SB1797 103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB103 03433 AMQ 48439 b

103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2023 and 2024
SB1797

Introduced 2/9/2023, by Sen. Cristina H. Pacione-Zayas

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Amends various Acts by replacing the terms "day care", "daycare", and "day-care", in relation to the care of a child, with the term "child care".

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning regulation.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Illinois Public Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 7 as follows:

(5 ILCS 315/3) (from Ch. 48, par. 1603)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Board" means the Illinois Labor Relations Board or, with respect to a matter over which the jurisdiction of the Board is assigned to the State Panel or the Local Panel under Section 5, the panel having jurisdiction over the matter.

(b) "Collective bargaining" means bargaining over terms and conditions of employment, including hours, wages, and other conditions of employment, as detailed in Section 7 and which are not excluded by Section 4.

(c) "Confidential employee" means an employee who, in the regular course of his or her duties, assists and acts in a confidential capacity to persons who formulate, determine, and effectuate management policies with regard to labor relations or who, in the regular course of his or her duties, has authorized access to information relating to the effectuation or review of the employer's collective bargaining policies. Determinations of confidential employee status shall be based on actual employee job duties and not solely on written job descriptions.

(d) "Craft employees" means skilled journeymen, crafts persons, and their apprentices and helpers.

(e) "Essential services employees" means those public employees performing functions so essential that the interruption or termination of the function will constitute a clear and present danger to the health and safety of the persons in the affected community.

(f) "Exclusive representative", except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, means the labor organization that has been (i) designated by the Board as the representative of a majority of public employees in an appropriate bargaining unit in accordance with the procedures contained in this Act; (ii) historically recognized by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State before July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act) as the exclusive representative of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit; (iii) after July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act) recognized by an employer upon evidence, acceptable to the Board, that the labor organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit; (iv) recognized as the exclusive representative of personal assistants under Executive Order 2003-8 prior to July 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-204), and the organization shall be considered to be the exclusive representative of the personal assistants as defined in this Section; or (v) recognized as the exclusive representative of child and day care home providers, including licensed and license exempt providers, pursuant to an election held under Executive Order 2005-1 prior to January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320), and the organization shall be considered to be the exclusive representative of the child and day care home providers as defined in this Section.

With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, "exclusive representative" means the labor organization that has been (i) designated by the Board as the representative of a majority of peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit in accordance with the procedures contained in this Act, (ii) historically recognized by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State before January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985) as the exclusive representative by a majority of the peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit, or (iii) after January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985) recognized by an employer upon evidence, acceptable to the Board, that the labor organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit.

Where a historical pattern of representation exists for the workers of a water system that was owned by a public utility, as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, prior to becoming certified employees of a municipality or municipalities once the municipality or municipalities have acquired the water system as authorized in Section 11-124-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code, the Board shall find the labor organization that has historically represented the workers to be the exclusive representative under this Act, and shall find the unit represented by the exclusive representative to be the appropriate unit.

(g) "Fair share agreement" means an agreement between the employer and an employee organization under which all or any of the employees in a collective bargaining unit are required to pay their proportionate share of the costs of the collective bargaining process, contract administration, and pursuing matters affecting wages, hours, and other conditions of employment, but not to exceed the amount of dues uniformly required of members. The amount certified by the exclusive representative shall not include any fees for contributions related to the election or support of any candidate for political office. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall preclude an employee from making voluntary political contributions in conjunction with his or her fair share payment.

(g-1) "Fire fighter" means, for the purposes of this Act only, any person who has been or is hereafter appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a state university and sworn or commissioned to perform fire fighter duties or paramedic duties, including paramedics employed by a unit of local government, except that the following persons are not included: part-time fire fighters, auxiliary, reserve or voluntary fire fighters, including paid on-call fire fighters, clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform fire fighter duties, or elected officials.

(g-2) "General Assembly of the State of Illinois" means the legislative branch of the government of the State of Illinois, as provided for under Article IV of the Constitution of the State of Illinois, and includes, but is not limited to, the House of Representatives, the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the Senate, the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services, and any legislative support services agency listed in the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(h) "Governing body" means, in the case of the State, the State Panel of the Illinois Labor Relations Board, the Director of the Department of Central Management Services, and the Director of the Department of Labor; the county board in the case of a county; the corporate authorities in the case of a municipality; and the appropriate body authorized to provide for expenditures of its funds in the case of any other unit of government.

(i) "Labor organization" means any organization in which public employees participate and that exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with a public employer concerning wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment, including the settlement of grievances.

(i-5) "Legislative liaison" means a person who is an employee of a State agency, the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, or the Treasurer, as the case may be, and whose job duties require the person to regularly communicate in the course of his or her employment with any official or staff of the General Assembly of the State of Illinois for the purpose of influencing any legislative action.

(j) "Managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged predominantly in executive and management functions and is charged with the responsibility of directing the effectuation of management policies and practices. Determination of managerial employee status shall be based on actual employee job duties and not solely on written job descriptions. With respect only to State employees in positions under the jurisdiction of the Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer (i) that were certified in a bargaining unit on or after December 2, 2008, (ii) for which a petition is filed with the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172), or (iii) for which a petition is pending before the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on that date, "managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged in executive and management functions or who is charged with the effectuation of management policies and practices or who represents management interests by taking or recommending discretionary actions that effectively control or implement policy. Nothing in this definition prohibits an individual from also meeting the definition of "supervisor" under subsection (r) of this Section.

(k) "Peace officer" means, for the purposes of this Act only, any persons who have been or are hereafter appointed to a police force, department, or agency and sworn or commissioned to perform police duties, except that the following persons are not included: part-time police officers, special police officers, auxiliary police as defined by Section 3.1-30-20 of the Illinois Municipal Code, night watchmen, "merchant police", court security officers as defined by Section 3-6012.1 of the Counties Code, temporary employees, traffic guards or wardens, civilian parking meter and parking facilities personnel or other individuals specially appointed to aid or direct traffic at or near schools or public functions or to aid in civil defense or disaster, parking enforcement employees who are not commissioned as peace officers and who are not armed and who are not routinely expected to effect arrests, parking lot attendants, clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a police department who are not routinely expected to effect arrests, or elected officials.

(l) "Person" includes one or more individuals, labor organizations, public employees, associations, corporations, legal representatives, trustees, trustees in bankruptcy, receivers, or the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State or governing body, but does not include the General Assembly of the State of Illinois or any individual employed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois.

(m) "Professional employee" means any employee engaged in work predominantly intellectual and varied in character rather than routine mental, manual, mechanical or physical work; involving the consistent exercise of discretion and adjustment in its performance; of such a character that the output produced or the result accomplished cannot be standardized in relation to a given period of time; and requiring advanced knowledge in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction and study in an institution of higher learning or a hospital, as distinguished from a general academic education or from apprenticeship or from training in the performance of routine mental, manual, or physical processes; or any employee who has completed the courses of specialized intellectual instruction and study prescribed in this subsection (m) and is performing related work under the supervision of a professional person to qualify to become a professional employee as defined in this subsection (m).

(n) "Public employee" or "employee", for the purposes of this Act, means any individual employed by a public employer, including (i) interns and residents at public hospitals, (ii) as of July 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-204), but not before, personal assistants working under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, (iii) as of January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320), but not before, child and day care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, (iv) as of January 29, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1158), but not before except as otherwise provided in this subsection (n), home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, no matter whether the State provides those services through direct fee-for-service arrangements, with the assistance of a managed care organization or other intermediary, or otherwise, (v) beginning on July 19, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-100) and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any person employed by a public employer and who is classified as or who holds the employment title of Chief Stationary Engineer, Assistant Chief Stationary Engineer, Sewage Plant Operator, Water Plant Operator, Stationary Engineer, Plant Operating Engineer, and any other employee who holds the position of: Civil Engineer V, Civil Engineer VI, Civil Engineer VII, Technical Manager I, Technical Manager II, Technical Manager III, Technical Manager IV, Technical Manager V, Technical Manager VI, Realty Specialist III, Realty Specialist IV, Realty Specialist V, Technical Advisor I, Technical Advisor II, Technical Advisor III, Technical Advisor IV, or Technical Advisor V employed by the Department of Transportation who is in a position which is certified in a bargaining unit on or before July 19, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-100), and (vi) beginning on July 19, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-100) and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any mental health administrator in the Department of Corrections who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 8K), any employee of the Office of the Inspector General in the Department of Human Services who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), any Deputy of Intelligence in the Department of Corrections who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), and any employee of the Illinois State Police who handles issues concerning the Illinois State Police Sex Offender Registry and who is classified as or holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), but excluding all of the following: employees of the General Assembly of the State of Illinois; elected officials; executive heads of a department; members of boards or commissions; the Executive Inspectors General; any special Executive Inspectors General; employees of each Office of an Executive Inspector General; commissioners and employees of the Executive Ethics Commission; the Auditor General's Inspector General; employees of the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General; the Legislative Inspector General; any special Legislative Inspectors General; employees of the Office of the Legislative Inspector General; commissioners and employees of the Legislative Ethics Commission; employees of any agency, board or commission created by this Act; employees appointed to State positions of a temporary or emergency nature; all employees of school districts and higher education institutions except firefighters and peace officers employed by a state university and except peace officers employed by a school district in its own police department in existence on July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1257); managerial employees; short-term employees; legislative liaisons; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Office of the Attorney General who is licensed to practice law or whose position authorizes, either directly or indirectly, meaningful input into government decision-making on issues where there is room for principled disagreement on goals or their implementation; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Office of the Comptroller who holds the position of Public Service Administrator or whose position is otherwise exempt under the Comptroller Merit Employment Code; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Secretary of State who holds the position classification of Executive I or higher, whose position authorizes, either directly or indirectly, meaningful input into government decision-making on issues where there is room for principled disagreement on goals or their implementation, or who is otherwise exempt under the Secretary of State Merit Employment Code; employees in the Office of the Secretary of State who are completely exempt from jurisdiction B of the Secretary of State Merit Employment Code and who are in Rutan-exempt positions on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172); a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Treasurer who holds a position that is exempt from the State Treasurer Employment Code; any employee of a State agency who (i) holds the title or position of, or exercises substantially similar duties as a legislative liaison, Agency General Counsel, Agency Chief of Staff, Agency Executive Director, Agency Deputy Director, Agency Chief Fiscal Officer, Agency Human Resources Director, Public Information Officer, or Chief Information Officer and (ii) was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any employee of a State agency who (i) is in a position that is Rutan-exempt, as designated by the employer, and completely exempt from jurisdiction B of the Personnel Code and (ii) was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any term appointed employee of a State agency pursuant to Section 8b.18 or 8b.19 of the Personnel Code who was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any employment position properly designated pursuant to Section 6.1 of this Act; confidential employees; independent contractors; and supervisors except as provided in this Act.

Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act shall not be considered public employees for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 93-204 or Public Act 97-1158, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

Child and day care home providers shall not be considered public employees for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 94-320, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

Notwithstanding Section 9, subsection (c), or any other provisions of this Act, all peace officers above the rank of captain in municipalities with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants shall be excluded from this Act.

(o) Except as otherwise in subsection (o-5), "public employer" or "employer" means the State of Illinois; any political subdivision of the State, unit of local government or school district; authorities including departments, divisions, bureaus, boards, commissions, or other agencies of the foregoing entities; and any person acting within the scope of his or her authority, express or implied, on behalf of those entities in dealing with its employees. As of July 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-204), but not before, the State of Illinois shall be considered the employer of the personal assistants working under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act. As of January 29, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1158), but not before except as otherwise provided in this subsection (o), the State shall be considered the employer of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, no matter whether the State provides those services through direct fee-for-service arrangements, with the assistance of a managed care organization or other intermediary, or otherwise, but subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 93-204 or Public Act 97-1158, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971. As of January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320), but not before, the State of Illinois shall be considered the employer of the day and child care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of child and day care home providers for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 94-320, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

"Public employer" or "employer" as used in this Act, however, does not mean and shall not include the General Assembly of the State of Illinois, the Executive Ethics Commission, the Offices of the Executive Inspectors General, the Legislative Ethics Commission, the Office of the Legislative Inspector General, the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General, the Office of the Governor, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, the Illinois Finance Authority, the Office of the Lieutenant Governor, the State Board of Elections, and educational employers or employers as defined in the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, except with respect to a state university in its employment of firefighters and peace officers and except with respect to a school district in the employment of peace officers in its own police department in existence on July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1257). County boards and county sheriffs shall be designated as joint or co-employers of county peace officers appointed under the authority of a county sheriff. Nothing in this subsection (o) shall be construed to prevent the State Panel or the Local Panel from determining that employers are joint or co-employers.

(o-5) With respect to wages, fringe benefits, hours, holidays, vacations, proficiency examinations, sick leave, and other conditions of employment, the public employer of public employees who are court reporters, as defined in the Court Reporters Act, shall be determined as follows:

(1) For court reporters employed by the Cook County Judicial Circuit, the chief judge of the Cook County Circuit Court is the public employer and employer representative.

(2) For court reporters employed by the 12th, 18th, 19th, and, on and after December 4, 2006, the 22nd judicial circuits, a group consisting of the chief judges of those circuits, acting jointly by majority vote, is the public employer and employer representative.

(3) For court reporters employed by all other judicial circuits, a group consisting of the chief judges of those circuits, acting jointly by majority vote, is the public employer and employer representative.

(p) "Security employee" means an employee who is responsible for the supervision and control of inmates at correctional facilities. The term also includes other non-security employees in bargaining units having the majority of employees being responsible for the supervision and control of inmates at correctional facilities.

(q) "Short-term employee" means an employee who is employed for less than 2 consecutive calendar quarters during a calendar year and who does not have a reasonable assurance that he or she will be rehired by the same employer for the same service in a subsequent calendar year.

(q-5) "State agency" means an agency directly responsible to the Governor, as defined in Section 3.1 of the Executive Reorganization Implementation Act, and the Illinois Commerce Commission, the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, the Civil Service Commission, the Pollution Control Board, the Illinois Racing Board, and the Illinois State Police Merit Board.

(r) "Supervisor" is:

(1) An employee whose principal work is substantially different from that of his or her subordinates and who has authority, in the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, direct, reward, or discipline employees, to adjust their grievances, or to effectively recommend any of those actions, if the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the consistent use of independent judgment. Except with respect to police employment, the term "supervisor" includes only those individuals who devote a preponderance of their employment time to exercising that authority, State supervisors notwithstanding. Determinations of supervisor status shall be based on actual employee job duties and not solely on written job descriptions. Nothing in this definition prohibits an individual from also meeting the definition of "managerial employee" under subsection (j) of this Section. In addition, in determining supervisory status in police employment, rank shall not be determinative. The Board shall consider, as evidence of bargaining unit inclusion or exclusion, the common law enforcement policies and relationships between police officer ranks and certification under applicable civil service law, ordinances, personnel codes, or Division 2.1 of Article 10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, but these factors shall not be the sole or predominant factors considered by the Board in determining police supervisory status.

Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, in determining supervisory status in fire fighter employment, no fire fighter shall be excluded as a supervisor who has established representation rights under Section 9 of this Act. Further, in fire fighter units, employees shall consist of fire fighters of the highest rank of company officer and below. A company officer may be responsible for multiple companies or apparatus on a shift, multiple stations, or an entire shift. There may be more than one company officer per shift. If a company officer otherwise qualifies as a supervisor under the preceding paragraph, however, he or she shall not be included in the fire fighter unit. If there is no rank between that of chief and the highest company officer, the employer may designate a position on each shift as a Shift Commander, and the persons occupying those positions shall be supervisors. All other ranks above that of the highest company officer shall be supervisors.

(2) With respect only to State employees in positions under the jurisdiction of the Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer (i) that were certified in a bargaining unit on or after December 2, 2008, (ii) for which a petition is filed with the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172), or (iii) for which a petition is pending before the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on that date, an employee who qualifies as a supervisor under (A) Section 152 of the National Labor Relations Act and (B) orders of the National Labor Relations Board interpreting that provision or decisions of courts reviewing decisions of the National Labor Relations Board.

