services. Such corporations shall have, in addition to all other lawful powers, the power to contract with persons to furnish services for recipients of the corporation's facilities, including psychiatrists and other physicians licensed in this State to practice medicine in all of its branches. Such physicians shall be considered independent contractors, and liability for any malpractice shall not extend to such corporation, nor to the community mental health board, except for gross negligence in entering into such a contract.

(f) The board shall not operate any direct recipient services for more than a 2-year period when such services are being provided in the governmental unit, but shall encourage, by financial support, the development of private agencies to deliver such needed services, pursuant to regulations of the board.

(g) Where there are multiple boards within the same planning area, as established by the Department of Human Services, services may be purchased through a single delivery system. In such areas, a coordinating body with representation from each board shall be established to carry out the service functions of this Act. In the event any such coordinating body purchases or improves real property, such body shall first obtain the approval of the governing bodies of the governmental units in which the coordinating body is located.

(h) The board may enter into multiple-year joint agreements with other governmental units located within the geographical area of the board. Such agreements shall be written and shall provide for the rendition of services by the board to the residents of such governmental units.

(i) The board may enter into multiple-year joint agreements with federal, State, and local governments, including the Department of Human Services, whereby the board will provide certain services. All such joint agreements must provide for the exchange of relevant data. However, nothing in this Act shall be construed to permit the abridgement of the confidentiality of patient records.

(j) The board may receive gifts from private sources for purposes not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act.

(k) The board may receive federal Federal, State, and local funds for purposes not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act.

(l) The board may establish scholarship programs. Such programs shall require equivalent service or reimbursement pursuant to regulations of the board.

(m) The board may sell, rent, or lease real property for purposes consistent with this Act.

(n) The board may: (i) own real property, lease real property as lessee, or acquire real property by purchase, construction, lease-purchase agreement, or otherwise; (ii) take title to the property in the board's name; (iii) borrow money and issue debt instruments, mortgages, purchase-money mortgages, and other security instruments with respect to the property; and (iv) maintain, repair, remodel, or improve the property. All of these activities must be for purposes consistent with this Act as may be reasonably necessary for the housing and proper functioning of the board. The board may use moneys in the Community Mental Health Fund for these purposes.

(o) The board may organize a not-for-profit corporation (i) for the purpose of raising money to be distributed by the board for providing community mental health services and facilities for the treatment of alcoholism, drug addiction, developmental disabilities, and intellectual disabilities or (ii) for other purposes not inconsistent with this Act.

(p) The board may fix a fiscal year for the board.

(q) The board has the responsibility to set, maintain, and implement the budget.

Every board shall be subject to the requirements under the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-274, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-20-24.)

Section 470. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 8.1 as follows:

(410 ILCS 45/8.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1308.1)

Sec. 8.1. Licensing of lead inspectors and lead risk assessors.

(a) The Department shall establish standards and licensing procedures for lead inspectors and lead risk assessors. An integral element of these procedures shall be an education and training program prescribed by the Department, which shall include, but not be limited to, scientific sampling, chemistry, and construction techniques. No person shall make inspections or risk assessments without first being licensed by the Department. The penalty for inspection or risk assessment without a license shall be a Class A misdemeanor and an administrative fine.

(b) The Department shall charge licensed lead inspectors and lead risk assessors reasonable license fees and the fees shall be placed in the Lead Poisoning Screening, Prevention, and Abatement Fund and used to fund the Department's licensing of lead inspectors and lead risk assessors and any other activities prescribed by this Act. A licensed lead inspector or lead risk assessor employed by the Department or its delegate agency shall not be charged a license fee.

(c) The Department, upon notification by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance, shall refuse the issuance or renewal of a license to, or suspend or revoke the license of, any individual, corporation, partnership, or other business entity that has been found by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance to have failed:

(1) to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act;

(2) to pay in full a fine or penalty imposed by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance due to a failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act; or

(3) to fulfill all obligations assumed pursuant to any settlement reached with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance due to a failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act.

A complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance that includes a certification, signed by its Director or Chairman or designee, attesting to a finding of the failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act or the failure to pay any fines or penalties or to discharge any obligation under a settlement relating to the failure to secure workers' compensation obligations in the manner required by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act is prima facie evidence of the licensee's or applicant's failure to comply with subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4 of the Workers' Compensation Act. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee or the processing of any application from the applicant. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order to the licensee's or applicant's address of record or emailing a copy of the order to the licensee's or applicant's email address of record. The notice shall advise the licensee or applicant that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the order unless the Department receives, from the licensee or applicant, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Upon receiving notice from the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance that the violation has been corrected or otherwise resolved, the Department shall vacate the order suspending a licensee's license or the processing of an applicant's application.

No license shall be suspended or revoked until after the licensee is afforded any due process protection guaranteed by statute or rule adopted by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or the Department of Insurance.

(Source: P.A. 103-26, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 475. The Smoke Free Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(410 ILCS 82/35)

Sec. 35. Exemptions. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, smoking is allowed in the following areas:

(1) Private residences or dwelling places, except when used as a child care, adult day care, or healthcare facility or any other home-based business open to the public.

(2) Retail tobacco stores as defined in Section 10 of this Act in operation prior to January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-17) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. The retail tobacco store shall annually file with the Department by January 31st an affidavit stating the percentage of its gross income during the prior calendar year that was derived from the sale of loose tobacco, plants, or herbs and cigars, cigarettes, pipes, or other smoking devices for smoking tobacco and related smoking accessories. Any retail tobacco store that begins operation after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-17) this amendatory Act may only qualify for an exemption if located in a freestanding structure occupied solely by the business and smoke from the business does not migrate into an enclosed area where smoking is prohibited. A retail tobacco store that derives at least 80% of its gross revenue from the sale of electronic cigarettes and electronic cigarette equipment and accessories in operation before January 1, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-272) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly qualifies for this exemption for electronic cigarettes only. A retail tobacco store claiming an exemption for electronic cigarettes shall annually file with the Department by January 31 an affidavit stating the percentage of its gross income during the prior calendar year that was derived from the sale of electronic cigarettes. A retail tobacco store may, with authorization or permission from a unit of local government, including a home rule unit, or any non-home rule county within the unincorporated territory of the county, allow the on-premises consumption of cannabis in a specially designated areas.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Hotel and motel sleeping rooms that are rented to guests and are designated as smoking rooms, provided that all smoking rooms on the same floor must be contiguous and smoke from these rooms must not infiltrate into nonsmoking rooms or other areas where smoking is prohibited. Not more than 25% of the rooms rented to guests in a hotel or motel may be designated as rooms where smoking is allowed. The status of rooms as smoking or nonsmoking may not be changed, except to permanently add additional nonsmoking rooms.

(5) Enclosed laboratories that are excluded from the definition of "place of employment" in Section 10 of this Act. Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1029 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(6) Common smoking rooms in long-term care facilities operated under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs or licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act that are accessible only to residents who are smokers and have requested in writing to have access to the common smoking room where smoking is permitted and the smoke shall not infiltrate other areas of the long-term care facility. Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1029 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(7) A convention hall of the Donald E. Stephens Convention Center where a meeting or trade show for manufacturers and suppliers of tobacco and tobacco products and accessories is being held, during the time the meeting or trade show is occurring, if the meeting or trade show:

(i) is a trade-only event and not open to the public;

(ii) is limited to attendees and exhibitors that are 21 years of age or older;

(iii) is being produced or organized by a business relating to tobacco or a professional association for convenience stores; and

(iv) involves the display of tobacco products.

Smoking is not allowed in any public area outside of the hall designated for the meeting or trade show.

This paragraph (7) is inoperative on and after October 1, 2015.

(8) A dispensing organization, as defined in the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act, authorized or permitted by a unit local government to allow on-site consumption of cannabis, if the establishment: (1) maintains a specially designated area or areas for the purpose of heating, burning, smoking, or lighting cannabis; (2) is limited to individuals 21 or older; and (3) maintains a locked door or barrier to any specially designated areas for the purpose of heating, burning, smoking or lighting cannabis.

(Source: P.A. 103-272, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 480. The Health Care Professional Credentials Data Collection Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 517/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Credentials data" means those data, information, or answers to questions required by a health care entity, health care plan, or hospital to complete the credentialing or recredentialing of a health care professional.

"Credentialing" means the process of assessing and validating the qualifications of a health care professional.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Public Health.

"Health care entity" means any of the following which require the submission of credentials data: (i) a health care facility or other health care organization licensed or certified to provide medical or health services in Illinois, other than a hospital; (ii) a health care professional partnership, corporation, limited liability company, professional services corporation or group practice; or (iii) an independent practice association or physician hospital organization. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to mean that a hospital is a health care entity.

"Health care plan" means any entity licensed by the Department of Insurance as a prepaid health care plan or health maintenance organization or as an insurer which requires the submission of credentials data.

"Health care professional" means any person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or any person licensed under any other Act subsequently made subject to this Act by the Department.

"Hospital" means a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or any hospital organized under the University of Illinois Hospital Act.

"Recredentialing" means a process undertaken for a period not to exceed 3 years by which a health care entity, health care plan, or hospital ensures that a health care professional who is currently credentialed by the health care entity, health care plan, or hospital continues to meet the credentialing criteria used by the health care entity, health care plan, or hospital 3.

"Single credentialing cycle" means a process undertaken for a period not to exceed 3 years whereby for purposes of recredentialing each health care professional's credentials data are collected by all health care entities and health care plans that credential the health care professional during the same time period 3.

"Site survey" means a process by which a health care entity or health care plan assesses the office locations and medical record keeping practices of a health care professional.

"Single site survey" means a process by which, for purposes of recredentialing, each health care professional receives a site visit only once every two years.

"Uniform health care credentials form" means the form prescribed by the Department under Section 15 to collect the credentials data commonly requested by health care entities and health care plans for purposes of credentialing.

"Uniform health care recredentials form" means the form prescribed by the Department under Section 15 to collect the credentials data commonly requested by health care entities and health care plans for purposes of recredentialing.

"Uniform hospital credentials form" means the form prescribed by the Department under Section 15 to collect the credentials data commonly requested by hospitals for purposes of credentialing.

"Uniform hospital recredentials form" means the form prescribed by the Department under Section 15 to collect the credentials data commonly requested by hospitals for purposes of recredentialing.

"Uniform site survey instrument" means the instrument developed by the Department under Section 25 to complete a single site survey as part of a credentialing or recredentialing process.

"Uniform updating form" means the standardized form prescribed by the Department for reporting of corrections, updates, and modifications to credentials data to health care entities, health care plans, and hospitals when those data change following credentialing or recredentialing of a health care professional.

(Source: P.A. 103-96, eff. 1-1-24; 103-436, eff. 8-4-23; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 485. The Vital Records Act is amended by changing Section 25 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 25.6 as follows:

(410 ILCS 535/25)

Sec. 25. In accordance with Section 24 of this Act, and the regulations adopted pursuant thereto:

(1) The State Registrar of Vital Records shall search the files of birth, death, and fetal death records, upon receipt of a written request and a fee of $10 from any applicant entitled to such search. A search fee shall not be required for commemorative birth certificates issued by the State Registrar. A search fee shall not be required for a birth record search from a person (1) upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections if the person presents a prescribed verification form completed by the Department of Corrections verifying the person's date of birth and social security number, or (2) placed on aftercare release under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Juvenile Justice if the person presents a prescribed verification form completed by the Department of Juvenile Justice verifying the person's date of birth and social security number; however, the person is entitled to only one search fee waiver. If, upon search, the record requested is found, the State Registrar shall furnish the applicant one certification of such record, under the seal of such office. If the request is for a certified copy of the record, an additional fee of $5 shall be required. An additional fee for a certified copy of the record shall not be required from a person (1) upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections if the person presents a prescribed verification form completed by the Department of Corrections verifying the released person's date of birth and social security number, or (2) placed on aftercare release under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Juvenile Justice if the person presents a prescribed verification form completed by the Department of Juvenile Justice verifying the person's date of birth and social security number; however, the person is entitled to only one certified copy fee waiver. If the request is for a certified copy of a death certificate or a fetal death certificate, an additional fee of $2 is required. The additional fee shall be deposited into the Death Certificate Surcharge Fund. A further fee of $2 shall be required for each additional certification or certified copy requested. If the requested record is not found, the State Registrar shall furnish the applicant a certification attesting to that fact, if so requested by the applicant. A further fee of $2 shall be required for each additional certification that no record has been found.

Any local registrar or county clerk shall search the files of birth, death, and fetal death records, upon receipt of a written request from any applicant entitled to such search. If upon search the record requested is found, such local registrar or county clerk shall furnish the applicant one certification or certified copy of such record, under the seal of such office, upon payment of the applicable fees. If the requested record is not found, the local registrar or county clerk shall furnish the applicant a certification attesting to that fact, if so requested by the applicant and upon payment of applicable fee. The local registrar or county clerk must charge a $2 fee for each certified copy of a death certificate. The fee is in addition to any other fees that are charged by the local registrar or county clerk. The additional fees must be transmitted to the State Registrar monthly and deposited into the Death Certificate Surcharge Fund. The local registrar or county clerk may charge fees for providing other services for which the State Registrar may charge fees under this Section.

Upon receipt of a written request from an applicant entitled to such a search, a local registrar or county clerk shall search available files for the death certificate of an active duty service member or honorably discharged veteran of the United States military. If the death certificate requested by the applicant is found, the local registrar or county clerk shall furnish the applicant with one certified copy of the death certificate, under the seal of the local registrar's or county clerk's office, at no cost to the applicant. If the requested death certificate of the service member or honorably discharged veteran is not found, the local registrar or county clerk shall furnish the applicant, at no cost, with certification attesting to that fact if so requested by the applicant. A local registrar or county clerk shall not require a fee from the applicant of more than $6 for any subsequent copy of the service member's or honorably discharged veteran's death certificate or certification attesting that the death certificate of the service member or honorably discharged veteran was not found.

A request to any custodian of vital records for a search of the death record indexes for genealogical research shall require a fee of $10 per name for a 5-year 5 year search. An additional fee of $1 for each additional year searched shall be required. If the requested record is found, one uncertified copy shall be issued without additional charge.

Any fee received by the State Registrar pursuant to this Section which is of an insufficient amount may be returned by the State Registrar upon his recording the receipt of such fee and the reason for its return. The State Registrar is authorized to maintain a 2-signature 2 signature, revolving checking account with a suitable commercial bank for the purpose of depositing and withdrawing-for-return cash received and determined insufficient for the service requested.

No fee imposed under this Section may be assessed against an organization chartered by Congress that requests a certificate for the purpose of death verification.

No fee imposed under this Section may be assessed against a victim of domestic violence as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986. To qualify for the waiver of a fee, the person seeking the vital record must provide a certification letter as described in Section 25.6.

Any custodian of vital records, whether it may be the Department of Public Health, a local registrar, or a county clerk shall charge an additional $2 for each certified copy of a death certificate and that additional fee shall be collected on behalf of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for deposit into the Cemetery Oversight Licensing and Disciplinary Fund.

As used in this paragraph, "veteran" means an individual who served in the Armed Forces of the United States, National Guard, or the reserves of the Armed Forces of the United States.

(2) The certification of birth may contain only the name, sex, date of birth, and place of birth, of the person to whom it relates, the name, age and birthplace of the parents, and the file number; and none of the other data on the certificate of birth except as authorized under subsection (5) of this Section.

(3) The certification of death shall contain only the name, Social Security Number, sex, date of death, and place of death of the person to whom it relates, and file number; and none of the other data on the certificate of death except as authorized under subsection (5) of this Section.

(4) Certification or a certified copy of a certificate shall be issued:

(a) Upon the order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(b) In case of a birth certificate, upon the specific written request for a certification or certified copy by the person, if of legal age, by a parent or other legal representative of the person to whom the record of birth relates, or by a person having a genealogical interest; or

(c) Upon the specific written request for a certification or certified copy by a department of the State state or a municipal corporation or the federal government; or

(c-1) Upon the specific written request for a certification or certified copy by a State's Attorney for the purpose of a criminal prosecution; or

(d) In case of a death or fetal death certificate, upon specific written request for a certified copy by a person, or his duly authorized agent, having a genealogical, personal, or property right interest in the record.

A genealogical interest shall be a proper purpose with respect to births which occurred not less than 75 years and deaths which occurred not less than 20 years prior to the date of written request. Where the purpose of the request is a genealogical interest, the custodian shall stamp the certification or copy with the words, FOR GENEALOGICAL PURPOSES ONLY.

(5) Any certification or certified copy issued pursuant to this Section shall show the date of registration; and copies issued from records marked "delayed," "amended," or "court order" shall be similarly marked and show the effective date.

(6) Any certification or certified copy of a certificate issued in accordance with this Section shall be considered as prima facie evidence of the facts therein stated, provided that the evidentiary value of a certificate or record filed more than one year after the event, or a record which has been amended, shall be determined by the judicial or administrative body or official before whom the certificate is offered as evidence.

(7) Any certification or certified copy issued pursuant to this Section shall be issued without charge when the record is required by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs Veterans Administration or by any accredited veterans organization to be used in determining the eligibility of any person to participate in benefits available from such organization. Requests for such copies must be in accordance with Sections 1 and 2 of Records for Veterans Administration Act "An Act to provide for the furnishing of copies of public documents to interested parties," approved May 17, 1935, as now or hereafter amended.

(8) The National Vital Statistics Division, or any agency which may be substituted therefor, may be furnished such copies or data as it may require for national statistics; provided that the State shall be reimbursed for the cost of furnishing such data; and provided further that such data shall not be used for other than statistical purposes by the National Vital Statistics Division, or any agency which may be substituted therefor, unless so authorized by the State Registrar of Vital Records.

(9) Federal, State, local, and other public or private agencies may, upon request, be furnished copies or data for statistical purposes upon such terms or conditions as may be prescribed by the Department.

(10) The State Registrar of Vital Records, at his discretion and in the interest of promoting registration of births, may issue, without fee, to the parents or guardian of any or every child whose birth has been registered in accordance with the provisions of this Act, a special notice of registration of birth.

(11) No person shall prepare or issue any certificate which purports to be an original, certified copy, or certification of a certificate of birth, death, or fetal death, except as authorized in this Act or regulations adopted hereunder.

(12) A computer print-out of any record of birth, death, or fetal record that may be certified under this Section may be used in place of such certification and such computer print-out shall have the same legal force and effect as a certified copy of the document.

(13) The State Registrar may verify from the information contained in the index maintained by the State Registrar the authenticity of information on births, deaths, marriages, and dissolution of marriages provided to a federal agency or a public agency of another state by a person seeking benefits or employment from the agency, provided the agency pays a fee of $10.

(14) The State Registrar may issue commemorative birth certificates to persons eligible to receive birth certificates under this Section upon the payment of a fee to be determined by the State Registrar.

(Source: P.A. 102-739, eff. 1-1-23; 103-95, eff. 6-9-23; 103-170, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-1-23.)

(410 ILCS 535/25.6)

Sec. 25.6. Fee waiver; persons who reside in a shelter for domestic violence.

(a) The applicable fees under Section 17 of this Act for a new certificate of birth and Section 25 of this Act for a search of a birth record or a certified copy of a birth record shall be waived for all requests by a person who resides in a shelter for domestic violence. The State Registrar of Vital Records shall establish standards and procedures consistent with this Section for waiver of the applicable fees. A person described under this Section must not be charged for verification under this Section. A person who knowingly or purposefully falsifies this verification is subject to a penalty of $100.

(b) A person who resides in a shelter for domestic violence shall be provided no more than 4 birth records annually under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-1141, eff. 7-1-23.)

(410 ILCS 535/25.7)

Sec. 25.7 25.6. Certification letter form. In order to seek a waiver of the fee for a copy of a vital record, the person seeking the record must provide the following certification letter:

Certification Letter for Domestic Violence Waiver for Illinois

Vital Records Full Name of Applicant:............................... Date of Birth:........................................

I,........................, certify, to the best of my knowledge and belief, that on the date listed below, the above named individual is a victim or child of a victim of domestic violence, as defined by Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 (750 ILCS 60/103), who is currently fleeing a dangerous living situation. I provide this certification in my capacity as (check one below):

( ) an advocate at a family violence center who assisted the victim;

( ) a licensed medical care or mental health provider;

( ) the director of an emergency shelter or transitional housing; or

( ) the director of a transitional living program. Signature:................. Date:........................ Title:..................... Employer:.................... Email:..................... Phone:....................... Address:................... City:........................ State:..................... Zip:.........................

(Source: P.A. 103-170, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 490. The Sanitary Food Preparation Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(410 ILCS 650/8) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 74)

Sec. 8. No operative, employee, or other person persons shall expectorate on the food, or on the utensils, or on the floors or sidewalls of any building, room, basement, or cellar where the production, preparation, manufacture, packing, storing, or sale of any such food is conducted. Operatives, employees, clerks, and all other persons who handle the material from which such food is prepared or the finished product, before beginning work, or after visiting toilet or toilets, shall wash their hands thoroughly in clean water. Whoever fails to observe or violates the provisions of this Section shall be guilty of a petty offense and fined not more than $25.

(Source: P.A. 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-25-23.)

Section 495. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 15-150 and 15-170 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/15-150)

Sec. 15-150. Temporary suspension.

(a) The Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation may temporarily suspend a dispensing organization license or an agent registration without a hearing if the Secretary finds that public safety or welfare requires emergency action. The Secretary shall cause the temporary suspension by issuing a suspension notice in connection with the institution of proceedings for a hearing.

(b) If the Secretary temporarily suspends a license or agent registration without a hearing, the licensee or agent is entitled to a hearing within 45 days after the suspension notice has been issued. The hearing shall be limited to the issues cited in the suspension notice, unless all parties agree otherwise.

(c) If the Department does not hold a hearing within with 45 days after the date the suspension notice was issued, then the suspended license or registration shall be automatically reinstated and the suspension vacated.

(d) The suspended licensee or agent may seek a continuance of the hearing date, during which time the suspension remains in effect and the license or registration shall not be automatically reinstated.

(e) Subsequently discovered causes of action by the Department after the issuance of the suspension notice may be filed as a separate notice of violation. The Department is not precluded from filing a separate action against the suspended licensee or agent.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 4-6-23.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-170)

Sec. 15-170. Hearing; motion for rehearing.

(a) The hearing officer shall hear evidence in support of the formal charges and evidence produced by the licensee. At the conclusion of the hearing, the hearing officer shall present to the Secretary a written report of his or her findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations.

(b) At the conclusion of the hearing, a copy of the hearing officer's report shall be served upon the applicant or licensee by the Department, either personally or as provided in this Act for the service of a notice of hearing. Within 20 calendar days after service, the applicant or licensee may present to the Department a motion in writing for rehearing, which shall specify the particular grounds for rehearing. The Department may respond to the motion for rehearing within 20 calendar days after its service on the Department. If no motion for rehearing is filed, then, upon the expiration of the time specified for filing such motion or upon denial of a motion for rehearing, the Secretary may enter an order in accordance with the recommendation of the hearing officer. If the applicant or licensee orders from the reporting service and pays for a transcript of the record within the time for filing a motion for rehearing, the 20-day period within which a motion may be filed shall commence upon the delivery of the transcript to the applicant or licensee.

(c) If the Secretary disagrees in any regard with the report of the hearing officer, the Secretary may issue an order contrary to the report.

(d) Whenever the Secretary is not satisfied that substantial justice has been done, the Secretary may order a rehearing by the same or another hearing officer.

(e) At any point in any investigation or disciplinary proceeding under in this Article, both parties may agree to a negotiated consent order. The consent order shall be final upon signature of the Secretary.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 4-6-23.)

Section 500. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 17.12, 22.15, 31, 58.5, 58.6, and 58.7 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/17.12)

Sec. 17.12. Lead service line replacement and notification.

(a) The purpose of this Act is to: (1) require the owners and operators of community water supplies to develop, implement, and maintain a comprehensive water service line material inventory and a comprehensive lead service line replacement plan, provide notice to occupants of potentially affected buildings before any construction or repair work on water mains or lead service lines, and request access to potentially affected buildings before replacing lead service lines; and (2) prohibit partial lead service line replacements, except as authorized within this Section.

(b) The General Assembly finds and declares that:

(1) There is no safe level of exposure to heavy metal lead, as found by the United States Environmental Protection Agency and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

(2) Lead service lines can convey this harmful substance to the drinking water supply.

(3) According to the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency's 2018 Service Line Material Inventory, the State of Illinois is estimated to have over 680,000 lead-based service lines still in operation.

(4) The true number of lead service lines is not fully known because Illinois lacks an adequate inventory of lead service lines.

(5) For the general health, safety, and welfare of its residents, all lead service lines in Illinois should be disconnected from the drinking water supply, and the State's drinking water supply.

(c) In this Section:

"Advisory Board" means the Lead Service Line Replacement Advisory Board created under subsection (x).

"Community water supply" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3.145 of this Act.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Emergency repair" means any unscheduled water main, water service, or water valve repair or replacement that results from failure or accident.

"Fund" means the Lead Service Line Replacement Fund created under subsection (bb).

"Lead service line" means a service line made of lead or service line connected to a lead pigtail, lead gooseneck, or other lead fitting.

"Material inventory" means a water service line material inventory developed by a community water supply under this Act.

"Non-community water supply" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act.

"NSF/ANSI Standard" means a water treatment standard developed by NSF International.

"Partial lead service line replacement" means replacement of only a portion of a lead service line.

"Potentially affected building" means any building that is provided water service through a service line that is either a lead service line or a suspected lead service line.

"Public water supply" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3.365 of this Act.

"Service line" means the piping, tubing, and necessary appurtenances acting as a conduit from the water main or source of potable water supply to the building plumbing at the first shut-off valve or 18 inches inside the building, whichever is shorter.

"Suspected lead service line" means a service line that a community water supply finds more likely than not to be made of lead after completing the requirements under paragraphs (2) through (5) of subsection (h).

"Small system" means a community water supply that regularly serves water to 3,300 or fewer persons.

(d) An owner or operator of a community water supply shall:

(1) develop an initial material inventory by April 15, 2022 and electronically submit by April 15, 2023 an updated material inventory electronically to the Agency; and

(2) deliver a complete material inventory to the Agency no later than April 15, 2024, or such time as required by federal law, whichever is sooner. The complete inventory shall report the composition of all service lines in the community water supply's distribution system.

(e) The Agency shall review and approve the final material inventory submitted to it under subsection (d).

(f) If a community water supply does not submit a complete inventory to the Agency by April 15, 2024 under paragraph (2) of subsection (d), the community water supply may apply for an extension to the Agency no less than 3 months prior to the due date. The Agency shall develop criteria for granting material inventory extensions. When considering requests for extension, the Agency shall, at a minimum, consider:

(1) the number of service connections in a water supply; and

(2) the number of service lines of an unknown material composition.

(g) A material inventory prepared for a community water supply under subsection (d) shall identify:

(1) the total number of service lines connected to the community water supply's distribution system;

(2) the materials of construction of each service line connected to the community water supply's distribution system;

(3) the number of suspected lead service lines that were newly identified in the material inventory for the community water supply after the community water supply last submitted a service line inventory to the Agency; and

(4) the number of suspected or known lead service lines that were replaced after the community water supply last submitted a service line inventory to the Agency, and the material of the service line that replaced each lead service line.

When identifying the materials of construction under paragraph (2) of this subsection, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall to the best of the owner's or operator's ability identify the type of construction material used on the customer's side of the curb box, meter, or other line of demarcation and the community water supply's side of the curb box, meter, or other line of demarcation.

(h) In completing a material inventory under subsection (d), the owner or operator of a community water supply shall:

(1) prioritize inspections of high-risk areas identified by the community water supply and inspections of high-risk facilities, such as preschools, day care centers, day care homes, group day care homes, parks, playgrounds, hospitals, and clinics, and confirm service line materials in those areas and at those facilities;

(2) review historical documentation, such as construction logs or cards, as-built drawings, purchase orders, and subdivision plans, to determine service line material construction;

(3) when conducting distribution system maintenance, visually inspect service lines and document materials of construction;

(4) identify any time period when the service lines being connected to its distribution system were primarily lead service lines, if such a time period is known or suspected; and

(5) discuss service line repair and installation with its employees, contractors, plumbers, other workers who worked on service lines connected to its distribution system, or all of the above.

(i) The owner or operator of each community water supply shall maintain records of persons who refuse to grant access to the interior of a building for purposes of identifying the materials of construction of a service line. If a community water supply has been denied access on the property or to the interior of a building for that reason, then the community water supply shall attempt to identify the service line as a suspected lead service line, unless documentation is provided showing otherwise.

(j) If a community water supply identifies a lead service line connected to a building, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall attempt to notify the owner of the building and all occupants of the building of the existence of the lead service line within 15 days after identifying the lead service line, or as soon as is reasonably possible thereafter. Individual written notice shall be given according to the provisions of subsection (jj).

(k) An owner or operator of a community water supply has no duty to include in the material inventory required under subsection (d) information about service lines that are physically disconnected from a water main in its distribution system.

(l) The owner or operator of each community water supply shall post on its website a copy of the most recently submitted material inventory or alternatively may request that the Agency post a copy of that material inventory on the Agency's website.

(m) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require service lines to be unearthed for the sole purpose of inventorying.

(n) When an owner or operator of a community water supply awards a contract under this Section, the owner or operator shall make a good faith effort to use contractors and vendors owned by minority persons, women, and persons with a disability, as those terms are defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, for not less than 20% of the total contracts, provided that:

(1) contracts representing at least 11% of the total projects shall be awarded to minority-owned businesses, as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act;

(2) contracts representing at least 7% of the total projects shall be awarded to women-owned businesses, as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act; and

(3) contracts representing at least 2% of the total projects shall be awarded to businesses owned by persons with a disability.

Owners or operators of a community water supply are encouraged to divide projects, whenever economically feasible, into contracts of smaller size that ensure small business contractors or vendors shall have the ability to qualify in the applicable bidding process, when determining the ability to deliver on a given contract based on scope and size, as a responsible and responsive bidder.

When a contractor or vendor submits a bid or letter of intent in response to a request for proposal or other bid submission, the contractor or vendor shall include with its responsive documents a utilization plan that shall address how compliance with applicable good faith requirements set forth in this subsection shall be addressed.

Under this subsection, "good faith effort" means a community water supply has taken all necessary steps to comply with the goals of this subsection by complying with the following:

(1) Soliciting through reasonable and available means the interest of a business, as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, that have the capability to perform the work of the contract. The community water supply must solicit this interest within sufficient time to allow certified businesses to respond.

(2) Providing interested certified businesses with adequate information about the plans, specifications, and requirements of the contract, including addenda, in a timely manner to assist them in responding to the solicitation.

(3) Meeting in good faith with interested certified businesses that have submitted bids.

(4) Effectively using the services of the State, minority or women community organizations, minority or women contractor groups, local, State, and federal minority or women business assistance offices, and other organizations to provide assistance in the recruitment and placement of certified businesses.

(5) Making efforts to use appropriate forums for purposes of advertising subcontracting opportunities suitable for certified businesses.

The diversity goals defined in this subsection can be met through direct award to diverse contractors and through the use of diverse subcontractors and diverse vendors to contracts.

(o) An owner or operator of a community water supply shall collect data necessary to ensure compliance with subsection (n) no less than semi-annually and shall include progress toward compliance of subsection (n) in the owner or operator's report required under subsection (t-5). The report must include data on vendor and employee diversity, including data on the owner's or operator's implementation of subsection (n).

(p) Every owner or operator of a community water supply that has known or suspected lead service lines shall:

(1) create a plan to:

(A) replace each lead service line connected to its distribution system; and

(B) replace each galvanized service line connected to its distribution system, if the galvanized service line is or was connected downstream to lead piping; and

(2) electronically submit, by April 15, 2024 its initial lead service line replacement plan to the Agency;

(3) electronically submit by April 15 of each year after 2024 until April 15, 2027 an updated lead service line replacement plan to the Agency for review; the updated replacement plan shall account for changes in the number of lead service lines or unknown service lines in the material inventory described in subsection (d);

(4) electronically submit by April 15, 2027 a complete and final replacement plan to the Agency for approval; the complete and final replacement plan shall account for all known and suspected lead service lines documented in the final material inventory described under paragraph (3) of subsection (d); and

(5) post on its website a copy of the plan most recently submitted to the Agency or may request that the Agency post a copy of that plan on the Agency's website.

(q) Each plan required under paragraph (1) of subsection (p) shall include the following:

(1) the name and identification number of the community water supply;

(2) the total number of service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply;

(3) the total number of suspected lead service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply;

(4) the total number of known lead service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply;

(5) the total number of lead service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply that have been replaced each year beginning in 2020;

(6) a proposed lead service line replacement schedule that includes one-year, 5-year, 10-year, 15-year, 20-year, 25-year, and 30-year goals;

(7) an analysis of costs and financing options for replacing the lead service lines connected to the community water supply's distribution system, which shall include, but shall not be limited to:

(A) a detailed accounting of costs associated with replacing lead service lines and galvanized lines that are or were connected downstream to lead piping;

(B) measures to address affordability and prevent service shut-offs for customers or ratepayers; and

(C) consideration of different scenarios for structuring payments between the utility and its customers over time; and

(8) a plan for prioritizing high-risk facilities, such as preschools, day care centers, day care homes, group day care homes, parks, playgrounds, hospitals, and clinics, as well as high-risk areas identified by the community water supply;

(9) a map of the areas where lead service lines are expected to be found and the sequence with which those areas will be inventoried and lead service lines replaced;

(10) measures for how the community water supply will inform the public of the plan and provide opportunity for public comment; and

(11) measures to encourage diversity in hiring in the workforce required to implement the plan as identified under subsection (n).

(r) The Agency shall review final plans submitted to it under subsection (p). The Agency shall approve a final plan if the final plan includes all of the elements set forth under subsection (q) and the Agency determines that:

(1) the proposed lead service line replacement schedule set forth in the plan aligns with the timeline requirements set forth under subsection (v);

(2) the plan prioritizes the replacement of lead service lines that provide water service to high-risk facilities, such as preschools, day care centers, day care homes, group day care homes, parks, playgrounds, hospitals, and clinics, and high-risk areas identified by the community water supply;

(3) the plan includes analysis of cost and financing options; and

(4) the plan provides documentation of public review.

(s) An owner or operator of a community water supply has no duty to include in the plans required under subsection (p) information about service lines that are physically disconnected from a water main in its distribution system.

(t) If a community water supply does not deliver a complete plan to the Agency by April 15, 2027, the community water supply may apply to the Agency for an extension no less than 3 months prior to the due date. The Agency shall develop criteria for granting plan extensions. When considering requests for extension, the Agency shall, at a minimum, consider:

(1) the number of service connections in a water supply; and

(2) the number of service lines of an unknown material composition.

(t-5) After the Agency has approved the final replacement plan described in subsection (p), the owner or operator of a community water supply shall submit a report detailing progress toward plan goals to the Agency for its review. The report shall be submitted annually for the first 10 years, and every 3 years thereafter until all lead service lines have been replaced. Reports under this subsection shall be published in the same manner described in subsection (l). The report shall include at least the following information as it pertains to the preceding reporting period:

(1) The number of lead service lines replaced and the average cost of lead service line replacement.

(2) Progress toward meeting hiring requirements as described in subsection (n) and subsection (o).

(3) The percent of customers electing a waiver offered, as described in subsections (ii) and (jj), among those customers receiving a request or notification to perform a lead service line replacement.

(4) The method or methods used by the community water supply to finance lead service line replacement.

(u) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in order to provide for costs associated with lead service line remediation and replacement, the corporate authorities of a municipality may, by ordinance or resolution by the corporate authorities, exercise authority provided in Section 27-5 et seq. of the Property Tax Code and Sections 8-3-1, 8-11-1, 8-11-5, 8-11-6, 9-1-1 et seq., 9-3-1 et seq., 9-4-1 et seq., 11-131-1, and 11-150-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code. Taxes levied for this purpose shall be in addition to taxes for general purposes authorized under Section 8-3-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code and shall be included in the taxing district's aggregate extension for the purposes of Division 5 of Article 18 of the Property Tax Code.

(v) Every owner or operator of a community water supply shall replace all known lead service lines, subject to the requirements of subsection (ff), according to the following replacement rates and timelines to be calculated from the date of submission of the final replacement plan to the Agency:

(1) A community water supply reporting 1,200 or fewer lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 7% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 15 years for completion.

(2) A community water supply reporting more than 1,200 but fewer than 5,000 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 6% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 17 years for completion.

(3) A community water supply reporting more than 4,999 but fewer than 10,000 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 5% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 20 years for completion.

(4) A community water supply reporting more than 9,999 but fewer than 99,999 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 3% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 34 years for completion.

(5) A community water supply reporting more than 99,999 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 2% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 50 years for completion.

(w) A community water supply may apply to the Agency for an extension to the replacement timelines described in paragraphs (1) through (5) of subsection (v). The Agency shall develop criteria for granting replacement timeline extensions. When considering requests for timeline extensions, the Agency shall, at a minimum, consider:

(1) the number of service connections in a water supply; and

(2) unusual circumstances creating hardship for a community.

The Agency may grant one extension of additional time equal to not more than 20% of the original replacement timeline, except in situations of extreme hardship in which the Agency may consider a second additional extension equal to not more than 10% of the original replacement timeline.

Replacement rates and timelines shall be calculated from the date of submission of the final plan to the Agency.

(x) The Lead Service Line Replacement Advisory Board is created within the Agency. The Advisory Board shall convene within 120 days after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613).

The Advisory Board shall consist of at least 28 voting members, as follows:

(1) the Director of the Agency, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chairperson;

(2) the Director of Revenue, or his or her designee;

(3) the Director of Public Health, or his or her designee;

(4) fifteen members appointed by the Agency as follows:

(A) one member representing a statewide organization of municipalities as authorized by Section 1-8-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code;

(B) two members who are mayors representing municipalities located in any county south of the southernmost county represented by one of the 10 largest municipalities in Illinois by population, or their respective designees;

(C) two members who are representatives from public health advocacy groups;

(D) two members who are representatives from publicly owned publicly-owned water utilities;

(E) one member who is a representative from a public utility as defined under Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act that provides water service in the State of Illinois;

(F) one member who is a research professional employed at an Illinois academic institution and specializing in water infrastructure research;

(G) two members who are representatives from nonprofit civic organizations;

(H) one member who is a representative from a statewide organization representing environmental organizations;

(I) two members who are representatives from organized labor; and

(J) one member representing an environmental justice organization; and

(5) ten members who are the mayors of the 10 largest municipalities in Illinois by population, or their respective designees.

No less than 10 of the 28 voting members shall be persons of color, and no less than 3 shall represent communities defined or self-identified as environmental justice communities.

Advisory Board members shall serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties from funds appropriated for that purpose. The Agency shall provide administrative support to the Advisory Board.

The Advisory Board shall meet no less than once every 6 months.

(y) The Advisory Board shall have, at a minimum, the following duties:

(1) advising the Agency on best practices in lead service line replacement;

(2) reviewing the progress of community water supplies toward lead service line replacement goals;

(3) advising the Agency on other matters related to the administration of the provisions of this Section;

(4) advising the Agency on the integration of existing lead service line replacement plans with any statewide plan; and

(5) providing technical support and practical expertise in general.

(z) Within 18 months after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613), the Advisory Board shall deliver a report of its recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly concerning opportunities for dedicated, long-term revenue options for funding lead service line replacement. In submitting recommendations, the Advisory Board shall consider, at a minimum, the following:

(1) the sufficiency of various revenue sources to adequately fund replacement of all lead service lines in Illinois;

(2) the financial burden, if any, on households falling below 150% of the federal poverty limit;

(3) revenue options that guarantee low-income households are protected from rate increases;

(4) an assessment of the ability of community water supplies to assess and collect revenue;

(5) variations in financial resources among individual households within a service area; and

(6) the protection of low-income households from rate increases.

(aa) Within 10 years after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613), the Advisory Board shall prepare and deliver a report to the Governor and General Assembly concerning the status of all lead service line replacement within the State.

(bb) The Lead Service Line Replacement Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury to be used by the Agency for the purposes provided under this Section. The Fund shall be used exclusively to finance and administer programs and activities specified under this Section and listed under this subsection.

The objective of the Fund is to finance activities associated with identifying and replacing lead service lines, build Agency capacity to oversee the provisions of this Section, and provide related assistance for the activities listed under this subsection.

The Agency shall be responsible for the administration of the Fund and shall allocate moneys on the basis of priorities established by the Agency through administrative rule. On July 1, 2022 and on July 1 of each year thereafter, the Agency shall determine the available amount of resources in the Fund that can be allocated to the activities identified under this Section and shall allocate the moneys accordingly.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Lead Service Line Replacement Fund is not subject to sweeps, administrative charge-backs, or any other fiscal maneuver that would in any way transfer any amounts from the Lead Service Line Replacement Fund into any other fund of the State.

(cc) Within one year after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613), the Agency shall design rules for a program for the purpose of administering lead service line replacement funds. The rules must, at minimum, contain:

(1) the process by which community water supplies may apply for funding; and

(2) the criteria for determining unit of local government eligibility and prioritization for funding, including the prevalence of low-income households, as measured by median household income, the prevalence of lead service lines, and the prevalence of water samples that demonstrate elevated levels of lead.

(dd) Funding under subsection (cc) shall be available for costs directly attributable to the planning, design, or construction directly related to the replacement of lead service lines and restoration of property.

Funding shall not be used for the general operating expenses of a municipality or community water supply.

(ee) An owner or operator of any community water supply receiving grant funding under subsection (cc) shall bear the entire expense of full lead service line replacement for all lead service lines in the scope of the grant.

(ff) When replacing a lead service line, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall replace the service line in its entirety, including, but not limited to, any portion of the service line (i) running on private property and (ii) within the building's plumbing at the first shut-off valve. Partial lead service line replacements are expressly prohibited. Exceptions shall be made under the following circumstances:

(1) In the event of an emergency repair that affects a lead service line or a suspected lead service line, a community water supply must contact the building owner to begin the process of replacing the entire service line. If the building owner is not able to be contacted or the building owner or occupant refuses to grant access and permission to replace the entire service line at the time of the emergency repair, then the community water supply may perform a partial lead service line replacement. Where an emergency repair on a service line constructed of lead or galvanized steel pipe results in a partial service line replacement, the water supply responsible for commencing the repair shall perform the following:

(A) Notify the building's owner or operator and the resident or residents served by the lead service line in writing that a repair has been completed. The notification shall include, at a minimum:

(i) a warning that the work may result in sediment, possibly containing lead, in the building's buildings water supply system;

(ii) information concerning practices for preventing the consumption of any lead in drinking water, including a recommendation to flush water distribution pipe during and after the completion of the repair or replacement work and to clean faucet aerator screens; and

(iii) information regarding the dangers of lead to young children and pregnant women.

(B) Provide filters for at least one fixture supplying potable water for consumption. The filter must be certified by an accredited third-party certification body to NSF/ANSI 53 and NSF/ANSI 42 for the reduction of lead and particulate. The filter must be provided until such time that the remaining portions of the service line have been replaced with a material approved by the Department or a waiver has been issued under subsection (ii).

(C) Replace the remaining portion of the lead service line within 30 days of the repair, or 120 days in the event of weather or other circumstances beyond reasonable control that prohibits construction. If a complete lead service line replacement cannot be made within the required period, the community water supply responsible for commencing the repair shall notify the Department in writing, at a minimum, of the following within 24 hours of the repair:

(i) an explanation of why it is not feasible to replace the remaining portion of the lead service line within the allotted time; and

(ii) a timeline for when the remaining portion of the lead service line will be replaced.

(D) If complete repair of a lead service line cannot be completed due to denial by the property owner, the community water supply commencing the repair shall request the affected property owner to sign a waiver developed by the Department. If a property owner of a nonresidential building or residence operating as rental properties denies a complete lead service line replacement, the property owner shall be responsible for installing and maintaining point-of-use filters certified by an accredited third-party certification body to NSF/ANSI 53 and NSF/ANSI 42 for the reduction of lead and particulate at all fixtures intended to supply water for the purposes of drinking, food preparation, or making baby formula. The filters shall continue to be supplied by the property owner until such time that the property owner has affected the remaining portions of the lead service line to be replaced.

(E) Document any remaining lead service line, including a portion on the private side of the property, in the community water supply's distribution system materials inventory required under subsection (d).

For the purposes of this paragraph (1), written notice shall be provided in the method and according to the provisions of subsection (jj).

(2) Lead service lines that are physically disconnected from the distribution system are exempt from this subsection.

(gg) Except as provided in subsection (hh), on and after January 1, 2022, when the owner or operator of a community water supply replaces a water main, the community water supply shall identify all lead service lines connected to the water main and shall replace the lead service lines by:

(1) identifying the material or materials of each lead service line connected to the water main, including, but not limited to, any portion of the service line (i) running on private property and (ii) within the building plumbing at the first shut-off valve or 18 inches inside the building, whichever is shorter;

(2) in conjunction with replacement of the water main, replacing any and all portions of each lead service line connected to the water main that are composed of lead; and

(3) if a property owner or customer refuses to grant access to the property, following prescribed notice provisions as outlined in subsection (ff).

If an owner of a potentially affected building intends to replace a portion of a lead service line or a galvanized service line and the galvanized service line is or was connected downstream to lead piping, then the owner of the potentially affected building shall provide the owner or operator of the community water supply with notice at least 45 days before commencing the work. In the case of an emergency repair, the owner of the potentially affected building must provide filters for each kitchen area that are certified by an accredited third-party certification body to NSF/ANSI 53 and NSF/ANSI 42 for the reduction of lead and particulate. If the owner of the potentially affected building notifies the owner or operator of the community water supply that replacement of a portion of the lead service line after the emergency repair is completed, then the owner or operator of the community water supply shall replace the remainder of the lead service line within 30 days after completion of the emergency repair. A community water supply may take up to 120 days if necessary due to weather conditions. If a replacement takes longer than 30 days, filters provided by the owner of the potentially affected building must be replaced in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations. Partial lead service line replacements by the owners of potentially affected buildings are otherwise prohibited.

(hh) For municipalities with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants, the requirements of subsection (gg) shall commence on January 1, 2023.

(ii) At least 45 days before conducting planned lead service line replacement, the owner or operator of a community water supply shall, by mail, attempt to contact the owner of the potentially affected building serviced by the lead service line to request access to the building and permission to replace the lead service line in accordance with the lead service line replacement plan. If the owner of the potentially affected building does not respond to the request within 15 days after the request is sent, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall attempt to post the request on the entrance of the potentially affected building.

If the owner or operator of a community water supply is unable to obtain approval to access and replace a lead service line, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall request that the owner of the potentially affected building sign a waiver. The waiver shall be developed by the Department and should be made available in the owner's language. If the owner of the potentially affected building refuses to sign the waiver or fails to respond to the community water supply after the community water supply has complied with this subsection, then the community water supply shall notify the Department in writing within 15 working days.

(jj) When replacing a lead service line or repairing or replacing water mains with lead service lines or partial lead service lines attached to them, the owner or operator of a community water supply shall provide the owner of each potentially affected building that is serviced by the affected lead service lines or partial lead service lines, as well as the occupants of those buildings, with an individual written notice. The notice shall be delivered by mail or posted at the primary entranceway of the building. The notice must, in addition, be electronically mailed where an electronic mailing address is known or can be reasonably obtained. Written notice shall include, at a minimum, the following:

(1) a warning that the work may result in sediment, possibly containing lead from the service line, in the building's water;

(2) information concerning the best practices for preventing exposure to or risk of consumption of lead in drinking water, including a recommendation to flush water lines during and after the completion of the repair or replacement work and to clean faucet aerator screens; and

(3) information regarding the dangers of lead exposure to young children and pregnant women.

When the individual written notice described in the first paragraph of this subsection is required as a result of planned work other than the repair or replacement of a water meter, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall provide the notice not less than 14 days before work begins. When the individual written notice described in the first paragraph of this subsection is required as a result of emergency repairs other than the repair or replacement of a water meter, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall provide the notice at the time the work is initiated. When the individual written notice described in the first paragraph of this subsection is required as a result of the repair or replacement of a water meter, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall provide the notice at the time the work is initiated.

The notifications required under this subsection must contain the following statement in Spanish, Polish, Chinese, Tagalog, Arabic, Korean, German, Urdu, and Gujarati: "This notice contains important information about your water service and may affect your rights. We encourage you to have this notice translated in full into a language you understand and before you make any decisions that may be required under this notice."

An owner or operator of a community water supply that is required under this subsection to provide an individual written notice to the owner and occupant of a potentially affected building that is a multi-dwelling building may satisfy that requirement and the requirements of this subsection regarding notification to non-English speaking customers by posting the required notice on the primary entranceway of the building and at the location where the occupant's mail is delivered as reasonably as possible.

When this subsection would require the owner or operator of a community water supply to provide an individual written notice to the entire community served by the community water supply or would require the owner or operator of a community water supply to provide individual written notices as a result of emergency repairs or when the community water supply that is required to comply with this subsection is a small system, the owner or operator of the community water supply may provide the required notice through local media outlets, social media, or other similar means in lieu of providing the individual written notices otherwise required under this subsection.

No notifications are required under this subsection for work performed on water mains that are used to transmit treated water between community water supplies and properties that have no service connections.

(kk) No community water supply that sells water to any wholesale or retail consecutive community water supply may pass on any costs associated with compliance with this Section to consecutive systems.

(ll) To the extent allowed by law, when a community water supply replaces or installs a lead service line in a public right-of-way or enters into an agreement with a private contractor for replacement or installation of a lead service line, the community water supply shall be held harmless for all damage to property when replacing or installing the lead service line. If dangers are encountered that prevent the replacement of the lead service line, the community water supply shall notify the Department within 15 working days of why the replacement of the lead service line could not be accomplished.

(mm) The Agency may propose to the Board, and the Board may adopt, any rules necessary to implement and administer this Section. The Department may adopt rules necessary to address lead service lines attached to non-community water supplies.

(nn) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, no requirement in this Section shall be construed as being less stringent than existing applicable federal requirements.

(oo) All lead service line replacements financed in whole or in part with funds obtained under this Section shall be considered public works for purposes of the Prevailing Wage Act.

(pp) Beginning in 2023, each municipality with a population of more than 1,000,000 inhabitants shall publicly post on its website data describing progress the municipality has made toward replacing lead service lines within the municipality. The data required to be posted under this subsection shall be the same information required to be reported under paragraphs (1) through (4) of subsection (t-5) of this Section. Beginning in 2024, each municipality that is subject to this subsection shall annually update the data posted on its website under this subsection. A municipality's duty to post data under this subsection terminates only when all lead service lines within the municipality have been replaced. Nothing in this subsection (pp) shall be construed to replace, undermine, conflict with, or otherwise amend the responsibilities and requirements set forth in subsection (t-5) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-613, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-167, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.15)

Sec. 22.15. Solid Waste Management Fund; fees.

(a) There is hereby created within the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Solid Waste Management Fund, to be constituted from the fees collected by the State pursuant to this Section, from repayments of loans made from the Fund for solid waste projects, from registration fees collected pursuant to the Consumer Electronics Recycling Act, from fees collected under the Paint Stewardship Act, and from amounts transferred into the Fund pursuant to Public Act 100-433. Moneys received by either the Agency or the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in repayment of loans made pursuant to the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(b) The Agency shall assess and collect a fee in the amount set forth herein from the owner or operator of each sanitary landfill permitted or required to be permitted by the Agency to dispose of solid waste if the sanitary landfill is located off the site where such waste was produced and if such sanitary landfill is owned, controlled, and operated by a person other than the generator of such waste. The Agency shall deposit all fees collected into the Solid Waste Management Fund. If a site is contiguous to one or more landfills owned or operated by the same person, the volumes permanently disposed of by each landfill shall be combined for purposes of determining the fee under this subsection. Beginning on July 1, 2018, and on the first day of each month thereafter during fiscal years 2019 through 2024, the State Comptroller shall direct and State Treasurer shall transfer an amount equal to 1/12 of $5,000,000 per fiscal year from the Solid Waste Management Fund to the General Revenue Fund.

(1) If more than 150,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall either pay a fee of 95 cents per cubic yard or, alternatively, the owner or operator may weigh the quantity of the solid waste permanently disposed of with a device for which certification has been obtained under the Weights and Measures Act and pay a fee of $2.00 per ton of solid waste permanently disposed of. In no case shall the fee collected or paid by the owner or operator under this paragraph exceed $1.55 per cubic yard or $3.27 per ton.

(2) If more than 100,000 cubic yards but not more than 150,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $52,630.

(3) If more than 50,000 cubic yards but not more than 100,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $23,790.

(4) If more than 10,000 cubic yards but not more than 50,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $7,260.

(5) If not more than 10,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $1050.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Agency shall establish rules relating to the collection of the fees authorized by this Section. Such rules shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) necessary records identifying the quantities of solid waste received or disposed;

(2) the form and submission of reports to accompany the payment of fees to the Agency;

(3) the time and manner of payment of fees to the Agency, which payments shall not be more often than quarterly; and

(4) procedures setting forth criteria establishing when an owner or operator may measure by weight or volume during any given quarter or other fee payment period.

(e) Pursuant to appropriation, all monies in the Solid Waste Management Fund shall be used by the Agency for the purposes set forth in this Section and in the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act, including for the costs of fee collection and administration, for administration of the Paint Stewardship Act, and for the administration of the Consumer Electronics Recycling Act, the Drug Take-Back Act, and the Statewide Recycling Needs Assessment Act.

(f) The Agency is authorized to enter into such agreements and to promulgate such rules as are necessary to carry out its duties under this Section and the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act.

(g) On the first day of January, April, July, and October of each year, beginning on July 1, 1996, the State Comptroller and Treasurer shall transfer $500,000 from the Solid Waste Management Fund to the Hazardous Waste Fund. Moneys transferred under this subsection (g) shall be used only for the purposes set forth in item (1) of subsection (d) of Section 22.2.

(h) The Agency is authorized to provide financial assistance to units of local government for the performance of inspecting, investigating, and enforcement activities pursuant to subsection (r) of Section 4 at nonhazardous solid waste disposal sites.

(i) The Agency is authorized to conduct household waste collection and disposal programs.

(j) A unit of local government, as defined in the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, in which a solid waste disposal facility is located may establish a fee, tax, or surcharge with regard to the permanent disposal of solid waste. All fees, taxes, and surcharges collected under this subsection shall be utilized for solid waste management purposes, including long-term monitoring and maintenance of landfills, planning, implementation, inspection, enforcement and other activities consistent with the Solid Waste Management Act and the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, or for any other environment-related purpose, including, but not limited to, an environment-related public works project, but not for the construction of a new pollution control facility other than a household hazardous waste facility. However, the total fee, tax or surcharge imposed by all units of local government under this subsection (j) upon the solid waste disposal facility shall not exceed:

(1) 60¢ per cubic yard if more than 150,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year, unless the owner or operator weighs the quantity of the solid waste received with a device for which certification has been obtained under the Weights and Measures Act, in which case the fee shall not exceed $1.27 per ton of solid waste permanently disposed of.

(2) $33,350 if more than 100,000 cubic yards, but not more than 150,000 cubic yards, of non-hazardous waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

(3) $15,500 if more than 50,000 cubic yards, but not more than 100,000 cubic yards, of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

(4) $4,650 if more than 10,000 cubic yards, but not more than 50,000 cubic yards, of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

(5) $650 if not more than 10,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

The corporate authorities of the unit of local government may use proceeds from the fee, tax, or surcharge to reimburse a highway commissioner whose road district lies wholly or partially within the corporate limits of the unit of local government for expenses incurred in the removal of nonhazardous, nonfluid municipal waste that has been dumped on public property in violation of a State law or local ordinance.

For the disposal of solid waste from general construction or demolition debris recovery facilities as defined in subsection (a-1) of Section 3.160, the total fee, tax, or surcharge imposed by all units of local government under this subsection (j) upon the solid waste disposal facility shall not exceed 50% of the applicable amount set forth above. A unit of local government, as defined in the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, in which a general construction or demolition debris recovery facility is located may establish a fee, tax, or surcharge on the general construction or demolition debris recovery facility with regard to the permanent disposal of solid waste by the general construction or demolition debris recovery facility at a solid waste disposal facility, provided that such fee, tax, or surcharge shall not exceed 50% of the applicable amount set forth above, based on the total amount of solid waste transported from the general construction or demolition debris recovery facility for disposal at solid waste disposal facilities, and the unit of local government and fee shall be subject to all other requirements of this subsection (j).

A county or Municipal Joint Action Agency that imposes a fee, tax, or surcharge under this subsection may use the proceeds thereof to reimburse a municipality that lies wholly or partially within its boundaries for expenses incurred in the removal of nonhazardous, nonfluid municipal waste that has been dumped on public property in violation of a State law or local ordinance.

If the fees are to be used to conduct a local sanitary landfill inspection or enforcement program, the unit of local government must enter into a written delegation agreement with the Agency pursuant to subsection (r) of Section 4. The unit of local government and the Agency shall enter into such a written delegation agreement within 60 days after the establishment of such fees. At least annually, the Agency shall conduct an audit of the expenditures made by units of local government from the funds granted by the Agency to the units of local government for purposes of local sanitary landfill inspection and enforcement programs, to ensure that the funds have been expended for the prescribed purposes under the grant.

The fees, taxes or surcharges collected under this subsection (j) shall be placed by the unit of local government in a separate fund, and the interest received on the moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. The monies in the fund may be accumulated over a period of years to be expended in accordance with this subsection.

A unit of local government, as defined in the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, shall prepare and post on its website, in April of each year, a report that details spending plans for monies collected in accordance with this subsection. The report will at a minimum include the following:

(1) The total monies collected pursuant to this subsection.

(2) The most current balance of monies collected pursuant to this subsection.

(3) An itemized accounting of all monies expended for the previous year pursuant to this subsection.

(4) An estimation of monies to be collected for the following 3 years pursuant to this subsection.

(5) A narrative detailing the general direction and scope of future expenditures for one, 2 and 3 years.

The exemptions granted under Sections 22.16 and 22.16a, and under subsection (k) of this Section, shall be applicable to any fee, tax or surcharge imposed under this subsection (j); except that the fee, tax or surcharge authorized to be imposed under this subsection (j) may be made applicable by a unit of local government to the permanent disposal of solid waste after December 31, 1986, under any contract lawfully executed before June 1, 1986 under which more than 150,000 cubic yards (or 50,000 tons) of solid waste is to be permanently disposed of, even though the waste is exempt from the fee imposed by the State under subsection (b) of this Section pursuant to an exemption granted under Section 22.16.

(k) In accordance with the findings and purposes of the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act, beginning January 1, 1989 the fee under subsection (b) and the fee, tax or surcharge under subsection (j) shall not apply to:

(1) waste which is hazardous waste;

(2) waste which is pollution control waste;

(3) waste from recycling, reclamation or reuse processes which have been approved by the Agency as being designed to remove any contaminant from wastes so as to render such wastes reusable, provided that the process renders at least 50% of the waste reusable; the exemption set forth in this paragraph (3) of this subsection (k) shall not apply to general construction or demolition debris recovery facilities as defined in subsection (a-1) of Section 3.160;

(4) non-hazardous solid waste that is received at a sanitary landfill and composted or recycled through a process permitted by the Agency; or

(5) any landfill which is permitted by the Agency to receive only demolition or construction debris or landscape waste.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-310, eff. 8-6-21; 102-444, eff. 8-20-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1055, eff. 6-10-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-383, eff. 7-28-23; revised 12-15-23.)

(415 ILCS 5/31) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1031)

Sec. 31. Notice; complaint; hearing.

(a)(1) Within 180 days after becoming aware of an alleged violation of this the Act, any rule adopted under this the Act, a permit granted by the Agency, or a condition of such a permit, the Agency shall issue and serve, by certified mail, upon the person complained against a written notice informing that person that the Agency has evidence of the alleged violation. At a minimum, the written notice shall contain:

(A) a notification to the person complained against of the requirement to submit a written response addressing the violations alleged and the option to meet with appropriate agency personnel to resolve any alleged violations that could lead to the filing of a formal complaint;

(B) a detailed explanation by the Agency of the violations alleged;

(C) an explanation by the Agency of the actions that the Agency believes may resolve the alleged violations, including an estimate of a reasonable time period for the person complained against to complete the suggested resolution; and

(D) an explanation of any alleged violation that the Agency believes cannot be resolved without the involvement of the Office of the Illinois Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the alleged violation occurred and the basis for the Agency's belief.

(2) A written response to the violations alleged shall be submitted to the Agency, by certified mail, within 45 days after receipt of notice by the person complained against, or within an extended time period as agreed to by the Agency and person complained against. The written response shall include:

(A) information in rebuttal, explanation, or justification of each alleged violation;

(B) if the person complained against desires to enter into a Compliance Commitment Agreement, proposed terms for a Compliance Commitment Agreement that includes specified times for achieving each commitment and which may consist of a statement indicating that the person complained against believes that compliance has been achieved; and

(C) a request for a meeting with appropriate Agency personnel if a meeting is desired by the person complained against.

(3) If the person complained against fails to respond in accordance with the requirements of subdivision (2) of this subsection (a), the failure to respond shall be considered a waiver of the requirements of this subsection (a) and nothing in this Section shall preclude the Agency from proceeding pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section.

(4) A meeting requested pursuant to subdivision (2) of this subsection (a) shall be held without a representative of the Office of the Illinois Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the alleged violation occurred, within 60 days after receipt of notice by the person complained against, or within an extended time period as agreed to by the Agency and person complained against. At the meeting, the Agency shall provide an opportunity for the person complained against to respond to each alleged violation, suggested resolution, and suggested implementation time frame, and to suggest alternate resolutions.

(5) If a meeting requested pursuant to subdivision (2) of this subsection (a) is held, the person complained against shall, within 21 days following the meeting or within an extended time period as agreed to by the Agency and person complained against, submit by certified mail to the Agency a written response to the alleged violations. The written response shall include:

(A) additional information in rebuttal, explanation, or justification of each alleged violation;

(B) if the person complained against desires to enter into a Compliance Commitment Agreement, proposed terms for a Compliance Commitment Agreement that includes specified times for achieving each commitment and which may consist of a statement indicating that the person complained against believes that compliance has been achieved; and

(C) a statement indicating that, should the person complained against so wish, the person complained against chooses to rely upon the initial written response submitted pursuant to subdivision (2) of this subsection (a).

(6) If the person complained against fails to respond in accordance with the requirements of subdivision (5) of this subsection (a), the failure to respond shall be considered a waiver of the requirements of this subsection (a) and nothing in this Section shall preclude the Agency from proceeding pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section.

(7) Within 30 days after the Agency's receipt of a written response submitted by the person complained against pursuant to subdivision (2) of this subsection (a) if a meeting is not requested or pursuant to subdivision (5) of this subsection (a) if a meeting is held, or within a later time period as agreed to by the Agency and the person complained against, the Agency shall issue and serve, by certified mail, upon the person complained against (i) a proposed Compliance Commitment Agreement or (ii) a notice that one or more violations cannot be resolved without the involvement of the Office of the Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the alleged violation occurred and that no proposed Compliance Commitment Agreement will be issued by the Agency for those violations. The Agency shall include terms and conditions in the proposed Compliance Commitment Agreement that are, in its discretion, necessary to bring the person complained against into compliance with the Act, any rule adopted under the Act, any permit granted by the Agency, or any condition of such a permit. The Agency shall take into consideration the proposed terms for the proposed Compliance Commitment Agreement that were provided under subdivision (a)(2)(B) or (a)(5)(B) of this Section by the person complained against.

(7.5) Within 30 days after the receipt of the Agency's proposed Compliance Commitment Agreement by the person complained against, or within a later time period not to exceed an additional 30 days as agreed to by the Agency and the person complained against, the person shall either (i) agree to and sign the proposed Compliance Commitment Agreement provided by the Agency and submit the signed Compliance Commitment Agreement to the Agency by certified mail or (ii) notify the Agency in writing by certified mail of the person's rejection of the proposed Compliance Commitment Agreement. If the person complained against fails to respond to the proposed Compliance Commitment Agreement within 30 days as required under this paragraph, the proposed Compliance Commitment Agreement is deemed rejected by operation of law. Any Compliance Commitment Agreement entered into under item (i) of this paragraph may be amended subsequently in writing by mutual agreement between the Agency and the signatory to the Compliance Commitment Agreement, the signatory's legal representative, or the signatory's agent.

(7.6) No person shall violate the terms or conditions of a Compliance Commitment Agreement entered into under subdivision (a)(7.5) of this Section. Successful completion of a Compliance Commitment Agreement or an amended Compliance Commitment Agreement shall be a factor to be weighed, in favor of the person completing the Agreement, by the Office of the Illinois Attorney General in determining whether to file a complaint for the violations that were the subject of the Agreement.

(7.7) Within 30 days after a Compliance Commitment Agreement takes effect or is amended in accordance with paragraph (7.5), the Agency shall publish a copy of the final executed Compliance Commitment Agreement on the Agency's website. The Agency shall maintain an Internet database of all Compliance Commitment Agreements entered on or after August 24, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1080) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly. At a minimum, the database shall be searchable by the following categories: the county in which the facility that is subject to the Compliance Commitment Agreement is located; the date of final execution of the Compliance Commitment Agreement; the name of the respondent; and the media involved, including air, water, land, or public water supply.

(8) Nothing in this subsection (a) is intended to require the Agency to enter into Compliance Commitment Agreements for any alleged violation that the Agency believes cannot be resolved without the involvement of the Office of the Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the alleged violation occurred, for, among other purposes, the imposition of statutory penalties.

(9) The Agency's failure to respond within 30 days of receipt to a written response submitted pursuant to subdivision (2) of this subsection (a) if a meeting is not requested or pursuant to subdivision (5) of this subsection (a) if a meeting is held, or within the time period otherwise agreed to in writing by the Agency and the person complained against, shall be deemed an acceptance by the Agency of the proposed terms of the Compliance Commitment Agreement for the violations alleged in the written notice issued under subdivision (1) of this subsection (a) as contained within the written response.

(10) If the person complained against complies with the terms of a Compliance Commitment Agreement accepted pursuant to this subsection (a), the Agency shall not refer the alleged violations which are the subject of the Compliance Commitment Agreement to the Office of the Illinois Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the alleged violation occurred. However, nothing in this subsection is intended to preclude the Agency from continuing negotiations with the person complained against or from proceeding pursuant to the provisions of subsection (b) of this Section for alleged violations that remain the subject of disagreement between the Agency and the person complained against following fulfillment of the requirements of this subsection (a).

(11) Nothing in this subsection (a) is intended to preclude the person complained against from submitting to the Agency, by certified mail, at any time, notification that the person complained against consents to waiver of the requirements of subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.

(12) The Agency shall have the authority to adopt rules for the administration of this subsection (a) of this Section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(b) For alleged violations that remain the subject of disagreement between the Agency and the person complained against following fulfillment of the requirements of subsection (a) of this Section, and for alleged violations of the terms or conditions of a Compliance Commitment Agreement entered into under subdivision (a)(7.5) of this Section as well as the alleged violations that are the subject of the Compliance Commitment Agreement, and as a precondition to the Agency's referral or request to the Office of the Illinois Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the alleged violation occurred for legal representation regarding an alleged violation that may be addressed pursuant to subsection (c) or (d) of this Section or pursuant to Section 42 of this Act, the Agency shall issue and serve, by certified mail, upon the person complained against a written notice informing that person that the Agency intends to pursue legal action. Such notice shall notify the person complained against of the violations to be alleged and offer the person an opportunity to meet with appropriate Agency personnel in an effort to resolve any alleged violations that could lead to the filing of a formal complaint. The meeting with Agency personnel shall be held within 30 days after receipt of notice served pursuant to this subsection upon the person complained against, unless the Agency agrees to a postponement or the person notifies the Agency that he or she will not appear at a meeting within the 30-day time period. Nothing in this subsection is intended to preclude the Agency from following the provisions of subsection (c) or (d) of this Section or from requesting the legal representation of the Office of the Illinois Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the alleged violations occurred for alleged violations which remain the subject of disagreement between the Agency and the person complained against after the provisions of this subsection are fulfilled.

(c)(1) For alleged violations which remain the subject of disagreement between the Agency and the person complained against following waiver pursuant to subdivision (10) of subsection (a) of this Section or fulfillment of the requirements of subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, the Office of the Illinois Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the alleged violation occurred shall issue and serve upon the person complained against a written notice, together with a formal complaint, which shall specify the provision of the Act, rule, regulation, permit, or term or condition thereof under which such person is said to be in violation and a statement of the manner in and the extent to which such person is said to violate the Act, rule, regulation, permit, or term or condition thereof and shall require the person so complained against to answer the charges of such formal complaint at a hearing before the Board at a time not less than 21 days after the date of notice by the Board, except as provided in Section 34 of this Act. Such complaint shall be accompanied by a notification to the defendant that financing may be available, through the Illinois Environmental Facilities Financing Act, to correct such violation. A copy of such notice of such hearings shall also be sent to any person who that has complained to the Agency respecting the respondent within the six months preceding the date of the complaint, and to any person in the county in which the offending activity occurred that has requested notice of enforcement proceedings; 21 days notice of such hearings shall also be published in a newspaper of general circulation in such county. The respondent may file a written answer, and at such hearing the rules prescribed in Sections 32 and 33 of this Act shall apply. In the case of actual or threatened acts outside Illinois contributing to environmental damage in Illinois, the extraterritorial service-of-process provisions of Sections 2-208 and 2-209 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall apply.