(s)(1) "Unit" means a class of jobs or positions that are held by employees whose collective interests may suitably be represented by a labor organization for collective bargaining. Except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, a bargaining unit determined by the Board shall not include both employees and supervisors, or supervisors only, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (s) and except for bargaining units in existence on July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act). With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, a bargaining unit determined by the Board shall not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, or supervisors only, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (s) and except for bargaining units in existence on January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985). A bargaining unit determined by the Board to contain peace officers shall contain no employees other than peace officers unless otherwise agreed to by the employer and the labor organization or labor organizations involved. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a bargaining unit, including a historical bargaining unit, containing sworn peace officers of the Department of Natural Resources (formerly designated the Department of Conservation) shall contain no employees other than such sworn peace officers upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 or upon the expiration date of any collective bargaining agreement in effect upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 covering both such sworn peace officers and other employees.

(2) Notwithstanding the exclusion of supervisors from bargaining units as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (s), a public employer may agree to permit its supervisory employees to form bargaining units and may bargain with those units. This Act shall apply if the public employer chooses to bargain under this subsection.

(3) Public employees who are court reporters, as defined in the Court Reporters Act, shall be divided into 3 units for collective bargaining purposes. One unit shall be court reporters employed by the Cook County Judicial Circuit; one unit shall be court reporters employed by the 12th, 18th, 19th, and, on and after December 4, 2006, the 22nd judicial circuits; and one unit shall be court reporters employed by all other judicial circuits.

(t) "Active petition for certification in a bargaining unit" means a petition for certification filed with the Board under one of the following case numbers: S-RC-11-110; S-RC-11-098; S-UC-11-080; S-RC-11-086; S-RC-11-074; S-RC-11-076; S-RC-11-078; S-UC-11-052; S-UC-11-054; S-RC-11-062; S-RC-11-060; S-RC-11-042; S-RC-11-014; S-RC-11-016; S-RC-11-020; S-RC-11-030; S-RC-11-004; S-RC-10-244; S-RC-10-228; S-RC-10-222; S-RC-10-220; S-RC-10-214; S-RC-10-196; S-RC-10-194; S-RC-10-178; S-RC-10-176; S-RC-10-162; S-RC-10-156; S-RC-10-088; S-RC-10-074; S-RC-10-076; S-RC-10-078; S-RC-10-060; S-RC-10-070; S-RC-10-044; S-RC-10-038; S-RC-10-040; S-RC-10-042; S-RC-10-018; S-RC-10-024; S-RC-10-004; S-RC-10-006; S-RC-10-008; S-RC-10-010; S-RC-10-012; S-RC-09-202; S-RC-09-182; S-RC-09-180; S-RC-09-156; S-UC-09-196; S-UC-09-182; S-RC-08-130; S-RC-07-110; or S-RC-07-100.

(Source: P.A. 102-151, eff. 7-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-686, eff. 6-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 6-13-22.)

(5 ILCS 315/7) (from Ch. 48, par. 1607)

Sec. 7. Duty to bargain. A public employer and the exclusive representative have the authority and the duty to bargain collectively set forth in this Section.

For the purposes of this Act, "to bargain collectively" means the performance of the mutual obligation of the public employer or his designated representative and the representative of the public employees to meet at reasonable times, including meetings in advance of the budget-making process, and to negotiate in good faith with respect to wages, hours, and other conditions of employment, not excluded by Section 4 of this Act, or the negotiation of an agreement, or any question arising thereunder and the execution of a written contract incorporating any agreement reached if requested by either party, but such obligation does not compel either party to agree to a proposal or require the making of a concession.

The duty "to bargain collectively" shall also include an obligation to negotiate over any matter with respect to wages, hours and other conditions of employment, not specifically provided for in any other law or not specifically in violation of the provisions of any law. If any other law pertains, in part, to a matter affecting the wages, hours and other conditions of employment, such other law shall not be construed as limiting the duty "to bargain collectively" and to enter into collective bargaining agreements containing clauses which either supplement, implement, or relate to the effect of such provisions in other laws.

The duty "to bargain collectively" shall also include negotiations as to the terms of a collective bargaining agreement. The parties may, by mutual agreement, provide for arbitration of impasses resulting from their inability to agree upon wages, hours and terms and conditions of employment to be included in a collective bargaining agreement. Such arbitration provisions shall be subject to the Illinois "Uniform Arbitration Act" unless agreed by the parties.

The duty "to bargain collectively" shall also mean that no party to a collective bargaining contract shall terminate or modify such contract, unless the party desiring such termination or modification:

(1) serves a written notice upon the other party to the contract of the proposed termination or modification 60 days prior to the expiration date thereof, or in the event such contract contains no expiration date, 60 days prior to the time it is proposed to make such termination or modification;

(2) offers to meet and confer with the other party for the purpose of negotiating a new contract or a contract containing the proposed modifications;

(3) notifies the Board within 30 days after such notice of the existence of a dispute, provided no agreement has been reached by that time; and

(4) continues in full force and effect, without resorting to strike or lockout, all the terms and conditions of the existing contract for a period of 60 days after such notice is given to the other party or until the expiration date of such contract, whichever occurs later.

The duties imposed upon employers, employees and labor organizations by paragraphs (2), (3) and (4) shall become inapplicable upon an intervening certification of the Board, under which the labor organization, which is a party to the contract, has been superseded as or ceased to be the exclusive representative of the employees pursuant to the provisions of subsection (a) of Section 9, and the duties so imposed shall not be construed as requiring either party to discuss or agree to any modification of the terms and conditions contained in a contract for a fixed period, if such modification is to become effective before such terms and conditions can be reopened under the provisions of the contract.

Collective bargaining for home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers under the Home Services Program shall be limited to the terms and conditions of employment under the State's control, as defined in Public Act 93-204 or this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, as applicable.

Collective bargaining for child and day care home providers under the child care assistance program shall be limited to the terms and conditions of employment under the State's control, as defined in this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, whenever collective bargaining is for the purpose of establishing an initial agreement following original certification of units with fewer than 35 employees, with respect to public employees other than peace officers, fire fighters, and security employees, the following apply:

(1) Not later than 10 days after receiving a written request for collective bargaining from a labor organization that has been newly certified as a representative as defined in Section 6(c), or within such further period as the parties agree upon, the parties shall meet and commence to bargain collectively and shall make every reasonable effort to conclude and sign a collective bargaining agreement.

(2) If anytime after the expiration of the 90-day period beginning on the date on which bargaining is commenced the parties have failed to reach an agreement, either party may notify the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board of the existence of a dispute and request mediation in accordance with the provisions of Section 14 of this Act.

(3) If after the expiration of the 30-day period beginning on the date on which mediation commenced, or such additional period as the parties may agree upon, the mediator is not able to bring the parties to agreement by conciliation, either the exclusive representative of the employees or the employer may request of the other, in writing, arbitration and shall submit a copy of the request to the board. Upon submission of the request for arbitration, the parties shall be required to participate in the impasse arbitration procedures set forth in Section 14 of this Act, except the right to strike shall not be considered waived pursuant to Section 17 of this Act, until the actual convening of the arbitration hearing.

(Source: P.A. 97-1158, eff. 1-29-13; 98-1004, eff. 8-18-14.)

Section 10. The Personnel Code is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(20 ILCS 415/9) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b109)

Sec. 9. Director, powers and duties. The Director, as executive head of the Department, shall direct and supervise all its administrative and technical activities. In addition to the duties imposed upon him elsewhere in this law, it shall be his duty:

(1) To apply and carry out this law and the rules adopted thereunder.

(2) To attend meetings of the Commission.

(3) To establish and maintain a roster of all employees subject to this Act, in which there shall be set forth, as to each employee, the class, title, pay, status, and other pertinent data.

(4) To appoint, subject to the provisions of this Act, such employees of the Department and such experts and special assistants as may be necessary to carry out effectively this law.

(5) Subject to such exemptions or modifications as may be necessary to assure the continuity of federal contributions in those agencies supported in whole or in part by federal funds, to make appointments to vacancies; to approve all written charges seeking discharge, demotion, or other disciplinary measures provided in this Act and to approve transfers of employees from one geographical area to another in the State, in offices, positions or places of employment covered by this Act, after consultation with the operating unit.

(6) To formulate and administer service wide policies and programs for the improvement of employee effectiveness, including training, safety, health, incentive recognition, counseling, welfare and employee relations. The Department shall formulate and administer recruitment plans and testing of potential employees for agencies having direct contact with significant numbers of non-English speaking or otherwise culturally distinct persons. The Department shall require each State agency to annually assess the need for employees with appropriate bilingual capabilities to serve the significant numbers of non-English speaking or culturally distinct persons. The Department shall develop a uniform procedure for assessing an agency's need for employees with appropriate bilingual capabilities. Agencies shall establish occupational titles or designate positions as "bilingual option" for persons having sufficient linguistic ability or cultural knowledge to be able to render effective service to such persons. The Department shall ensure that any such option is exercised according to the agency's needs assessment and the requirements of this Code. The Department shall make annual reports of the needs assessment of each agency and the number of positions calling for non-English linguistic ability to whom vacancy postings were sent, and the number filled by each agency. Such policies and programs shall be subject to approval by the Governor, provided that for needs that require a certain linguistic ability that: (i) have not been met for a posted position for a period of at least one year; or (ii) arise when an individual's health or safety would be placed in immediate risk, the Department shall accept certifications of linguistic competence from pre-approved third parties. To facilitate expanding the scope of sources to demonstrate linguistic competence, the Department shall issue standards for demonstrating linguistic competence. No later than January 2024, the Department shall authorize at least one if not more community colleges in the regions involving the counties of Cook, Lake, McHenry, Kane, DuPage, Kendall, Will, Sangamon, and 5 other geographically distributed counties within the State to pre-test and certify linguistic ability, and such certifications by candidates shall be presumed to satisfy the linguistic ability requirements for the job position. Such policies, program reports and needs assessment reports, as well as linguistic certification standards, shall be filed with the General Assembly by January 1 of each year and shall be available to the public.

The Department shall include within the report required above the number of persons receiving the bilingual pay supplement established by Section 8a.2 of this Code. The report shall provide the number of persons receiving the bilingual pay supplement for languages other than English and for signing. The report shall also indicate the number of persons, by the categories of Hispanic and non-Hispanic, who are receiving the bilingual pay supplement for language skills other than signing, in a language other than English.

(7) To conduct negotiations affecting pay, hours of work, or other working conditions of employees subject to this Act.

(8) To make continuing studies to improve the efficiency of State services to the residents of Illinois, including but not limited to those who are non-English speaking or culturally distinct, and to report his findings and recommendations to the Commission and the Governor.

(9) To investigate from time to time the operation and effect of this law and the rules made thereunder and to report his findings and recommendations to the Commission and to the Governor.

(10) To make an annual report regarding the work of the Department, and such special reports as he may consider desirable, to the Commission and to the Governor, or as the Governor or Commission may request.

(11) (Blank).

(12) To prepare and publish a semi-annual statement showing the number of employees exempt and non-exempt from merit selection in each department. This report shall be in addition to other information on merit selection maintained for public information under existing law.

(13) To authorize in every department or agency subject to Jurisdiction C the use of flexible hours positions. A flexible hours position is one that does not require an ordinary work schedule as determined by the Department and includes but is not limited to: 1) a part time job of 20 hours or more per week, 2) a job which is shared by 2 employees or a compressed work week consisting of an ordinary number of working hours performed on fewer than the number of days ordinarily required to perform that job. The Department may define flexible time to include other types of jobs that are defined above.

The Director and the director of each department or agency shall together establish goals for flexible hours positions to be available in every department or agency.

The Department shall give technical assistance to departments and agencies in achieving their goals, and shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly each year on the progress of each department and agency.

When a goal of 10% of the positions in a department or agency being available on a flexible hours basis has been reached, the Department shall evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the program and determine whether to expand the number of positions available for flexible hours to 20%.

When a goal of 20% of the positions in a department or agency being available on a flexible hours basis has been reached, the Department shall evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the program and determine whether to expand the number of positions available for flexible hours.

Each department shall develop a plan for implementation of flexible work requirements designed to reduce the need for child day care of employees' children outside the home. Each department shall submit a report of its plan to the Department of Central Management Services and the General Assembly. This report shall be submitted biennially by March 1, with the first report due March 1, 1993.

(14) To perform any other lawful acts which he may consider necessary or desirable to carry out the purposes and provisions of this law.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-952, eff. 1-1-23.)

Section 15. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 5a, 5.15, 21, 22.1, and 22.4 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5005)

Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of Children and Family Services. To provide direct child welfare services when not available through other public or private child care or program facilities.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Children" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 18 years. The term also includes persons under age 21 who:

(A) were committed to the Department pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and who continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or

(B) were accepted for care, service and training by the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best interest in the discretion of the Department would be served by continuing that care, service and training because of severe emotional disturbances, physical disability, social adjustment or any combination thereof, or because of the need to complete an educational or vocational training program.

(2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and stable living situation and cannot be reunited with their families.

(3) "Child welfare services" means public social services which are directed toward the accomplishment of the following purposes:

(A) protecting and promoting the health, safety and welfare of children, including homeless, dependent, or neglected children;

(B) remedying, or assisting in the solution of problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse, exploitation, or delinquency of children;

(C) preventing the unnecessary separation of children from their families by identifying family problems, assisting families in resolving their problems, and preventing the breakup of the family where the prevention of child removal is desirable and possible when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(D) restoring to their families children who have been removed, by the provision of services to the child and the families when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(E) placing children in suitable adoptive homes, in cases where restoration to the biological family is not safe, possible, or appropriate;

(F) assuring safe and adequate care of children away from their homes, in cases where the child cannot be returned home or cannot be placed for adoption. At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of this Section so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child;

(G) (blank);

(H) (blank); and

(I) placing and maintaining children in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children under the age of 18 and for children 18 years of age and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the last year of high school education or vocational training, in an approved individual or group treatment program, in a licensed shelter facility, or secure child care facility. The Department is not required to place or maintain children:

(i) who are in a foster home, or

(ii) who are persons with a developmental disability, as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or

(iii) who are female children who are pregnant, pregnant and parenting, or parenting, or

(iv) who are siblings, in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children 18 years of age and older and for children under 18 years of age.

(b) (Blank).

(c) The Department shall establish and maintain tax-supported child welfare services and extend and seek to improve voluntary services throughout the State, to the end that services and care shall be available on an equal basis throughout the State to children requiring such services.

(d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for any new program initiative to any agency contracting with the Department. As a prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the contractor must post a surety bond in the amount of the advance disbursement and have a purchase of service contract approved by the Department. The Department may pay up to 2 months operational expenses in advance. The amount of the advance disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract or the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and the installment amount shall then be deducted from future bills. Advance disbursement authorizations for new initiatives shall not be made to any agency after that agency has operated during 2 consecutive fiscal years. The requirements of this Section concerning advance disbursements shall not apply with respect to the following: payments to local public agencies for child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this Act; and youth service programs receiving grant funds under Section 17a-4.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations concerning its operation of programs designed to meet the goals of child safety and protection, family preservation, family reunification, and adoption, including, but not limited to:

(1) adoption;

(2) foster care;

(3) family counseling;

(4) protective services;

(5) (blank);

(6) homemaker service;

(7) return of runaway children;

(8) (blank);

(9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25, or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in accordance with the federal Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980; and

(10) interstate services.

Rules and regulations established by the Department shall include provisions for training Department staff and the staff of Department grantees, through contracts with other agencies or resources, in screening techniques to identify substance use disorders, as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, approved by the Department of Human Services, as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the purpose of identifying children and adults who should be referred for an assessment at an organization appropriately licensed by the Department of Human Services for substance use disorder treatment.

(h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate program or facility within or available to the Department for a youth in care and that no licensed private facility has an adequate and appropriate program or none agrees to accept the youth in care, the Department shall create an appropriate individualized, program-oriented plan for such youth in care. The plan may be developed within the Department or through purchase of services by the Department to the extent that it is within its statutory authority to do.

(i) Service programs shall be available throughout the State and shall include but not be limited to the following services:

(1) case management;

(2) homemakers;

(3) counseling;

(4) parent education;

(5) child day care; and

(6) emergency assistance and advocacy.

In addition, the following services may be made available to assess and meet the needs of children and families:

(1) comprehensive family-based services;

(2) assessments;

(3) respite care; and

(4) in-home health services.

The Department shall provide transportation for any of the services it makes available to children or families or for which it refers children or families.

(j) The Department may provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and grants, to persons who adopt children with physical or mental disabilities, children who are older, or other hard-to-place children who (i) immediately prior to their adoption were youth in care or (ii) were determined eligible for financial assistance with respect to a prior adoption and who become available for adoption because the prior adoption has been dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive parents have been terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have died. The Department may continue to provide financial assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was determined eligible for financial assistance under this subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or parents. The Department may also provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and grants, to persons appointed guardian of the person under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25, or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for children who were youth in care for 12 months immediately prior to the appointment of the guardian.

The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs of the child and the adoptive parents, as set forth in the annual assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are allowed where the child requires special service but such costs may not exceed the amounts which similar services would cost the Department if it were to provide or secure them as guardian of the child.

Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment, garnishment, or any other remedy for recovery or collection of a judgment or debt.

(j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement of a child for adoption if an approved family is available either outside of the Department region handling the case, or outside of the State of Illinois.

(k) The Department shall accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated neglected or abused, or dependent committed to it pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) The Department shall offer family preservation services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and extended families. Family preservation services shall be offered (i) to prevent the placement of children in substitute care when the children can be cared for at home or in the custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare, (ii) to reunite children with their families, or (iii) to maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services shall only be offered when doing so will not endanger the children's health or safety. With respect to children who are in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal other than those of subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act has been set, except that reunification services may be offered as provided in paragraph (F) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a private right of action or claim on the part of any individual or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set out in the plan, if those services are not provided with reasonable promptness and if those services are available.

The Department shall notify the child and his family of the Department's responsibility to offer and provide family preservation services as identified in the service plan. The child and his family shall be eligible for services as soon as the report is determined to be "indicated". The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed, prior to concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. However, the child's or family's willingness to accept services shall not be considered in the investigation. The Department may also provide services to any child or family who is the subject of any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer such child or family to services available from other agencies in the community, even if the report is determined to be unfounded, if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide services to any child or family after completion of a family assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided under the "differential response program" provided for in subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

The Department may, at its discretion except for those children also adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated addicted, as a truant minor in need of supervision or as a minor requiring authoritative intervention, under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child shall be committed to the Department by any court without the approval of the Department. On and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-803) and before January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 16 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. On and after January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 15 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency. The Department shall assign a caseworker to attend any hearing involving a youth in the care and custody of the Department who is placed on aftercare release, including hearings involving sanctions for violation of aftercare release conditions and aftercare release revocation hearings.

As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-134), the Department shall develop and implement a special program of family preservation services to support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive developmental disorder if the Department determines that those services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the child. The Department may offer services to any family whether or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or family to services available from other agencies in the community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop and implement a public information campaign to alert health and social service providers and the general public about these special family preservation services. The nature and scope of the services offered and the number of families served under the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be determined by the level of funding that the Department annually allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition, including, but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism, as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association.

(l-1) The legislature recognizes that the best interests of the child require that the child be placed in the most permanent living arrangement as soon as is practically possible. To achieve this goal, the legislature directs the Department of Children and Family Services to conduct concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may include prevention of placement of a child outside the home of the family when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with the family, when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement is necessary; or movement of the child toward the most permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.

When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child, as described in this subsection, and in making such reasonable efforts, the child's health and safety shall be the paramount concern.

When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall ensure and document that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the need to remove the child from the child's home. The Department must make reasonable efforts to reunify the family when temporary placement of the child occurs unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. At any time after the dispositional hearing where the Department believes that further reunification services would be ineffective, it may request a finding from the court that reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The Department is not required to provide further reunification services after such a finding.

A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be made with considerations of the child's health, safety, and best interests. At the time of placement, consideration should also be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent planning for reunification and permanency. The Department shall consider the following factors when determining appropriateness of concurrent planning:

(1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;

(2) the past history of the family;

(3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by the family;

(4) the level of cooperation of the family;

(5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the family to reunite;

(6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to provide an adoptive home or long-term placement;

(7) the age of the child;

(8) placement of siblings.

(m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any child if:

(1) it has received a written consent to such temporary custody signed by the parents of the child or by the parent having custody of the child if the parents are not living together or by the guardian or custodian of the child if the child is not in the custody of either parent, or

(2) the child is found in the State and neither a parent, guardian nor custodian of the child can be located.

If the child is found in his or her residence without a parent, guardian, custodian, or responsible caretaker, the Department may, instead of removing the child and assuming temporary custody, place an authorized representative of the Department in that residence until such time as a parent, guardian, or custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness and apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and resume permanent charge of the child, or until a relative enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's health and safety and assume charge of the child until a parent, guardian, or custodian enters the home and expresses such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and resume permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the home for a period not to exceed 12 hours, the Department must follow those procedures outlined in Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken into temporary custody pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited custody, the Department, during the period of temporary custody and before the child is brought before a judicial officer as required by Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have under subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall ensure that any child taken into custody is scheduled for an appointment for a medical examination.

A parent, guardian, or custodian of a child in the temporary custody of the Department who would have custody of the child if he were not in the temporary custody of the Department may deliver to the Department a signed request that the Department surrender the temporary custody of the child. The Department may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after the receipt of the request, during which period the Department may cause to be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If a petition is so filed, the Department shall retain temporary custody of the child until the court orders otherwise. If a petition is not filed within the 10-day period, the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the requesting parent, guardian, or custodian not later than the expiration of the 10-day period, at which time the authority and duties of the Department with respect to the temporary custody of the child shall terminate.

(m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department that cares for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being after a determination is made by the facility director and the Director or the Director's designate prior to admission to the facility subject to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This subsection (m-1) does not apply to a child who is subject to placement in a correctional facility operated pursuant to Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the child is a youth in care who was placed in the care of the Department before being subject to placement in a correctional facility and a court of competent jurisdiction has ordered placement of the child in a secure care facility.

(n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the Department, appropriate services aimed at family preservation have been unsuccessful and cannot ensure the child's health and safety or are unavailable and such placement would be for their best interest. Payment for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of any child placed in a licensed child care facility may be made by the Department, by the parents or guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the Department and the parents or guardians, except that no payments shall be made by the Department for any child placed in a licensed child care facility for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of such a child that exceed the average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring for a child in institutions for dependent or neglected children operated by the Department. However, such restriction on payments does not apply in cases where children require specialized care and treatment for problems of severe emotional disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or any combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement of such children are not available at payment rates within the limitations set forth in this Section. All reimbursements for services delivered shall be absolutely inalienable by assignment, sale, attachment, or garnishment or otherwise.

(n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed, provided that the minor consents to such services and has not yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have responsibility for the development and delivery of services under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under this Section through the Department of Children and Family Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services. Youth participating in services under this Section shall cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The Department shall continue child welfare services under this Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear, readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child welfare services under this Section and how such services may be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations describing services intended to assist minors in achieving sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults.

(o) The Department shall establish an administrative review and appeal process for children and families who request or receive child welfare services from the Department. Youth in care who are placed by private child welfare agencies, and foster families with whom those youth are placed, shall be afforded the same procedural and appeal rights as children and families in the case of placement by the Department, including the right to an initial review of a private agency decision by that agency. The Department shall ensure that any private child welfare agency, which accepts youth in care for placement, affords those rights to children and foster families. The Department shall accept for administrative review and an appeal hearing a complaint made by (i) a child or foster family concerning a decision following an initial review by a private child welfare agency or (ii) a prospective adoptive parent who alleges a violation of subsection (j-5) of this Section. An appeal of a decision concerning a change in the placement of a child shall be conducted in an expedited manner. A court determination that a current foster home placement is necessary and appropriate under Section 2-28 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 does not constitute a judicial determination on the merits of an administrative appeal, filed by a former foster parent, involving a change of placement decision.

(p) (Blank).

(q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety, for the benefit of children any gift, donation, or bequest of money or other property which is received on behalf of such children, or any financial benefits to which such children are or may become entitled while under the jurisdiction or care of the Department, except that the benefits described in Section 5.46 must be used and conserved consistent with the provisions under Section 5.46.

The Department shall set up and administer no-cost, interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial institutions for children for whom the Department is legally responsible and who have been determined eligible for Veterans' Benefits, Social Security benefits, assistance allotments from the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental voluntary payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous payments. Interest earned by each account shall be credited to the account, unless disbursed in accordance with this subsection.

In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the Department shall:

(1) Establish standards in accordance with State and federal laws for disbursing money from children's accounts. In all circumstances, the Department's "Guardianship Administrator" or his or her designee must approve disbursements from children's accounts. The Department shall be responsible for keeping complete records of all disbursements for each account for any purpose.

(2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from State funds for the child's board and care, medical care not covered under Medicaid, and social services; and utilize funds from the child's account, as covered by regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly, disbursements from all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of $13,000,000, shall be deposited by the Department into the General Revenue Fund and the balance over 1/12 of $13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing for the child's costs of care, as specified in item (2). The balance shall accumulate in accordance with relevant State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child or his or her guardian, or to the issuing agency.

(r) The Department shall promulgate regulations encouraging all adoption agencies to voluntarily forward to the Department or its agent names and addresses of all persons who have applied for and have been approved for adoption of a hard-to-place child or child with a disability and the names of such children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of such names and addresses shall be maintained by the Department or its agent, and coded lists which maintain the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child shall be made available, without charge, to every adoption agency in the State to assist the agencies in placing such children for adoption. The Department may delegate to an agent its duty to maintain and make available such lists. The Department shall ensure that such agent maintains the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child.

(s) The Department of Children and Family Services may establish and implement a program to reimburse Department and private child welfare agency foster parents licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services for damages sustained by the foster parents as a result of the malicious or negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions of foster children to other individuals. Such coverage will be secondary to the foster parent liability insurance policy, if applicable. The program shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund, specifically designated for such purposes.

(t) The Department shall perform home studies and investigations and shall exercise supervision over visitation as ordered by a court pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption Act only if:

(1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically directs the Department to perform such services; and

(2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its reasonable costs for providing such services in accordance with Department rules, or has determined that neither party is financially able to pay.

The Department shall provide written notification to the court of the specific arrangements for supervised visitation and projected monthly costs within 60 days of the court order. The Department shall send to the court information related to the costs incurred except in cases where the court has determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court may order additional periodic reports as appropriate.

(u) In addition to other information that must be provided, whenever the Department places a child with a prospective adoptive parent or parents, in a licensed foster home, group home, or child care institution, or in a relative home, the Department shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker:

(1) available detailed information concerning the child's educational and health history, copies of immunization records (including insurance and medical card information), a history of the child's previous placements, if any, and reasons for placement changes excluding any information that identifies or reveals the location of any previous caretaker;

(2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service plan, including any visitation arrangement, and all amendments or revisions to it as related to the child; and

(3) information containing details of the child's individualized educational plan when the child is receiving special education services.

The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or behavioral information (including, but not limited to, criminal background, fire setting, perpetuation of sexual abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to care for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of the information required by this paragraph, which may be provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency placement, casework staff shall at least provide known information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently provide the information in writing as required by this subsection.

The information described in this subsection shall be provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection of written information, the Department shall provide such information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall obtain from the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a signed verification of receipt of the information provided. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory level.

(u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements licensed as foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 shall be eligible to receive foster care payments from the Department. Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995, were approved pursuant to approved relative placement rules previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill. Adm. Code 335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster family home may continue to receive foster care payments only until the Department determines that they may be licensed as a foster family home or that their application for licensure is denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever occurs first.

(v) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Illinois State Police Law if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for interactive computerized communication and processing equipment that permits direct on-line communication with the Illinois State Police's central criminal history data repository. The Department shall comply with all certification requirements and provide certified operators who have been trained by personnel from the Illinois State Police. In addition, one Office of the Inspector General investigator shall have training in the use of the criminal history information access system and have access to the terminal. The Department of Children and Family Services and its employees shall abide by rules and regulations established by the Illinois State Police relating to the access and dissemination of this information.

(v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, or homicide, but not including other physical assault or battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within the past 5 years.

(v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for information concerning prospective foster and adoptive parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the Department shall request a check of that other state's child abuse and neglect registry.

(w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, a written plan for the development of in-state licensed secure child care facilities that care for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being. For purposes of this subsection, secure care facility shall mean a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building or a distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building. The plan shall include descriptions of the types of facilities that are needed in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care facilities; the estimated number of placements; the potential cost savings resulting from the movement of children currently out-of-state who are projected to be returned to Illinois; the necessary geographic distribution of these facilities in Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such facilities.

(x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history checks to determine the financial history of children placed under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting when a youth in care turns 12 years old and each year thereafter for the duration of the guardianship as terminated pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall determine if financial exploitation of the child's personal information has occurred. If financial exploitation appears to have taken place or is presently ongoing, the Department shall notify the proper law enforcement agency, the proper State's Attorney, or the Attorney General.

(y) Beginning on July 22, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1189), a child with a disability who receives residential and educational services from the Department shall be eligible to receive transition services in accordance with Article 14 of the School Code from the age of 14.5 through age 21, inclusive, notwithstanding the child's residential services arrangement. For purposes of this subsection, "child with a disability" means a child with a disability as defined by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004.

(z) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined as "background information" in this subsection and criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act for each Department employee or Department applicant. Each Department employee or Department applicant shall submit his or her fingerprints to the Illinois State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Illinois State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. The Illinois State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department of Children and Family Services.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Background information" means all of the following:

(i) Upon the request of the Department of Children and Family Services, conviction information obtained from the Illinois State Police as a result of a fingerprint-based criminal history records check of the Illinois criminal history records database and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records database concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(ii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Illinois State Police's Sex Offender Database, as authorized by Section 120 of the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(iii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System (CANTS) operated and maintained by the Department.

"Department employee" means a full-time or temporary employee coded or certified within the State of Illinois Personnel System.

"Department applicant" means an individual who has conditional Department full-time or part-time work, a contractor, an individual used to replace or supplement staff, an academic intern, a volunteer in Department offices or on Department contracts, a work-study student, an individual or entity licensed by the Department, or an unlicensed service provider who works as a condition of a contract or an agreement and whose work may bring the unlicensed service provider into contact with Department clients or client records.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 101-79, eff. 7-12-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1014, eff. 5-27-22.)

(20 ILCS 505/5a) (from Ch. 23, par. 5005a)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-926)

Sec. 5a. Reimbursable services for which the Department of Children and Family Services shall pay 100% of the reasonable cost pursuant to a written contract negotiated between the Department and the agency furnishing the services (which shall include but not be limited to the determination of reasonable cost, the services being purchased and the duration of the agreement) include, but are not limited to:

SERVICE ACTIVITIES

Adjunctive Therapy;

Child Care Service, including day care;

Clinical Therapy;

Custodial Service;

Field Work Students;

Food Service;

Normal Education;

In-Service Training;

Intake or Evaluation, or both;

Medical Services;

Recreation;

Social Work or Counselling, or both;

Supportive Staff;

Volunteers.

OBJECT EXPENSES

Professional Fees and Contract Service Payments;

Supplies;

Telephone and Telegram;

Occupancy;

Local Transportation;

Equipment and Other Fixed Assets, including amortization

of same;

Miscellaneous.

ADMINISTRATIVE COSTS

Program Administration;

Supervision and Consultation;

Inspection and Monitoring for purposes of issuing

licenses;

Determination of Children who are eligible

for federal or other reimbursement;

Postage and Shipping;

Outside Printing, Artwork, etc.;

Subscriptions and Reference Publications;

Management and General Expense.

Reimbursement of administrative costs other than inspection and monitoring for purposes of issuing licenses may not exceed 20% of the costs for other services.

The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been called in to the hotline after completion of a family assessment as provided under subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and the Department has determined that services are needed to address the safety of the child and other family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary.