With respect to notices served pursuant to this subsection (c)(1) that involve hazardous material or wastes in any manner, the Agency shall annually publish a list of all such notices served. The list shall include the date the investigation commenced, the date notice was sent, the date the matter was referred to the Attorney General, if applicable, and the current status of the matter.

(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection (c), whenever a complaint has been filed on behalf of the Agency or by the People of the State of Illinois, the parties may file with the Board a stipulation and proposal for settlement accompanied by a request for relief from the requirement of a hearing pursuant to subdivision (1). Unless the Board, in its discretion, concludes that a hearing will be held, the Board shall cause notice of the stipulation, proposal and request for relief to be published and sent in the same manner as is required for hearing pursuant to subdivision (1) of this subsection. The notice shall include a statement that any person may file a written demand for hearing within 21 days after receiving the notice. If any person files a timely written demand for hearing, the Board shall deny the request for relief from a hearing and shall hold a hearing in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (1).

(3) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection (c), if the Agency becomes aware of a violation of this Act arising from, or as a result of, voluntary pollution prevention activities, the Agency shall not proceed with the written notice required by subsection (a) of this Section unless:

(A) the person fails to take corrective action or eliminate the reported violation within a reasonable time; or

(B) the Agency believes that the violation poses a substantial and imminent danger to the public health or welfare or the environment. For the purposes of this item (B), "substantial and imminent danger" means a danger with a likelihood of serious or irreversible harm.

(d)(1) Any person may file with the Board a complaint, meeting the requirements of subsection (c) of this Section, against any person allegedly violating this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order. The complainant shall immediately serve a copy of such complaint upon the person or persons named therein. Unless the Board determines that such complaint is duplicative or frivolous, it shall schedule a hearing and serve written notice thereof upon the person or persons named therein, in accord with subsection (c) of this Section.

(2) Whenever a complaint has been filed by a person other than the Attorney General or the State's Attorney, the parties may file with the Board a stipulation and proposal for settlement accompanied by a request for relief from the hearing requirement of subdivision (c)(1) of this Section. Unless the Board, in its discretion, concludes that a hearing should be held, no hearing on the stipulation and proposal for settlement is required.

(e) In hearings before the Board under this Title the burden shall be on the Agency or other complainant to show either that the respondent has caused or threatened to cause air or water pollution or that the respondent has violated or threatens to violate any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation of the Board or permit or term or condition thereof. If such proof has been made, the burden shall be on the respondent to show that compliance with the Board's regulations would impose an arbitrary or unreasonable hardship.

(f) The provisions of this Section shall not apply to administrative citation actions commenced under Section 31.1 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-168, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(415 ILCS 5/58.5)

Sec. 58.5. Risk-based remediation objectives.

(a) Determination of remediation objectives. This Section establishes the procedures for determining risk-based remediation objectives.

(b) Background area remediation objectives.

(1) Except as provided in subdivisions (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this Section, remediation objectives established under this Section shall not require remediation of regulated substances to levels that are less than area background levels.

(2) In the event that the concentration of a regulated substance of concern on the site exceeds a remediation objective adopted by the Board for residential land use, the property may not be converted to residential use unless such remediation objective or an alternate risk-based remediation objective for that regulated substance of concern is first achieved.

(3) In the event that the Agency has determined in writing that the background level for a regulated substance poses an acute threat to human health or the environment at the site when considering the post-remedial action land use, the RA shall develop appropriate risk-based remediation objectives in accordance with this Section.

(c) Regulations establishing remediation objectives and methodologies for deriving remediation objectives for individual or classes of regulated substances shall be adopted by the Board in accordance with this Section and Section 58.11.

(1) The regulations shall provide for the adoption of a three-tiered process for an a RA to establish remediation objectives protective of human health and the environment based on identified risks and specific site characteristics at and around the site.

(2) The regulations shall provide procedures for using alternative tiers in developing remediation objectives for multiple regulated substances.

(3) The regulations shall provide procedures for determining area background contaminant levels.

(4) The methodologies adopted under this Section shall ensure that the following factors are taken into account in determining remediation objectives:

(A) potential risks posed by carcinogens and noncarcinogens; and

(B) the presence of multiple substances of concern and multiple exposure pathways.

(d) In developing remediation objectives under subsection (c) of this Section, the methodology proposed and adopted shall establish tiers addressing manmade and natural pathways of exposure, including, but not limited to, human ingestion, human inhalation, and groundwater protection. For carcinogens, soil and groundwater remediation objectives shall be established at exposures that represent an excess upper-bound lifetime risk of between 1 in 10,000 and 1 in 1,000,000 as appropriate for the post-remedial action use, except that remediation objectives protecting residential use shall be based on exposures that represent an excess upper-bound lifetime risk of 1 in 1,000,000. No groundwater remediation objective adopted pursuant to this Section shall be more restrictive than the applicable Class I or Class III Groundwater Quality Standard adopted by the Board. At a minimum, the objectives shall include the following:

(1) Tier I remediation objectives expressed as a table of numeric values for soil and groundwater. Such objectives may be of different values dependent on potential pathways at the site and different land uses, including residential and nonresidential uses.

(2) Tier II remediation objectives shall include the formulae and equations used to derive the Tier II objectives and input variables for use in the formulae. The RA may alter the input variables when it is demonstrated that the specific circumstances at and around the site including land uses warrant such alternate variables.

(3) Tier III remediation objectives shall include methodologies to allow for the development of site-specific risk-based remediation objectives for soil or groundwater, or both, for regulated substances. Such methodology shall allow for different remediation objectives for residential and various categories of non-residential land uses. The Board's future adoption of a methodology pursuant to this Section shall in no way preclude the use of a nationally recognized methodology to be used for the development of site-specific risk-based objectives for regulated substances under this Section. In determining Tier III remediation objectives under this subsection, all of the following factors shall be considered:

(A) The use of specific site characteristic data.

(B) The use of appropriate exposure factors for the current and currently planned future land use of the site and adjacent property and the effectiveness of engineering, institutional, or legal controls placed on the current or future use of the site.

(C) The use of appropriate statistical methodologies to establish statistically valid remediation objectives.

(D) The actual and potential impact of regulated substances to receptors.

(4) For regulated substances that have a groundwater quality standard established pursuant to the Illinois Groundwater Protection Act and rules promulgated thereunder, site specific groundwater remediation objectives may be proposed under the methodology established in subdivision (d)(3) of this Section at values greater than the groundwater quality standards.

(A) The RA proposing any site specific groundwater remediation objective at a value greater than the applicable groundwater quality standard shall demonstrate:

(i) To the extent practical, the exceedance of the groundwater quality standard has been minimized and beneficial use appropriate to the groundwater that was impacted has been returned; and

(ii) Any threat to human health or the environment has been minimized.

(B) The rules proposed by the Agency and adopted by the Board under this Section shall include criteria required for the demonstration of the suitability of groundwater objectives proposed under subdivision (b) (4) (A) of this Section.

(e) The rules proposed by the Agency and adopted by the Board under this Section shall include conditions for the establishment and duration of groundwater management zones by rule, as appropriate, at sites undergoing remedial action under this Title.

(f) Until such time as the Board adopts remediation objectives under this Section, the remediation objectives adopted by the Board under Title XVI of this Act shall apply to all environmental assessments and soil or groundwater remedial action conducted under this Title.

(Source: P.A. 91-909, eff. 7-7-00; revised 9-20-23.)

(415 ILCS 5/58.6)

Sec. 58.6. Remedial investigations and reports.

(a) Any RA who proceeds under this Title may elect to seek review and approval for any of the remediation objectives provided in Section 58.5 for any or all regulated substances of concern. The RA shall conduct investigations and remedial activities for regulated substances of concern and prepare plans and reports in accordance with this Section and rules adopted hereunder. The RA shall submit the plans and reports for review and approval in accordance with Section 58.7. All investigations, plans, and reports conducted or prepared under this Section shall be under the supervision of a Licensed Professional Engineer (LPE) or, in the case of a site investigation only, a Licensed Professional Geologist in accordance with the requirements of this Title.

(b) (1) Site investigation and Site Investigation Report.

(1) The RA shall conduct a site investigation to determine the significant physical features of the site and vicinity that may affect contaminant transport and risk to human health, safety, and the environment and to determine the nature, concentration, direction and rate of movement, and extent of the contamination at the site.

(2) The RA shall compile the results of the investigations into a Site Investigation Report. At a minimum, the reports shall include the following, as applicable:

(A) Executive summary;

(B) Site history;

(C) Site-specific sampling methods and results;

(D) Documentation of field activities, including quality assurance project plan;

(E) Interpretation of results; and

(F) Conclusions.

(c) Remediation Objectives Report.

(1) If an a RA elects to determine remediation objectives appropriate for the site using the Tier II or Tier III procedures under subsection (d) of Section 58.5, the RA shall develop such remediation objectives based on site-specific information. In support of such remediation objectives, the RA shall prepare a Remediation Objectives Report demonstrating how the site-specific objectives were calculated or otherwise determined.

(2) If an a RA elects to determine remediation objectives appropriate for the site using the area background procedures under subsection (b) of Section 58.5, the RA shall develop such remediation objectives based on site-specific literature review, sampling protocol, or appropriate statistical methods in accordance with Board rules. In support of such remediation objectives, the RA shall prepare a Remediation Objectives Report demonstrating how the area background remediation objectives were determined.

(d) Remedial Action Plan. If the approved remediation objectives for any regulated substance established under Section 58.5 are less than the levels existing at the site prior to any remedial action, the RA shall prepare a Remedial Action Plan. The Remedial Action Plan shall describe the selected remedy and evaluate its ability and effectiveness to achieve the remediation objectives approved for the site. At a minimum, the reports shall include the following, as applicable:

(1) Executive summary;

(2) Statement of remediation objectives;

(3) Remedial technologies selected;

(4) Confirmation sampling plan;

(5) Current and projected future use of the property; and

(6) Applicable preventive, engineering, and institutional controls including long-term reliability, operating, and maintenance plans, and monitoring procedures.

(e) Remedial Action Completion Report.

(1) Upon completion of the Remedial Action Plan, the RA shall prepare a Remedial Action Completion Report. The report shall demonstrate whether the remedial action was completed in accordance with the approved Remedial Action Plan and whether the remediation objectives, as well as any other requirements of the plan, have been attained.

(2) If the approved remediation objectives for the regulated substances of concern established under Section 58.5 are equal to or above the levels existing at the site prior to any remedial action, notification and documentation of such shall constitute the entire Remedial Action Completion Report for purposes of this Title.

(f) Ability to proceed. The RA may elect to prepare and submit for review and approval any and all reports or plans required under the provisions of this Section individually, following completion of each such activity; concurrently, following completion of all activities; or in any other combination. In any event, the review and approval process shall proceed in accordance with Section 58.7 and rules adopted thereunder.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall prevent an RA from implementing or conducting an interim or any other remedial measure prior to election to proceed under Section 58.6.

(h) In accordance with Section 58.11, the Agency shall propose and the Board shall adopt rules to carry out the purposes of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-735, eff. 7-25-02; revised 9-20-23.)

(415 ILCS 5/58.7)

Sec. 58.7. Review and approvals.

(a) Requirements. All plans and reports that are submitted pursuant to this Title shall be submitted for review or approval in accordance with this Section.

(b) Review and evaluation by the Agency.

(1) Except for sites excluded under subdivision (a)(2) of Section 58.1, the Agency shall, subject to available resources, agree to provide review and evaluation services for activities carried out pursuant to this Title for which the RA requested the services in writing. As a condition for providing such services, the Agency may require that the RA for a site:

(A) Conform with the procedures of this Title;

(B) Allow for or otherwise arrange site visits or other site evaluation by the Agency when so requested;

(C) Agree to perform the Remedial Action Plan as approved under this Title;

(D) Agree to pay any reasonable costs incurred and documented by the Agency in providing such services;

(E) Make an advance partial payment to the Agency for such anticipated services in the amount of $2,500; and

(F) Demonstrate, if necessary, authority to act on behalf of or in lieu of the owner or operator.

(2) Any moneys received by the State for costs incurred by the Agency in performing review or evaluation services for actions conducted pursuant to this Title shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund.

(3) An RA requesting services under subdivision (b) (1) of this Section may, at any time, notify the Agency, in writing, that Agency services previously requested are no longer wanted. Within 180 days after receipt of the notice, the Agency shall provide the RA with a final invoice for services provided until the date of such notifications.

(4) The Agency may invoice or otherwise request or demand payment from an a RA for costs incurred by the Agency in performing review or evaluation services for actions by the RA at sites only if:

(A) The Agency has incurred costs in performing response actions, other than review or evaluation services, due to the failure of the RA to take response action in accordance with a notice issued pursuant to this Act;

(B) The RA has agreed in writing to the payment of such costs;

(C) The RA has been ordered to pay such costs by the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction pursuant to this Act; or

(D) The RA has requested or has consented to Agency review or evaluation services under subdivision (b)(1) of this Section.

(5) The Agency may, subject to available resources, agree to provide review and evaluation services for response actions if there is a written agreement among parties to a legal action or if a notice to perform a response action has been issued by the Agency.

(c) Review and evaluation by a RELPEG. An A RA may elect to contract with a Licensed Professional Engineer or, in the case of a site investigation report only, a Licensed Professional Geologist, who will perform review and evaluation services on behalf of and under the direction of the Agency relative to the site activities.

(1) Prior to entering into the contract with the RELPEG, the RA shall notify the Agency of the RELPEG to be selected. The Agency and the RA shall discuss the potential terms of the contract.

(2) At a minimum, the contract with the RELPEG shall provide that the RELPEG will submit any reports directly to the Agency, will take his or her directions for work assignments from the Agency, and will perform the assigned work on behalf of the Agency.

(3) Reasonable costs incurred by the Agency shall be paid by the RA directly to the Agency in accordance with the terms of the review and evaluation services agreement entered into under subdivision (b)(1) of Section 58.7.

(4) In no event shall the RELPEG acting on behalf of the Agency be an employee of the RA or the owner or operator of the site or be an employee of any other person the RA has contracted to provide services relative to the site.

(d) Review and approval. All reviews required under this Title shall be carried out by the Agency or a RELPEG contracted by the RA pursuant to subsection (c).

(1) All review activities conducted by the Agency or a RELPEG shall be carried out in conformance with this Title and rules promulgated under Section 58.11.

(2) Subject to the limitations in subsection (c) and this subsection (d), the specific plans, reports, and activities that the Agency or a RELPEG may review include:

(A) Site Investigation Reports and related activities;

(B) Remediation Objectives Reports;

(C) Remedial Action Plans and related activities; and

(D) Remedial Action Completion Reports and related activities.

(3) Only the Agency shall have the authority to approve, disapprove, or approve with conditions a plan or report as a result of the review process including those plans and reports reviewed by a RELPEG. If the Agency disapproves a plan or report or approves a plan or report with conditions, the written notification required by subdivision (d)(4) of this Section shall contain the following information, as applicable:

(A) An explanation of the Sections of this Title that may be violated if the plan or report was approved;

(B) An explanation of the provisions of the rules promulgated under this Title that may be violated if the plan or report was approved;

(C) An explanation of the specific type of information, if any, that the Agency deems the applicant did not provide the Agency;

(D) A statement of specific reasons why the Title and regulations might not be met if the plan or report were approved; and

(E) An explanation of the reasons for conditions if conditions are required.

(4) Upon approving, disapproving, or approving with conditions a plan or report, the Agency shall notify the RA in writing of its decision. In the case of approval or approval with conditions of a Remedial Action Completion Report, the Agency shall prepare a No Further Remediation Letter that meets the requirements of Section 58.10 and send a copy of the letter to the RA.

(5) All reviews undertaken by the Agency or a RELPEG shall be completed and the decisions communicated to the RA within 60 days of the request for review or approval of a single plan or report and within 90 days after the request for review or approval of 2 or more plans or reports submitted concurrently. The RA may waive the deadline upon a request from the Agency. If the Agency disapproves or approves with conditions a plan or report or fails to issue a final decision within the applicable 60-day or 90-day period and the RA has not agreed to a waiver of the deadline, the RA may, within 35 days, file an appeal to the Board. Appeals to the Board shall be in the manner provided for the review of permit decisions in Section 40 of this Act.

(e) Standard of review. In making determinations, the following factors, and additional factors as may be adopted by the Board in accordance with Section 58.11, shall be considered by the Agency when reviewing or approving plans, reports, and related activities, or the RELPEG, when reviewing plans, reports, and related activities:

(1) Site Investigation Reports and related activities: Whether investigations have been conducted and the results compiled in accordance with the appropriate procedures and whether the interpretations and conclusions reached are supported by the information gathered. In making the determination, the following factors shall be considered:

(A) The adequacy of the description of the site and site characteristics that were used to evaluate the site;

(B) The adequacy of the investigation of potential pathways and risks to receptors identified at the site; and

(C) The appropriateness of the sampling and analysis used.

(2) Remediation Objectives Reports: Whether the remediation objectives are consistent with the requirements of the applicable method for selecting or determining remediation objectives under Section 58.5. In making the determination, the following factors shall be considered:

(A) If the objectives were based on the determination of area background levels under subsection (b) of Section 58.5, whether the review of current and historic conditions at or in the immediate vicinity of the site has been thorough and whether the site sampling and analysis has been performed in a manner resulting in accurate determinations;

(B) If the objectives were calculated on the basis of predetermined equations using site specific data, whether the calculations were accurately performed and whether the site specific data reflect actual site conditions; and

(C) If the objectives were determined using a site specific risk assessment procedure, whether the procedure used is nationally recognized and accepted, whether the calculations were accurately performed, and whether the site specific data reflect actual site conditions.

(3) Remedial Action Plans and related activities: Whether the plan will result in compliance with this Title, and rules adopted under it and attainment of the applicable remediation objectives. In making the determination, the following factors shall be considered:

(A) The likelihood that the plan will result in the attainment of the applicable remediation objectives;

(B) Whether the activities proposed are consistent with generally accepted engineering practices; and

(C) The management of risk relative to any remaining contamination, including, but not limited to, provisions for the long-term enforcement, operation, and maintenance of institutional and engineering controls, if relied on.

(4) Remedial Action Completion Reports and related activities: Whether the remedial activities have been completed in accordance with the approved Remedial Action Plan and whether the applicable remediation objectives have been attained.

(f) All plans and reports submitted for review shall include a Licensed Professional Engineer's certification that all investigations and remedial activities were carried out under his or her direction and, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, the work described in the plan or report has been completed in accordance with generally accepted engineering practices, and the information presented is accurate and complete. In the case of a site investigation report prepared or supervised by a Licensed Professional Geologist, the required certification may be made by the Licensed Professional Geologist (rather than a Licensed Professional Engineer) and based upon generally accepted principles of professional geology.

(g) In accordance with Section 58.11, the Agency shall propose and the Board shall adopt rules to carry out the purposes of this Section. At a minimum, the rules shall detail the types of services the Agency may provide in response to requests under subdivision (b)(1) of this Section and the recordkeeping it will utilize in documenting to the RA the costs incurred by the Agency in providing such services.

(h) Public participation.

(1) The Agency shall develop guidance to assist RAs RA's in the implementation of a community relations plan to address activity at sites undergoing remedial action pursuant to this Title.

(2) The RA may elect to enter into a services agreement with the Agency for Agency assistance in community outreach efforts.

(3) The Agency shall maintain a registry listing those sites undergoing remedial action pursuant to this Title.

(4) Notwithstanding any provisions of this Section, the RA of a site undergoing remedial activity pursuant to this Title may elect to initiate a community outreach effort for the site.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Title, the Agency is not required to take action on any submission under this Title from or on behalf of an RA if the RA has failed to pay all fees due pursuant to an invoice or other request or demand for payment under this Title. Any deadline for Agency action on such a submission shall be tolled until the fees due are paid in full.

(Source: P.A. 103-172, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 505. The Illinois Pesticide Act is amended by changing Section 24.1 as follows:

(415 ILCS 60/24.1) (from Ch. 5, par. 824.1)

Sec. 24.1. Administrative actions and penalties.

(1) The Director is authorized after an opportunity for an administrative hearing to suspend, revoke, or modify any license, permit, special order, registration, or certification issued under this Act. This action may be taken in addition to or in lieu of monetary penalties assessed as set forth in this Section. When it is in the interest of the people of the State of Illinois, the Director may, upon good and sufficient evidence, suspend the registration, license, or permit until a hearing has been held. In such cases, the Director shall issue an order in writing setting forth the reasons for the suspension. Such order shall be served personally on the person or by registered or certified mail sent to the person's business address as shown in the latest notification to the Department. When such an order has been issued by the Director, the person may request an immediate hearing.

(2) Before initiating hearing proceedings, the Director may issue an advisory letter to a violator of this Act or its rules and regulations when the violation points total 6 or less, as determined by the Department by the Use and Violation Criteria established in this Section. When the Department determines that the violation points total more than 6 but not more than 13, the Director shall issue a warning letter to the violator.

(3) The hearing officer upon determination of a violation or violations shall assess one or more of the following penalties:

(A) For any person applying pesticides without a license or misrepresenting certification or failing to comply with conditions of an agrichemical facility permit or failing to comply with the conditions of a written authorization for land application of agrichemical contaminated soils or groundwater, a penalty of $500 shall be assessed for the first offense and $1,000 for the second and subsequent offenses.

(B) For violations of a stop use order imposed by the Director, the penalty shall be $2500.

(C) For violations of a stop sale order imposed by the Director, the penalty shall be $1500 for each individual item of the product found in violation of the order.

(D) For selling restricted use pesticides to a non-certified applicator the penalty shall be $1000.

(E) For selling restricted use pesticides without a dealer's license the penalty shall be $1,000.

(F) For constructing or operating without an agrichemical facility permit after receiving written notification, the penalty shall be $500 for the first offense and $1,000 for the second and subsequent offenses.

(F-5) For any person found by the Department to have committed a use inconsistent with the label, as defined in subsection 40 of Section 4, that results in human exposure to a pesticide, the penalty shall be assessed in accordance with this paragraph (F-5). The Department shall impose a penalty under this paragraph (F-5) only if it represents an amount greater than the penalty assessed under paragraph subparagraph (G). The amount of the penalty under this paragraph (F-5) is calculated as follows:

(a) If fewer than 3 humans are exposed, then the penalty shall be $500 for each human exposed.

(b) If 3 or more humans but fewer than 5 humans are exposed, then the penalty shall be $750 for each human exposed.

(c) If 5 or more humans are exposed, then the penalty shall be $1,250 for each human exposed.

If a penalty is imposed under this paragraph (F-5), the Department shall redetermine the total violation points under subsection (4), less any points under subsection (4) stemming from human exposure, and impose any additional penalty under paragraph subparagraph (G) based on the new total. The reassessed total shall not affect any determination under subsection (2); any determination under subsection (2) shall be determined by the full application of points under subsection (4).

(G) For violations of the Act and rules and regulations, administrative penalties will be based upon the total violation points as determined by the Use and Violation Criteria as set forth in subsection paragraph (4) of this Section. The monetary penalties shall be as follows:

(4) Subject to paragraph (F-5), the following Use and Violation Criteria establishes the point value which shall be compiled to determine the total violation points and administrative actions or monetary penalties to be imposed as set forth in paragraph (3)(G) of this Section:

(A) Point values shall be assessed upon the harm or loss incurred.

(1) A point value of 1 shall be assessed for the following:

(a) Exposure to a pesticide by plants, animals or humans with no symptoms or damage noted.

(b) Fraudulent sales practices or representations with no apparent monetary losses involved.

(2) A point value of 2 shall be assessed for exposure the following: (a) Exposure to a pesticide which resulted in:

(a) (1) Plants or property showing signs of damage, including, but not limited to, leaf curl, burning, wilting, spotting, discoloration, or dying.

(b) (2) Garden produce or an agricultural crop not being harvested on schedule.

(c) (3) Fraudulent sales practices or representations resulting in losses under $500.

(3) A point value of 4 shall be assessed for the following:

(a) Exposure to a pesticide resulting in a human experiencing headaches, nausea, eye irritation, and such other symptoms which persisted less than 3 days.

(b) Plant or property damage resulting in a loss below $1000.

(c) Animals exhibiting symptoms of pesticide poisoning, including, but not limited to, eye or skin irritations or lack of coordination.

(d) Death to less than 5 animals.

(e) Fraudulent sales practices or representations resulting in losses from $500 to $2000.

(4) A point value of 6 shall be assessed for the following:

(a) Exposure to a pesticide resulting in a human experiencing headaches, nausea, eye irritation, and such other symptoms which persisted 3 or more days.

(b) Plant or property damage resulting in a loss of $1000 or more.

(c) Death to 5 or more animals.

(d) Fraudulent sales practices or representations resulting in losses over $2000.

(B) Point values shall be assessed based upon the signal word on the label of the chemical involved:

(C) Point values shall be assessed based upon the degree of responsibility.

(D) Point values shall be assessed based upon the violator's history for the previous 3 years:

(E) Point values shall be assessed based upon the violation type:

(1) Application Oriented:

Use contrary to label directions:

(2) Product Oriented:

(5) Any penalty not paid within 60 days of notice from the Department shall be submitted to the Attorney General's Office for collection. Failure to pay a penalty shall also be grounds for suspension or revocation of permits, licenses and registrations.

(6) Private applicators, except those private applicators who have been found by the Department to have committed a "use inconsistent with the label" as defined in subsection 40 of Section 4 of this Act, are exempt from the Use and Violation Criteria point values.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-62, eff. 6-9-23; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 510. The Electric Vehicle Rebate Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(415 ILCS 120/40)

Sec. 40. Appropriations from the Electric Vehicle Rebate Fund.

(a) The Agency shall estimate the amount of user fees expected to be collected under Section 35 of this Act for each fiscal year. User fee funds shall be deposited into and distributed from the Electric Vehicle Rebate Fund in the following manner:

(1) Through fiscal year 2023, an An annual amount not to exceed $225,000 may be appropriated to the Agency from the Electric Vehicle Rebate Fund to pay its costs of administering the programs authorized by Section 27 of this Act. Beginning in fiscal year 2024 and in each fiscal year thereafter, an annual amount not to exceed $600,000 may be appropriated to the Agency from the Electric Vehicle Rebate Fund to pay its costs of administering the programs authorized by Section 27 of this Act. An amount not to exceed $225,000 may be appropriated to the Secretary of State from the Electric Vehicle Rebate Fund to pay the Secretary of State's costs of administering the programs authorized under this Act.

(2) In fiscal year 2022 and each fiscal year thereafter, after appropriation of the amounts authorized by item (1) of subsection (a) of this Section, the remaining moneys estimated to be collected during each fiscal year shall be appropriated.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Moneys appropriated to fund the programs authorized in Sections 25 and 30 shall be expended only after they have been collected and deposited into the Electric Vehicle Rebate Fund.

(b) General Revenue Fund amounts appropriated to and deposited into the Electric Vehicle Rebate Fund shall be distributed from the Electric Vehicle Rebate Fund to fund the program authorized in Section 27.

(Source: P.A. 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-6-23.)

Section 515. The Radiation Protection Act of 1990 is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(420 ILCS 40/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 210-6)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 6. Accreditation of administrators of radiation; limited scope accreditation; rules and regulations; education.

(a) The Agency shall promulgate such rules and regulations as are necessary to establish accreditation standards and procedures, including a minimum course of education and continuing education requirements in the administration of radiation to human beings, which are appropriate to the classification of accreditation and which are to be met by all physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, nurses, technicians, or other assistants who administer radiation to human beings under the supervision of a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987. Such rules and regulations may provide for different classes of accreditation based on evidence of national certification, clinical experience or community hardship as conditions of initial and continuing accreditation. The rules and regulations of the Agency shall be consistent with national standards in regard to the protection of the health and safety of the general public.

(b) The rules and regulations shall also provide that persons who have been accredited by the Agency, in accordance with the Radiation Protection Act of 1990, without passing an examination, will remain accredited as provided in Section 43 of this Act and that those persons may be accredited, without passing an examination, to use other equipment, procedures, or supervision within the original category of accreditation if the Agency receives written assurances from a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, that the person accredited has the necessary skill and qualifications for such additional equipment procedures or supervision. The Agency shall, in accordance with subsection (c) of this Section, provide for the accreditation of nurses, technicians, or other assistants, unless exempted elsewhere in this Act, to perform a limited scope of diagnostic radiography procedures of the chest, the extremities, skull and sinuses, or the spine, while under the supervision of a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(c) The rules or regulations promulgated by the Agency pursuant to subsection (a) shall establish standards and procedures for accrediting persons to perform a limited scope of diagnostic radiography procedures. The rules or regulations shall specify that an individual seeking accreditation for limited diagnostic radiography shall not apply ionizing radiation to human beings until the individual has passed an Agency-approved examination and is accredited by the Agency.

For an individual to be accredited to perform a limited scope of diagnostic radiography procedures, he or she must pass an examination approved by the Agency. The examination shall be consistent with national standards in regard to protection of public health and safety. The examination shall consist of a standardized component covering general principles applicable to diagnostic radiography procedures and a clinical component specific to the types of procedures for which accreditation is being sought. The Agency may assess a reasonable fee for such examinations to cover any costs incurred by the Agency in conjunction with the examinations.

(d) The Agency shall by rule or regulation exempt from accreditation physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, nurses, technicians, or other assistants who administer radiation to human beings under supervision of a person licensed to practice under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 when the services are performed on employees of a business at a medical facility owned and operated by the business. Such exemption shall only apply to the equipment, procedures, and supervision specific to the medical facility owned and operated by the business.

(Source: P.A. 103-155, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 520. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-10)

Sec. 10. Appeals; hearing; relief from firearm prohibitions.

(a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied or whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may (1) file a record challenge with the Director regarding the record upon which the decision to deny or revoke the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was based under subsection (a-5); or (2) appeal to the Director of the Illinois State Police through December 31, 2022, or beginning January 1, 2023, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board for a hearing seeking relief from such denial or revocation unless the denial or revocation was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence for a hearing seeking relief from such denial or revocation.

(a-5) There is created a Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board to consider any appeal under subsection (a) beginning January 1, 2023, other than an appeal directed to the circuit court and except when the applicant is challenging the record upon which the decision to deny or revoke was based as provided in subsection (a-10).

(0.05) In furtherance of the policy of this Act that the Board shall exercise its powers and duties in an independent manner, subject to the provisions of this Act but free from the direction, control, or influence of any other agency or department of State government. All expenses and liabilities incurred by the Board in the performance of its responsibilities hereunder shall be paid from funds which shall be appropriated to the Board by the General Assembly for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Board.

(1) The Board shall consist of 7 members appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, with 3 members residing within the First Judicial District and one member residing within each of the 4 remaining Judicial Districts. No more than 4 members shall be members of the same political party. The Governor shall designate one member as the chairperson. The members shall have actual experience in law, education, social work, behavioral sciences, law enforcement, or community affairs or in a combination of those areas.

(2) The terms of the members initially appointed after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-237) shall be as follows: one of the initial members shall be appointed for a term of one year, 3 shall be appointed for terms of 2 years, and 3 shall be appointed for terms of 4 years. Thereafter, members shall hold office for 4 years, with terms expiring on the second Monday in January immediately following the expiration of their terms and every 4 years thereafter. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies in the office of member shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment, for the remainder of the unexpired term. The Governor may remove a member for incompetence, neglect of duty, malfeasance, or inability to serve. Members shall receive compensation in an amount equal to the compensation of members of the Executive Ethics Commission and, beginning July 1, 2023, shall be compensated from appropriations provided to the Comptroller for this purpose. Members may be reimbursed, from funds appropriated for such a purpose, for reasonable expenses actually incurred in the performance of their Board duties. The Illinois State Police shall designate an employee to serve as Executive Director of the Board and provide logistical and administrative assistance to the Board.

(3) The Board shall meet at least quarterly each year and at the call of the chairperson as often as necessary to consider appeals of decisions made with respect to applications for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act. If necessary to ensure the participation of a member, the Board shall allow a member to participate in a Board meeting by electronic communication. Any member participating electronically shall be deemed present for purposes of establishing a quorum and voting.

(4) The Board shall adopt rules for the review of appeals and the conduct of hearings. The Board shall maintain a record of its decisions and all materials considered in making its decisions. All Board decisions and voting records shall be kept confidential and all materials considered by the Board shall be exempt from inspection except upon order of a court.

(5) In considering an appeal, the Board shall review the materials received concerning the denial or revocation by the Illinois State Police. By a vote of at least 4 members, the Board may request additional information from the Illinois State Police or the applicant or the testimony of the Illinois State Police or the applicant. The Board may require that the applicant submit electronic fingerprints to the Illinois State Police for an updated background check if the Board determines it lacks sufficient information to determine eligibility. The Board may consider information submitted by the Illinois State Police, a law enforcement agency, or the applicant. The Board shall review each denial or revocation and determine by a majority of members whether an applicant should be granted relief under subsection (c).

(6) The Board shall by order issue summary decisions. The Board shall issue a decision within 45 days of receiving all completed appeal documents from the Illinois State Police and the applicant. However, the Board need not issue a decision within 45 days if:

(A) the Board requests information from the applicant, including, but not limited to, electronic fingerprints to be submitted to the Illinois State Police, in accordance with paragraph (5) of this subsection, in which case the Board shall make a decision within 30 days of receipt of the required information from the applicant;

(B) the applicant agrees, in writing, to allow the Board additional time to consider an appeal; or

(C) the Board notifies the applicant and the Illinois State Police that the Board needs an additional 30 days to issue a decision. The Board may only issue 2 extensions under this subparagraph (C). The Board's notification to the applicant and the Illinois State Police shall include an explanation for the extension.

(7) If the Board determines that the applicant is eligible for relief under subsection (c), the Board shall notify the applicant and the Illinois State Police that relief has been granted and the Illinois State Police shall issue the Card.

(8) Meetings of the Board shall not be subject to the Open Meetings Act and records of the Board shall not be subject to the Freedom of Information Act.

(9) The Board shall report monthly to the Governor and the General Assembly on the number of appeals received and provide details of the circumstances in which the Board has determined to deny Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under this subsection (a-5). The report shall not contain any identifying information about the applicants.

(a-10) Whenever an applicant or cardholder is not seeking relief from a firearms prohibition under subsection (c) but rather does not believe the applicant is appropriately denied or revoked and is challenging the record upon which the decision to deny or revoke the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was based, or whenever the Illinois State Police fails to act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, the applicant shall file such challenge with the Director. The Director shall render a decision within 60 business days of receipt of all information supporting the challenge. The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules for the review of a record challenge.

(b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to the petition and present evidence. At the hearing, the court shall determine whether substantial justice has been done. Should the court determine that substantial justice has not been done, the court shall issue an order directing the Illinois State Police to issue a Card. However, the court shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under federal law.

(c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board or petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition and the Board or court may grant such relief if it is established by the applicant to the court's or the Board's satisfaction that:

(0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney has been served with a written copy of the petition at least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;

(1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;

(2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction, where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;

(3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest; and

(4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal law.

(c-5) (1) An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government or a Department of Corrections employee authorized to possess firearms who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board requesting relief if the officer or employee did not act in a manner threatening to the officer or employee, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and as a result of his or her work is referred by the employer for or voluntarily seeks mental health evaluation or treatment by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or qualified examiner, and:

(A) the officer or employee has not received treatment involuntarily at a mental health facility, regardless of the length of admission; or has not been voluntarily admitted to a mental health facility for more than 30 days and not for more than one incident within the past 5 years; and

(B) the officer or employee has not left the mental institution against medical advice.

(2) The Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board shall grant expedited relief to active law enforcement officers and employees described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination by the Board that the officer's or employee's possession of a firearm does not present a threat to themselves, others, or public safety. The Board shall act on the request for relief within 30 business days of receipt of:

(A) a notarized statement from the officer or employee in the form prescribed by the Board detailing the circumstances that led to the hospitalization;

(B) all documentation regarding the admission, evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the officer;

(C) a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of the person completed after the time of discharge; and

(D) written confirmation in the form prescribed by the Board from the treating licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist that the provisions set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) have been met, the person successfully completed treatment, and their professional opinion regarding the person's ability to possess firearms.

(3) Officers and employees eligible for the expedited relief in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of proof on eligibility and must provide all information required. The Board may not consider granting expedited relief until the proof and information is received.

(4) "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", and "qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as provided in Chapter I of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(c-10) (1) An applicant, who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act based upon a determination of a developmental disability or an intellectual disability may apply to the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board requesting relief.

(2) The Board shall act on the request for relief within 60 business days of receipt of written certification, in the form prescribed by the Board, from a physician or clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, that the aggrieved party's developmental disability or intellectual disability condition is determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified to be mild. If a fact-finding conference is scheduled to obtain additional information concerning the circumstances of the denial or revocation, the 60 business days the Director has to act shall be tolled until the completion of the fact-finding conference.

(3) The Board may grant relief if the aggrieved party's developmental disability or intellectual disability is mild as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner and it is established by the applicant to the Board's satisfaction that:

(A) granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest; and

(B) granting relief would not be contrary to federal law.

(4) The Board may not grant relief if the condition is determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner to be moderate, severe, or profound.

(5) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 99-29 apply to requests for relief pending on or before July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-29), except that the 60-day period for the Director to act on requests pending before the effective date shall begin on July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-29). All appeals as provided in subsection (a-5) pending on January 1, 2023 shall be considered by the Board.

(d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court shall notify the Illinois State Police.

(e) The court shall review the denial of an application or the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants relief, the court shall notify the Illinois State Police that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18 U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred under the laws of this State or who was determined to be subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Illinois State Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Board shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this determination, the Board shall receive evidence concerning (i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv) changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct, modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the Illinois State Police makes available to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United States Attorney General that the basis for the record being made available no longer applies. The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-645, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1115, eff. 1-9-23; 102-1129, eff. 2-10-23; revised 2-28-23.)

Section 525. The Children's Product Safety Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(430 ILCS 125/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

(a) "Children's product" means a product, including, but not limited to, a full-size crib, non-full-size crib, toddler bed, bed, car seat, chair, high chair, booster chair, hook-on chair, bath seat, gate or other enclosure for confining a child, play yard, stationary activity center, carrier, stroller, walker, swing, or toy or play equipment, that meets the following criteria:

(i) the product is designed or intended for the care of, or use by, any child under age 12; and

(ii) the product is designed or intended to come into contact with the child while the product is used.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a product is not a "children's product" for purposes of this Act if:

(I) it may be used by or for the care of a child under age 9, but it is designed or intended for use by the general population or segments of the general population and not solely or primarily for use by or the care of a child; or

(II) it is a medication, drug, or food or is intended to be ingested.

(b) "Commercial dealer" means any person who deals in children's products or who otherwise by one's occupation holds oneself out as having knowledge or skill peculiar to children's products, or any person who is in the business of remanufacturing, retrofitting, selling, leasing, subletting, or otherwise placing in the stream of commerce children's products.

(b-5) "Manufacturer" means any person who makes and places into the stream of commerce a children's product as defined by this Act.

(b-10) "Importer" means any person who brings into this country and places into the stream of commerce a children's product.

(b-15) "Distributor" and "wholesaler" means any person, other than a manufacturer or retailer, who sells or resells or otherwise places into the stream of commerce a children's product.

(b-20) "Retailer" means any person other than a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler who sells, leases, or sublets children's products.

(b-25) "First seller" means any retailer selling a children's product that has not been used or has not previously been owned. A first seller does not include an entity such as a second-hand or resale store.

(c) "Person" means a natural person, firm, corporation, limited liability company, or association, or an employee or agent of a natural person or an entity included in this definition.

(d) "Infant" means any person less than 35 inches tall and less than 3 years of age.

(e) "Crib" means a bed or containment designed to accommodate an infant.

(f) "Full-size crib" means a full-size crib as defined in Section 1508.3 of Title 16 of the Code of Federal Regulations regarding the requirements for full-size cribs.

(g) "Non-full-size crib" means a non-full-size crib as defined in Section 1509.2 of Title 16 of the Code of Federal Regulations regarding the requirements for non-full-size cribs.

(h) "End consumer" means a person who purchases a children's product for any purpose other than resale.

(Source: P.A. 103-44, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 530. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Sections 2.36, 2.37, and 3.5 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.36) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.36)

Sec. 2.36. It shall be unlawful to buy, sell, or barter, or offer to buy, sell, or barter, and for a commercial institution, other than a regularly operated refrigerated storage establishment, to have in its possession any of the wild birds, or any part thereof (and their eggs), or wild mammals or any parts thereof, protected by this Act unless done as hereinafter provided:

Game birds or any parts thereof (and their eggs), may be held, possessed, raised and sold, or otherwise dealt with, as provided in Section 3.23 of this Act or when legally produced under similar special permit in another state or country and legally transported into the State of Illinois; provided that such imported game birds or any parts thereof, shall be marked with permanent irremovable tags, or similar devices, to establish and retain their origin and identity;

Rabbits may be legally taken and possessed as provided in Sections 3.23, 3.24, and 3.26 of this Act;

Deer, or any parts thereof, may be held, possessed, sold or otherwise dealt with as provided in this Section and Sections 3.23 and 3.24 of this Act;

If a properly tagged deer is processed at a licensed meat processing facility, the meat processor at the facility is an active member of the Illinois Sportsmen Against Hunger program, and the owner of the deer (i) fails to claim the processed deer within a reasonable time or (ii) notifies the licensed meat processing facility that the owner no longer wants the processed deer, then the deer meat may be given away by the licensed meat processor to another person or donated to any other charitable organization or community food bank that receives wild game meat. The licensed meat processing facility may charge the person receiving the deer meat a reasonable and customary processing fee;

Meat processors who are active members of the Illinois Sportsmen Against Hunger program shall keep written records of all deer received. Records shall include the following information:

(1) the date the deer was received;

(2) the name, address, and telephone number of the person from whom the deer was received;

(3) whether the deer was received as a whole carcass or as deboned meat; if the deer was brought to the meat processor as deboned meat, the processor shall include the weight of the meat;

(4) the number and state of issuance of the permit of the person from whom the deer was received; in the absence of a permit number, the meat processor may rely on the written certification of the person from whom the deer was received that the deer was legally taken or obtained; and

(5) if the person who originally delivered the deer to the meat processor fails to collect or make arrangements for the packaged deer meat to be collected and the meat processor gives all or part of the unclaimed deer meat to another person, the meat processor shall maintain a record of the exchange; the meat processor's records shall include the customer's name, physical address, telephone number, as well as the quantity and type of deer meat given to the customer. The meat processor shall also include the amount of compensation received for the deer meat in his or her records.

Meat processor records for unclaimed deer meat shall be open for inspection by any peace officer at any reasonable hour. Meat processors shall maintain records for a period of 2 years after the date of receipt of the wild game or for as long as the specimen or meat remains in the meat processors possession, whichever is longer;

No meat processor shall have in his or her possession any deer that is not listed in his or her written records and properly tagged or labeled;

All licensed meat processors who ship any deer or parts of deer that have been held, possessed, or otherwise dealt with shall tag or label the shipment, and the tag or label shall state the name of the meat processor;

Nothing in this Section removes meat processors from responsibility for the observance of any State or federal laws, rules, or regulations that may apply to the meat processing business;

Fur-bearing mammals, or any parts thereof, may be held, possessed, sold or otherwise dealt with as provided in Sections 3.16, 3.24, and 3.26 of this Act or when legally taken and possessed in Illinois or legally taken and possessed in and transported from other states or countries;

It is unlawful for any person to act as a nuisance wildlife control operator for fee or compensation without a permit as provided in subsection subsection (b) of Section 2.37 of this Act unless such trapping is in compliance with Section 2.30.

The inedible parts of game mammals may be held, possessed, sold, or otherwise dealt with when legally taken, in Illinois or legally taken and possessed in and transported from other states or countries.

Failure to establish proof of the legality of possession in another state or country and importation into the State of Illinois, shall be prima facie evidence that such game birds or any parts thereof, and their eggs, game mammals and fur-bearing mammals, or any parts thereof, were taken within the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 103-37, eff. 6-9-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(520 ILCS 5/2.37) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.37)

Sec. 2.37. Authority to kill wildlife responsible for damage.

(a) Subject to federal regulations and Section 3 of the Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act, the Department may authorize owners and tenants of lands or their agents, who are performing the service without fee or compensation, to remove or destroy any wild bird or wild mammal when the wild bird or wild mammal is known to be destroying property or causing a risk to human health or safety upon his or her land.

Upon receipt by the Department of information from the owner, tenant, or sharecropper that any one or more species of wildlife is damaging dams, levees, ditches, cattle pastures, or other property on the land on which he resides or controls, together with a statement regarding location of the property damages, the nature and extent of the damage, and the particular species of wildlife committing the damage, the Department shall make an investigation.

If, after investigation, the Department finds that damage does exist and can be abated only by removing or destroying that wildlife, a permit shall be issued by the Department to remove or destroy the species responsible for causing the damage.

A permit to control the damage shall be for a period of up to 90 days, shall specify the means and methods by which and the person or persons by whom the wildlife may be removed or destroyed, without fee or compensation, and shall set forth the disposition procedure to be made of all wildlife taken and other restrictions the Director considers necessary and appropriate in the circumstances of the particular case. Whenever possible, the specimens destroyed shall be given to a bona fide bona-fide public or State scientific, educational, or zoological institution.

The permittee shall advise the Department in writing, within 10 days after the expiration date of the permit, of the number of individual species of wildlife taken, disposition made of them, and any other information which the Department may consider necessary.

(b) Subject to federal regulations and Section 3 of the Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act, the Department may grant the authority to control species protected by this Code pursuant to the issuance of a Nuisance Wildlife Control Permit to:

(1) any person who is providing such service for a fee or compensation;

(2) a governmental body; or

(3) a nonprofit or other charitable organization.

The Department shall set forth applicable regulations in an Administrative Order and may require periodic reports listing species taken, numbers of each species taken, dates when taken, and other pertinent information.

Any person operating under a Nuisance Wildlife Control Permit who subcontracts the operation of nuisance wildlife control to another shall ensure that such subcontractor possesses a valid Nuisance Wildlife Control Permit issued by the Department. The person must maintain a record of the subcontractor including the subcontractor's name, address, and phone number, and type of work to be performed, for a period of not less than 2 years from the date the subcontractor is no longer performing services on behalf of the person. The records shall be presented to an authorized employee of the Department or law enforcement officer upon request for inspection.

Any person operating without the required permit as outlined under this subsection (b) or in violation of this subsection (b) is deemed to be taking, attempting to take, disturbing, or harassing wildlife contrary to the provisions of this Code, including the taking or attempting to take such species for commercial purposes as outlined in Sections 2.36 and 2.36a of this Code. Any devices and equipment, including vehicles, used in violation of this subsection (b) may be subject to the provisions of Section 1.25 of this Code.

(c) Except when operating under subsection (b) of this Section, drainage districts district fur trapping unless otherwise instructed by the Department district This authority only extends to control of beavers. Any other protected species must be controlled pursuant to subsection (b) or (c).

(c) The location of traps or snares authorized under this Section, either by the Department or any other governmental body with the authority to control species protected by this Code, shall be exempt from the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act.

(d) A drainage district or road district or the designee of a drainage district or road district shall be exempt from the requirement to obtain a permit to control nuisance muskrats or beavers if all applicable provisions for licenses are complied with and any trap types and sizes used are in compliance with this Code Act, including marking or identification. The designee of a drainage district or road district must have a signed and dated written authorization from the drainage district or road district in possession at all times when conducting activities under this Section. This exemption from obtaining a permit shall be valid only upon property owned, leased, or controlled by the drainage district or road district. For the purposes of this Section, "road district" includes a township road district.

(Source: P.A. 102-524, eff. 8-20-21; 103-37, eff. 6-9-23; 103-225, eff. 6-30-23; revised 8-28-23.)

(520 ILCS 5/3.5) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.5)

Sec. 3.5. Penalties; probation.

(a) Any person who violates any of the provisions of Section 2.36a, including administrative rules, shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony, except as otherwise provided in subsection (b) of this Section and subsection (a) of Section 2.36a.

(b) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of, or placed on probation or court supervision for, any offense under Section 1.22, 2.36, or 2.36a, operating without a permit as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 2.37, or an offense under subsection (i) or (cc) of Section 2.33, the court may, without entering a judgment and with the person's consent, sentence the person to probation for a violation of Section 2.36a.

(1) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.

(2) The conditions of probation shall be that the person:

(A) Not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction.

(B) Perform no less than 30 hours of community service, provided community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board.

(3) The court may, in addition to other conditions:

(A) Require that the person make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of probation.

(B) Require that the person pay a fine and costs.

(C) Require that the person refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon.

(D) Prohibit the person from associating with any person who is actively engaged in any of the activities regulated by the permits issued or privileges granted by the Department of Natural Resources.

(4) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided.

(5) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against the person.

(6) A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation, for appeal, and for administrative revocation and suspension of licenses and privileges; however, discharge and dismissal under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime.

(7) Discharge and dismissal under this Section may occur only once with respect to any person.

(8) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as a factor in aggravation.

(9) The Circuit Clerk shall notify the Illinois State Police of all persons convicted of or placed under probation for violations of Section 2.36a.

(c) Any person who violates any of the provisions of Sections 2.9, 2.11, 2.16, 2.18, 2.24, 2.25, 2.26, 2.29, 2.30, 2.31, 2.32, 2.33 (except subsections (g), (i), (o), (p), (y), and (cc)), 2.33-1, 2.33a, 3.3, 3.4, 3.11 through 3.16, 3.19, 3.20, 3.21 (except subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (f.5), (g), (h), and (i)), 3.24, 3.25, and 3.26 (except subsection (f)), including administrative rules, shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

A person who violates Section 2.33b by using any computer software or service to remotely control a weapon that takes wildlife by remote operation is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. A person who violates Section 2.33b by facilitating a violation of Section 2.33b, including an owner of land in which remote control hunting occurs, a computer programmer who designs a program or software to facilitate remote control hunting, or a person who provides weapons or equipment to facilitate remote control hunting, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of Sections 1.22, 2.2a, 2.3, 2.4, 2.36, and 2.38, including administrative rules, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. Any second or subsequent violations of Sections 2.4 and 2.36 shall be a Class 4 felony.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of this Act, including administrative rules, during such period when his license, privileges, or permit is revoked or denied by virtue of Section 3.36, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Any person who violates subsection (g), (i), (o), (p), (y), or (cc) of Section 2.33 shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and subject to a fine of no less than $500 and no more than $5,000 in addition to other statutory penalties. In addition, the Department shall suspend the privileges, under this Act, of any person found guilty of violating subsection (cc) of Section 2.33(cc) for a period of not less than one year.

Any person who operates without a permit in violation of subsection (b) of Section 2.37 is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and subject to a fine of not less than $500. Any other violation of subsection (b) of Section 2.37, including administrative rules, is a Class B misdemeanor.

Any person who violates any other of the provisions of this Act including administrative rules, unless otherwise stated, shall be guilty of a petty offense. Offenses committed by minors under the direct control or with the consent of a parent or guardian may subject the parent or guardian to the penalties prescribed in this Section.

In addition to any fines imposed pursuant to the provisions of this Section or as otherwise provided in this Act, any person found guilty of unlawfully taking or possessing any species protected by this Act, shall be assessed a civil penalty for such species in accordance with the values prescribed in Section 2.36a of this Act. This civil penalty shall be imposed by the Circuit Court for the county within which the offense was committed at the time of the conviction. Any person found guilty of violating subsection (b) of Section 2.37 is subject to an additional civil penalty of up to $1,500. All penalties provided for in this Section shall be remitted to the Department in accordance with the same provisions provided for in Section 1.18 of this Act, except that civil penalties collected for violation of subsection Subsection (b) of Section 2.37 shall be remitted to the Department and allocated as follows:

(1) 60% to the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund; and

(2) 40% to the Illinois Habitat Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-37, eff. 6-9-23; revised 9-26-23.)

Section 535. The Illinois Highway Code is amended by changing Section 6-901 as follows:

(605 ILCS 5/6-901) (from Ch. 121, par. 6-901)

Sec. 6-901. Annually, the General Assembly shall appropriate to the Department of Transportation from the Road Fund road fund, the General Revenue Fund general revenue fund, any other State funds, or a combination of those funds, $60,000,000 for apportionment to counties for the use of road districts for the construction of bridges 20 feet or more in length, as provided in Sections 6-902 through 6-905.

The Department of Transportation shall apportion among the several counties of this State for the use of road districts the amounts appropriated under this Section. The amount apportioned to a county shall be in the proportion which the total mileage of township or district roads in the county bears to the total mileage of all township and district roads in the State. Each county shall allocate to the several road districts in the county the funds so apportioned to the county. The allocation to road districts shall be made in the same manner and be subject to the same conditions and qualifications as are provided by Section 8 of the "Motor Fuel Tax Law", approved March 25, 1929, as amended, with respect to the allocation to road districts of the amount allotted from the Motor Fuel Tax Fund for apportionment to counties for the use of road districts, but no allocation shall be made to any road district that has not levied taxes for road and bridge purposes and for bridge construction purposes at the maximum rates permitted by Sections 6-501, 6-508, and 6-512 of this Act, without referendum. "Road district" and "township or district road" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in this Act.

Road districts in counties in which a property tax extension limitation is imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law that are made ineligible for receipt of this appropriation due to the imposition of a property tax extension limitation may become eligible if, at the time the property tax extension limitation was imposed, the road district was levying at the required rate and continues to levy the maximum allowable amount after the imposition of the property tax extension limitation. The road district also becomes eligible if it levies at or above the rate required for eligibility by Section 8 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law.

The amounts apportioned under this Section for allocation to road districts may be used only for bridge construction as provided in this Division. So much of those amounts as are not obligated under Sections 6-902 through 6-904 and for which local funds have not been committed under Section 6-905 within 48 months of the date when such apportionment is made lapses and shall not be paid to the county treasurer for distribution to road districts.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; revised 9-25-23.)

Section 540. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 2-119, 3-699.14, 6-103, 6-106.1, 6-118, 6-508.5, 7-315, 11-208.6, and 11-305 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/2-119) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-119)

Sec. 2-119. Disposition of fees and taxes.

(a) All moneys received from Salvage Certificates shall be deposited in the Common School Fund in the State treasury Treasury.

(b) Of the money collected for each certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title, and corrected certificate of title:

(1) $2.60 shall be deposited in the Park and Conservation Fund;

(2) $0.65 shall be deposited in the Illinois Fisheries Management Fund;

(3) $48 shall be disbursed under subsection (g) of this Section;

(4) $4 shall be deposited into the Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund;

(5) $30 shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund; and

(6) $10 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund.

All remaining moneys collected for certificates of title, and all moneys collected for filing of security interests, shall be deposited in the General Revenue Fund.

The $20 collected for each delinquent vehicle registration renewal fee shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

The moneys deposited in the Park and Conservation Fund under this Section shall be used for the acquisition and development of bike paths as provided for in Section 805-420 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. The moneys deposited into the Park and Conservation Fund under this subsection shall not be subject to administrative charges or chargebacks, unless otherwise authorized by this Code.

If the balance in the Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund exceeds $40,000,000 on the last day of a calendar month, then during the next calendar month, the $4 that otherwise would be deposited in that fund shall instead be deposited into the Road Fund.

(c) All moneys collected for that portion of a driver's license fee designated for driver education under Section 6-118 shall be placed in the Drivers Education Fund in the State treasury Treasury.

(d) Of the moneys collected as a registration fee for each motorcycle, motor driven cycle, and moped, 27% shall be deposited in the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Of the total money collected for a commercial learner's permit (CLP) or original or renewal issuance of a commercial driver's license (CDL) pursuant to the Uniform Commercial Driver's License Act (UCDLA): (i) $6 of the total fee for an original or renewal CDL, and $6 of the total CLP fee when such permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund (Commercial Driver's License Information System/American Association of Motor Vehicle Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle Title Information Service Trust Fund) and shall be used for the purposes provided in Section 6z-23 of the State Finance Act and (ii) $20 of the total fee for an original or renewal CDL or CLP shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund, which is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury Treasury, to be used by the Illinois State Police, subject to appropriation, to hire additional officers to conduct motor carrier safety inspections pursuant to Chapter 18b of this Code.

(g) Of the moneys received by the Secretary of State as registration fees or taxes, certificates of title, duplicate certificates of title, corrected certificates of title, or as payment of any other fee under this Code, when those moneys are not otherwise distributed by this Code, 37% shall be deposited into the State Construction Account Fund, and 63% shall be deposited in the Road Fund. Moneys in the Road Fund shall be used for the purposes provided in Section 8.3 of the State Finance Act.

(h) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) There is created in the State treasury Treasury a special fund to be known as the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund. Money deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State (i) to help defray plate manufacturing and plate processing costs for the issuance and, when applicable, renewal of any new or existing registration plates authorized under this Code and (ii) for grants made by the Secretary of State to benefit Illinois Veterans Home libraries.

(l) The Motor Vehicle Review Board Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury Treasury. Moneys deposited into the Fund under paragraph (7) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and Section 5-109 shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State to administer the Motor Vehicle Review Board, including, without limitation, payment of compensation and all necessary expenses incurred in administering the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the Motor Vehicle Franchise Act.

(m) Effective July 1, 1996, there is created in the State treasury Treasury a special fund to be known as the Family Responsibility Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State for the purpose of enforcing the Illinois Safety and Family Financial Responsibility Law.

(n) The Illinois Fire Fighters' Memorial Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury Treasury. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the State Fire Marshal for construction of the Illinois Fire Fighters' Memorial to be located at the State Capitol grounds in Springfield, Illinois. Upon the completion of the Memorial, moneys in the Fund shall be used in accordance with Section 3-634.

(o) Of the money collected for each certificate of title for all-terrain vehicles and off-highway motorcycles, $17 shall be deposited into the Off-Highway Vehicle Trails Fund.

(p) For audits conducted on or after July 1, 2003 pursuant to Section 2-124(d) of this Code, 50% of the money collected as audit fees shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(q) Beginning July 1, 2023, the additional fees imposed by Public Act 103-8 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly in Sections 2-123, 3-821, and 6-118 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-8, eff. 7-1-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.14)

Sec. 3-699.14. Universal special license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue Universal special license plates to residents of Illinois on behalf of organizations that have been authorized by the General Assembly to issue decals for Universal special license plates. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. Authorized organizations shall be designated by amendment to this Section. When applying for a Universal special license plate the applicant shall inform the Secretary of the name of the authorized organization from which the applicant will obtain a decal to place on the plate. The Secretary shall make a record of that organization and that organization shall remain affiliated with that plate until the plate is surrendered, revoked, or otherwise cancelled. The authorized organization may charge a fee to offset the cost of producing and distributing the decal, but that fee shall be retained by the authorized organization and shall be separate and distinct from any registration fees charged by the Secretary. No decal, sticker, or other material may be affixed to a Universal special license plate other than a decal authorized by the General Assembly in this Section or a registration renewal sticker. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, including motorcycles and autocycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure under Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the Universal special license plate shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Universal special license plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The design shall allow for the application of a decal to the plate. Organizations authorized by the General Assembly to issue decals for Universal special license plates shall comply with rules adopted by the Secretary governing the requirements for and approval of Universal special license plate decals. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow Universal special license plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary of State must make a version of the special registration plates authorized under this Section in a form appropriate for motorcycles and autocycles.

(c) When authorizing a Universal special license plate, the General Assembly shall set forth whether an additional fee is to be charged for the plate and, if a fee is to be charged, the amount of the fee and how the fee is to be distributed. When necessary, the authorizing language shall create a special fund in the State treasury into which fees may be deposited for an authorized Universal special license plate. Additional fees may only be charged if the fee is to be paid over to a State agency or to a charitable entity that is in compliance with the registration and reporting requirements of the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act. Any charitable entity receiving fees for the sale of Universal special license plates shall annually provide the Secretary of State a letter of compliance issued by the Attorney General verifying that the entity is in compliance with the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(d) Upon original issuance and for each registration renewal period, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, if applicable, the Secretary shall collect any additional fees, if required, for issuance of Universal special license plates. The fees shall be collected on behalf of the organization designated by the applicant when applying for the plate. All fees collected shall be transferred to the State agency on whose behalf the fees were collected, or paid into the special fund designated in the law authorizing the organization to issue decals for Universal special license plates. All money in the designated fund shall be distributed by the Secretary subject to appropriation by the General Assembly.

(e) The following organizations may issue decals for Universal special license plates with the original and renewal fees and fee distribution as follows:

(1) The Illinois Department of Natural Resources.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(2) Illinois Veterans' Homes.

(A) Original issuance: $26, which shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(B) Renewal: $26, which shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(3) The Illinois Department of Human Services for volunteerism decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(4) The Illinois Department of Public Health.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(5) Horsemen's Council of Illinois.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(6) K9s for Veterans, NFP.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(7) The International Association of Machinists and Aerospace Workers.

(A) Original issuance: $35; with $20 to the Guide Dogs of America Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 going to the Guide Dogs of America Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(8) Local Lodge 701 of the International Association of Machinists and Aerospace Workers.

(A) Original issuance: $35; with $10 to the Guide Dogs of America Fund, $10 to the Mechanics Training Fund, and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $30; with $13 to the Guide Dogs of America Fund, $15 to the Mechanics Training Fund, and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(9) Illinois Department of Human Services.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(10) The Illinois Department of Human Services for developmental disabilities awareness decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(11) The Illinois Department of Human Services for pediatric cancer awareness decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(12) The Department of Veterans' Affairs for Fold of Honor decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Folds of Honor Foundation Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Folds of Honor Foundation Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(13) The Illinois chapters of the Experimental Aircraft Association for aviation enthusiast decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Experimental Aircraft Association Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Experimental Aircraft Association Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(14) The Illinois Department of Human Services for Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(15) The Illinois Department of Public Health for health care worker decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund, and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(16) The Department of Agriculture for Future Farmers of America decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Future Farmers of America Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Future Farmers of America Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(17) The Illinois Department of Public Health for autism awareness decals that are designed with input from autism advocacy organizations.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Autism Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Autism Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(18) (17) The Department of Natural Resources for Lyme disease research decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Tick Research, Education, and Evaluation Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Tick Research, Education, and Evaluation Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(19) (17) The IBEW Thank a Line Worker decal.

(A) Original issuance: $15, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $2, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(f) The following funds are created as special funds in the State treasury:

(1) The Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund. All money in the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Department of Natural Resources to fund roadside monarch and other pollinator habitat development, enhancement, and restoration projects in this State.

(2) The Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund. All money in the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to the Prostate Cancer Foundation of Chicago.

(3) The Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund. All money in the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund shall be paid as grants to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois.

(4) The Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund. All money in the Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to K9s for Veterans, NFP for support, education, and awareness of veterans with post-traumatic stress disorder.

(5) The Guide Dogs of America Fund. All money in the Guide Dogs of America Fund shall be paid as grants to the International Guiding Eyes, Inc., doing business as Guide Dogs of America.

(6) The Mechanics Training Fund. All money in the Mechanics Training Fund shall be paid as grants to the Mechanics Local 701 Training Fund.

(7) The Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund. All money in the Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund shall be paid to the Illinois CancerCare Foundation for the purpose of furthering pancreatic cancer research.

(8) The Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund. All money in the Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Department of Human Services to fund legal aid groups to assist with guardianship fees for private citizens willing to become guardians for individuals with developmental disabilities but who are unable to pay the legal fees associated with becoming a guardian.

(9) The Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund. All money in the Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to the Cancer Center at Illinois for pediatric cancer treatment and research.

(10) The Folds of Honor Foundation Fund. All money in the Folds of Honor Foundation Fund shall be paid as grants to the Folds of Honor Foundation to aid in providing educational scholarships to military families.

(11) The Experimental Aircraft Association Fund. All money in the Experimental Aircraft Association Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to promote recreational aviation.

(12) The Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund. All money in the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund shall be paid as grants to benefit the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities.

(13) The Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund. All money in the Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund shall be paid as grants to the Trinity Health Foundation for the benefit of health care workers, doctors, nurses, and others who work in the health care industry in this State.

(14) The Future Farmers of America Fund. All money in the Future Farmers of America Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Association of Future Farmers of America.

(15) The Tick Research, Education, and Evaluation Fund. All money in the Tick Research, Education, and Evaluation Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Lyme Association.

(Source: P.A. 102-383, eff. 1-1-22; 102-422, eff. 8-20-21; 102-423, eff. 8-20-21; 102-515, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-809, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-112, eff. 1-1-24; 103-163, eff. 1-1-24; 103-349, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)

Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue any permit under this Code:

1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of 18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except that an instruction permit may be issued under Section 6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if the child is enrolled in an approved driver education course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and requires an instruction permit to participate therein, except that an instruction permit may be issued under the provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an approved driver education course and except that an instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least 15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act, and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his or her discretion may prescribe;

1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to any other requirements of this Code, successfully completed an adult driver education course as provided in Section 6-107.5 of this Code;

2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle unless the person has, in addition to meeting the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully completed a motorcycle training course approved by the Illinois Department of Transportation;

3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to any person whose driver's license or permit has been revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and 6-208;

4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol or any other drug to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;

5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental or physical disability or disease and who has not at the time of application been restored to competency by the methods provided by law;

6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the person has successfully passed the examination and submitted any required evaluation;

7. To any person who is required under the provisions of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of financial responsibility and who has not deposited the security or proof;

8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or mental disability would not be able to safely operate a motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a competent medical specialist, a licensed physician assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, to the effect that the operation of a motor vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public safety;

9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age or older, unless the person has successfully complied with the provisions of Section 6-109;

10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section 6-205;

11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section 6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of Section 6-104;

12. To any person who has been either convicted of or adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year;

13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle without a valid license or permit in violation of Section 6-101 or a similar out-of-state out of state offense;

14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in court ordered child support payments or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days' obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of court for failure to pay the support, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support under an order of support entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code regarding those certifications;

15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide or for violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term of imprisonment;

16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which that person is not authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or tendering such property or personal advantage shall be disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing this period of disqualification and the procedures by which persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review of the decision to disqualify;

17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State cannot verify the accuracy of any information or documentation submitted in application for a driver's license;

18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is determined by the court to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied a license or permit for the period determined by the court; or

19. To any person who holds a REAL ID compliant identification card or REAL ID compliant Person with a Disability Identification Card issued under the Illinois Identification Card Act. Any such person may, at his or her discretion, surrender the REAL ID compliant identification card or REAL ID compliant Person with a Disability Identification Card in order to become eligible to obtain a REAL ID compliant driver's license.

The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction information, if the information is required to be held confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 103-162, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.1)

Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver permit for the operation of first or second division vehicles being operated as school buses or a permit valid only for the operation of first division vehicles being operated as school buses to those applicants who have met all the requirements of the application and screening process under this Section to insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary of State from their prospective or current employer and submit the completed application to the prospective or current employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as required by the Illinois State Police to conduct fingerprint-based fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and future information available in the State state system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or submitting proof of successful completion of the annual refresher course. Individuals who on July 1, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 88-612) possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been previously issued by the appropriate Regional School Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all related application and fingerprinting fees as established by rule, including, but not limited to, the amounts established by the Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to process fingerprint-based fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing services under this Section shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the fingerprint-based fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the Secretary of State in administering this Section. All applicants must:

1. be 21 years of age or older;

2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately prior to the date of application, or have not had his or her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

4. successfully pass a first division or second division written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in the operation of school buses in accordance with rules promulgated by the Secretary of State;

6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a licensed physician, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant within 90 days of the date of application according to standards promulgated by the Secretary of State;

7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact in any application for permit;

8. have completed an initial classroom course, including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and, after satisfactory completion of said initial course, an annual refresher course; such courses and the agency or organization conducting such courses shall be approved by the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the permit until such course is completed;

9. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of application that may endanger the life or safety of any of the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit period;

10. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the date of application;

11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1, 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.1A, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-9.4-1, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.3, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act;

12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused a crash resulting in the death of any person;

14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease;

15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the applicant to the Secretary of State; and

16. not have been convicted of committing or attempting to commit within the last 20 years: (i) an offense defined in subsection (c) of Section 4, subsection (b) of Section 5, and subsection (a) of Section 8 of the Cannabis Control Act; or (ii) any offenses in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses.

(a-5) If an applicant's driver's license has been suspended within the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application for the sole reason of failure to pay child support, that suspension shall not bar the applicant from receiving a school bus driver permit.

(a-10) (a-5) By January 1, 2024, the Secretary of State, in conjunction with the Illinois State Board of Education, shall develop a separate classroom course and refresher course for operation of vehicles of the first division being operated as school buses. Regional superintendents of schools, working with the Illinois State Board of Education, shall offer the course.

(b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip code, and date of birth, a brief description of the holder, and a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a suitable photograph of the holder.

(d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Illinois State Police that are required for the criminal background investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed including the successful completion of an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through the Illinois State Police and the submission of necessary fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for criminal history information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the certification to the Secretary of State at the time of submitting the school bus driver permit application.

(e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving certification from the employer that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed, and upon successful completion of all training and examination requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation based upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Illinois State Police. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation.

(f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an order of court supervision for or convicted in another state of an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the order of court supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or subsequent violation.

(g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.

(1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit when he or she receives notice that the permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of this Section.

(3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or otherwise invalidated.

(4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder failed to perform the inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-816 of this Code.