All Object Expenses, Service Activities and Administrative Costs are allowable.

If a survey instrument is used in the rate setting process:

(a) with respect to any child day care centers, it shall be limited to those agencies which receive reimbursement from the State;

(b) the cost survey instrument shall be promulgated by rule;

(c) any requirements of the respondents shall be promulgated by rule;

(d) all screens, limits or other tests of reasonableness, allowability and reimbursability shall be promulgated by rule;

(e) adjustments may be made by the Department to rates when it determines that reported wage and salary levels are insufficient to attract capable caregivers in sufficient numbers.

The Department of Children and Family Services may pay 100% of the reasonable costs of research and valuation focused exclusively on services to youth in care. Such research projects must be approved, in advance, by the Director of the Department.

In addition to reimbursements otherwise provided for in this Section, the Department of Human Services shall, in accordance with annual written agreements, make advance quarterly disbursements to local public agencies for child day care services with funds appropriated from the Local Effort Day Care Fund.

Neither the Department of Children and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall pay or approve reimbursement for child day care in a facility which is operating without a valid license or permit, except in the case of child day care homes or child day care centers which are exempt from the licensing requirements of the "Child Care Act of 1969".

(Source: P.A. 100-159, eff. 8-18-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-926)

Sec. 5a. Reimbursable services for which the Department of Children and Family Services shall pay 100% of the reasonable cost pursuant to a written contract negotiated between the Department and the agency furnishing the services (which shall include but not be limited to the determination of reasonable cost, the services being purchased and the duration of the agreement) include, but are not limited to:

SERVICE ACTIVITIES

Adjunctive Therapy;

Child Care Service, including day care;

Clinical Therapy;

Custodial Service;

Field Work Students;

Food Service;

Normal Education;

In-Service Training;

Intake or Evaluation, or both;

Medical Services;

Recreation;

Social Work or Counselling, or both;

Supportive Staff;

Volunteers.

OBJECT EXPENSES

Professional Fees and Contract Service Payments;

Supplies;

Telephone and Telegram;

Occupancy;

Local Transportation;

Equipment and Other Fixed Assets, including amortization

of same;

Miscellaneous.

ADMINISTRATIVE COSTS

Program Administration;

Supervision and Consultation;

Inspection and Monitoring for purposes of issuing

licenses;

Determination of Children who are eligible

for federal or other reimbursement;

Postage and Shipping;

Outside Printing, Artwork, etc.;

Subscriptions and Reference Publications;

Management and General Expense.

Reimbursement of administrative costs other than inspection and monitoring for purposes of issuing licenses may not exceed 20% of the costs for other services.

The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been called in to the hotline after completion of a family assessment as provided under subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and the Department has determined that services are needed to address the safety of the child and other family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary.

All Object Expenses, Service Activities and Administrative Costs are allowable.

If a survey instrument is used in the rate setting process:

(a) with respect to any child day care centers, it shall be limited to those agencies which receive reimbursement from the State;

(b) the cost survey instrument shall be promulgated by rule;

(c) any requirements of the respondents shall be promulgated by rule;

(d) all screens, limits or other tests of reasonableness, allowability and reimbursability shall be promulgated by rule;

(e) adjustments may be made by the Department to rates when it determines that reported wage and salary levels are insufficient to attract capable caregivers in sufficient numbers.

The Department of Children and Family Services may pay 100% of the reasonable costs of research and valuation focused exclusively on services to youth in care. Such research projects must be approved, in advance, by the Director of the Department.

In addition to reimbursements otherwise provided for in this Section, the Department of Human Services shall, in accordance with annual written agreements, make advance quarterly disbursements to local public agencies for child day care services with funds appropriated from the Local Effort Day Care Fund.

Neither the Department of Children and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall pay or approve reimbursement for child day care in a facility which is operating without a valid license or permit, except in the case of child day care homes or child day care centers which are exempt from the licensing requirements of the "Child Care Act of 1969".

The rates paid to child day care providers by the Department of Children and Family Services shall match the rates paid to child care providers by the Department of Human Services under the child care assistance program, including base rates and any relevant rate enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 102-926, eff. 7-1-23.)

(20 ILCS 505/5.15)

Sec. 5.15. Child care Daycare; Department of Human Services.

(a) For the purpose of ensuring effective statewide planning, development, and utilization of resources for the child day care of children, operated under various auspices, the Department of Human Services is designated to coordinate all child day care activities for children of the State and shall develop or continue, and shall update every year, a State comprehensive child care day-care plan for submission to the Governor that identifies high-priority areas and groups, relating them to available resources and identifying the most effective approaches to the use of existing child day care services. The State comprehensive child care day-care plan shall be made available to the General Assembly following the Governor's approval of the plan.

The plan shall include methods and procedures for the development of additional child day care resources for children to meet the goal of reducing short-run and long-run dependency and to provide necessary enrichment and stimulation to the education of young children. Recommendations shall be made for State policy on optimum use of private and public, local, State and federal resources, including an estimate of the resources needed for the licensing and regulation of child day care facilities.

A written report shall be submitted to the Governor and the General Assembly annually on April 15. The report shall include an evaluation of developments over the preceding fiscal year, including cost-benefit analyses of various arrangements. Beginning with the report in 1990 submitted by the Department's predecessor agency and every 2 years thereafter, the report shall also include the following:

(1) An assessment of the child care services, needs and available resources throughout the State and an assessment of the adequacy of existing child care services, including, but not limited to, services assisted under this Act and under any other program administered by other State agencies.

(2) A survey of child day care facilities to determine the number of qualified caregivers, as defined by rule, attracted to vacant positions and any problems encountered by facilities in attracting and retaining capable caregivers. The report shall include an assessment, based on the survey, of improvements in employee benefits that may attract capable caregivers.

(3) The average wages and salaries and fringe benefit packages paid to caregivers throughout the State, computed on a regional basis, compared to similarly qualified employees in other but related fields.

(4) The qualifications of new caregivers hired at licensed child day care facilities during the previous 2-year period.

(5) Recommendations for increasing caregiver wages and salaries to ensure quality care for children.

(6) Evaluation of the fee structure and income eligibility for child care subsidized by the State.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(b) The Department of Human Services shall establish policies and procedures for developing and implementing interagency agreements with other agencies of the State providing child care services or reimbursement for such services. The plans shall be annually reviewed and modified for the purpose of addressing issues of applicability and service system barriers.

(c) In cooperation with other State agencies, the Department of Human Services shall develop and implement, or shall continue, a resource and referral system for the State of Illinois either within the Department or by contract with local or regional agencies. Funding for implementation of this system may be provided through Department appropriations or other inter-agency funding arrangements. The resource and referral system shall provide at least the following services:

(1) Assembling and maintaining a data base on the supply of child care services.

(2) Providing information and referrals for parents.

(3) Coordinating the development of new child care resources.

(4) Providing technical assistance and training to child care service providers.

(5) Recording and analyzing the demand for child care services.

(d) The Department of Human Services shall conduct child day care planning activities with the following priorities:

(1) Development of voluntary child day care resources wherever possible, with the provision for grants-in-aid only where demonstrated to be useful and necessary as incentives or supports. By January 1, 2002, the Department shall design a plan to create more child care slots as well as goals and timetables to improve quality and accessibility of child care.

(2) Emphasis on service to children of recipients of public assistance when such service will allow training or employment of the parent toward achieving the goal of independence.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Care of children from families in stress and crises whose members potentially may become, or are in danger of becoming, non-productive and dependent.

(5) Expansion of family child day care facilities wherever possible.

(6) Location of centers in economically depressed neighborhoods, preferably in multi-service centers with cooperation of other agencies. The Department shall coordinate the provision of grants, but only to the extent funds are specifically appropriated for this purpose, to encourage the creation and expansion of child care centers in high need communities to be issued by the State, business, and local governments.

(7) Use of existing facilities free of charge or for reasonable rental whenever possible in lieu of construction.

(8) Development of strategies for assuring a more complete range of child day care options, including provision of child day care services in homes, in schools, or in centers, which will enable a parent or parents to complete a course of education or obtain or maintain employment and the creation of more child care options for swing shift, evening, and weekend workers and for working women with sick children. The Department shall encourage companies to provide child care in their own offices or in the building in which the corporation is located so that employees of all the building's tenants can benefit from the facility.

(9) Development of strategies for subsidizing students pursuing degrees in the child care field.

(10) Continuation and expansion of service programs that assist teen parents to continue and complete their education.

Emphasis shall be given to support services that will help to ensure such parents' graduation from high school and to services for participants in any programs of job training conducted by the Department.

(e) The Department of Human Services shall actively stimulate the development of public and private resources at the local level. It shall also seek the fullest utilization of federal funds directly or indirectly available to the Department.

Where appropriate, existing non-governmental agencies or associations shall be involved in planning by the Department.

(f) To better accommodate the child care needs of low income working families, especially those who receive Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) or who are transitioning from TANF to work, or who are at risk of depending on TANF in the absence of child care, the Department shall complete a study using outcome-based assessment measurements to analyze the various types of child care needs, including but not limited to: child care homes; child care facilities; before and after school care; and evening and weekend care. Based upon the findings of the study, the Department shall develop a plan by April 15, 1998, that identifies the various types of child care needs within various geographic locations. The plan shall include, but not be limited to, the special needs of parents and guardians in need of non-traditional child care services such as early mornings, evenings, and weekends; the needs of very low income families and children and how they might be better served; and strategies to assist child care providers to meet the needs and schedules of low income families.

(Source: P.A. 100-1148, eff. 12-10-18.)

(20 ILCS 505/21) (from Ch. 23, par. 5021)

Sec. 21. Investigative powers; training.

(a) To make such investigations as it may deem necessary to the performance of its duties.

(b) In the course of any such investigation any qualified person authorized by the Director may administer oaths and secure by its subpoena both the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of books and papers relevant to such investigation. Any person who is served with a subpoena by the Department to appear and testify or to produce books and papers, in the course of an investigation authorized by law, and who refuses or neglects to appear, or to testify, or to produce books and papers relevant to such investigation, as commanded in such subpoena, shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. The fees of witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the same as the fees of witnesses before the circuit courts of this State. Any circuit court of this State, upon application of the person requesting the hearing or the Department, may compel the attendance of witnesses, the production of books and papers, and giving of testimony before the Department or before any authorized officer or employee thereof, by an attachment for contempt or otherwise, in the same manner as production of evidence may be compelled before such court. Every person who, having taken an oath or made affirmation before the Department or any authorized officer or employee thereof, shall willfully swear or affirm falsely, shall be guilty of perjury and upon conviction shall be punished accordingly.

(c) Investigations initiated under this Section shall provide individuals due process of law, including the right to a hearing, to cross-examine witnesses, to obtain relevant documents, and to present evidence. Administrative findings shall be subject to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(d) Beginning July 1, 1988, any child protective investigator or supervisor or child welfare specialist or supervisor employed by the Department on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1987 shall have completed a training program which shall be instituted by the Department. The training program shall include, but not be limited to, the following: (1) training in the detection of symptoms of child neglect and drug abuse; (2) specialized training for dealing with families and children of drug abusers; and (3) specific training in child development, family dynamics and interview techniques. Such program shall conform to the criteria and curriculum developed under Section 4 of the Child Protective Investigator and Child Welfare Specialist Certification Act of 1987. Failure to complete such training due to lack of opportunity provided by the Department shall in no way be grounds for any disciplinary or other action against an investigator or a specialist.

The Department shall develop a continuous inservice staff development program and evaluation system. Each child protective investigator and supervisor and child welfare specialist and supervisor shall participate in such program and evaluation and shall complete a minimum of 20 hours of inservice education and training every 2 years in order to maintain certification.

Any child protective investigator or child protective supervisor, or child welfare specialist or child welfare specialist supervisor hired by the Department who begins his actual employment after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1987, shall be certified pursuant to the Child Protective Investigator and Child Welfare Specialist Certification Act of 1987 before he begins such employment. Nothing in this Act shall replace or diminish the rights of employees under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, as amended, or the National Labor Relations Act. In the event of any conflict between either of those Acts, or any collective bargaining agreement negotiated thereunder, and the provisions of subsections (d) and (e), the former shall prevail and control.

(e) The Department shall develop and implement the following:

(1) A standardized child endangerment risk assessment protocol.

(2) Related training procedures.

(3) A standardized method for demonstration of proficiency in application of the protocol.

(4) An evaluation of the reliability and validity of the protocol.

All child protective investigators and supervisors and child welfare specialists and supervisors employed by the Department or its contractors shall be required, subsequent to the availability of training under this Act, to demonstrate proficiency in application of the protocol previous to being permitted to make decisions about the degree of risk posed to children for whom they are responsible. The Department shall establish a multi-disciplinary advisory committee appointed by the Director, including but not limited to representatives from the fields of child development, domestic violence, family systems, juvenile justice, law enforcement, health care, mental health, substance abuse, and social service to advise the Department and its related contractors in the development and implementation of the child endangerment risk assessment protocol, related training, method for demonstration of proficiency in application of the protocol, and evaluation of the reliability and validity of the protocol. The Department shall develop the protocol, training curriculum, method for demonstration of proficiency in application of the protocol and method for evaluation of the reliability and validity of the protocol by July 1, 1995. Training and demonstration of proficiency in application of the child endangerment risk assessment protocol for all child protective investigators and supervisors and child welfare specialists and supervisors shall be completed as soon as practicable, but no later than January 1, 1996. The Department shall submit to the General Assembly on or before May 1, 1996, and every year thereafter, an annual report on the evaluation of the reliability and validity of the child endangerment risk assessment protocol. The Department shall contract with a not for profit organization with demonstrated expertise in the field of child endangerment risk assessment to assist in the development and implementation of the child endangerment risk assessment protocol, related training, method for demonstration of proficiency in application of the protocol, and evaluation of the reliability and validity of the protocol.

(f) The Department shall provide each parent or guardian and responsible adult caregiver participating in a safety plan a copy of the written safety plan as signed by each parent or guardian and responsible adult caregiver and by a representative of the Department. The Department shall also provide each parent or guardian and responsible adult caregiver safety plan information on their rights and responsibilities that shall include, but need not be limited to, information on how to obtain medical care, emergency phone numbers, and information on how to notify schools or child day care providers as appropriate. The Department's representative shall ensure that the safety plan is reviewed and approved by the child protection supervisor.

(Source: P.A. 98-830, eff. 1-1-15.)

(20 ILCS 505/22.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5022.1)

Sec. 22.1. Grants-in-aid for child care services; Department of Human Services.

(a) Blank.

(b) Blank.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall establish and operate child day care facilities for the children of migrant workers in areas of the State where they are needed. The Department may provide these child day care services by contracting with private centers if practicable. "Migrant worker" means any person who moves seasonally from one place to another, within or without the State, for the purpose of employment in agricultural activities.

(Source: P.A. 97-516, eff. 8-23-11.)

(20 ILCS 505/22.4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5022.4)

Sec. 22.4. Low-interest loans for child care facilities; Department of Human Services. The Department of Human Services may establish, with financing to be provided through the issuance of bonds by the Illinois Finance Authority pursuant to the Illinois Finance Authority Act, a low-interest loan program to help child care centers and family child day care homes accomplish the following:

(a) establish a child care program;

(b) meet federal, State and local child care standards as well as any applicable health and safety standards; or

(c) build facilities or renovate or expand existing facilities.

Such loans shall be available only to child care centers and family child day care homes serving children of low income families.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04.)

Section 20. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 605-1050 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-1050)

Sec. 605-1050. Coronavirus Back to Business Grant Program (or Back to Business Program).

(a) Purpose. The Department may receive State funds and, directly or indirectly, federal funds under the authority of legislation passed in response to the Coronavirus epidemic including, but not limited to, the Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act, P.L. 116-136 (the "CARES Act") and the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021, P.L. 117-2 (the "ARPA Act"); such funds shall be used in accordance with the CARES Act and ARPA Act legislation and published guidance. Section 5001 of the CARES Act establishes the Coronavirus Relief Fund, which authorizes the State to expend funds that are necessary to respond to the COVID-19 public health emergency. The financial support of Qualifying Businesses is a necessary expense under federal guidance for implementing Section 5001 of the CARES Act. Upon receipt or availability of such State or federal funds, and subject to appropriations for their use, the Department shall administer a program to provide financial assistance to Qualifying Businesses that have experienced interruption of business or other adverse conditions attributable to the COVID-19 public health emergency. Support may be provided directly by the Department to businesses and organizations or in cooperation with a Qualified Partner. Financial assistance may include, but not be limited to grants, expense reimbursements, or subsidies.

(b) From appropriations for the Back to Business Program, up to $60,000,000 may be allotted to the repayment or conversion of Eligible Loans made pursuant to the Department's Emergency Loan Fund Program. An Eligible Loan may be repaid or converted through a grant payment, subsidy, or reimbursement payment to the recipient or, on behalf of the recipient, to the Qualified Partner, or by any other lawful method.

(c) From appropriations for the Back to Business Program, the Department shall provide financial assistance through grants, expense reimbursements, or subsidies to Qualifying Businesses or a Qualified Partner to cover expenses or losses incurred due to the COVID-19 public health emergency or for start-up costs of a new Qualifying Business. All spending related to this program from federal funds must be reimbursable by the Federal Coronavirus Relief Fund in accordance with Section 5001 of the federal CARES Act, the ARPA Act, and any related federal guidance, or the provisions of any other federal source supporting the program.

(d) As more fully described in subsection (c), funds will be appropriated to the Back to Business Program for distribution to or on behalf of Qualifying Businesses. Of the funds appropriated, a minimum of 40% shall be allotted for Qualifying Businesses with ZIP codes located in the most disproportionately impacted areas of Illinois, based on positive COVID-19 cases.

(e) The Department shall coordinate with the Department of Human Services with respect to making grants, expense reimbursements or subsidies to any child care or day care provider providing services under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code to determine what resources the Department of Human Services may be providing to a child care or day care provider under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(f) The Department may establish by rule administrative procedures for the grant program, including any application procedures, grant agreements, certifications, payment methodologies, and other accountability measures that may be imposed upon participants in the program. The emergency rulemaking process may be used to promulgate the initial rules of the grant program and any amendments to the rules following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(g) Definitions. As used in this Section:

(1) "COVID-19" means the novel coronavirus disease deemed COVID-19 by the World Health Organization on February 11, 2020.

(2) "Qualifying Business" means a business or organization that has experienced or is experiencing business interruption or other adverse conditions due to the COVID-19 public health emergency, and includes a new business or organization started after March 1, 2020 in the midst of adverse conditions due to the COVID-19 public health emergency.

(3) "Eligible Loan" means a loan of up to $50,000 that was deemed eligible for funding under the Department's Emergency Loan Fund Program and for which repayment will be eligible for reimbursement from Coronavirus Relief Fund monies pursuant to Section 5001 of the federal CARES Act or the ARPA Act and any related federal guidance.

(4) "Emergency Loan Fund Program", also referred to as the "COVID-19 Emergency Relief Program", is a program executed by the Department by which the State Small Business Credit Initiative fund is utilized to guarantee loans released by a financial intermediary or Qualified Partner.

(5) "Qualified Partner" means a financial institution or nonprofit with which the Department has entered into an agreement or contract to provide or incentivize assistance to Qualifying Businesses.

(h) Powers of the Department. The Department has the power to:

(1) provide grants, subsidies and expense reimbursements to Qualifying Businesses or, on behalf of Qualifying Businesses, to Qualifying Partners from appropriations to cover Qualifying Businesses eligible costs or losses incurred due to the COVID-19 public health emergency, including losses caused by business interruption or closure and including start-up costs for new Qualifying Businesses;

(2) enter into agreements, accept funds, issue grants, and engage in cooperation with agencies of the federal government, units of local government, financial institutions, and nonprofit organizations to carry out the purposes of this Program, and to use funds appropriated for the Back to Business Program;

(3) prepare forms for application, notification, contract, and other matters, and establish procedures, rules, or regulations deemed necessary and appropriate to carry out the provisions of this Section;

(4) provide staff, administration, and related support required to manage the Back to Business Program and pay for the staffing, administration, and related support;

(5) using data provided by the Illinois Department of Public Health and other reputable sources, determine which geographic regions in Illinois have been most disproportionately impacted by the COVID-19 public health emergency, considering factors of positive cases, positive case rates, and economic impact; and

(6) determine which industries and businesses in Illinois have been most disproportionately impacted by the COVID-19 public health emergency and establish procedures that prioritize greatly impacted industries and businesses, as well as Qualifying Businesses that did not receive paycheck protection program assistance.

(Source: P.A. 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21.)

Section 25. The Illinois Enterprise Zone Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(20 ILCS 655/8) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 612)

Sec. 8. Zone Administration. The administration of an Enterprise Zone shall be under the jurisdiction of the designating municipality or county. Each designating municipality or county shall, by ordinance, designate a Zone Administrator for the certified zones within its jurisdiction. A Zone Administrator must be an officer or employee of the municipality or county. The Zone Administrator shall be the liaison between the designating municipality or county, the Department, and any designated zone organizations within zones under his jurisdiction.

A designating municipality or county may designate one or more organizations qualified under paragraph (d) of Section 3 to be designated zone organizations for purposes of this Act. The municipality or county, may, by ordinance, delegate functions within an Enterprise Zone to one or more designated zone organizations in such zones.

Subject to the necessary governmental authorizations, designated zone organizations may provide the following services or perform the following functions in coordination with the municipality or county:

(a) Provide or contract for provision of public services including, but not limited to:

(1) establishment of crime watch patrols within zone neighborhoods;

(2) establishment of volunteer child day care centers;

(3) organization of recreational activities for zone area youth;

(4) garbage collection;

(5) street maintenance and improvements;

(6) bridge maintenance and improvements;

(7) maintenance and improvement of water and sewer lines;

(8) energy conservation projects;

(9) health and clinic services;

(10) drug abuse programs;

(11) senior citizen assistance programs;

(12) park maintenance;

(13) rehabilitation, renovation, and operation and maintenance of low and moderate income housing; and

(14) other types of public services as provided by law or regulation.

(b) Exercise authority for the enforcement of any code, permit, or licensing procedure within an Enterprise Zone.

(c) Provide a forum for business, labor and government action on zone innovations.

(d) Apply for regulatory relief as provided in Section 8 of this Act.

(e) Receive title to publicly owned land.

(f) Perform such other functions as the responsible government entity may deem appropriate, including offerings and contracts for insurance with businesses within the Zone.

(g) Agree with local governments to provide such public services within the zones by contracting with private firms and organizations, where feasible and prudent.

(h) Solicit and receive contributions to improve the quality of life in the Enterprise Zone.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

Section 30. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Sections 1-75 and 10-22 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-75)

Sec. 1-75. Off-Hours Child Care Program.

(a) Legislative intent. The General Assembly finds that:

(1) Finding child care can be a challenge for firefighters, paramedics, police officers, nurses, and other third shift workers across the State who often work non-typical work hours. This can impact home life, school, bedtime routines, job safety, and the mental health of some of our most critical front line workers and their families.

(2) There is a need for increased options for off-hours child care in the State. A majority of the State's child care facilities do not provide care outside of normal work hours, with just 3,251 child day care homes and 435 group child day care homes that provide night care.

(3) Illinois has a vested interest in ensuring that our first responders and working families can provide their children with appropriate care during off hours to improve the morale of existing first responders and to improve recruitment into the future.

(b) As used in this Section, "first responders" means emergency medical services personnel as defined in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, firefighters, law enforcement officers, and, as determined by the Department, any other workers who, on account of their work schedule, need child care outside of the hours when licensed child care facilities typically operate.

(c) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services shall establish and administer an Off-Hours Child Care Program to help first responders and other workers identify and access off-hours, night, or sleep time child care. Services funded under the program must address the child care needs of first responders. Funding provided under the program may also be used to cover any capital and operating expenses related to the provision of off-hours, night, or sleep time child care for first responders. Funding awarded under this Section shall be funded through appropriations from the Off-Hours Child Care Program Fund created under subsection (d). The Department shall implement the program by July 1, 2023. The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement the program.

(d) The Off-Hours Child Care Program Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Fund shall consist of any moneys appropriated to the Department of Human Services for the Off-Hours Child Care Program. Moneys in the Fund shall be expended for the Off-Hours Child Care Program and for no other purpose. All interest earned on moneys in the Fund shall be deposited into the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-912, eff. 5-27-22.)

(20 ILCS 1305/10-22)

Sec. 10-22. Great START program.

(a) The Department of Human Services shall, subject to a specific appropriation for this purpose, operate a Great START (Strategy To Attract and Retain Teachers) program. The goal of the program is to improve children's developmental and educational outcomes in child care by encouraging increased professional preparation by staff and staff retention. The Great START program shall coordinate with the TEACH professional development program.

The program shall provide wage supplements and may include other incentives to licensed child care center personnel, including early childhood teachers, school-age workers, early childhood assistants, school-age assistants, and directors, as such positions are defined by administrative rule of the Department of Children and Family Services. The program shall provide wage supplements and may include other incentives to licensed family child day care home personnel and licensed group child day care home personnel, including caregivers and assistants as such positions are defined by administrative rule of the Department of Children and Family Services. Individuals will receive supplements commensurate with their qualifications.

(b) (Blank).

(c) The Department shall, by rule, define the scope and operation of the program, including a wage supplement scale. The scale shall pay increasing amounts for higher levels of educational attainment beyond minimum qualifications and shall recognize longevity of employment. Subject to the availability of sufficient appropriation, the wage supplements shall be paid to child care personnel in the form of bonuses at 6 month intervals. Six months of continuous service with a single employer is required to be eligible to receive a wage supplement bonus. Wage supplements shall be paid directly to individual child day care personnel, not to their employers. Eligible individuals must provide to the Department or its agent all information and documentation, including but not limited to college transcripts, to demonstrate their qualifications for a particular wage supplement level.

If appropriations permit, the Department may include one-time signing bonuses or other incentives to help providers attract staff, provided that the signing bonuses are less than the supplement staff would have received if they had remained employed with another child day care center or family child day care home.

If appropriations permit, the Department may include one-time longevity bonuses or other incentives to recognize staff who have remained with a single employer.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 93-711, eff. 7-12-04.)

Section 35. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Section 57.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/57.5)

Sec. 57.5. Autism diagnosis education program.

(a) Subject to appropriations, the Department shall contract to establish an autism diagnosis education program for young children. The Department shall establish the program at 3 different sites in the State. The program shall have the following goals:

(1) Providing, to medical professionals and others statewide, a systems development initiative that promotes best practice standards for the diagnosis and treatment planning for young children who have autism spectrum disorders, for the purpose of helping existing systems of care to build solid circles of expertise within their ranks.

(2) Educating medical practitioners, school personnel, child day care providers, parents, and community service providers (including, but not limited to, early intervention and developmental disabilities providers) throughout the State on appropriate diagnosis and treatment of autism.

(3) Supporting systems of care for young children with autism spectrum disorders.

(4) Working together with universities and developmental disabilities providers to identify unmet needs and resources.

(5) Encouraging and supporting research on optional services for young children with autism spectrum disorders.

In addition to the aforementioned items, on January 1, 2008, The Autism Program shall expand training and direct services by deploying additional regional centers, outreach centers, and community planning and network development initiatives. The expanded Autism Program Service Network shall consist of a comprehensive program of outreach and center development utilizing model programs developed by The Autism Program. This expansion shall span Illinois and support consensus building, outreach, and service provision for children with autism spectrums disorders and their families.

(b) Before January 1, 2006, the Department shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly concerning the progress of the autism diagnosis education program established under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-707, eff. 1-11-08.)

Section 40. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended by changing Section 840-5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3501/840-5)

Sec. 840-5. The Authority shall have the following powers:

(a) To fix and revise from time to time and charge and collect rates, rents, fees and charges for the use of and for the services furnished or to be furnished by a project or other health facilities owned, financed or refinanced by the Authority or any portion thereof and to contract with any person, partnership, association or corporation or other body, public or private, in respect thereto; to coordinate its policies and procedures and cooperate with recognized health facility rate setting mechanisms which may now or hereafter be established.

(b) To establish rules and regulations for the use of a project or other health facilities owned, financed or refinanced by the Authority or any portion thereof and to designate a participating health institution as its agent to establish rules and regulations for the use of a project or other health facilities owned by the Authority undertaken for that participating health institution.

(c) To establish or contract with others to carry out on its behalf a health facility project cost estimating service and to make this service available on all projects to provide expert cost estimates and guidance to the participating health institution and to the Authority. In order to implement this service and, through it, to contribute to cost containment, the Authority shall have the power to require such reasonable reports and documents from health facility projects as may be required for this service and for the development of cost reports and guidelines. The Authority may appoint a Technical Committee on Health Facility Project Costs and Cost Containment.

(d) To make mortgage or other secured or unsecured loans to or for the benefit of any participating health institution for the cost of a project in accordance with an agreement between the Authority and the participating health institution; provided that no such loan shall exceed the total cost of the project as determined by the participating health institution and approved by the Authority; provided further that such loans may be made to any entity affiliated with a participating health institution if the proceeds of such loan are made available to or applied for the benefit of such participating health institution.

(e) To make mortgage or other secured or unsecured loans to or for the benefit of a participating health institution in accordance with an agreement between the Authority and the participating health institution to refund outstanding obligations, loans, indebtedness or advances issued, made, given or incurred by such participating health institution for the cost of a project; including the function to issue bonds and make loans to or for the benefit of a participating health institution to refinance indebtedness incurred by such participating health institution in projects undertaken and completed or for other health facilities acquired prior to or after the enactment of this Act when the Authority finds that such refinancing is in the public interest, and either alleviates a financial hardship of such participating health institution, or is in connection with other financing by the Authority for such participating health institution or may be expected to result in a lessened cost of patient care and a saving to third parties, including government, and to others who must pay for care, or any combination thereof; provided further that such loans may be made to any entity affiliated with a participating health institution if the proceeds of such loan are made available to or applied for the benefit of such participating health institution.

(f) To mortgage all or any portion of a project or other health facilities and the property on which any such project or other health facilities are located whether owned or thereafter acquired, and to assign or pledge mortgages, deeds of trust, indentures of mortgage or trust or similar instruments, notes, and other securities of participating health institutions to which or for the benefit of which the Authority has made loans or of entities affiliated with such institutions and the revenues therefrom, including payments or income from any thereof owned or held by the Authority, for the benefit of the holders of bonds issued to finance such project or health facilities or issued to refund or refinance outstanding obligations, loans, indebtedness or advances of participating health institutions as permitted by this Act.

(g) To lease to a participating health institution the project being financed or refinanced or other health facilities conveyed to the Authority in connection with such financing or refinancing, upon such terms and conditions as the Authority shall deem proper, and to charge and collect rents therefor and to terminate any such lease upon the failure of the lessee to comply with any of the obligations thereof; and to include in any such lease, if desired, provisions that the lessee thereof shall have options to renew the lease for such period or periods and at such rent as shall be determined by the Authority or to purchase any or all of the health facilities or that upon payment of all of the indebtedness incurred by the Authority for the financing of such project or health facilities or for refunding outstanding obligations, loans, indebtedness or advances of a participating health institution, then the Authority may convey any or all of the project or such other health facilities to the lessee or lessees thereof with or without consideration.

(h) To make studies of needed health facilities that could not sustain a loan were it made under this Act and to recommend remedial action to the General Assembly; to do the same with regard to any laws or regulations that prevent health facilities from benefiting from this Act.

(i) To assist the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to establish and implement a program to assist health facilities to identify and arrange financing for energy conservation projects in buildings and facilities owned or leased by health facilities.

(j) To assist the Department of Human Services in establishing a low interest loan program to help child care centers and family child day care homes serving children of low income families under Section 22.4 of the Children and Family Services Act. The Authority, on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, is authorized to convert existing agreements for financial aid in accordance with Section 840-5(j) to permanent capital to leverage additional private capital and establish a revolving loan fund for nonprofit corporations providing human services under contract to the State.

(k) To assist the Department of Public Health and nursing homes in undertaking nursing home conversion projects in accordance with the Older Adult Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-654, eff. 1-13-12.)