(7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has submitted to a test required by that Section which disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set forth in 49 CFR 40.87.

The Secretary of State shall notify the State Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the start of that school bus driver's next work shift workshift. An employing school board that fails to remove the offending school bus driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who violates a provision of this Section is subject to the penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.

All valid school bus driver permits issued under this Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.

(h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State shall not characterize the permit as invalid.

(i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this Section:

"Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard.

(k) A private carrier employer of a school bus driver permit holder, having satisfied the employer requirements of this Section, shall be held to a standard of ordinary care for intentional acts committed in the course of employment by the bus driver permit holder. This subsection (k) shall in no way limit the liability of the private carrier employer for violation of any provision of this Section or for the negligent hiring or retention of a school bus driver permit holder.

(Source: P.A. 101-458, eff. 1-1-20; 102-168, eff. 7-27-21; 102-299, eff. 8-6-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-726, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 102-1130, eff. 7-1-23; revised 9-19-23.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-118)

Sec. 6-118. Fees.

(a) The fees for licenses and permits under this Article are as follows:

Original driver's license.............................$30

Original or renewal driver's license

issued to 18, 19, and 20 year olds................. $5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 69 through age 80.............................. $5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 81 through age 86.............................. $2

All driver's licenses for persons

age 87 or older....................................$0

Renewal driver's license (except for

applicants ages 18, 19, and 20 or

age 69 and older).................................$30

Original instruction permit issued to

persons (except those age 69 and older)

who do not hold or have not previously

held an Illinois instruction permit or

driver's license.................................. $20

Instruction permit issued to any person

holding an Illinois driver's license

who wishes a change in classifications,

other than at the time of renewal.................. $5

Any instruction permit issued to a person

age 69 and older................................... $5

Instruction permit issued to any person,

under age 69, not currently holding a

valid Illinois driver's license or

instruction permit but who has

previously been issued either document

in Illinois....................................... $10

Restricted driving permit.............................. $8

Monitoring device driving permit...................... $8

Duplicate or corrected driver's license

or permit.......................................... $5

Duplicate or corrected restricted

driving permit..................................... $5

Duplicate or corrected monitoring

device driving permit.................................. $5

Duplicate driver's license or permit issued to

an active-duty member of the

United States Armed Forces,

the member's spouse, or

the dependent children living

with the member................................... $0

Original or renewal M or L endorsement................. $5 SPECIAL FEES FOR COMMERCIAL DRIVER'S LICENSE

The fees for commercial driver licenses and permits under Article V shall be as follows:

Commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund

(Commercial Driver's License Information

System/American Association of Motor Vehicle

Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle

Title Information Service Trust Fund);

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license;

and $24 for the CDL:............................. $60

Renewal commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license; and

$24 for the CDL:................................. $60

Commercial learner's permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois driver's license for the

purpose of changing to a

CDL classification:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund; and

$24 for the CDL classification................... $50

Commercial learner's permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois CDL for the purpose of

making a change in a classification,

endorsement or restriction........................ $5

CDL duplicate or corrected license.................... $5

In order to ensure the proper implementation of the Uniform Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, the Secretary of State is empowered to prorate the $24 fee for the commercial driver's license proportionate to the expiration date of the applicant's Illinois driver's license.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's office with a police report showing that his license or permit was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose driver's license or permit has been lost or stolen.

No additional fee shall be charged for a driver's license, or for a commercial driver's license, when issued to the holder of an instruction permit for the same classification or type of license who becomes eligible for such license.

The fee for a restricted driving permit under this subsection (a) shall be imposed annually until the expiration of the permit.

(a-5) The fee for a driver's record or data contained therein is $20 and shall be disbursed as set forth in subsection (k) of Section 2-123 of this Code.

(b) Any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked under Section 3-707, any provision of Chapter 6, Chapter 11, or Section 7-205, 7-303, or 7-702 of the Illinois Safety and Family Financial Responsibility Law of this Code, shall in addition to any other fees required by this Code, pay a reinstatement fee as follows:

Suspension under Section 3-707..................... $100

Suspension under Section 11-1431....................$100

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1...........$250

Suspension under Section 11-501.9...................$250

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Other suspension......................................$70

Revocation...........................................$500

However, any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and each suspension or revocation was for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall pay, in addition to any other fees required by this Code, a reinstatement fee as follows:

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1............$500

Suspension under Section 11-501.9...................$500

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Revocation...........................................$500

(c) All fees collected under the provisions of this Chapter 6 shall be disbursed under subsection (g) of Section 2-119 of this Code, except as follows:

1. The following amounts shall be paid into the Drivers Education Fund:

(A) $16 of the $20 fee for an original driver's instruction permit;

(B) $5 of the $30 fee for an original driver's license;

(C) $5 of the $30 fee for a 4 year renewal driver's license;

(D) $4 of the $8 fee for a restricted driving permit; and

(E) $4 of the $8 fee for a monitoring device driving permit.

2. $30 of the $250 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 or suspended under Section 11-501.9 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. However, for a person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 or suspended under Section 11-501.9, and $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a revoked license shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund.

3. $6 of the original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license and $6 of the commercial learner's permit fee when the permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund.

4. $30 of the $70 fee for reinstatement of a license suspended under the Illinois Safety and Family Financial Responsibility Law shall be paid into the Family Responsibility Fund.

5. The $5 fee for each original or renewal M or L endorsement shall be deposited into the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.

6. $20 of any original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license or commercial learner's permit shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund.

7. The following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund:

(A) $190 of the $250 reinstatement fee for a summary suspension under Section 11-501.1 or a suspension under Section 11-501.9;

(B) $40 of the $70 reinstatement fee for any other suspension provided in subsection (b) of this Section; and

(C) $440 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a first offense revocation and $310 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a second or subsequent revocation.

8. Fees collected under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) and subsection (h) of Section 6-205 of this Code; subparagraph (C) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of Section 6-206 of this Code; and paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 6-206.1 of this Code, shall be paid into the funds set forth in those Sections.

(d) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(e) The additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall become effective 90 days after becoming law. The additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall become effective July 1, 2023 and shall be paid into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund.

(f) As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 7-1-23; revised 9-26-23.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-508.5)

Sec. 6-508.5. Drug and alcohol clearinghouse.

(a) No driver who has engaged in conduct prohibited by subpart B of 49 CFR 382 shall perform safety-sensitive functions, including driving a commercial motor vehicle, unless the driver has met the return-to-duty return to duty requirements of subpart O of 49 CFR 40 and, if the driver's CDL or CLP was canceled, has had the CDL or CLP reinstated.

(b) By applying for a CDL or CLP, a driver is deemed to have consented to the release of information from the drug and alcohol clearinghouse to the Secretary of State.

(c) No later than November 18, 2024, the Secretary shall request information from the drug and alcohol clearinghouse for all applicants applying for an initial, renewal, transfer, or upgraded CDL or CLP. If the Secretary receives notification that pursuant to 49 CFR 382.503 the applicant is prohibited from operating a commercial motor vehicle, the Secretary shall not issue, renew, transfer, or upgrade a CDL or CLP.

(d) No later than November 18, 2024, the Secretary must, upon receiving notification from the drug and alcohol clearinghouse that a holder of a CDL or CLP is prohibited from operating a commercial motor vehicle, cancel the CDL or CLP. The cancellation must be completed and recorded on the CDLIS driver record within 60 days after the State's receipt of such a notification. Upon notification from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration that a driver has completed the return-to-duty process, the Secretary may reinstate the driver's CDL or CLP privileges.

(e) Upon notification from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration that a violation was entered into the drug and alcohol clearinghouse erroneously, the Secretary shall reinstate the driver's CDL or CLP privileges and remove the cancellation from the driving record.

(Source: P.A. 103-179, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-26-23.)

(625 ILCS 5/7-315) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 7-315)

Sec. 7-315. Certificate A certificate of insurance proof.

(a) Proof of financial responsibility may be made by filing with the Secretary of State the electronic certificate of any insurance carrier duly authorized to do business in this State, certifying that it has issued to or for the benefit of the person furnishing such proof and named as the insured in a motor vehicle liability policy, a motor vehicle liability policy or policies or in certain events an operator's policy meeting the requirements of this Code and that said policy or policies are then in full force and effect. All electronic certificates must be submitted in a manner satisfactory to the Secretary of State.

(b) Such certificate or certificates shall give the dates of issuance and expiration of such policy or policies and certify that the same shall not be canceled unless 15 days' prior electronic notice thereof be given to the Secretary of State and shall explicitly describe all motor vehicles covered thereby unless the policy or policies are issued to a person who is not the owner of a motor vehicle.

(c) The Secretary of State shall not accept any certificate or certificates unless the same shall cover all motor vehicles then registered in this State in the name of the person furnishing such proof as owner and an additional certificate or certificates shall be required as a condition precedent to the subsequent registration of any motor vehicle or motor vehicles in the name of the person giving such proof as owner.

(Source: P.A. 103-179, eff. 6-30-23; revised 9-26-23.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-208.6)

Sec. 11-208.6. Automated traffic law enforcement system.

(a) As used in this Section, "automated traffic law enforcement system" means a device with one or more motor vehicle sensors working in conjunction with a red light signal to produce recorded images of motor vehicles entering an intersection against a red signal indication in violation of Section 11-306 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

An automated traffic law enforcement system is a system, in a municipality or county operated by a governmental agency, that produces a recorded image of a motor vehicle's violation of a provision of this Code or a local ordinance and is designed to obtain a clear recorded image of the vehicle and the vehicle's license plate. The recorded image must also display the time, date, and location of the violation.

(b) As used in this Section, "recorded images" means images recorded by an automated traffic law enforcement system on:

(1) 2 or more photographs;

(2) 2 or more microphotographs;

(3) 2 or more electronic images; or

(4) a video recording showing the motor vehicle and, on at least one image or portion of the recording, clearly identifying the registration plate or digital registration plate number of the motor vehicle.

(b-5) A municipality or county that produces a recorded image of a motor vehicle's violation of a provision of this Code or a local ordinance must make the recorded images of a violation accessible to the alleged violator by providing the alleged violator with a website address, accessible through the Internet.

(c) Except as provided under Section 11-208.8 of this Code, a county or municipality, including a home rule county or municipality, may not use an automated traffic law enforcement system to provide recorded images of a motor vehicle for the purpose of recording its speed. Except as provided under Section 11-208.8 of this Code, the regulation of the use of automated traffic law enforcement systems to record vehicle speeds is an exclusive power and function of the State. This subsection (c) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(c-5) A county or municipality, including a home rule county or municipality, may not use an automated traffic law enforcement system to issue violations in instances where the motor vehicle comes to a complete stop and does not enter the intersection, as defined by Section 1-132 of this Code, during the cycle of the red signal indication unless one or more pedestrians or bicyclists are present, even if the motor vehicle stops at a point past a stop line or crosswalk where a driver is required to stop, as specified in subsection (c) of Section 11-306 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(c-6) A county, or a municipality with less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, including a home rule county or municipality, may not use an automated traffic law enforcement system to issue violations in instances where a motorcyclist enters an intersection against a red signal indication when the red signal fails to change to a green signal within a reasonable period of time not less than 120 seconds because of a signal malfunction or because the signal has failed to detect the arrival of the motorcycle due to the motorcycle's size or weight.

(d) For each violation of a provision of this Code or a local ordinance recorded by an automatic traffic law enforcement system, the county or municipality having jurisdiction shall issue a written notice of the violation to the registered owner of the vehicle as the alleged violator. The notice shall be delivered to the registered owner of the vehicle, by mail, within 30 days after the Secretary of State notifies the municipality or county of the identity of the owner of the vehicle, but in no event later than 90 days after the violation.

The notice shall include:

(1) the name and address of the registered owner of the vehicle;

(2) the registration number of the motor vehicle involved in the violation;

(3) the violation charged;

(4) the location where the violation occurred;

(5) the date and time of the violation;

(6) a copy of the recorded images;

(7) the amount of the civil penalty imposed and the requirements of any traffic education program imposed and the date by which the civil penalty should be paid and the traffic education program should be completed;

(8) a statement that recorded images are evidence of a violation of a red light signal;

(9) a warning that failure to pay the civil penalty, to complete a required traffic education program, or to contest liability in a timely manner is an admission of liability;

(10) a statement that the person may elect to proceed by:

(A) paying the fine, completing a required traffic education program, or both; or

(B) challenging the charge in court, by mail, or by administrative hearing; and

(11) a website address, accessible through the Internet, where the person may view the recorded images of the violation.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Based on inspection of recorded images produced by an automated traffic law enforcement system, a notice alleging that the violation occurred shall be evidence of the facts contained in the notice and admissible in any proceeding alleging a violation under this Section.

(g) Recorded images made by an automatic traffic law enforcement system are confidential and shall be made available only to the alleged violator and governmental and law enforcement agencies for purposes of adjudicating a violation of this Section, for statistical purposes, or for other governmental purposes. Any recorded image evidencing a violation of this Section, however, may be admissible in any proceeding resulting from the issuance of the citation.

(h) The court or hearing officer may consider in defense of a violation:

(1) that the motor vehicle or registration plates or digital registration plates of the motor vehicle were stolen before the violation occurred and not under the control of or in the possession of the owner or lessee at the time of the violation;

(1.5) that the motor vehicle was hijacked before the violation occurred and not under the control of or in the possession of the owner or lessee at the time of the violation;

(2) that the driver of the vehicle passed through the intersection when the light was red either (i) in order to yield the right-of-way to an emergency vehicle or (ii) as part of a funeral procession; and

(3) any other evidence or issues provided by municipal or county ordinance.

(i) To demonstrate that the motor vehicle was hijacked or the motor vehicle or registration plates or digital registration plates were stolen before the violation occurred and were not under the control or possession of the owner or lessee at the time of the violation, the owner or lessee must submit proof that a report concerning the motor vehicle or registration plates was filed with a law enforcement agency in a timely manner.

(j) Unless the driver of the motor vehicle received a Uniform Traffic Citation from a police officer at the time of the violation, the motor vehicle owner is subject to a civil penalty not exceeding $100 or the completion of a traffic education program, or both, plus an additional penalty of not more than $100 for failure to pay the original penalty or to complete a required traffic education program, or both, in a timely manner, if the motor vehicle is recorded by an automated traffic law enforcement system. A violation for which a civil penalty is imposed under this Section is not a violation of a traffic regulation governing the movement of vehicles and may not be recorded on the driving record of the owner of the vehicle.

(j-3) A registered owner who is a holder of a valid commercial driver's license is not required to complete a traffic education program.

(j-5) For purposes of the required traffic education program only, a registered owner may submit an affidavit to the court or hearing officer swearing that at the time of the alleged violation, the vehicle was in the custody and control of another person. The affidavit must identify the person in custody and control of the vehicle, including the person's name and current address. The person in custody and control of the vehicle at the time of the violation is required to complete the required traffic education program. If the person in custody and control of the vehicle at the time of the violation completes the required traffic education program, the registered owner of the vehicle is not required to complete a traffic education program.

(k) An intersection equipped with an automated traffic law enforcement system must be posted with a sign visible to approaching traffic indicating that the intersection is being monitored by an automated traffic law enforcement system and informing drivers whether, following a stop, a right turn at the intersection is permitted or prohibited.

(k-3) A municipality or county that has one or more intersections equipped with an automated traffic law enforcement system must provide notice to drivers by posting the locations of automated traffic law systems on the municipality or county website.

(k-5) An intersection equipped with an automated traffic law enforcement system must have a yellow change interval that conforms with the Illinois Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices (IMUTCD) published by the Illinois Department of Transportation. Beginning 6 months before it installs an automated traffic law enforcement system at an intersection, a county or municipality may not change the yellow change interval at that intersection.

(k-7) A municipality or county operating an automated traffic law enforcement system shall conduct a statistical analysis to assess the safety impact of each automated traffic law enforcement system at an intersection following installation of the system and every 2 years thereafter. Each statistical analysis shall be based upon the best available crash, traffic, and other data, and shall cover a period of time before and after installation of the system sufficient to provide a statistically valid comparison of safety impact. Each statistical analysis shall be consistent with professional judgment and acceptable industry practice. Each statistical analysis also shall be consistent with the data required for valid comparisons of before and after conditions and shall be conducted within a reasonable period following the installation of the automated traffic law enforcement system. Each statistical analysis required by this subsection (k-7) shall be made available to the public and shall be published on the website of the municipality or county. If a statistical analysis 36-month indicates that there has been an increase in the rate of crashes at the approach to the intersection monitored by the system, the municipality or county shall undertake additional studies to determine the cause and severity of the crashes, and may take any action that it determines is necessary or appropriate to reduce the number or severity of the crashes at that intersection.

(k-8) Any municipality or county operating an automated traffic law enforcement system before July 28, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-364) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall conduct a statistical analysis to assess the safety impact of each automated traffic law enforcement system at an intersection by no later than one year after July 28, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-364) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly and every 2 years thereafter. The statistical analyses shall be based upon the best available crash, traffic, and other data, and shall cover a period of time before and after installation of the system sufficient to provide a statistically valid comparison of safety impact. The statistical analyses shall be consistent with professional judgment and acceptable industry practice. The statistical analyses also shall be consistent with the data required for valid comparisons of before and after conditions. The statistical analyses required by this subsection shall be made available to the public and shall be published on the website of the municipality or county. If the statistical analysis for any period following installation of the system indicates that there has been an increase in the rate of accidents at the approach to the intersection monitored by the system, the municipality or county shall undertake additional studies to determine the cause and severity of the accidents, and may take any action that it determines is necessary or appropriate to reduce the number or severity of the accidents at that intersection.

(l) The compensation paid for an automated traffic law enforcement system must be based on the value of the equipment or the services provided and may not be based on the number of traffic citations issued or the revenue generated by the system.

(l-1) No member of the General Assembly and no officer or employee of a municipality or county shall knowingly accept employment or receive compensation or fees for services from a vendor that provides automated traffic law enforcement system equipment or services to municipalities or counties. No former member of the General Assembly shall, within a period of 2 years immediately after the termination of service as a member of the General Assembly, knowingly accept employment or receive compensation or fees for services from a vendor that provides automated traffic law enforcement system equipment or services to municipalities or counties. No former officer or employee of a municipality or county shall, within a period of 2 years immediately after the termination of municipal or county employment, knowingly accept employment or receive compensation or fees for services from a vendor that provides automated traffic law enforcement system equipment or services to municipalities or counties.

(m) This Section applies only to the counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, Madison, McHenry, St. Clair, and Will and to municipalities located within those counties.

(n) The fee for participating in a traffic education program under this Section shall not exceed $25.

A low-income individual required to complete a traffic education program under this Section who provides proof of eligibility for the federal earned income tax credit under Section 32 of the Internal Revenue Code or the Illinois earned income tax credit under Section 212 of the Illinois Income Tax Act shall not be required to pay any fee for participating in a required traffic education program.

(o) (Blank).

(p) No person who is the lessor of a motor vehicle pursuant to a written lease agreement shall be liable for an automated speed or traffic law enforcement system violation involving such motor vehicle during the period of the lease; provided that upon the request of the appropriate authority received within 120 days after the violation occurred, the lessor provides within 60 days after such receipt the name and address of the lessee.

Upon the provision of information by the lessor pursuant to this subsection, the county or municipality may issue the violation to the lessee of the vehicle in the same manner as it would issue a violation to a registered owner of a vehicle pursuant to this Section, and the lessee may be held liable for the violation.

(q) If a county or municipality selects a new vendor for its automated traffic law enforcement system and must, as a consequence, apply for a permit, approval, or other authorization from the Department for reinstallation of one or more malfunctioning components of that system and if, at the time of the application for the permit, approval, or other authorization, the new vendor operates an automated traffic law enforcement system for any other county or municipality in the State, then the Department shall approve or deny the county or municipality's application for the permit, approval, or other authorization within 90 days after its receipt.

(r) The Department may revoke any permit, approval, or other authorization granted to a county or municipality for the placement, installation, or operation of an automated traffic law enforcement system if any official or employee who serves that county or municipality is charged with bribery, official misconduct, or a similar crime related to the placement, installation, or operation of the automated traffic law enforcement system in the county or municipality.

The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement and administer this subsection. The rules adopted by the Department shall describe the revocation process, shall ensure that notice of the revocation is provided, and shall provide an opportunity to appeal the revocation. Any county or municipality that has a permit, approval, or other authorization revoked under this subsection may not reapply for such a permit, approval, or other authorization for a period of one 1 year after the revocation.

(s) If an automated traffic law enforcement system is removed or rendered inoperable due to construction, then the Department shall authorize the reinstallation or use of the automated traffic law enforcement system within 30 days after the construction is complete.

(Source: P.A. 102-905, eff. 1-1-23; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-364, eff. 7-28-23; revised 1-30-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-305) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-305)

Sec. 11-305. Obedience to and required traffic-control devices.

(a) The driver of any vehicle shall obey the instructions of any official traffic-control device applicable thereto placed or held in accordance with the provisions of this Act, unless otherwise directed by a police officer, subject to the exceptions granted the driver of an authorized emergency vehicle in this Act.

(b) It is unlawful for any person to leave the roadway and travel across private property to avoid an official traffic-control traffic control device.

(c) No provision of this Act for which official traffic-control devices are required shall be enforced against an alleged violator if at the time and place of the alleged violation an official device is not in proper position and sufficiently legible to be seen by an ordinarily observant person. Whenever a particular section does not state that official traffic-control devices are required, such section shall be effective even though no devices are erected or in place.

(d) Whenever any official traffic-control device is placed or held in position approximately conforming to the requirements of this Act and purports to conform to the lawful requirements pertaining to such device, such device shall be presumed to have been so placed or held by the official act or direction of lawful authority, and comply with the requirements of this Act, unless the contrary shall be established by competent evidence.

(e) The driver of a vehicle approaching a traffic control signal on which no signal light facing such vehicle is illuminated shall stop before entering the intersection in accordance with rules applicable in making a stop at a stop sign. This provision does not apply to the driver of a vehicle approaching a pedestrian hybrid beacon.

(f) Any violation of subsection (a) that occurs within a designated highway construction zone or maintenance zone shall result in a fine of no less than $100 and no more than $1,000.

(Source: P.A. 103-158, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 545. The Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act is amended by changing Section 19 as follows:

(630 ILCS 5/19)

Sec. 19. Unsolicited proposals.

(a) A responsible public entity may receive unsolicited proposals for a project and may thereafter enter into a public-private agreement with a private entity, or a consortium of private entities, for the design, construction, upgrading, operating, ownership, or financing of facilities.

(b) A responsible public entity may consider, evaluate, and accept an unsolicited proposal for a public-private partnership project from a private entity if the proposal:

(1) is independently developed and drafted by the proposer without responsible public entity supervision;

(2) shows that the proposed project could benefit the transportation system;

(3) includes a financing plan to allow the project to move forward pursuant to the applicable responsible public entity's budget and finance requirements; and

(4) includes sufficient detail and information for the responsible public entity to evaluate the proposal in an objective and timely manner and permit a determination that the project would be worthwhile.

(c) The unsolicited proposal shall include the following:

(1) an executive summary covering the major elements of the proposal;

(2) qualifications concerning the experience, expertise, technical competence, and qualifications of the private entity and of each member of its management team and of other key employees, consultants, and subcontractors, including the name, address, and professional designation;

(3) a project description, including, when applicable:

(A) the limits, scope, and location of the proposed project;

(B) right-of-way requirements;

(C) connections with other facilities and improvements to those facilities necessary if the project is developed;

(D) a conceptual project design; and

(E) a statement of the project's relationship to and impact upon relevant existing plans of the responsible public entity;

(4) a facilities project schedule, including when applicable, estimates of:

(A) dates of contract award;

(B) start of construction;

(C) completion of construction;

(D) start of operations; and

(E) major maintenance or reconstruction activities during the life of the proposed project agreement;

(5) an operating plan describing the operation of the completed facility if operation of a facility is part of the proposal, describing the management structure and approach, the proposed period of operations, enforcement, emergency response, and other relevant information;

(6) a finance plan describing the proposed financing of the project, identifying the source of funds to, where applicable, design, construct, maintain, and manage the project during the term of the proposed contract; and

(7) the legal basis for the project and licenses and certifications; the private entity must demonstrate that it has all licenses and certificates necessary to complete the project.

(d) Within 120 days after receiving an unsolicited proposal, the responsible public entity shall complete a preliminary evaluation of the unsolicited proposal and shall either:

(1) if the preliminary evaluation is unfavorable, return the proposal without further action;

(2) if the preliminary evaluation is favorable, notify the proposer that the responsible public entity will further evaluate the proposal; or

(3) request amendments, clarification, or modification of the unsolicited proposal.

(e) The procurement process for unsolicited proposals shall be as follows:

(1) If the responsible public entity chooses to further evaluate an unsolicited proposal with the intent to enter into a public-private agreement for the proposed project, then the responsible public entity shall publish notice in the Illinois Procurement Bulletin or in a newspaper of general circulation covering the location of the project at least once a week for 2 weeks stating that the responsible public entity has received a proposal and will accept other proposals for the same project. The time frame within which the responsible public entity may accept other proposals shall be determined by the responsible public entity on a project-by-project basis based upon the complexity of the transportation project and the public benefit to be gained by allowing a longer or shorter period of time within which other proposals may be received; however, the time frame for allowing other proposals must be at least 21 days, but no more than 120 days, after the initial date of publication.

(2) A copy of the notice must be mailed to each local government directly affected by the transportation project.

(3) The responsible public entity shall provide reasonably sufficient information, including the identity of its contact person, to enable other private entities to make proposals.

(4) If, after no less than 120 days, no counterproposal is received, or if the counterproposals are evaluated and found to be equal to or inferior to the original unsolicited proposal, the responsible public entity may proceed to negotiate a contract with the original proposer.

(5) If, after no less than 120 days, one or more counterproposals meeting unsolicited proposal standards are received, and if, in the opinion of the responsible public entity, the counterproposals are evaluated and found to be superior to the original unsolicited proposal, the responsible public entity shall proceed to determine the successful participant through a final procurement phase known as "Best and Final Offer" (BAFO). The BAFO is a process whereby a responsible public entity shall invite the original private sector party and the proponent submitting the superior counterproposal to engage in a BAFO phase. The invitation to participate in the BAFO phase will provide to each participating proposer:

(A) the general concepts that were considered superior to the original proposal, while keeping proprietary information contained in the proposals confidential to the extent possible; and

(B) the preestablished evaluation criteria or the "basis of award" to be used to determine the successful proponent.

(6) Offers received in response to the BAFO invitation will be reviewed by the responsible public entity and scored in accordance with a preestablished criteria, or alternatively, in accordance with the basis of award provision identified through the BAFO process. The successful proponent will be the proponent offering "best value" to the responsible public entity.

(7) In all cases, the basis of award will be the best value to the responsible public entity, as determined by the responsible public entity.

(f) After a comprehensive evaluation and acceptance of an unsolicited proposal and any alternatives, the responsible public entity may commence negotiations with a proposer, considering:

(1) the proposal has received a favorable comprehensive evaluation;

(2) the proposal is not duplicative of existing infrastructure project;

(3) the alternative proposal does not closely resemble a pending competitive proposal for a public-private private partnership or other procurement;

(4) the proposal demonstrates a unique method, approach, or concept;

(5) facts and circumstances that preclude or warrant additional competition;

(6) the availability of any funds, debts, or assets that the State will contribute to the project;

(7) facts and circumstances demonstrating that the project will likely have a significant adverse impact on on State bond ratings; and

(8) indemnifications included in the proposal.

(Source: P.A. 103-570, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-3-24.)

Section 550. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by changing Section 27.1b as follows:

(705 ILCS 105/27.1b)

Sec. 27.1b. Circuit court clerk fees. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all fees charged by the clerks of the circuit court for the services described in this Section shall be established, collected, and disbursed in accordance with this Section. Except as otherwise specified in this Section, all fees under this Section shall be paid in advance and disbursed by each clerk on a monthly basis. In a county with a population of over 3,000,000, units of local government and school districts shall not be required to pay fees under this Section in advance and the clerk shall instead send an itemized bill to the unit of local government or school district, within 30 days of the fee being incurred, and the unit of local government or school district shall be allowed at least 30 days from the date of the itemized bill to pay; these payments shall be disbursed by each clerk on a monthly basis. Unless otherwise specified in this Section, the amount of a fee shall be determined by ordinance or resolution of the county board and remitted to the county treasurer to be used for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county. In a county with a population of over 3,000,000, any amount retained by the clerk of the circuit court or remitted to the county treasurer shall be subject to appropriation by the county board.

(a) Civil cases. The fee for filing a complaint, petition, or other pleading initiating a civil action shall be as set forth in the applicable schedule under this subsection in accordance with case categories established by the Supreme Court in schedules.

(1) SCHEDULE 1: not to exceed a total of $366 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $316 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $190 through December 31, 2021 and $184 on and after January 1, 2022. The fees collected under this schedule shall be disbursed as follows:

(A) The clerk shall retain a sum, in an amount not to exceed $55 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $45 in any other county determined by the clerk with the approval of the Supreme Court, to be used for court automation, court document storage, and administrative purposes.

(B) The clerk shall remit up to $21 to the State Treasurer. The State Treasurer shall deposit the appropriate amounts, in accordance with the clerk's instructions, as follows:

(i) up to $10, as specified by the Supreme Court in accordance with Part 10A of Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure, into the Mandatory Arbitration Fund;

(ii) $2 into the Access to Justice Fund; and

(iii) $9 into the Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(C) The clerk shall remit a sum to the County Treasurer, in an amount not to exceed $290 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $250 in any other county, as specified by ordinance or resolution passed by the county board, for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county.

(2) SCHEDULE 2: not to exceed a total of $357 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $266 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $190 through December 31, 2021 and $184 on and after January 1, 2022. The fees collected under this schedule shall be disbursed as follows:

(A) The clerk shall retain a sum, in an amount not to exceed $55 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $45 in any other county determined by the clerk with the approval of the Supreme Court, to be used for court automation, court document storage, and administrative purposes.

(B) The clerk shall remit up to $21 to the State Treasurer. The State Treasurer shall deposit the appropriate amounts, in accordance with the clerk's instructions, as follows:

(i) up to $10, as specified by the Supreme Court in accordance with Part 10A of Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure, into the Mandatory Arbitration Fund;

(ii) $2 into the Access to Justice Fund: and

(iii) $9 into the Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(C) The clerk shall remit a sum to the County Treasurer, in an amount not to exceed $281 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $200 in any other county, as specified by ordinance or resolution passed by the county board, for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county.

(3) SCHEDULE 3: not to exceed a total of $265 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $89 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $190 through December 31, 2021 and $184 on and after January 1, 2022. The fees collected under this schedule shall be disbursed as follows:

(A) The clerk shall retain a sum, in an amount not to exceed $55 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $22 in any other county determined by the clerk with the approval of the Supreme Court, to be used for court automation, court document storage, and administrative purposes.

(B) The clerk shall remit $11 to the State Treasurer. The State Treasurer shall deposit the appropriate amounts in accordance with the clerk's instructions, as follows:

(i) $2 into the Access to Justice Fund; and

(ii) $9 into the Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(C) The clerk shall remit a sum to the County Treasurer, in an amount not to exceed $199 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $56 in any other county, as specified by ordinance or resolution passed by the county board, for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county.

(4) SCHEDULE 4: $0.

(b) Appearance. The fee for filing an appearance in a civil action, including a cannabis civil law action under the Cannabis Control Act, shall be as set forth in the applicable schedule under this subsection in accordance with case categories established by the Supreme Court in schedules.

(1) SCHEDULE 1: not to exceed a total of $230 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $191 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $75. The fees collected under this schedule shall be disbursed as follows:

(A) The clerk shall retain a sum, in an amount not to exceed $50 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $45 in any other county determined by the clerk with the approval of the Supreme Court, to be used for court automation, court document storage, and administrative purposes.

(B) The clerk shall remit up to $21 to the State Treasurer. The State Treasurer shall deposit the appropriate amounts, in accordance with the clerk's instructions, as follows:

(i) up to $10, as specified by the Supreme Court in accordance with Part 10A of Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure, into the Mandatory Arbitration Fund;

(ii) $2 into the Access to Justice Fund; and

(iii) $9 into the Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(C) The clerk shall remit a sum to the County Treasurer, in an amount not to exceed $159 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $125 in any other county, as specified by ordinance or resolution passed by the county board, for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county.

(2) SCHEDULE 2: not to exceed a total of $130 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $109 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $75. The fees collected under this schedule shall be disbursed as follows:

(A) The clerk shall retain a sum, in an amount not to exceed $50 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $10 in any other county determined by the clerk with the approval of the Supreme Court, to be used for court automation, court document storage, and administrative purposes.

(B) The clerk shall remit $9 to the State Treasurer, which the State Treasurer shall deposit into the Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(C) The clerk shall remit a sum to the County Treasurer, in an amount not to exceed $71 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $90 in any other county, as specified by ordinance or resolution passed by the county board, for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county.

(3) SCHEDULE 3: $0.

(b-5) Kane County and Will County. In Kane County and Will County civil cases, there is an additional fee of up to $30 as set by the county board under Section 5-1101.3 of the Counties Code to be paid by each party at the time of filing the first pleading, paper, or other appearance; provided that no additional fee shall be required if more than one party is represented in a single pleading, paper, or other appearance. Distribution of fees collected under this subsection (b-5) shall be as provided in Section 5-1101.3 of the Counties Code.

(c) Counterclaim or third party complaint. When any defendant files a counterclaim or third party complaint, as part of the defendant's answer or otherwise, the defendant shall pay a filing fee for each counterclaim or third party complaint in an amount equal to the filing fee the defendant would have had to pay had the defendant brought a separate action for the relief sought in the counterclaim or third party complaint, less the amount of the appearance fee, if any, that the defendant has already paid in the action in which the counterclaim or third party complaint is filed.

(d) Alias summons. The clerk shall collect a fee not to exceed $6 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $5 in any other county for each alias summons or citation issued by the clerk, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $5 for each alias summons or citation issued by the clerk.

(e) Jury services. The clerk shall collect, in addition to other fees allowed by law, a sum not to exceed $212.50, as a fee for the services of a jury in every civil action not quasi-criminal in its nature and not a proceeding for the exercise of the right of eminent domain and in every other action wherein the right of trial by jury is or may be given by law. The jury fee shall be paid by the party demanding a jury at the time of filing the jury demand. If the fee is not paid by either party, no jury shall be called in the action or proceeding, and the action or proceeding shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(f) Change of venue. In connection with a change of venue:

(1) The clerk of the jurisdiction from which the case is transferred may charge a fee, not to exceed $40, for the preparation and certification of the record; and

(2) The clerk of the jurisdiction to which the case is transferred may charge the same filing fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(g) Petition to vacate or modify.

(1) In a proceeding involving a petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order filed within 30 days after the judgment or order was entered, except for an eviction case, small claims case, petition to reopen an estate, petition to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support, or petition to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, the fee shall not exceed $60 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and shall not exceed $50 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $50.

(2) In a proceeding involving a petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order filed more than 30 days after the judgment or order was entered, except for a petition to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support, or petition to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, the fee shall not exceed $75.

(3) In a proceeding involving a motion to vacate or amend a final order, motion to vacate an ex parte judgment, judgment of forfeiture, or "failure to appear" or "failure to comply" notices sent to the Secretary of State, the fee shall equal $40.

(h) Appeals preparation. The fee for preparation of a record on appeal shall be based on the number of pages, as follows:

(1) if the record contains no more than 100 pages, the fee shall not exceed $70 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and shall not exceed $50 in any other county;

(2) if the record contains between 100 and 200 pages, the fee shall not exceed $100; and

(3) if the record contains 200 or more pages, the clerk may collect an additional fee not to exceed 25 cents per page.

(i) Remands. In any cases remanded to the circuit court from the Supreme Court or the appellate court for a new trial, the clerk shall reinstate the case with either its original number or a new number. The clerk shall not charge any new or additional fee for the reinstatement. Upon reinstatement, the clerk shall advise the parties of the reinstatement. Parties shall have the same right to a jury trial on remand and reinstatement that they had before the appeal, and no additional or new fee or charge shall be made for a jury trial after remand.

(j) Garnishment, wage deduction, and citation. In garnishment affidavit, wage deduction affidavit, and citation petition proceedings:

(1) if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is not more than $1,000, the fee may not exceed $35 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and may not exceed $15 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $15;

(2) if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is greater than $1,000 and not more than $5,000, the fee may not exceed $45 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and may not exceed $30 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $30; and

(3) if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is greater than $5,000, the fee may not exceed $65 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and may not exceed $50 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $50.

(j-5) Debt collection. In any proceeding to collect a debt subject to the exception in item (ii) of subparagraph (A-5) of paragraph (1) of subsection (z) of this Section, the circuit court shall order and the clerk shall collect from each judgment debtor a fee of:

(1) $35 if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is not more than $1,000;

(2) $45 if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is greater than $1,000 and not more than $5,000; and

(3) $65 if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is greater than $5,000.

(k) Collections.

(1) For all collections made of others, except the State and county and except in maintenance or child support cases, the clerk may collect a fee of up to 2.5% of the amount collected and turned over.

(2) In child support and maintenance cases, the clerk may collect an annual fee of up to $36 from the person making payment for maintaining child support records and the processing of support orders to the State of Illinois KIDS system and the recording of payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. This fee is in addition to and separate from amounts ordered to be paid as maintenance or child support and shall be deposited into a Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund, of which the clerk shall be the custodian, ex officio, to be used by the clerk to maintain child support orders and record all payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. The clerk may recover from the person making the maintenance or child support payment any additional cost incurred in the collection of this annual fee.

(3) The clerk may collect a fee of $5 for certifications made to the Secretary of State as provided in Section 7-703 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and this fee shall be deposited into the Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund.

(4) In proceedings to foreclose the lien of delinquent real estate taxes, State's Attorneys shall receive a fee of 10% of the total amount realized from the sale of real estate sold in the proceedings. The clerk shall collect the fee from the total amount realized from the sale of the real estate sold in the proceedings and remit to the County Treasurer to be credited to the earnings of the Office of the State's Attorney.

(l) Mailing. The fee for the clerk mailing documents shall not exceed $10 plus the cost of postage.

(m) Certified copies. The fee for each certified copy of a judgment, after the first copy, shall not exceed $10.

(n) Certification, authentication, and reproduction.

(1) The fee for each certification or authentication for taking the acknowledgment of a deed or other instrument in writing with the seal of office shall not exceed $6.

(2) The fee for reproduction of any document contained in the clerk's files shall not exceed:

(A) $2 for the first page;

(B) 50 cents per page for the next 19 pages; and

(C) 25 cents per page for all additional pages.

(o) Record search. For each record search, within a division or municipal district, the clerk may collect a search fee not to exceed $6 for each year searched.

(p) Hard copy. For each page of hard copy print output, when case records are maintained on an automated medium, the clerk may collect a fee not to exceed $10 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $6 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $6.

(q) Index inquiry and other records. No fee shall be charged for a single plaintiff and defendant index inquiry or single case record inquiry when this request is made in person and the records are maintained in a current automated medium, and when no hard copy print output is requested. The fees to be charged for management records, multiple case records, and multiple journal records may be specified by the Chief Judge pursuant to the guidelines for access and dissemination of information approved by the Supreme Court.

(r) Performing a marriage. There shall be a $10 fee for performing a marriage in court.

(s) Voluntary assignment. For filing each deed of voluntary assignment, the clerk shall collect a fee not to exceed $20. For recording a deed of voluntary assignment, the clerk shall collect a fee not to exceed 50 cents for each 100 words. Exceptions filed to claims presented to an assignee of a debtor who has made a voluntary assignment for the benefit of creditors shall be considered and treated, for the purpose of taxing costs therein, as actions in which the party or parties filing the exceptions shall be considered as party or parties plaintiff, and the claimant or claimants as party or parties defendant, and those parties respectively shall pay to the clerk the same fees as provided by this Section to be paid in other actions.

(t) Expungement petition. Except as provided in Sections 1-19 and 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the clerk may collect a fee not to exceed $60 for each expungement petition filed and an additional fee not to exceed $4 for each certified copy of an order to expunge arrest records.

(u) Transcripts of judgment. For the filing of a transcript of judgment, the clerk may collect the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(v) Probate filings.

(1) For each account (other than one final account) filed in the estate of a decedent, or ward, the fee shall not exceed $25.

(2) For filing a claim in an estate when the amount claimed is greater than $150 and not more than $500, the fee shall not exceed $40 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and shall not exceed $25 in any other county; when the amount claimed is greater than $500 and not more than $10,000, the fee shall not exceed $55 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and shall not exceed $40 in any other county; and when the amount claimed is more than $10,000, the fee shall not exceed $75 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and shall not exceed $60 in any other county; except the court in allowing a claim may add to the amount allowed the filing fee paid by the claimant.

(3) For filing in an estate a claim, petition, or supplemental proceeding based upon an action seeking equitable relief including the construction or contest of a will, enforcement of a contract to make a will, and proceedings involving testamentary trusts or the appointment of testamentary trustees, the fee shall not exceed $60.

(4) There shall be no fee for filing in an estate: (i) the appearance of any person for the purpose of consent; or (ii) the appearance of an executor, administrator, administrator to collect, guardian, guardian ad litem, or special administrator.

(5) For each jury demand, the fee shall not exceed $137.50.

(6) For each certified copy of letters of office, of court order, or other certification, the fee shall not exceed $2 per page.

(7) For each exemplification, the fee shall not exceed $2, plus the fee for certification.

(8) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay the cost of publication by the clerk directly to the newspaper.

(9) The person on whose behalf a charge is incurred for witness, court reporter, appraiser, or other miscellaneous fees shall pay the same directly to the person entitled thereto.

(10) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay to the clerk all postage charges incurred by the clerk in mailing petitions, orders, notices, or other documents pursuant to the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975.

(w) Corrections of numbers. For correction of the case number, case title, or attorney computer identification number, if required by rule of court, on any document filed in the clerk's office, to be charged against the party that filed the document, the fee shall not exceed $25.

(x) Miscellaneous.

(1) Interest earned on any fees collected by the clerk shall be turned over to the county general fund as an earning of the office.

(2) For any check, draft, or other bank instrument returned to the clerk for non-sufficient funds, account closed, or payment stopped, the clerk shall collect a fee of $25.

(y) Other fees. Any fees not covered in this Section shall be set by rule or administrative order of the circuit court with the approval of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts. The clerk of the circuit court may provide services in connection with the operation of the clerk's office, other than those services mentioned in this Section, as may be requested by the public and agreed to by the clerk and approved by the Chief Judge. Any charges for additional services shall be as agreed to between the clerk and the party making the request and approved by the Chief Judge. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require any clerk to provide any service not otherwise required by law.

(y-5) Unpaid fees. Unless a court ordered payment schedule is implemented or the fee requirements of this Section are waived under a court order, the clerk of the circuit court may add to any unpaid fees and costs under this Section a delinquency amount equal to 5% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 30 days, 10% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 60 days, and 15% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 90 days. Notice to those parties may be made by signage posting or publication. The additional delinquency amounts collected under this Section shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operations and Administration Fund and used to defray additional administrative costs incurred by the clerk of the circuit court in collecting unpaid fees and costs.

(z) Exceptions.

(1) No fee authorized by this Section shall apply to:

(A) police departments or other law enforcement agencies. In this Section, "law enforcement agency" means: an agency of the State or agency of a unit of local government which is vested by law or ordinance with the duty to maintain public order and to enforce criminal laws or ordinances; the Attorney General; or any State's Attorney;

(A-5) any unit of local government or school district, except in counties having a population of 500,000 or more the county board may by resolution set fees for units of local government or school districts no greater than the minimum fees applicable in counties with a population less than 3,000,000; provided however, no fee may be charged to any unit of local government or school district in connection with any action which, in whole or in part, is: (i) to enforce an ordinance; (ii) to collect a debt; or (iii) under the Administrative Review Law;

(B) any action instituted by the corporate authority of a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants under Section 11-31-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code and any action instituted under subsection (b) of Section 11-31-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code by a private owner or tenant of real property within 1,200 feet of a dangerous or unsafe building seeking an order compelling the owner or owners of the building to take any of the actions authorized under that subsection;

(C) any commitment petition or petition for an order authorizing the administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(D) a petitioner in any order of protection proceeding, including, but not limited to, fees for filing, modifying, withdrawing, certifying, or photocopying petitions for orders of protection, issuing alias summons, any related filing service, or certifying, modifying, vacating, or photocopying any orders of protection;

(E) proceedings for the appointment of a confidential intermediary under the Adoption Act;

(F) a minor subject to Article III, IV, or V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian; or

(G) a minor under the age of 18 transferred to adult court or excluded from juvenile court jurisdiction under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(2) No fee other than the filing fee contained in the applicable schedule in subsection (a) shall be charged to any person in connection with an adoption proceeding.

(3) Upon good cause shown, the court may waive any fees associated with a special needs adoption. The term "special needs adoption" has the meaning provided by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

(Source: P.A. 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-278, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-4, eff. 5-31-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 8-30-23.)

Section 555. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 1-8, 2-3, 2-6, 2-9, 2-10, 2-20, 2-28, 3-5, 3-6, 3-16, 3-17, 3-19, 3-21, 3-24, 3-33.5, 4-8, 4-9, 4-14, 4-16, 4-18, 4-21, 5-105, 5-120, 5-401.6, 5-410, 5-525, 5-601, 5-610, 5-615, 5-625, 5-705, 5-710, 5-715, 5-810, 5-915, 6-7, 6-9, and 6-10 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/1-8)

Sec. 1-8. Confidentiality and accessibility of juvenile court records.

(A) A juvenile adjudication shall never be considered a conviction nor shall an adjudicated individual be considered a criminal. Unless expressly allowed by law, a juvenile adjudication shall not operate to impose upon the individual any of the civil disabilities ordinarily imposed by or resulting from conviction. Unless expressly allowed by law, adjudications shall not prejudice or disqualify the individual in any civil service application or appointment, from holding public office, or from receiving any license granted by public authority. All juvenile court records which have not been expunged are sealed and may never be disclosed to the general public or otherwise made widely available. Sealed juvenile court records may be obtained only under this Section and Section 1-7 and Part 9 of Article V of this Act, when their use is needed for good cause and with an order from the juvenile court. Inspection and copying of juvenile court records relating to a minor who is the subject of a proceeding under this Act shall be restricted to the following:

(1) The minor who is the subject of record, the minor's parents, guardian, and counsel.

(2) Law enforcement officers and law enforcement agencies when such information is essential to executing an arrest or search warrant or other compulsory process, or to conducting an ongoing investigation or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" means any ongoing organization, association, or group of 3 or more persons, whether formal or informal, having as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more criminal acts and that has a common name or common identifying sign, symbol, or specific color apparel displayed, and whose members individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal activity.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(3) Judges, hearing officers, prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, social workers, or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or pre-disposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors under the order of the juvenile court when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(4) Judges, federal, State, and local prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, and designated staff:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805;

(b) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the conditions of pretrial release;

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation or fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation; or

(d) when a minor becomes 18 years of age or older, and is the subject of criminal proceedings, including a hearing to determine the conditions of pretrial release, a pre-trial investigation, a pre-sentence investigation, a fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation.

(5) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(6) Authorized military personnel.

(6.5) Employees of the federal government authorized by law.

(7) Victims, their subrogees and legal representatives; however, such persons shall have access only to the name and address of the minor and information pertaining to the disposition or alternative adjustment plan of the juvenile court.

(8) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular records; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record.

(9) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers.

(10) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court.

(11) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile court records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, who is the subject of juvenile court records sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (11) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(12) (Blank).

(A-1) Findings and exclusions of paternity entered in proceedings occurring under Article II of this Act shall be disclosed, in a manner and form approved by the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court, to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services when necessary to discharge the duties of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(B) A minor who is the victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record.

(C)(0.1) In cases where the records concern a pending juvenile court case, the requesting party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(0.2) In cases where the juvenile court records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the requesting party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(0.3) In determining whether juvenile court records should be made available for inspection and whether inspection should be limited to certain parts of the file, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the requesting party's interest in obtaining the information. The State's Attorney, the minor, and the minor's parents, guardian, and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records.

(0.4) Any records obtained in violation of this Section shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(D) Pending or following any adjudication of delinquency for any offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the victim of any such offense shall receive the rights set out in Sections 4 and 6 of the Bill of Rights of Crime for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act; and the juvenile who is the subject of the adjudication, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, shall be treated as an adult for the purpose of affording such rights to the victim.

(E) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of the federal government, or any state, county, or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records of disposition or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(F) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the dispositional order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to the dispositional order shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any school counselor designated by the principal or chief administrative officer.

(G) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(H) When a court hearing a proceeding under Article II of this Act becomes aware that an earlier proceeding under Article II had been heard in a different county, that court shall request, and the court in which the earlier proceedings were initiated shall transmit, an authenticated copy of the juvenile court record, including all documents, petitions, and orders filed and the minute orders, transcript of proceedings, and docket entries of the court.

(I) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Illinois State Police, in the form and manner required by the Illinois State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before the minor's 18th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Illinois State Police Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Illinois State Police Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(J) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to juvenile law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(K) Willful violation of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor and each violation is subject to a fine of $1,000. This subsection (K) shall not apply to the person who is the subject of the record.

(L) A person convicted of violating this Section is liable for damages in the amount of $1,000 or actual damages, whichever is greater.

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-3) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-3)

Sec. 2-3. Neglected or abused minor.

(1) Those who are neglected include any minor under 18 years of age or a minor 18 years of age or older for whom the court has made a finding of probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected, or dependent under subsection (1) of Section 2-10 prior to the minor's 18th birthday:

(a) who is not receiving the proper or necessary support, education as required by law, or medical or other remedial care recognized under State law as necessary for a minor's well-being, or other care necessary for the minor's well-being, including adequate food, clothing, and shelter, or who is abandoned by the minor's parent or parents or other person or persons responsible for the minor's welfare, except that a minor shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the minor's parent or parents or other person or persons responsible for the minor's welfare have left the minor in the care of an adult relative for any period of time, who the parent or parents or other person responsible for the minor's welfare know is both a mentally capable adult relative and physically capable adult relative, as defined by this Act; or

(b) whose environment is injurious to the minor's welfare; or

(c) who is a any newborn infant whose blood, urine, or meconium contains any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, as now or hereafter amended, or a metabolite of a controlled substance, with the exception of controlled substances or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant is the result of medical treatment administered to the person who gave birth or the newborn infant; or

(d) any minor whose parent or other person responsible for the minor's welfare leaves the minor without supervision for an unreasonable period of time without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that minor. Whether the minor was left without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that minor or the period of time was unreasonable shall be determined by considering the following factors, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) the age of the minor;

(2) the number of minors left at the location;

(3) the special needs of the minor, including whether the minor is a person with a physical or mental disability, or is otherwise in need of ongoing prescribed medical treatment, such as periodic doses of insulin or other medications;

(4) the duration of time in which the minor was left without supervision;

(5) the condition and location of the place where the minor was left without supervision;

(6) the time of day or night when the minor was left without supervision;

(7) the weather conditions, including whether the minor was left in a location with adequate protection from the natural elements, such as adequate heat or light;

(8) the location of the parent or guardian at the time the minor was left without supervision and , the physical distance the minor was from the parent or guardian at the time the minor was without supervision;

(9) whether the minor's movement was restricted, or the minor was otherwise locked within a room or other structure;

(10) whether the minor was given a phone number of a person or location to call in the event of an emergency and whether the minor was capable of making an emergency call;

(11) whether there was food and other provision left for the minor;

(12) whether any of the conduct is attributable to economic hardship or illness and the parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of the child made a good faith effort to provide for the health and safety of the minor;

(13) the age and physical and mental capabilities of the person or persons who provided supervision for the minor;

(14) whether the minor was left under the supervision of another person;

(15) any other factor that would endanger the health and safety of that particular minor; or

(e) any minor who has been provided with interim crisis intervention services under Section 3-5 of this Act and whose parent, guardian, or custodian refuses to permit the minor to return home unless the minor is an immediate physical danger to the minor or others living in the home.

A minor shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the minor has been relinquished in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(1.5) A minor shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the minor's parent or other person responsible for the minor's welfare permits the minor to engage in independent activities unless the minor was permitted to engage in independent activities under circumstances presenting unreasonable risk of harm to the minor's mental or physical health, safety, or well-being. "Independent activities" includes, but is not limited to:

(a) traveling to and from school, including by walking, running, or bicycling;

(b) traveling to and from nearby commercial or recreational facilities;

(c) engaging in outdoor play;

(d) remaining in a vehicle unattended, except as otherwise provided by law;

(e) remaining at home or at a similarly appropriate location unattended; or

(f) engaging in a similar independent activity alone or with other children.

In determining whether an independent activity presented unreasonable risk of harm, the court shall consider:

(1) whether the activity is accepted as suitable for minors of the same age, maturity level, and developmental capacity as the involved minor;

(2) the factors listed in items (1) through (15) of paragraph (d) of subsection (1); and

(3) any other factor the court deems relevant.

(2) Those who are abused include any minor under 18 years of age or a minor 18 years of age or older for whom the court has made a finding of probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected, or dependent under subsection (1) of Section 2-10 prior to the minor's 18th birthday whose parent or immediate family member, or any person responsible for the minor's welfare, or any person who is in the same family or household as the minor, or any individual residing in the same home as the minor, or a paramour of the minor's parent:

(i) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be inflicted upon such minor physical injury, by other than accidental means, which causes death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(ii) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to such minor by other than accidental means which would be likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(iii) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense against such minor, as such sex offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or in the Wrongs to Children Act, and extending those definitions of sex offenses to include minors under 18 years of age;

(iv) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of torture upon such minor;

(v) inflicts excessive corporal punishment;

(vi) commits or allows to be committed the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons as defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, upon such minor; or

(vii) allows, encourages, or requires a minor to commit any act of prostitution, as defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and extending those definitions to include minors under 18 years of age.

A minor shall not be considered abused for the sole reason that the minor has been relinquished in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(3) This Section does not apply to a minor who would be included herein solely for the purpose of qualifying for financial assistance for the minor or , the minor's parents, guardian, or custodian.

(4) The changes made by Public Act 101-79 this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly apply to a case that is pending on or after July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-79) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-233, eff. 6-30-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-6) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-6)

Sec. 2-6. Duty of officer. (1) A law enforcement officer who takes a minor into custody under Section 2-5 shall immediately make a reasonable attempt to notify the parent or other person legally responsible for the minor's care or the person with whom the minor resides that the minor has been taken into custody and where the minor is being held.

(a) A law enforcement officer who takes a minor into custody with a warrant shall without unnecessary delay take the minor to the nearest juvenile police officer designated for such purposes in the county of venue.

(b) A law enforcement officer who takes a minor into custody without a warrant shall place the minor in temporary protective custody and shall immediately notify the Department of Children and Family Services by contacting either the central register established under Section 7.7 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or the nearest Department of Children and Family Services office. If there is reasonable cause to suspect that a minor has died as a result of abuse or neglect, the law enforcement officer shall immediately report such suspected abuse or neglect to the appropriate medical examiner or coroner.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-9) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-9)

Sec. 2-9. Setting of temporary custody hearing; notice; release.

(1) Unless sooner released, a minor, as defined in Section 2-3 or 2-4 of this Act, taken into temporary protective custody must be brought before a judicial officer within 48 hours, exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and court-designated holidays, for a temporary custody hearing to determine whether the minor shall be further held in custody.

(2) If the probation officer or such other public officer designated by the court determines that the minor should be retained in custody, the probation officer or such other public officer designated by the court shall cause a petition to be filed as provided in Section 2-13 of this Article, and the clerk of the court shall set the matter for hearing on the temporary custody hearing calendar. When a parent, guardian, custodian, or responsible relative is present and so requests, the temporary custody hearing shall be held immediately if the court is in session, otherwise at the earliest feasible time. The petitioner through counsel or such other public officer designated by the court shall ensure insure notification to the minor's parent, guardian, custodian, or responsible relative of the time and place of the hearing by the best practicable notice, allowing for oral notice in place of written notice only if provision of written notice is unreasonable under the circumstances.

(3) The minor must be released from temporary protective custody at the expiration of the 48-hour 48 hour period specified by this Section if not brought before a judicial officer within that period.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-10) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-10)

Sec. 2-10. Temporary custody hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the temporary custody hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected, or dependent it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected, or dependent, the court shall state in writing the factual basis supporting its finding and the minor, the minor's parent, guardian, or custodian, and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. The Department of Children and Family Services shall give testimony concerning indicated reports of abuse and neglect, of which they are aware through the central registry, involving the minor's parent, guardian, or custodian. After such testimony, the court may, consistent with the health, safety, and best interests of the minor, enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of parent, guardian, or custodian if the parent, guardian, or custodian appears to take custody. If it is determined that a parent's, guardian's, or custodian's compliance with critical services mitigates the necessity for removal of the minor from the minor's home, the court may enter an Order of Protection setting forth reasonable conditions of behavior that a parent, guardian, or custodian must observe for a specified period of time, not to exceed 12 months, without a violation; provided, however, that the 12-month period shall begin anew after any violation. "Custodian" includes the Department of Children and Family Services, if it has been given custody of the child, or any other agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child. If it is consistent with the health, safety, and best interests of the minor, the court may also prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency; however, on and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-803) and before January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less than 16 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists; and on and after January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less than 15 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.

In placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. In determining the health, safety, and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court must find that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the safety, and protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility or that the minor is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and must further find that reasonable efforts have been made or that, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, no efforts reasonably can be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from the minor's home. The court shall require documentation from the Department of Children and Family Services as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from the minor's home or the reasons why no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal. When a minor is placed in the home of a relative, the Department of Children and Family Services shall complete a preliminary background review of the members of the minor's custodian's household in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Child Care Act of 1969 within 90 days of that placement. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or the minor's family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a parent-child visiting plan, within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The parent-child visiting plan shall set out the time and place of visits, the frequency of visits, the length of visits, who shall be present at the visits, and where appropriate, the minor's opportunities to have telephone and mail communication with the parents.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, and when the child has siblings in care, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a sibling placement and contact plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The sibling placement and contact plan shall set forth whether the siblings are placed together, and if they are not placed together, what, if any, efforts are being made to place them together. If the Department has determined that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. For siblings placed separately, the sibling placement and contact plan shall set the time and place for visits, the frequency of the visits, the length of visits, who shall be present for the visits, and where appropriate, the child's opportunities to have contact with their siblings in addition to in person contact. If the Department determines it is not in the best interest of a sibling to have contact with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. The sibling placement and contact plan shall specify a date for development of the Sibling Contact Support Plan, under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, and shall remain in effect until the Sibling Contact Support Plan is developed.

For good cause, the court may waive the requirement to file the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan, or extend the time for filing either plan. Any party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan to determine whether it is reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal. A party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan to determine whether it is consistent with the minor's best interest. The court may refer the parties to mediation where available. The frequency, duration, and locations of visitation shall be measured by the needs of the child and family, and not by the convenience of Department personnel. Child development principles shall be considered by the court in its analysis of how frequent visitation should be, how long it should last, where it should take place, and who should be present. If upon motion of the party to review either plan and after receiving evidence, the court determines that the parent-child visiting plan is not reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal or that the restrictions placed on parent-child contact or sibling placement or contact are contrary to the child's best interests, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court shall enter an order for the Department to implement changes to the parent-child visiting plan or sibling placement or contact plan, consistent with the court's findings. At any stage of proceeding, any party may by motion request the court to enter any orders necessary to implement the parent-child visiting plan, sibling placement or contact plan, or subsequently developed Sibling Contact Support Plan. Nothing under this subsection (2) shall restrict the court from granting discretionary authority to the Department to increase opportunities for additional parent-child contacts or sibling contacts, without further court orders. Nothing in this subsection (2) shall restrict the Department from immediately restricting or terminating parent-child contact or sibling contacts, without either amending the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling contact plan or obtaining a court order, where the Department or its assigns reasonably believe there is an immediate need to protect the child's health, safety, and welfare. Such restrictions or terminations must be based on available facts to the Department and its assigns when viewed in light of the surrounding circumstances and shall only occur on an individual case-by-case basis. The Department shall file with the court and serve on the parties any amendments to the plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, of the change of the visitation.

Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that it is consistent with the health, safety, and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court shall state in writing (i) the factual basis supporting its findings concerning the immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another and (ii) the factual basis supporting its findings that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from the minor's home or that no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from the minor's home. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian, and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child. The order together with the court's findings of fact in support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian, or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

If the child is placed in the temporary custody of the Department of Children and Family Services for the minor's protection, the court shall admonish the parents, guardian, custodian, or responsible relative that the parents must cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services, comply with the terms of the service plans, and correct the conditions which require the child to be in care, or risk termination of their parental rights. The court shall ensure, by inquiring in open court of each parent, guardian, custodian, or responsible relative, that the parent, guardian, custodian, or responsible relative has had the opportunity to provide the Department with all known names, addresses, and telephone numbers of each of the minor's living adult relatives, including, but not limited to, grandparents, siblings of the minor's parents, and siblings. The court shall advise the parents, guardian, custodian, or responsible relative to inform the Department if additional information regarding the minor's adult relatives becomes available.

(3) If prior to the shelter care hearing for a minor described in Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3, and 4-3 the moving party is unable to serve notice on the party respondent, the shelter care hearing may proceed ex parte. A shelter care order from an ex parte hearing shall be endorsed with the date and hour of issuance and shall be filed with the clerk's office and entered of record. The order shall expire after 10 days from the time it is issued unless before its expiration it is renewed, at a hearing upon appearance of the party respondent, or upon an affidavit of the moving party as to all diligent efforts to notify the party respondent by notice as herein prescribed. The notice prescribed shall be in writing and shall be personally delivered to the minor or the minor's attorney and to the last known address of the other person or persons entitled to notice. The notice shall also state the nature of the allegations, the nature of the order sought by the State, including whether temporary custody is sought, and the consequences of failure to appear and shall contain a notice that the parties will not be entitled to further written notices or publication notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights, except as required by Supreme Court Rule 11; and shall explain the right of the parties and the procedures to vacate or modify a shelter care order as provided in this Section. The notice for a shelter care hearing shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO PARENTS AND CHILDREN

OF SHELTER CARE HEARING

On ................ at ........., before the Honorable ................, (address:) ................., the State of Illinois will present evidence (1) that (name of child or children) ....................... are abused, neglected, or dependent for the following reasons:

.............................................. and (2) whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child or children from the responsible relative.

YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR AT THE HEARING MAY RESULT IN PLACEMENT of the child or children in foster care until a trial can be held. A trial may not be held for up to 90 days. You will not be entitled to further notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights.

At the shelter care hearing, parents have the following rights:

1. To ask the court to appoint a lawyer if they cannot afford one.

2. To ask the court to continue the hearing to allow them time to prepare.

3. To present evidence concerning:

a. Whether or not the child or children were abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether or not there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child from home (including: their ability to care for the child, conditions in the home, alternative means of protecting the child other than removal).

c. The best interests of the child.

4. To cross examine the State's witnesses.

The Notice for rehearings shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE OF PARENT'S AND CHILDREN'S RIGHTS

TO REHEARING ON TEMPORARY CUSTODY

If you were not present at and did not have adequate notice of the Shelter Care Hearing at which temporary custody of ............... was awarded to ................, you have the right to request a full rehearing on whether the State should have temporary custody of ................. To request this rehearing, you must file with the Clerk of the Juvenile Court (address): ........................, in person or by mailing a statement (affidavit) setting forth the following:

1. That you were not present at the shelter care hearing.

2. That you did not get adequate notice (explaining how the notice was inadequate).

3. Your signature.

4. Signature must be notarized.

The rehearing should be scheduled within 48 hours of your filing this affidavit.

At the rehearing, your rights are the same as at the initial shelter care hearing. The enclosed notice explains those rights.

At the Shelter Care Hearing, children have the following rights:

1. To have a guardian ad litem appointed.

2. To be declared competent as a witness and to present testimony concerning:

a. Whether they are abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to be removed from home.

c. Their best interests.

3. To cross examine witnesses for other parties.

4. To obtain an explanation of any proceedings and orders of the court.

(4) If the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative, minor age 8 or over, or counsel of the minor did not have actual notice of or was not present at the shelter care hearing, the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative, minor age 8 or over, or counsel of the minor may file an affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 48 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 2-9, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(8) If neither the parent, guardian, or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian, or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian, or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(9) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, on notice to all parties entitled to notice, may file a motion that it is in the best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; or

(c) A person not a party to the alleged abuse, neglect or dependency, including a parent, relative, or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety.

In ruling on the motion, the court shall determine whether it is consistent with the health, safety, and best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order. If the minor is being restored to the custody of a parent, legal custodian, or guardian who lives outside of Illinois, and an Interstate Compact has been requested and refused, the court may order the Department of Children and Family Services to arrange for an assessment of the minor's proposed living arrangement and for ongoing monitoring of the health, safety, and best interest of the minor and compliance with any order of protective supervision entered in accordance with Section 2-20 or 2-25.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and the minor's family.

(10) When the court finds or has found that there is probable cause to believe a minor is an abused minor as described in subsection (2) of Section 2-3 and that there is an immediate and urgent necessity for the abused minor to be placed in shelter care, immediate and urgent necessity shall be presumed for any other minor residing in the same household as the abused minor provided:

(a) Such other minor is the subject of an abuse or neglect petition pending before the court; and

(b) A party to the petition is seeking shelter care for such other minor.

Once the presumption of immediate and urgent necessity has been raised, the burden of demonstrating the lack of immediate and urgent necessity shall be on any party that is opposing shelter care for the other minor.

(11) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(12) After the court has placed a minor in the care of a temporary custodian pursuant to this Section, any party may file a motion requesting the court to grant the temporary custodian the authority to serve as a surrogate decision maker for the minor under the Health Care Surrogate Act for purposes of making decisions pursuant to paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Health Care Surrogate Act. The court may grant the motion if it determines by clear and convincing evidence that it is in the best interests of the minor to grant the temporary custodian such authority. In making its determination, the court shall weigh the following factors in addition to considering the best interests factors listed in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of this Act:

(a) the efforts to identify and locate the respondents and adult family members of the minor and the results of those efforts;

(b) the efforts to engage the respondents and adult family members of the minor in decision making on behalf of the minor;

(c) the length of time the efforts in paragraphs (a) and (b) have been ongoing;

(d) the relationship between the respondents and adult family members and the minor;

(e) medical testimony regarding the extent to which the minor is suffering and the impact of a delay in decision-making on the minor; and

(f) any other factor the court deems relevant.

If the Department of Children and Family Services is the temporary custodian of the minor, in addition to the requirements of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Health Care Surrogate Act, the Department shall follow its rules and procedures in exercising authority granted under this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 102-489, eff. 8-20-21; 102-502, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-20) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-20)

Sec. 2-20. Continuance under supervision.

(1) The court may enter an order of continuance under supervision: (a) upon an admission or stipulation by the appropriate respondent or minor respondent of the facts supporting the petition and before proceeding to findings and adjudication, or after hearing the evidence at the adjudicatory hearing but before noting in the minutes of proceeding a finding of whether or not the minor is abused, neglected or dependent; and (b) in the absence of objection made in open court by the minor, the minor's parent, guardian, custodian, responsible relative, or defense attorney, or the State's Attorney.

(2) If the minor, the minor's parent, guardian, custodian, responsible relative, or defense attorney, or the State's Attorney, objects in open court to any such continuance and insists upon proceeding to findings and adjudication, the court shall so proceed.

(3) Nothing in this Section limits the power of the court to order a continuance of the hearing for the production of additional evidence or for any other proper reason.

(4) When a hearing where a minor is alleged to be abused, neglected or dependent is continued pursuant to this Section, the court may permit the minor to remain in the minor's home if the court determines and makes written factual findings that the minor can be cared for at home when consistent with the minor's health, safety, and best interests, subject to such conditions concerning the minor's conduct and supervision as the court may require by order.

(5) If a petition is filed charging a violation of a condition of the continuance under supervision, the court shall conduct a hearing. If the court finds that such condition of supervision has not been fulfilled the court may proceed to findings and adjudication and disposition. The filing of a petition for violation of a condition of the continuance under supervision shall toll the period of continuance under supervision until the final determination of the charge, and the term of the continuance under supervision shall not run until the hearing and disposition of the petition for violation; provided where the petition alleges conduct that does not constitute a criminal offense, the hearing must be held within 15 days of the filing of the petition unless a delay in such hearing has been occasioned by the minor, in which case the delay shall continue the tolling of the period of continuance under supervision for the period of such delay.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-28)

Sec. 2-28. Court review.

(1) The court may require any legal custodian or guardian of the person appointed under this Act to report periodically to the court or may cite the legal custodian or guardian into court and require the legal custodian, guardian, or the legal custodian's or guardian's agency to make a full and accurate report of the doings of the legal custodian, guardian, or agency on behalf of the minor. The custodian or guardian, within 10 days after such citation, or earlier if the court determines it to be necessary to protect the health, safety, or welfare of the minor, shall make the report, either in writing verified by affidavit or orally under oath in open court, or otherwise as the court directs. Upon the hearing of the report the court may remove the custodian or guardian and appoint another in the custodian's or guardian's stead or restore the minor to the custody of the minor's parents or former guardian or custodian. However, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian, or legal custodian in any case in which the minor is found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, unless the minor can be cared for at home without endangering the minor's health or safety and it is in the best interests of the minor, and if such neglect, abuse, or dependency is found by the court under paragraph (1) of Section 2-21 of this Act to have come about due to the acts or omissions or both of such parent, guardian, or legal custodian, until such time as an investigation is made as provided in paragraph (5) and a hearing is held on the issue of the fitness of such parent, guardian, or legal custodian to care for the minor and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian, or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor.