Section 45. The Asbestos Abatement Finance Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3510/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 8102)

Sec. 2. Definitions. The following words and terms, whether or not capitalized, have the following meanings, unless the context or use clearly requires otherwise:

"Asbestos" means asbestos as defined and used in the federal Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, including the regulations promulgated under that Act.

"Asbestos Abatement Project" means asbestos inspection, planning and response action under and within the meaning of the federal Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, to abate a health hazard caused directly or indirectly by the existence of asbestos in any building or other facility owned, operated, maintained or occupied in whole or in part by a public corporation or a private institution.

"Authority" means the Illinois Finance Authority.

"Board" means the Board of the Authority.

"Bond" means any bond, note or other evidence of indebtedness issued by the Authority under this Act.

"Chairman" means the Chairman of the Authority.

"Cost" as applied to an asbestos abatement project means the costs incurred or to be incurred by a public corporation or a private institution in the removal, encapsulation, enclosure, repair, or maintenance of asbestos in any building or other facility owned, operated, maintained or occupied in whole or in part by a public corporation or a private institution, including all incidental costs such as engineering, architectural, consulting and legal expenses incurred in connection with an asbestos abatement project, plans, specifications, surveys, estimates of costs and revenues, finance charges, interest before and during construction of an asbestos abatement project and, for up to 18 months after completion of construction, other expenses necessary or incident to determining the need, feasibility or practicability of an asbestos abatement project, administrative expenses, and such other costs, charges and expenses as may be necessary or incident to the construction or financing of any asbestos abatement project. As used in this Act, "cost" means not only costs of an asbestos abatement project expected to be incurred in the future, but costs already incurred and paid by a public corporation or a private institution so that a public corporation or a private institution shall be permitted to reimburse itself for those costs previously incurred and paid.

"Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, association, or corporation, separately or in any combination.

"Private institution" means any not-for-profit organization within the meaning of Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, including any private or nonpublic pre-school, child day care center, day or residential educational institution that provides elementary or secondary education for grades 12 or under, any private or nonpublic college or university, or any hospital, health care or long term care institution.

"Private institution security" means any bond, note, loan agreement, or other evidence of indebtedness which a private institution is legally authorized to issue or enter into for the purpose of financing or refinancing the costs of an asbestos abatement project.

"Public corporation" means any body corporate organized by or under the laws of this State to carry out a public governmental or proprietary function, including the State, any State agency, any school district, park district, city, village, incorporated town, county, township, drainage or any other type of district, board, commission, authority, university, public community college or any combination (including any combination under Section 10 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution or under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act of 1973, as now or hereafter amended), acting through their corporate authorities, and any other unit of local government within the meaning of Section 1 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

"Public corporation security" means any bond, note, loan agreement, or other evidence of indebtedness which a public corporation is legally authorized to issue or enter into for the purpose of financing or refinancing the costs of an asbestos abatement project.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Authority.

"State" means the State of Illinois.

"Treasurer" means the Treasurer of the Authority.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04.)

Section 50. The State Agency Employees Child Care Services Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3, 4, and 5 as follows:

(30 ILCS 590/2) (from Ch. 127, par. 3002)

Sec. 2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them:

1. "Department" means the Department of Central Management Services.

2. "State agency" means all departments, officers, commissions, boards, institutions and bodies politic and corporate of the State, including the offices of Clerk of the Supreme Court and Clerks of the Appellate Courts, the several courts of the State and the legislature, its committees or commissions.

3. "Child care services" means child day care home or center services as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 84-652.)

(30 ILCS 590/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 3003)

Sec. 3. The Department may authorize a State agency to contract for the provision of child care services for its employees. The Department may, in accordance with established rules, allow child day care centers to operate in State-owned or leased facilities. Such facilities shall be primarily for use by State employees but use by non-employees may be allowed.

Where a State agency enters into a contract to construct, acquire or lease all or a substantial portion of a building, in which more than 50 persons shall be employed, other than a renewal of an existing lease, after July 1, 1990, and where a need has been demonstrated, according to Section 4 of this Act, on-site child care services shall be provided for State employees.

The Department shall implement this Act and shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for this purpose. By April 1, 1991, the Department shall propose rules setting forth the standards and criteria, including need and feasibility, for determining if on-site child care services shall be provided. The Department shall consult with the Department of Children and Family Services in defining standards for child care service centers established pursuant to this Act to ensure compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969. The Department shall establish a schedule of fees that shall be charged to employees of State agencies who may obtain child care services under this Act. Such schedule shall be established so that charges for service are based on the actual cost of care. Except as otherwise provided by law for employees who may qualify for public assistance or social services due to indigency or family circumstance, each employee obtaining child care services under this Act shall be responsible for full payment of such charges. The Department shall report, on or before December 31 of each year, to the Governor and the members of the General Assembly, on the feasibility and implementation of a plan for the provision of comprehensive child care services.

(Source: P.A. 86-1482.)

(30 ILCS 590/4) (from Ch. 127, par. 3004)

Sec. 4. Prior to receiving authorization from the Department to contract for child care services, a State agency shall demonstrate a need for such services. Proof of need submitted to the Department may include a survey of agency employees as well as a determination of the availability of child care services under such agency, through other State agencies, or in the community. The Department may also require submission of a feasibility, design and implementation plan, which takes into consideration similar needs and services of other State agencies.

The Department shall assist any State agency authorized to procure child care services in the preparation of a request for proposals, in order to assure that the services provided address the specific needs of the agency personnel.

Any State agency authorized by the Department to contract for child care services shall have the sole responsibility for choosing the successful bidder and overseeing the operation of its child care service program within the guidelines established by the Department. The Department shall promulgate rules pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act which detail the specific standards to be used by the Director of any State agency in the selection of a vendor of child care services.

The State agency's contract shall provide for the establishment of or arrangement for the use of a licensed child day care center or a licensed child day care agency, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

State agencies with similar needs, or those with small employee populations may group together to establish need and contract for the provision of child care services.

(Source: P.A. 85-1337; 86-1482.)

(30 ILCS 590/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 3005)

Sec. 5. The General Assembly, through the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services, may contract for the establishment of child care services, which may also serve as a prototype or model of such services for other state agencies. Such a center shall use a schedule of fees and charges established by the Department under Section 3 of this Act. Such a center may also be used for the conduct of research on child development, child day care standards, the effect of employer-assisted child care on employee morale and productivity or other subjects as determined by the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services, in consultation with the Department of Children and Family Services.

(Source: P.A. 84-652.)

Section 55. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2c as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/2c) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.2c)

Sec. 2c. For purposes of this Act, a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes shall include: all tax-supported public schools; private schools which offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and which compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools; licensed child day care centers as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 which are operated by a not for profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution or organization; vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business or commercial occupation.

However, a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated for the purpose of offering professional, trade or business seminars of short duration, self-improvement or personality development courses, courses which are avocational or recreational in nature, courses pursued entirely by open circuit television or radio, correspondence courses, or courses which do not provide specialized training within a specific vocational or technical field shall not be considered to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes.

(Source: P.A. 88-480.)

Section 60. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2c as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/2c) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.102c)

Sec. 2c. For purposes of this Act, a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes shall include: all tax-supported public schools; private schools which offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and which compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools; licensed child day care centers as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 which are operated by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution or organization; vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business or commercial occupation.

However, a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated for the purpose of offering professional, trade or business seminars of short duration, self-improvement or personality development courses, courses which are avocational or recreational in nature, courses pursued entirely by open circuit television or radio, correspondence courses, or courses which do not provide specialized training within a specific vocational or technical field shall not be considered to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes.

(Source: P.A. 88-480.)

Section 65. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2h as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2h) (from Ch. 120, par. 441h)

Sec. 2h. For purposes of this Act, a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes shall include: all tax-supported public schools; private schools which offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and which compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools; licensed child day care centers as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 which are operated by a not for profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution or organization; vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business or commercial occupation.

However, a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated for the purpose of offering professional, trade or business seminars of short duration, self-improvement or personality development courses, courses which are avocational or recreational in nature, courses pursued entirely by open circuit television or radio, correspondence courses, or courses which do not provide specialized training within a specific vocational or technical field shall not be considered to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes.

(Source: P.A. 88-480.)

Section 70. The Community Self-Revitalization Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(50 ILCS 350/15)

Sec. 15. Certification; Board of Economic Advisors.

(a) In order to receive the assistance as provided in this Act, a community shall first, by ordinance passed by its corporate authorities, request that the Department certify that it is an economically distressed community. The community must submit a certified copy of the ordinance to the Department. After review of the ordinance, if the Department determines that the community meets the requirements for certification, the Department may certify the community as an economically distressed community.

(b) A community that is certified by the Department as an economically distressed community may appoint a Board of Economic Advisors to create and implement a revitalization plan for the community. The Board shall consist of 18 members of the community, appointed by the mayor or the presiding officer of the county or jointly by the presiding officers of each municipality and county that have joined to form a community for the purposes of this Act. Up to 18 Board members may be appointed from the following vital sectors:

(1) A member representing households and families.

(2) A member representing religious organizations.

(3) A member representing educational institutions.

(4) A member representing child care daycare centers, care centers for persons with disabilities, and care centers for the disadvantaged.

(5) A member representing community based organizations such as neighborhood improvement associations.

(6) A member representing federal and State employment service systems, skill training centers, and placement referrals.

(7) A member representing Masonic organizations, fraternities, sororities, and social clubs.

(8) A member representing hospitals, nursing homes, senior citizens, public health agencies, and funeral homes.

(9) A member representing organized sports, parks, parties, and games of chance.

(10) A member representing political parties, clubs, and affiliations, and election related matters concerning voter education and participation.

(11) A member representing the cultural aspects of the community, including cultural events, lifestyles, languages, music, visual and performing arts, and literature.

(12) A member representing police and fire protection agencies, prisons, weapons systems, and the military industrial complex.

(13) A member representing local businesses.

(14) A member representing the retail industry.

(15) A member representing the service industry.

(16) A member representing the industrial, production, and manufacturing sectors.

(17) A member representing the advertising and marketing industry.

(18) A member representing the technology services industry.

The Board shall meet initially within 30 days of its appointment, shall select one member as chairperson at its initial meeting, and shall thereafter meet at the call of the chairperson. Members of the Board shall serve without compensation.

(c) One third of the initial appointees shall serve for 2 years, one third shall serve for 3 years, and one third shall serve for 4 years, as determined by lot. Subsequent appointees shall serve terms of 5 years.

(d) The Board shall create a 3-year to 5-year revitalization plan for the community. The plan shall contain distinct, measurable objectives for revitalization. The objectives shall be used to guide ongoing implementation of the plan and to measure progress during the 3-year to 5-year period. The Board shall work in a dynamic manner defining goals for the community based on the strengths and weaknesses of the individual sectors of the community as presented by each member of the Board. The Board shall meet periodically and revise the plan in light of the input from each member of the Board concerning his or her respective sector of expertise. The process shall be a community driven revitalization process, with community-specific data determining the direction and scope of the revitalization.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

Section 75. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 4-11001 and 5-1097.5 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/4-11001) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-11001)

(Text of Section WITH the changes made by P.A. 98-1132, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 4-11001. Juror fees. Each county shall pay to grand and petit jurors for their services in attending courts the sums of $25 for the first day and thereafter $50 for each day of necessary attendance, or such higher amount as may be fixed by the county board.

If a judge so orders, a juror shall also receive reimbursement for the actual cost of child day care incurred by the juror during his or her service on a jury.

The juror fees for service and child day care shall be paid out of the county treasury.

The clerk of the court shall furnish to each juror without fee whenever he is discharged a certificate of the number of days' attendance at court, and upon presentation thereof to the county treasurer, he shall pay to the juror the sum provided for his service.

Any juror may elect to waive the fee paid for service, transportation, or child day care, or any combination thereof.

(Source: P.A. 97-840, eff. 1-1-13; 98-1132, eff. 6-1-15.)

(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 98-1132, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 4-11001. Juror fees. Each county shall pay to grand and petit jurors for their services in attending courts the sum of $4 for each day of necessary attendance at such courts as jurors in counties of the first class, the sum of $5 for each day in counties of the second class, and the sum of $10 for each day in counties of the third class, or such higher amount as may be fixed by the county board.

In addition, jurors shall receive such travel expense as may be determined by the county board, provided that jurors in counties of the first class and second class shall receive at least 10 cents per mile for their travel expense. Mileage shall be allowed for travel during a juror's term as well as for travel at the opening and closing of his term.

If a judge so orders, a juror shall also receive reimbursement for the actual cost of child day care incurred by the juror during his or her service on a jury.

The juror fees for service, transportation, and child day care shall be paid out of the county treasury.

The clerk of the court shall furnish to each juror without fee whenever he is discharged a certificate of the number of days' attendance at court, and upon presentation thereof to the county treasurer, he shall pay to the juror the sum provided for his service.

Any juror may elect to waive the fee paid for service, transportation, or child day care, or any combination thereof.

(Source: P.A. 97-840, eff. 1-1-13.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1097.5)

Sec. 5-1097.5. Adult entertainment facility. It is prohibited within an unincorporated area of a county to locate an adult entertainment facility within 3,000 feet of the property boundaries of any school, child day care center, cemetery, public park, forest preserve, public housing, place of religious worship, or residence, except that in a county with a population of more than 800,000 and less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, it is prohibited to locate, construct, or operate a new adult entertainment facility within one mile of the property boundaries of any school, child day care center, cemetery, public park, forest preserve, public housing, or place of religious worship located anywhere within that county. Notwithstanding any other requirements of this Section, it is also prohibited to locate, construct, or operate a new adult entertainment facility within one mile of the property boundaries of any school, child day care center, cemetery, public park, forest preserve, public housing, or place of religious worship located in that area of Cook County outside of the City of Chicago.

For the purposes of this Section, "adult entertainment facility" means (i) a striptease club or pornographic movie theatre whose business is the commercial sale, dissemination, or distribution of sexually explicit material, shows, or other exhibitions or (ii) an adult bookstore or adult video store whose primary business is the commercial sale, dissemination, or distribution of sexually explicit material, shows, or other exhibitions. "Unincorporated area of a county" means any area not within the boundaries of a municipality.

The State's Attorney of the county where the adult entertainment facility is located or the Attorney General may institute a civil action for an injunction to restrain violations of this Section. In that proceeding, the court shall determine whether a violation has been committed and shall enter such orders as it considers necessary to remove the effect of any violation and to prevent the violation from continuing or from being renewed in the future.

(Source: P.A. 94-496, eff. 1-1-06; 95-214, eff. 8-16-07.)

Section 80. The Township Code is amended by changing Section 85-13 as follows:

(60 ILCS 1/85-13)

Sec. 85-13. Township services, generally.

(a) The township board may either expend funds directly or may enter into any cooperative agreement or contract with any other governmental entity, not-for-profit corporation, non-profit community service association, or any for-profit business entity as provided in subsection (b) with respect to the expenditure of township funds, or funds made available to the township under the federal State and Local Fiscal Assistance Act of 1972, to provide any of the following services to the residents of the township:

(1) Ordinary and necessary maintenance and operating expenses for the following:

(A) Public safety (including law enforcement, fire protection, and building code enforcement).

(B) Environmental protection (including sewage disposal, sanitation, and pollution abatement).

(C) Public transportation (including transit systems, paratransit systems, and streets and roads).

(D) Health.

(E) Recreation.

(F) Libraries.

(G) Social services for the poor and aged.

(2) Ordinary and necessary capital expenditures authorized by law.

(3) Development and retention of business, industrial, manufacturing, and tourist facilities within the township.

(b) To be eligible to receive funds from the township under this Section, a private not-for-profit corporation or community service association shall have been in existence at least one year before receiving the funds. The township board may, however, for the purpose of providing child day care services, contract with child day care facilities licensed under the Child Care Act of 1969, regardless of whether the facilities are organized on a for-profit or not-for-profit basis.

(c) Township governments that directly expend or contract for child day care shall use the standard of need established by the Department of Children and Family Services in determining recipients of subsidized child day care and shall use the rate schedule used by the Department of Children and Family Services for the purchase of subsidized child day care.