(1.5) The public agency that is the custodian or guardian of the minor shall file a written report with the court no later than 15 days after a minor in the agency's care remains:

(1) in a shelter placement beyond 30 days;

(2) in a psychiatric hospital past the time when the minor is clinically ready for discharge or beyond medical necessity for the minor's health; or

(3) in a detention center or Department of Juvenile Justice facility solely because the public agency cannot find an appropriate placement for the minor.

The report shall explain the steps the agency is taking to ensure the minor is placed appropriately, how the minor's needs are being met in the minor's shelter placement, and if a future placement has been identified by the Department, why the anticipated placement is appropriate for the needs of the minor and the anticipated placement date.

(1.6) Within 30 days after placing a child in its care in a qualified residential treatment program, as defined by the federal Social Security Act, the Department of Children and Family Services shall prepare a written report for filing with the court and send copies of the report to all parties. Within 20 days of the filing of the report, or as soon thereafter as the court's schedule allows but not more than 60 days from the date of placement, the court shall hold a hearing to consider the Department's report and determine whether placement of the child in a qualified residential treatment program provides the most effective and appropriate level of care for the child in the least restrictive environment and if the placement is consistent with the short-term and long-term goals for the child, as specified in the permanency plan for the child. The court shall approve or disapprove the placement. If applicable, the requirements of Sections 2-27.1 and 2-27.2 must also be met. The Department's written report and the court's written determination shall be included in and made part of the case plan for the child. If the child remains placed in a qualified residential treatment program, the Department shall submit evidence at each status and permanency hearing:

(1) demonstrating that on-going assessment of the strengths and needs of the child continues to support the determination that the child's needs cannot be met through placement in a foster family home, that the placement provides the most effective and appropriate level of care for the child in the least restrictive, appropriate environment, and that the placement is consistent with the short-term and long-term permanency goal for the child, as specified in the permanency plan for the child;

(2) documenting the specific treatment or service needs that should be met for the child in the placement and the length of time the child is expected to need the treatment or services; and

(3) the efforts made by the agency to prepare the child to return home or to be placed with a fit and willing relative, a legal guardian, or an adoptive parent, or in a foster family home.

(2) The first permanency hearing shall be conducted by the judge. Subsequent permanency hearings may be heard by a judge or by hearing officers appointed or approved by the court in the manner set forth in Section 2-28.1 of this Act. The initial hearing shall be held (a) within 12 months from the date temporary custody was taken, regardless of whether an adjudication or dispositional hearing has been completed within that time frame, (b) if the parental rights of both parents have been terminated in accordance with the procedure described in subsection (5) of Section 2-21, within 30 days of the order for termination of parental rights and appointment of a guardian with power to consent to adoption, or (c) in accordance with subsection (2) of Section 2-13.1. Subsequent permanency hearings shall be held every 6 months or more frequently if necessary in the court's determination following the initial permanency hearing, in accordance with the standards set forth in this Section, until the court determines that the plan and goal have been achieved. Once the plan and goal have been achieved, if the minor remains in substitute care, the case shall be reviewed at least every 6 months thereafter, subject to the provisions of this Section, unless the minor is placed in the guardianship of a suitable relative or other person and the court determines that further monitoring by the court does not further the health, safety, or best interest of the child and that this is a stable permanent placement. The permanency hearings must occur within the time frames set forth in this subsection and may not be delayed in anticipation of a report from any source or due to the agency's failure to timely file its written report (this written report means the one required under the next paragraph and does not mean the service plan also referred to in that paragraph).

The public agency that is the custodian or guardian of the minor, or another agency responsible for the minor's care, shall ensure that all parties to the permanency hearings are provided a copy of the most recent service plan prepared within the prior 6 months at least 14 days in advance of the hearing. If not contained in the agency's service plan, the agency shall also include a report setting forth (i) any special physical, psychological, educational, medical, emotional, or other needs of the minor or the minor's family that are relevant to a permanency or placement determination and (ii) for any minor age 16 or over, a written description of the programs and services that will enable the minor to prepare for independent living. If not contained in the agency's service plan, the agency's report shall specify if a minor is placed in a licensed child care facility under a corrective plan by the Department due to concerns impacting the minor's safety and well-being. The report shall explain the steps the Department is taking to ensure the safety and well-being of the minor and that the minor's needs are met in the facility. The agency's written report must detail what progress or lack of progress the parent has made in correcting the conditions requiring the child to be in care; whether the child can be returned home without jeopardizing the child's health, safety, and welfare, and, if not, what permanency goal is recommended to be in the best interests of the child, and why the other permanency goals are not appropriate. The caseworker must appear and testify at the permanency hearing. If a permanency hearing has not previously been scheduled by the court, the moving party shall move for the setting of a permanency hearing and the entry of an order within the time frames set forth in this subsection.

At the permanency hearing, the court shall determine the future status of the child. The court shall set one of the following permanency goals:

(A) The minor will be returned home by a specific date within 5 months.

(B) The minor will be in short-term care with a continued goal to return home within a period not to exceed one year, where the progress of the parent or parents is substantial giving particular consideration to the age and individual needs of the minor.

(B-1) The minor will be in short-term care with a continued goal to return home pending a status hearing. When the court finds that a parent has not made reasonable efforts or reasonable progress to date, the court shall identify what actions the parent and the Department must take in order to justify a finding of reasonable efforts or reasonable progress and shall set a status hearing to be held not earlier than 9 months from the date of adjudication nor later than 11 months from the date of adjudication during which the parent's progress will again be reviewed.

(C) The minor will be in substitute care pending court determination on termination of parental rights.

(D) Adoption, provided that parental rights have been terminated or relinquished.

(E) The guardianship of the minor will be transferred to an individual or couple on a permanent basis provided that goals (A) through (D) have been deemed inappropriate and not in the child's best interests. The court shall confirm that the Department has discussed adoption, if appropriate, and guardianship with the caregiver prior to changing a goal to guardianship.

(F) The minor over age 15 will be in substitute care pending independence. In selecting this permanency goal, the Department of Children and Family Services may provide services to enable reunification and to strengthen the minor's connections with family, fictive kin, and other responsible adults, provided the services are in the minor's best interest. The services shall be documented in the service plan.

(G) The minor will be in substitute care because the minor cannot be provided for in a home environment due to developmental disabilities or mental illness or because the minor is a danger to self or others, provided that goals (A) through (D) have been deemed inappropriate and not in the child's best interests.

In selecting any permanency goal, the court shall indicate in writing the reasons the goal was selected and why the preceding goals were deemed inappropriate and not in the child's best interest. Where the court has selected a permanency goal other than (A), (B), or (B-1), the Department of Children and Family Services shall not provide further reunification services, except as provided in paragraph (F) of this subsection (2), but shall provide services consistent with the goal selected.

(H) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, the court may select the goal of continuing foster care as a permanency goal if:

(1) The Department of Children and Family Services has custody and guardianship of the minor;

(2) The court has deemed all other permanency goals inappropriate based on the child's best interest;

(3) The court has found compelling reasons, based on written documentation reviewed by the court, to place the minor in continuing foster care. Compelling reasons include:

(a) the child does not wish to be adopted or to be placed in the guardianship of the minor's relative or foster care placement;

(b) the child exhibits an extreme level of need such that the removal of the child from the minor's placement would be detrimental to the child; or

(c) the child who is the subject of the permanency hearing has existing close and strong bonds with a sibling, and achievement of another permanency goal would substantially interfere with the subject child's sibling relationship, taking into consideration the nature and extent of the relationship, and whether ongoing contact is in the subject child's best interest, including long-term emotional interest, as compared with the legal and emotional benefit of permanence;

(4) The child has lived with the relative or foster parent for at least one year; and

(5) The relative or foster parent currently caring for the child is willing and capable of providing the child with a stable and permanent environment.

The court shall set a permanency goal that is in the best interest of the child. In determining that goal, the court shall consult with the minor in an age-appropriate manner regarding the proposed permanency or transition plan for the minor. The court's determination shall include the following factors:

(1) Age of the child.

(2) Options available for permanence, including both out-of-state and in-state placement options.

(3) Current placement of the child and the intent of the family regarding adoption.

(4) Emotional, physical, and mental status or condition of the child.

(5) Types of services previously offered and whether or not the services were successful and, if not successful, the reasons the services failed.

(6) Availability of services currently needed and whether the services exist.

(7) Status of siblings of the minor.

The court shall consider (i) the permanency goal contained in the service plan, (ii) the appropriateness of the services contained in the plan and whether those services have been provided, (iii) whether reasonable efforts have been made by all the parties to the service plan to achieve the goal, and (iv) whether the plan and goal have been achieved. All evidence relevant to determining these questions, including oral and written reports, may be admitted and may be relied on to the extent of their probative value.

The court shall make findings as to whether, in violation of Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, any portion of the service plan compels a child or parent to engage in any activity or refrain from any activity that is not reasonably related to remedying a condition or conditions that gave rise or which could give rise to any finding of child abuse or neglect. The services contained in the service plan shall include services reasonably related to remedy the conditions that gave rise to removal of the child from the home of the child's parents, guardian, or legal custodian or that the court has found must be remedied prior to returning the child home. Any tasks the court requires of the parents, guardian, or legal custodian or child prior to returning the child home must be reasonably related to remedying a condition or conditions that gave rise to or which could give rise to any finding of child abuse or neglect.

If the permanency goal is to return home, the court shall make findings that identify any problems that are causing continued placement of the children away from the home and identify what outcomes would be considered a resolution to these problems. The court shall explain to the parents that these findings are based on the information that the court has at that time and may be revised, should additional evidence be presented to the court.

The court shall review the Sibling Contact Support Plan developed or modified under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, if applicable. If the Department has not convened a meeting to develop or modify a Sibling Contact Support Plan, or if the court finds that the existing Plan is not in the child's best interest, the court may enter an order requiring the Department to develop, modify, or implement a Sibling Contact Support Plan, or order mediation.

If the goal has been achieved, the court shall enter orders that are necessary to conform the minor's legal custody and status to those findings.

If, after receiving evidence, the court determines that the services contained in the plan are not reasonably calculated to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court also shall enter an order for the Department to develop and implement a new service plan or to implement changes to the current service plan consistent with the court's findings. The new service plan shall be filed with the court and served on all parties within 45 days of the date of the order. The court shall continue the matter until the new service plan is filed. Except as authorized by subsection (2.5) of this Section and as otherwise specifically authorized by law, the court is not empowered under this Section to order specific placements, specific services, or specific service providers to be included in the service plan.

A guardian or custodian appointed by the court pursuant to this Act shall file updated case plans with the court every 6 months.

Rights of wards of the court under this Act are enforceable against any public agency by complaints for relief by mandamus filed in any proceedings brought under this Act.

(2.5) If, after reviewing the evidence, including evidence from the Department, the court determines that the minor's current or planned placement is not necessary or appropriate to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting its determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. If the court finds that the minor's current or planned placement is not necessary or appropriate, the court may enter an order directing the Department to implement a recommendation by the minor's treating clinician or a clinician contracted by the Department to evaluate the minor or a recommendation made by the Department. If the Department places a minor in a placement under an order entered under this subsection (2.5), the Department has the authority to remove the minor from that placement when a change in circumstances necessitates the removal to protect the minor's health, safety, and best interest. If the Department determines removal is necessary, the Department shall notify the parties of the planned placement change in writing no later than 10 days prior to the implementation of its determination unless remaining in the placement poses an imminent risk of harm to the minor, in which case the Department shall notify the parties of the placement change in writing immediately following the implementation of its decision. The Department shall notify others of the decision to change the minor's placement as required by Department rule.

(3) Following the permanency hearing, the court shall enter a written order that includes the determinations required under subsection (2) of this Section and sets forth the following:

(a) The future status of the minor, including the permanency goal, and any order necessary to conform the minor's legal custody and status to such determination; or

(b) If the permanency goal of the minor cannot be achieved immediately, the specific reasons for continuing the minor in the care of the Department of Children and Family Services or other agency for short-term placement, and the following determinations:

(i) (Blank).

(ii) Whether the services required by the court and by any service plan prepared within the prior 6 months have been provided and (A) if so, whether the services were reasonably calculated to facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal or (B) if not provided, why the services were not provided.

(iii) Whether the minor's current or planned placement is necessary, and appropriate to the plan and goal, recognizing the right of minors to the least restrictive (most family-like) setting available and in close proximity to the parents' home consistent with the health, safety, best interest, and special needs of the minor and, if the minor is placed out-of-state, whether the out-of-state placement continues to be appropriate and consistent with the health, safety, and best interest of the minor.

(iv) (Blank).

(v) (Blank).

(4) The minor or any person interested in the minor may apply to the court for a change in custody of the minor and the appointment of a new custodian or guardian of the person or for the restoration of the minor to the custody of the minor's parents or former guardian or custodian.

When return home is not selected as the permanency goal:

(a) The Department, the minor, or the current foster parent or relative caregiver seeking private guardianship may file a motion for private guardianship of the minor. Appointment of a guardian under this Section requires approval of the court.

(b) The State's Attorney may file a motion to terminate parental rights of any parent who has failed to make reasonable efforts to correct the conditions which led to the removal of the child or reasonable progress toward the return of the child, as defined in subdivision (D)(m) of Section 1 of the Adoption Act or for whom any other unfitness ground for terminating parental rights as defined in subdivision (D) of Section 1 of the Adoption Act exists.

When parental rights have been terminated for a minimum of 3 years and the child who is the subject of the permanency hearing is 13 years old or older and is not currently placed in a placement likely to achieve permanency, the Department of Children and Family Services shall make reasonable efforts to locate parents whose rights have been terminated, except when the Court determines that those efforts would be futile or inconsistent with the subject child's best interests. The Department of Children and Family Services shall assess the appropriateness of the parent whose rights have been terminated, and shall, as appropriate, foster and support connections between the parent whose rights have been terminated and the youth. The Department of Children and Family Services shall document its determinations and efforts to foster connections in the child's case plan.

Custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian, or legal custodian in any case in which the minor is found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, unless the minor can be cared for at home without endangering the minor's health or safety and it is in the best interest of the minor, and if such neglect, abuse, or dependency is found by the court under paragraph (1) of Section 2-21 of this Act to have come about due to the acts or omissions or both of such parent, guardian, or legal custodian, until such time as an investigation is made as provided in paragraph (5) and a hearing is held on the issue of the health, safety, and best interest of the minor and the fitness of such parent, guardian, or legal custodian to care for the minor and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian, or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor. If a motion is filed to modify or vacate a private guardianship order and return the child to a parent, guardian, or legal custodian, the court may order the Department of Children and Family Services to assess the minor's current and proposed living arrangements and to provide ongoing monitoring of the health, safety, and best interest of the minor during the pendency of the motion to assist the court in making that determination. In the event that the minor has attained 18 years of age and the guardian or custodian petitions the court for an order terminating the minor's guardianship or custody, guardianship or custody shall terminate automatically 30 days after the receipt of the petition unless the court orders otherwise. No legal custodian or guardian of the person may be removed without the legal custodian's or guardian's consent until given notice and an opportunity to be heard by the court.

When the court orders a child restored to the custody of the parent or parents, the court shall order the parent or parents to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services and comply with the terms of an after-care plan, or risk the loss of custody of the child and possible termination of their parental rights. The court may also enter an order of protective supervision in accordance with Section 2-24.

If the minor is being restored to the custody of a parent, legal custodian, or guardian who lives outside of Illinois, and an Interstate Compact has been requested and refused, the court may order the Department of Children and Family Services to arrange for an assessment of the minor's proposed living arrangement and for ongoing monitoring of the health, safety, and best interest of the minor and compliance with any order of protective supervision entered in accordance with Section 2-24.

(5) Whenever a parent, guardian, or legal custodian files a motion for restoration of custody of the minor, and the minor was adjudicated neglected, abused, or dependent as a result of physical abuse, the court shall cause to be made an investigation as to whether the movant has ever been charged with or convicted of any criminal offense which would indicate the likelihood of any further physical abuse to the minor. Evidence of such criminal convictions shall be taken into account in determining whether the minor can be cared for at home without endangering the minor's health or safety and fitness of the parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(a) Any agency of this State or any subdivision thereof shall cooperate with the agent of the court in providing any information sought in the investigation.

(b) The information derived from the investigation and any conclusions or recommendations derived from the information shall be provided to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian seeking restoration of custody prior to the hearing on fitness and the movant shall have an opportunity at the hearing to refute the information or contest its significance.

(c) All information obtained from any investigation shall be confidential as provided in Section 5-150 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-193, eff. 7-30-21; 102-489, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-171, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-5) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-5)

Sec. 3-5. Interim crisis intervention services.

(a) Any minor who is taken into limited custody, or who independently requests or is referred for assistance, may be provided crisis intervention services by an agency or association, as defined in this Act, provided the association or agency staff (i) immediately investigate the circumstances of the minor and the facts surrounding the minor being taken into custody and promptly explain these facts and circumstances to the minor, and (ii) make a reasonable effort to inform the minor's parent, guardian, or custodian of the fact that the minor has been taken into limited custody and where the minor is being kept, and (iii) if the minor consents, make a reasonable effort to transport, arrange for the transportation of, or otherwise release the minor to the parent, guardian, or custodian. Upon release of the child who is believed to need or benefit from medical, psychological, psychiatric, or social services, the association or agency may inform the minor and the person to whom the minor is released of the nature and location of appropriate services and shall, if requested, assist in establishing contact between the family and other associations or agencies providing such services. If the agency or association is unable by all reasonable efforts to contact a parent, guardian, or custodian, or if the person contacted lives an unreasonable distance away, or if the minor refuses to be taken to the minor's home or other appropriate residence, or if the agency or association is otherwise unable despite all reasonable efforts to make arrangements for the safe return of the minor, the minor may be taken to a temporary living arrangement which is in compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969 or which is with persons agreed to by the parents and the agency or association.

(b) An agency or association is authorized to permit a minor to be sheltered in a temporary living arrangement provided the agency seeks to effect the minor's return home or alternative living arrangements agreeable to the minor and the parent, guardian, or custodian as soon as practicable. No minor shall be sheltered in a temporary living arrangement for more than 21 business days. Throughout such limited custody, the agency or association shall work with the parent, guardian, or custodian and the minor's local school district, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Juvenile Justice, and the Department of Children and Family Services to identify immediate and long-term treatment or placement. If at any time during the crisis intervention there is a concern that the minor has experienced abuse or neglect, the Comprehensive Community Based-Youth Services provider shall contact the Department of Children and Family Services as provided in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. the minor

(c) Any agency or association or employee thereof acting reasonably and in good faith in the care of a minor being provided interim crisis intervention services and shelter care shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability resulting from such care.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-546, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-6) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-6)

Sec. 3-6. Alternative voluntary residential placement.

(a) A minor and the minor's parent, guardian or custodian may agree to an arrangement for alternative voluntary residential placement, in compliance with the "Child Care Act of 1969", without court order. Such placement may continue as long as there is agreement.

(b) If the minor and the minor's parent, guardian or custodian cannot agree to an arrangement for alternative voluntary residential placement in the first instance, or cannot agree to the continuation of such placement, and the minor refuses to return home, the minor or the minor's parent, guardian or custodian, or a person properly acting at the minor's request, may file with the court a petition alleging that the minor requires authoritative intervention as described in Section 3-3.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-16) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-16)

Sec. 3-16. Date for adjudicatory hearing.

(a) (Blank).

(b)(1)(A) When a petition has been filed alleging that the minor requires authoritative intervention, an adjudicatory hearing shall be held within 120 days of a demand made by any party, except that when the court determines that the State, without success, has exercised due diligence to obtain evidence material to the case and that there are reasonable grounds to believe that such evidence may be obtained at a later date, the court may, upon motion by the State, continue the adjudicatory hearing for not more than 30 additional days.

The 120-day 120 day period in which an adjudicatory hearing shall be held is tolled by: (i) delay occasioned by the minor; or (ii) a continuance allowed pursuant to Section 114-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 after a court's determination of the minor's physical incapacity for trial; or (iii) an interlocutory appeal. Any such delay shall temporarily suspend, for the time of the delay, the period within which the adjudicatory hearing must be held. On the day of expiration of the delay, the said period shall continue at the point at which it was suspended.

(B) When no such adjudicatory hearing is held within the time required by paragraph (b)(1)(A) of this Section, the court shall, upon motion by any party, dismiss the petition with prejudice.

(2) Without affecting the applicability of the tolling and multiple prosecution provisions of paragraph (b)(1) of this Section, when a petition has been filed alleging that the minor requires authoritative intervention and the minor is in shelter care, the adjudicatory hearing shall be held within 10 judicial days after the date of the order directing shelter care, or the earliest possible date in compliance with the notice provisions of Sections 3-17 and 3-18 as to the custodial parent, guardian, or legal custodian, but no later than 30 judicial days from the date of the order of the court directing shelter care.

(3) Any failure to comply with the time limits of paragraph (b)(2) of this Section shall require the immediate release of the minor from shelter care, and the time limits of paragraph (b)(1) shall apply.

(4) Nothing in this Section prevents the minor or the minor's parents or guardian from exercising their respective rights to waive the time limits set forth in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-17) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-17)

Sec. 3-17. Summons.

(1) When a petition is filed, the clerk of the court shall issue a summons with a copy of the petition attached. The summons shall be directed to the minor's legal guardian or custodian and to each person named as a respondent in the petition, except that summons need not be directed to a minor respondent under 8 years of age for whom the court appoints a guardian ad litem if the guardian ad litem appears on behalf of the minor in any proceeding under this Act.

(2) The summons must contain a statement that the minor or any of the respondents is entitled to have an attorney present at the hearing on the petition, and that the clerk of the court should be notified promptly if the minor or any other respondent desires to be represented by an attorney but is financially unable to employ counsel.

(3) The summons shall be issued under the seal of the court, attested to and signed with the name of the clerk of the court, dated on the day it is issued, and shall require each respondent to appear and answer the petition on the date set for the adjudicatory hearing.

(4) The summons may be served by any county sheriff, coroner, or probation officer, even though the officer is the petitioner. The return of the summons with endorsement of service by the officer is sufficient proof thereof.

(5) Service of a summons and petition shall be made by: (a) leaving a copy thereof with the person summoned at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance; (b) leaving a copy at the summoned person's usual place of abode with some person of the family, of the age of 10 years or upwards, and informing that person of the contents thereof, provided the officer or other person making service shall also send a copy of the summons in a sealed envelope with postage fully prepaid, addressed to the person summoned at the person's usual place of abode, at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance; or (c) leaving a copy thereof with the guardian or custodian of a minor, at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance. If the guardian or custodian is an agency of the State of Illinois, proper service may be made by leaving a copy of the summons and petition with any administrative employee of such agency designated by such agency to accept service of summons and petitions. The certificate of the officer or affidavit of the person that the officer or person has sent the copy pursuant to this Section is sufficient proof of service.

(6) When a parent or other person, who has signed a written promise to appear and bring the minor to court or who has waived or acknowledged service, fails to appear with the minor on the date set by the court, a bench warrant may be issued for the parent or other person, the minor, or both.

(7) The appearance of the minor's legal guardian or custodian, or a person named as a respondent in a petition, in any proceeding under this Act shall constitute a waiver of service of summons and submission to the jurisdiction of the court. A copy of the summons and petition shall be provided to the person at the time of the person's appearance.

(8) Fines or assessments, such as fees or administrative costs, in the service of process shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor or a minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-7-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-19) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-19)

Sec. 3-19. Guardian ad litem.

(1) Immediately upon the filing of a petition alleging that the minor requires authoritative intervention, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if:

(a) such petition alleges that the minor is the victim of sexual abuse or misconduct; or

(b) such petition alleges that charges alleging the commission of any of the sex offenses defined in Article 11 or in Section Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, have been filed against a defendant in any court and that such minor is the alleged victim of the acts of the defendant in the commission of such offense.

(2) Unless the guardian ad litem appointed pursuant to paragraph (1) is an attorney at law, the guardian ad litem shall be represented in the performance of the guardian ad litem's duties by counsel.

(3) Before proceeding with the hearing, the court shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if:

(a) no parent, guardian, custodian, or relative of the minor appears at the first or any subsequent hearing of the case;

(b) the petition prays for the appointment of a guardian with power to consent to adoption; or

(c) the petition for which the minor is before the court resulted from a report made pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(4) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor whenever it finds that there may be a conflict of interest between the minor and the minor's parents or other custodian or that it is otherwise in the minor's interest to do so.

(5) The reasonable fees of a guardian ad litem appointed under this Section shall be fixed by the court and paid from the general fund of the county.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-21) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-21)

Sec. 3-21. Continuance under supervision.

(1) The court may enter an order of continuance under supervision (a) upon an admission or stipulation by the appropriate respondent or minor respondent of the facts supporting the petition and before proceeding to findings and adjudication, or after hearing the evidence at the adjudicatory hearing but before noting in the minutes of proceedings a finding of whether or not the minor is a person requiring authoritative intervention; and (b) in the absence of objection made in open court by the minor, the minor's parent, guardian, custodian, responsible relative, or defense attorney, or the State's Attorney.

(2) If the minor, the minor's parent, guardian, custodian, responsible relative, or defense attorney, or State's Attorney, objects in open court to any such continuance and insists upon proceeding to findings and adjudication, the court shall so proceed.

(3) Nothing in this Section limits the power of the court to order a continuance of the hearing for the production of additional evidence or for any other proper reason.

(4) When a hearing where a minor is alleged to be a minor requiring authoritative intervention is continued pursuant to this Section, the court may permit the minor to remain in the minor's home subject to such conditions concerning the minor's conduct and supervision as the court may require by order.

(5) If a petition is filed charging a violation of a condition of the continuance under supervision, the court shall conduct a hearing. If the court finds that such condition of supervision has not been fulfilled the court may proceed to findings and adjudication and disposition. The filing of a petition for violation of a condition of the continuance under supervision shall toll the period of continuance under supervision until the final determination of the charge, and the term of the continuance under supervision shall not run until the hearing and disposition of the petition for violation; provided where the petition alleges conduct that does not constitute a criminal offense, the hearing must be held within 15 days of the filing of the petition unless a delay in such hearing has been occasioned by the minor, in which case the delay shall continue the tolling of the period of continuance under supervision for the period of such delay.

(6) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-24) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-24)

Sec. 3-24. Kinds of dispositional orders.

(1) The following kinds of orders of disposition may be made in respect to wards of the court: A minor found to be requiring authoritative intervention under Section 3-3 may be (a) committed to the Department of Children and Family Services, subject to Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act; (b) placed under supervision and released to the minor's parents, guardian, or legal custodian; (c) placed in accordance with Section 3-28 with or without also being placed under supervision. Conditions of supervision may be modified or terminated by the court if it deems that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby; (d) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Minors Act; or (e) subject to having the minor's driver's license or driving privilege suspended for such time as determined by the Court but only until the minor attains 18 years of age.

(2) Any order of disposition may provide for protective supervision under Section 3-25 and may include an order of protection under Section 3-26.

(3) Unless the order of disposition expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 3-32.

(4) In addition to any other order of disposition, the court may order any person found to be a minor requiring authoritative intervention under Section 3-3 to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentence hearing" referred to therein shall be the dispositional hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of such restitution on the minor's behalf.

(5) Any order for disposition where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 3-28 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of such minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. Such payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the order of disposition requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(7) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-33.5)

Sec. 3-33.5. Truant minors in need of supervision.

(a) Definition. A minor who is reported by the office of the regional superintendent of schools as a chronic truant may be subject to a petition for adjudication and adjudged a truant minor in need of supervision, provided that prior to the filing of the petition, the office of the regional superintendent of schools or a community truancy review board certifies that the local school has provided appropriate truancy intervention services to the truant minor and the minor's family. For purposes of this Section, "truancy intervention services" means services designed to assist the minor's return to an educational program, and includes, but is not limited to: assessments, counseling, mental health services, shelter, optional and alternative education programs, tutoring, and educational advocacy. If, after review by the regional office of education or community truancy review board, it is determined the local school did not provide the appropriate interventions, then the minor shall be referred to a comprehensive community based youth service agency for truancy intervention services. If the comprehensive community based youth service agency is incapable to provide intervention services, then this requirement for services is not applicable. The comprehensive community based youth service agency shall submit reports to the office of the regional superintendent of schools or truancy review board within 20, 40, and 80 school days of the initial referral or at any other time requested by the office of the regional superintendent of schools or truancy review board, which reports each shall certify the date of the minor's referral and the extent of the minor's progress and participation in truancy intervention services provided by the comprehensive community based youth service agency. In addition, if, after referral by the office of the regional superintendent of schools or community truancy review board, the minor declines or refuses to fully participate in truancy intervention services provided by the comprehensive community based youth service agency, then the agency shall immediately certify such facts to the office of the regional superintendent of schools or community truancy review board.

(a-1) There is a rebuttable presumption that a chronic truant is a truant minor in need of supervision.

(a-2) There is a rebuttable presumption that school records of a minor's attendance at school are authentic.

(a-3) For purposes of this Section, "chronic truant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(a-4) For purposes of this Section, a "community truancy review board" is a local community based board comprised of, but not limited to: representatives from local comprehensive community based youth service agencies, representatives from court service agencies, representatives from local schools, representatives from health service agencies, and representatives from local professional and community organizations as deemed appropriate by the office of the regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools must approve the establishment and organization of a community truancy review board, and the regional superintendent of schools or the regional superintendent's designee shall chair the board.

(a-5) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to create a private cause of action or right of recovery against a regional office of education, its superintendent, or its staff with respect to truancy intervention services where the determination to provide the services is made in good faith.

(b) Kinds of dispositional orders. A minor found to be a truant minor in need of supervision may be:

(1) committed to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools for a student assistance team staffing, a service plan, or referral to a comprehensive community based youth service agency;

(2) required to comply with a service plan as specifically provided by the appropriate regional superintendent of schools;

(3) ordered to obtain counseling or other supportive services;

(4) (blank);

(5) required to perform some reasonable public service work that does not interfere with school hours, school-related activities, or work commitments of the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian; or

(6) (blank).

A dispositional order may include public service only if the court has made an express written finding that a truancy prevention program has been offered by the school, regional superintendent of schools, or a comprehensive community based youth service agency to the truant minor in need of supervision.

(c) Orders entered under this Section may be enforced by contempt proceedings. Fines or assessments, such as fees or administrative costs, shall not be ordered or imposed in contempt proceedings under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-456, eff. 1-1-22; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-8) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-8)

Sec. 4-8. Setting of shelter care hearing.

(1) Unless sooner released, a minor alleged to be addicted taken into temporary protective custody must be brought before a judicial officer within 48 hours, exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, for a shelter care hearing to determine whether the minor shall be further held in custody.

(2) If the probation officer or such other public officer designated by the court determines that the minor should be retained in custody, the probation officer or such other public officer designated by the court shall cause a petition to be filed as provided in Section 4-12 of this Act, and the clerk of the court shall set the matter for hearing on the shelter care hearing calendar. When a parent, guardian, custodian, or responsible relative is present and so requests, the shelter care hearing shall be held immediately if the court is in session, otherwise at the earliest feasible time. The probation officer or such other public officer designated by the court shall notify the minor's parent, guardian, custodian, or responsible relative of the time and place of the hearing. The notice may be given orally.

(3) The minor must be released from custody at the expiration of the 48-hour 48 hour period, as the case may be, specified by this Section, if not brought before a judicial officer within that period.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-9) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-9)

Sec. 4-9. Shelter care hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the shelter care hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is addicted, it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is addicted, the minor, the minor's parent, guardian, or custodian, and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. After such testimony, the court may enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of a parent, guardian, or custodian if the parent, guardian, or custodian appears to take custody and agrees to abide by a court order which requires the minor and the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian to complete an evaluation by an entity licensed by the Department of Human Services, as the successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, and complete any treatment recommendations indicated by the assessment. "Custodian" includes the Department of Children and Family Services, if it has been given custody of the child, or any other agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child.

The court Court shall require documentation by representatives of the Department of Children and Family Services or the probation department as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from the minor's home, and shall consider the testimony of any person as to those reasonable efforts. If the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility or that the minor is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and, further, finds that reasonable efforts have been made or good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from the minor's home, the court may prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court, or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, or in a facility or program licensed by the Department of Human Services for shelter and treatment services; otherwise, it shall release the minor from custody. If the court prescribes shelter care, then in placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, or in a facility or program licensed by the Department of Human Services for shelter and treatment services, the court shall, upon request of the appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or the minor's family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity. Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that reasonable efforts have been made or that good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from the minor's home, the court shall state in writing its findings concerning the nature of the services that were offered or the efforts that were made to prevent removal of the child and the apparent reasons that such services or efforts could not prevent the need for removal. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian, and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child. The order, together with the court's findings of fact in support thereof, shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian, or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

(3) If neither the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative nor counsel of the minor has had actual notice of or is present at the shelter care hearing, the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative, or counsel of the minor may file an affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 24 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(4) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 4-8, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If neither the parent, guardian, or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian, or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian, or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(8) Any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, may file a motion to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed; or

(c) A person, including a parent, relative, or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and the minor's family.

(9) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-14) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-14)

Sec. 4-14. Summons.

(1) When a petition is filed, the clerk of the court shall issue a summons with a copy of the petition attached. The summons shall be directed to the minor's legal guardian or custodian and to each person named as a respondent in the petition, except that summons need not be directed to a minor respondent under 8 years of age for whom the court appoints a guardian ad litem if the guardian ad litem appears on behalf of the minor in any proceeding under this Act.

(2) The summons must contain a statement that the minor or any of the respondents is entitled to have an attorney present at the hearing on the petition, and that the clerk of the court should be notified promptly if the minor or any other respondent desires to be represented by an attorney but is financially unable to employ counsel.

(3) The summons shall be issued under the seal of the court, attested to and signed with the name of the clerk of the court, dated on the day it is issued, and shall require each respondent to appear and answer the petition on the date set for the adjudicatory hearing.

(4) The summons may be served by any county sheriff, coroner, or probation officer, even though the officer is the petitioner. The return of the summons with endorsement of service by the officer is sufficient proof thereof.

(5) Service of a summons and petition shall be made by:

(a) leaving a copy thereof with the person summoned at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance;

(b) leaving a copy at the summoned person's usual place of abode with some person of the family, of the age of 10 years or upwards, and informing that person of the contents thereof, provided that the officer or other person making service shall also send a copy of the summons in a sealed envelope with postage fully prepaid, addressed to the person summoned at the person's usual place of abode, at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance; or

(c) leaving a copy thereof with the guardian or custodian of a minor, at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance.

If the guardian or custodian is an agency of the State of Illinois, proper service may be made by leaving a copy of the summons and petition with any administrative employee of such agency designated by such agency to accept service of summons and petitions. The certificate of the officer or affidavit of the person that the officer or person has sent the copy pursuant to this Section is sufficient proof of service.

(6) When a parent or other person, who has signed a written promise to appear and bring the minor to court or who has waived or acknowledged service, fails to appear with the minor on the date set by the court, a bench warrant may be issued for the parent or other person, the minor, or both.

(7) The appearance of the minor's legal guardian or custodian, or a person named as a respondent in a petition, in any proceeding under this Act shall constitute a waiver of service of summons and submission to the jurisdiction of the court. A copy of the summons and petition shall be provided to the person at the time of the person's appearance.

(8) Fines or assessments, such as fees or administrative costs, in the service of process shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor or a minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-16) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-16)

Sec. 4-16. Guardian ad litem.

(1) Immediately upon the filing of a petition alleging that the minor is a person described in Section 4-3 of this Act, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if:

(a) such petition alleges that the minor is the victim of sexual abuse or misconduct; or

(b) such petition alleges that charges alleging the commission of any of the sex offenses defined in Article 11 or in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, have been filed against a defendant in any court and that such minor is the alleged victim of the acts of the defendant in the commission of such offense.

Unless the guardian ad litem appointed pursuant to this paragraph (1) is an attorney at law, the guardian ad litem shall be represented in the performance of the guardian ad litem's duties by counsel.

(2) Before proceeding with the hearing, the court shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if:

(a) no parent, guardian, custodian, or relative of the minor appears at the first or any subsequent hearing of the case;

(b) the petition prays for the appointment of a guardian with power to consent to adoption; or

(c) the petition for which the minor is before the court resulted from a report made pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(3) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor whenever it finds that there may be a conflict of interest between the minor and the minor's parents or other custodian or that it is otherwise in the minor's interest to do so.

(4) Unless the guardian ad litem is an attorney, the guardian ad litem shall be represented by counsel.

(5) The reasonable fees of a guardian ad litem appointed under this Section shall be fixed by the court and paid from the general fund of the county.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-18) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-18)

Sec. 4-18. Continuance under supervision.

(1) The court may enter an order of continuance under supervision (a) upon an admission or stipulation by the appropriate respondent or minor respondent of the facts supporting the petition and before proceeding to findings and adjudication, or after hearing the evidence at the adjudicatory hearing but before noting in the minutes of the proceeding a finding of whether or not the minor is an addict, and (b) in the absence of objection made in open court by the minor, the minor's parent, guardian, custodian, responsible relative, or defense attorney, or the State's Attorney.

(2) If the minor, the minor's parent, guardian, custodian, responsible relative, or defense attorney, or the State's Attorney, objects in open court to any such continuance and insists upon proceeding to findings and adjudication, the court shall so proceed.

(3) Nothing in this Section limits the power of the court to order a continuance of the hearing for the production of additional evidence or for any other proper reason.

(4) When a hearing is continued pursuant to this Section, the court may permit the minor to remain in the minor's home subject to such conditions concerning the minor's conduct and supervision as the court may require by order.

(5) If a petition is filed charging a violation of a condition of the continuance under supervision, the court shall conduct a hearing. If the court finds that such condition of supervision has not been fulfilled the court may proceed to findings and adjudication and disposition. The filing of a petition for violation of a condition of the continuance under supervision shall toll the period of continuance under supervision until the final determination of the charge, and the term of the continuance under supervision shall not run until the hearing and disposition of the petition for violation; provided where the petition alleges conduct that does not constitute a criminal offense, the hearing must be held within 15 days of the filing of the petition unless a delay in such hearing has been occasioned by the minor, in which case the delay shall continue the tolling of the period of continuance under supervision for the period of such delay.

(6) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-6-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-21) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-21)

Sec. 4-21. Kinds of dispositional orders.

(1) A minor found to be addicted under Section 4-3 may be (a) committed to the Department of Children and Family Services, subject to Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act; (b) placed under supervision and released to the minor's parents, guardian, or legal custodian; (c) placed in accordance with Section 4-25 with or without also being placed under supervision. Conditions of supervision may be modified or terminated by the court if it deems that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby; (d) required to attend an approved alcohol or drug abuse treatment or counseling program on an inpatient or outpatient basis instead of or in addition to the disposition otherwise provided for in this paragraph; (e) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Minors Act; or (f) subject to having the minor's driver's license or driving privilege suspended for such time as determined by the Court but only until the minor attains 18 years of age. No disposition under this subsection shall provide for the minor's placement in a secure facility.

(2) Any order of disposition may provide for protective supervision under Section 4-22 and may include an order of protection under Section 4-23.

(3) Unless the order of disposition expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 4-29.

(4) In addition to any other order of disposition, the court may order any minor found to be addicted under this Article as neglected with respect to the minor's injurious behavior, to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentence hearing" referred to therein shall be the dispositional hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of such restitution on the minor's behalf.

(5) Any order for disposition where the minor is placed in accordance with Section 4-25 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of such minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. Such payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the order of disposition requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(7) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-105)

Sec. 5-105. Definitions. As used in this Article:

(1) "Aftercare release" means the conditional and revocable release of an adjudicated delinquent juvenile committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the supervision of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(1.5) "Court" means the circuit court in a session or division assigned to hear proceedings under this Act, and includes the term Juvenile Court.

(2) "Community service" means uncompensated labor for a community service agency as hereinafter defined.

(2.5) "Community service agency" means a not-for-profit organization, community organization, church, charitable organization, individual, public office, or other public body whose purpose is to enhance the physical or mental health of a delinquent minor or to rehabilitate the minor, or to improve the environmental quality or social welfare of the community which agrees to accept community service from juvenile delinquents and to report on the progress of the community service to the State's Attorney pursuant to an agreement or to the court or to any agency designated by the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the delinquent minor for community service.

(3) "Delinquent minor" means any minor who prior to the minor's 18th birthday has violated or attempted to violate an Illinois State, county, or municipal law or ordinance.

(4) "Department" means the Department of Human Services unless specifically referenced as another department.

(5) "Detention" means the temporary care of a minor who is alleged to be or has been adjudicated delinquent and who requires secure custody for the minor's own protection or the community's protection in a facility designed to physically restrict the minor's movements, pending disposition by the court or execution of an order of the court for placement or commitment. Design features that physically restrict movement include, but are not limited to, locked rooms and the secure handcuffing of a minor to a rail or other stationary object. In addition, "detention" includes the court ordered care of an alleged or adjudicated delinquent minor who requires secure custody pursuant to Section 5-125 of this Act.

(6) "Diversion" means the referral of a juvenile, without court intervention, into a program that provides services designed to educate the juvenile and develop a productive and responsible approach to living in the community.

(7) "Juvenile detention home" means a public facility with specially trained staff that conforms to the county juvenile detention standards adopted by the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(8) "Juvenile justice continuum" means a set of delinquency prevention programs and services designed for the purpose of preventing or reducing delinquent acts, including criminal activity by youth gangs, as well as intervention, rehabilitation, and prevention services targeted at minors who have committed delinquent acts, and minors who have previously been committed to residential treatment programs for delinquents. The term includes children-in-need-of-services and families-in-need-of-services programs; aftercare and reentry services; substance abuse and mental health programs; community service programs; community service work programs; and alternative-dispute resolution programs serving youth-at-risk of delinquency and their families, whether offered or delivered by State or local governmental entities, public or private for-profit or not-for-profit organizations, or religious or charitable organizations. This term would also encompass any program or service consistent with the purpose of those programs and services enumerated in this subsection.

(9) "Juvenile police officer" means a sworn police officer who has completed a Basic Recruit Training Course, has been assigned to the position of juvenile police officer by the officer's chief law enforcement officer and has completed the necessary juvenile officers training as prescribed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or in the case of a State police officer, juvenile officer training approved by the Director of the Illinois State Police.

(10) "Minor" means a person under the age of 21 years subject to this Act.

(11) "Non-secure custody" means confinement where the minor is not physically restricted by being placed in a locked cell or room, by being handcuffed to a rail or other stationary object, or by other means. "Non-secure custody" may include, but is not limited to, electronic monitoring, foster home placement, home confinement, group home placement, or physical restriction of movement or activity solely through facility staff.

(12) "Public or community service" means uncompensated labor for a not-for-profit organization or public body whose purpose is to enhance physical or mental stability of the offender, environmental quality or the social welfare and which agrees to accept public or community service from offenders and to report on the progress of the offender and the public or community service to the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the offender for public or community service. "Public or community service" does not include blood donation or assignment to labor at a blood bank. For the purposes of this Act, "blood bank" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 2-124 of the Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank Act.

(13) "Sentencing hearing" means a hearing to determine whether a minor should be adjudged a ward of the court, and to determine what sentence should be imposed on the minor. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the term "sentencing hearing" replace the term "dispositional hearing" and be synonymous with that definition as it was used in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(14) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a minor in physically unrestricting facilities pending court disposition or execution of court order for placement.

(15) "Site" means a not-for-profit organization, public body, church, charitable organization, or individual agreeing to accept community service from offenders and to report on the progress of ordered or required public or community service to the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the offender for public or community service.

(16) "Station adjustment" means the informal or formal handling of an alleged offender by a juvenile police officer.

(17) "Trial" means a hearing to determine whether the allegations of a petition under Section 5-520 that a minor is delinquent are proved beyond a reasonable doubt. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the term "trial" replace the term "adjudicatory hearing" and be synonymous with that definition as it was used in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to violations or attempted violations committed on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-27, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-120)

Sec. 5-120. Exclusive jurisdiction. Proceedings may be instituted under the provisions of this Article concerning any minor who prior to the minor's 18th birthday has violated or attempted to violate an Illinois State, county, or municipal law or ordinance. Except as provided in Sections 5-125, 5-130, 5-805, and 5-810 of this Article, no minor who was under 18 years of age at the time of the alleged offense may be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to violations or attempted violations committed on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-27, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-401.6)

Sec. 5-401.6. Prohibition of deceptive tactics.

(a) In this Section:

"Custodial interrogation" means any interrogation (i) during which a reasonable person in the subject's position would consider the subject to be in custody and (ii) during which a question is asked that is reasonably likely to elicit an incriminating response.

"Deception" means the knowing communication of false facts about evidence or unauthorized statements regarding leniency by a law enforcement officer or juvenile officer to a subject of custodial interrogation.

"Person with a severe or profound intellectual disability" means a person (i) whose intelligence quotient does not exceed 40 or (ii) whose intelligence quotient does not exceed 55 and who suffers from significant mental illness to the extent that the person's ability to exercise rational judgment is impaired.

"Place of detention" means a building or a police station that is a place of operation for a municipal police department or county sheriff department or other law enforcement agency at which persons are or may be held in detention in connection with criminal charges against those persons or allegations that those persons are delinquent minors.

"Protected person" means: a minor who, at the time of the commission of the offense, was under 18 years of age; or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability.

(b) An oral, written, or sign language confession of a protected person made as a result of a custodial interrogation conducted at a police station or other place of detention on or after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-101) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly shall be presumed to be inadmissible as evidence against the protected person making the confession in a criminal proceeding or a juvenile court proceeding for an act that if committed by an adult would be a misdemeanor offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a felony offense under the Criminal Code of 2012 if, during the custodial interrogation, a law enforcement officer or juvenile officer knowingly engages in deception.

(c) The presumption of inadmissibility of a confession of a protected person at a custodial interrogation at a police station or other place of detention, when such confession is procured through the knowing use of deception, may be overcome by a preponderance of the evidence that the confession was voluntarily given, based on the totality of the circumstances.

(d) The burden of going forward with the evidence and the burden of proving that a confession was voluntary shall be on the State. Objection to the failure of the State to call all material witnesses on the issue of whether the confession was voluntary must be made in the trial court.

(Source: P.A. 102-101, eff. 1-1-22; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-341, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-410)

Sec. 5-410. Non-secure custody or detention.

(1) Any minor arrested or taken into custody pursuant to this Act who requires care away from the minor's home but who does not require physical restriction shall be given temporary care in a foster family home or other shelter facility designated by the court.

(2)(a) Any minor 10 years of age or older arrested pursuant to this Act where there is probable cause to believe that the minor is a delinquent minor and that (i) secure custody is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another, (ii) the minor is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, or (iii) the minor was taken into custody under a warrant, may be kept or detained in an authorized detention facility. A minor under 13 years of age shall not be admitted, kept, or detained in a detention facility unless a local youth service provider, including a provider through the Comprehensive Community Based Youth Services network, has been contacted and has not been able to accept the minor. No minor under 12 years of age shall be detained in a county jail or a municipal lockup for more than 6 hours.

(a-5) For a minor arrested or taken into custody for vehicular hijacking or aggravated vehicular hijacking, a previous finding of delinquency for vehicular hijacking or aggravated vehicular hijacking shall be given greater weight in determining whether secured custody of a minor is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another.

(b) The written authorization of the probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) constitutes authority for the superintendent of any juvenile detention home to detain and keep a minor for up to 40 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and court-designated holidays. These records shall be available to the same persons and pursuant to the same conditions as are law enforcement records as provided in Section 5-905.

(b-4) The consultation required by paragraph (b-5) shall not be applicable if the probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) utilizes a scorable detention screening instrument, which has been developed with input by the State's Attorney, to determine whether a minor should be detained; , however, paragraph (b-5) shall still be applicable where no such screening instrument is used or where the probation officer, detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) deviates from the screening instrument.

(b-5) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (b-4), if a probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) does not intend to detain a minor for an offense which constitutes one of the following offenses, the probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) shall consult with the State's Attorney's Office prior to the release of the minor: first degree murder, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated or heinous battery involving permanent disability or disfigurement or great bodily harm, robbery, aggravated robbery, armed robbery, vehicular hijacking, aggravated vehicular hijacking, vehicular invasion, arson, aggravated arson, kidnapping, aggravated kidnapping, home invasion, burglary, or residential burglary.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a), (d), or (e), no minor shall be detained in a county jail or municipal lockup for more than 12 hours, unless the offense is a crime of violence in which case the minor may be detained up to 24 hours. For the purpose of this paragraph, "crime of violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(i) The period of detention is deemed to have begun once the minor has been placed in a locked room or cell or handcuffed to a stationary object in a building housing a county jail or municipal lockup. Time spent transporting a minor is not considered to be time in detention or secure custody.

(ii) Any minor so confined shall be under periodic supervision and shall not be permitted to come into or remain in contact with adults in custody in the building.

(iii) Upon placement in secure custody in a jail or lockup, the minor shall be informed of the purpose of the detention, the time it is expected to last and the fact that it cannot exceed the time specified under this Act.

(iv) A log shall be kept which shows the offense which is the basis for the detention, the reasons and circumstances for the decision to detain, and the length of time the minor was in detention.

(v) Violation of the time limit on detention in a county jail or municipal lockup shall not, in and of itself, render inadmissible evidence obtained as a result of the violation of this time limit. Minors under 18 years of age shall be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to criminal law. Persons 18 years of age and older who have a petition of delinquency filed against them may be confined in an adult detention facility. In making a determination whether to confine a person 18 years of age or older who has a petition of delinquency filed against the person, these factors, among other matters, shall be considered:

(A) the age of the person;

(B) any previous delinquent or criminal history of the person;

(C) any previous abuse or neglect history of the person; and

(D) any mental health or educational history of the person, or both.

(d)(i) If a minor 12 years of age or older is confined in a county jail in a county with a population below 3,000,000 inhabitants, then the minor's confinement shall be implemented in such a manner that there will be no contact by sight, sound, or otherwise between the minor and adult prisoners. Minors 12 years of age or older must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with confined adults. This paragraph (d)(i) shall only apply to confinement pending an adjudicatory hearing and shall not exceed 40 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and court-designated holidays. To accept or hold minors during this time period, county jails shall comply with all monitoring standards adopted by the Department of Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(ii) To accept or hold minors, 12 years of age or older, after the time period prescribed in paragraph (d)(i) of this subsection (2) of this Section but not exceeding 7 days including Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays pending an adjudicatory hearing, county jails shall comply with all temporary detention standards adopted by the Department of Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(iii) To accept or hold minors 12 years of age or older, after the time period prescribed in paragraphs (d)(i) and (d)(ii) of this subsection (2) of this Section, county jails shall comply with all county juvenile detention standards adopted by the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(e) When a minor who is at least 15 years of age is prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State, the court may enter an order directing that the juvenile be confined in the county jail. However, any juvenile confined in the county jail under this provision shall be separated from adults who are confined in the county jail in such a manner that there will be no contact by sight, sound, or otherwise between the juvenile and adult prisoners.

(f) For purposes of appearing in a physical lineup, the minor may be taken to a county jail or municipal lockup under the direct and constant supervision of a juvenile police officer. During such time as is necessary to conduct a lineup, and while supervised by a juvenile police officer, the sight and sound separation provisions shall not apply.

(g) For purposes of processing a minor, the minor may be taken to a county jail or municipal lockup under the direct and constant supervision of a law enforcement officer or correctional officer. During such time as is necessary to process the minor, and while supervised by a law enforcement officer or correctional officer, the sight and sound separation provisions shall not apply.

(3) If the probation officer or State's Attorney (or such other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) determines that the minor may be a delinquent minor as described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105, and should be retained in custody but does not require physical restriction, the minor may be placed in non-secure custody for up to 40 hours pending a detention hearing.

(4) Any minor taken into temporary custody, not requiring secure detention, may, however, be detained in the home of the minor's parent or guardian subject to such conditions as the court may impose.

(5) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-525)

Sec. 5-525. Service.

(1) Service by summons.

(a) Upon the commencement of a delinquency prosecution, the clerk of the court shall issue a summons with a copy of the petition attached. The summons shall be directed to the minor's parent, guardian or legal custodian and to each person named as a respondent in the petition, except that summons need not be directed (i) to a minor respondent under 8 years of age for whom the court appoints a guardian ad litem if the guardian ad litem appears on behalf of the minor in any proceeding under this Act, or (ii) to a parent who does not reside with the minor, does not make regular child support payments to the minor, to the minor's other parent, or to the minor's legal guardian or custodian pursuant to a support order, and has not communicated with the minor on a regular basis.

(b) The summons must contain a statement that the minor is entitled to have an attorney present at the hearing on the petition, and that the clerk of the court should be notified promptly if the minor desires to be represented by an attorney but is financially unable to employ counsel.

(c) The summons shall be issued under the seal of the court, attested in and signed with the name of the clerk of the court, dated on the day it is issued, and shall require each respondent to appear and answer the petition on the date set for the adjudicatory hearing.

(d) The summons may be served by any law enforcement officer, coroner or probation officer, even though the officer is the petitioner. The return of the summons with endorsement of service by the officer is sufficient proof of service.

(e) Service of a summons and petition shall be made by: (i) leaving a copy of the summons and petition with the person summoned at least 3 days before the time stated in the summons for appearance; (ii) leaving a copy at the summoned person's usual place of abode with some person of the family, of the age of 10 years or upwards, and informing that person of the contents of the summons and petition, provided, the officer or other person making service shall also send a copy of the summons in a sealed envelope with postage fully prepaid, addressed to the person summoned at the person's usual place of abode, at least 3 days before the time stated in the summons for appearance; or (iii) leaving a copy of the summons and petition with the guardian or custodian of a minor, at least 3 days before the time stated in the summons for appearance. If the guardian or legal custodian is an agency of the State of Illinois, proper service may be made by leaving a copy of the summons and petition with any administrative employee of the agency designated by the agency to accept the service of summons and petitions. The certificate of the officer or affidavit of the person that the officer or person has sent the copy pursuant to this Section is sufficient proof of service.

(f) When a parent or other person, who has signed a written promise to appear and bring the minor to court or who has waived or acknowledged service, fails to appear with the minor on the date set by the court, a bench warrant may be issued for the parent or other person, the minor, or both.

(2) Service by certified mail or publication.

(a) If service on individuals as provided in subsection (1) is not made on any respondent within a reasonable time or if it appears that any respondent resides outside the State, service may be made by certified mail. In that case the clerk shall mail the summons and a copy of the petition to that respondent by certified mail marked for delivery to addressee only. The court shall not proceed with the adjudicatory hearing until 5 days after the mailing. The regular return receipt for certified mail is sufficient proof of service.

(b) If service upon individuals as provided in subsection (1) is not made on any respondents within a reasonable time or if any person is made a respondent under the designation of "All Whom It May Concern", or if service cannot be made because the whereabouts of a respondent are unknown, service may be made by publication. The clerk of the court as soon as possible shall cause publication to be made once in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where the action is pending. Service by publication is not required in any case when the person alleged to have legal custody of the minor has been served with summons personally or by certified mail, but the court may not enter any order or judgment against any person who cannot be served with process other than by publication unless service by publication is given or unless that person appears. Failure to provide service by publication to a non-custodial parent whose whereabouts are unknown shall not deprive the court of jurisdiction to proceed with a trial or a plea of delinquency by the minor. When a minor has been detained or sheltered under Section 5-501 of this Act and summons has not been served personally or by certified mail within 20 days from the date of the order of court directing such detention or shelter care, the clerk of the court shall cause publication. Service by publication shall be substantially as follows:

"A, B, C, D, (here giving the names of the named respondents, if any) and to All Whom It May Concern (if there is any respondent under that designation):

Take notice that on (insert date) a petition was filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 by .... in the circuit court of .... county entitled 'In the interest of ...., a minor', and that in .... courtroom at .... on (insert date) at the hour of ...., or as soon thereafter as this cause may be heard, an adjudicatory hearing will be held upon the petition to have the child declared to be a ward of the court under that Act. The court has authority in this proceeding to take from you the custody and guardianship of the minor.

Now, unless you appear at the hearing and show cause against the petition, the allegations of the petition may stand admitted as against you and each of you, and an order or judgment entered.

........................................

Clerk

Dated (insert the date of publication)"

(c) The clerk shall also at the time of the publication of the notice send a copy of the notice by mail to each of the respondents on account of whom publication is made at each respondent's last known address. The certificate of the clerk that the clerk has mailed the notice is evidence of that mailing. No other publication notice is required. Every respondent notified by publication under this Section must appear and answer in open court at the hearing. The court may not proceed with the adjudicatory hearing until 10 days after service by publication on any custodial parent, guardian or legal custodian of a minor alleged to be delinquent.

(d) If it becomes necessary to change the date set for the hearing in order to comply with this Section, notice of the resetting of the date must be given, by certified mail or other reasonable means, to each respondent who has been served with summons personally or by certified mail.

(3) Once jurisdiction has been established over a party, further service is not required and notice of any subsequent proceedings in that prosecution shall be made in accordance with provisions of Section 5-530.

(4) The appearance of the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian, or a person named as a respondent in a petition, in any proceeding under this Act shall constitute a waiver of service and submission to the jurisdiction of the court. A copy of the petition shall be provided to the person at the time of the person's appearance.

(5) Fines or assessments, such as fees or administrative costs in the service of process, shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor or a minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-11-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-601)

Sec. 5-601. Trial.

(1) When a petition has been filed alleging that the minor is a delinquent, a trial must be held within 120 days of a written demand for such hearing made by any party, except that when the State, without success, has exercised due diligence to obtain evidence material to the case and there are reasonable grounds to believe that the evidence may be obtained at a later date, the court may, upon motion by the State, continue the trial for not more than 30 additional days.

(2) If a minor respondent has multiple delinquency petitions pending against the minor in the same county and simultaneously demands a trial upon more than one delinquency petition pending against the minor in the same county, the minor shall receive a trial or have a finding, after waiver of trial, upon at least one such petition before expiration relative to any of the pending petitions of the period described by this Section. All remaining petitions thus pending against the minor respondent shall be adjudicated within 160 days from the date on which a finding relative to the first petition prosecuted is rendered under Section 5-620 of this Article, or, if the trial upon the first petition is terminated without a finding and there is no subsequent trial, or adjudication after waiver of trial, on the first petition within a reasonable time, the minor shall receive a trial upon all of the remaining petitions within 160 days from the date on which the trial, or finding after waiver of trial, on the first petition is concluded. If either such period of 160 days expires without the commencement of trial, or adjudication after waiver of trial, of any of the remaining pending petitions, the petition or petitions shall be dismissed and barred for want of prosecution unless the delay is occasioned by any of the reasons described in this Section.

(3) When no such trial is held within the time required by subsections (1) and (2) of this Section, the court shall, upon motion by any party, dismiss the petition with prejudice.

(4) Without affecting the applicability of the tolling and multiple prosecution provisions of subsections (8) and (2) of this Section when a petition has been filed alleging that the minor is a delinquent and the minor is in detention or shelter care, the trial shall be held within 30 calendar days after the date of the order directing detention or shelter care, or the earliest possible date in compliance with the provisions of Section 5-525 as to the custodial parent, guardian, or legal custodian, but no later than 45 calendar days from the date of the order of the court directing detention or shelter care. When the petition alleges the minor has committed an offense involving a controlled substance as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or methamphetamine as defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State, continue the trial for receipt of a confirmatory laboratory report for up to 45 days after the date of the order directing detention or shelter care. When the petition alleges the minor committed an offense that involves the death of, great bodily harm to or sexual assault or aggravated criminal sexual abuse on a victim, the court may, upon motion of the State, continue the trial for not more than 70 calendar days after the date of the order directing detention or shelter care.

Any failure to comply with the time limits of this Section shall require the immediate release of the minor from detention, and the time limits set forth in subsections (1) and (2) shall apply.

(5) If the court determines that the State, without success, has exercised due diligence to obtain the results of DNA testing that is material to the case, and that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the results may be obtained at a later date, the court may continue the cause on application of the State for not more than 120 additional days. The court may also extend the period of detention of the minor for not more than 120 additional days.

(6) If the State's Attorney makes a written request that a proceeding be designated an extended juvenile jurisdiction prosecution, and the minor is in detention, the period the minor can be held in detention pursuant to subsection (4), shall be extended an additional 30 days after the court determines whether the proceeding will be designated an extended juvenile jurisdiction prosecution or the State's Attorney withdraws the request for extended juvenile jurisdiction prosecution.

(7) When the State's Attorney files a motion for waiver of jurisdiction pursuant to Section 5-805, and the minor is in detention, the period the minor can be held in detention pursuant to subsection (4), shall be extended an additional 30 days if the court denies motion for waiver of jurisdiction or the State's Attorney withdraws the motion for waiver of jurisdiction.

(8) The period in which a trial shall be held as prescribed by subsection subsections (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) of this Section is tolled by: (i) delay occasioned by the minor; (ii) a continuance allowed pursuant to Section 114-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 after the court's determination of the minor's incapacity for trial; (iii) an interlocutory appeal; (iv) an examination of fitness ordered pursuant to Section 104-13 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; (v) a fitness hearing; or (vi) an adjudication of unfitness for trial. Any such delay shall temporarily suspend, for the time of the delay, the period within which a trial must be held as prescribed by subsections (1), (2), (4), (5), and (6) of this Section. On the day of expiration of the delays, the period shall continue at the point at which the time was suspended.

(9) Nothing in this Section prevents the minor or the minor's parents, guardian, or legal custodian from exercising their respective rights to waive the time limits set forth in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-610)

Sec. 5-610. Guardian ad litem and appointment of attorney.

(1) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor whenever it finds that there may be a conflict of interest between the minor and the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian or that it is otherwise in the minor's interest to do so.

(2) Unless the guardian ad litem is an attorney, the guardian ad litem shall be represented by counsel.

(3) The reasonable fees of a guardian ad litem appointed under this Section shall be fixed by the court and paid from the general fund of the county.

(4) If, during the court proceedings, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian prove that the minor has an actual conflict of interest with the minor in that delinquency proceeding and that the parents, guardian, or legal custodian are indigent, the court shall appoint a separate attorney for that parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(5) A guardian ad litem appointed under this Section for a minor who is in the custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services or who has an open intact family services case with the Department of Children and Family Services is entitled to receive copies of any and all classified reports of child abuse or neglect made pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act in which the minor, who is the subject of the report under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, is also a minor for whom the guardian ad litem is appointed under this Act. The Department of Children and Family Services' obligation under this subsection to provide reports to a guardian ad litem for a minor with an open intact family services case applies only if the guardian ad litem notified the Department in writing of the representation.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-11-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-615)

Sec. 5-615. Continuance under supervision.

(1) The court may enter an order of continuance under supervision for an offense other than first degree murder, a Class X felony or a forcible felony:

(a) upon an admission or stipulation by the appropriate respondent or minor respondent of the facts supporting the petition and before the court makes a finding of delinquency, and in the absence of objection made in open court by the minor, the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian, the minor's attorney, or the State's Attorney; or

(b) upon a finding of delinquency and after considering the circumstances of the offense and the history, character, and condition of the minor, if the court is of the opinion that:

(i) the minor is not likely to commit further crimes;

(ii) the minor and the public would be best served if the minor were not to receive a criminal record; and

(iii) in the best interests of justice an order of continuance under supervision is more appropriate than a sentence otherwise permitted under this Act.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Nothing in this Section limits the power of the court to order a continuance of the hearing for the production of additional evidence or for any other proper reason.

(4) When a hearing where a minor is alleged to be a delinquent is continued pursuant to this Section, the period of continuance under supervision may not exceed 24 months. The court may terminate a continuance under supervision at any time if warranted by the conduct of the minor and the ends of justice or vacate the finding of delinquency or both.

(5) When a hearing where a minor is alleged to be delinquent is continued pursuant to this Section, the court may, as conditions of the continuance under supervision, require the minor to do any of the following:

(a) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(b) make a report to and appear in person before any person or agency as directed by the court;

(c) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(d) undergo medical or psychotherapeutic treatment rendered by a therapist licensed under the provisions of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, or the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, or an entity licensed by the Department of Human Services as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the provision of substance use disorder services as defined in Section 1-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act;

(e) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation;

(f) support the minor's dependents, if any;

(g) (blank);

(h) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon, or an automobile;

(i) permit the probation officer to visit the minor at the minor's home or elsewhere;

(j) reside with the minor's parents or in a foster home;

(k) attend school;

(k-5) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if the minor committed a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(l) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(m) provide nonfinancial contributions to the minor's own support at home or in a foster home;

(n) perform some reasonable public or community service that does not interfere with school hours, school-related activities, or work commitments of the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian;

(o) make restitution to the victim, in the same manner and under the same conditions as provided in subsection (4) of Section 5-710, except that the "sentencing hearing" referred to in that Section shall be the adjudicatory hearing for purposes of this Section;

(p) comply with curfew requirements as designated by the court;

(q) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms as the court finds appropriate. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the minor, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(r) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including, but not limited to, members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(r-5) undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from the minor's body;

(s) refrain from having in the minor's body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of the minor's blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug; or

(t) comply with any other conditions as may be ordered by the court.

(6) A minor whose case is continued under supervision under subsection (5) shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions imposed by the court. Those conditions may be reduced, enlarged, or modified by the court on motion of the probation officer or on its own motion, or that of the State's Attorney, or, at the request of the minor after notice and hearing.

(7) If a petition is filed charging a violation of a condition of the continuance under supervision, the court shall conduct a hearing. If the court finds that a condition of supervision has not been fulfilled, the court may proceed to findings, adjudication, and disposition or adjudication and disposition. The filing of a petition for violation of a condition of the continuance under supervision shall toll the period of continuance under supervision until the final determination of the charge, and the term of the continuance under supervision shall not run until the hearing and disposition of the petition for violation; provided where the petition alleges conduct that does not constitute a criminal offense, the hearing must be held within 30 days of the filing of the petition unless a delay shall continue the tolling of the period of continuance under supervision for the period of the delay.

(8) When a hearing in which a minor is alleged to be a delinquent for reasons that include a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 is continued under this Section, the court shall, as a condition of the continuance under supervision, require the minor to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage that was caused by the alleged violation or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the alleged violation occurred. The condition may be in addition to any other condition. Community service shall not interfere with the school hours, school-related activities, or work commitments of the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(8.5) When a hearing in which a minor is alleged to be a delinquent for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1 or the Criminal Code of 2012 is continued under this Section, the court shall, as a condition of the continuance under supervision, require the minor to undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The condition may be in addition to any other condition.

(9) When a hearing in which a minor is alleged to be a delinquent is continued under this Section, the court, before continuing the case, shall make a finding whether the offense alleged to have been committed either: (i) was related to or in furtherance of the activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the minor's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, or (ii) is a violation of paragraph (13) of subsection (a) of Section 12-2 or paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a violation of any statute that involved the unlawful use of a firearm. If the court determines the question in the affirmative the court shall, as a condition of the continuance under supervision and as part of or in addition to any other condition of the supervision, require the minor to perform community service for not less than 30 hours, provided that community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by an alleged violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the alleged violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service shall be performed in the minor's neighborhood. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act. Community service shall not interfere with the school hours, school-related activities, or work commitments of the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(10) (Blank).

(11) (Blank).

(12) Fines and assessments, including any fee or administrative cost authorized under Section 5-4.5-105, 5-5-10, 5-6-3, 5-6-3.1, 5-7-6, 5-9-1.4, or 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections, shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian as a condition of continuance under supervision. If the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian is unable to cover the cost of a condition under this subsection, the court shall not preclude the minor from receiving continuance under supervision based on the inability to pay. Inability to pay shall not be grounds to object to the minor's placement on a continuance under supervision.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 8-25-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-625)

Sec. 5-625. Absence of minor.

(1) When a minor after arrest and an initial court appearance for a felony, fails to appear for trial, at the request of the State and after the State has affirmatively proven through substantial evidence that the minor is willfully avoiding trial, the court may commence trial in the absence of the minor. The absent minor must be represented by retained or appointed counsel. If trial had previously commenced in the presence of the minor and the minor is willfully absent for 2 successive court days, the court shall proceed to trial. All procedural rights guaranteed by the United States Constitution, Constitution of the State of Illinois, statutes of the State of Illinois, and rules of court shall apply to the proceedings the same as if the minor were present in court. The court may set the case for a trial which may be conducted under this Section despite the failure of the minor to appear at the hearing at which the trial date is set. When the trial date is set, the clerk shall send to the minor, by certified mail at the minor's last known address, notice of the new date which has been set for trial. The notification shall be required when the minor was not personally present in open court at the time when the case was set for trial.

(2) The absence of the minor from a trial conducted under this Section does not operate as a bar to concluding the trial, to a finding of guilty resulting from the trial, or to a final disposition of the trial in favor of the minor.

(3) Upon a finding or verdict of not guilty, the court shall enter a finding for the minor. Upon a finding or verdict of guilty, the court shall set a date for the hearing of post-trial motions and shall hear the motion in the absence of the minor. If post-trial motions are denied, the court shall proceed to conduct a sentencing hearing and to impose a sentence upon the minor. A social investigation is waived if the minor is absent.

(4) A minor who is absent for part of the proceedings of trial, post-trial motions, or sentencing, does not thereby forfeit the minor's right to be present at all remaining proceedings.

(5) When a minor who in the minor's absence has been either found guilty or sentenced or both found guilty and sentenced appears before the court, the minor must be granted a new trial or a new sentencing hearing if the minor can establish that the minor's failure to appear in court was both without the minor's fault and due to circumstances beyond the minor's control. A hearing with notice to the State's Attorney on the minors request for a new trial or a new sentencing hearing must be held before any such request may be granted. At any such hearing both the minor and the State may present evidence.

(6) If the court grants only the minor's request for a new sentencing hearing, then a new sentencing hearing shall be held in accordance with the provisions of this Article. At any such hearing, both the minor and the State may offer evidence of the minor's conduct during the minor's period of absence from the court. The court may impose any sentence authorized by this Article and in the case of an extended juvenile jurisdiction prosecution the Unified Code of Corrections and is not in any way limited or restricted by any sentence previously imposed.

(7) A minor whose motion under subsection (5) for a new trial or new sentencing hearing has been denied may file a notice of appeal from the denial. The notice may also include a request for review of the finding and sentence not vacated by the trial court.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-705)

Sec. 5-705. Sentencing hearing; evidence; continuance.

(1) In this subsection (1), "violent crime" has the same meaning ascribed to the term in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. At the sentencing hearing, the court shall determine whether it is in the best interests of the minor or the public that the minor be made a ward of the court, and, if the minor is to be made a ward of the court, the court shall determine the proper disposition best serving the interests of the minor and the public. All evidence helpful in determining these questions, including oral and written reports, may be admitted and may be relied upon to the extent of its probative value, even though not competent for the purposes of the trial. A crime victim shall be allowed to present an oral or written statement, as guaranteed by Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and as provided in Section 6 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, in any case in which: (a) a juvenile has been adjudicated delinquent for a violent crime after a bench or jury trial; or (b) the petition alleged the commission of a violent crime and the juvenile has been adjudicated delinquent under a plea agreement of a crime that is not a violent crime. The court shall allow a victim to make an oral statement if the victim is present in the courtroom and requests to make an oral statement. An oral statement includes the victim or a representative of the victim reading the written statement. The court may allow persons impacted by the crime who are not victims under subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act to present an oral or written statement. A victim and any person making an oral statement shall not be put under oath or subject to cross-examination. A record of a prior continuance under supervision under Section 5-615, whether successfully completed or not, is admissible at the sentencing hearing. No order of commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be entered against a minor before a written report of social investigation, which has been completed within the previous 60 days, is presented to and considered by the court.

(2) Once a party has been served in compliance with Section 5-525, no further service or notice must be given to that party prior to proceeding to a sentencing hearing. Before imposing sentence the court shall advise the State's Attorney and the parties who are present or their counsel of the factual contents and the conclusions of the reports prepared for the use of the court and considered by it, and afford fair opportunity, if requested, to controvert them. Factual contents, conclusions, documents and sources disclosed by the court under this paragraph shall not be further disclosed without the express approval of the court.

(3) On its own motion or that of the State's Attorney, a parent, guardian, legal custodian, or counsel, the court may adjourn the hearing for a reasonable period to receive reports or other evidence and, in such event, shall make an appropriate order for detention of the minor or the minor's release from detention subject to supervision by the court during the period of the continuance. In the event the court shall order detention hereunder, the period of the continuance shall not exceed 30 court days. At the end of such time, the court shall release the minor from detention unless notice is served at least 3 days prior to the hearing on the continued date that the State will be seeking an extension of the period of detention, which notice shall state the reason for the request for the extension. The extension of detention may be for a maximum period of an additional 15 court days or a lesser number of days at the discretion of the court. However, at the expiration of the period of extension, the court shall release the minor from detention if a further continuance is granted. In scheduling investigations and hearings, the court shall give priority to proceedings in which a minor is in detention or has otherwise been removed from the minor's home before a sentencing order has been made.

(4) When commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice is ordered, the court shall state the basis for selecting the particular disposition, and the court shall prepare such a statement for inclusion in the record.

(5) Before a sentencing order is entered by the court under Section 5-710 for a minor adjudged delinquent for a violation of paragraph (3.5) of subsection (a) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the minor made a threat of violence, death, or bodily harm against a person, school, school function, or school event, the court may order a mental health evaluation of the minor by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether employed by the State, by any public or private mental health facility or part of the facility, or by any public or private medical facility or part of the facility. A statement made by a minor during the course of a mental health evaluation conducted under this subsection (5) is not admissible on the issue of delinquency during the course of an adjudicatory hearing held under this Act. Neither the physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, or the employer of the physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, shall be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for performing a mental health examination under this subsection (5), except for willful or wanton misconduct. In this subsection (5), "qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-710)

Sec. 5-710. Kinds of sentencing orders.

(1) The following kinds of sentencing orders may be made in respect of wards of the court:

(a) Except as provided in Sections 5-805, 5-810, and 5-815, a minor who is found guilty under Section 5-620 may be:

(i) put on probation or conditional discharge and released to the minor's parents, guardian or legal custodian, provided, however, that any such minor who is not committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under this subsection and who is found to be a delinquent for an offense which is first degree murder, a Class X felony, or a forcible felony shall be placed on probation;

(ii) placed in accordance with Section 5-740, with or without also being put on probation or conditional discharge;

(iii) required to undergo a substance abuse assessment conducted by a licensed provider and participate in the indicated clinical level of care;

(iv) on and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-803) and before January 1, 2017, placed in the guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, but only if the delinquent minor is under 16 years of age or, pursuant to Article II of this Act, a minor under the age of 18 for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. On and after January 1, 2017, placed in the guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, but only if the delinquent minor is under 15 years of age or, pursuant to Article II of this Act, a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency;

(v) placed in detention for a period not to exceed 30 days, either as the exclusive order of disposition or, where appropriate, in conjunction with any other order of disposition issued under this paragraph, provided that any such detention shall be in a juvenile detention home and the minor so detained shall be 10 years of age or older. However, the 30-day limitation may be extended by further order of the court for a minor under age 15 committed to the Department of Children and Family Services if the court finds that the minor is a danger to the minor or others. The minor shall be given credit on the sentencing order of detention for time spent in detention under Sections 5-501, 5-601, 5-710, or 5-720 of this Article as a result of the offense for which the sentencing order was imposed. The court may grant credit on a sentencing order of detention entered under a violation of probation or violation of conditional discharge under Section 5-720 of this Article for time spent in detention before the filing of the petition alleging the violation. A minor shall not be deprived of credit for time spent in detention before the filing of a violation of probation or conditional discharge alleging the same or related act or acts. The limitation that the minor shall only be placed in a juvenile detention home does not apply as follows:

Persons 18 years of age and older who have a petition of delinquency filed against them may be confined in an adult detention facility. In making a determination whether to confine a person 18 years of age or older who has a petition of delinquency filed against the person, these factors, among other matters, shall be considered:

(A) the age of the person;

(B) any previous delinquent or criminal history of the person;

(C) any previous abuse or neglect history of the person;

(D) any mental health history of the person; and

(E) any educational history of the person;

(vi) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Minors Act;

(vii) subject to having the minor's driver's license or driving privileges suspended for such time as determined by the court but only until the minor attains 18 years of age;

(viii) put on probation or conditional discharge and placed in detention under Section 3-6039 of the Counties Code for a period not to exceed the period of incarceration permitted by law for adults found guilty of the same offense or offenses for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent, and in any event no longer than upon attainment of age 21; this subdivision (viii) notwithstanding any contrary provision of the law;

(ix) ordered to undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from the minor's body; or

(x) placed in electronic monitoring or home detention under Part 7A of this Article.

(b) A minor found to be guilty may be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-750 if the minor is at least 13 years and under 20 years of age, provided that the commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be made only if the minor was found guilty of a felony offense or first degree murder. The court shall include in the sentencing order any pre-custody credits the minor is entitled to under Section 5-4.5-100 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The time during which a minor is in custody before being released upon the request of a parent, guardian or legal custodian shall also be considered as time spent in custody.

(c) When a minor is found to be guilty for an offense which is a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and made a ward of the court, the court may enter a disposition order requiring the minor to undergo assessment, counseling or treatment in a substance use disorder treatment program approved by the Department of Human Services.

(2) Any sentencing order other than commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice may provide for protective supervision under Section 5-725 and may include an order of protection under Section 5-730.

(3) Unless the sentencing order expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 5-750.

(4) In addition to any other sentence, the court may order any minor found to be delinquent to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentencing hearing" referred to in that Section shall be the sentencing hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may be ordered by the court to pay some or all of the restitution on the minor's behalf, pursuant to the Parental Responsibility Law. The State's Attorney is authorized to act on behalf of any victim in seeking restitution in proceedings under this Section, up to the maximum amount allowed in Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(5) Any sentencing order where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 5-740 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of the minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. The payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the sentencing order requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, in instances in which educational services are to be provided to a minor in a residential facility where the minor has been placed by the court, costs incurred in the provision of those educational services must be allocated based on the requirements of the School Code.

(7) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for a period of time in excess of that period for which an adult could be committed for the same act. The court shall include in the sentencing order a limitation on the period of confinement not to exceed the maximum period of imprisonment the court could impose under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7.5) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice or placed in detention when the act for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent would not be illegal if committed by an adult.

(7.6) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for an offense which is a Class 4 felony under Section 19-4 (criminal trespass to a residence), 21-1 (criminal damage to property), 21-1.01 (criminal damage to government supported property), 21-1.3 (criminal defacement of property), 26-1 (disorderly conduct), or 31-4 (obstructing justice) of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(7.75) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for an offense that is a Class 3 or Class 4 felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act unless the commitment occurs upon a third or subsequent judicial finding of a violation of probation for substantial noncompliance with court-ordered treatment or programming.

(8) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be ordered to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage that was caused by the violation or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section. Community service shall not interfere with the school hours, school-related activities, or work commitments of the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(8.5) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be ordered to undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(9) In addition to any other sentencing order, the court shall order any minor found to be guilty for an act which would constitute, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or criminal sexual abuse if committed by an adult to undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agency of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the minor's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of the test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the sentencing order was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the minor of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or the legal guardian, of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at the Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed. The court shall order that the cost of any test shall be paid by the county.

(10) When a court finds a minor to be guilty the court shall, before entering a sentencing order under this Section, make a finding whether the offense committed either: (a) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the minor's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, or (b) involved a violation of subsection (a) of Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a violation of any statute that involved the wrongful use of a firearm. If the court determines the question in the affirmative, and the court does not commit the minor to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the court shall order the minor to perform community service for not less than 30 hours nor more than 120 hours, provided that community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service shall be performed in the minor's neighborhood. This order shall be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section except for an order to place the minor in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice. Community service shall not interfere with the school hours, school-related activities, or work commitments of the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(11) If the court determines that the offense was committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in subsection (10), and that the offense involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit, the court shall notify the Secretary of State of that determination and of the period for which the minor shall be denied driving privileges. If, at the time of the determination, the minor does not hold a driver's license or permit, the court shall provide that the minor shall not be issued a driver's license or permit until the minor's 18th birthday. If the minor holds a driver's license or permit at the time of the determination, the court shall provide that the minor's driver's license or permit shall be revoked until the minor's 21st birthday, or until a later date or occurrence determined by the court. If the minor holds a driver's license at the time of the determination, the court may direct the Secretary of State to issue the minor a judicial driving permit, also known as a JDP. The JDP shall be subject to the same terms as a JDP issued under Section 6-206.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except that the court may direct that the JDP be effective immediately.

(12) (Blank).

(13) Fines and assessments, including any fee or administrative cost authorized under Section 5-4.5-105, 5-5-10, 5-6-3, 5-6-3.1, 5-7-6, 5-9-1.4, or 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections, relating to any sentencing order shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian. The inability of a minor, or minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian, to cover the costs associated with an appropriate sentencing order shall not be the basis for the court to enter a sentencing order incongruent with the court's findings regarding the offense on which the minor was adjudicated or the mitigating factors.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 8-25-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-715)

Sec. 5-715. Probation.

(1) The period of probation or conditional discharge shall not exceed 5 years or until the minor has attained the age of 21 years, whichever is less, except as provided in this Section for a minor who is found to be guilty for an offense which is first degree murder. The juvenile court may terminate probation or conditional discharge and discharge the minor at any time if warranted by the conduct of the minor and the ends of justice; provided, however, that the period of probation for a minor who is found to be guilty for an offense which is first degree murder shall be at least 5 years.

(1.5) The period of probation for a minor who is found guilty of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated battery with a firearm shall be at least 36 months. The period of probation for a minor who is found to be guilty of any other Class X felony shall be at least 24 months. The period of probation for a Class 1 or Class 2 forcible felony shall be at least 18 months. Regardless of the length of probation ordered by the court, for all offenses under this subsection paragraph (1.5), the court shall schedule hearings to determine whether it is in the best interest of the minor and public safety to terminate probation after the minimum period of probation has been served. In such a hearing, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that it is in the best interest of the minor and public safety to terminate probation.

(2) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that the minor:

(a) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(b) make a report to and appear in person before any person or agency as directed by the court;

(c) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(d) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist or social work services rendered by a clinical social worker, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(e) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation;

(f) support the minor's dependents, if any;

(g) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon, or an automobile;

(h) permit the probation officer to visit the minor at the minor's home or elsewhere;

(i) reside with the minor's parents or in a foster home;

(j) attend school;

(j-5) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if the minor committed a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(k) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(l) make restitution under the terms of subsection (4) of Section 5-710;

(m) provide nonfinancial contributions to the minor's own support at home or in a foster home;

(n) perform some reasonable public or community service that does not interfere with school hours, school-related activities, or work commitments of the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian;

(o) participate with community corrections programs including unified delinquency intervention services administered by the Department of Human Services subject to Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act;

(p) (blank);

(q) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the minor:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for the minor's confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the minor's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the minor's compliance with the conditions of the minor's confinement; and

(iii) use an approved electronic monitoring device if ordered by the court subject to Article 8A of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(r) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms as the court finds appropriate. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the minor, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the minor has been placed on probation, or advance approval by the court, if the minor has been placed on conditional discharge;

(s) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including, but not limited to, members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(s-5) undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from the minor's body;

(t) refrain from having in the minor's body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and shall submit samples of the minor's blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug; or

(u) comply with other conditions as may be ordered by the court.

(3) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a minor found guilty on any alcohol, cannabis, methamphetamine, or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If the minor is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(3.5) The court shall, as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge, require that a minor found to be guilty and placed on probation for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The condition may be in addition to any other condition.

(3.10) The court shall order that a minor placed on probation or conditional discharge for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment. The treatment shall be in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and conducted by a treatment provider approved by the Board.

(4) A minor on probation or conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions upon which the minor is being released.

(5) (Blank).

(5.5) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court.

If the transfer case originated in another state and has been transferred under the Interstate Compact for Juveniles to the jurisdiction of an Illinois circuit court for supervision by an Illinois probation department, probation fees may be imposed only if permitted by the Interstate Commission for Juveniles.

(6) The General Assembly finds that in order to protect the public, the juvenile justice system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation by responding to violations with swift, certain, and fair punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a sentence of supervision, probation, or conditional discharge, under this Act.

The court shall provide as a condition of a disposition of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, subject to the provisions of Section 5-720 of this Act.

(7) Fines and assessments, including any fee or administrative cost authorized under Section 5-4.5-105, 5-5-10, 5-6-3, 5-6-3.1, 5-7-6, 5-9-1.4, or 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections, shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian as a condition of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision. If the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian is unable to cover the cost of a condition under this subsection, the court shall not preclude the minor from receiving probation, conditional discharge, or supervision based on the inability to pay. Inability to pay shall not be grounds to object to the minor's placement on probation, conditional discharge, or supervision.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-25-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-810)

Sec. 5-810. Extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecutions.

(1)(a) If the State's Attorney files a petition, at any time prior to commencement of the minor's trial, to designate the proceeding as an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution and the petition alleges the commission by a minor 13 years of age or older of any offense which would be a felony if committed by an adult, and, if the juvenile judge assigned to hear and determine petitions to designate the proceeding as an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution determines that there is probable cause to believe that the allegations in the petition and motion are true, there is a rebuttable presumption that the proceeding shall be designated as an extended jurisdiction juvenile proceeding.

(b) The judge shall enter an order designating the proceeding as an extended jurisdiction juvenile proceeding unless the judge makes a finding based on clear and convincing evidence that sentencing under the Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections would not be appropriate for the minor based on an evaluation of the following factors:

(i) the age of the minor;

(ii) the history of the minor, including:

(A) any previous delinquent or criminal history of the minor,

(B) any previous abuse or neglect history of the minor,

(C) any mental health, physical and/or educational history of the minor, and

(D) any involvement of the minor in the child welfare system;

(iii) the circumstances of the offense, including:

(A) the seriousness of the offense,

(B) whether the minor is charged through accountability,

(C) whether there is evidence the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner,

(D) whether there is evidence the offense caused serious bodily harm,

(E) whether there is evidence the minor possessed a deadly weapon,

(F) whether there is evidence the minor was subjected to outside pressure, including peer pressure, familial pressure, or negative influences, and

(G) the minor's degree of participation and specific role in the offense;

(iv) the advantages of treatment within the juvenile justice system including whether there are facilities or programs, or both, particularly available in the juvenile system;

(v) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections:

(A) the minor's history of services, including the minor's willingness to participate meaningfully in available services;

(B) whether there is a reasonable likelihood that the minor can be rehabilitated before the expiration of the juvenile court's jurisdiction;

(C) the adequacy of the punishment or services.

In considering these factors, the court shall give greater weight to the seriousness of the alleged offense, and the minor's prior record of delinquency than to other factors listed in this subsection.

(2) Procedures for extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecutions. The State's Attorney may file a written motion for a proceeding to be designated as an extended juvenile jurisdiction prior to commencement of trial. Notice of the motion shall be in compliance with Section 5-530. When the State's Attorney files a written motion that a proceeding be designated an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution, the court shall commence a hearing within 30 days of the filing of the motion for designation, unless good cause is shown by the prosecution or the minor as to why the hearing could not be held within this time period. If the court finds good cause has been demonstrated, then the hearing shall be held within 60 days of the filing of the motion. The hearings shall be open to the public unless the judge finds that the hearing should be closed for the protection of any party, victim or witness. If the Juvenile Judge assigned to hear and determine a motion to designate an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution determines that there is probable cause to believe that the allegations in the petition and motion are true the court shall grant the motion for designation. Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered in connection with this Section may be by way of proffer based on reliable information offered by the State or the minor. All evidence shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence.

(3) Trial. A minor who is subject of an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution has the right to trial by jury. Any trial under this Section shall be open to the public.

(4) Sentencing. If an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution under subsection (1) results in a guilty plea, a verdict of guilty, or a finding of guilt, the court shall impose the following:

(i) one or more juvenile sentences under Section 5-710; and

(ii) an adult criminal sentence in accordance with the provisions of Section 5-4.5-105 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the execution of which shall be stayed on the condition that the offender not violate the provisions of the juvenile sentence. Any sentencing hearing under this Section shall be open to the public.

(5) If, after an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution trial, a minor is convicted of a lesser-included offense or of an offense that the State's Attorney did not designate as an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution, the State's Attorney may file a written motion, within 10 days of the finding of guilt, that the minor be sentenced as an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution offender. The court shall rule on this motion using the factors found in paragraph (1)(b) of Section 5-805. If the court denies the State's Attorney's motion for sentencing under the extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution provision, the court shall proceed to sentence the minor under Section 5-710.

(6) When it appears that a minor convicted in an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution under subsection (1) has violated the conditions of the minor's sentence, or is alleged to have committed a new offense upon the filing of a petition to revoke the stay, the court may, without notice, issue a warrant for the arrest of the minor. After a hearing, if the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the minor committed a new offense, the court shall order execution of the previously imposed adult criminal sentence. After a hearing, if the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the minor committed a violation of the minor's sentence other than by a new offense, the court may order execution of the previously imposed adult criminal sentence or may continue the minor on the existing juvenile sentence with or without modifying or enlarging the conditions. Upon revocation of the stay of the adult criminal sentence and imposition of that sentence, the minor's extended jurisdiction juvenile status shall be terminated. The on-going jurisdiction over the minor's case shall be assumed by the adult criminal court and juvenile court jurisdiction shall be terminated and a report of the imposition of the adult sentence shall be sent to the Illinois State Police.

(7) Upon successful completion of the juvenile sentence the court shall vacate the adult criminal sentence.

(8) Nothing in this Section precludes the State from filing a motion for transfer under Section 5-805.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-191, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-915)

Sec. 5-915. Expungement of juvenile law enforcement and juvenile court records.

(0.05) (Blank).

(0.1)(a) The Illinois State Police and all law enforcement agencies within the State shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 of each year, except as described in paragraph (c) of this subsection (0.1), all juvenile law enforcement records relating to events occurring before an individual's 18th birthday if:

(1) one year or more has elapsed since the date of the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records;

(2) no petition for delinquency or criminal charges were filed with the clerk of the circuit court relating to the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records; and

(3) 6 months have elapsed since the date of the arrest without an additional subsequent arrest or filing of a petition for delinquency or criminal charges whether related or not to the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records.

(b) If the law enforcement agency is unable to verify satisfaction of conditions (2) and (3) of this subsection (0.1), records that satisfy condition (1) of this subsection (0.1) shall be automatically expunged if the records relate to an offense that if committed by an adult would not be an offense classified as a Class 2 felony or higher, an offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012, or an offense under Section 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(c) If the juvenile law enforcement record was received through a public submission to a statewide student confidential reporting system administered by the Illinois State Police, the record will be maintained for a period of 5 years according to all other provisions in this subsection (0.1).

(0.15) If a juvenile law enforcement record meets paragraph (a) of subsection (0.1) of this Section, a juvenile law enforcement record created:

(1) prior to January 1, 2018, but on or after January 1, 2013 shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2020;

(2) prior to January 1, 2013, but on or after January 1, 2000, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2023; and

(3) prior to January 1, 2000 shall not be subject to the automatic expungement provisions of this Act.

Nothing in this subsection (0.15) shall be construed to restrict or modify an individual's right to have the person's juvenile law enforcement records expunged except as otherwise may be provided in this Act.

(0.2)(a) Upon dismissal of a petition alleging delinquency or upon a finding of not delinquent, the successful termination of an order of supervision, or the successful termination of an adjudication for an offense which would be a Class B misdemeanor, Class C misdemeanor, or a petty or business offense if committed by an adult, the court shall automatically order the expungement of the juvenile court records and juvenile law enforcement records. The clerk shall deliver a certified copy of the expungement order to the Illinois State Police and the arresting agency. Upon request, the State's Attorney shall furnish the name of the arresting agency. The expungement shall be completed within 60 business days after the receipt of the expungement order.

(b) If the chief law enforcement officer of the agency, or the chief law enforcement officer's designee, certifies in writing that certain information is needed for a pending investigation involving the commission of a felony, that information, and information identifying the juvenile, may be retained until the statute of limitations for the felony has run. If the chief law enforcement officer of the agency, or the chief law enforcement officer's designee, certifies in writing that certain information is needed with respect to an internal investigation of any law enforcement office, that information and information identifying the juvenile may be retained within an intelligence file until the investigation is terminated or the disciplinary action, including appeals, has been completed, whichever is later. Retention of a portion of a juvenile's law enforcement record does not disqualify the remainder of a juvenile's record from immediate automatic expungement.

(0.3)(a) Upon an adjudication of delinquency based on any offense except a disqualified offense, the juvenile court shall automatically order the expungement of the juvenile court and law enforcement records 2 years after the juvenile's case was closed if no delinquency or criminal proceeding is pending and the person has had no subsequent delinquency adjudication or criminal conviction. The clerk shall deliver a certified copy of the expungement order to the Illinois State Police and the arresting agency. Upon request, the State's Attorney shall furnish the name of the arresting agency. The expungement shall be completed within 60 business days after the receipt of the expungement order. In this subsection (0.3), "disqualified offense" means any of the following offenses: Section 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.3, 12-4.4a, 12-5.02, 12-6.2, 12-6.5, 12-7.1, 12-7.5, 12-20.5, 12-32, 12-33, 12-34, 12-34.5, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-6, 19-3, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.5, 24-3A, 24-3B, 24-3.2, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 29D-14.9, 29D-20, 30-1, 31-1a, 32-4a, or 33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (b) of Section 8-1, paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 11-14.4, subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1, paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a) of Section 12-6, subsection (a-3) or (a-5) of Section 12-7.3, paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 12-7.4, subparagraph (i) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 12-9, subparagraph (H) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6, paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 25-1, or subsection (a-7) of Section 31-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) If the chief law enforcement officer of the agency, or the chief law enforcement officer's designee, certifies in writing that certain information is needed for a pending investigation involving the commission of a felony, that information, and information identifying the juvenile, may be retained in an intelligence file until the investigation is terminated or for one additional year, whichever is sooner. Retention of a portion of a juvenile's juvenile law enforcement record does not disqualify the remainder of a juvenile's record from immediate automatic expungement.

(0.4) Automatic expungement for the purposes of this Section shall not require law enforcement agencies to obliterate or otherwise destroy juvenile law enforcement records that would otherwise need to be automatically expunged under this Act, except after 2 years following the subject arrest for purposes of use in civil litigation against a governmental entity or its law enforcement agency or personnel which created, maintained, or used the records. However, these juvenile law enforcement records shall be considered expunged for all other purposes during this period and the offense, which the records or files concern, shall be treated as if it never occurred as required under Section 5-923.

(0.5) Subsection (0.1) or (0.2) of this Section does not apply to violations of traffic, boating, fish and game laws, or county or municipal ordinances.

(0.6) Juvenile law enforcement records of a plaintiff who has filed civil litigation against the governmental entity or its law enforcement agency or personnel that created, maintained, or used the records, or juvenile law enforcement records that contain information related to the allegations set forth in the civil litigation may not be expunged until after 2 years have elapsed after the conclusion of the lawsuit, including any appeal.

(0.7) Officer-worn body camera recordings shall not be automatically expunged except as otherwise authorized by the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act.

(1) Whenever a person has been arrested, charged, or adjudicated delinquent for an incident occurring before a person's 18th birthday that if committed by an adult would be an offense, and that person's juvenile law enforcement and juvenile court records are not eligible for automatic expungement under subsection (0.1), (0.2), or (0.3), the person may petition the court at any time at no cost to the person for expungement of juvenile law enforcement records and juvenile court records relating to the incident and, upon termination of all juvenile court proceedings relating to that incident, the court shall order the expungement of all records in the possession of the Illinois State Police, the clerk of the circuit court, and law enforcement agencies relating to the incident, but only in any of the following circumstances:

(a) the minor was arrested and no petition for delinquency was filed with the clerk of the circuit court;

(a-5) the minor was charged with an offense and the petition or petitions were dismissed without a finding of delinquency;

(b) the minor was charged with an offense and was found not delinquent of that offense;

(c) the minor was placed under supervision under Section 5-615, and the order of supervision has since been successfully terminated; or

(d) the minor was adjudicated for an offense which would be a Class B misdemeanor, Class C misdemeanor, or a petty or business offense if committed by an adult.

(1.5) At no cost to the person, the Illinois State Police shall allow a person to use the Access and Review process, established in the Illinois State Police, for verifying that the person's juvenile law enforcement records relating to incidents occurring before the person's 18th birthday eligible under this Act have been expunged.

(1.6) (Blank).

(1.7) (Blank).

(1.8) (Blank).

(2) Any person whose delinquency adjudications are not eligible for automatic expungement under subsection (0.3) of this Section may petition the court at no cost to the person to expunge all juvenile law enforcement records relating to any incidents occurring before the person's 18th birthday which did not result in proceedings in criminal court and all juvenile court records with respect to any adjudications except those based upon first degree murder or an offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012 if the person is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act at the time the person petitions the court for expungement; provided that 2 years have elapsed since all juvenile court proceedings relating to the person have been terminated and the person's commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice under this Act has been terminated.

(2.5) If a minor is arrested and no petition for delinquency is filed with the clerk of the circuit court at the time the minor is released from custody, the youth officer, if applicable, or other designated person from the arresting agency, shall notify verbally and in writing to the minor or the minor's parents or guardians that the minor shall have an arrest record and shall provide the minor and the minor's parents or guardians with an expungement information packet, information regarding this State's expungement laws including a petition to expunge juvenile law enforcement and juvenile court records obtained from the clerk of the circuit court.

(2.6) If a minor is referred to court, then, at the time of sentencing, dismissal of the case, or successful completion of supervision, the judge shall inform the delinquent minor of the minor's rights regarding expungement and the clerk of the circuit court shall provide an expungement information packet to the minor, written in plain language, including information regarding this State's expungement laws and a petition for expungement, a sample of a completed petition, expungement instructions that shall include information informing the minor that (i) once the case is expunged, it shall be treated as if it never occurred, (ii) the minor shall not be charged a fee to petition for expungement, (iii) once the minor obtains an expungement, the minor may not be required to disclose that the minor had a juvenile law enforcement or juvenile court record, and (iv) if petitioning the minor may file the petition on the minor's own or with the assistance of an attorney. The failure of the judge to inform the delinquent minor of the minor's right to petition for expungement as provided by law does not create a substantive right, nor is that failure grounds for: (i) a reversal of an adjudication of delinquency; (ii) a new trial; or (iii) an appeal.

(2.7) (Blank).

(2.8) (Blank).

(3) (Blank).

(3.1) (Blank).

(3.2) (Blank).

(3.3) (Blank).

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(5.5) Whether or not expunged, records eligible for automatic expungement under subdivision (0.1)(a), (0.2)(a), or (0.3)(a) may be treated as expunged by the individual subject to the records.

(6) (Blank).

(6.5) The Illinois State Police or any employee of the Illinois State Police shall be immune from civil or criminal liability for failure to expunge any records of arrest that are subject to expungement under this Section because of inability to verify a record. Nothing in this Section shall create Illinois State Police liability or responsibility for the expungement of juvenile law enforcement records it does not possess.

(7) (Blank).

(7.5) (Blank).

(8) The expungement of juvenile law enforcement or juvenile court records under subsection (0.1), (0.2), or (0.3) of this Section shall be funded by appropriation by the General Assembly for that purpose.

(9) (Blank).

(10) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-752, eff. 1-1-23; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/6-7) (from Ch. 37, par. 806-7)

Sec. 6-7. Financial responsibility of counties.

(1) Each county board shall provide in its annual appropriation ordinance or annual budget, as the case may be, a reasonable sum for payments for the care and support of minors, and for payments for court appointed counsel in accordance with orders entered under this Act in an amount which in the judgment of the county board may be needed for that purpose. Such appropriation or budget item constitutes a separate fund into which shall be paid the moneys appropriated by the county board, and all reimbursements by other persons and by the State. For cases involving minors subject to Article III, IV, or V of this Act or minors under the age of 18 transferred to adult court or excluded from juvenile court jurisdiction under Article V of this Act, the county board shall not seek reimbursement from a minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(2) No county may be charged with the care and support of any minor who is not a resident of the county unless the minor's parents or guardian are unknown or the minor's place of residence cannot be determined.

(3) No order upon the county for care and support of a minor may be entered until the president or chairman of the county board has had due notice that such a proceeding is pending.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/6-9) (from Ch. 37, par. 806-9)

Sec. 6-9. Enforcement of liability of parents and others.

(1) If parentage is at issue in any proceeding under this Act, other than cases involving those exceptions to the definition of parent set out in item (11) in Section 1-3, then the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015 shall apply and the court shall enter orders consistent with that Act. If it appears at any hearing that a parent or any other person named in the petition, liable under the law for the support of the minor, is able to contribute to the minor's support, the court shall enter an order requiring that parent or other person to pay the clerk of the court, or to the guardian or custodian appointed under Section 2-27, a reasonable sum from time to time for the care, support, and necessary special care or treatment of the minor. If the court determines at any hearing that a parent or any other person named in the petition, liable under the law for the support of the minor, is able to contribute to help defray the costs associated with the minor's detention in a county or regional detention center, the court shall enter an order requiring that parent or other person to pay the clerk of the court a reasonable sum for the care and support of the minor. The court may require reasonable security for the payments. Upon failure to pay, the court may enforce obedience to the order by a proceeding as for contempt of court.

Costs associated with detention, legal representation, or other services or programs under Article III, IV, or V of this Act shall not be ordered or imposed on a parent, guardian, or legal custodian liable under the law for the support of a minor. the minor's the parent or other person the person's

(2) (Blank). the person the person the person's the person the person's the person the person's the person

(3) If the minor is a recipient of public aid under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the court shall order that payments made by a parent or through assignment of the parent's wages, salary, or commission be made directly to (a) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services if the minor is a recipient of aid under Article V of the Code, (b) the Department of Human Services if the minor is a recipient of aid under Article IV of the Code, or (c) the local governmental unit responsible for the support of the minor if the minor is a recipient under Article Articles VI or VII of the Code. The order shall permit the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, or the local governmental unit, as the case may be, to direct that subsequent payments be made directly to the guardian or custodian of the minor, or to some other person or agency in the minor's behalf, upon removal of the minor from the public aid rolls; and upon such direction and removal of the minor from the public aid rolls, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, or the local governmental unit, as the case requires, shall give written notice of such action to the court. Payments received by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, or the local governmental unit are to be covered, respectively, into the General Revenue Fund of the State Treasury or the General Assistance Fund of the governmental unit, as provided in Section 10-19 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-15-23.)

(705 ILCS 405/6-10) (from Ch. 37, par. 806-10)

Sec. 6-10. State reimbursement of funds.

(a) Before the 15th day of each month, the clerk of the court shall itemize all payments received by the clerk under Section 6-9 during the preceding month and shall pay such amounts to the county treasurer. Before the 20th day of each month, the county treasurer shall file with the Department of Children and Family Services an itemized statement of the amount of money for the care and shelter of a minor placed in shelter care under Sections 2-7, 3-9, 4-6 or 5-410 or placed under Sections 2-27, 3-28, 4-25, or 5-740 before July 1, 1980 and after June 30, 1981, paid by the county during the last preceding month pursuant to court order entered under Section 6-8, certified by the court, and an itemized account of all payments received by the clerk of the court under Section 6-9 during the preceding month and paid over to the county treasurer, certified by the county treasurer. The Department of Children and Family Services shall examine and audit the monthly statement and account, and upon finding them correct, shall voucher for payment to the county a sum equal to the amount so paid out by the county less the amount received by the clerk of the court under Section 6-9 and paid to the county treasurer but not more than an amount equal to the current average daily rate paid by the Department of Children and Family Services for similar services pursuant to Section 5a of the Children and Family Services Act, approved June 4, 1963, as amended. Reimbursement to the counties under this Section for care and support of minors in licensed child caring institutions must be made by the Department of Children and Family Services only for care in those institutions which have filed with the Department a certificate affirming that they admit minors on the basis of need without regard to race or ethnic origin.

(b) The county treasurer may file with the Department of Children and Family Services an itemized statement of the amount of money paid by the county during the last preceding month pursuant to court order entered under Section 6-8, certified by the court, and an itemized account of all payments received by the clerk of the court under Section 6-9 during the preceding month and paid over to the county treasurer, certified by the county treasurer. The Department of Children and Family Services shall examine and audit the monthly statement and account, and upon finding them correct, shall voucher for payment to the county a sum equal to the amount so paid out by the county less the amount received by the clerk of the court under Section 6-9 and paid to the county treasurer. Subject to appropriations for that purpose, the State shall reimburse the county for the care and shelter of a minor placed in detention as a result of any new provisions that are created by the Juvenile Justice Reform Provisions of 1998 (Public Act 90-590).

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 560. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 9-1, 24-1.9, 24-1.10, and 24-5.1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/9-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1)

Sec. 9-1. First degree murder.

(a) A person who kills an individual without lawful justification commits first degree murder if, in performing the acts which cause the death:

(1) he or she either intends to kill or do great bodily harm to that individual or another, or knows that such acts will cause death to that individual or another; or

(2) he or she knows that such acts create a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to that individual or another; or

(3) he or she, acting alone or with one or more participants, commits or attempts to commit a forcible felony other than second degree murder, and in the course of or in furtherance of such crime or flight therefrom, he or she or another participant causes the death of a person.

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank)..

(h-5) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-51, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-20-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.9)

Sec. 24-1.9. Manufacture, possession, delivery, sale, and purchase of assault weapons, .50 caliber rifles, and .50 caliber cartridges.

(a) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Assault weapon" means any of the following, except as provided in subdivision (2) of this subsection:

(A) A semiautomatic rifle that has the capacity to accept a detachable magazine or that may be readily modified to accept a detachable magazine, if the firearm has one or more of the following:

(i) a pistol grip or thumbhole stock;

(ii) any feature capable of functioning as a protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger hand;

(iii) a folding, telescoping, thumbhole, or detachable stock, or a stock that is otherwise foldable or adjustable in a manner that operates to reduce the length, size, or any other dimension, or otherwise enhances the concealability of, the weapon;

(iv) a flash suppressor;

(v) a grenade launcher;

(vi) a shroud attached to the barrel or that partially or completely encircles the barrel, allowing the bearer to hold the firearm with the non-trigger hand without being burned, but excluding a slide that encloses the barrel.

(B) A semiautomatic rifle that has a fixed magazine with the capacity to accept more than 10 rounds, except for an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition.

(C) A semiautomatic pistol that has the capacity to accept a detachable magazine or that may be readily modified to accept a detachable magazine, if the firearm has one or more of the following:

(i) a threaded barrel;

(ii) a second pistol grip or another feature capable of functioning as a protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger hand;

(iii) a shroud attached to the barrel or that partially or completely encircles the barrel, allowing the bearer to hold the firearm with the non-trigger hand without being burned, but excluding a slide that encloses the barrel;

(iv) a flash suppressor;

(v) the capacity to accept a detachable magazine at some location outside of the pistol grip; or

(vi) a buffer tube, arm brace, or other part that protrudes horizontally behind the pistol grip and is designed or redesigned to allow or facilitate a firearm to be fired from the shoulder.

(D) A semiautomatic pistol that has a fixed magazine with the capacity to accept more than 15 rounds.

(E) Any shotgun with a revolving cylinder.

(F) A semiautomatic shotgun that has one or more of the following:

(i) a pistol grip or thumbhole stock;

(ii) any feature capable of functioning as a protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger hand;

(iii) a folding or thumbhole stock;

(iv) a grenade launcher;

(v) a fixed magazine with the capacity of more than 5 rounds; or

(vi) the capacity to accept a detachable magazine.

(G) Any semiautomatic firearm that has the capacity to accept a belt ammunition feeding device.

(H) Any firearm that has been modified to be operable as an assault weapon as defined in this Section.

(I) Any part or combination of parts designed or intended to convert a firearm into an assault weapon, including any combination of parts from which an assault weapon may be readily assembled if those parts are in the possession or under the control of the same person.

(J) All of the following rifles, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon:

(i) All AK types, including the following:

(I) AK, AK47, AK47S, AK-74, AKM, AKS, ARM, MAK90, MISR, NHM90, NHM91, SA85, SA93, Vector Arms AK-47, VEPR, WASR-10, and WUM.

(II) IZHMASH Saiga AK.

(III) MAADI AK47 and ARM.

(IV) Norinco 56S, 56S2, 84S, and 86S.

(V) Poly Technologies AK47 and AKS.

(VI) SKS with a detachable magazine.

(ii) all AR types, including the following:

(I) AR-10.

(II) AR-15.

(III) Alexander Arms Overmatch Plus 16.

(IV) Armalite M15 22LR Carbine.

(V) Armalite M15-T.

(VI) Barrett REC7.

(VII) Beretta AR-70.

(VIII) Black Rain Ordnance Recon Scout.

(IX) Bushmaster ACR.

(X) Bushmaster Carbon 15.

(XI) Bushmaster MOE series.

(XII) Bushmaster XM15.

(XIII) Chiappa Firearms MFour rifles.

(XIV) Colt Match Target rifles.

(XV) CORE Rifle Systems CORE15 rifles.

(XVI) Daniel Defense M4A1 rifles.

(XVII) Devil Dog Arms 15 Series rifles.

(XVIII) Diamondback DB15 rifles.

(XIX) DoubleStar AR rifles.

(XX) DPMS Tactical rifles.

(XXI) DSA Inc. ZM-4 Carbine.

(XXII) Heckler & Koch MR556.

(XXIII) High Standard HSA-15 rifles.

(XXIV) Jesse James Nomad AR-15 rifle.

(XXV) Knight's Armament SR-15.

(XXVI) Lancer L15 rifles.

(XXVII) MGI Hydra Series rifles.

(XXVIII) Mossberg MMR Tactical rifles.

(XXIX) Noreen Firearms BN 36 rifle.

(XXX) Olympic Arms.

(XXXI) POF USA P415.

(XXXII) Precision Firearms AR rifles.

(XXXIII) Remington R-15 rifles.

(XXXIV) Rhino Arms AR rifles.

(XXXV) Rock River Arms LAR-15 or Rock River Arms LAR-47.

(XXXVI) Sig Sauer SIG516 rifles and MCX rifles.

(XXXVII) Smith & Wesson M&P15 rifles.

(XXXVIII) Stag Arms AR rifles.

(XXXIX) Sturm, Ruger & Co. SR556 and AR-556 rifles.

(XL) Uselton Arms Air-Lite M-4 rifles.

(XLI) Windham Weaponry AR rifles.

(XLII) WMD Guns Big Beast.

(XLIII) Yankee Hill Machine Company, Inc. YHM-15 rifles.

(iii) Barrett M107A1.

(iv) Barrett M82A1.

(v) Beretta CX4 Storm.

(vi) Calico Liberty Series.

(vii) CETME Sporter.

(viii) Daewoo K-1, K-2, Max 1, Max 2, AR 100, and AR 110C.

(ix) Fabrique Nationale/FN Herstal FAL, LAR, 22 FNC, 308 Match, L1A1 Sporter, PS90, SCAR, and FS2000.

(x) Feather Industries AT-9.

(xi) Galil Model AR and Model ARM.

(xii) Hi-Point Carbine.

(xiii) HK-91, HK-93, HK-94, HK-PSG-1, and HK USC.

(xiv) IWI TAVOR, Galil ACE rifle.

(xv) Kel-Tec Sub-2000, SU-16, and RFB.

(xvi) SIG AMT, SIG PE-57, Sig Sauer SG 550, Sig Sauer SG 551, and SIG MCX.

(xvii) Springfield Armory SAR-48.

(xviii) Steyr AUG.

(xix) Sturm, Ruger & Co. Mini-14 Tactical Rifle M-14/20CF.

(xx) All Thompson rifles, including the following:

(I) Thompson M1SB.

(II) Thompson T1100D.

(III) Thompson T150D.

(IV) Thompson T1B.

(V) Thompson T1B100D.

(VI) Thompson T1B50D.

(VII) Thompson T1BSB.

(VIII) Thompson T1-C.

(IX) Thompson T1D.

(X) Thompson T1SB.

(XI) Thompson T5.

(XII) Thompson T5100D.

(XIII) Thompson TM1.

(XIV) Thompson TM1C.

(xxi) UMAREX UZI rifle.

(xxii) UZI Mini Carbine, UZI Model A Carbine, and UZI Model B Carbine.

(xxiii) Valmet M62S, M71S, and M78.

(xxiv) Vector Arms UZI Type.

(xxv) Weaver Arms Nighthawk.

(xxvi) Wilkinson Arms Linda Carbine.

(K) All of the following pistols, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon thereof:

(i) All AK types, including the following:

(I) Centurion 39 AK pistol.

(II) CZ Scorpion pistol.

(III) Draco AK-47 pistol.

(IV) HCR AK-47 pistol.

(V) IO Inc. Hellpup AK-47 pistol.

(VI) Krinkov pistol.

(VII) Mini Draco AK-47 pistol.

(VIII) PAP M92 pistol.

(IX) Yugo Krebs Krink pistol.

(ii) All AR types, including the following:

(I) American Spirit AR-15 pistol.

(II) Bushmaster Carbon 15 pistol.

(III) Chiappa Firearms M4 Pistol GEN II.

(IV) CORE Rifle Systems CORE15 Roscoe pistol.

(V) Daniel Defense MK18 pistol.

(VI) DoubleStar Corporation AR pistol.

(VII) DPMS AR-15 pistol.

(VIII) Jesse James Nomad AR-15 pistol.

(IX) Olympic Arms AR-15 pistol.

(X) Osprey Armament MK-18 pistol.

(XI) POF USA AR pistols.

(XII) Rock River Arms LAR 15 pistol.

(XIII) Uselton Arms Air-Lite M-4 pistol.

(iii) Calico pistols.

(iv) DSA SA58 PKP FAL pistol.

(v) Encom MP-9 and MP-45.

(vi) Heckler & Koch model SP-89 pistol.

(vii) Intratec AB-10, TEC-22 Scorpion, TEC-9, and TEC-DC9.

(viii) IWI Galil Ace pistol, UZI PRO pistol.

(ix) Kel-Tec PLR 16 pistol.

(x) All MAC types, including the following:

(I) MAC-10.

(II) MAC-11.

(III) Masterpiece Arms MPA A930 Mini Pistol, MPA460 Pistol, MPA Tactical Pistol, and MPA Mini Tactical Pistol.

(IV) Military Armament Corp. Ingram M-11.

(V) Velocity Arms VMAC.

(xi) Sig Sauer P556 pistol.

(xii) Sites Spectre.

(xiii) All Thompson types, including the following:

(I) Thompson TA510D.

(II) Thompson TA5.

(xiv) All UZI types, including Micro-UZI.

(L) All of the following shotguns, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon thereof:

(i) DERYA Anakon MC-1980, Anakon SD12.

(ii) Doruk Lethal shotguns.

(iii) Franchi LAW-12 and SPAS 12.

(iv) All IZHMASH Saiga 12 types, including the following:

(I) IZHMASH Saiga 12.

(II) IZHMASH Saiga 12S.

(III) IZHMASH Saiga 12S EXP-01.

(IV) IZHMASH Saiga 12K.

(V) IZHMASH Saiga 12K-030.

(VI) IZHMASH Saiga 12K-040 Taktika.

(v) Streetsweeper.

(vi) Striker 12.

(2) "Assault weapon" does not include:

(A) Any firearm that is an unserviceable firearm or has been made permanently inoperable.

(B) An antique firearm or a replica of an antique firearm.

(C) A firearm that is manually operated by bolt, pump, lever or slide action, unless the firearm is a shotgun with a revolving cylinder.

(D) Any air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.

(E) Any handgun, as defined under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise listed in this Section.

(3) "Assault weapon attachment" means any device capable of being attached to a firearm that is specifically designed for making or converting a firearm into any of the firearms listed in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a).

(4) "Antique firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(16).

(5) ".50 caliber rifle" means a centerfire rifle capable of firing a .50 caliber cartridge. The term does not include any antique firearm, any shotgun including a shotgun that has a rifle barrel, or any muzzle-loader which uses black powder for hunting or historical reenactments.

(6) ".50 caliber cartridge" means a cartridge in .50 BMG caliber, either by designation or actual measurement, that is capable of being fired from a centerfire rifle. The term ".50 caliber cartridge" does not include any memorabilia or display item that is filled with a permanent inert substance or that is otherwise permanently altered in a manner that prevents ready modification for use as live ammunition or shotgun ammunition with a caliber measurement that is equal to or greater than .50 caliber.

(7) "Detachable magazine" means an ammunition feeding device that may be removed from a firearm without disassembly of the firearm action, including an ammunition feeding device that may be readily removed from a firearm with the use of a bullet, cartridge, accessory, or other tool, or any other object that functions as a tool, including a bullet or cartridge.

(8) "Fixed magazine" means an ammunition feeding device that is permanently attached to a firearm, or contained in and not removable from a firearm, or that is otherwise not a detachable magazine, but does not include an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition.

(b) Except as provided in subsections (c), (d), and (e), on or after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly manufacture, deliver, sell, import, or purchase or cause to be manufactured, delivered, sold, imported, or purchased by another, an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), beginning January 1, 2024, it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly possess an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

(d) This Section does not apply to a person's possession of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge device if the person lawfully possessed that assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge prohibited by subsection (c) of this Section, if the person has provided in an endorsement affidavit, prior to January 1, 2024, under oath or affirmation and in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police, no later than October 1, 2023:

(1) the affiant's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number;

(2) an affirmation that the affiant: (i) possessed an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge before January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly; or (ii) inherited the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge from a person with an endorsement under this Section or from a person authorized under subdivisions (1) through (5) of subsection (e) to possess the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge; and

(3) the make, model, caliber, and serial number of the .50 caliber rifle or assault weapon or assault weapons listed in paragraphs (J), (K), and (L) of subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of this Section possessed by the affiant prior to January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and any assault weapons identified and published by the Illinois State Police pursuant to this subdivision (3). No later than October 1, 2023, and every October 1 thereafter, the Illinois State Police shall, via rulemaking, identify, publish, and make available on its website, the list of assault weapons subject to an endorsement affidavit under this subsection (d). The list shall identify, but is not limited to, the copies, duplicates, variants, and altered facsimiles of the assault weapons identified in paragraphs (J), (K), and (L) of subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of this Section and shall be consistent with the definition of "assault weapon" identified in this Section. The Illinois State Police may adopt emergency rulemaking in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and this paragraph is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

The affidavit form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this form is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Entering false information on this form is a violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act."

In any administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding in this State, a completed endorsement affidavit submitted to the Illinois State Police by a person under this Section creates a rebuttable presumption that the person is entitled to possess and transport the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

Beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, a person authorized under this Section to possess an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge shall possess such items only:

(1) on private property owned or immediately controlled by the person;

(2) on private property that is not open to the public with the express permission of the person who owns or immediately controls such property;

(3) while on the premises of a licensed firearms dealer or gunsmith for the purpose of lawful repair;

(4) while engaged in the legal use of the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge at a properly licensed firing range or sport shooting competition venue; or

(5) while traveling to or from these locations, provided that the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, or .50 caliber rifle is unloaded and the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge is enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, the person with the endorsement for an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge or a person authorized under subdivisions (1) through (5) of subsection (e) to possess an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge may transfer the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge only to an heir, an individual residing in another state maintaining it in another state, or a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968. Within 10 days after transfer of the weapon except to an heir, the person shall notify the Illinois State Police of the name and address of the transferee and comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The person to whom the weapon or ammunition is transferred shall, within 60 days of the transfer, complete an affidavit required under this Section. A person to whom the weapon is transferred may transfer it only as provided in this subsection.

Except as provided in subsection (e) and beginning on January 1, 2024, any person who moves into this State in possession of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge shall, within 60 days, apply for a Firearm Owners Identification Card and complete an endorsement application as outlined in subsection (d).

Notwithstanding any other law, information contained in the endorsement affidavit shall be confidential, is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, and shall not be disclosed, except to law enforcement agencies acting in the performance of their duties.

(e) The provisions of this Section regarding the purchase or possession of assault weapons, assault weapon attachments, .50 caliber rifles, and .50 cartridges, as well as the provisions of this Section that prohibit causing those items to be purchased or possessed, do not apply to:

(1) Peace officers, as defined in Section 2-13 of this Code.

(2) Qualified law enforcement officers and qualified retired law enforcement officers as defined in the Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004 (18 U.S.C. 926B and 926C) and as recognized under Illinois law.

(3) Acquisition and possession by a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency for the purpose of equipping the agency's peace officers as defined in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (e).

(4) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(5) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while performing their official duties or while traveling to or from their places of duty.

(6) Any company that employs armed security officers in this State at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and any person employed as an armed security force member at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and while performing official duties.

(7) Any private security contractor agency licensed under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 that employs private security contractors and any private security contractor who is licensed and has been issued a firearm control card under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 while performing official duties.

The provisions of this Section do not apply to the manufacture, delivery, sale, import, purchase, or possession of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge or causing the manufacture, delivery, sale, importation, purchase, or possession of those items:

(A) for sale or transfer to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (7) of this subsection (e) to possess those items;

(B) for sale or transfer to the United States or any department or agency thereof; or

(C) for sale or transfer in another state or for export.

This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(i) Possession of any firearm if that firearm is sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee and by USA Shooting, the national governing body for international shooting competition in the United States, but only when the firearm is in the actual possession of an Olympic target shooting competitor or target shooting coach for the purpose of storage, transporting to and from Olympic target shooting practice or events if the firearm is broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms, and when the Olympic target shooting competitor or target shooting coach is engaging in those practices or events. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "firearm" has the meaning provided in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(ii) Any nonresident who transports, within 24 hours, a weapon for any lawful purpose from any place where the nonresident may lawfully possess and carry that weapon to any other place where the nonresident may lawfully possess and carry that weapon if, during the transportation, the weapon is unloaded, and neither the weapon nor any ammunition being transported is readily accessible or is directly accessible from the passenger compartment of the transporting vehicle. In the case of a vehicle without a compartment separate from the driver's compartment, the weapon or ammunition shall be contained in a locked container other than the glove compartment or console.

(iii) Possession of a weapon at an event taking place at the World Shooting and Recreational Complex at Sparta, only while engaged in the legal use of the weapon, or while traveling to or from that location if the weapon is broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms.

(iv) Possession of a weapon only for hunting use expressly permitted under the Wildlife Code, or while traveling to or from a location authorized for this hunting use under the Wildlife Code if the weapon is broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms. By October 1, 2023, the Illinois State Police, in consultation with the Department of Natural Resources, shall adopt rules concerning the list of applicable weapons approved under this subparagraph (iv). The Illinois State Police may adopt emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and this paragraph is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(v) The manufacture, transportation, possession, sale, or rental of blank-firing assault weapons and .50 caliber rifles, or the weapon's respective attachments, to persons authorized or permitted, or both authorized and permitted, to acquire and possess these weapons or attachments for the purpose of rental for use solely as props for a motion picture, television, or video production or entertainment event.

Any person not subject to this Section may submit an endorsement affidavit if the person chooses.

(f) Any sale or transfer with a background check initiated to the Illinois State Police on or before January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly is allowed to be completed after January 10, 2023 the effective date of this amendatory Act once an approval is issued by the Illinois State Police and any applicable waiting period under Section 24-3 has expired.

(g) The Illinois State Police shall take all steps necessary to carry out the requirements of this Section within by October 1, 2023.

(h) The Illinois Department of the State Police shall also develop and implement a public notice and public outreach campaign to promote awareness about the provisions of Public Act 102-1116 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and to increase compliance with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; revised 4-6-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.10)

Sec. 24-1.10. Manufacture, delivery, sale, and possession of large capacity ammunition feeding devices.

(a) In this Section:

"Handgun" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

"Long gun" means a rifle or shotgun.

"Large capacity ammunition feeding device" means:

(1) a magazine, belt, drum, feed strip, or similar device that has a capacity of, or that can be readily restored or converted to accept, more than 10 rounds of ammunition for long guns and more than 15 rounds of ammunition for handguns; or

(2) any combination of parts from which a device described in paragraph (1) can be assembled.

"Large capacity ammunition feeding device" does not include an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition. "Large capacity ammunition feeding device" does not include a tubular magazine that is contained in a lever-action firearm or any device that has been made permanently inoperable.

(b) Except as provided in subsections (e) and (f), it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly manufacture, deliver, sell, purchase, or cause to be manufactured, delivered, sold, or purchased a large capacity ammunition feeding device.

(c) Except as provided in subsections (d), (e), and (f), and beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, it is unlawful to knowingly possess a large capacity ammunition feeding device.

(d) Subsection (c) does not apply to a person's possession of a large capacity ammunition feeding device if the person lawfully possessed that large capacity ammunition feeding device before January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, provided that the person shall possess such device only:

(1) on private property owned or immediately controlled by the person;

(2) on private property that is not open to the public with the express permission of the person who owns or immediately controls such property;

(3) while on the premises of a licensed firearms dealer or gunsmith for the purpose of lawful repair;

(4) while engaged in the legal use of the large capacity ammunition feeding device at a properly licensed firing range or sport shooting competition venue; or

(5) while traveling to or from these locations, provided that the large capacity ammunition feeding device is stored unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container.

A person authorized under this Section to possess a large capacity ammunition feeding device may transfer the large capacity ammunition feeding device only to an heir, an individual residing in another state maintaining it in another state, or a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968. Within 10 days after transfer of the large capacity ammunition feeding device except to an heir, the person shall notify the Illinois State Police of the name and address of the transferee and comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The person to whom the large capacity ammunition feeding device is transferred shall, within 60 days of the transfer, notify the Illinois State Police of the person's acquisition and comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. A person to whom the large capacity ammunition feeding device is transferred may transfer it only as provided in this subsection.

Except as provided in subsections (e) and (f) and beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, any person who moves into this State in possession of a large capacity ammunition feeding device shall, within 60 days, apply for a Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(e) The provisions of this Section regarding the purchase or possession of large capacity ammunition feeding devices, as well as the provisions of this Section that prohibit causing those items to be purchased or possessed, do not apply to:

(1) Peace officers as defined in Section 2-13 of this Code.

(2) Qualified law enforcement officers and qualified retired law enforcement officers as defined in the Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004 (18 U.S.C. 926B and 926C) and as recognized under Illinois law.

(3) A federal, State, or local law enforcement agency for the purpose of equipping the agency's peace officers as defined in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (e).

(4) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(5) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while performing their official duties or while traveling to or from their places of duty.

(6) Any company that employs armed security officers in this State at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and any person employed as an armed security force member at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and while performing official duties.

(7) Any private security contractor agency licensed under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 that employs private security contractors and any private security contractor who is licensed and has been issued a firearm control card under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 while performing official duties.

(f) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Manufacture, delivery, sale, importation, purchase, or possession or causing to be manufactured, delivered, sold, imported, purchased, or possessed a large capacity ammunition feeding device:

(A) for sale or transfer to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (7) of subsection (e) to possess those items;

(B) for sale or transfer to the United States or any department or agency thereof; or

(C) for sale or transfer in another state or for export.

(2) Sale or rental of large capacity ammunition feeding devices for blank-firing assault weapons and .50 caliber rifles, to persons authorized or permitted, or both authorized and permitted, to acquire these devices for the purpose of rental for use solely as props for a motion picture, television, or video production or entertainment event.

(g) Sentence. A person who knowingly manufactures, delivers, sells, purchases, possesses, or causes to be manufactured, delivered, sold, possessed, or purchased in violation of this Section a large capacity ammunition feeding device capable of holding more than 10 rounds of ammunition for long guns or more than 15 rounds of ammunition for handguns commits a petty offense with a fine of $1,000 for each violation.

(h) The Illinois Department of the State Police shall also develop and implement a public notice and public outreach campaign to promote awareness about the provisions of Public Act 102-1116 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and to increase compliance with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; revised 4-6-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-5.1)

Sec. 24-5.1. Serialization of unfinished frames or receivers; prohibition on unserialized firearms; exceptions; penalties.

(a) In this Section:

"Bona fide supplier" means an established business entity engaged in the development and sale of firearms parts to one or more federal firearms manufacturers or federal firearms importers.

"Federal firearms dealer" means a licensed manufacturer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(11).

"Federal firearms importer" means a licensed importer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(9).

"Federal firearms manufacturer" means a licensed manufacturer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(10).

"Frame or receiver" means a part of a firearm that, when the complete weapon is assembled, is visible from the exterior and provides housing or a structure designed to hold or integrate one or more fire control components, even if pins or other attachments are required to connect those components to the housing or structure. For models of firearms in which multiple parts provide such housing or structure, the part or parts that the Director of the federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives has determined are a frame or receiver constitute the frame or receiver. For purposes of this definition, "fire control component" means a component necessary for the firearm to initiate, complete, or continue the firing sequence, including any of the following: hammer, bolt, bolt carrier, breechblock, cylinder, trigger mechanism, firing pin, striker, or slide rails.

"Security exemplar" means an object to be fabricated at the direction of the United States Attorney General that is (1) constructed of 3.7 ounces of material type 17-4 PH stainless steel in a shape resembling a handgun and (2) suitable for testing and calibrating metal detectors.

"Three-dimensional printer" means a computer or computer-drive machine capable of producing a three-dimensional object from a digital model.

"Undetectable firearm" means (1) a firearm constructed entirely of non-metal substances; (2) a firearm that, after removal of all parts but the major components of the firearm, is not detectable by walk-through metal detectors calibrated and operated to detect the security exemplar; or (3) a firearm that includes a major component of a firearm, which, if subject to the types of detection devices commonly used at airports for security screening, would not generate an image that accurately depicts the shape of the component. "Undetectable firearm" does not include a firearm subject to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 922(p)(3) through (6).

"Unfinished frame or receiver" means any forging, casting, printing, extrusion, machined body, or similar article that:

(1) has reached a stage in manufacture where it may readily be completed, assembled, or converted to be a functional firearm; or

(2) is marketed or sold to the public to become or be used as the frame or receiver of a functional firearm once completed, assembled, or converted.

"Unserialized" means lacking a serial number imprinted by:

(1) a federal firearms manufacturer, federal firearms importer, federal firearms dealer, or other federal licensee authorized to provide marking services, pursuant to a requirement under federal law; or

(2) a federal firearms dealer or other federal licensee authorized to provide marking services pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section.

(b) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly sell, offer to sell, or transfer an unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm, including those produced using a three-dimensional printer, unless the party purchasing or receiving the unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm is a federal firearms importer, federal firearms manufacturer, or federal firearms dealer.

(c) Beginning 180 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-889) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly possess, transport, or receive an unfinished frame or receiver, unless:

(1) the party possessing or receiving the unfinished frame or receiver is a federal firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer;

(2) the unfinished frame or receiver is possessed or transported by a person for transfer to a federal firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer; or

(3) the unfinished frame or receiver has been imprinted with a serial number issued by a federal firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer in compliance with subsection (f) of this Section.

(d) Beginning 180 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-889) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, unless the party receiving the firearm is a federal firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly possess, purchase, transport, or receive a firearm that is not imprinted with a serial number by (1) a federal firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer in compliance with all federal laws and regulations regulating the manufacture and import of firearms or (2) a federal firearms manufacturer, federal firearms dealer, or other federal licensee authorized to provide marking services in compliance with the unserialized firearm serialization process under subsection (f) of this Section.

(e) Any firearm or unfinished frame or receiver manufactured using a three-dimensional printer must also be serialized in accordance with the requirements of subsection (f) within 30 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-889) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, or prior to reaching a stage of manufacture where it may be readily completed, assembled, or converted to be a functional firearm.

(f) Unserialized unfinished frames or receivers and unserialized firearms serialized pursuant to this Section shall be serialized in compliance with all of the following:

(1) An unserialized unfinished frame or receiver and unserialized firearm shall be serialized by a federally licensed firearms dealer or other federal licensee authorized to provide marking services with the licensee's abbreviated federal firearms license number as a prefix (which is the first 3 and last 5 digits) followed by a hyphen, and then followed by a number as a suffix, such as 12345678-(number). The serial number or numbers must be placed in a manner that accords with the requirements under federal law for affixing serial numbers to firearms, including the requirements that the serial number or numbers be at the minimum size and depth, and not susceptible to being readily obliterated, altered, or removed, and the licensee must retain records that accord with the requirements under federal law in the case of the sale of a firearm. The imprinting of any serial number upon an a undetectable firearm must be done on a steel plaque in compliance with 18 U.S.C. 922(p).

(2) Every federally licensed firearms dealer or other federal licensee that engraves, casts, stamps, or otherwise conspicuously and permanently places a unique serial number pursuant to this Section shall maintain a record of such indefinitely. Licensees subject to the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act shall make all records accessible for inspection upon the request of the Illinois State Police or a law enforcement agency in accordance with Section 5-35 of the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act.

(3) Every federally licensed firearms dealer or other federal licensee that engraves, casts, stamps, or otherwise conspicuously and permanently places a unique serial number pursuant to this Section shall record it at the time of every transaction involving the transfer of a firearm, rifle, shotgun, finished frame or receiver, or unfinished frame or receiver that has been so marked in compliance with the federal guidelines set forth in 27 CFR 478.124.

(4) Every federally licensed firearms dealer or other federal licensee that engraves, casts, stamps, or otherwise conspicuously and permanently places a unique serial number pursuant to this Section shall review and confirm the validity of the owner's Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act prior to returning the firearm to the owner.

(g) Within 30 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-889) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Director of the Illinois State Police shall issue a public notice regarding the provisions of this Section. The notice shall include posting on the Illinois State Police website and may include written notification or any other means of communication statewide to all Illinois-based federal firearms manufacturers, federal firearms dealers, or other federal licensees authorized to provide marking services in compliance with the serialization process in subsection (f) in order to educate the public.

(h) Exceptions. This Section does not apply to an unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or an unserialized firearm that:

(1) has been rendered permanently inoperable;

(2) is an antique firearm, as defined in 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(16);

(3) was manufactured prior to October 22, 1968;

(4) is an unfinished frame or receiver and is possessed by a bona fide supplier exclusively for transfer to a federal firearms manufacturer or federal firearms importer, or is possessed by a federal firearms manufacturer or federal firearms importer in compliance with all federal laws and regulations regulating the manufacture and import of firearms; except this exemption does not apply if an unfinished frame or receiver is possessed for transfer or is transferred to a person other than a federal firearms manufacturer or federal firearms importer; or

(5) is possessed by a person who received the unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm through inheritance, and is not otherwise prohibited from possessing the unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm, for a period not exceeding 30 days after inheriting the unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm.

(i) Penalties.

(1) A person who violates subsection (c) or (d) is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and is guilty of a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(2) A person who violates subsection (b) is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation and is guilty of a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(Source: P.A. 102-889, eff. 5-18-22; revised 1-3-24.)

Section 565. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2-13, 3-2.7-5, 3-2.7-10, 3-2.7-20, 3-2.7-25, 3-2.7-30, 3-2.7-35, 3-2.7-40, 3-2.7-50, 3-2.7-55, 3-5-1, 3-6-3, 3-8-10, 5-4-1, 5-4-3, 5-4.5-105, 5-6-3, 5-9-1.4, and 5-9-1.9 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-13)

Sec. 3-2-13. Possession of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. The Department of Corrections shall not make possession of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card a condition of continued employment as a Department employee authorized to possess firearms if the employee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is revoked or seized because the employee has been a patient of a mental health facility and the employee has not been determined to pose a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner. Nothing in is this Section shall otherwise impair the Department's ability to determine an employee's fitness for duty. A collective bargaining agreement already in effect on this issue on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-645) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly cannot be modified, but on or after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-645) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Department cannot require a Firearm Owner's Identification Card as a condition of continued employment in a collective bargaining agreement. The Department shall document if and why an employee has been determined to pose a clear and present danger. In this Section, "mental health facility" and "qualified examiner" have the meanings provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-645, eff. 1-1-22; revised 4-6-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-5. Purpose. The purpose of this Article is to create within the Department of Juvenile Justice the Office of Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson for the purpose of securing the rights of youth committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, including youth released on aftercare before final discharge.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-5. Purpose. The purpose of this Article is to create within the Department of Juvenile Justice the Office of Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson for the purpose of securing the rights of youth committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice and county-operated juvenile detention centers, including youth released on aftercare before final discharge.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-397, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-14-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-10. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Department" means the Department of Juvenile Justice.

"Immediate family or household member" means the spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, grandparent, or grandchild, whether of the whole blood or half blood or by adoption, or a person who shares a common dwelling.

"Juvenile justice system" means all activities by public or private agencies or persons pertaining to youth involved in or having contact with the police, courts, or corrections.

"Office" means the Office of the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson.

"Ombudsperson" means the Department of Juvenile Justice Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson.

"Youth" means any person committed by court order to the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice, including youth released on aftercare before final discharge.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-10. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context requires otherwise:

"County-operated juvenile detention center" means any shelter care home or detention home as "shelter" and "detention" are defined in Section 1.1 of the County Shelter Care and Detention Home Act and any other facility that detains youth in the juvenile justice system that is specifically designated to detain or incarcerate youth. "County-operated juvenile detention center" does not include police or other temporary law enforcement holding locations.

"Department" means the Department of Juvenile Justice.

"Immediate family or household member" means the spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, grandparent, or grandchild, whether of the whole blood or half blood or by adoption, or a person who shares a common dwelling.

"Juvenile justice system" means all activities by public or private agencies or persons pertaining to youth involved in or having contact with the police, courts, or corrections.

"Office" means the Office of the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson.

"Ombudsperson" means the Department of Juvenile Justice Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson.