(d) Township governments that directly expend or contract for senior citizen services may contract with for-profit (or not-for-profit) and non-sectarian organizations as provided in Sections 220-15 and 220-35.

(e) Those township supervisors or other elected township officials who are also members of a county board shall not vote on questions before the township board or the county board that relate to agreements or contracts between the township and the county under this Section or agreements or contracts between the township and the county that are otherwise authorized by law.

(f) The township board may enter into direct agreements with for-profit corporations or other business entities to carry out recycling programs in unincorporated areas of the township.

The township board may by ordinance administer a recycling program or adopt rules and regulations relating to recycling programs in unincorporated areas of the township that it from time to time deems necessary and may provide penalties for violations of those rules and regulations.

(g) For purposes of alleviating high unemployment, economically depressed conditions, and lack of moderately priced housing, the trustees of a township that includes all or a portion of a city that is a "financially distressed city" under the Financially Distressed City Law may contract with one or more not-for-profit or for-profit organizations to construct and operate within the boundaries of the township a factory designed to manufacture housing or housing components. The contract may provide for the private organization or organizations to manage some or all operations of the factory and may provide for (i) payment of employee compensation and taxes; (ii) discharge of other legal responsibilities; (iii) sale of products; (iv) disposition of the factory, equipment, and other property; and (v) any other matters the township trustees consider reasonable.

(Source: P.A. 95-119, eff. 8-13-07.)

Section 85. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-3-18, 11-5-1.5, 11-21.5-5, 11-74.4-3, and 11-80-15 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-3-18)

Sec. 8-3-18. A municipality, upon a majority vote of its governing authority, may abate taxes levied for corporate purposes under Section 8-3-1 in an amount not to exceed 50% of the donation by a taxpayer who donates not less than $10,000 to a qualified program. The abatement shall not exceed the tax extension on the taxpayer's real property for the levy year in which the donation is made.

For purposes of this Section, "qualified program" means a facility or a program in an area designated as a target area by the governing authority of the municipality for the creation or expansion of job training and counseling programs, youth child day care centers, congregate housing programs for senior adults, youth recreation programs, alcohol and drug abuse prevention, mental health counseling programs, domestic violence shelters, and other programs, facilities or services approved by the governing authority as qualified programs in a target area.

(Source: P.A. 88-389.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-5-1.5)

Sec. 11-5-1.5. Adult entertainment facility. It is prohibited within a municipality to locate an adult entertainment facility within 1,000 feet of the property boundaries of any school, child day care center, cemetery, public park, forest preserve, public housing, and place of religious worship, except that in a county with a population of more than 800,000 and less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, it is prohibited to locate, construct, or operate a new adult entertainment facility within one mile of the property boundaries of any school, child day care center, cemetery, public park, forest preserve, public housing, or place of religious worship located anywhere within that county. Notwithstanding any other requirements of this Section, it is also prohibited to locate, construct, or operate a new adult entertainment facility within one mile of the property boundaries of any school, child day care center, cemetery, public park, forest preserve, public housing, or place of religious worship located in that area of Cook County outside of the City of Chicago.

For the purposes of this Section, "adult entertainment facility" means (i) a striptease club or pornographic movie theatre whose business is the commercial sale, dissemination, or distribution of sexually explicit material, shows, or other exhibitions or (ii) an adult bookstore or adult video store in which 25% or more of its stock-in-trade, books, magazines, and films for sale, exhibition, or viewing on-premises are sexually explicit material.

(Source: P.A. 95-47, eff. 1-1-08; 95-214, eff. 8-16-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-21.5-5)

Sec. 11-21.5-5. Local emergency energy plans.

(a) Any municipality, including a home rule municipality, may, by ordinance, require any electric utility (i) that serves more than 1,000,000 customers in Illinois and (ii) that is operating within the corporate limits of the municipality to adopt and to provide the municipality with a local emergency energy plan. For the purposes of this Section, (i) "local emergency energy plan" or "plan" means a planned course of action developed by the electric utility that is implemented when the demand for electricity exceeds, or is at significant risk of exceeding, the supply of electricity available to the electric utility and (ii) "local emergency energy plan ordinance" means an ordinance adopted by the corporate authorities of the municipality under this Section that requires local emergency energy plans.

(b) A local emergency energy plan must include the following information:

(1) the circumstances that would require the implementation of the plan;

(2) the levels or stages of the plan;

(3) the approximate geographic limits of each outage area provided for in the plan;

(4) the approximate number of customers within each outage area provided for in the plan;

(5) any police facilities, fire stations, hospitals, nursing homes, schools, child day care centers, senior citizens centers, community health centers, blood banks, dialysis centers, community mental health centers, correctional facilities, stormwater and wastewater treatment or pumping facilities, water-pumping stations, buildings in excess of 80 feet in height that have been identified by the municipality, and persons on life support systems that are known to the electric utility that could be affected by controlled rotating interruptions of electric service under the plan; and

(6) the anticipated sequence and duration of intentional interruptions of electric service to each outage area under the plan.

(c) A local emergency energy plan ordinance may require that, when an electric utility determines it is necessary to implement a controlled rotating interruption of electric service because the demand for electricity exceeds, or is at significant risk of exceeding, the supply of electricity available to the electric utility, the electric utility notify a designated municipal officer that the electric utility will be implementing its local emergency energy plan. The notification shall be made pursuant to a procedure approved by the municipality after consultation with the electric utility.

(d) After providing the notice required in subsection (c), an electric utility shall reasonably and separately advise designated municipal officials before it implements each level or stage of the plan, which shall include (i) a request for emergency help from neighboring utilities, (ii) a declaration of a control area emergency, and (iii) a public appeal for voluntary curtailment of electricity use.

(e) The electric utility must give a separate notice to a designated municipal official immediately after it determines that there will be a controlled rotating interruption of electric service under the local emergency energy plan. The notification must include (i) the areas in which service will be interrupted, (ii) the sequence and estimated duration of the service outage for each area, (iii) the affected feeders, and (iv) the number of affected customers in each area. Whenever practical, the notification shall be made at least 2 hours before the time of the outages. If the electric utility is aware that controlled rotating interruptions may be required, the notification may not be made less than 30 minutes before the outages.

(f) A local emergency energy plan ordinance may provide civil penalties for violations of its provisions. The penalties must be permitted under the Illinois Municipal Code.

(g) The notifications required by this Section are in addition to the notification requirements of any applicable franchise agreement or ordinance and to the notification requirements of any applicable federal or State law, rule, and regulation.

(h) Except for any penalties or remedies that may be provided in a local emergency energy plan ordinance, in this Act, or in rules adopted by the Illinois Commerce Commission, nothing in this Section shall be construed to impose liability for or prevent a utility from taking any actions that are necessary at any time, in any order, and with or without notice that are required to preserve the integrity of the electric utility's electrical system and interconnected network.

(i) Nothing in this Section, a local emergency energy plan ordinance, or a local emergency energy plan creates any duty of a municipality to any person or entity. No municipality may be subject to any claim or cause of action arising, directly or indirectly, from its decision to adopt or to refrain from adopting a local emergency energy plan ordinance. No municipality may be subject to any claim or cause of action arising, directly or indirectly, from any act or omission under the terms of or information provided in a local emergency energy plan filed under a local emergency energy plan ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-293, eff. 7-22-03.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-3)

Sec. 11-74.4-3. Definitions. The following terms, wherever used or referred to in this Division 74.4 shall have the following respective meanings, unless in any case a different meaning clearly appears from the context.

(a) For any redevelopment project area that has been designated pursuant to this Section by an ordinance adopted prior to November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), "blighted area" shall have the meaning set forth in this Section prior to that date.

On and after November 1, 1999, "blighted area" means any improved or vacant area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of the municipality where:

(1) If improved, industrial, commercial, and residential buildings or improvements are detrimental to the public safety, health, or welfare because of a combination of 5 or more of the following factors, each of which is (i) present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) reasonably distributed throughout the improved part of the redevelopment project area:

(A) Dilapidation. An advanced state of disrepair or neglect of necessary repairs to the primary structural components of buildings or improvements in such a combination that a documented building condition analysis determines that major repair is required or the defects are so serious and so extensive that the buildings must be removed.

(B) Obsolescence. The condition or process of falling into disuse. Structures have become ill-suited for the original use.

(C) Deterioration. With respect to buildings, defects including, but not limited to, major defects in the secondary building components such as doors, windows, porches, gutters and downspouts, and fascia. With respect to surface improvements, that the condition of roadways, alleys, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, off-street parking, and surface storage areas evidence deterioration, including, but not limited to, surface cracking, crumbling, potholes, depressions, loose paving material, and weeds protruding through paved surfaces.

(D) Presence of structures below minimum code standards. All structures that do not meet the standards of zoning, subdivision, building, fire, and other governmental codes applicable to property, but not including housing and property maintenance codes.

(E) Illegal use of individual structures. The use of structures in violation of applicable federal, State, or local laws, exclusive of those applicable to the presence of structures below minimum code standards.

(F) Excessive vacancies. The presence of buildings that are unoccupied or under-utilized and that represent an adverse influence on the area because of the frequency, extent, or duration of the vacancies.

(G) Lack of ventilation, light, or sanitary facilities. The absence of adequate ventilation for light or air circulation in spaces or rooms without windows, or that require the removal of dust, odor, gas, smoke, or other noxious airborne materials. Inadequate natural light and ventilation means the absence of skylights or windows for interior spaces or rooms and improper window sizes and amounts by room area to window area ratios. Inadequate sanitary facilities refers to the absence or inadequacy of garbage storage and enclosure, bathroom facilities, hot water and kitchens, and structural inadequacies preventing ingress and egress to and from all rooms and units within a building.

(H) Inadequate utilities. Underground and overhead utilities such as storm sewers and storm drainage, sanitary sewers, water lines, and gas, telephone, and electrical services that are shown to be inadequate. Inadequate utilities are those that are: (i) of insufficient capacity to serve the uses in the redevelopment project area, (ii) deteriorated, antiquated, obsolete, or in disrepair, or (iii) lacking within the redevelopment project area.

(I) Excessive land coverage and overcrowding of structures and community facilities. The over-intensive use of property and the crowding of buildings and accessory facilities onto a site. Examples of problem conditions warranting the designation of an area as one exhibiting excessive land coverage are: (i) the presence of buildings either improperly situated on parcels or located on parcels of inadequate size and shape in relation to present-day standards of development for health and safety and (ii) the presence of multiple buildings on a single parcel. For there to be a finding of excessive land coverage, these parcels must exhibit one or more of the following conditions: insufficient provision for light and air within or around buildings, increased threat of spread of fire due to the close proximity of buildings, lack of adequate or proper access to a public right-of-way, lack of reasonably required off-street parking, or inadequate provision for loading and service.

(J) Deleterious land use or layout. The existence of incompatible land-use relationships, buildings occupied by inappropriate mixed-uses, or uses considered to be noxious, offensive, or unsuitable for the surrounding area.

(K) Environmental clean-up. The proposed redevelopment project area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(L) Lack of community planning. The proposed redevelopment project area was developed prior to or without the benefit or guidance of a community plan. This means that the development occurred prior to the adoption by the municipality of a comprehensive or other community plan or that the plan was not followed at the time of the area's development. This factor must be documented by evidence of adverse or incompatible land-use relationships, inadequate street layout, improper subdivision, parcels of inadequate shape and size to meet contemporary development standards, or other evidence demonstrating an absence of effective community planning.

(M) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated.

(2) If vacant, the sound growth of the redevelopment project area is impaired by a combination of 2 or more of the following factors, each of which is (i) present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) reasonably distributed throughout the vacant part of the redevelopment project area to which it pertains:

(A) Obsolete platting of vacant land that results in parcels of limited or narrow size or configurations of parcels of irregular size or shape that would be difficult to develop on a planned basis and in a manner compatible with contemporary standards and requirements, or platting that failed to create rights-of-ways for streets or alleys or that created inadequate right-of-way widths for streets, alleys, or other public rights-of-way or that omitted easements for public utilities.

(B) Diversity of ownership of parcels of vacant land sufficient in number to retard or impede the ability to assemble the land for development.

(C) Tax and special assessment delinquencies exist or the property has been the subject of tax sales under the Property Tax Code within the last 5 years.

(D) Deterioration of structures or site improvements in neighboring areas adjacent to the vacant land.

(E) The area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(F) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated.

(3) If vacant, the sound growth of the redevelopment project area is impaired by one of the following factors that (i) is present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) is reasonably distributed throughout the vacant part of the redevelopment project area to which it pertains:

(A) The area consists of one or more unused quarries, mines, or strip mine ponds.

(B) The area consists of unused rail yards, rail tracks, or railroad rights-of-way.

(C) The area, prior to its designation, is subject to (i) chronic flooding that adversely impacts on real property in the area as certified by a registered professional engineer or appropriate regulatory agency or (ii) surface water that discharges from all or a part of the area and contributes to flooding within the same watershed, but only if the redevelopment project provides for facilities or improvements to contribute to the alleviation of all or part of the flooding.

(D) The area consists of an unused or illegal disposal site containing earth, stone, building debris, or similar materials that were removed from construction, demolition, excavation, or dredge sites.

(E) Prior to November 1, 1999, the area is not less than 50 nor more than 100 acres and 75% of which is vacant (notwithstanding that the area has been used for commercial agricultural purposes within 5 years prior to the designation of the redevelopment project area), and the area meets at least one of the factors itemized in paragraph (1) of this subsection, the area has been designated as a town or village center by ordinance or comprehensive plan adopted prior to January 1, 1982, and the area has not been developed for that designated purpose.

(F) The area qualified as a blighted improved area immediately prior to becoming vacant, unless there has been substantial private investment in the immediately surrounding area.

(b) For any redevelopment project area that has been designated pursuant to this Section by an ordinance adopted prior to November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), "conservation area" shall have the meaning set forth in this Section prior to that date.

On and after November 1, 1999, "conservation area" means any improved area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of the municipality in which 50% or more of the structures in the area have an age of 35 years or more. Such an area is not yet a blighted area but because of a combination of 3 or more of the following factors is detrimental to the public safety, health, morals or welfare and such an area may become a blighted area:

(1) Dilapidation. An advanced state of disrepair or neglect of necessary repairs to the primary structural components of buildings or improvements in such a combination that a documented building condition analysis determines that major repair is required or the defects are so serious and so extensive that the buildings must be removed.

(2) Obsolescence. The condition or process of falling into disuse. Structures have become ill-suited for the original use.

(3) Deterioration. With respect to buildings, defects including, but not limited to, major defects in the secondary building components such as doors, windows, porches, gutters and downspouts, and fascia. With respect to surface improvements, that the condition of roadways, alleys, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, off-street parking, and surface storage areas evidence deterioration, including, but not limited to, surface cracking, crumbling, potholes, depressions, loose paving material, and weeds protruding through paved surfaces.

(4) Presence of structures below minimum code standards. All structures that do not meet the standards of zoning, subdivision, building, fire, and other governmental codes applicable to property, but not including housing and property maintenance codes.

(5) Illegal use of individual structures. The use of structures in violation of applicable federal, State, or local laws, exclusive of those applicable to the presence of structures below minimum code standards.

(6) Excessive vacancies. The presence of buildings that are unoccupied or under-utilized and that represent an adverse influence on the area because of the frequency, extent, or duration of the vacancies.

(7) Lack of ventilation, light, or sanitary facilities. The absence of adequate ventilation for light or air circulation in spaces or rooms without windows, or that require the removal of dust, odor, gas, smoke, or other noxious airborne materials. Inadequate natural light and ventilation means the absence or inadequacy of skylights or windows for interior spaces or rooms and improper window sizes and amounts by room area to window area ratios. Inadequate sanitary facilities refers to the absence or inadequacy of garbage storage and enclosure, bathroom facilities, hot water and kitchens, and structural inadequacies preventing ingress and egress to and from all rooms and units within a building.

(8) Inadequate utilities. Underground and overhead utilities such as storm sewers and storm drainage, sanitary sewers, water lines, and gas, telephone, and electrical services that are shown to be inadequate. Inadequate utilities are those that are: (i) of insufficient capacity to serve the uses in the redevelopment project area, (ii) deteriorated, antiquated, obsolete, or in disrepair, or (iii) lacking within the redevelopment project area.