"Youth" means any person committed by court order to the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice or a county-operated juvenile detention center, including youth released on aftercare before final discharge.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-397, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-14-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-20)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-20. Conflicts of interest. A person may not serve as Ombudsperson or as a deputy if the person or the person's immediate family or household member:

(1) is or has been employed by the Department of Juvenile Justice or Department of Corrections within one year prior to appointment, other than as Ombudsperson or Deputy Ombudsperson;

(2) participates in the management of a business entity or other organization receiving funds from the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(3) owns or controls, directly or indirectly, any interest in a business entity or other organization receiving funds from the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(4) uses or receives any amount of tangible goods, services, or funds from the Department of Juvenile Justice, other than as Ombudsperson or Deputy Ombudsperson; or

(5) is required to register as a lobbyist for an organization that interacts with the juvenile justice system.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-20. Conflicts of interest. A person may not serve as Ombudsperson or as a deputy if the person or the person's immediate family or household member:

(1) is or has been employed by the Department of Juvenile Justice, Department of Corrections, or a county-operated juvenile detention center within one year prior to appointment, other than as Ombudsperson or Deputy Ombudsperson;

(2) participates in the management of a business entity or other organization receiving funds from the Department of Juvenile Justice or a county-operated juvenile detention center;

(3) owns or controls, directly or indirectly, any interest in a business entity or other organization receiving funds from the Department of Juvenile Justice or a county-operated juvenile detention center;

(4) uses or receives any amount of tangible goods, services, or funds from the Department of Juvenile Justice or a county-operated juvenile detention center, other than as Ombudsperson or Deputy Ombudsperson; or

(5) is required to register as a lobbyist for an organization that interacts with the juvenile justice system.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-397, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-14-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-25)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-25. Duties and powers.

(a) The Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson shall function independently within the Department of Juvenile Justice with respect to the operations of the Office in performance of the Ombudsperson's duties under this Article and shall report to the Governor. The Ombudsperson shall adopt rules and standards as may be necessary or desirable to carry out the Ombudsperson's duties. Funding for the Office shall be designated separately within Department funds. The Department shall provide necessary administrative services and facilities to the Office of the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson.

(b) The Office of Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson shall have the following duties:

(1) review and monitor the implementation of the rules and standards established by the Department of Juvenile Justice and evaluate the delivery of services to youth to ensure that the rights of youth are fully observed;

(2) provide assistance to a youth or family whom the Ombudsperson determines is in need of assistance, including advocating with an agency, provider, or other person in the best interests of the youth;

(3) investigate and attempt to resolve complaints made by or on behalf of youth, other than complaints alleging criminal behavior or violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, if the Office determines that the investigation and resolution would further the purpose of the Office, and:

(A) a youth committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice or the youth's family is in need of assistance from the Office; or

(B) a systemic issue in the Department of Juvenile Justice's provision of services is raised by a complaint;

(4) review or inspect periodically the facilities and procedures of any facility in which a youth has been placed by the Department of Juvenile Justice to ensure that the rights of youth are fully observed; and

(5) be accessible to and meet confidentially and regularly with youth committed to the Department and serve as a resource by informing them of pertinent laws, rules, and policies, and their rights thereunder.

(c) The following cases shall be reported immediately to the Director of Juvenile Justice and the Governor:

(1) cases of severe abuse or injury of a youth;

(2) serious misconduct, misfeasance, malfeasance, or serious violations of policies and procedures concerning the administration of a Department of Juvenile Justice program or operation;

(3) serious problems concerning the delivery of services in a facility operated by or under contract with the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(4) interference by the Department of Juvenile Justice with an investigation conducted by the Office; and

(5) other cases as deemed necessary by the Ombudsperson.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Ombudsperson may not investigate alleged criminal behavior or violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. If the Ombudsperson determines that a possible criminal act has been committed, or that special expertise is required in the investigation, the Ombudsperson shall immediately notify the Illinois State Police. If the Ombudsperson determines that a possible violation of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act has occurred, the Ombudsperson shall immediately refer the incident to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation. If the Ombudsperson receives a complaint from a youth or third party regarding suspected abuse or neglect of a child, the Ombudsperson shall refer the incident to the Child Abuse and Neglect Hotline or to the Illinois State Police as mandated by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. Any investigation conducted by the Ombudsperson shall not be duplicative and shall be separate from any investigation mandated by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. All investigations conducted by the Ombudsperson shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(e) In performance of the Ombudsperson's duties, the Ombudsperson may:

(1) review court files of youth;

(2) recommend policies, rules, and legislation designed to protect youth;

(3) make appropriate referrals under any of the duties and powers listed in this Section;

(4) attend internal administrative and disciplinary hearings to ensure the rights of youth are fully observed and advocate for the best interest of youth when deemed necessary; and

(5) perform other acts, otherwise permitted or required by law, in furtherance of the purpose of the Office.

(f) To assess if a youth's rights have been violated, the Ombudsperson may, in any matter that does not involve alleged criminal behavior, contact or consult with an administrator, employee, youth, parent, expert, or any other individual in the course of the Ombudsperson's investigation or to secure information as necessary to fulfill the Ombudsperson's duties.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-25. Duties and powers.

(a) The Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson shall function independently within the Department of Juvenile Justice and county-operated juvenile detention centers with respect to the operations of the Office in performance of the Ombudsperson's duties under this Article and shall report to the Governor and to local authorities as provided in Section 3-2.7-50. The Ombudsperson shall adopt rules and standards as may be necessary or desirable to carry out the Ombudsperson's duties. Funding for the Office shall be designated separately within Department funds and shall include funds for operations at county-operated juvenile detention centers. The Department shall provide necessary administrative services and facilities to the Office of the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson. County-operated juvenile detention centers shall provide necessary administrative services and space, upon request, inside the facility to the Office of the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson Ombudsman to meet confidentially with youth and otherwise in performance of the Ombudsperson's his or her duties under this Article.

(b) The Office of Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson shall have the following duties:

(1) review and monitor the implementation of the rules and standards established by the Department of Juvenile Justice and county-operated juvenile detention centers and evaluate the delivery of services to youth to ensure that the rights of youth are fully observed;

(2) provide assistance to a youth or family whom the Ombudsperson determines is in need of assistance, including advocating with an agency, provider, or other person in the best interests of the youth;

(3) investigate and attempt to resolve complaints made by or on behalf of youth, other than complaints alleging criminal behavior or violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, if the Office determines that the investigation and resolution would further the purpose of the Office, and:

(A) a youth committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice or a county-operated juvenile detention center or the youth's family is in need of assistance from the Office; or

(B) a systemic issue in the Department of Juvenile Justice's or county-operated juvenile detention center's provision of services is raised by a complaint;

(4) review or inspect periodically the facilities and procedures of any county-operated juvenile detention center or any facility in which a youth has been placed by the Department of Juvenile Justice to ensure that the rights of youth are fully observed; and

(5) be accessible to and meet confidentially and regularly with youth committed to the Department or a county-operated juvenile detention center and serve as a resource by informing them of pertinent laws, rules, and policies, and their rights thereunder.

(c) The following cases shall be reported immediately to the Director of Juvenile Justice and the Governor, and for cases that arise in county-operated juvenile detention centers, to the chief judge of the applicable judicial circuit and the Director of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts:

(1) cases of severe abuse or injury of a youth;

(2) serious misconduct, misfeasance, malfeasance, or serious violations of policies and procedures concerning the administration of a Department of Juvenile Justice or county-operated juvenile detention center program or operation;

(3) serious problems concerning the delivery of services in a county-operated juvenile detention center or a facility operated by or under contract with the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(4) interference by the Department of Juvenile Justice or county-operated juvenile detention center with an investigation conducted by the Office; and

(5) other cases as deemed necessary by the Ombudsperson.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Ombudsperson may not investigate alleged criminal behavior or violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. If the Ombudsperson determines that a possible criminal act has been committed, or that special expertise is required in the investigation, the Ombudsperson shall immediately notify the Illinois State Police. If the Ombudsperson determines that a possible violation of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act has occurred, the Ombudsperson shall immediately refer the incident to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation. If the Ombudsperson receives a complaint from a youth or third party regarding suspected abuse or neglect of a child, the Ombudsperson shall refer the incident to the Child Abuse and Neglect Hotline or to the Illinois State Police as mandated by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. Any investigation conducted by the Ombudsperson shall not be duplicative and shall be separate from any investigation mandated by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. All investigations conducted by the Ombudsperson shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(e) In performance of the Ombudsperson's duties, the Ombudsperson may:

(1) review court files of youth;

(2) recommend policies, rules, and legislation designed to protect youth;

(3) make appropriate referrals under any of the duties and powers listed in this Section;

(4) attend internal administrative and disciplinary hearings to ensure the rights of youth are fully observed and advocate for the best interest of youth when deemed necessary; and

(5) perform other acts, otherwise permitted or required by law, in furtherance of the purpose of the Office.

(f) To assess if a youth's rights have been violated, the Ombudsperson may, in any matter that does not involve alleged criminal behavior, contact or consult with an administrator, employee, youth, parent, expert, or any other individual in the course of the Ombudsperson's investigation or to secure information as necessary to fulfill the Ombudsperson's duties.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-397, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-14-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-30)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-30. Duties of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(a) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall allow any youth to communicate with the Ombudsperson or a deputy at any time. The communication:

(1) may be in person, by phone, by mail, or by any other means deemed appropriate in light of security concerns; and

(2) is confidential and privileged.

(b) The Department shall allow the Ombudsperson and deputies full and unannounced access to youth and Department facilities at any time. The Department shall furnish the Ombudsperson and deputies with appropriate meeting space in each facility in order to preserve confidentiality.

(c) The Department shall allow the Ombudsperson and deputies to participate in professional development opportunities provided by the Department of Juvenile Justice as practical and to attend appropriate professional training when requested by the Ombudsperson.

(d) The Department shall provide the Ombudsperson copies of critical incident reports involving a youth residing in a facility operated by the Department. Critical incidents include, but are not limited to, severe injuries that result in hospitalization, suicide attempts that require medical intervention, sexual abuse, and escapes.

(e) The Department shall provide the Ombudsperson with reasonable advance notice of all internal administrative and disciplinary hearings regarding a youth residing in a facility operated by the Department.

(f) The Department of Juvenile Justice may not discharge, demote, discipline, or in any manner discriminate or retaliate against a youth or an employee who in good faith makes a complaint to the Office of the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson or cooperates with the Office.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-30. Duties of the Department of Juvenile Justice or county-operated juvenile detention center.

(a) The Department of Juvenile Justice and every county-operated juvenile detention center shall allow any youth to communicate with the Ombudsperson or a deputy at any time. The communication:

(1) may be in person, by phone, by mail, or by any other means deemed appropriate in light of security concerns; and

(2) is confidential and privileged.

(b) The Department and county-operated juvenile detention centers shall allow the Ombudsperson and deputies full and unannounced access to youth and Department facilities and county-operated juvenile detention centers at any time. The Department and county-operated juvenile detention centers shall furnish the Ombudsperson and deputies with appropriate meeting space in each facility in order to preserve confidentiality.

(c) The Department and county-operated juvenile detention centers shall allow the Ombudsperson and deputies to participate in professional development opportunities provided by the Department of Juvenile Justice and county-operated juvenile detention centers as practical and to attend appropriate professional training when requested by the Ombudsperson.

(d) The Department and county-operated juvenile detention centers shall provide the Ombudsperson copies of critical incident reports involving a youth residing in a facility operated by the Department or a county-operated juvenile detention center. Critical incidents include, but are not limited to, severe injuries that result in hospitalization, suicide attempts that require medical intervention, sexual abuse, and escapes.

(e) The Department and county-operated juvenile detention centers shall provide the Ombudsperson with reasonable advance notice of all internal administrative and disciplinary hearings regarding a youth residing in a facility operated by the Department or a county-operated juvenile detention center.

(f) The Department of Juvenile Justice and county-operated juvenile detention centers may not discharge, demote, discipline, or in any manner discriminate or retaliate against a youth or an employee who in good faith makes a complaint to the Office of the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson or cooperates with the Office.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-397, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-14-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-35)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-35. Reports. The Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of activities done in furtherance of the purpose of the Office for the prior fiscal year. The summaries shall contain data both aggregated and disaggregated by individual facility and describe:

(1) the work of the Ombudsperson;

(2) the status of any review or investigation undertaken by the Ombudsperson, but may not contain any confidential or identifying information concerning the subjects of the reports and investigations; and

(3) any recommendations that the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson has relating to a systemic issue in the Department of Juvenile Justice's provision of services and any other matters for consideration by the General Assembly and the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-35. Reports. The Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of activities done in furtherance of the purpose of the Office for the prior fiscal year. The summaries shall contain data both aggregated and disaggregated by individual facility and describe:

(1) the work of the Ombudsperson;

(2) the status of any review or investigation undertaken by the Ombudsperson, but may not contain any confidential or identifying information concerning the subjects of the reports and investigations; and

(3) any recommendations that the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson has relating to a systemic issue in the Department of Juvenile Justice's or a county-operated juvenile detention center's provision of services and any other matters for consideration by the General Assembly and the Governor.

With respect to county-operated juvenile detention centers, the Ombudsperson Ombudsman shall provide data responsive to paragraphs (1) through (3) to the chief judge of the applicable judicial circuit and to the Director of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, and shall make the data publicly available.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-397, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-14-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-40)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-40. Complaints. The Office of Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson shall promptly and efficiently act on complaints made by or on behalf of youth filed with the Office that relate to the operations or staff of the Department of Juvenile Justice. The Office shall maintain information about parties to the complaint, the subject matter of the complaint, a summary of the results of the review or investigation of the complaint, including any resolution of or recommendations made as a result of the complaint. The Office shall make information available describing its procedures for complaint investigation and resolution. When applicable, the Office shall notify the complaining youth that an investigation and resolution may result in or will require disclosure of the complaining youth's identity. The Office shall periodically notify the complaint parties of the status of the complaint until final disposition.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-40. Complaints. The Office of Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson shall promptly and efficiently act on complaints made by or on behalf of youth filed with the Office that relate to the operations or staff of the Department of Juvenile Justice or a county-operated juvenile detention center. The Office shall maintain information about parties to the complaint, the subject matter of the complaint, a summary of the results of the review or investigation of the complaint, including any resolution of or recommendations made as a result of the complaint. The Office shall make information available describing its procedures for complaint investigation and resolution. When applicable, the Office shall notify the complaining youth that an investigation and resolution may result in or will require disclosure of the complaining youth's identity. The Office shall periodically notify the complaint parties of the status of the complaint until final disposition.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-397, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-18-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-50)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-50. Promotion and awareness of Office. The Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson shall promote awareness among the public and youth of:

(1) the rights of youth committed to the Department;

(2) the purpose of the Office;

(3) how the Office may be contacted;

(4) the confidential nature of communications; and

(5) the services the Office provides.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-50. Promotion and awareness of Office. The Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson shall promote awareness among the public and youth of:

(1) the rights of youth committed to the Department and county-operated juvenile detention centers;

(2) the purpose of the Office;

(3) how the Office may be contacted;

(4) the confidential nature of communications; and

(5) the services the Office provides.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-397, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-18-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-55)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-55. Access to information of governmental entities. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall provide the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson unrestricted access to all master record files of youth under Section 3-5-1 of this Code. Access to educational, social, psychological, mental health, substance abuse, and medical records shall not be disclosed except as provided in Section 5-910 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, the School Code, and any applicable federal laws that govern access to those records.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-397)

Sec. 3-2.7-55. Access to information of governmental entities. The Department of Juvenile Justice and county-operated juvenile detention centers shall provide the Independent Juvenile Ombudsperson unrestricted access to all master record files of youth under Section 3-5-1 of this Code or any other files of youth in the custody of county-operated juvenile detention centers, or both. Access to educational, social, psychological, mental health, substance abuse, and medical records shall not be disclosed except as provided in Section 5-910 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, the School Code, and any applicable federal laws that govern access to those records.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-397, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-15-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-5-1)

Sec. 3-5-1. Master record file.

(a) The Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice shall maintain a master record file on each person committed to it, which shall contain the following information:

(1) all information from the committing court;

(1.5) ethnic and racial background data collected in accordance with Section 4.5 of the Criminal Identification Act and Section 2-5 of the No Representation Without Population Act;

(1.6) the committed person's last known complete street address prior to incarceration or legal residence collected in accordance with Section 2-5 of the No Representation Without Population Act;

(2) reception summary;

(3) evaluation and assignment reports and recommendations;

(4) reports as to program assignment and progress;

(5) reports of disciplinary infractions and disposition, including tickets and Administrative Review Board action;

(6) any parole or aftercare release plan;

(7) any parole or aftercare release reports;

(8) the date and circumstances of final discharge;

(9) criminal history;

(10) current and past gang affiliations and ranks;

(11) information regarding associations and family relationships;

(12) any grievances filed and responses to those grievances;

(13) other information that the respective Department determines is relevant to the secure confinement and rehabilitation of the committed person;

(14) the last known address provided by the person committed; and

(15) all medical and dental records.

(b) All files shall be confidential and access shall be limited to authorized personnel of the respective Department or by disclosure in accordance with a court order or subpoena. Personnel of other correctional, welfare or law enforcement agencies may have access to files under rules and regulations of the respective Department. The respective Department shall keep a record of all outside personnel who have access to files, the files reviewed, any file material copied, and the purpose of access. If the respective Department or the Prisoner Review Board makes a determination under this Code which affects the length of the period of confinement or commitment, the committed person and his counsel shall be advised of factual information relied upon by the respective Department or Board to make the determination, provided that the Department or Board shall not be required to advise a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice any such information which in the opinion of the Department of Juvenile Justice or Board would be detrimental to his treatment or rehabilitation.

(c) The master file shall be maintained at a place convenient to its use by personnel of the respective Department in charge of the person. When custody of a person is transferred from the Department to another department or agency, a summary of the file shall be forwarded to the receiving agency with such other information required by law or requested by the agency under rules and regulations of the respective Department.

(d) The master file of a person no longer in the custody of the respective Department shall be placed on inactive status and its use shall be restricted subject to rules and regulations of the Department.

(e) All public agencies may make available to the respective Department on request any factual data not otherwise privileged as a matter of law in their possession in respect to individuals committed to the respective Department.

(f) A committed person may request a summary of the committed person's master record file once per year and the committed person's attorney may request one summary of the committed person's master record file once per year. The Department shall create a form for requesting this summary, and shall make that form available to committed persons and to the public on its website. Upon receipt of the request form, the Department shall provide the summary within 15 days. The summary must contain, unless otherwise prohibited by law:

(1) the person's name, ethnic, racial, last known street address prior to incarceration or legal residence, and other identifying information;

(2) all digitally available information from the committing court;

(3) all information in the Offender 360 system on the person's criminal history;

(4) the person's complete assignment history in the Department of Corrections;

(5) the person's disciplinary card;

(6) additional records about up to 3 specific disciplinary incidents as identified by the requester;

(7) any available records about up to 5 specific grievances filed by the person, as identified by the requester; and

(8) the records of all grievances filed on or after January 1, 2023.

Notwithstanding any provision of this subsection (f) to the contrary, a committed person's master record file is not subject to disclosure and copying under the Freedom of Information Act.

(g) Subject to appropriation, on or before July 1, 2025, the Department of Corrections shall digitalize all newly committed persons' master record files who become incarcerated and all other new information that the Department maintains concerning its correctional institutions, facilities, and individuals incarcerated.

(h) Subject to appropriation, on or before July 1, 2027, the Department of Corrections shall digitalize all medical and dental records in the master record files and all other information that the Department maintains concerning its correctional institutions and facilities in relation to medical records, dental records, and medical and dental needs of committed persons.

(i) Subject to appropriation, on or before July 1, 2029, the Department of Corrections shall digitalize all information in the master record files and all other information that the Department maintains concerning its correctional institutions and facilities.

(j) The Department of Corrections shall adopt rules to implement subsections (g), (h), and (i) if appropriations are available to implement these provisions.

(k) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Corrections, in consultation with the Department of Innovation and Technology, shall conduct a study on the best way to digitize all Department of Corrections records and the impact of that digitizing on State agencies, including the impact on the Department of Innovation and Technology. The study shall be completed on or before January 1, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 102-776, eff. 1-1-23; 102-784, eff. 5-13-22; 103-18, eff. 1-1-24; 103-71, eff. 6-9-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; revised 12-15-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-6-3)

Sec. 3-6-3. Rules and regulations for sentence credit.

(a)(1) The Department of Corrections shall prescribe rules and regulations for awarding and revoking sentence credit for persons committed to the Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice shall prescribe rules and regulations for awarding and revoking sentence credit for persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-8-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, which shall be subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(1.5) As otherwise provided by law, sentence credit may be awarded for the following:

(A) successful completion of programming while in custody of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice or while in custody prior to sentencing;

(B) compliance with the rules and regulations of the Department; or

(C) service to the institution, service to a community, or service to the State.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide, with respect to offenses listed in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after June 19, 1998 or with respect to the offense listed in clause (iv) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or with respect to offense listed in clause (vi) committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or with respect to the offense of being an armed habitual criminal committed on or after August 2, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-398) or with respect to the offenses listed in clause (v) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or with respect to the offense of aggravated domestic battery committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224) or with respect to the offense of attempt to commit terrorism committed on or after January 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-990), the following:

(i) that a prisoner who is serving a term of imprisonment for first degree murder or for the offense of terrorism shall receive no sentence credit and shall serve the entire sentence imposed by the court;

(ii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for attempt to commit terrorism, attempt to commit first degree murder, solicitation of murder, solicitation of murder for hire, intentional homicide of an unborn child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, being an armed habitual criminal, aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05, or aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(iii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for home invasion, armed robbery, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated discharge of a firearm, or armed violence with a category I weapon or category II weapon, when the court has made and entered a finding, pursuant to subsection (c-1) of Section 5-4-1 of this Code, that the conduct leading to conviction for the enumerated offense resulted in great bodily harm to a victim, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(iv) that a prisoner serving a sentence for aggravated discharge of a firearm, whether or not the conduct leading to conviction for the offense resulted in great bodily harm to the victim, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(v) that a person serving a sentence for gunrunning, narcotics racketeering, controlled substance trafficking, methamphetamine trafficking, drug-induced homicide, aggravated methamphetamine-related child endangerment, money laundering pursuant to clause (c) (4) or (5) of Section 29B-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class X felony conviction for delivery of a controlled substance, possession of a controlled substance with intent to manufacture or deliver, calculated criminal drug conspiracy, criminal drug conspiracy, street gang criminal drug conspiracy, participation in methamphetamine manufacturing, aggravated participation in methamphetamine manufacturing, delivery of methamphetamine, possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, aggravated delivery of methamphetamine, aggravated possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, methamphetamine conspiracy when the substance containing the controlled substance or methamphetamine is 100 grams or more shall receive no more than 7.5 days sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(vi) that a prisoner serving a sentence for a second or subsequent offense of luring a minor shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment; and

(vii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for aggravated domestic battery shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.1) For all offenses, other than those enumerated in subdivision (a)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) committed on or after June 19, 1998 or subdivision (a)(2)(iv) committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or subdivision (a)(2)(v) committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or subdivision (a)(2)(vi) committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or subdivision (a)(2)(vii) committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224), and other than the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and other than the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), the rules and regulations shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a term of imprisonment shall receive one day of sentence credit for each day of his or her sentence of imprisonment or recommitment under Section 3-3-9. Each day of sentence credit shall reduce by one day the prisoner's period of imprisonment or recommitment under Section 3-3-9.

(2.2) A prisoner serving a term of natural life imprisonment shall receive no sentence credit.

(2.3) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.4) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide with respect to the offenses of aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm or aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm, committed on or after July 15, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-121), that a prisoner serving a sentence for any of these offenses shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.5) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated arson committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176) shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230) shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(3) In addition to the sentence credits earned under paragraphs (2.1), (4), (4.1), (4.2), and (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall also provide that the Director of Corrections or the Director of Juvenile Justice may award up to 180 days of earned sentence credit for prisoners serving a sentence of incarceration of less than 5 years, and up to 365 days of earned sentence credit for prisoners serving a sentence of 5 years or longer. The Director may grant this credit for good conduct in specific instances as either Director deems proper for eligible persons in the custody of each Director's respective Department. The good conduct may include, but is not limited to, compliance with the rules and regulations of the Department, service to the Department, service to a community, or service to the State.

Eligible inmates for an award of earned sentence credit under this paragraph (3) may be selected to receive the credit at either Director's or his or her designee's sole discretion. Eligibility for the additional earned sentence credit under this paragraph (3) may be based on, but is not limited to, participation in programming offered by the Department as appropriate for the prisoner based on the results of any available risk/needs assessment or other relevant assessments or evaluations administered by the Department using a validated instrument, the circumstances of the crime, demonstrated commitment to rehabilitation by a prisoner with a history of conviction for a forcible felony enumerated in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the inmate's behavior and improvements in disciplinary history while incarcerated, and the inmate's commitment to rehabilitation, including participation in programming offered by the Department.

The Director of Corrections or the Director of Juvenile Justice shall not award sentence credit under this paragraph (3) to an inmate unless the inmate has served a minimum of 60 days of the sentence, including time served in a county jail; except nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to permit either Director to extend an inmate's sentence beyond that which was imposed by the court. Prior to awarding credit under this paragraph (3), each Director shall make a written determination that the inmate:

(A) is eligible for the earned sentence credit;

(B) has served a minimum of 60 days, or as close to 60 days as the sentence will allow;

(B-1) has received a risk/needs assessment or other relevant evaluation or assessment administered by the Department using a validated instrument; and

(C) has met the eligibility criteria established by rule for earned sentence credit.

The Director of Corrections or the Director of Juvenile Justice shall determine the form and content of the written determination required in this subsection.

(3.5) The Department shall provide annual written reports to the Governor and the General Assembly on the award of earned sentence credit no later than February 1 of each year. The Department must publish both reports on its website within 48 hours of transmitting the reports to the Governor and the General Assembly. The reports must include:

(A) the number of inmates awarded earned sentence credit;

(B) the average amount of earned sentence credit awarded;

(C) the holding offenses of inmates awarded earned sentence credit; and

(D) the number of earned sentence credit revocations.

(4)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall also provide that any prisoner who is engaged full-time in substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, work-release programs or activities in accordance with Article 13 of Chapter III of this Code, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under this paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completes the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department, shall receive one day of sentence credit for each day in which that prisoner is engaged in the activities described in this paragraph. The rules and regulations shall also provide that sentence credit may be provided to an inmate who was held in pre-trial detention prior to his or her current commitment to the Department of Corrections and successfully completed a full-time, 60-day or longer substance abuse program, educational program, behavior modification program, life skills course, or re-entry planning provided by the county department of corrections or county jail. Calculation of this county program credit shall be done at sentencing as provided in Section 5-4.5-100 of this Code and shall be included in the sentencing order. The rules and regulations shall also provide that sentence credit may be provided to an inmate who is in compliance with programming requirements in an adult transition center.

(B) The Department shall award sentence credit under this paragraph (4) accumulated prior to January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-440) in an amount specified in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (4) to an inmate serving a sentence for an offense committed prior to June 19, 1998, if the Department determines that the inmate is entitled to this sentence credit, based upon:

(i) documentation provided by the Department that the inmate engaged in any full-time substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under this paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completed the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department during the inmate's current term of incarceration; or

(ii) the inmate's own testimony in the form of an affidavit or documentation, or a third party's documentation or testimony in the form of an affidavit that the inmate likely engaged in any full-time substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completed the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department during the inmate's current term of incarceration.

(C) If the inmate can provide documentation that he or she is entitled to sentence credit under subparagraph (B) in excess of 45 days of participation in those programs, the inmate shall receive 90 days of sentence credit. If the inmate cannot provide documentation of more than 45 days of participation in those programs, the inmate shall receive 45 days of sentence credit. In the event of a disagreement between the Department and the inmate as to the amount of credit accumulated under subparagraph (B), if the Department provides documented proof of a lesser amount of days of participation in those programs, that proof shall control. If the Department provides no documentary proof, the inmate's proof as set forth in clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) shall control as to the amount of sentence credit provided.

(D) If the inmate has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, sentencing credits under subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (4) shall be awarded by the Department only if the conditions set forth in paragraph (4.6) of subsection (a) are satisfied. No inmate serving a term of natural life imprisonment shall receive sentence credit under subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (4).

(E) The rules and regulations shall provide for the recalculation of program credits awarded pursuant to this paragraph (4) prior to July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652) at the rate set for such credits on and after July 1, 2021.

Educational, vocational, substance abuse, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, re-entry planning, and correctional industry programs under which sentence credit may be earned under this paragraph (4) and paragraph (4.1) of this subsection (a) shall be evaluated by the Department on the basis of documented standards. The Department shall report the results of these evaluations to the Governor and the General Assembly by September 30th of each year. The reports shall include data relating to the recidivism rate among program participants.

Availability of these programs shall be subject to the limits of fiscal resources appropriated by the General Assembly for these purposes. Eligible inmates who are denied immediate admission shall be placed on a waiting list under criteria established by the Department. The rules and regulations shall provide that a prisoner who has been placed on a waiting list but is transferred for non-disciplinary reasons before beginning a program shall receive priority placement on the waitlist for appropriate programs at the new facility. The inability of any inmate to become engaged in any such programs by reason of insufficient program resources or for any other reason established under the rules and regulations of the Department shall not be deemed a cause of action under which the Department or any employee or agent of the Department shall be liable for damages to the inmate. The rules and regulations shall provide that a prisoner who begins an educational, vocational, substance abuse, work-release programs or activities in accordance with Article 13 of Chapter III of this Code, behavior modification program, life skills course, re-entry planning, or correctional industry programs but is unable to complete the program due to illness, disability, transfer, lockdown, or another reason outside of the prisoner's control shall receive prorated sentence credits for the days in which the prisoner did participate.

(4.1) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall also provide that an additional 90 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who passes high school equivalency testing while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be pursuant to the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section. The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not previously earned a high school diploma or a State of Illinois High School Diploma. If, after an award of the high school equivalency testing sentence credit has been made, the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 90 days of sentence credit to any committed person who passed high school equivalency testing while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections. Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall provide that an additional 120 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who obtains an associate degree while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections, regardless of the date that the associate degree was obtained, including if prior to July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652). The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be under the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section. The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph (4.1) shall be available only to those prisoners who have not previously earned an associate degree prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections. If, after an award of the associate degree sentence credit has been made and the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 120 days of sentence credit to any committed person who earned an associate degree while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall provide that an additional 180 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who obtains a bachelor's degree while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be under the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection (a). The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not earned a bachelor's degree prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections. If, after an award of the bachelor's degree sentence credit has been made, the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 180 days of sentence credit to any committed person who earned a bachelor's degree while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall provide that an additional 180 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who obtains a master's or professional degree while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be under the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection (a). The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not previously earned a master's or professional degree prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections. If, after an award of the master's or professional degree sentence credit has been made, the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 180 days of sentence credit to any committed person who earned a master's or professional degree while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

(4.2)(A) The rules and regulations shall also provide that any prisoner engaged in self-improvement programs, volunteer work, or work assignments that are not otherwise eligible activities under paragraph (4), shall receive up to 0.5 days of sentence credit for each day in which the prisoner is engaged in activities described in this paragraph.

(B) The rules and regulations shall provide for the award of sentence credit under this paragraph (4.2) for qualifying days of engagement in eligible activities occurring prior to July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652).

(4.5) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall also provide that when the court's sentencing order recommends a prisoner for substance abuse treatment and the crime was committed on or after September 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-354), the prisoner shall receive no sentence credit awarded under clause (3) of this subsection (a) unless he or she participates in and completes a substance abuse treatment program. The Director of Corrections may waive the requirement to participate in or complete a substance abuse treatment program in specific instances if the prisoner is not a good candidate for a substance abuse treatment program for medical, programming, or operational reasons. Availability of substance abuse treatment shall be subject to the limits of fiscal resources appropriated by the General Assembly for these purposes. If treatment is not available and the requirement to participate and complete the treatment has not been waived by the Director, the prisoner shall be placed on a waiting list under criteria established by the Department. The Director may allow a prisoner placed on a waiting list to participate in and complete a substance abuse education class or attend substance abuse self-help meetings in lieu of a substance abuse treatment program. A prisoner on a waiting list who is not placed in a substance abuse program prior to release may be eligible for a waiver and receive sentence credit under clause (3) of this subsection (a) at the discretion of the Director.

(4.6) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall also provide that a prisoner who has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act shall receive no sentence credit unless he or she either has successfully completed or is participating in sex offender treatment as defined by the Sex Offender Management Board. However, prisoners who are waiting to receive treatment, but who are unable to do so due solely to the lack of resources on the part of the Department, may, at either Director's sole discretion, be awarded sentence credit at a rate as the Director shall determine.

(4.7) On or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-3), sentence credit under paragraph (3), (4), or (4.1) of this subsection (a) may be awarded to a prisoner who is serving a sentence for an offense described in paragraph (2), (2.3), (2.4), (2.5), or (2.6) for credit earned on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-3); provided, the award of the credits under this paragraph (4.7) shall not reduce the sentence of the prisoner to less than the following amounts:

(i) 85% of his or her sentence if the prisoner is required to serve 85% of his or her sentence; or

(ii) 60% of his or her sentence if the prisoner is required to serve 75% of his or her sentence, except if the prisoner is serving a sentence for gunrunning his or her sentence shall not be reduced to less than 75%.

(iii) 100% of his or her sentence if the prisoner is required to serve 100% of his or her sentence.

(5) Whenever the Department is to release any inmate earlier than it otherwise would because of a grant of earned sentence credit under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section given at any time during the term, the Department shall give reasonable notice of the impending release not less than 14 days prior to the date of the release to the State's Attorney of the county where the prosecution of the inmate took place, and if applicable, the State's Attorney of the county into which the inmate will be released. The Department must also make identification information and a recent photo of the inmate being released accessible on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Community Notification of Inmate Early Release" on the Department's World Wide Web homepage. The identification information shall include the inmate's: name, any known alias, date of birth, physical characteristics, commitment offense, and county where conviction was imposed. The identification information shall be placed on the website within 3 days of the inmate's release and the information may not be removed until either: completion of the first year of mandatory supervised release or return of the inmate to custody of the Department.

(b) Whenever a person is or has been committed under several convictions, with separate sentences, the sentences shall be construed under Section 5-8-4 in granting and forfeiting of sentence credit.

(c) (1) The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations for revoking sentence credit, including revoking sentence credit awarded under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section. The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations establishing and requiring the use of a sanctions matrix for revoking sentence credit. The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations for suspending or reducing the rate of accumulation of sentence credit for specific rule violations, during imprisonment. These rules and regulations shall provide that no inmate may be penalized more than one year of sentence credit for any one infraction.

(2) When the Department seeks to revoke, suspend, or reduce the rate of accumulation of any sentence credits for an alleged infraction of its rules, it shall bring charges therefor against the prisoner sought to be so deprived of sentence credits before the Prisoner Review Board as provided in subparagraph (a)(4) of Section 3-3-2 of this Code, if the amount of credit at issue exceeds 30 days, whether from one infraction or cumulatively from multiple infractions arising out of a single event, or when, during any 12-month period, the cumulative amount of credit revoked exceeds 30 days except where the infraction is committed or discovered within 60 days of scheduled release. In those cases, the Department of Corrections may revoke up to 30 days of sentence credit. The Board may subsequently approve the revocation of additional sentence credit, if the Department seeks to revoke sentence credit in excess of 30 days. However, the Board shall not be empowered to review the Department's decision with respect to the loss of 30 days of sentence credit within any calendar year for any prisoner or to increase any penalty beyond the length requested by the Department.

(3) The Director of Corrections or the Director of Juvenile Justice, in appropriate cases, may restore sentence credits which have been revoked, suspended, or reduced. The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations governing the restoration of sentence credits. These rules and regulations shall provide for the automatic restoration of sentence credits following a period in which the prisoner maintains a record without a disciplinary violation.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the Prisoner Review Board from ordering, pursuant to Section 3-3-9(a)(3)(i)(B), that a prisoner serve up to one year of the sentence imposed by the court that was not served due to the accumulation of sentence credit.

(d) If a lawsuit is filed by a prisoner in an Illinois or federal court against the State, the Department of Corrections, or the Prisoner Review Board, or against any of their officers or employees, and the court makes a specific finding that a pleading, motion, or other paper filed by the prisoner is frivolous, the Department of Corrections shall conduct a hearing to revoke up to 180 days of sentence credit by bringing charges against the prisoner sought to be deprived of the sentence credits before the Prisoner Review Board as provided in subparagraph (a)(8) of Section 3-3-2 of this Code. If the prisoner has not accumulated 180 days of sentence credit at the time of the finding, then the Prisoner Review Board may revoke all sentence credit accumulated by the prisoner.

For purposes of this subsection (d):

(1) "Frivolous" means that a pleading, motion, or other filing which purports to be a legal document filed by a prisoner in his or her lawsuit meets any or all of the following criteria:

(A) it lacks an arguable basis either in law or in fact;

(B) it is being presented for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation;

(C) the claims, defenses, and other legal contentions therein are not warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law or the establishment of new law;

(D) the allegations and other factual contentions do not have evidentiary support or, if specifically so identified, are not likely to have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for further investigation or discovery; or

(E) the denials of factual contentions are not warranted on the evidence, or if specifically so identified, are not reasonably based on a lack of information or belief.

(2) "Lawsuit" means a motion pursuant to Section 116-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, a habeas corpus action under Article X of the Code of Civil Procedure or under federal law (28 U.S.C. 2254), a petition for claim under the Court of Claims Act, an action under the federal Civil Rights Act (42 U.S.C. 1983), or a second or subsequent petition for post-conviction relief under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 whether filed with or without leave of court or a second or subsequent petition for relief from judgment under Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) Nothing in Public Act 90-592 or 90-593 affects the validity of Public Act 89-404.

(f) Whenever the Department is to release any inmate who has been convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, earlier than it otherwise would because of a grant of sentence credit, the Department, as a condition of release, shall require that the person, upon release, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-784, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1100, eff. 1-1-23; 103-51, eff. 1-1-24; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-330, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-8-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-8-10)

Sec. 3-8-10. Intrastate detainers. Subsections Subsection (b), (c), and (e) of Section 103-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 shall also apply to persons committed to any institution or facility or program of the Illinois Department of Corrections who have untried complaints, charges or indictments pending in any county of this State, and such person shall include in the demand under subsection (b), a statement of the place of present commitment, the term, and length of the remaining term, the charges pending against him or her to be tried and the county of the charges, and the demand shall be addressed to the state's attorney of the county where he or she is charged with a copy to the clerk of that court and a copy to the chief administrative officer of the Department of Corrections institution or facility to which he or she is committed. The state's attorney shall then procure the presence of the defendant for trial in his county by habeas corpus. Additional time may be granted by the court for the process of bringing and serving an order of habeas corpus ad prosequendum. In the event that the person is not brought to trial within the allotted time, then the charge for which he or she has requested a speedy trial shall be dismissed. The provisions of this Section do not apply to persons no longer committed to a facility or program of the Illinois Department of Corrections. A person serving a period of parole or mandatory supervised release under the supervision of the Department of Corrections, for the purpose of this Section, shall not be deemed to be committed to the Department.

(Source: P.A. 103-51, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-1)

Sec. 5-4-1. Sentencing hearing.

(a) After a determination of guilt, a hearing shall be held to impose the sentence. However, prior to the imposition of sentence on an individual being sentenced for an offense based upon a charge for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the individual must undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol or other drug abuse problem exists and the extent of such a problem. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. However, if the individual is not a resident of Illinois, the court may, in its discretion, accept an evaluation from a program in the state of such individual's residence. The court shall make a specific finding about whether the defendant is eligible for participation in a Department impact incarceration program as provided in Section 5-8-1.1 or 5-8-1.3, and if not, provide an explanation as to why a sentence to impact incarceration is not an appropriate sentence. The court may in its sentencing order recommend a defendant for placement in a Department of Corrections substance abuse treatment program as provided in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of Section 3-2-2 conditioned upon the defendant being accepted in a program by the Department of Corrections. At the hearing the court shall:

(1) consider the evidence, if any, received upon the trial;

(2) consider any presentence reports;

(3) consider the financial impact of incarceration based on the financial impact statement filed with the clerk of the court by the Department of Corrections;

(4) consider evidence and information offered by the parties in aggravation and mitigation;

(4.5) consider substance abuse treatment, eligibility screening, and an assessment, if any, of the defendant by an agent designated by the State of Illinois to provide assessment services for the Illinois courts;

(5) hear arguments as to sentencing alternatives;

(6) afford the defendant the opportunity to make a statement in his own behalf;

(7) afford the victim of a violent crime or a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the opportunity to present an oral or written statement, as guaranteed by Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and provided in Section 6 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. The court shall allow a victim to make an oral statement if the victim is present in the courtroom and requests to make an oral or written statement. An oral or written statement includes the victim or a representative of the victim reading the written statement. The court may allow persons impacted by the crime who are not victims under subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act to present an oral or written statement. A victim and any person making an oral statement shall not be put under oath or subject to cross-examination. All statements offered under this paragraph (7) shall become part of the record of the court. In this paragraph (7), "victim of a violent crime" means a person who is a victim of a violent crime for which the defendant has been convicted after a bench or jury trial or a person who is the victim of a violent crime with which the defendant was charged and the defendant has been convicted under a plea agreement of a crime that is not a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act;

(7.5) afford a qualified person affected by: (i) a violation of Section 405, 405.1, 405.2, or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or a violation of Section 55 or Section 65 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or (ii) a Class 4 felony violation of Section 11-14, 11-14.3 except as described in subdivisions (a)(2)(A) and (a)(2)(B), 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, or 11-19 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, committed by the defendant the opportunity to make a statement concerning the impact on the qualified person and to offer evidence in aggravation or mitigation; provided that the statement and evidence offered in aggravation or mitigation shall first be prepared in writing in conjunction with the State's Attorney before it may be presented orally at the hearing. Sworn testimony offered by the qualified person is subject to the defendant's right to cross-examine. All statements and evidence offered under this paragraph (7.5) shall become part of the record of the court. In this paragraph (7.5), "qualified person" means any person who: (i) lived or worked within the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place; or (ii) is familiar with various public places within the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place. "Qualified person" includes any peace officer or any member of any duly organized State, county, or municipal peace officer unit assigned to the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place;

(8) in cases of reckless homicide afford the victim's spouse, guardians, parents or other immediate family members an opportunity to make oral statements;

(9) in cases involving a felony sex offense as defined under the Sex Offender Management Board Act, consider the results of the sex offender evaluation conducted pursuant to Section 5-3-2 of this Act; and

(10) make a finding of whether a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense for which the defendant is being sentenced.

(b) All sentences shall be imposed by the judge based upon his independent assessment of the elements specified above and any agreement as to sentence reached by the parties. The judge who presided at the trial or the judge who accepted the plea of guilty shall impose the sentence unless he is no longer sitting as a judge in that court. Where the judge does not impose sentence at the same time on all defendants who are convicted as a result of being involved in the same offense, the defendant or the State's Attorney may advise the sentencing court of the disposition of any other defendants who have been sentenced.

(b-1) In imposing a sentence of imprisonment or periodic imprisonment for a Class 3 or Class 4 felony for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge is an available sentence, if the defendant has no prior sentence of probation or conditional discharge and no prior conviction for a violent crime, the defendant shall not be sentenced to imprisonment before review and consideration of a presentence report and determination and explanation of why the particular evidence, information, factor in aggravation, factual finding, or other reasons support a sentencing determination that one or more of the factors under subsection (a) of Section 5-6-1 of this Code apply and that probation or conditional discharge is not an appropriate sentence.

(c) In imposing a sentence for a violent crime or for an offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, any other drug or any combination thereof, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, when such offense resulted in the personal injury to someone other than the defendant, the trial judge shall specify on the record the particular evidence, information, factors in mitigation and aggravation or other reasons that led to his sentencing determination. The full verbatim record of the sentencing hearing shall be filed with the clerk of the court and shall be a public record.

(c-1) In imposing a sentence for the offense of aggravated kidnapping for ransom, home invasion, armed robbery, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated discharge of a firearm, or armed violence with a category I weapon or category II weapon, the trial judge shall make a finding as to whether the conduct leading to conviction for the offense resulted in great bodily harm to a victim, and shall enter that finding and the basis for that finding in the record.

(c-1.5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, in imposing a sentence for an offense that requires a mandatory minimum sentence of imprisonment, the court may instead sentence the offender to probation, conditional discharge, or a lesser term of imprisonment it deems appropriate if: (1) the offense involves the use or possession of drugs, retail theft, or driving on a revoked license due to unpaid financial obligations; (2) the court finds that the defendant does not pose a risk to public safety; and (3) the interest of justice requires imposing a term of probation, conditional discharge, or a lesser term of imprisonment. The court must state on the record its reasons for imposing probation, conditional discharge, or a lesser term of imprisonment.

(c-2) If the defendant is sentenced to prison, other than when a sentence of natural life imprisonment is imposed, at the time the sentence is imposed the judge shall state on the record in open court the approximate period of time the defendant will serve in custody according to the then current statutory rules and regulations for sentence credit found in Section 3-6-3 and other related provisions of this Code. This statement is intended solely to inform the public, has no legal effect on the defendant's actual release, and may not be relied on by the defendant on appeal.

The judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, other than when the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(4) of Section 3-6-3, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, assuming the defendant receives all of his or her sentence credit, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months, less up to 180 days additional earned sentence credit. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations, does not receive those credits, the actual time served in prison will be longer. The defendant may also receive an additional one-half day sentence credit for each day of participation in vocational, industry, substance abuse, and educational programs as provided for by Illinois statute."

When the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(2) of Section 3-6-3, other than first degree murder, and the offense was committed on or after June 19, 1998, and when the sentence is imposed for reckless homicide as defined in subsection (e) of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1999, and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated arson if the offense was committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176), and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant is entitled to no more than 4 1/2 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment. Therefore, this defendant will serve at least 85% of his or her sentence. Assuming the defendant receives 4 1/2 days credit for each month of his or her sentence, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations receives lesser credit, the actual time served in prison will be longer."

When a sentence of imprisonment is imposed for first degree murder and the offense was committed on or after June 19, 1998, the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant is not entitled to sentence credit. Therefore, this defendant will serve 100% of his or her sentence."

When the sentencing order recommends placement in a substance abuse program for any offense that results in incarceration in a Department of Corrections facility and the crime was committed on or after September 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-354), the judge's statement, in addition to any other judge's statement required under this Section, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant shall receive no earned sentence credit under clause (3) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3 until he or she participates in and completes a substance abuse treatment program or receives a waiver from the Director of Corrections pursuant to clause (4.5) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3."

(c-4) Before the sentencing hearing and as part of the presentence investigation under Section 5-3-1, the court shall inquire of the defendant whether the defendant is currently serving in or is a veteran of the Armed Forces of the United States. If the defendant is currently serving in the Armed Forces of the United States or is a veteran of the Armed Forces of the United States and has been diagnosed as having a mental illness by a qualified psychiatrist or clinical psychologist or physician, the court may:

(1) order that the officer preparing the presentence report consult with the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs, or another agency or person with suitable knowledge or experience for the purpose of providing the court with information regarding treatment options available to the defendant, including federal, State, and local programming; and

(2) consider the treatment recommendations of any diagnosing or treating mental health professionals together with the treatment options available to the defendant in imposing sentence.

For the purposes of this subsection (c-4), "qualified psychiatrist" means a reputable physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all its branches, who has specialized in the diagnosis and treatment of mental and nervous disorders for a period of not less than 5 years.

(c-6) In imposing a sentence, the trial judge shall specify, on the record, the particular evidence and other reasons which led to his or her determination that a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense.

(c-7) In imposing a sentence for a Class 3 or 4 felony, other than a violent crime as defined in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, the court shall determine and indicate in the sentencing order whether the defendant has 4 or more or fewer than 4 months remaining on his or her sentence accounting for time served.

(d) When the defendant is committed to the Department of Corrections, the State's Attorney shall and counsel for the defendant may file a statement with the clerk of the court to be transmitted to the department, agency or institution to which the defendant is committed to furnish such department, agency or institution with the facts and circumstances of the offense for which the person was committed together with all other factual information accessible to them in regard to the person prior to his commitment relative to his habits, associates, disposition and reputation and any other facts and circumstances which may aid such department, agency or institution during its custody of such person. The clerk shall within 10 days after receiving any such statements transmit a copy to such department, agency or institution and a copy to the other party, provided, however, that this shall not be cause for delay in conveying the person to the department, agency or institution to which he has been committed.

(e) The clerk of the court shall transmit to the department, agency or institution, if any, to which the defendant is committed, the following:

(1) the sentence imposed;

(2) any statement by the court of the basis for imposing the sentence;

(3) any presentence reports;

(3.3) the person's last known complete street address prior to incarceration or legal residence, the person's race, whether the person is of Hispanic or Latino origin, and whether the person is 18 years of age or older;

(3.5) any sex offender evaluations;

(3.6) any substance abuse treatment eligibility screening and assessment of the defendant by an agent designated by the State of Illinois to provide assessment services for the Illinois courts;

(4) the number of days, if any, which the defendant has been in custody and for which he is entitled to credit against the sentence, which information shall be provided to the clerk by the sheriff;

(4.1) any finding of great bodily harm made by the court with respect to an offense enumerated in subsection (c-1);

(5) all statements filed under subsection (d) of this Section;

(6) any medical or mental health records or summaries of the defendant;

(7) the municipality where the arrest of the offender or the commission of the offense has occurred, where such municipality has a population of more than 25,000 persons;

(8) all statements made and evidence offered under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of this Section; and

(9) all additional matters which the court directs the clerk to transmit.

(f) In cases in which the court finds that a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense for which the defendant is being sentenced, the clerk of the court shall, within 5 days thereafter, forward a report of such conviction to the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-18, eff. 1-1-24; 103-51, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-3)

Sec. 5-4-3. Specimens; genetic marker groups.

(a) Any person convicted of, found guilty under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for, or who received a disposition of court supervision for, a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense, convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law, convicted or found guilty of any offense requiring registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, found guilty or given supervision for any offense classified as a felony under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, convicted or found guilty of, under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, any offense requiring registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or committed as a sexually violent person under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall, regardless of the sentence or disposition imposed, be required to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section, provided such person is:

(1) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after July 1, 1990 and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, periodic imprisonment, fine, probation, conditional discharge or any other form of sentence, or given a disposition of court supervision for the offense;

(1.5) found guilty or given supervision under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after January 1, 1997;

(2) ordered institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person on or after July 1, 1990;

(3) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense before July 1, 1990 and is presently confined as a result of such conviction in any State correctional facility or county jail or is presently serving a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or periodic imprisonment as a result of such conviction;

(3.5) convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law or found guilty or given supervision for such an offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on or after August 22, 2002;

(4) presently institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person or presently institutionalized as a person found guilty but mentally ill of a sexual offense or attempt to commit a sexual offense; or

(4.5) ordered committed as a sexually violent person on or after January 1, 1998 (the effective date of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act).

(a-1) Any person incarcerated in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice on or after August 22, 2002, whether for a term of years or natural life, who has not yet submitted a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to submit a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue prior to his or her final discharge, or release on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, or within 6 months from August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426), whichever is sooner. A person incarcerated on or after August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426) shall be required to submit a specimen within 45 days of incarceration, or prior to his or her final discharge, or release on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, whichever is sooner. These specimens shall be placed into the State or national DNA database, to be used in accordance with other provisions of this Section, by the Illinois State Police.

(a-2) Any person sentenced to life imprisonment in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections after June 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-16) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois State Police. Any person serving a sentence of life imprisonment in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections on June 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-16) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or any person who is under a sentence of death on June 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-16) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue upon request at a collection site designated by the Illinois State Police.

(a-3) Any person seeking transfer to or residency in Illinois under Sections 3-3-11.05 through 3-3-11.5 of this Code, the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision, or the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after transfer to or residency in Illinois at a collection site designated by the Illinois State Police.

(a-3.1) Any person required by an order of the court to submit a DNA specimen shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after the court order at a collection site designated by the Illinois State Police.

(a-3.2) On or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383), any person arrested for any of the following offenses, after an indictment has been returned by a grand jury, or following a hearing pursuant to Section 109-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 and a judge finds there is probable cause to believe the arrestee has committed one of the designated offenses, or an arrestee has waived a preliminary hearing shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 14 days after such indictment or hearing at a collection site designated by the Illinois State Police:

(A) first degree murder;

(B) home invasion;

(C) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(D) aggravated criminal sexual assault; or

(E) criminal sexual assault.

(a-3.3) Any person required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act, regardless of the date of conviction as set forth in subsection (c-5.2) shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within the time period prescribed in subsection (c-5.2) at a collection site designated by the Illinois State Police.

(a-5) Any person who was otherwise convicted of or received a disposition of court supervision for any other offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or who was found guilty or given supervision for such a violation under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, may, regardless of the sentence imposed, be required by an order of the court to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(b) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(1.5), (a)(2), (a)(3.5), and (a-5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois State Police.

(c) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(4.5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to provide such specimens prior to final discharge or within 6 months from August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426), whichever is sooner. These specimens shall be placed into the State or national DNA database, to be used in accordance with other provisions of this Act, by the Illinois State Police.

(c-5) Any person required by paragraph (a-3) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall, where feasible, be required to provide the specimens before being accepted for conditioned residency in Illinois under the interstate compact or agreement, but no later than 45 days after arrival in this State.

(c-5.2) Unless it is determined that a registered sex offender has previously submitted a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue that has been placed into the State DNA database, a person registering as a sex offender shall be required to submit a specimen at the time of his or her initial registration pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act or, for a person registered as a sex offender on or prior to January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383), within one year of January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383) or at the time of his or her next required registration.

(c-6) The Illinois State Police may determine which type of specimen or specimens, blood, saliva, or tissue, is acceptable for submission to the Division of Forensic Services for analysis. The Illinois State Police may require the submission of fingerprints from anyone required to give a specimen under this Act.

(d) The Illinois State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of blood specimens. The collection of specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a physician authorized to practice medicine, a registered nurse or other qualified person trained in venipuncture may withdraw blood for the purposes of this Act. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-1) The Illinois State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of saliva specimens. The collection of saliva specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting saliva may collect saliva for the purposes of this Section. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-2) The Illinois State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of tissue specimens. The collection of tissue specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting tissue may collect tissue for the purposes of this Section. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-5) To the extent that funds are available, the Illinois State Police shall contract with qualified personnel and certified laboratories for the collection, analysis, and categorization of known specimens, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section.

(d-6) Agencies designated by the Illinois State Police and the Illinois State Police may contract with third parties to provide for the collection or analysis of DNA, or both, of an offender's blood, saliva, and tissue specimens, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section.

(e) The genetic marker groupings shall be maintained by the Illinois State Police, Division of Forensic Services.

(f) The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be confidential and shall be released only to peace officers of the United States, of other states or territories, of the insular possessions of the United States, of foreign countries duly authorized to receive the same, to all peace officers of the State of Illinois and to all prosecutorial agencies, and to defense counsel as provided by Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be used only for (i) valid law enforcement identification purposes and as required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation for participation in the National DNA database, (ii) technology validation purposes, (iii) a population statistics database, (iv) quality assurance purposes if personally identifying information is removed, (v) assisting in the defense of the criminally accused pursuant to Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or (vi) identifying and assisting in the prosecution of a person who is suspected of committing a sexual assault as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act. Notwithstanding any other statutory provision to the contrary, all information obtained under this Section shall be maintained in a single State data base, which may be uploaded into a national database, and which information may be subject to expungement only as set forth in subsection (f-1).

(f-1) Upon receipt of notification of a reversal of a conviction based on actual innocence, or of the granting of a pardon pursuant to Section 12 of Article V of the Illinois Constitution, if that pardon document specifically states that the reason for the pardon is the actual innocence of an individual whose DNA record has been stored in the State or national DNA identification index in accordance with this Section by the Illinois State Police, the DNA record shall be expunged from the DNA identification index, and the Department shall by rule prescribe procedures to ensure that the record and any specimens, analyses, or other documents relating to such record, whether in the possession of the Department or any law enforcement or police agency, or any forensic DNA laboratory, including any duplicates or copies thereof, are destroyed and a letter is sent to the court verifying the expungement is completed. For specimens required to be collected prior to conviction, unless the individual has other charges or convictions that require submission of a specimen, the DNA record for an individual shall be expunged from the DNA identification databases and the specimen destroyed upon receipt of a certified copy of a final court order for each charge against an individual in which the charge has been dismissed, resulted in acquittal, or that the charge was not filed within the applicable time period. The Department shall by rule prescribe procedures to ensure that the record and any specimens in the possession or control of the Department are destroyed and a letter is sent to the court verifying the expungement is completed.

(f-5) Any person who intentionally uses genetic marker grouping analysis information, or any other information derived from a DNA specimen, beyond the authorized uses as provided under this Section, or any other Illinois law, is guilty of a Class 4 felony, and shall be subject to a fine of not less than $5,000.

(f-6) The Illinois State Police may contract with third parties for the purposes of implementing Public Act 93-216 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section. Any other party contracting to carry out the functions of this Section shall be subject to the same restrictions and requirements of this Section insofar as applicable, as the Illinois State Police, and to any additional restrictions imposed by the Illinois State Police.

(g) For the purposes of this Section, "qualifying offense" means any of the following:

(1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-11, 11-18.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(1.1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 9-1, 9-2, 10-1, 10-2, 12-11, 12-11.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-6, 19-1, 19-2, or 19-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for which persons are convicted on or after July 1, 2001;

(2) any former statute of this State which defined a felony sexual offense;

(3) (blank);

(4) any inchoate violation of Section 9-3.1, 9-3.4, 11-9.3, 12-7.3, or 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(5) any violation or inchoate violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(g-5) (Blank).

(h) The Illinois State Police shall be the State central repository for all genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act. The Illinois State Police may promulgate rules for the form and manner of the collection of blood, saliva, or tissue specimens and other procedures for the operation of this Act. The provisions of the Administrative Review Law shall apply to all actions taken under the rules so promulgated.

(i)(1) A person required to provide a blood, saliva, or tissue specimen shall cooperate with the collection of the specimen and any deliberate act by that person intended to impede, delay or stop the collection of the blood, saliva, or tissue specimen is a Class 4 felony.

(2) In the event that a person's DNA specimen is not adequate for any reason, the person shall provide another DNA specimen for analysis. Duly authorized law enforcement and corrections personnel may employ reasonable force in cases in which an individual refuses to provide a DNA specimen required under this Act.

(j) (Blank).

(k) All analysis and categorization assessments provided under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Assessments Act to the State Crime Laboratory Fund shall be regulated as follows:

(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(3) Moneys deposited into the State Crime Laboratory Fund shall be used by Illinois State Police crime laboratories as designated by the Director of the Illinois State Police. These funds shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing laws and shall be designated for the exclusive use of State crime laboratories. These uses may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(A) Costs incurred in providing analysis and genetic marker categorization as required by subsection (d).

(B) Costs incurred in maintaining genetic marker groupings as required by subsection (e).

(C) Costs incurred in the purchase and maintenance of equipment for use in performing analyses.

(D) Costs incurred in continuing research and development of new techniques for analysis and genetic marker categorization.

(E) Costs incurred in continuing education, training, and professional development of forensic scientists regularly employed by these laboratories.

(l) The failure of a person to provide a specimen, or of any person or agency to collect a specimen, shall in no way alter the obligation of the person to submit such specimen, or the authority of the Illinois State Police or persons designated by the Illinois State Police to collect the specimen, or the authority of the Illinois State Police to accept, analyze and maintain the specimen or to maintain or upload results of genetic marker grouping analysis information into a State or national database.

(m) If any provision of Public Act 93-216 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is held unconstitutional or otherwise invalid, the remainder of Public Act 93-216 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is not affected.

(n) Neither the Illinois State Police, the Division of Forensic Services, nor any laboratory of the Division of Forensic Services may contract out forensic testing for the purpose of an active investigation or a matter pending before a court of competent jurisdiction without the written consent of the prosecuting agency. For the purposes of this subsection (n), "forensic testing" includes the analysis of physical evidence in an investigation or other proceeding for the prosecution of a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or for matters adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and includes the use of forensic databases and databanks, including DNA, firearm, and fingerprint databases, and expert testimony.

(o) Mistake does not invalidate a database match. The detention, arrest, or conviction of a person based upon a database match or database information is not invalidated if it is determined that the specimen was obtained or placed in the database by mistake.

(p) This Section may be referred to as the Illinois DNA Database Law of 2011.

(Source: P.A. 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-51, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-105)

Sec. 5-4.5-105. SENTENCING OF INDIVIDUALS UNDER THE AGE OF 18 AT THE TIME OF THE COMMISSION OF AN OFFENSE.

(a) On or after January 1, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-69) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, when a person commits an offense and the person is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, the court, at the sentencing hearing conducted under Section 5-4-1, shall consider the following additional factors in mitigation in determining the appropriate sentence:

(1) the person's age, impetuosity, and level of maturity at the time of the offense, including the ability to consider risks and consequences of behavior, and the presence of cognitive or developmental disability, or both, if any;

(2) whether the person was subjected to outside pressure, including peer pressure, familial pressure, or negative influences;

(3) the person's family, home environment, educational and social background, including any history of parental neglect, domestic or sexual violence, sexual exploitation, physical abuse, or other childhood trauma including adverse childhood experiences (or ACEs);

(4) the person's potential for rehabilitation or evidence of rehabilitation, or both;

(5) the circumstances of the offense;

(6) the person's degree of participation and specific role in the offense, including the level of planning by the defendant before the offense;

(7) whether the person was able to meaningfully participate in his or her defense;

(8) the person's prior juvenile or criminal history;

(9) the person's involvement in the child welfare system;

(10) involvement of the person in the community;

(11) if a comprehensive mental health evaluation of the person was conducted by a qualified mental health professional, the outcome of the evaluation; and

(12) 12 any other information the court finds relevant and reliable, including an expression of remorse, if appropriate. However, if the person, on advice of counsel chooses not to make a statement, the court shall not consider a lack of an expression of remorse as an aggravating factor.

(b) The trial judge shall specify on the record its consideration of the factors under subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the individual against whom the person is convicted of committing the offense previously committed a crime under Section 10-9, Section 11-1.20, Section 11-1.30, Section 11-1.40, Section 11-1.50, Section 11-1.60, Section 11-6, Section 11-6.5, Section 11-6.6, Section 11-9.1, Section 11-14.3, Section 11-14.4 or Section 11-18.1 of the under Criminal Code of 2012 against the person within 3 years before the offense in which the person was convicted, the court may, in its discretion:

(1) transfer the person to juvenile court for sentencing under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(2) depart from any mandatory minimum sentence, maximum sentence, or sentencing enhancement; or

(3) suspend any portion of an otherwise applicable sentence.

(d) Subsection (c) shall be construed as prioritizing the successful treatment and rehabilitation of persons under 18 years of age who are sex crime victims who commit acts of violence against their abusers. It is the General Assembly's intent that these persons be viewed as victims and provided treatment and services in the community and in the , juvenile or family court system.

(e) Except as provided in subsections (f) and (g) (d), the court may sentence the defendant to any disposition authorized for the class of the offense of which he or she was found guilty as described in Article 4.5 of this Code, and may, in its discretion, decline to impose any otherwise applicable sentencing enhancement based upon firearm possession, possession with personal discharge, or possession with personal discharge that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if the defendant is convicted of first degree murder and would otherwise be subject to sentencing under clause (iii), (iv), (v), or (vii) of subparagraph (c) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code based on the category of persons identified therein, the court shall impose a sentence of not less than 40 years of imprisonment, except for persons convicted of first degree murder where subsection (c) applies. In addition, the court may, in its discretion, decline to impose the sentencing enhancements based upon the possession or use of a firearm during the commission of the offense included in subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1.

(g) (d) Fines and assessments, such as fees or administrative costs, shall not be ordered or imposed against a minor subject to this Code or against the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian. For the purposes of this subsection (g) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, "minor" has the meaning provided in Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and includes any minor under the age of 18 transferred to adult court or excluded from juvenile court jurisdiction under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 103-191, eff. 1-1-24; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-14-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3)

Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of probation and of conditional discharge.

(a) The conditions of probation and of conditional discharge shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court. To comply with the provisions of this paragraph (2), in lieu of requiring the person on probation or conditional discharge to appear in person for the required reporting or meetings, the officer may utilize technology, including cellular and other electronic communication devices or platforms, that allow for communication between the supervised person and the officer in accordance with standards and guidelines established by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a felony or, if a misdemeanor, the offense involved the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the person's probation officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional discharge supervision to another state is subject to acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;

(5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his duties;

(6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, where the offense was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damage to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act. The court may give credit toward the fulfillment of community service hours for participation in activities and treatment as determined by court services. Community service shall not interfere with the school hours, school-related activities, or work commitments of the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian;

(7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this paragraph (7). The court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge of a person who willfully fails to comply with this paragraph (7). The person on probation or conditional discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or high school equivalency testing if a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The court shall resentence the offender whose probation or conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in Section 5-6-4. This paragraph (7) does not apply to a person who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This paragraph (7) does not apply to a person who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program;

(8) if convicted of possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court;

(8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders;

(8.7) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (8.7), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(8.8) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer;

(8.9) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(9) if convicted of a felony or of any misdemeanor violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 that was determined, pursuant to Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, to trigger the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9), physically surrender at a time and place designated by the court, his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any and all firearms in his or her possession. The Court shall return to the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(11) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses;

(12) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate; and

(13) if convicted of a hate crime involving the protected class identified in subsection (a) of Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 that gave rise to the offense the offender committed, perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours and enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes that includes racial, ethnic, and cultural sensitivity training ordered by the court.

(b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that the person:

(1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) provide nonfinancial contributions to his own support at home or in a foster home;

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(9) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the offender:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the offender's compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and

(iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or the probation or court services department Probation or Court Services Department, be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V;

(iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the offender to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court, except as provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code, except as provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court.

The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the county may by administrative order establish a program for electronic monitoring of offenders, in which a vendor supplies and monitors the operation of the electronic monitoring device, and collects the fees on behalf of the county. The program shall include provisions for indigent offenders and the collection of unpaid fees. The program shall not unduly burden the offender and shall be subject to review by the Chief Judge.

The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend any additional charges or fees for late payment, interest, or damage to any device; and

(v) for persons convicted of offenses other than those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court, except as provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the probation and court services fund. The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the county may by administrative order establish a program for electronic monitoring of offenders, in which a vendor supplies and monitors the operation of the electronic monitoring device, and collects the fees on behalf of the county. The program shall include provisions for indigent offenders and the collection of unpaid fees. The program shall not unduly burden the offender and shall be subject to review by the Chief Judge.

The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend any additional charges or fees for late payment, interest, or damage to any device.

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the probation officer or agency having responsibility for the case;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on probation or advance approval by the court, if the defendant was placed on conditional discharge;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including, but not limited to, members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (17), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(18) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the subject's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer; and

(19) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a misdemeanor that did not involve the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm.

(c) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions thereof.

(e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a condition of the sentence of probation or conditional discharge that the offender be committed to a period of imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6-month limit shall not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2.

Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to the Department of Corrections.

(f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of probation or conditional discharge.

(g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge and who during the term of either undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, involved in a successful probation program for the county. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court, except as provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be. The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the county may by administrative order establish a program for electronic monitoring of offenders, in which a vendor supplies and monitors the operation of the electronic monitoring device, and collects the fees on behalf of the county. The program shall include provisions for indigent offenders and the collection of unpaid fees. The program shall not unduly burden the offender and shall be subject to review by the Chief Judge. A person shall not be assessed costs or fees for mandatory testing for drugs, alcohol, or both, if the person is an indigent person as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 5-105 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend any additional charges or fees for late payment, interest, or damage to any device.

(h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred, or which has agreed to provide supervision, may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). For all transfer cases, as defined in Section 9b of the Probation and Probation Officers Act, the probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer. After the transfer, all probation fees shall be paid to the probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred.

(i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is placed in the guardianship or custody of the Department of Children and Family Services under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the Chief Judge chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

Public Act 93-970 deletes the $10 increase in the fee under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616. This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the 93rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee increase.

(i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i) of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or under a payment plan.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act.

(k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(l) The court may order an offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(m) Except for restitution, and assessments issued for adjudications under Section 5-125 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, fines and assessments, such as fees or administrative costs, authorized under this Section shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor subject to Article III, IV, or V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or a minor under the age of 18 transferred to adult court or excluded from juvenile court jurisdiction under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(n) (m) A person on probation, conditional discharge, or supervision shall not be ordered to refrain from having cannabis or alcohol in his or her body unless:

(1) the person is under 21 years old;

(2) the person was sentenced to probation, conditional discharge, or supervision for an offense which had as an element of the offense the presence of an intoxicating compound in the person's body;

(3) the person is participating in a problem-solving court certified by the Illinois Supreme Court;

(4) the person has undergone a validated clinical assessment and the clinical treatment plan includes alcohol or cannabis testing; or

(5) a court ordered evaluation recommends that the person refrain from using alcohol or cannabis, provided the evaluation is a validated clinical assessment and the recommendation originates from a clinical treatment plan.

If the court has made findings that alcohol use was a contributing factor in the commission of the underlying offense, the court may order a person on probation, conditional discharge, or supervision to refrain from having alcohol in his or her body during the time between sentencing and the completion of a validated clinical assessment, provided that such order shall not exceed 30 days and shall be terminated if the clinical treatment plan does not recommend abstinence or testing, or both.

In this subsection (n) (m), "validated clinical assessment" and "clinical treatment plan" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10 of the Drug Court Treatment Act.

In any instance in which the court orders testing for cannabis or alcohol, the court shall state the reasonable relation the condition has to the person's crime for which the person was placed on probation, conditional discharge, or supervision.

(o) (n) A person on probation, conditional discharge, or supervision shall not be ordered to refrain from use or consumption of any substance lawfully prescribed by a medical provider or authorized by the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, except where use is prohibited in paragraph (3) or (4) of subsection (n) (m).

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-271, eff. 1-1-24; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; 103-391, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-9-1.4)

Sec. 5-9-1.4. (a) "Crime laboratory" means any not-for-profit laboratory registered with the Drug Enforcement Administration of the United States Department of Justice, substantially funded by a unit or combination of units of local government or the State of Illinois, which regularly employs at least one person engaged in the analysis of controlled substances, cannabis, methamphetamine, or steroids for criminal justice agencies in criminal matters and provides testimony with respect to such examinations.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(c-1) A criminal laboratory analysis assessment, or equivalent fine or assessment, such as fees or administrative costs, shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor subject to Article III, IV, or V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or a minor under the age of 18 transferred to adult court or excluded from juvenile court jurisdiction under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (c-1) of this Section, all funds provided for by this Section shall be collected by the clerk of the court and forwarded to the appropriate crime laboratory fund as provided in subsection (f).

(e) Crime laboratory funds shall be established as follows:

(1) Any unit of local government which maintains a crime laboratory may establish a crime laboratory fund within the office of the county or municipal treasurer.

(2) Any combination of units of local government which maintains a crime laboratory may establish a crime laboratory fund within the office of the treasurer of the county where the crime laboratory is situated.

(3) The State Crime Laboratory Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury.

(f) Funds shall be forwarded to the office of the treasurer of the unit of local government that performed the analysis if that unit of local government has established a crime laboratory fund, or to the State Crime Laboratory Fund if the analysis was performed by a laboratory operated by the Illinois State Police. If the analysis was performed by a crime laboratory funded by a combination of units of local government, the funds shall be forwarded to the treasurer of the county where the crime laboratory is situated if a crime laboratory fund has been established in that county. If the unit of local government or combination of units of local government has not established a crime laboratory fund, then the funds shall be forwarded to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

(g) Moneys deposited into a crime laboratory fund created pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (e) of this Section shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing law and shall be designated for the exclusive use of the crime laboratory. These uses may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) costs incurred in providing analysis for controlled substances in connection with criminal investigations conducted within this State;

(2) purchase and maintenance of equipment for use in performing analyses; and

(3) continuing education, training, and professional development of forensic scientists regularly employed by these laboratories.

(h) Moneys deposited in the State Crime Laboratory Fund created pursuant to paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of this Section shall be used by State crime laboratories as designated by the Director of the Illinois State Police. These funds shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing law and shall be designated for the exclusive use of State crime laboratories or for the sexual assault evidence tracking system created under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act. These uses may include those enumerated in subsection (g) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-14-23.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.9)

Sec. 5-9-1.9. DUI analysis.

(a) "Crime laboratory" means a not-for-profit laboratory substantially funded by a single unit or combination of units of local government or the State of Illinois that regularly employs at least one person engaged in the DUI analysis of blood, other bodily substance, and urine for criminal justice agencies in criminal matters and provides testimony with respect to such examinations.

"DUI analysis" means an analysis of blood, other bodily substance, or urine for purposes of determining whether a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code has occurred.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(c-1) A criminal laboratory DUI analysis assessment, or equivalent fine or assessment, such as fees or administrative costs, shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor subject to Article III, IV, or V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or a minor under the age of 18 transferred to adult court or excluded from juvenile court jurisdiction under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (c-1), all funds provided for by this Section shall be collected by the clerk of the court and forwarded to the appropriate crime laboratory DUI fund as provided in subsection (f).

(e) Crime laboratory funds shall be established as follows:

(1) A unit of local government that maintains a crime laboratory may establish a crime laboratory DUI fund within the office of the county or municipal treasurer.

(2) Any combination of units of local government that maintains a crime laboratory may establish a crime laboratory DUI fund within the office of the treasurer of the county where the crime laboratory is situated.

(3) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding subsection (c-1), all funds shall be forwarded to the office of the treasurer of the unit of local government that performed the analysis if that unit of local government has established a crime laboratory DUI fund, or remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Crime Laboratory Fund if the analysis was performed by a laboratory operated by the Illinois State Police. If the analysis was performed by a crime laboratory funded by a combination of units of local government, the funds shall be forwarded to the treasurer of the county where the crime laboratory is situated if a crime laboratory DUI fund has been established in that county. If the unit of local government or combination of units of local government has not established a crime laboratory DUI fund, then the funds shall be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

(g) Moneys deposited into a crime laboratory DUI fund created under paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (e) of this Section shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing law and shall be designated for the exclusive use of the crime laboratory. These uses may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) Costs incurred in providing analysis for DUI investigations conducted within this State.

(2) Purchase and maintenance of equipment for use in performing analyses.

(3) Continuing education, training, and professional development of forensic scientists regularly employed by these laboratories.

(h) Moneys deposited in the State Crime Laboratory Fund shall be used by State crime laboratories as designated by the Director of the Illinois State Police. These funds shall be in addition to any allocations made according to existing law and shall be designated for the exclusive use of State crime laboratories. These uses may include those enumerated in subsection (g) of this Section.

(i) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; revised 9-14-23.)

Section 570. The Arsonist Registration Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(730 ILCS 148/35)

Sec. 35. Duty to report change of address, school, name, or employment. Any person who is required to register under this Act shall report in person to the appropriate law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered within one year from the date of last registration and every year thereafter. If any person required to register under this Act changes his or her residence address, place of employment, or school, he or she shall, in writing, within 10 days inform the law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered of his or her new address, change in employment, or school and register with the appropriate law enforcement agency within the time period specified in Section 10. Any person who is required to register under this Act and is granted a legal name change pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 21-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall, in writing, within 10 days inform the law enforcement agency with whom the person they last registered of the their name change. The law enforcement agency shall, within 3 days of receipt, notify the Illinois State Police and the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of the new place of residence, change in employment, or school. If any person required to register under this Act establishes a residence or employment outside of the State of Illinois, within 10 days after establishing that residence or employment, he or she shall, in writing, inform the law enforcement agency with which he or she last registered of his or her out-of-state residence or employment. The law enforcement agency with which such person last registered shall, within 3 days' days notice of an address or employment change, notify the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police shall forward such information to the out-of-state law enforcement agency having jurisdiction in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1133, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 575. The Sex Offender Registration Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(730 ILCS 150/6)

Sec. 6. Duty to report; change of address, school, name, or employment; duty to inform. A person who has been adjudicated to be sexually dangerous or is a sexually violent person and is later released, or found to be no longer sexually dangerous or no longer a sexually violent person and discharged, or convicted of a violation of this Act after July 1, 2005, shall report in person to the law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered no later than 90 days after the date of his or her last registration and every 90 days thereafter and at such other times at the request of the law enforcement agency not to exceed 4 times a year. Such sexually dangerous or sexually violent person must report all new or changed e-mail addresses, all new or changed instant messaging identities, all new or changed chat room identities, and all other new or changed Internet communications identities that the sexually dangerous or sexually violent person uses or plans to use, all new or changed Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) registered or used by the sexually dangerous or sexually violent person, and all new or changed blogs and other Internet sites maintained by the sexually dangerous or sexually violent person or to which the sexually dangerous or sexually violent person has uploaded any content or posted any messages or information. Any person who lacks a fixed residence must report weekly, in person, to the appropriate law enforcement agency where the sex offender is located. Any other person who is required to register under this Article shall report in person to the appropriate law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered within one year from the date of last registration and every year thereafter and at such other times at the request of the law enforcement agency not to exceed 4 times a year. If any person required to register under this Article lacks a fixed residence or temporary domicile, he or she must notify, in person, the agency of jurisdiction of his or her last known address within 3 days after ceasing to have a fixed residence and if the offender leaves the last jurisdiction of residence, he or she, must within 3 days after leaving register in person with the new agency of jurisdiction. If any other person required to register under this Article changes his or her residence address, place of employment, telephone number, cellular telephone number, or school, he or she shall report in person, to the law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered, his or her new address, change in employment, telephone number, cellular telephone number, or school, all new or changed e-mail addresses, all new or changed instant messaging identities, all new or changed chat room identities, and all other new or changed Internet communications identities that the sex offender uses or plans to use, all new or changed Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) registered or used by the sex offender, and all new or changed blogs and other Internet sites maintained by the sex offender or to which the sex offender has uploaded any content or posted any messages or information, and register, in person, with the appropriate law enforcement agency within the time period specified in Section 3. If any person required to register under this Article is granted a legal name change pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 21-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the person they shall report, in person, within 3 days of the their legal name change, to the law enforcement agency with whom the person they last registered. If the sex offender is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the sex offender shall within 3 days after beginning to reside in a household with a child under 18 years of age who is not his or her own child, provided that his or her own child is not the victim of the sex offense, report that information to the registering law enforcement agency. The law enforcement agency shall, within 3 days of the reporting in person by the person required to register under this Article, notify the Illinois State Police of the new place of residence, change in employment, telephone number, cellular telephone number, or school.

If any person required to register under this Article intends to establish a residence or employment outside of the State of Illinois, at least 10 days before establishing that residence or employment, he or she shall report in person to the law enforcement agency with which he or she last registered of his or her out-of-state intended residence or employment. The law enforcement agency with which such person last registered shall, within 3 days after the reporting in person of the person required to register under this Article of an address or employment change, notify the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police shall forward such information to the out-of-state law enforcement agency having jurisdiction in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police.

(Source: P.A. P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1133, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 580. The Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(730 ILCS 154/30)

Sec. 30. Duty to report; change of address, school, name, or employment; duty to inform. Any violent offender against youth who is required to register under this Act shall report in person to the appropriate law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered within one year from the date of last registration and every year thereafter and at such other times at the request of the law enforcement agency not to exceed 4 times a year. If any person required to register under this Act lacks a fixed residence or temporary domicile, he or she must notify, in person, the agency of jurisdiction of his or her last known address within 5 days after ceasing to have a fixed residence and if the offender leaves the last jurisdiction of residence, he or she must, within 48 hours after leaving, register in person with the new agency of jurisdiction. If any other person required to register under this Act changes his or her residence address, place of employment, or school, he or she shall report in person to the law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered of his or her new address, change in employment, or school and register, in person, with the appropriate law enforcement agency within the time period specified in Section 10. The law enforcement agency shall, within 3 days of the reporting in person by the person required to register under this Act, notify the Illinois State Police of the new place of residence, change in employment, or school. If any person required to register under this Act is granted a legal name change pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 21-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the person they shall report, in person, within 5 days of receiving the their legal name change order, the their legal name change to the law enforcement agency with whom the person they last registered.

If any person required to register under this Act intends to establish a residence or employment outside of the State of Illinois, at least 10 days before establishing that residence or employment, he or she shall report in person to the law enforcement agency with which he or she last registered of his or her out-of-state intended residence or employment. The law enforcement agency with which such person last registered shall, within 3 days after the reporting in person of the person required to register under this Act of an address or employment change, notify the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police shall forward such information to the out-of-state law enforcement agency having jurisdiction in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1133, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 585. The End Youth Solitary Confinement Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(730 ILCS 215/10)

Sec. 10. Covered juvenile confinement.

(a) In this Act:

"Administrative hold" means the status assigned to a covered juvenile who is temporarily being housed in a particular covered juvenile center and includes, but is not limited to: a covered juvenile awaiting transfer to another juvenile detention center, a covered juvenile permanently assigned to another juvenile detention center being temporarily housed for purposes of attending court, the covered juvenile awaiting release, and the covered juvenile who was transferred to the Department of Corrections by mistake.

"Behavioral hold" means the status assigned to a covered juvenile who is confined to the covered juvenile's own room or another area because he or she is engaging in dangerous behavior that poses a serious and immediate threat to his or her own safety, the safety of others, or the security of the juvenile detention center.

"Chief administrative officer" means the highest ranking official of a juvenile detention center.

"Confinement" means any instance when an individual covered juvenile is held for 15 minutes or more in a room, cell, or other area separated from other covered juveniles. Confinement may occur in locked or unlocked rooms. "Confinement" includes an administrative hold, behavioral hold, or investigative status. "Confinement" does not include medical isolation or quarantine, situations when a covered juvenile requests to go to his or her room, the movement of the covered juvenile between offices and classrooms while attending school, a covered juvenile who receives individual counseling or other therapeutic services, or staff who are in ongoing continuous conversation or processing with the covered juvenile, such as a cool down.

"Covered juvenile" means any person under 21 years of age incarcerated in a Department of Juvenile Justice facility or any person under 18 years of age detained in a county facility under the authority of the local circuit court.

"Investigative status" means a status assigned to a covered juvenile for whom confinement is necessary for the efficient and effective investigation of a Tier 2 or Tier 3 offense, as defined in the Department of Juvenile Justice's Administrative Directive 04.01.140.

"Tier 2" or "Tier 3" offense means a major rules violation that results in immediate disciplinary consequences that are assigned by the staff of a facility of the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice reporting the violation.

(b) The use of room confinement at a youth facility for discipline, punishment, retaliation, or any reason other than as a temporary response to a juvenile's behavior that poses a serious and immediate risk of physical harm to any individual, including the juvenile, is prohibited.

(b-5) A covered juvenile may be placed on an administrative hold and confined when temporarily being housed in a particular juvenile detention center or for administrative or security purposes as personally determined by the chief administrative officer.

(b-6) Placement on administrative hold shall be subject to the following time limitations:

(1) when the covered juvenile is awaiting transfer to a youth facility or a more secure setting, the administrative hold may not exceed 3 business days; and

(2) the administrative hold may not exceed 7 calendar days when the covered juvenile is temporarily transferred to a different facility for the purposes of placement interviews, court appearances, or medical treatment.

(b-7) Whenever a covered juvenile is on an administrative hold, the Department shall provide the covered juvenile with access to the same programs and services received by covered juveniles in the general population. Any restrictions on movement or access to programs and services shall be documented and justified by the chief administrative officer.

(c) If a covered juvenile poses a serious and immediate risk of physical harm to any individual, including the juvenile, before a staff member of the facility places a covered juvenile in room confinement, the staff member shall attempt to use other less restrictive options, unless attempting those options poses a threat to the safety or security of any minor or staff.

(d) If a covered juvenile is placed in room confinement because the covered juvenile poses a serious and immediate risk of physical harm to himself or herself, or to others, the covered juvenile shall be released:

(1) immediately when the covered juvenile has sufficiently gained control so as to no longer engage in behavior that threatens serious and immediate risk of physical harm to himself or herself, or to others; or

(2) no more than 24 hours after being placed in room confinement if a covered juvenile does not sufficiently gain control as described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) and poses a serious and immediate risk of physical harm to himself or herself or others, not later than:

(A) 3 hours after being placed in room confinement, in the case of a covered juvenile who poses a serious and immediate risk of physical harm to others; or

(B) 30 minutes after being placed in room confinement, in the case of a covered juvenile who poses a serious and immediate risk of physical harm only to himself or herself.

(e) If, after the applicable maximum period of confinement has expired, a covered juvenile continues to pose a serious and immediate risk of physical harm to others:

(1) the covered juvenile shall be transferred to another facility, when available, or internal location where services can be provided to the covered juvenile without relying on room confinement; or

(2) if a qualified mental health professional believes the level of crisis service needed is not currently available, a staff member of the facility shall initiate a referral to a location that can meet the needs of the covered juvenile.

(f) Each facility detaining covered juveniles shall report the use of each incident of room confinement to an independent ombudsperson for the Department of Juvenile Justice each month, including:

(1) the name of the covered juvenile;

(2) demographic data, including, at a minimum, age, race, gender, and primary language;

(3) the reason for room confinement, including how detention facility officials determined the covered juvenile posed an immediate risk of physical harm to others or to the covered juvenile him or herself;

(4) the length of room confinement;

(5) the number of covered juveniles transferred to another facility or referred referral to a separate crisis location covered under subsection (e); and

(6) the name of detention facility officials involved in each instance of room confinement.

(g) An independent ombudsperson for the Department of Juvenile Justice may review a detention facility's adherence to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-178, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-19-23.)

Section 590. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 21-101, 21-102, 21-102.5, and 21-103 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/21-101) (from Ch. 110, par. 21-101)

Sec. 21-101. Proceedings; parties.

(a) If any person who is a resident of this State and has resided in this State for 6 months desires to change his or her name and to assume another name by which to be afterwards called and known, the person may file a petition requesting that relief in the circuit court of the county wherein he or she resides.

(b) A person who has been convicted of any offense for which a person is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act, the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, or the Arsonist Registration Act in this State or any other state and who has not been pardoned is not permitted to file a petition for a name change in the courts of this State during the period that the person is required to register, unless that person verifies under oath, as provided under Section 1-109, that the petition for the name change is due to marriage, religious beliefs, status as a victim of trafficking or gender-related identity as defined by the Illinois Human Rights Act. A judge may grant or deny the request for legal name change filed by such persons. Any such persons granted a legal name change shall report the change to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of their current registration pursuant to the Duty to Report requirements specified in Section 35 of the Arsonist Registration Act, Section 20 of the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, and Section 6 of the Sex Offender Registration Act. For the purposes of this subsection, a person will not face a felony charge if the person's request for legal name change is denied without proof of perjury.

(b-1) A person who has been convicted of a felony offense in this State or any other state and whose sentence has not been completed, terminated, or discharged is not permitted to file a petition for a name change in the courts of this State unless that person is pardoned for the offense.

(c) A petitioner may include his or her spouse and adult unmarried children, with their consent, and his or her minor children where it appears to the court that it is for their best interest, in the petition and relief requested, and the court's order shall then include the spouse and children. Whenever any minor has resided in the family of any person for the space of 3 years and has been recognized and known as an adopted child in the family of that person, the application herein provided for may be made by the person having that minor in his or her family.

An order shall be entered as to a minor only if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the change is necessary to serve the best interest of the child. In determining the best interest of a minor child under this Section, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including:

(1) The wishes of the child's parents and any person acting as a parent who has physical custody of the child.

(2) The wishes of the child and the reasons for those wishes. The court may interview the child in chambers to ascertain the child's wishes with respect to the change of name. Counsel shall be present at the interview unless otherwise agreed upon by the parties. The court shall cause a court reporter to be present who shall make a complete record of the interview instantaneously to be part of the record in the case.

(3) The interaction and interrelationship of the child with his or her parents or persons acting as parents who have physical custody of the child, step-parents, siblings, step-siblings, or any other person who may significantly affect the child's best interest.

(4) The child's adjustment to his or her home, school, and community.

(d) If it appears to the court that the conditions and requirements under this Article have been complied with and that there is no reason why the relief requested should not be granted, the court, by an order to be entered of record, may direct and provide that the name of that person be changed in accordance with the relief requested in the petition. If the circuit court orders that a name change be granted to a person who has been adjudicated or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor offense under the laws of this State or any other state for which a pardon has not been granted, or has an arrest for which a charge has not been filed or a pending charge on a felony or misdemeanor offense, a copy of the order, including a copy of each applicable access and review response, shall be forwarded to the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police shall update any criminal history transcript or offender registration of each person 18 years of age or older in the order to include the change of name as well as his or her former name.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1133, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(735 ILCS 5/21-102) (from Ch. 110, par. 21-102)

Sec. 21-102. Petition; update criminal history transcript.

(a) The petition shall be a statewide standardized form approved by the Illinois Supreme Court and shall set forth the name then held, the name sought to be assumed, the residence of the petitioner, the length of time the petitioner has resided in this State, and the state or country of the petitioner's nativity or supposed nativity. The petition shall include a statement, verified under oath as provided under Section 1-109 of this Code, whether or not the petitioner or any other person 18 years of age or older who will be subject to a change of name under the petition if granted: (1) has been adjudicated or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor offense under the laws of this State or any other state for which a pardon has not been granted; or (2) has an arrest for which a charge has not been filed or a pending charge on a felony or misdemeanor offense. The petition shall be signed by the person petitioning or, in case of minors, by the parent or guardian having the legal custody of the minor.

(b) If the statement provided under subsection (a) of this Section indicates the petitioner or any other person 18 years of age or older who will be subject to a change of name under the petition, if granted, has been adjudicated or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor offense under the laws of this State or any other state for which a pardon has not been granted, or has an arrest for which a charge has not been filed or a pending charge on a felony or misdemeanor offense, the State's Attorney may request the court to or the court may on its own motion, require the person, prior to a hearing on the petition, to initiate an update of his or her criminal history transcript with the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police Department shall allow a person to use the Access and Review process, established by rule in the Illinois State Police Department, for this purpose. Upon completion of the update of the criminal history transcript, the petitioner shall file confirmation of each update with the court, which shall seal the records from disclosure outside of court proceedings on the petition.

(c) Any petition filed under subsection (a) shall include the following: "WARNING: If you are required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act, the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, or the Arsonist Registration Act in this State or a similar law in any other state and have not been pardoned, you will be committing a felony under those respective Acts by seeking a change of name during the registration period UNLESS your request for legal name change is due to marriage, religious beliefs, status as a victim of trafficking or gender related identity as defined by the Illinois Human Rights Act.".

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1133, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

(735 ILCS 5/21-102.5)

Sec. 21-102.5. Notice; objection.

(a) The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition on the State's Attorney and the Illinois State Police if the statement provided under subsection (a) of Section 21-102 indicates that the petitioner, or any other person 18 years of age or older who will be subject to a change of name under the petition, has been adjudicated or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor offense under the laws of this State or any other state for which a pardon has not been granted, or has an arrest for which a charge has not been filed or a pending charge on a felony or misdemeanor offense.

(b) The State's Attorney may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, shall be served upon the petitioner, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Objections to a petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of service of the petition upon the State's Attorney if the petitioner:

(1) is the defendant in a pending criminal offense charge; or

(2) has been convicted of identity theft, aggravated identity theft, felony or misdemeanor criminal sexual abuse when the victim of the offense at the time of its commission is under 18 years of age, felony or misdemeanor sexual exploitation of a child, felony or misdemeanor indecent solicitation of a child, or felony or misdemeanor indecent solicitation of an adult, and has not been pardoned for the conviction.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1133, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23)

(735 ILCS 5/21-103)

Sec. 21-103. Notice by publication.

(a) Previous notice shall be given of the intended application by publishing a notice thereof in some newspaper published in the municipality in which the person resides if the municipality is in a county with a population under 2,000,000, or if the person does not reside in a municipality in a county with a population under 2,000,000, or if no newspaper is published in the municipality or if the person resides in a county with a population of 2,000,000 or more, then in some newspaper published in the county where the person resides, or if no newspaper is published in that county, then in some convenient newspaper published in this State. The notice shall be inserted for 3 consecutive weeks after filing, the first insertion to be at least 6 weeks before the return day upon which the petition is to be heard, and shall be signed by the petitioner or, in case of a minor, the minor's parent or guardian, and shall set forth the return day of court on which the petition is to be heard and the name sought to be assumed.

(b) The publication requirement of subsection (a) shall not be required in any application for a change of name involving a minor if, before making judgment under this Article, reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard is given to any parent whose parental rights have not been previously terminated and to any person who has physical custody of the child. If any of these persons are outside this State, notice and opportunity to be heard shall be given under Section 21-104.

(b-3) The publication requirement of subsection (a) shall not be required in any application for a change of name involving a person who has received a judgment of for dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage and wishes to change his or her name to resume the use of his or her former or maiden name.

(b-5) The court may issue an order directing that the notice and publication requirement be waived for a change of name involving a person who files with the court a statement, verified under oath as provided under Section 1-109 of this Code, that the person believes that publishing notice of the name change would be a hardship, including, but not limited to, a negative impact on the person's health or safety.

(b-6) In a case where waiver of the notice and publication requirement is sought, the petition for waiver is presumed granted and heard at the same hearing as the petition for name change. The court retains discretion to determine whether a hardship is shown and may order the petitioner to publish thereafter.

(c) The Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designee may apply to the circuit court for an order directing that the notice and publication requirements of this Section be waived if the Director or his or her designee certifies that the name change being sought is intended to protect a witness during and following a criminal investigation or proceeding.

(c-1) The court may also enter a written order waiving the publication requirement of subsection (a) if:

(i) the petitioner is 18 years of age or older; and

(ii) concurrent with the petition, the petitioner files with the court a statement, verified under oath as provided under Section 1-109 of this Code, attesting that the petitioner is or has been a person protected under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, the Stalking No Contact Order Act, the Civil No Contact Order Act, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, a condition of pretrial release under subsections (b) through (d) of Section 110-10 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or a similar provision of a law in another state or jurisdiction.

The petitioner may attach to the statement any supporting documents, including relevant court orders.

(c-2) If the petitioner files a statement attesting that disclosure of the petitioner's address would put the petitioner or any member of the petitioner's family or household at risk or reveal the confidential address of a shelter for domestic violence victims, that address may be omitted from all documents filed with the court, and the petitioner may designate an alternative address for service.

(c-3) Court administrators may allow domestic abuse advocates, rape crisis advocates, and victim advocates to assist petitioners in the preparation of name changes under subsection (c-1).

(c-4) If the publication requirements of subsection (a) have been waived, the circuit court shall enter an order impounding the case.

(d) The maximum rate charged for publication of a notice under this Section may not exceed the lowest classified rate paid by commercial users for comparable space in the newspaper in which the notice appears and shall include all cash discounts, multiple insertion discounts, and similar benefits extended to the newspaper's regular customers.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-203, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1133, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 595. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 25-5-105 as follows:

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-105)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on May 31, 2025)

Sec. 25-5-105. Quick-take; Menard County; Athens Blacktop.

(a) Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of one year after May 31, 2025 (the effective date of Public Act 103-3) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly by Menard County for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of reconstructing the Athens Blacktop corridor.

Route: FAS 574/Athens Blacktop Road

County: Menard

Parcel No.: D-18

P.I.N. No.: 12-28-400-006

Section: 09-00056-05-EG

Station: RT 181+94.77

Station: RT 188+48.97

A part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 28, Township 18 North, Range 6 West of the Third Principal Meridian, described as follows:

Commencing at the Northeast corner of the Southeast Quarter of said Section 28; thence South 89 degrees 42 minutes 06 seconds West along the north line of the Southeast Quarter of said Section 28, a distance of 669.81 feet to the northeast parcel corner and the point of beginning; thence South 02 degrees 24 minutes 13 seconds East along the east parcel line, 80.48 feet; thence South 72 degrees 55 minutes 03 seconds West, 103.39 feet; thence South 89 degrees 43 minutes 40 seconds West, 150.00 feet; thence North 86 degrees 08 minutes 49 seconds West, 405.10 feet to the west parcel line; thence North 01 degree 06 minutes 28 seconds West along said line, 80.89 feet to the north line of the Southeast Quarter of said Section 28; thence North 89 degrees 42 minutes 06 seconds East along said line, 651.20 feet to the point of beginning, containing 0.860 acres, more or less of new right of way and 0.621 acres, more or less of existing right of way.

Route: FAS 574/Athens Blacktop Road

County: Menard

Parcel No.: D-19

P.I.N. No.: 12-28-400-007

Section: 09-00056-05-EG

Station: RT 188+46.59

Station: RT 191+17.37

A part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 28, Township 18 North, Range 6 West of the Third Principal Meridian, described as follows:

Commencing at the Northeast corner of the Southeast Quarter of said Section 28; thence South 89 degrees 42 minutes 06 seconds West along the north line of the Southeast Quarter of said Section 28, a distance of 399.89 feet to the northeast parcel corner and the point of beginning; thence South 01 degree 10 minutes 54 seconds East along the east parcel line, 92.67 feet; thence South 80 degrees 35 minutes 32 seconds West, 17.59 feet; thence South 89 degrees 43 minutes 40 seconds West, 75.00 feet; thence North 00 degrees 16 minutes 20 seconds West, 45.45 feet to the existing southerly right of way line of Athens Blacktop Road (FAS 574); thence South 89 degrees 42 minutes 25 seconds West along said line, 75.00 feet; thence South 72 degrees 55 minutes 03 seconds West, 105.54 feet to the west parcel line; thence North 02 degrees 24 minutes 13 seconds West along said line, 80.48 feet to the north line of the Southeast Quarter of said Section 28; thence North 89 degrees 42 minutes 06 seconds East along said line, 269.92 feet to the point of beginning, containing 0.137 acres, more or less of new right of way and 0.303 acres, more or less of existing right of way.

(b) This Section is repealed May 31, 2025 (2 years after the effective date of Public Act 103-3) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-3, eff. 5-31-23; revised 7-27-23.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-107)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 9, 2026)

Sec. 25-5-107 25-5-105. Quick-take; Will County; Cedar Road; Francis Road.

(a) Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of 2 years after June 9, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-10) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly by Will County for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of road construction:

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0001 Station: 109+23.08 to 110+04.95 Index No.: 15-08-09-406-002 THAT PART OF LOT 1 IN WILMSEN'S SUBDIVISION OF LOTS 1 AND 8 OF ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S ADDITION TO NEW LENOX, A SUBDIVISION OF PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, AND PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 16, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 10, 1948 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 642528, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 1; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID LOT 1, ALSO BEING THE WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, BEING A LINE 33.00 FEET WEST OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE EAST LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER, 81.87 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 88 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 18 SECONDS WEST, 5.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 5.00 FEET WEST OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, 48.67 FEET; THENCE NORTH 46 DEGREES 55 MINUTES 15 SECONDS WEST, 39.62 FEET TO THE NORTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 1, ALSO BEING THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD AS MONUMENTED AND OCCUPIED; THENCE NORTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 33.65 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.020 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0001TE-A Station: 208+19.76 to 210+13.46 Index No.:15-08-09-406-001 15-08-09-406-002 THAT PART OF LOTS 1 AND 2 IN WILMSEN'S SUBDIVISION OF LOTS 1 AND 8 OF ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S ADDITION TO NEW LENOX, A SUBDIVISION OF PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, AND PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 16, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 10, 1948 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 642528, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 1; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG THE NORTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 1, ALSO BEING THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD AS MONUMENTED AND OCCUPIED, 33.65 FEET FOR THE PLACE OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 46 DEGREES 55 MINUTES 15 SECONDS EAST, 6.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 5.00 FEET SOUTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 71.83 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 10 DEGREES 42 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST, 10.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 15.00 FEET SOUTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 33.19 FEET; THENCE NORTH 10 DEGREES 42 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST, 10.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 5.00 FEET SOUTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 88.67 FEET TO THE WEST LINE OF SAID LOT 2; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WEST LINE OF LOT 2, A DISTANCE OF 5.07 FEET TO THE NORTHWEST CORNER THEREOF; THENCE NORTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 189.22 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.030 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0001TE-B Station: 107+04.56 to 109+76.68 Index No.: 15-08-09-406-002 15-08-09-406-003 15-08-09-406-004 THAT PART OF LOTS 1, 3 AND 4 IN WILMSEN'S SUBDIVISION OF LOTS 1 AND 8 OF ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S ADDITION TO NEW LENOX, A SUBDIVISION OF PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, AND PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 16, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 10, 1948 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 642528, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 1; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID LOT 1, ALSO BEING THE WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, BEING A LINE 33.00 FEET WEST OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE EAST LINE OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 9, A DISTANCE OF 81.87 FEET FOR THE PLACE OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, 218.52 FEET TO THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID LOT 4; THENCE SOUTH 88 DEGREES 55 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, 10.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 10.00 FEET WEST OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, 272.05 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 46 DEGREES 55 MINUTES 15 SECONDS EAST, 7.02 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG A LINE 5.00 FEET WEST OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, 48.67 FEET; THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 18 SECONDS EAST, 5.00 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.056 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0002 Station: 110+78.28 to 111+36.28 Index No.: 15-08-09-402-027 THAT PART OF LOT 1 IN SHELDON HAUCKS' SUBDIVISION, BEING A SUBDIVISION OF PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 30, 1955 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 778985, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959; DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 1; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID LOT 1, ALSO BEING THE NORTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD AS MONUMENTED AND OCCUPIED, A DISTANCE OF 50.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 38 DEGREES 53 MINUTES 10 SECONDS EAST, 76.16 FEET TO THE EAST LINE OF SAID LOT 1, ALSO BEING THE WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, BEING A LINE 50 FEET WEST OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE EAST LINE OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 9; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, 50.00 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.028 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0002TE-A Station: 209+19.56 to 210+01.42 Index No.: 15-08-09-402-027 THAT PART OF LOT 1 IN SHELDON HAUCKS' SUBDIVISION, BEING A SUBDIVISION OF PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 30, 1955 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 778985, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959; DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 1; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID LOT 1, ALSO BEING THE NORTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD AS MONUMENTED AND OCCUPIED, A DISTANCE OF 50.00 FEET FOR THE PLACE OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE OF LOT 1, A DISTANCE OF 70.11 FEET; THENCE NORTH 10 DEGREES 42 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST, 10.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS EAST ALONG A LINE 10.00 FEET NORTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID SOUTH LINE OF LOT 1, A DISTANCE OF 81.86 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 38 DEGREES 53 MINUTES 10 SECONDS WEST, 15.43 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.017 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0002TE-B Station: 111+24.53 to 111+97.97 Index No.: 15-08-09-402-027 THAT PART OF LOT 1 IN SHELDON HAUCKS' SUBDIVISION, BEING A SUBDIVISION OF PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 30, 1955 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 778985, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959; DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 1; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID LOT 1, ALSO BEING THE WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, BEING A LINE 50 FEET WEST OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE EAST LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 50.00 FEET FOR THE PLACE OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 38 DEGREES 53 MINUTES 10 SECONDS WEST, 15.43 FEET; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 10.00 FEET WEST OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, A DISTANCE OF 73.44 FEET; THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 18 SECONDS EAST, 10.00 FEET TO SAID WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WEST LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, A DISTANCE OF 61.69 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.015 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0003 Station: 110+82.35 to 111+62.35 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-040 THAT PART OF LOT 9 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID LOT 9, BEING ALSO THE EAST RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, 80.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 26 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 36 SECONDS EAST, 82.17 FEET TO THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID LOT 9, BEING ALSO THE NORTH RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE OF LOT 9, A DISTANCE OF 35.00 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.032 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0003PE Station: 111+51.57 to 114+33.66 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-040 THAT PART OF LOTS 8 AND 9, IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID LOT 9, BEING ALSO THE EAST RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, 80.00 FEET FOR THE PLACE OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WEST LINES OF LOT 9 AND LOT 8, A DISTANCE OF 271.27 FEET TO THE SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH 100 FEET OF SAID LOT 8; THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 19 MINUTES 08 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, 17.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST, 7.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 88 DEGREES 19 MINUTES 08 SECONDS WEST, 12.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG A LINE 5.00 FEET EAST OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE WEST LINE OF SAID LOT 9, A DISTANCE OF 275.06 FEET; THENCE NORTH 26 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 36 SECONDS WEST, 11.88 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.034 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0003TE Station: 110+87.81 to 114+26.66 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-040 THAT PART OF LOTS 8 AND 9, IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID LOT 9, BEING ALSO THE EAST RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, 80.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 26 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 36 SECONDS EAST, 11.88 FEET FOR THE PLACE OF BEGINNING; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 5.00 FEET EAST OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID WEST LINES OF LOT 9 AND LOT 8, A DISTANCE OF 275.06 FEET; THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 19 MINUTES 08 SECONDS EAST, 12.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG A LINE 17.00 FEET EAST OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE WEST LINE OF SAID LOT 9, A DISTANCE OF 257.47 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 26 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 36 SECONDS EAST, 76.04 FEET; THENCE NORTH 79 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST ALONG A LINE 10.00 FEET NORTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID LOT 9, BEING ALSO THE NORTH RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 198.02 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 02 DEGREE 14 MINUTES 14 SECONDS EAST, 10.10 FEET TO SAID SOUTH LINE OF LOT 9; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE OF LOT 9, A DISTANCE OF 212.75 FEET; THENCE NORTH 26 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 36 SECONDS WEST, 70.28 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.151 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0004 Station: 213+68.59 to 214+69.31 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-037 THE SOUTH 5.00 FEET OF THAT PART OF LOT 9 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEASTERLY CORNER OF SAID LOT 9 AND RUNNING SOUTHWESTERLY ALONG THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9, 311.53 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE NORTH 175 FEET, THENCE SOUTHWESTERLY ON A LINE PARALLEL WITH THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9, 100 FEET, THENCE SOUTH 175 FEET TO THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9, THENCE NORTHEASTERLY ALONG THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9, 100 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.011 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0005 Station: 214+68.59 to 215+00.84 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-047 THE SOUTHERLY 5 FEET (MEASURING 31.53 FEET) OF LOT 9 OF THAT PART OF LOTS 8 AND 9 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 8; THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID LOTS 8 AND 9 TO A POINT 175 FEET NORTH OF THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE SOUTHWESTERLY 280 FEET PARALLEL WITH THE SOUTHWESTERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE SOUTH 175 FEET PARALLEL WITH SAID EAST LINE TO THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE SOUTHWESTERLY 31.53 FEET ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY LINE; THENCE NORTH 175 FEET PARALLEL WITH SAID EAST LINE; THENCE SOUTHWESTERLY 100 FEET PARALLEL WITH SAID SOUTHERLY LINE; THENCE NORTH PARALLEL WITH SAID EAST LINE TO A POINT 100 FEET SOUTH OF THE NORTH LINE OF SAID LOT 8; THENCE WEST PARALLEL WITH SAID NORTH LINE TO A POINT 175 FEET EAST OF THE WEST LINE OF SAID LOT 8; THENCE NORTH 100 FEET PARALLEL WITH SAID WEST LINE TO THE NORTH LINE OF SAID LOT 8; THENCE EAST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.004 ACRES (158 SQUARE FEET), MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0005TE Station: 214+69.31 to 215+02.29 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-047 THE NORTHERLY 10 FEET OF THE SOUTHERLY 15 FEET (MEASURING 31.53 FEET) OF LOT 9 OF THAT PART OF LOTS 8 AND 9 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 8; THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID LOTS 8 AND 9 TO A POINT 175 FEET NORTH OF THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE SOUTHWESTERLY 280 FEET PARALLEL WITH THE SOUTHWESTERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE SOUTH 175 FEET PARALLEL WITH SAID EAST LINE TO THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE SOUTHWESTERLY 31.53 FEET ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY LINE; THENCE NORTH 175 FEET PARALLEL WITH SAID EAST LINE; THENCE SOUTHWESTERLY 100 FEET PARALLEL WITH SAID SOUTHERLY LINE; THENCE NORTH PARALLEL WITH SAID EAST LINE TO A POINT 100 FEET SOUTH OF THE NORTH LINE OF SAID LOT 8; THENCE WEST PARALLEL WITH SAID NORTH LINE TO A POINT 175 FEET EAST OF THE WEST LINE OF SAID LOT 8; THENCE NORTH 100 FEET PARALLEL WITH SAID WEST LINE TO THE NORTH LINE OF SAID LOT 8; THENCE EAST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.007 ACRES (315 SQUARE FEET), MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 06-30-2022

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0006 Station: 215+80.12 to 216+71.09 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-014 THE SOUTH 5.00 FEET OF THAT PART OF LOT 9 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING 110 FEET WESTERLY OF THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF LOT 9 ON THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE CONTINUING WESTERLY ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY LINE 90 FEET; THENCE NORTH 175 FEET TO A POINT; THENCE EASTERLY ALONG A LINE PARALLEL TO SAID SOUTHERLY LINE 90 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 175 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.010 ACRES (451 SQUARE FEET), MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 06-30-2022

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0006TE Station: 215+80.84 to 216+15.15 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-014 THAT PART OF LOT 9 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING 200 FEET WESTERLY OF THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 9 ON THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9, SAID SOUTHERLY LINE BEARING SOUTH 79 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST; THENCE NORTH 02 DEGREES 14 MINUTES 14 SECONDS WEST, 5.05 FEET FOR THE PLACE OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING NORTH 02 DEGREES 14 MINUTES 14 SECONDS WEST, 10.10 FEET; THENCE NORTH 79 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST ALONG A LINE 15.00 FEET NORTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF LOT 9, A DISTANCE OF 32.85 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 10 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 03 SECONDS EAST, 10.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST ALONG A LINE 5.00 FEET NORTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF LOT 9, A DISTANCE OF 34.30 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.008 ACRES (336 SQUARE FEET), MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0007 Station: 216+70.37 to 217+81.42 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-038 THE SOUTH 5.00 FEET OF THAT PART OF LOT 9 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF LOT 9; THENCE NORTH ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID LOT 9, A DISTANCE OF 175 FEET; THENCE WESTERLY 110 FEET ON A LINE PARALLEL WITH THE SOUTH LINE OF LOT 9 TO A POINT; THENCE SOUTH 175 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9 THAT IS 110 FEET WESTERLY OF THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE EASTERLY 110 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.013 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 06-30-2022

Route: C.H.64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0008 Station: 217+80.66 to 218+48.30 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-044 THAT PART OF LOT 32 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF SAID LOT 32; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID LOT 32, A DISTANCE OF 5.06 FEET; THENCE NORTH 79 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST ALONG A LINE 5.00 FEET NORTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID LOT 32, A DISTANCE OF 66.85 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 34 MINUTES 09 SECONDS EAST, 5.06 FEET TO THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID LOT 32; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE OF LOT 32, ALSO BEING THE NORTH RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 66.85 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.008 ACRES (334 SQUARE FEET), MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H.64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0009 Station: 218+47.52 to 218+96.30 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-022 THE SOUTH 5.00 FEET OF THAT PART OF LOT 32 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: THE WEST 112.25 FEET, EXCEPT THE NORTH 300 FEET AND EXCEPT THE WEST 62.25 FEET THEREOF, OF SAID LOT 32. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.006 ACRES (240 SQUARE FEET), MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0010 Station: 123+28.62 to 126+13.30 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-060 THAT PART OF LOTS 1 AND 2 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH'S NEW LENOX ACRES, BEING A SUBDIVISION OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 10 AND PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF SAID LOT 1; THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 19 MINUTES 08 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID LOT 1, ALSO BEING THE SOUTH RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF LENOX STREET, A DISTANCE OF 50.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 43 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 13 SECONDS WEST, 46.74 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG A LINE 17.00 FEET EAST OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE WEST LINES OF SAID LOTS 1 AND 2, ALSO BEING THE EAST RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF CEDAR ROAD, A DISTANCE OF 251.69 FEET TO THE SOUTH LINE OF LOT 2; THENCE SOUTH 88 DEGREES 19 MINUTES 08 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, 17.00 FEET TO THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF SAID LOT 2; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WEST LINES OF LOTS 1 AND 2, ALSO BEING SAID RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE, 284.69 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.124 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0012 Station: 123+15.53 to 126+46.31 Index No.: 15-08-09-400-002 THAT PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959; DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER, 330.77 FEET TO THE SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE SOUTH 88 DEGREES 39 MINUTES 31 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER, 55.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 55.00 FEET WEST OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE EAST LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER, 165.39 FEET; THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 39 MINUTES 31 SECONDS EAST PARALLEL WITH SAID SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER, 22.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 33.00 FEET WEST OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE EAST LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER, 165.37 FEET TO THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 37 MINUTES 32 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER, 33.00 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.333 ACRES, MORE OR LESS, OF WHICH 0.250 ACRES, MORE OR LESS, WAS PREVIOUSLY USED FOR ROADWAY PURPOSES. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022 REVISION DATE: 06-30-2022

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0012TE Station: 124+80.92 to 126+46.32 Index No.: 15-08-09-400-002 THAT PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959; DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: THE WEST 5.00 FEET OF THE EAST 38.00 FEET OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE NORTH HALF OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER (EXCEPT THE SOUTH 165.39 FEET THEREOF), IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.019 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0013TE Station: 122+32.87 to 123+15.61 Index No.: 15-08-09-400-003 THAT PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959; DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: THE WEST 10.00 FEET OF THE EAST 43.00 FEET OF THE NORTH QUARTER OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTH HALF OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.019 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0014TE Station: 121+69.62 to 123+28.62 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-061 THE WEST 5.00 FEET OF LOT 3 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH'S NEW LENOX ACRES, BEING A SUBDIVISION OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 10 AND PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.018 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0015TE Station: 121+50.19 to 122+32.94 Index No.: 15-08-09-400-004 THAT PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959; DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: THE NORTH 31.00 FEET OF THE WEST 25.00 FEET OF THE EAST 58.00 FEET TOGETHER WITH THE WEST 5.00 FEET OF THE EAST 38.00 FEET (EXCEPT THE NORTH 31.00 FEET THEREOF) OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTH HALF OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.024 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0016TE Station: 120+10.63 to 121+69.62 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-058 THE WEST 5.00 FEET OF LOT 4 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH'S NEW LENOX ACRES, BEING A SUBDIVISION OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 10 AND PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.018 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0017TE Station: 118+51.61 to 120+10.61 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-057 15-08-10-300-006 THE WEST 5.00 FEET OF LOT 5 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH'S NEW LENOX ACRES, BEING A SUBDIVISION OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 10 AND PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.018 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0018TE Station: 116+92.61 to 118+51.63 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-007 THE WEST 5.00 FEET OF LOT 6 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH'S NEW LENOX ACRES, BEING A SUBDIVISION OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 10 AND PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.018 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0019TE Station: 118+89.42 to 119+84.84 Index No.: 15-08-09-400-013 THAT PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959; DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: THE NORTH 44.00 FEET OF THE WEST 20.00 FEET OF THE EAST 53.00 FEET TOGETHER WITH THE WEST 7.00 FEET OF THE EAST 40.00 FEET (EXCEPT THE NORTH 44.00 FEET THEREOF) OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE SOUTH HALF OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.028 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0020TE Station: 116+54.05 to 118+89.42 Index No.: 15-08-09-400-010 15-08-09-400-011 THAT PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959; DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: THE WEST 7.00 FEET OF THE EAST 40.00 FEET OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 9; TOGETHER WITH THE WEST 7.00 FEET OF THE EAST 40.00 FEET OF THE SOUTH 70 FEET OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE NORTH HALF OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 9, ALL IN TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.038 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0021PE Station: 114+33.61 to 114+36.66 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-011 THE SOUTH 3 FEET OF THE WEST 17 FEET OF THE NORTH 100 FEET OF THE WEST 175 FEET OF LOT 8, IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH'S NEW LENOX ACRES, BEING A SUBDIVISION OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 10 AND PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.001 ACRES (51 SQUARE FEET), MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H.4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0021TE Station: 114+36.61 to 115+33.63 Index No.: 15-08-10-300-011 THE WEST 5.00 FEET OF THE NORTH 97 FEET OF THE WEST 175 FEET OF LOT 8, IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH'S NEW LENOX ACRES, BEING A SUBDIVISION OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 10 AND PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959 SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.011 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0022TE Station: 202+31.49 to 203+55.08 Index No.: 15-08-09-405-002 THE NORTHERLY 5.00 FEET OF LOT 14 IN WILMSEN'S SUBDIVISION OF LOTS 1 AND 8 OF ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S ADDITION TO NEW LENOX, A SUBDIVISION OF PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, AND PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 16, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 10, 1948 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 642528, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.014 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0023TE Station: 203+54.27 to 204+77.86 Index No.: 15-08-09-405-003 THE NORTHERLY 10.00 FEET OF LOT 12 IN WILMSEN'S SUBDIVISION OF LOTS 1 AND 8 OF ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S ADDITION TO NEW LENOX, A SUBDIVISION OF PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, AND PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 16, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 10, 1948 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 642528, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.028 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0024TE Station: 204+77.86 to 206+00.14 Index No.: 15-08-09-405-004 THE NORTHERLY 10.00 FEET OF LOT 10 IN WILMSEN'S SUBDIVISION OF LOTS 1 AND 8 OF ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S ADDITION TO NEW LENOX, A SUBDIVISION OF PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, AND PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 16, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 10, 1948 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 642528, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.028 ACRES, MORE OR LESS.

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0025TE Station: 206+00.14 to 207+53.71 Index No.: 15-08-09-405-009 THAT PART OF LOT 9 IN WILMSEN'S SUBDIVISION OF LOTS 1 AND 8 OF ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S ADDITION TO NEW LENOX, A SUBDIVISION OF PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 9, AND PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 16, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 10, 1948 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 642528, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT), WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959; DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID LOT 9, A DISTANCE OF 10.13 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 10.00 FEET SOUTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE NORTHERLY LINE OF SAID LOT 9, ALSO BEING THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 64.43 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 10 DEGREES 42 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST, 5.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 15.00 FEET SOUTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 25.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 10 DEGREES 42 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST, 5.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG A LINE 10.00 FEET SOUTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 62.53 FEET TO THE WEST LINE OF SAID LOT 9; THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WEST LINE, 10.13 FEET TO SAID NORTHERLY LINE OF LOT 9, ALSO BEING SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD; THENCE NORTH 79 DEGREES 17 MINUTES 03 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF FRANCIS ROAD, 151.96 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.038 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H. 4 Cedar Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0026TE Station: 107+73.63 to 108+08.64 Index No.: 15-08-10-301-0073 THE NORTH 35 FEET OF THE SOUTH 55.25 FEET OF LOT 11 (EXCEPT THE WEST 17 FEET THEREOF) IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.004 ACRES (175 SQUARE FEET), MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0027TE Station: 216+52.49 to 217+35.06 Index No.: 15-08-10-301-005 THE NORTHERLY 10.00 FEET OF THE EAST 80 FEET OF THE WEST 617 FEET OF LOT 10 IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.018 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0028TE Station: 217+33.45 to 218+43.47 Index No.: 15-08-10-301-067 THE NORTHERLY 10.00 FEET OF THE EAST 34.75 FEET OF LOT 10 AND LOT 35 (EXCEPT THE EAST 270.03 FEET THEREOF) IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.025 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022

Route: C.H. 64 Francis Road Section: 20-00051-09-CH County: Will Parcel No: IL T0029TE Station: 218+41.89 to 218+83.97 Index No.: 15-08-10-301-068 THE NORTHERLY 10.00 FEET OF THE WEST 40.00 FEET OF THE EAST 270.00 FEET OF LOT 35, AS MEASURED ALONG THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID LOT 35, IN ARTHUR T. MCINTOSH AND COMPANY'S NEW LENOX ACRES, A SUBDIVISION IN SECTIONS 10 AND 15, TOWNSHIP 35 NORTH, AND RANGE 11 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED JULY 16, 1927 AS DOCUMENT 408969, IN WILL COUNTY, ILLINOIS, BEARINGS AND DISTANCES BASED ON THE ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATE SYSTEM, EAST ZONE, NAD83 (2011 ADJUSTMENT) WITH A COMBINED FACTOR OF 0.9999586959. SAID PARCEL CONTAINING 0.009 ACRES (405 SQUARE FEET), MORE OR LESS. REVISION DATE: 05-26-2022 REVISION DATE: 06-30-2022

(b) This Section is repealed on June 9, 2026 (3 years after the effective date of Public Act 103-10) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-10, eff. 6-9-23; revised 7-27-23.)

Section 600. The Illinois False Claims Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(740 ILCS 175/6) (from Ch. 127, par. 4106)

Sec. 6. Subpoenas.

(a) In general.

(1) Issuance and service. Whenever the Attorney General has reason to believe that any person may be in possession, custody, or control of any documentary material or information relevant to an investigation, the Attorney General may, before commencing a civil proceeding under this Act or making an election under paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of Section 4, issue in writing and cause to be served upon such person, a subpoena requiring such person:

(A) to produce such documentary material for inspection and copying,

(B) to answer, in writing, written interrogatories with respect to such documentary material or information,

(C) to give oral testimony concerning such documentary material or information, or

(D) to furnish any combination of such material, answers, or testimony.

The Attorney General may issue subpoenas under this subsection (a). Whenever a subpoena is an express demand for any product of discovery, the Attorney General shall cause to be served, in any manner authorized by this Section, a copy of such demand upon the person from whom the discovery was obtained and shall notify the person to whom such demand is issued of the date on which such copy was served. Any information obtained by the Attorney General under this Section may be shared with any qui tam relator if the Attorney General determines it necessary as part of any Illinois False Claims Act investigation.

(1.5) Where a subpoena requires the production of documentary material, the respondent shall produce the original of the documentary material, provided, however, that the Attorney General may agree that copies may be substituted for the originals. All documentary material kept or stored in electronic form, including electronic mail, shall be produced in native format, as kept in the normal course of business, or as otherwise directed by the Attorney General. The production of documentary material shall be made at the respondent's expense.

(2) Contents and deadlines. Each subpoena issued under paragraph (1):

(A) Shall state the nature of the conduct constituting an alleged violation that is under investigation and the applicable provision of law alleged to be violated.

(B) Shall identify the individual causing the subpoena to be served and to whom communications regarding the subpoena should be directed.

(C) Shall state the date, place, and time at which the person is required to appear, produce written answers to interrogatories, produce documentary material or give oral testimony. The date shall not be less than 10 days from the date of service of the subpoena. Compliance with the subpoena shall be at the Office of the Attorney General in either the Springfield or Chicago location or at other location by agreement.

(D) If the subpoena is for documentary material or interrogatories, shall describe the documents or information requested with specificity.

(E) Shall notify the person of the right to be assisted by counsel.

(F) Shall advise that the person has 20 days from the date of service or up until the return date specified in the demand, whichever date is earlier, to move, modify, or set aside the subpoena pursuant to subparagraph (j)(2)(A) of this Section.

(b) Protected material or information.

(1) In general. A subpoena issued under subsection (a) may not require the production of any documentary material, the submission of any answers to written interrogatories, or the giving of any oral testimony if such material, answers, or testimony would be protected from disclosure under:

(A) the standards applicable to subpoenas or subpoenas duces tecum issued by a court of this State to aid in a grand jury investigation; or

(B) the standards applicable to discovery requests under the Code of Civil Procedure, to the extent that the application of such standards to any such subpoena is appropriate and consistent with the provisions and purposes of this Section.

(2) Effect on other orders, rules, and laws. Any such subpoena which is an express demand for any product of discovery supersedes any inconsistent order, rule, or provision of law (other than this Section) preventing or restraining disclosure of such product of discovery to any person. Disclosure of any product of discovery pursuant to any such subpoena does not constitute a waiver of any right or privilege which the person making such disclosure may be entitled to invoke to resist discovery of trial preparation materials.

(c) Service in general. Any subpoena issued under subsection (a) may be served by any person so authorized by the Attorney General or by any person authorized to serve process on individuals within Illinois, through any method prescribed in the Code of Civil Procedure or as otherwise set forth in this Act.

(d) Service upon legal entities and natural persons.

(1) Legal entities. Service of any subpoena issued under subsection (a) or of any petition filed under subsection (j) may be made upon a partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity by:

(A) delivering an executed copy of such subpoena or petition to any partner, executive officer, managing agent, general agent, or registered agent of the partnership, corporation, association, or entity;

(B) delivering an executed copy of such subpoena or petition to the principal office or place of business of the partnership, corporation, association, or entity; or

(C) depositing an executed copy of such subpoena or petition in the United States mails by registered or certified mail, with a return receipt requested, addressed to such partnership, corporation, association, or entity as its principal office or place of business.

(2) Natural person. Service of any such subpoena or petition may be made upon any natural person by:

(A) delivering an executed copy of such subpoena or petition to the person; or

(B) depositing an executed copy of such subpoena or petition in the United States mails by registered or certified mail, with a return receipt requested, addressed to the person at the person's residence or principal office or place of business.

(e) Proof of service. A verified return by the individual serving any subpoena issued under subsection (a) or any petition filed under subsection (j) setting forth the manner of such service shall be proof of such service. In the case of service by registered or certified mail, such return shall be accompanied by the return post office receipt of delivery of such subpoena.

(f) Documentary material.

(1) Sworn certificates. The production of documentary material in response to a subpoena served under this Section shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the subpoena designates, by:

(A) in the case of a natural person, the person to whom the subpoena is directed, or

(B) in the case of a person other than a natural person, a person having knowledge of the facts and circumstances relating to such production and authorized to act on behalf of such person.

The certificate shall state that all of the documentary material required by the demand and in the possession, custody, or control of the person to whom the subpoena is directed has been produced and made available to the Attorney General.

(2) Production of materials. Any person upon whom any subpoena for the production of documentary material has been served under this Section shall make such material available for inspection and copying to the Attorney General at the place designated in the subpoena, or at such other place as the Attorney General and the person thereafter may agree and prescribe in writing, or as the court may direct under subsection (j)(1). Such material shall be made so available on the return date specified in such subpoena, or on such later date as the Attorney General may prescribe in writing. Such person may, upon written agreement between the person and the Attorney General, substitute copies for originals of all or any part of such material.

(g) Interrogatories. Each interrogatory in a subpoena served under this Section shall be answered separately and fully in writing under oath and shall be submitted under a sworn certificate, in such form as the subpoena designates by:

(1) in the case of a natural person, the person to whom the subpoena is directed, or

(2) in the case of a person other than a natural person, the person or persons responsible for answering each interrogatory. If any interrogatory is objected to, the reasons for the objection shall be stated in the certificate instead of an answer. The certificate shall state that all information required by the subpoena and in the possession, custody, control, or knowledge of the person to whom the demand is directed has been submitted. To the extent that any information is not furnished, the information shall be identified and reasons set forth with particularity regarding the reasons why the information was not furnished.

(h) Oral examinations.

(1) Procedures. The examination of any person pursuant to a subpoena for oral testimony served under this Section shall be taken before an officer authorized to administer oaths and affirmations by the laws of this State or of the place where the examination is held. The officer before whom the testimony is to be taken shall put the witness on oath or affirmation and shall, personally or by someone acting under the direction of the officer and in the officer's presence, record the testimony of the witness. The testimony shall be taken stenographically and shall be transcribed. When the testimony is fully transcribed, the officer before whom the testimony is taken shall promptly transmit a certified copy of the transcript of the testimony in accordance with the instructions of the Attorney General. This subsection shall not preclude the taking of testimony by any means authorized by, and in a manner consistent with, the Code of Civil Procedure.

(2) Persons present. The investigator conducting the examination shall exclude from the place where the examination is held all persons except the person giving the testimony, the attorney for and any other representative of the person giving the testimony, the attorney for the State, any person who may be agreed upon by the attorney for the State and the person giving the testimony, the officer before whom the testimony is to be taken, and any stenographer taking such testimony.

(3) Where testimony taken. The oral testimony of any person taken pursuant to a subpoena served under this Section shall be taken in the county within which such person resides, is found, or transacts business, or in such other place as may be agreed upon by the Attorney General and such person.

(4) Transcript of testimony. When the testimony is fully transcribed, the Attorney General or the officer before whom the testimony is taken shall afford the witness, who may be accompanied by counsel, a reasonable opportunity to review and correct the transcript, in accordance with the rules applicable to deposition witnesses in civil cases. Upon payment of reasonable charges, the Attorney General shall furnish a copy of the transcript to the witness, except that the Attorney General may, for good cause, limit the witness to inspection of the official transcript of the witness' testimony.

(5) Conduct of oral testimony.

(A) Any person compelled to appear for oral testimony under a subpoena issued under subsection (a) may be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel, who may raise objections based on matters of privilege in accordance with the rules applicable to depositions in civil cases. If such person refuses to answer any question, a petition may be filed in circuit court under subsection (j)(1) for an order compelling such person to answer such question.

(B) If such person refuses any question on the grounds of the privilege against self-incrimination, the testimony of such person may be compelled in accordance with Article 106 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(6) Witness fees and allowances. Any person appearing for oral testimony under a subpoena issued under subsection (a) shall be entitled to the same fees and allowances which are paid to witnesses in the circuit court.

(i) Custodians of documents, answers, and transcripts.

(1) Designation. The Attorney General or his or her delegate shall serve as custodian of documentary material, answers to interrogatories, and transcripts of oral testimony received under this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, no documentary material, answers to interrogatories, or transcripts of oral testimony, or copies thereof, while in the possession of the custodian, shall be available for examination by any individual, except as determined necessary by the Attorney General and subject to the conditions imposed by him or her for effective enforcement of the laws of this State, or as otherwise provided by court order.

(3) Conditions for return of material. If any documentary material has been produced by any person in the course of any investigation pursuant to a subpoena under this Section and:

(A) any case or proceeding before the court or grand jury arising out of such investigation, or any proceeding before any State agency involving such material, has been completed, or

(B) no case or proceeding in which such material may be used has been commenced within a reasonable time after completion of the examination and analysis of all documentary material and other information assembled in the course of such investigation,

the custodian shall, upon written request of the person who produced such material, return to such person any such material which has not passed into the control of any court, grand jury, or agency through introduction into the record of such case or proceeding.

(j) Judicial proceedings.

(1) Petition for enforcement. Whenever any person fails to comply with any subpoena issued under subsection (a), or whenever satisfactory copying or reproduction of any material requested in such demand cannot be done and such person refuses to surrender such material, the Attorney General may file, in the circuit court of any county in which such person resides, is found, or transacts business, or the circuit court of the county in which an action filed pursuant to Section 4 of this Act is pending if the action relates to the subject matter of the subpoena and serve upon such person a petition for an order of such court for the enforcement of the subpoena.

(2) Petition to modify or set aside subpoena.

(A) Any person who has received a subpoena issued under subsection (a) may file, in the circuit court of any county within which such person resides, is found, or transacts business, and serve upon the Attorney General a petition for an order of the court to modify or set aside such subpoena. In the case of a petition addressed to an express demand for any product of discovery, a petition to modify or set aside such demand may be brought only in the circuit court of the county in which the proceeding in which such discovery was obtained is or was last pending. Any petition under this subparagraph (A) must be filed:

(i) within 20 days after the date of service of the subpoena, or at any time before the return date specified in the subpoena, whichever date is earlier, or

(ii) within such longer period as may be prescribed in writing by the Attorney General.

(B) The petition shall specify each ground upon which the petitioner relies in seeking relief under subparagraph (A), and may be based upon any failure of the subpoena to comply with the provisions of this Section or upon any constitutional or other legal right or privilege of such person. During the pendency of the petition in the court, the court may stay, as it deems proper, the running of the time allowed for compliance with the subpoena, in whole or in part, except that the person filing the petition shall comply with any portion of the subpoena not sought to be modified or set aside.

(3) Petition to modify or set aside demand for product of discovery. In the case of any subpoena issued under subsection (a) which is an express demand for any product of discovery, the person from whom such discovery was obtained may file, in the circuit court of the county in which the proceeding in which such discovery was obtained is or was last pending, a petition for an order of such court to modify or set aside those portions of the subpoena requiring production of any such product of discovery, subject to the same terms, conditions, and limitations set forth in subparagraph (j)(2) of this Section.

(4) Jurisdiction. Whenever any petition is filed in any circuit court under this subsection (j), such court shall have jurisdiction to hear and determine the matter so presented, and to enter such orders as may be required to carry out the provisions of this Section. Any final order so entered shall be subject to appeal in the same manner as appeals of other final orders in civil matters. Any disobedience of any final order entered under this Section by any court shall be punished as a contempt of the court.

(k) Disclosure exemption. Any documentary material, answers to written interrogatories, or oral testimony provided under any subpoena issued under subsection (a) shall be exempt from disclosure under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-145, eff. 10-1-23; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 605. The Good Samaritan Act is amended by changing Section 42 as follows:

(745 ILCS 49/42)

Sec. 42. Optometrists; exemption from civil liability for emergency care. Any optometrist or any person licensed as an a optometrist in any other state or territory of the United States who in good faith provides emergency care without fee to a victim of an accident at the scene of an accident shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, except willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the person, in providing the care, be liable for civil damages.

(Source: P.A. 90-413, eff. 1-1-98; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 610. The Emancipation of Minors Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(750 ILCS 30/2) (from Ch. 40, par. 2202)

Sec. 2. Purpose and policy. The purpose of this Act is to provide a means by which a mature minor who has demonstrated the ability and capacity to manage the minor's own affairs and to live wholly or partially independent of the minor's parents or guardian, may obtain the legal status of an emancipated person with power to enter into valid legal contracts.

This Act is not intended to interfere with the integrity of the family or the rights of parents and their children. No order of complete or partial emancipation may be entered under this Act if there is any objection by the minor. An order of complete or partial emancipation may be entered under this Act if there is an objection by the minor's parents or guardian only if the court finds, in a hearing, that emancipation would be in the minor's best interests. This Act does not limit or exclude any other means either in statute or case law by which a minor may become emancipated.

(g) Beginning January 1, 2019, and annually thereafter through January 1, 2024, the Department of Human Services shall submit annual reports to the General Assembly regarding homeless minors older than 16 years of age but less than 18 years of age referred to a youth transitional housing program for whom parental consent to enter the program is not obtained. The report shall include the following information:

(1) the number of homeless minors referred to youth transitional housing programs;

(2) the number of homeless minors who were referred but a licensed youth transitional housing program was not able to provide housing and services, and what subsequent steps, if any, were taken to ensure that the homeless minors were referred to an appropriate and available alternative placement;

(3) the number of homeless minors who were referred but determined to be ineligible for a youth transitional housing program and the reason why the homeless minors were determined to be ineligible, and what subsequent steps, if any, were taken to ensure that the homeless minors were referred to an appropriate and available alternative placement; and

(4) the number of homeless minors who voluntarily left the program and who were dismissed from the program while they were under the age of 18, and what subsequent steps, if any, were taken to ensure that the homeless minors were referred to an appropriate and available alternative placement.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 9-20-23.)

Section 615. The Electric Vehicle Charging Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 25, and 35 as follows:

(765 ILCS 1085/15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Affordable housing development" means (i) any housing that is subsidized by the federal or State government or (ii) any housing in which at least 20% of the dwelling units are subject to covenants or restrictions that require that the dwelling units to be sold or rented at prices that preserve them as affordable housing for a period of at least 10 years.

"Association" has the meaning set forth in subsection (o) of Section 2 of the Condominium Property Act or Section 1-5 of the Common Interest Community Association Act, as applicable.

"Electric vehicle" means a vehicle that is exclusively powered by and refueled by electricity, plugs in to charge, and is licensed to drive on public roadways. "Electric vehicle" does not include electric mopeds, electric off-highway vehicles, hybrid electric vehicles, or extended-range electric vehicles that are equipped, fully or partially, with conventional fueled propulsion or auxiliary engines.

"Electric vehicle charging system" means a device that is:

(1) used to provide electricity to an electric vehicle;

(2) designed to ensure that a safe connection has been made between the electric grid and the electric vehicle; and

(3) able to communicate with the vehicle's control system so that electricity flows at an appropriate voltage and current level. An electric vehicle charging system may be wall mounted or pedestal style, may provide multiple cords to connect with electric vehicles, and shall:

(i) be certified by Underwriters Laboratories or have been granted an equivalent certification; and

(ii) comply with the current version of Article 625 of the National Electrical Code.

"Electric vehicle supply equipment" or "EVSE" means a conductor, including an ungrounded, grounded, and equipment grounding conductor, and electric vehicle connectors, attachment plugs, and all other fittings, devices, power outlets, and apparatuses installed specifically for the purpose of transferring energy between the premises wiring and the electric vehicle.

"EV-capable" means parking spaces that have the electrical panel capacity and conduit installed during construction to support future implementation of electric vehicle charging with 208-volt or 240-volt or greater, 40-ampere or greater circuits. Each EV-capable space shall feature a continuous raceway or cable assembly installed between an enclosure or outlet located within 3 feet of the EV-capable space and a suitable panelboard or other onsite electrical distribution equipment. The electrical distribution equipment to which the raceway or cable assembly connects shall have sufficient dedicated space and spare electrical capacity for a 2-pole circuit breaker or set of fuses. Reserved capacity shall be no less than 40A 208/240V for each EV-capable space unless EV-capable spaces will be controlled by an energy management system providing load management in accordance with NFPA 70, shall have a minimum capacity of 4.1 kilovolt-ampere per space, or have a minimum capacity of 2.7 kilovolt-ampere per space when all of the parking spaces are designed to be EV-capable spaces, EV-ready spaces, or EVSE-installed spaces. The electrical enclosure or outlet and the electrical distribution equipment directory shall be marked "For future electric vehicle supply equipment (EVSE)." This strategy ensures the reduction of up-front costs for electric vehicle charging station installation by providing the electrical elements that are difficult to install during a retrofit. Anticipating the use of dual-head EVSE, the same circuit may be used to support charging in adjacent EV-capable spaces. For purposes of this Act, "EV-capable" "EV capable" shall not be construed to require a developer or builder to install or run wire or cable from the electrical panel through the conduit or raceway to the terminus of the conduit.

"EV-ready" means parking spaces that are provided with a branch circuit and either an outlet, junction box, or receptacle that will support an installed EVSE. Each branch circuit serving EV-ready spaces shall terminate at an outlet or enclosure, located within 3 feet of each EV-ready space it serves. The panelboard or other electrical distribution equipment directory shall designate the branch circuit as "For electric vehicle supply equipment (EVSE)" and the outlet or enclosure shall be marked "For electric vehicle supply equipment (EVSE)." The capacity of each branch circuit serving multiple EV-ready spaces designed to be controlled by an energy management system providing load management in accordance with NFPA 70, shall have a minimum capacity of 4.1 kilovolt-ampere per space, or have a minimum capacity of 2.7 kilovolt-ampere per space when all of the parking spaces are designed to be EV-capable spaces, EV-ready spaces, or EVSE spaces.

"EVSE-installed" means electric vehicle supply equipment that is fully installed from the electrical panel to the parking space.

"Large multifamily residence" means a single residential building that accommodates 5 families or more.

"Level 1" means a 120-volt 20-ampere minimum branch circuit.

"Level 2" means a 208-volt to 240-volt 40-ampere branch circuit.

"New" means newly constructed.

"Reasonable restriction" means a restriction that does not significantly increase the cost of the electric vehicle charging station or electric vehicle charging system or significantly decrease its efficiency or specified performance.

"Single-family residence" means a detached single-family residence on a single lot.

"Small multifamily residence" means a single residential building that accommodates 2 to 4 families.

(Source: P.A. 103-53, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-22-23.)

(765 ILCS 1085/25)

Sec. 25. Residential requirements.

(a) All building permits issued 90 days after the effective date of this Act shall require a new, large multifamily residential building or a large multifamily residential building being renovated by a developer converting the property to an association to have 100% of its total parking spaces EV-capable. However, nothing in this Act shall be construed to require that in the case of a developer converting the property to an association, no EV-capable or EV-ready mandate shall apply if it would necessitate the developer having to excavate an existing surface lot or other parking facility in order to retrofit retro-fit the parking lot or facility with the necessary conduit and wiring.

(b) The following requirements and timelines shall apply for affordable housing. A new construction single-family residence or small multifamily residence that qualifies as an affordable housing development under the same project ownership and is located on a campus with centralized parking areas is subject to the requirements and timelines below.

All building permits issued 24 months after the effective date of this Act shall require a new construction large multifamily residence that qualifies as an affordable housing development to have the following, unless additional requirements are required under a subsequently adopted building code:

(1) For permits issued 24 months after the effective date of this Act, a minimum of 40% EV-capable parking spaces.

(2) For permits issued 5 years after the effective date of this Act, a minimum of 50% EV-capable parking spaces.

(3) For permits issued 10 years after the effective date of this Act, a minimum of 70% EV-capable parking spaces.

(d) An accessible parking space is not required by this Section if no accessible parking spaces are required by the local zoning code.

(Source: P.A. 103-53, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-22-23.)

(765 ILCS 1085/35)

Sec. 35. Electric vehicle charging system policy for renters.

(a) Notwithstanding any provision in the lease to the contrary and subject to subsection (b):

(1) a tenant may install, at the tenant's expense for the tenant's own use, a level 1 receptacle or outlet, a level 2 receptacle or outlet, or a level 2 electric vehicle charging system on or in the leased premises;

(2) a landlord shall not assess or charge a tenant any fee for the placement or use of an electric vehicle charging system, except that:

(A) the landlord may:

(i) require reimbursement for the actual cost of electricity provided by the landlord that was used by the electric vehicle charging system;

(ii) charge a reasonable fee for access. If the electric vehicle charging system is part of a network for which a network fee is charged, the landlord's reimbursement may include the amount of the network fee. Nothing in this subparagraph requires a landlord to impose upon a tenant a fee or charge other than the rental payments specified in the lease; or

(iii) charge a security deposit to cover costs to restore the property to its original condition if the tenant removes the electric vehicle charging system; .

(B) the landlord may require reimbursement for the cost of the installation of the electric vehicle charging system, including any additions or upgrades to existing wiring directly attributable to the requirements of the electric vehicle charging system, if the landlord places or causes the electric vehicle charging system to be placed at the request of the tenant; and

(C) if the tenant desires to place an electric vehicle charging system in an area accessible to other tenants, the landlord may assess or charge the tenant a reasonable fee to reserve a specific parking space in which to install the electric vehicle charging system.

(b) A landlord may require a tenant to comply with:

(1) bona fide safety requirements consistent with an applicable building code or recognized safety standard for the protection of persons and property;

(2) a requirement that the electric vehicle charging system be registered with the landlord within 30 days after installation; or

(3) reasonable aesthetic provisions that govern the dimensions, placement, or external appearance of an electric vehicle charging system.

(c) A tenant may place an electric vehicle charging system if:

(1) the electric vehicle charging system is in compliance with all applicable requirements adopted by a landlord under subsection (b); and

(2) the tenant agrees, in writing, to:

(A) comply with the landlord's design specifications for the installation of an electric vehicle charging system;

(B) engage the services of a duly licensed and registered electrical contractor familiar with the installation and code requirements of an electric vehicle charging system; and

(C) provide, within 14 days after receiving the landlord's consent for the installation, a certificate of insurance naming the landlord as an additional insured party on the tenant's renter's insurance policy for any claim related to the installation, maintenance, or use of the electric vehicle charging system or, at the landlord's option, reimbursement to the landlord for the actual cost of any increased insurance premium amount attributable to the electric vehicle charging system, notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in the lease. The tenant shall provide reimbursement for an increased insurance premium amount within 14 days after the tenant receives the landlord's invoice for the amount attributable to the electric vehicle charging system.

(d) If the landlord consents to a tenant's installation of an electric vehicle charging system on property accessible to other tenants, including a parking space, carport, or garage stall, then, unless otherwise specified in a written agreement with the landlord:

(1) The tenant, and each successive tenant with exclusive rights to the area where the electric vehicle charging system is installed, is responsible for costs for damages to the electric vehicle charging system and to any other property of the landlord or another tenant resulting from the installation, maintenance, repair, removal, or replacement of the electric vehicle charging system.

(A) Costs under this paragraph shall be based on:

(i) an embedded submetering device; or

(ii) a reasonable calculation of cost, based on the average miles driven, efficiency of the electric vehicle calculated by the United States Environmental Protection Agency, and the cost of electricity for the common area.

(B) The purpose of the costs under this paragraph is for reasonable reimbursement of electricity usage and shall not be set to deliberately exceed that reasonable reimbursement.

(2) Each successive tenant with exclusive rights to the area where the electric vehicle charging system is installed shall assume responsibility for the repair, maintenance, removal, and replacement of the electric vehicle charging system until the electric vehicle charging system is removed.

(3) The tenant, and each successive tenant with exclusive rights to the area where the electric vehicle charging system is installed, shall, at all times, have and maintain an insurance policy covering the obligations of the tenant under this subsection and shall name the landlord as an additional insured party under the policy.

(4) The tenant, and each successive tenant with exclusive rights to the area where the electric vehicle charging system is installed, is responsible for removing the system if reasonably necessary or convenient for the repair, maintenance, or replacement of any property of the landlord, whether or not leased to another tenant.

(e) An electric vehicle charging system installed at the tenant's cost is the property of the tenant. Upon termination of the lease, if the electric vehicle charging system is removable, the tenant may either remove it or sell it to the landlord or another tenant for an agreed price. Nothing in this subsection requires the landlord or another tenant to purchase the electric vehicle charging system.

(f) A landlord that willfully violates this Section shall be liable to the tenant for actual damages, and shall pay a civil penalty to the tenant in an amount not to exceed $1,000.

(g) In any action by a tenant requesting to have an electric vehicle charging system installed and seeking to enforce compliance with this Section, the court shall award reasonable attorney's fees to a prevailing plaintiff.

(h) A tenant whose landlord is an owner in an association and who desires to install an electric vehicle charging station must obtain approval to do so through the tenant's landlord or owner and in accordance with those provisions of this Act applicable to associations.

(Source: P.A. 103-53, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-22-23.)

Section 620. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Section 8-101 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/8-101)

Sec. 8-101. Illinois Human Rights Commission.

(A) Creation; appointments. The Human Rights Commission is created to consist of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. No more than 4 members shall be of the same political party. The Governor shall designate one member as chairperson. All appointments shall be in writing and filed with the Secretary of State as a public record.

(B) Terms. Of the members first appointed, 4 shall be appointed for a term to expire on the third Monday of January, 2021, and 3 (including the Chairperson) shall be appointed for a term to expire on the third Monday of January, 2023.

Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, the term of office of each member of the Illinois Human Rights Commission is abolished on January 19, 2019. Incumbent members holding a position on the Commission that was created by Public Act 84-115 and whose terms, if not for Public Act 100-1066 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, would have expired January 18, 2021 shall continue to exercise all of the powers and be subject to all of the duties of members of the Commission until June 30, 2019 or until their respective successors are appointed and qualified, whichever is earlier.

Thereafter, each member shall serve for a term of 4 years and until the member's successor is appointed and qualified; except that any member chosen to fill a vacancy occurring otherwise than by expiration of a term shall be appointed only for the unexpired term of the member whom the member shall succeed and until the member's successor is appointed and qualified.

(C) Vacancies.

(1) In the case of vacancies on the Commission during a recess of the Senate, the Governor shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate when the Governor shall appoint a person to fill the vacancy. Any person so nominated and confirmed by the Senate shall hold office for the remainder of the term and until the person's successor is appointed and qualified.

(2) If the Senate is not in session at the time this Act takes effect, the Governor shall make temporary appointments to the Commission as in the case of vacancies.

(3) Vacancies in the Commission shall not impair the right of the remaining members to exercise all the powers of the Commission. Except when authorized by this Act to proceed through a 3 member panel, a majority of the members of the Commission then in office shall constitute a quorum.

(D) Compensation. On and after January 19, 2019, the Chairperson of the Commission shall be compensated at the rate of $125,000 per year, or as set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater, during the Chairperson's service as Chairperson, and each other member shall be compensated at the rate of $119,000 per year, or as set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater. In addition, all members of the Commission shall be reimbursed for expenses actually and necessarily incurred by them in the performance of their duties.

(E) Notwithstanding the general supervisory authority of the Chairperson, each commissioner, unless appointed to the special temporary panel created under subsection (H), has the authority to hire and supervise a staff attorney. The staff attorney shall report directly to the individual commissioner.

(F) A formal training program for newly appointed commissioners shall be implemented. The training program shall include the following:

(1) substantive and procedural aspects of the office of commissioner;

(2) current issues in employment and housing discrimination and public accommodation law and practice;

(3) orientation to each operational unit of the Human Rights Commission;

(4) observation of experienced hearing officers and commissioners conducting hearings of cases, combined with the opportunity to discuss evidence presented and rulings made;

(5) the use of hypothetical cases requiring the newly appointed commissioner to issue judgments as a means of evaluating knowledge and writing ability;

(6) writing skills; and

(7) professional and ethical standards.

A formal and ongoing professional development program including, but not limited to, the above-noted areas shall be implemented to keep commissioners informed of recent developments and issues and to assist them in maintaining and enhancing their professional competence. Each commissioner shall complete 20 hours of training in the above-noted areas during every 2 years the commissioner remains in office.

(G) Commissioners must meet one of the following qualifications:

(1) licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois;

(2) at least 3 years of experience as a hearing officer at the Human Rights Commission; or

(3) at least 4 years of professional experience working for or dealing with individuals or corporations affected by this Act or similar laws in other jurisdictions, including, but not limited to, experience with a civil rights advocacy group, a fair housing group, a community organization, a trade association, a union, a law firm, a legal aid organization, an employer's human resources department, an employment discrimination consulting firm, a community affairs organization, or a municipal human relations agency.

The Governor's appointment message, filed with the Secretary of State and transmitted to the Senate, shall state specifically how the experience of a nominee for commissioner meets the requirement set forth in this subsection. The Chairperson must have public or private sector management and budget experience, as determined by the Governor.

Each commissioner shall devote full time to the commissioner's duties and any commissioner who is an attorney shall not engage in the practice of law, nor shall any commissioner hold any other office or position of profit under the United States or this State or any municipal corporation or political subdivision of this State, nor engage in any other business, employment, or vocation.

(H) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 102-1129, eff. 2-10-23; 103-326, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 622. The Business Corporation Act of 1983 is amended by changing Section 1.80 as follows:

(805 ILCS 5/1.80) (from Ch. 32, par. 1.80)

Sec. 1.80. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the words and phrases defined in this Section shall have the meanings set forth herein.

(a) "Corporation" or "domestic corporation" means a corporation subject to the provisions of this Act, except a foreign corporation.

(b) "Foreign corporation" means a corporation for profit organized under laws other than the laws of this State, but shall not include a banking corporation organized under the laws of another state or of the United States, a foreign banking corporation organized under the laws of a country other than the United States and holding a certificate of authority from the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate issued pursuant to the Foreign Banking Office Act, or a banking corporation holding a license from the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate issued pursuant to the Foreign Bank Representative Office Act.

(c) "Articles of incorporation" means the original articles of incorporation, including the articles of incorporation of a new corporation set forth in the articles of consolidation, and all amendments thereto, whether evidenced by articles of amendment, articles of merger, articles of exchange, statement of correction affecting articles, resolution establishing series of shares or a statement of cancellation under Section 9.05. Restated articles of incorporation shall supersede the original articles of incorporation and all amendments thereto prior to the effective date of filing the articles of amendment incorporating the restated articles of incorporation.

(d) "Subscriber" means one who subscribes for shares in a corporation, whether before or after incorporation.

(e) "Incorporator" means one of the signers of the original articles of incorporation.

(f) "Shares" means the units into which the proprietary interests in a corporation are divided.

(g) "Shareholder" means one who is a holder of record of shares in a corporation.

(h) "Certificate" representing shares means a written instrument executed by the proper corporate officers, as required by Section 6.35 of this Act, evidencing the fact that the person therein named is the holder of record of the share or shares therein described. If the corporation is authorized to issue uncertificated shares in accordance with Section 6.35 of this Act, any reference in this Act to shares represented by a certificate shall also refer to uncertificated shares and any reference to a certificate representing shares shall also refer to the written notice in lieu of a certificate provided for in Section 6.35.

(i) "Authorized shares" means the aggregate number of shares of all classes which the corporation is authorized to issue.

(j) "Paid-in capital" means the sum of the cash and other consideration received, less expenses, including commissions, paid or incurred by the corporation, in connection with the issuance of shares, plus any cash and other consideration contributed to the corporation by or on behalf of its shareholders, plus amounts added or transferred to paid-in capital by action of the board of directors or shareholders pursuant to a share dividend, share split, or otherwise, minus reductions as provided elsewhere in this Act. Irrespective of the manner of designation thereof by the laws under which a foreign corporation is or may be organized, paid-in capital of a foreign corporation shall be determined on the same basis and in the same manner as paid-in capital of a domestic corporation, for the purpose of computing license fees, franchise taxes and other charges imposed by this Act.

(k) "Net assets", for the purpose of determining the right of a corporation to purchase its own shares and of determining the right of a corporation to declare and pay dividends and make other distributions to shareholders is equal to the difference between the assets of the corporation and the liabilities of the corporation.

(l) "Registered office" means that office maintained by the corporation in this State, the address of which is on file in the office of the Secretary of State, at which any process, notice or demand required or permitted by law may be served upon the registered agent of the corporation.

(m) "Insolvent" means that a corporation is unable to pay its debts as they become due in the usual course of its business.

(n) "Anniversary" means that day each year exactly one or more years after:

(1) the date of filing the articles of incorporation prescribed by Section 2.10 of this Act, in the case of a domestic corporation;

(2) the date of filing the application for authority prescribed by Section 13.15 of this Act, in the case of a foreign corporation; or

(3) the date of filing the articles of consolidation prescribed by Section 11.25 of this Act in the case of a consolidation, unless the plan of consolidation provides for a delayed effective date, pursuant to Section 11.40.

(o) "Anniversary month" means the month in which the anniversary of the corporation occurs.

(p) "Extended filing month" means the month (if any) which shall have been established in lieu of the corporation's anniversary month in accordance with Section 14.01.

(q) "Taxable year" means that 12-month 12 month period commencing with the first day of the anniversary month of a corporation through the last day of the month immediately preceding the next occurrence of the anniversary month of the corporation, except that in the case of a corporation that has established an extended filing month "taxable year" means that 12-month 12 month period commencing with the first day of the extended filing month through the last day of the month immediately preceding the next occurrence of the extended filing month.

(r) "Fiscal year" means the 12-month 12 month period with respect to which a corporation ordinarily files its federal income tax return.

(s) "Close corporation" means a corporation organized under or electing to be subject to Article 2A of this Act, the articles of incorporation of which contain the provisions required by Section 2.10, and either the corporation's articles of incorporation or an agreement entered into by all of its shareholders provide that all of the issued shares of each class shall be subject to one or more of the restrictions on transfer set forth in Section 6.55 of this Act.

(t) "Common shares" means shares which have no preference over any other shares with respect to distribution of assets on liquidation or with respect to payment of dividends.

(u) "Delivered", for the purpose of determining if any notice required by this Act is effective, means:

(1) transferred or presented to someone in person; or

(2) deposited in the United States Mail addressed to the person at his, her or its address as it appears on the records of the corporation, with sufficient first-class postage prepaid thereon.

(v) "Property" means gross assets including, without limitation, all real, personal, tangible, and intangible property.

(w) "Taxable period" means that 12-month period commencing with the first day of the second month preceding the corporation's anniversary month in the preceding year and prior to the first day of the second month immediately preceding its anniversary month in the current year, except that, in the case of a corporation that has established an extended filing month, "taxable period" means that 12-month period ending with the last day of its fiscal year immediately preceding the extended filing month. In the case of a newly formed domestic corporation or a newly registered foreign corporation that had not commenced transacting business in this State prior to obtaining authority, "taxable period" means that period commencing with the filing of the articles of incorporation or, in the case of a foreign corporation, of filing of the application for authority, and prior to the first day of the second month immediately preceding its anniversary month in the next succeeding year.

(x) "Treasury shares" mean (1) shares of a corporation that have been issued, have been subsequently acquired by and belong to the corporation, and have not been cancelled or restored to the status of authorized but unissued shares and (2) shares (i) declared and paid as a share dividend on the shares referred to in clause (1) or this clause (2), or (ii) issued in a share split of the shares referred to in clause (1) or this clause (2). Treasury shares shall be deemed to be "issued" shares but not "outstanding" shares. Treasury shares may not be voted, directly or indirectly, at any meeting or otherwise. Shares converted into or exchanged for other shares of the corporation shall not be deemed to be treasury shares.

(y) "Gross amount of business" means gross receipts, from whatever source derived.

(z) "Open data" means data that is expressed in a machine-readable form and that is made freely available to the public under an open license, without registration requirement, and without any other restrictions that would impede its use or reuse.

(Source: P.A. 102-49, eff. 1-1-22; revised 1-20-24.)

Section 625. The General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 103.05 as follows:

(805 ILCS 105/103.05) (from Ch. 32, par. 103.05)

Sec. 103.05. Purposes and authority of corporations; particular purposes; exemptions.

(a) Not-for-profit corporations may be organized under this Act for any one or more of the following or similar purposes:

(1) Charitable.

(2) Benevolent.

(3) Eleemosynary.

(4) Educational.

(5) Civic.

(6) Patriotic.

(7) Political.

(8) Religious.

(9) Social.

(10) Literary.

(11) Athletic.

(12) Scientific.

(13) Research.

(14) Agricultural.

(15) Horticultural.

(16) Soil improvement.

(17) Crop improvement.

(18) Livestock or poultry improvement.

(19) Professional, commercial, industrial, or trade association.

(20) Promoting the development, establishment, or expansion of industries.

(21) Electrification on a cooperative basis.

(22) Telephone service on a mutual or cooperative basis.

(23) Ownership and operation of water supply facilities for drinking and general domestic use on a mutual or cooperative basis.

(24) Ownership or administration of residential property on a cooperative basis.

(25) Administration and operation of property owned on a condominium basis or by a homeowner association.

(26) Administration and operation of an organization on a cooperative basis producing or furnishing goods, services, or facilities primarily for the benefit of its members who are consumers of those goods, services, or facilities.

(27) Operation of a community mental health board or center organized pursuant to the Community Mental Health Act for the purpose of providing direct patient services.

(28) Provision of debt management services as authorized by the Debt Management Service Act.

(29) Promotion, operation, and administration of a ridesharing arrangement as defined in Section 1-176.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(30) The administration and operation of an organization for the purpose of assisting low-income consumers in the acquisition of utility and telephone services.

(31) Any purpose permitted to be exempt from taxation under Sections 501(c) or 501(d) of the United States Internal Revenue Code, as now in or hereafter amended.

(32) Any purpose that would qualify for tax-deductible gifts under the Section 170(c) of the United States Internal Revenue Code, as now or hereafter amended. Any such purpose is deemed to be charitable under subsection (a)(1) of this Section.

(33) Furnishing of natural gas on a cooperative basis.

(34) Ownership and operation of agriculture-based biogas (anaerobic digester) systems on a cooperative basis including the marketing and sale of products produced from these, including, but not limited to, methane gas, electricity, and compost.

(35) Ownership and operation of a hemophilia program, including comprehensive hemophilia diagnostic treatment centers, under Section 501(a)(2) of the Social Security Act. The hemophilia program may employ physicians, other health care professionals, and staff. The program and the corporate board may not exercise control over, direct, or interfere with a physician's exercise and execution of his or her professional judgment in the provision of care or treatment.

(36) Engineering for conservation services associated with wetland restoration or mitigation, flood mitigation, groundwater recharge, and natural infrastructure. Non-profit engineering for conservation services may not be procured by qualifications based selection criteria for contracts with the Department of Transportation, the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, or Cook County, except as a subcontractor or subconsultant.

(b) A corporation may be organized hereunder to serve in an area that adjoins or borders (except for any intervening natural watercourse) an area located in an adjoining state intended to be similarly served, and the corporation may join any corporation created by the adjoining state having an identical purpose and organized as a not-for-profit corporation. Whenever any corporation organized under this Act so joins with a foreign corporation having an identical purpose, the corporation shall be permitted to do business in Illinois as one corporation; provided (1) that the name, bylaw provisions, officers, and directors of each corporation are identical, (2) that the foreign corporation complies with the provisions of this Act relating to the admission of foreign corporation, and (3) that the Illinois corporation files a statement with the Secretary of State indicating that it has joined with a foreign corporation setting forth the name thereof and the state of its incorporation.

(Source: P.A. 103-66, eff. 6-9-23; revised 9-21-23.)

Section 630. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 2BBBB as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2BBBB)

Sec. 2BBBB. Deceptive practices related to limited services pregnancy centers.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Abortion" means the use of any instrument, medicine, drug, or any other substance or device to terminate the pregnancy of an individual known to be pregnant with an intention other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of the child after live birth, or to remove a dead fetus, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act.

"Affiliates" has the meaning given to the term "hospital affiliate" as defined in subsection (b) of Section 10.8 of the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Emergency contraception" means one or more prescription drugs (i) used separately or in combination for the purpose of preventing pregnancy, (ii) administered to or self-administered by a patient within a medically recommended amount of time after sexual intercourse, and (iii) dispensed for such purpose in accordance with professional standards of practice.

"Limited services pregnancy center" means an organization or facility, including a mobile facility, that:

(1) does not directly provide abortions or provide or prescribe emergency contraception, or provide referrals for abortions or emergency contraception, and has no affiliation with any organization or provider who provides abortions or provides or prescribes emergency contraception; and

(2) has a primary purpose to offer or provide pregnancy-related services to an individual who is or has reason to believe the individual may be pregnant, whether or not a fee is charged for such services. "Limited services pregnancy center" does not include:

(1) a health care professional licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation;

(2) a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and its affiliates; or

(3) a hospital licensed under the University of Illinois Hospital Act and its affiliates. "Limited services pregnancy center" includes an organization or facility that has employees, volunteers, or agents who are health care professionals licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Pregnancy-related services" means any medical service, or health counseling service, related to the prevention, preservation, or termination of pregnancy, including, but not limited to, contraception and contraceptive counseling, pregnancy testing, pregnancy diagnosis, pregnancy options counseling, limited obstetric ultrasound, obstetric ultrasound, obstetric sonogram, sexually transmitted infections testing, and prenatal care.

(b) A limited services pregnancy center shall not engage in unfair methods of competition or unfair or deceptive acts or practices, including the use or employment of any deception, fraud, false pretense, false promise, or misrepresentation, or the concealment, suppression, or omission of any material fact, with the intent that others rely upon the concealment, suppression, or omission of such material fact:

(1) to interfere with or prevent an individual from seeking to gain entry or access to a provider of abortion or emergency contraception;

(2) to induce an individual to enter or access the limited services pregnancy center;

(3) in advertising, soliciting, or otherwise offering pregnancy-related services; or

(4) in conducting, providing, or performing pregnancy-related services.

(c) A violation of this Section constitutes a violation of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-270, eff. 7-27-23.)

(815 ILCS 505/2CCCC)

Sec. 2CCCC 2BBBB. Violations of the Vision Care Plan Regulation Act. Any person who violates the Vision Care Plan Regulation Act commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-482, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-26-23.)

(815 ILCS 505/2DDDD)

Sec. 2DDDD 2BBBB. Sale and marketing of firearms.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Firearm" has the meaning set forth in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

"Firearm accessory" means an attachment or device designed or adapted to be inserted into, affixed onto, or used in conjunction with a firearm that is designed, intended, or functions to alter or enhance (i) the firing capabilities of a firearm, frame, or receiver, (ii) the lethality of the firearm, or (iii) a shooter's ability to hold and use a firearm.

"Firearm ammunition" has the meaning set forth in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

"Firearm industry member" means a person, firm, corporation, company, partnership, society, joint stock company, or any other entity or association engaged in the design, manufacture, distribution, importation, marketing, wholesale, or retail sale of firearm-related products, including sales by mail, telephone, or Internet or in-person sales.

"Firearm-related product" means a firearm, firearm ammunition, a firearm precursor part, a firearm component, or a firearm accessory that meets any of the following conditions:

(1) the item is sold, made, or distributed in Illinois;

(2) the item is intended to be sold or distributed in Illinois; or

(3) the item is or was possessed in Illinois, and it was reasonably foreseeable that the item would be possessed in Illinois.

"Straw purchaser" means a person who (i) knowingly purchases or attempts to purchase a firearm-related product with intent to deliver that firearm-related product to another person who is prohibited by federal or State law from possessing a firearm-related product or (ii) intentionally provides false or misleading information on a Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives firearms transaction record form to purchase a firearm-related product with the intent to deliver that firearm-related product to another person.

"Unlawful paramilitary or private militia" means a group of armed individuals, organized privately, in violation of the Military Code of Illinois and Section 2 of Article XII of the Illinois Constitution.

(b) It is an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act for any firearm industry member, through the sale, manufacturing, importing, or marketing of a firearm-related product, to do any of the following:

(1) Knowingly create, maintain, or contribute to a condition in Illinois that endangers the safety or health of the public by conduct either unlawful in itself or unreasonable under all circumstances, including failing to establish or utilize reasonable controls. Reasonable controls include reasonable procedures, safeguards, and business practices that are designed to:

(A) prevent the sale or distribution of a firearm-related product to a straw purchaser, a person prohibited by law from possessing a firearm, or a person who the firearm industry member has reasonable cause to believe is at substantial risk of using a firearm-related product to harm themselves or another individual or of possessing or using a firearm-related product unlawfully;

(B) prevent the loss or theft of a firearm-related product from the firearm industry member; or

(C) comply with all provisions of applicable local, State, and federal law, and do not otherwise promote the unlawful manufacture, sale, possession, marketing, or use of a firearm-related product.

(2) Advertise, market, or promote a firearm-related product in a manner that reasonably appears to support, recommend, or encourage individuals to engage in unlawful paramilitary or private militia activity in Illinois, or individuals who are not in the National Guard, United States armed forces reserves, United States armed forces, or any duly authorized military organization to use a firearm-related product for a military-related purpose in Illinois.

(3) Except as otherwise provided, advertise, market, promote, design, or sell any firearm-related product in a manner that reasonably appears to support, recommend, or encourage persons under 18 years of age to unlawfully purchase or possess or use a firearm-related product in Illinois.

(A) In determining whether the conduct of a firearm industry member, as described in this paragraph, reasonably appears to support, recommend, or encourage persons under 18 years of age to unlawfully purchase a firearm-related product, a court shall consider the totality of the circumstances, including, but not limited to, whether the marketing, advertising promotion, design, or sale:

(i) uses caricatures that reasonably appear to be minors or cartoon characters;

(ii) offers brand name merchandise for minors, including, but not limited to, clothing, toys, games, or stuffed animals, that promotes a firearm industry member or firearm-related product;

(iii) offers firearm-related products in sizes, colors, or designs that are specifically designed to be used by, or appeal to, minors;

(iv) is part of a marketing, advertising, or promotion campaign designed with the intent to appeal to minors;

(v) uses images or depictions of minors in advertising or marketing, or promotion materials, to depict the use of firearm-related products; or

(vi) is placed in a publication created for the purpose of reaching an audience that is predominantly composed of minors and not intended for a more general audience composed of adults.

(B) This paragraph does not apply to communications or promotional materials regarding lawful recreational activity with a firearm, such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at targets on established public or private target ranges or hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(4) Otherwise engage in unfair methods of competition or unfair or deceptive acts or practices declared unlawful under Section 2 of this Act.

(c) Paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of subsection (b) are declarative of existing law and shall not be construed as new enactments. The provisions of these paragraphs shall apply to all actions commenced or pending on or after August 14, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-559) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(d) The provisions of this Section are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 103-559, eff. 8-14-23; revised 9-26-23.)

Section 635. The Minimum Wage Law is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(820 ILCS 105/12)

Sec. 12. (a) If any employee is paid by his or her employer less than the wage to which he or she is entitled under the provisions of this Act, the employee may recover in a civil action treble the amount of any such underpayments together with costs and such reasonable attorney's fees as may be allowed by the Court, and damages of 5% of the amount of any such underpayments for each month following the date of payment during which such underpayments remain unpaid. Any agreement between the employee and the employer to work for less than such wage is no defense to such action. At the request of the employee or on motion of the Director of Labor, the Department of Labor may make an assignment of such wage claim in trust for the assigning employee and may bring any legal action necessary to collect such claim, and the employer shall be required to pay the costs incurred in collecting such claim. Every such action shall be brought within 3 years from the date of the underpayment. Such employer shall be liable to the Department of Labor for a penalty in an amount of up to 20% of the total employer's underpayment where the employer's conduct is proven by a preponderance of the evidence to be willful, repeated, or with reckless disregard of this Act or any rule adopted under this Act. Such employer shall be liable to the Department for an additional penalty of $1,500. All administrative penalties ordered under this Act shall be paid by certified check, money order, or by an electronic payment system designated by the Department for such purposes, and shall be made payable to or deposited into the Department's Wage Theft Enforcement Fund. Such employer shall be additionally liable to the employee for damages in the amount of 5% of the amount of any such underpayments for each month following the date of payment during which such underpayments remain unpaid. These penalties and damages may be recovered in a civil action brought by the Director of Labor in any circuit court. In any such action, the Director of Labor shall be represented by the Attorney General.

If an employee collects damages of 5% of the amount of underpayments as a result of an action brought by the Director of Labor, the employee may not also collect those damages in a private action brought by the employee for the same violation. If an employee collects damages of 5% of the amount of underpayments in a private action brought by the employee, the employee may not also collect those damages as a result of an action brought by the Director of Labor for the same violation.

(b) If an employee has not collected damages under subsection (a) for the same violation, the Director is authorized to supervise the payment of the unpaid minimum wages and the unpaid overtime compensation owing to any employee or employees under Sections 4 and 4a of this Act and may bring any legal action necessary to recover the amount of the unpaid minimum wages and unpaid overtime compensation and an equal additional amount as damages, and the employer shall be required to pay the costs incurred in collecting such claim. Such employer shall be additionally liable to the Department of Labor for up to 20% of the total employer's underpayment where the employer's conduct is proven by a preponderance of the evidence to be willful, repeated, or with reckless disregard of this Act or any rule adopted under this Act. Such employer shall be liable to the Department of Labor for an additional penalty of $1,500, payable to the Department's Wage Theft Enforcement Fund. The action shall be brought within 5 years from the date of the failure to pay the wages or compensation. Any sums thus recovered by the Director on behalf of an employee pursuant to this subsection shall be deposited into the Department of Labor Special State Trust Fund, from which the Department shall disburse the sums owed to the employee or employees. The Department shall conduct a good faith search to find all employees for whom it has recovered unpaid minimum wages or unpaid overtime compensation. All disbursements authorized under this Section shall be made by certified check, money order, or an electronic payment system designated by the Department.

(c) The Department shall hold any moneys due to employees that it is unable to locate in the Department of Labor Special State Trust Fund for no less than 3 years after the moneys were collected.

Beginning November 1, 2023, or as soon as is practical, and each November 1 thereafter, the Department shall report any moneys due to employees who cannot be located and that have been held by the Department in the Department of Labor Special State Trust Fund for 3 or more years and moneys due to employees who are deceased to the State Treasurer as required by the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. The Department shall not be required to provide the notice required under Section 15-501 of the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

Beginning July 1, 2023, or as soon as is practical, and each July 1 thereafter, the Department shall direct the State Comptroller and State Treasurer to transfer from the Department of Labor Special State Trust Fund the balance of the moneys due to employees who cannot be located and that have been held by the Department in the Department of Labor Special State Trust Fund for 3 or more years and moneys due to employees who are deceased as follows: (i) 15% to the Wage Theft Enforcement Fund and (ii) 85% to the Unclaimed Property Trust Fund.

The Department may use moneys in the Wage Theft Enforcement Fund for the purposes described in Section 14 of the Illinois Wage Payment and Collection Act.

(d) The Department may adopt rules to implement and administer this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-182, eff. 6-30-23; 103-201, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 640. The Equal Pay Act of 2003 is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(820 ILCS 112/30)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-539)

Sec. 30. Violations; fines and penalties.

(a) If an employee is paid by his or her employer less than the wage to which he or she is entitled in violation of Section 10 or 11 of this Act, the employee may recover in a civil action the entire amount of any underpayment together with interest, compensatory damages if the employee demonstrates that the employer acted with malice or reckless indifference, punitive damages as may be appropriate, injunctive relief as may be appropriate, and the costs and reasonable attorney's fees as may be allowed by the court and as necessary to make the employee whole. At the request of the employee or on a motion of the Director, the Department may make an assignment of the wage claim in trust for the assigning employee and may bring any legal action necessary to collect the claim, and the employer shall be required to pay the costs incurred in collecting the claim. Every such action shall be brought within 5 years from the date of the underpayment. For purposes of this Act, "date of the underpayment" means each time wages are underpaid.

(a-5) If an employer violates subsection (b), (b-5), (b-10), or (b-20) of Section 10, the employee may recover in a civil action any damages incurred, special damages not to exceed $10,000, injunctive relief as may be appropriate, and costs and reasonable attorney's fees as may be allowed by the court and as necessary to make the employee whole. If special damages are available, an employee may recover compensatory damages only to the extent such damages exceed the amount of special damages. Such action shall be brought within 5 years from the date of the violation.

(b) The Director is authorized to supervise the payment of the unpaid wages under subsection (a) or damages under subsection (b), (b-5), (b-10), or (b-20) of Section 10 owing to any employee or employees under this Act and may bring any legal action necessary to recover the amount of unpaid wages, damages, and penalties or to seek injunctive relief, and the employer shall be required to pay the costs. Any sums recovered by the Director on behalf of an employee under this Section shall be paid to the employee or employees affected.

(c) Employers who violate any provision of this Act or any rule adopted under the Act are subject to a civil penalty, payable to the Department, for each employee affected as follows:

(1) An employer with fewer than 4 employees: first offense, a fine not to exceed $500; second offense, a fine not to exceed $2,500; third or subsequent offense, a fine not to exceed $5,000.

(2) An employer with between 4 and 99 employees: first offense, a fine not to exceed $2,500; second offense, a fine not to exceed $3,000; third or subsequent offense, a fine not to exceed $5,000.

(3) An employer with 100 or more employees who violates any Section of this Act except for Section 11 shall be fined up to $10,000 per employee affected. An employer with 100 or more employees that is a business as defined under Section 11 and commits a violation of Section 11 shall be fined up to $10,000.

Before any imposition of a penalty under this subsection, an employer with 100 or more employees who violates item (b) of Section 11 and inadvertently fails to file an initial application or recertification shall be provided 30 calendar days by the Department to submit the application or recertification.

An employer or person who violates subsection (b), (b-5), (b-10), (b-20), or (c) of Section 10 is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000 for each violation for each employee affected, payable to the Department.

(d) In determining the amount of the penalty, the appropriateness of the penalty to the size of the business of the employer charged and the gravity of the violation shall be considered. The penalty may be recovered in a civil action brought by the Director in any circuit court.

(Source: P.A. 102-36, eff. 6-25-21; 103-201, eff. 1-1-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-539)

Sec. 30. Violations; fines and penalties.

(a) If an employee is paid by his or her employer less than the wage to which he or she is entitled in violation of Section 10 or 11 of this Act, the employee may recover in a civil action the entire amount of any underpayment together with interest, compensatory damages if the employee demonstrates that the employer acted with malice or reckless indifference, punitive damages as may be appropriate, injunctive relief as may be appropriate, and the costs and reasonable attorney's fees as may be allowed by the court and as necessary to make the employee whole. At the request of the employee or on a motion of the Director, the Department may make an assignment of the wage claim in trust for the assigning employee and may bring any legal action necessary to collect the claim, and the employer shall be required to pay the costs incurred in collecting the claim. Every such action shall be brought within 5 years from the date of the underpayment. For purposes of this Act, "date of the underpayment" means each time wages are underpaid.

(a-5) If an employer violates subsection (b), (b-5), (b-10), or (b-20) of Section 10, the employee may recover in a civil action any damages incurred, special damages not to exceed $10,000, injunctive relief as may be appropriate, and costs and reasonable attorney's fees as may be allowed by the court and as necessary to make the employee whole. If special damages are available, an employee may recover compensatory damages only to the extent such damages exceed the amount of special damages. Such action shall be brought within 5 years from the date of the violation.

(b) The Director is authorized to supervise the payment of the unpaid wages under subsection (a) or damages under subsection (b), (b-5), (b-10), or (b-20) of Section 10 owing to any employee or employees under this Act and may bring any legal action necessary to recover the amount of unpaid wages, damages, and penalties or to seek injunctive relief, and the employer shall be required to pay the costs. Any sums recovered by the Director on behalf of an employee under this Section shall be paid to the employee or employees affected.

(c) Employers who violate any provision of this Act or any rule adopted under the Act, except for a violation of subsection (b-25) of Section 10, are subject to a civil penalty, payable to the Department, for each employee affected as follows:

(1) An employer with fewer than 4 employees: first offense, a fine not to exceed $500; second offense, a fine not to exceed $2,500; third or subsequent offense, a fine not to exceed $5,000.

(2) An employer with between 4 and 99 employees: first offense, a fine not to exceed $2,500; second offense, a fine not to exceed $3,000; third or subsequent offense, a fine not to exceed $5,000.

(3) An employer with 100 or more employees who violates any Section of this Act except for Section 11 shall be fined up to $10,000 per employee affected. An employer with 100 or more employees that is a business as defined under Section 11 and commits a violation of Section 11 shall be fined up to $10,000.

Before any imposition of a penalty under this subsection, an employer with 100 or more employees who violates item (b) of Section 11 and inadvertently fails to file an initial application or recertification shall be provided 30 calendar days by the Department to submit the application or recertification.

An employer or person who violates subsection (b), (b-5), (b-10), (b-20), or (c) of Section 10 is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000 for each violation for each employee affected, payable to the Department.

(c-5) The Department may initiate investigations of alleged violations of subsection (b-25) of Section 10 upon receiving a complaint from any person that claims to be aggrieved by a violation of that subsection or at the Department's discretion. Any person that claims to be aggrieved by a violation of subsection (b-25) of Section 10 may submit a complaint of an alleged violation of that subsection to the Department within one year after the date of the violation. If the Department has determined that a violation has occurred, it shall issue to the employer a notice setting forth the violation, the applicable penalty as described in subsections (c-10) and (c-15), and the period to cure the violation as described in subsection (c-10).

(c-7) A job posting found to be in violation of subsection (b-25) of Section 10 shall be considered as one violating job posting regardless of the number of duplicative postings that list the job opening.

(c-10) The penalties for a job posting or batch of postings that are active at the time the Department issues a notice of violation for violating subsection (b-25) of Section 10 are as follows:

(1) For a first offense, following a cure period of 14 days to remedy the violation, a fine not to exceed $500 at the discretion of the Department. A first offense may be either a single job posting that violates subsection (b-25) of Section 10 or multiple job postings that violate subsection (b-25) of Section 10 and are identified at the same time by the Department. The Department shall have discretion to waive any civil penalty under this paragraph.

(2) For a second offense, following a cure period of 7 days to remedy the violation, a fine not to exceed $2,500 at the discretion of the Department. A second offense is a single job posting that violates subsection (b-25) of Section 10. The Department shall have discretion to waive any civil penalty under this paragraph.

(3) For a third or subsequent offense, no cure period, a fine not to exceed $10,000 at the discretion of the Department. A third or subsequent offense is a single job posting that violates subsection (b-25) of Section 10. The Department shall have discretion to waive any civil penalty under this paragraph. If a company has had a third offense, it shall incur automatic penalties without a cure period for a period of 5 years, at the completion of which any future offense shall count as a first offense. The 5-year period shall restart if, during that period, an employer receives a subsequent notice of violation from the Department.

(c-15) The penalties for a job posting or batch of job postings that are not active at the time the Department issues a notice of violation for violating subsection (b-25) of Section 10 are as follows:

(1) For a first offense, a fine not to exceed $250 at the discretion of the Department. A first offense may be either a single job posting that violates subsection (b-25) of Section 10 or multiple job postings that violate subsection (b-25) of Section 10 and are identified at the same time by the Department. The Department shall have discretion to waive any civil penalty under this paragraph.

(2) For a second offense, a fine not to exceed $2,500 at the discretion of the Department. A second offense is a single job posting that violates subsection (b-25) of Section 10. The Department shall have discretion to waive any civil penalty under this paragraph.

(3) For a third or subsequent offense, a fine not to exceed $10,000 at the discretion of the Department. A third or subsequent offense is a single job posting that violates subsection (b-25) of Section 10. The Department shall have discretion to waive any civil penalty under this paragraph.

For the purposes of this subsection, the Department, during its investigation of a complaint, shall make a determination as to whether a job posting is not active by considering the totality of the circumstances, including, but not limited to: (i) whether a position has been filled; (ii) the length of time a posting has been accessible to the public; (iii) the existence of a date range for which a given position is active; and (iv) whether the violating posting is for a position for which the employer is no longer accepting applications.

(d) In determining the amount of the penalty under this Section, the appropriateness of the penalty to the size of the business of the employer charged and the gravity of the violation shall be considered. The penalty may be recovered in a civil action brought by the Director in any circuit court.

(Source: P.A. 102-36, eff. 6-25-21; 103-201, eff. 1-1-24; 103-539, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-27-23.)

Section 645. The Prevailing Wage Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(820 ILCS 130/2)

Sec. 2. This Act applies to the wages of laborers, mechanics and other workers employed in any public works, as hereinafter defined, by any public body and to anyone under contracts for public works. This includes any maintenance, repair, assembly, or disassembly work performed on equipment whether owned, leased, or rented.

As used in this Act, unless the context indicates otherwise:

"Public works" means all fixed works constructed or demolished by any public body, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" as defined herein includes all projects financed in whole or in part with bonds, grants, loans, or other funds made available by or through the State or any of its political subdivisions, including but not limited to: bonds issued under the Industrial Project Revenue Bond Act (Article 11, Division 74 of the Illinois Municipal Code), the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act, the Illinois Finance Authority Act, the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, or the Build Illinois Bond Act; loans or other funds made available pursuant to the Build Illinois Act; loans or other funds made available pursuant to the Riverfront Development Fund under Section 10-15 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act; or funds from the Fund for Illinois' Future under Section 6z-47 of the State Finance Act, funds for school construction under Section 5 of the General Obligation Bond Act, funds authorized under Section 3 of the School Construction Bond Act, funds for school infrastructure under Section 6z-45 of the State Finance Act, and funds for transportation purposes under Section 4 of the General Obligation Bond Act. "Public works" also includes (i) all projects financed in whole or in part with funds from the Environmental Protection Agency under the Illinois Renewable Fuels Development Program Act for which there is no project labor agreement; (ii) all work performed pursuant to a public private agreement under the Public Private Agreements for the Illiana Expressway Act or the Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport Act; (iii) all projects undertaken under a public-private agreement under the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act or the Department of Natural Resources World Shooting and Recreational Complex Act; and (iv) all transportation facilities undertaken under a design-build contract or a Construction Manager/General Contractor contract under the Innovations for Transportation Infrastructure Act. "Public works" also includes all projects at leased facility property used for airport purposes under Section 35 of the Local Government Facility Lease Act. "Public works" also includes the construction of a new wind power facility by a business designated as a High Impact Business under Section 5.5(a)(3)(E) and the construction of a new utility-scale solar power facility by a business designated as a High Impact Business under Section 5.5(a)(3)(E-5) of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act. "Public works" also includes electric vehicle charging station projects financed pursuant to the Electric Vehicle Act and renewable energy projects required to pay the prevailing wage pursuant to the Illinois Power Agency Act. "Public works" also includes power washing projects by a public body or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds in which steam or pressurized water, with or without added abrasives or chemicals, is used to remove paint or other coatings, oils or grease, corrosion, or debris from a surface or to prepare a surface for a coating. "Public works" does not include work done directly by any public utility company, whether or not done under public supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" also includes construction projects performed by a third party contracted by any public utility, as described in subsection (a) of Section 2.1, in public rights-of-way, as defined in Section 21-201 of the Public Utilities Act, whether or not done under public supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" also includes construction projects that exceed 15 aggregate miles of new fiber optic cable, performed by a third party contracted by any public utility, as described in subsection (b) of Section 2.1, in public rights-of-way, as defined in Section 21-201 of the Public Utilities Act, whether or not done under public supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" also includes any corrective action performed pursuant to Title XVI of the Environmental Protection Act for which payment from the Underground Storage Tank Fund is requested. "Public works" also includes all construction projects involving fixtures or permanent attachments affixed to light poles that are owned by a public body, including street light poles, traffic light poles, and other lighting fixtures, whether or not done under public supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds, unless the project is performed by employees employed directly by the public body. "Public works" also includes work performed subject to the Mechanical Insulation Energy and Safety Assessment Act. "Public works" also includes the removal, hauling, and transportation of biosolids, lime sludge, and lime residue from a water treatment plant or facility and the disposal of biosolids, lime sludge, and lime residue removed from a water treatment plant or facility at a landfill. "Public works" does not include projects undertaken by the owner at an owner-occupied single-family residence or at an owner-occupied unit of a multi-family residence. "Public works" does not include work performed for soil and water conservation purposes on agricultural lands, whether or not done under public supervision or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds, done directly by an owner or person who has legal control of those lands.

"Construction" means all work on public works involving laborers, workers or mechanics. This includes any maintenance, repair, assembly, or disassembly work performed on equipment whether owned, leased, or rented.

"Locality" means the county where the physical work upon public works is performed, except (1) that if there is not available in the county a sufficient number of competent skilled laborers, workers and mechanics to construct the public works efficiently and properly, "locality" includes any other county nearest the one in which the work or construction is to be performed and from which such persons may be obtained in sufficient numbers to perform the work and (2) that, with respect to contracts for highway work with the Department of Transportation of this State, "locality" may at the discretion of the Secretary of the Department of Transportation be construed to include two or more adjacent counties from which workers may be accessible for work on such construction.

"Public body" means the State or any officer, board or commission of the State or any political subdivision or department thereof, or any institution supported in whole or in part by public funds, and includes every county, city, town, village, township, school district, irrigation, utility, reclamation improvement or other district and every other political subdivision, district or municipality of the state whether such political subdivision, municipality or district operates under a special charter or not.

"Labor organization" means an organization that is the exclusive representative of an employer's employees recognized or certified pursuant to the National Labor Relations Act.

The terms "general prevailing rate of hourly wages", "general prevailing rate of wages" or "prevailing rate of wages" when used in this Act mean the hourly cash wages plus annualized fringe benefits for training and apprenticeship programs approved by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, health and welfare, insurance, vacations and pensions paid generally, in the locality in which the work is being performed, to employees engaged in work of a similar character on public works.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 1-1-22; 102-444, eff. 8-20-21; 102-673, eff. 11-30-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1094, eff. 6-15-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-327, eff. 1-1-24; 103-346, eff. 1-1-24; 103-359, eff. 7-28-23; 103-447, eff. 8-4-23; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 650. The Day and Temporary Labor Services Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(820 ILCS 175/45)

Sec. 45. Registration; Department of Labor.

(a) A day and temporary labor service agency which is located, operates or transacts business within this State shall register with the Department of Labor in accordance with rules adopted by the Department for day and temporary labor service agencies and shall be subject to this Act and any rules adopted under this Act. Each day and temporary labor service agency shall provide proof of an employer account number issued by the Department of Employment Security for the payment of unemployment insurance contributions as required under the Unemployment Insurance Act, and proof of valid workers' compensation insurance in effect at the time of registration covering all of its employees. If, at any time, a day and temporary labor service agency's workers' compensation insurance coverage lapses, the agency shall have an affirmative duty to report the lapse of such coverage to the Department and the agency's registration shall be suspended until the agency's workers' compensation insurance is reinstated. The Department may assess each day and temporary labor service agency a non-refundable registration fee not exceeding $3,000 per year per agency and a non-refundable fee not to exceed $750 for each branch office or other location where the agency regularly contracts with day or temporary laborers for services. The fee may be paid by check, money order, or the State Treasurer's E-Pay program or any successor program, and the Department may not refuse to accept a check on the basis that it is not a certified check or a cashier's check. The Department may charge an additional fee to be paid by a day and temporary labor service agency if the agency, or any person on the agency's behalf, issues or delivers a check to the Department that is not honored by the financial institution upon which it is drawn. The Department shall also adopt rules for violation hearings and penalties for violations of this Act or the Department's rules in conjunction with the penalties set forth in this Act.

(a-1) At the time of registration with the Department of Labor each year, the day and temporary labor service agency shall submit to the Department of Labor a report containing the information identified in paragraph (9) of subsection (a) of Section 12, broken down by branch office, in the aggregate for all day or temporary laborers assigned within Illinois and subject to this Act during the preceding year. This information shall be submitted on a form created by the Department of Labor. The Department of Labor shall aggregate the information submitted by all registering day and temporary labor service agencies by removing identifying data and shall have the information available to the public only on a municipal and county basis. As used in this paragraph, "identifying data" means any and all information that: (i) provides specific information on individual worker identity; (ii) identifies the service agency in any manner; and (iii) identifies clients utilizing the day and temporary labor service agency or any other information that can be traced back to any specific registering day and temporary labor service agency or its client. The information and reports submitted to the Department of Labor under this subsection by the registering day and temporary labor service agencies are exempt from inspection and copying under Section 7.5 of the Freedom of Information Act.

(b) It is a violation of this Act to operate a day and temporary labor service agency without first registering with the Department in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section. The Department shall create and maintain at regular intervals on its website, accessible to the public: (1) a list of all registered day and temporary labor service agencies in the State whose registration is in good standing; (2) a list of day and temporary labor service agencies in the State whose registration has been suspended, including the reason for the suspension, the date the suspension was initiated, and the date, if known, the suspension is to be lifted; and (3) a list of day and temporary labor service agencies in the State whose registration has been revoked, including the reason for the revocation and the date the registration was revoked. The Department has the authority to assess a penalty against any day and temporary labor service agency that fails to register with the Department of Labor in accordance with this Act or any rules adopted under this Act of $500 for each violation. Each day during which a day and temporary labor service agency operates without registering with the Department shall be a separate and distinct violation of this Act.

(c) An applicant is not eligible to register to operate a day and temporary labor service agency under this Act if the applicant or any of its officers, directors, partners, or managers or any owner of 25% or greater beneficial interest:

(1) has been involved, as owner, officer, director, partner, or manager, of any day and temporary labor service agency whose registration has been revoked or has been suspended without being reinstated within the 5 years immediately preceding the filing of the application; or

(2) is under the age of 18.

(d) Every agency shall post and keep posted at each location, in a position easily accessible to all day or temporary laborers s, notices as supplied and required by the Department containing a copy or summary of the provisions of the Act and a notice which informs the public of a toll-free telephone number for day or temporary laborers and the public to file wage dispute complaints and other alleged violations by day and temporary labor service agencies. Every day and temporary labor service agency employing day or temporary laborers who communicate with the day and temporary labor service agency by electronic communication shall also provide all required notices by email to its day or temporary laborers or on a website, regularly used by the employer to communicate work-related information, that all day or temporary laborers are able to regularly access, freely and without interference. Such notices shall be in English and any other language generally understood in the locale of the day and temporary labor service agency.

(Source: P.A. 103-201, eff. 1-1-24; 103-437, eff. 8-4-23; revised 12-15-23.)

Section 655. The Paid Leave for All Workers Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(820 ILCS 192/15)

Sec. 15. Provision of paid leave.

(a) An employee who works in Illinois is entitled to earn and use up to a minimum of 40 hours of paid leave during a 12-month period or a pro rata number of hours of paid leave under the provisions of subsection (b). The paid leave may be used by the employee for any purpose as long as the paid leave is taken in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(b) Paid leave under this Act shall accrue at the rate of one hour of paid leave for every 40 hours worked up to a minimum of 40 hours of paid leave or such greater amount if the employer provides more than 40 hours. Employees who are exempt from the overtime requirements of the federal Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 213(a)(1)) shall be deemed to work 40 hours in each workweek for purposes of paid leave accrual unless their regular workweek is less than 40 hours, in which case paid leave accrues based on that regular workweek. Employees shall determine how much paid leave they need to use, however employers may set a reasonable minimum increment for the use of paid leave not to exceed 2 hours per day. If an employee's scheduled workday is less than 2 hours per day, the employee's scheduled workday shall be used to determine the amount of paid leave.

(c) An employer may make available the minimum number of hours of paid leave, subject to pro rata requirements provided in subsection (b), to an employee on the first day of employment or the first day of the 12-month period. Employers that provide the minimum number of hours of paid leave to an employee on the first day of employment or the first day of the 12-month period are not required to carryover paid leave from 12-month period to 12-month period and may require employees to use all paid leave prior to the end of the benefit period or forfeit the unused paid leave. However, under no circumstances shall an employee be credited with paid leave that is less than what the employee would have accrued under subsections (a) and (g) of this Section.

(d) The 12-month period may be any consecutive 12-month period designated by the employer in writing at the time of hire. Changes to the 12-month period may be made by the employer if notice is given to employees in writing prior to the change and the change does not reduce the eligible accrual rate and paid leave available to the employee. If the employer changes the designated 12-month period, the employer shall provide the employee with documentation of the balance of hours worked, paid leave accrued and taken, and the remaining paid leave balance.

(e) Paid leave under this Act may be taken by an employee for any reason of the employee's choosing. An employee is not required to provide an employer a reason for the leave and may not be required to provide documentation or certification as proof or in support of the leave. An employee may choose whether to use paid leave provided under this Act prior to using any other leave provided by the employer or State law.

(f) Employees shall be paid their hourly rate of pay for paid leave. However, employees engaged in an occupation in which gratuities or commissions have customarily and usually constituted and have been recognized as part of the remuneration for hire purposes shall be paid by their employer at least the full minimum wage in the jurisdiction in which they are employed when paid leave is taken. This wage shall be treated as the employee's regular rate of pay for purposes of this Act.

(g) Paid leave under this Act shall begin to accrue at the commencement of employment or on the effective date of this Act, whichever is later. Employees shall be entitled to begin using paid leave 90 days following commencement of their employment or 90 days following the effective date of this Act, whichever is later.

(h) Paid leave under this Act shall be provided upon the oral or written request of an employee in accordance with the employer's reasonable paid leave policy notification requirements which may include the following:

(1) If use of paid leave under this Act is foreseeable, the employer may require the employee to provide 7 calendar days' notice before the date the leave is to begin.

(2) If paid leave under this Act is not foreseeable, the employee shall provide such notice as soon as is practicable after the employee is aware of the necessity of the leave. An employer that requires notice of paid leave under this Act when the leave is not foreseeable shall provide a written policy that contains procedures for the employee to provide notice.

(3) Employers shall provide employees with written notice of the paid leave policy notification requirements in this Section in the manner provided in Section 20 for notice and posting and within 5 calendar days of any change to the employer's reasonable paid leave policy notification requirements.

(4) An employer may not require, as a condition of providing paid leave under this Act, that the employee search for or find a replacement worker to cover the hours during which the employee takes paid leave.

(i) Except as provided in subsection (c), paid leave under this Act shall carry over annually to the extent not used by the employee, provided that nothing in this Act shall be construed to require an employer to provide more than 40 hours of paid leave for an employee in the 12-month period unless the employer agrees to do so.

(j) Nothing in this Section or any other Illinois law or rule shall be construed as requiring financial or other payment to an employee from an employer upon the employee's termination, resignation, retirement, or other separation from employment for paid leave accrued under this Act that has not been used. Nothing in this Section or any other Illinois law or rule shall be construed as requiring financial or other reimbursements to an employee from an employer for unused paid leave under this Act at the end of the benefit year or any other time.

(k) If an employee is transferred to a separate division, entity, or location, but remains employed by the same employer, the employee is entitled to all paid leave accrued at the prior division, entity, or location and is entitled to use all paid leave as provided in this Section. If there is a separation from employment and the employee is rehired within 12 months of separation by the same employer, previously accrued paid leave that had not been used by the employee shall be reinstated. The employee shall be entitled to use accrued paid leave at the commencement of employment following a separation from employment of 12 months or less.

(l) Paid leave under this Act shall not be charged or otherwise credited to an employee's paid time off bank or employee account unless the employer's policy permits such a credit. If the paid leave under this Act is credited to an employee's paid time off bank or employee vacation account then any unused paid leave shall be paid to the employee upon the employee's termination, resignation, retirement, or other separation to the same extent as vacation time under existing Illinois law or rule. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to waive or otherwise limit an employee's right to final compensation for promised and earned, but unpaid vacation time or paid time off, as provided under the Illinois Wage Payment and Collection Act and rules. Employers shall provide employees with written notice of changes to the employer's vacation time, paid time off, or other paid leave policies that affect an employee's right to final compensation for such leave.

(m) During any period an employee takes leave under this Act, the employer shall maintain coverage for the employee and any family member under any group health plan for the duration of such leave at no less than the level and conditions of coverage that would have been provided if the employee had not taken the leave. The employer shall notify the employee that the employee is still responsible for paying the employee's share of the cost of the health care coverage, if any.

(n) Nothing in this Act shall be deemed to interfere with, impede, or in any way diminish the right of employees to bargain collectively with their employers through representatives of their own choosing in order to establish wages or other conditions of work in excess of the applicable minimum standards established in this Act. The paid leave requirements of this Act may be waived in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement, but only if the waiver is set forth explicitly in such agreement in clear and unambiguous terms.

Nothing in this Act shall be deemed to affect the validity or change the terms of bona fide collective bargaining agreements in effect on January 1, 2024. After that date, requirements of this Act may be waived in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement, but only if the waiver is set forth explicitly in such agreement in clear and unambiguous terms.

In no event shall this Act apply to any employee working in the construction industry who is covered by a bona fide collective bargaining agreement, nor shall this Act apply to any employee who is covered by a bona fide collective bargaining agreement with an employer that provides services nationally and internationally of delivery, pickup, and transportation of parcels, documents, and freight.

Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, nothing in this Act shall be deemed to affect the validity or change the terms of a bona fide collective bargaining agreement applying to an employee who is employed by a State agency that is in effect on July 1, 2024. After that date, requirements of this Act may be waived in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement, but only if the waiver is set forth explicitly in such agreement in clear and unambiguous terms. As used in this subsection, "State agency" has the same meaning as set forth in Section 4 of the Forms Notice Act.

(o) An agreement by an employee to waive his or her rights under this Act is void as against public policy.

(p) The provisions of this Act shall not apply to any employer that is covered by a municipal or county ordinance that is in effect on the effective date of this Act that requires employers to give any form of paid leave to their employees, including paid sick leave or paid leave. Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, any employer that is not required to provide paid leave to its employees, including paid sick leave or paid leave, under a municipal or county ordinance that is in effect on the effective date of this Act shall be subject to the provisions of this Act if the employer would be required to provide paid leave under this Act to its employees.

Any local ordinance that provides paid leave, including paid sick leave or paid leave, enacted or amended after the effective date of this Act must comply with the requirements of this Act or provide benefits, rights, and remedies that are greater than or equal to the benefits, rights, and remedies afforded under this Act.

An employer in a municipality or county that enacts or amends a local ordinance that provides paid leave, including paid sick leave or paid leave, after the effective date of this Act shall only comply with the local ordinance or ordinances so long as the benefits, rights, and remedies are greater than or equal to the benefits, rights, and remedies afforded under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-1143, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-22-23.)

Section 660. The Child Labor Law is amended by changing Sections 17 and 17.3 as follows:

(820 ILCS 205/17) (from Ch. 48, par. 31.17)

Sec. 17. It shall be the duty of the Department of Labor to enforce the provisions of this Act. The Department of Labor shall have the power to conduct investigations in connection with the administration and enforcement of this Act and the authorized officers and employees of the Department of Labor are hereby authorized and empowered, to visit and inspect, at all reasonable times and as often as possible, all places covered by this Act. Truant officers and other school officials authorized by the board of education or school directors shall report violations under this Act to the Department of Labor, and may enter any place in which children are, or are believed to be employed and inspect the work certificates on file. Such truant officers or other school officials also are authorized to file complaints against any employer found violating the provisions of this Act in case no complaints for such violations are pending; and when such complaints are filed by truant officers or other school officials, the State's Attorneys attorneys of this State state shall appear for the people, and attend to the prosecution of such complaints. The Department of Labor shall conduct hearings in accordance with the "The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act", approved September 22, 1975, as amended, upon written complaint by an investigator of the Department of Labor, truant officer, or other school official, or any interested person of a violation of the Act or to revoke any certificate under this Act. After such hearing, if supported by the evidence, the Department of Labor may issue and cause to be served on any party an order to cease and desist from violation of the Act, take such further affirmative or other action as deemed reasonable to eliminate the effect of the violation, and may revoke any certificate issued under the Act and determine the amount of any civil penalty allowed by the Act. The Department may serve such orders by certified mail or by sending a copy by email to an email address previously designated by the party for purposes of receiving notice under this Act. An email address provided by the party in the course of the administrative proceeding shall not be used in any subsequent proceedings, unless the party designates that email address for the subsequent proceeding. The Director of Labor or his authorized representative may compel by subpoena, the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of books, payrolls, records, papers and other evidence in any investigation or hearing and may administer oaths to witnesses.

(Source: P.A. 103-201, eff. 1-1-24; revised 1-2-24.)

(820 ILCS 205/17.3) (from Ch. 48, par. 31.17-3)

Sec. 17.3. Any employer who violates any of the provisions of this Act or any rule or regulation issued under the Act shall be subject to a civil penalty of not to exceed $5,000 for each such violation. In determining the amount of such penalty, the appropriateness of such penalty to the size of the business of the employer charged and the gravity of the violation shall be considered. The amount of such penalty, when finally determined, may be

(1) recovered in a civil action brought by the Director of Labor in any circuit court, in which litigation the Director of Labor shall be represented by the Attorney General;

(2) ordered by the court, in an action brought for violation under Section 19, to be paid to the Director of Labor.

Any administrative determination by the Department of Labor of the amount of each penalty shall be final unless reviewed as provided in Section 17.1 of this Act.

Civil penalties recovered under this Section shall be paid by certified check, money order, or by an electronic payment system designated by the Department, and deposited into the Child Labor and Day and Temporary Labor Services Enforcement Fund, a special fund which is hereby created in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund may be used, subject to appropriation, for exemplary programs, demonstration projects, and other activities or purposes related to the enforcement of this Act or for the activities or purposes related to the enforcement of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act, or for the activities or purposes related to the enforcement of the Private Employment Agency Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-201, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-21-23.)

Section 665. The Line of Duty Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(820 ILCS 315/2) (from Ch. 48, par. 282)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Law enforcement officer" or "officer" means any person employed by the State or a local governmental entity as a policeman, peace officer, auxiliary policeman or in some like position involving the enforcement of the law and protection of the public interest at the risk of that person's life. This includes supervisors, wardens, superintendents and their assistants, guards and keepers, correctional officers, youth supervisors, parole agents, aftercare specialists, school teachers, and correctional counselors counsellors in all facilities of both the Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice, while within the facilities under the control of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice or in the act of transporting inmates or wards from one location to another or while performing their official duties, and all other Department of Corrections Correction or Department of Juvenile Justice employees who have daily contact with inmates. For the purposes of this Act, "law enforcement officer" or "officer" also means a probation officer, as defined in Section 9b of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

The death of the foregoing employees of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice in order to be included herein must be by the direct or indirect willful act of an inmate, ward, work-releasee, parolee, aftercare releasee, parole violator, aftercare release violator, person under conditional release, or any person sentenced or committed, or otherwise subject to confinement in or to the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(b) "Fireman" means any person employed by the State or a local governmental entity as, or otherwise serving as, a member or officer of a fire department either for the purpose of the prevention or control of fire or the underwater recovery of drowning victims, including volunteer firemen.

(c) "Local governmental entity" includes counties, municipalities, and municipal corporations.

(d) "State" means the State of Illinois and its departments, divisions, boards, bureaus, commissions, authorities, and colleges and universities.

(e) "Killed in the line of duty" means losing one's life as a result of injury received in the active performance of duties as a law enforcement officer, civil defense worker, civil air patrol member, paramedic, fireman, or chaplain if the death occurs within one year from the date the injury was received and if that injury arose from violence or other accidental cause. In the case of a State employee, "killed in the line of duty" means losing one's life as a result of injury received in the active performance of one's duties as a State employee, if the death occurs within one year from the date the injury was received and if that injury arose from a willful act of violence by another State employee committed during such other employee's course of employment and after January 1, 1988. The term excludes death resulting from the willful misconduct or intoxication of the officer, civil defense worker, civil air patrol member, paramedic, fireman, chaplain, or State employee. However, the burden of proof of such willful misconduct or intoxication of the officer, civil defense worker, civil air patrol member, paramedic, fireman, chaplain, or State employee is on the Attorney General. Subject to the conditions set forth in subsection (a) with respect to inclusion under this Act of Department of Corrections and Department of Juvenile Justice employees described in that subsection, for the purposes of this Act, instances in which a law enforcement officer receives an injury in the active performance of duties as a law enforcement officer include, but are not limited to, instances when:

(1) the injury is received as a result of a willful wilful act of violence committed other than by the officer and a relationship exists between the commission of such act and the officer's performance of his duties as a law enforcement officer, whether or not the injury is received while the officer is on duty as a law enforcement officer;

(2) the injury is received by the officer while the officer is attempting to prevent the commission of a criminal act by another or attempting to apprehend an individual the officer suspects has committed a crime, whether or not the injury is received while the officer is on duty as a law enforcement officer;

(3) the injury is received by the officer while the officer is traveling travelling to or from his employment as a law enforcement officer or during any meal break, or other break, which takes place during the period in which the officer is on duty as a law enforcement officer.

In the case of an Armed Forces member, "killed in the line of duty" means losing one's life while on active duty in connection with the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks on the United States, Operation Enduring Freedom, Operation Freedom's Sentinel, Operation Iraqi Freedom, Operation New Dawn, or Operation Inherent Resolve.

(f) "Volunteer fireman" means a person having principal employment other than as a fireman, but who is carried on the rolls of a regularly constituted fire department either for the purpose of the prevention or control of fire or the underwater recovery of drowning victims, the members of which are under the jurisdiction of the corporate authorities of a city, village, incorporated town, or fire protection district, and includes a volunteer member of a fire department organized under the "General Not for Profit Corporation Act", approved July 17, 1943, as now or hereafter amended, which is under contract with any city, village, incorporated town, fire protection district, or persons residing therein, for fire fighting services. "Volunteer fireman" does not mean an individual who volunteers assistance without being regularly enrolled as a fireman.

(g) "Civil defense worker" means any person employed by the State or a local governmental entity as, or otherwise serving as, a member of a civil defense work force, including volunteer civil defense work forces engaged in serving the public interest during periods of disaster, whether natural or man-made.

(h) "Civil air patrol member" means any person employed by the State or a local governmental entity as, or otherwise serving as, a member of the organization commonly known as the "Civil Air Patrol", including volunteer members of the organization commonly known as the "Civil Air Patrol".

(i) "Paramedic" means an Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic certified by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, and all other emergency medical personnel certified by the Illinois Department of Public Health who are members of an organized body or not-for-profit corporation under the jurisdiction of a city, village, incorporated town, fire protection district, or county, that provides emergency medical treatment to persons of a defined geographical area.

(j) "State employee" means any employee as defined in Section 14-103.05 of the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended.

(k) "Chaplain" means an individual who:

(1) is a chaplain of (i) a fire department or (ii) a police department or other agency consisting of law enforcement officers; and

(2) has been designated a chaplain by (i) the fire department, police department, or other agency or an officer or body having jurisdiction over the department or agency or (ii) a labor organization representing the firemen or law enforcement officers.

(l) "Armed Forces member" means an Illinois resident who is: a member of the Armed Forces of the United States; a member of the Illinois National Guard while on active military service pursuant to an order of the President of the United States; or a member of any reserve component of the Armed Forces of the United States while on active military service pursuant to an order of the President of the United States.

(Source: P.A. 102-221, eff. 1-1-22; revised 1-20-24.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.