(9) Excessive land coverage and overcrowding of structures and community facilities. The over-intensive use of property and the crowding of buildings and accessory facilities onto a site. Examples of problem conditions warranting the designation of an area as one exhibiting excessive land coverage are: the presence of buildings either improperly situated on parcels or located on parcels of inadequate size and shape in relation to present-day standards of development for health and safety and the presence of multiple buildings on a single parcel. For there to be a finding of excessive land coverage, these parcels must exhibit one or more of the following conditions: insufficient provision for light and air within or around buildings, increased threat of spread of fire due to the close proximity of buildings, lack of adequate or proper access to a public right-of-way, lack of reasonably required off-street parking, or inadequate provision for loading and service.

(10) Deleterious land use or layout. The existence of incompatible land-use relationships, buildings occupied by inappropriate mixed-uses, or uses considered to be noxious, offensive, or unsuitable for the surrounding area.

(11) Lack of community planning. The proposed redevelopment project area was developed prior to or without the benefit or guidance of a community plan. This means that the development occurred prior to the adoption by the municipality of a comprehensive or other community plan or that the plan was not followed at the time of the area's development. This factor must be documented by evidence of adverse or incompatible land-use relationships, inadequate street layout, improper subdivision, parcels of inadequate shape and size to meet contemporary development standards, or other evidence demonstrating an absence of effective community planning.

(12) The area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(13) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available.

(c) "Industrial park" means an area in a blighted or conservation area suitable for use by any manufacturing, industrial, research or transportation enterprise, of facilities to include but not be limited to factories, mills, processing plants, assembly plants, packing plants, fabricating plants, industrial distribution centers, warehouses, repair overhaul or service facilities, freight terminals, research facilities, test facilities or railroad facilities.

(d) "Industrial park conservation area" means an area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of a municipality that is a labor surplus municipality or within 1 1/2 miles of the territorial limits of a municipality that is a labor surplus municipality if the area is annexed to the municipality; which area is zoned as industrial no later than at the time the municipality by ordinance designates the redevelopment project area, and which area includes both vacant land suitable for use as an industrial park and a blighted area or conservation area contiguous to such vacant land.

(e) "Labor surplus municipality" means a municipality in which, at any time during the 6 months before the municipality by ordinance designates an industrial park conservation area, the unemployment rate was over 6% and was also 100% or more of the national average unemployment rate for that same time as published in the United States Department of Labor Bureau of Labor Statistics publication entitled "The Employment Situation" or its successor publication. For the purpose of this subsection, if unemployment rate statistics for the municipality are not available, the unemployment rate in the municipality shall be deemed to be the same as the unemployment rate in the principal county in which the municipality is located.

(f) "Municipality" shall mean a city, village, incorporated town, or a township that is located in the unincorporated portion of a county with 3 million or more inhabitants, if the county adopted an ordinance that approved the township's redevelopment plan.

(g) "Initial Sales Tax Amounts" means the amount of taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located in a State Sales Tax Boundary during the calendar year 1985.

(g-1) "Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts" means the amount of taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located within the State Sales Tax Boundary revised pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8a(9) of this Act.

(h) "Municipal Sales Tax Increment" means an amount equal to the increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid to a municipality from the Local Government Tax Fund arising from sales by retailers and servicemen within the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, for as long as the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, exist over and above the aggregate amount of taxes as certified by the Illinois Department of Revenue and paid under the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen, on transactions at places of business located in the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, during the base year which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year in which the municipality adopted tax increment allocation financing. For purposes of computing the aggregate amount of such taxes for base years occurring prior to 1985, the Department of Revenue shall determine the Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes and deduct therefrom an amount equal to 4% of the aggregate amount of taxes per year for each year the base year is prior to 1985, but not to exceed a total deduction of 12%. The amount so determined shall be known as the "Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts". For purposes of determining the Municipal Sales Tax Increment, the Department of Revenue shall for each period subtract from the amount paid to the municipality from the Local Government Tax Fund arising from sales by retailers and servicemen on transactions located in the redevelopment project area or the State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act. For the State Fiscal Year 1989, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the calendar year 1987 to determine the tax amounts received. For the State Fiscal Year 1990, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from January 1, 1988, until September 30, 1988, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen pursuant to the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For the State Fiscal Year 1991, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from October 1, 1988, to June 30, 1989, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen pursuant to the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For every State Fiscal Year thereafter, the applicable period shall be the 12 months beginning July 1 and ending June 30 to determine the tax amounts received which shall have deducted therefrom the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts, as the case may be.

(i) "Net State Sales Tax Increment" means the sum of the following: (a) 80% of the first $100,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; (b) 60% of the amount in excess of $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; and (c) 40% of all amounts in excess of $500,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary. If, however, a municipality established a tax increment financing district in a county with a population in excess of 3,000,000 before January 1, 1986, and the municipality entered into a contract or issued bonds after January 1, 1986, but before December 31, 1986, to finance redevelopment project costs within a State Sales Tax Boundary, then the Net State Sales Tax Increment means, for the fiscal years beginning July 1, 1990, and July 1, 1991, 100% of the State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, for those fiscal years the Department of Revenue shall distribute to those municipalities 100% of their Net State Sales Tax Increment before any distribution to any other municipality and regardless of whether or not those other municipalities will receive 100% of their Net State Sales Tax Increment. For Fiscal Year 1999, and every year thereafter until the year 2007, for any municipality that has not entered into a contract or has not issued bonds prior to June 1, 1988 to finance redevelopment project costs within a State Sales Tax Boundary, the Net State Sales Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Sales Tax Increment by 90% in the State Fiscal Year 1999; 80% in the State Fiscal Year 2000; 70% in the State Fiscal Year 2001; 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter.

Municipalities that issued bonds in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area within the State Sales Tax Boundary prior to July 29, 1991, or that entered into contracts in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area before June 1, 1988, shall continue to receive their proportional share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund distribution until the date on which the redevelopment project is completed or terminated. If, however, a municipality that issued bonds in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area within the State Sales Tax Boundary prior to July 29, 1991 retires the bonds prior to June 30, 2007 or a municipality that entered into contracts in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area before June 1, 1988 completes the contracts prior to June 30, 2007, then so long as the redevelopment project is not completed or is not terminated, the Net State Sales Tax Increment shall be calculated, beginning on the date on which the bonds are retired or the contracts are completed, as follows: By multiplying the Net State Sales Tax Increment by 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter. Refunding of any bonds issued prior to July 29, 1991, shall not alter the Net State Sales Tax Increment.

(j) "State Utility Tax Increment Amount" means an amount equal to the aggregate increase in State electric and gas tax charges imposed on owners and tenants, other than residential customers, of properties located within the redevelopment project area under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, over and above the aggregate of such charges as certified by the Department of Revenue and paid by owners and tenants, other than residential customers, of properties within the redevelopment project area during the base year, which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year of the adoption of the ordinance authorizing tax increment allocation financing.

(k) "Net State Utility Tax Increment" means the sum of the following: (a) 80% of the first $100,000 of State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area; (b) 60% of the amount in excess of $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 of the State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area; and (c) 40% of all amounts in excess of $500,000 of State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area. For the State Fiscal Year 1999, and every year thereafter until the year 2007, for any municipality that has not entered into a contract or has not issued bonds prior to June 1, 1988 to finance redevelopment project costs within a redevelopment project area, the Net State Utility Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Utility Tax Increment by 90% in the State Fiscal Year 1999; 80% in the State Fiscal Year 2000; 70% in the State Fiscal Year 2001; 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for the State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter.

Municipalities that issue bonds in connection with the redevelopment project during the period from June 1, 1988 until 3 years after the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1988 shall receive the Net State Utility Tax Increment, subject to appropriation, for 15 State Fiscal Years after the issuance of such bonds. For the 16th through the 20th State Fiscal Years after issuance of the bonds, the Net State Utility Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Utility Tax Increment by 90% in year 16; 80% in year 17; 70% in year 18; 60% in year 19; and 50% in year 20. Refunding of any bonds issued prior to June 1, 1988, shall not alter the revised Net State Utility Tax Increment payments set forth above.

(l) "Obligations" mean bonds, loans, debentures, notes, special certificates or other evidence of indebtedness issued by the municipality to carry out a redevelopment project or to refund outstanding obligations.

(m) "Payment in lieu of taxes" means those estimated tax revenues from real property in a redevelopment project area derived from real property that has been acquired by a municipality which according to the redevelopment project or plan is to be used for a private use which taxing districts would have received had a municipality not acquired the real property and adopted tax increment allocation financing and which would result from levies made after the time of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing to the time the current equalized value of real property in the redevelopment project area exceeds the total initial equalized value of real property in said area.

(n) "Redevelopment plan" means the comprehensive program of the municipality for development or redevelopment intended by the payment of redevelopment project costs to reduce or eliminate those conditions the existence of which qualified the redevelopment project area as a "blighted area" or "conservation area" or combination thereof or "industrial park conservation area," and thereby to enhance the tax bases of the taxing districts which extend into the redevelopment project area, provided that, with respect to redevelopment project areas described in subsections (p-1) and (p-2), "redevelopment plan" means the comprehensive program of the affected municipality for the development of qualifying transit facilities. On and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no redevelopment plan may be approved or amended that includes the development of vacant land (i) with a golf course and related clubhouse and other facilities or (ii) designated by federal, State, county, or municipal government as public land for outdoor recreational activities or for nature preserves and used for that purpose within 5 years prior to the adoption of the redevelopment plan. For the purpose of this subsection, "recreational activities" is limited to mean camping and hunting. Each redevelopment plan shall set forth in writing the program to be undertaken to accomplish the objectives and shall include but not be limited to:

(A) an itemized list of estimated redevelopment project costs;

(B) evidence indicating that the redevelopment project area on the whole has not been subject to growth and development through investment by private enterprise, provided that such evidence shall not be required for any redevelopment project area located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3;

(C) an assessment of any financial impact of the redevelopment project area on or any increased demand for services from any taxing district affected by the plan and any program to address such financial impact or increased demand;

(D) the sources of funds to pay costs;

(E) the nature and term of the obligations to be issued;

(F) the most recent equalized assessed valuation of the redevelopment project area;

(G) an estimate as to the equalized assessed valuation after redevelopment and the general land uses to apply in the redevelopment project area;

(H) a commitment to fair employment practices and an affirmative action plan;

(I) if it concerns an industrial park conservation area, the plan shall also include a general description of any proposed developer, user and tenant of any property, a description of the type, structure and general character of the facilities to be developed, a description of the type, class and number of new employees to be employed in the operation of the facilities to be developed; and

(J) if property is to be annexed to the municipality, the plan shall include the terms of the annexation agreement.

The provisions of items (B) and (C) of this subsection (n) shall not apply to a municipality that before March 14, 1994 (the effective date of Public Act 88-537) had fixed, either by its corporate authorities or by a commission designated under subsection (k) of Section 11-74.4-4, a time and place for a public hearing as required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5. No redevelopment plan shall be adopted unless a municipality complies with all of the following requirements:

(1) The municipality finds that the redevelopment project area on the whole has not been subject to growth and development through investment by private enterprise and would not reasonably be anticipated to be developed without the adoption of the redevelopment plan, provided, however, that such a finding shall not be required with respect to any redevelopment project area located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3.

(2) The municipality finds that the redevelopment plan and project conform to the comprehensive plan for the development of the municipality as a whole, or, for municipalities with a population of 100,000 or more, regardless of when the redevelopment plan and project was adopted, the redevelopment plan and project either: (i) conforms to the strategic economic development or redevelopment plan issued by the designated planning authority of the municipality, or (ii) includes land uses that have been approved by the planning commission of the municipality.

(3) The redevelopment plan establishes the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs. Those dates may not be later than the dates set forth under Section 11-74.4-3.5.

A municipality may by municipal ordinance amend an existing redevelopment plan to conform to this paragraph (3) as amended by Public Act 91-478, which municipal ordinance may be adopted without further hearing or notice and without complying with the procedures provided in this Act pertaining to an amendment to or the initial approval of a redevelopment plan and project and designation of a redevelopment project area.

(3.5) The municipality finds, in the case of an industrial park conservation area, also that the municipality is a labor surplus municipality and that the implementation of the redevelopment plan will reduce unemployment, create new jobs and by the provision of new facilities enhance the tax base of the taxing districts that extend into the redevelopment project area.

(4) If any incremental revenues are being utilized under Section 8(a)(1) or 8(a)(2) of this Act in redevelopment project areas approved by ordinance after January 1, 1986, the municipality finds: (a) that the redevelopment project area would not reasonably be developed without the use of such incremental revenues, and (b) that such incremental revenues will be exclusively utilized for the development of the redevelopment project area.

(5) If: (a) the redevelopment plan will not result in displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units, and the municipality certifies in the plan that such displacement will not result from the plan; or (b) the redevelopment plan is for a redevelopment project area or a qualifying transit facility located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3, and the applicable project is subject to the process for evaluation of environmental effects under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq., then a housing impact study need not be performed. If, however, the redevelopment plan would result in the displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units, or if the redevelopment project area contains 75 or more inhabited residential units and no certification is made, then the municipality shall prepare, as part of the separate feasibility report required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5, a housing impact study.

Part I of the housing impact study shall include (i) data as to whether the residential units are single family or multi-family units, (ii) the number and type of rooms within the units, if that information is available, (iii) whether the units are inhabited or uninhabited, as determined not less than 45 days before the date that the ordinance or resolution required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5 is passed, and (iv) data as to the racial and ethnic composition of the residents in the inhabited residential units. The data requirement as to the racial and ethnic composition of the residents in the inhabited residential units shall be deemed to be fully satisfied by data from the most recent federal census.

Part II of the housing impact study shall identify the inhabited residential units in the proposed redevelopment project area that are to be or may be removed. If inhabited residential units are to be removed, then the housing impact study shall identify (i) the number and location of those units that will or may be removed, (ii) the municipality's plans for relocation assistance for those residents in the proposed redevelopment project area whose residences are to be removed, (iii) the availability of replacement housing for those residents whose residences are to be removed, and shall identify the type, location, and cost of the housing, and (iv) the type and extent of relocation assistance to be provided.

(6) On and after November 1, 1999, the housing impact study required by paragraph (5) shall be incorporated in the redevelopment plan for the redevelopment project area.

(7) On and after November 1, 1999, no redevelopment plan shall be adopted, nor an existing plan amended, nor shall residential housing that is occupied by households of low-income and very low-income persons in currently existing redevelopment project areas be removed after November 1, 1999 unless the redevelopment plan provides, with respect to inhabited housing units that are to be removed for households of low-income and very low-income persons, affordable housing and relocation assistance not less than that which would be provided under the federal Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970 and the regulations under that Act, including the eligibility criteria. Affordable housing may be either existing or newly constructed housing. For purposes of this paragraph (7), "low-income households", "very low-income households", and "affordable housing" have the meanings set forth in the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The municipality shall make a good faith effort to ensure that this affordable housing is located in or near the redevelopment project area within the municipality.

(8) On and after November 1, 1999, if, after the adoption of the redevelopment plan for the redevelopment project area, any municipality desires to amend its redevelopment plan to remove more inhabited residential units than specified in its original redevelopment plan, that change shall be made in accordance with the procedures in subsection (c) of Section 11-74.4-5.

(9) For redevelopment project areas designated prior to November 1, 1999, the redevelopment plan may be amended without further joint review board meeting or hearing, provided that the municipality shall give notice of any such changes by mail to each affected taxing district and registrant on the interested party registry, to authorize the municipality to expend tax increment revenues for redevelopment project costs defined by paragraphs (5) and (7.5), subparagraphs (E) and (F) of paragraph (11), and paragraph (11.5) of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3, so long as the changes do not increase the total estimated redevelopment project costs set out in the redevelopment plan by more than 5% after adjustment for inflation from the date the plan was adopted.

(o) "Redevelopment project" means any public and private development project in furtherance of the objectives of a redevelopment plan. On and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no redevelopment plan may be approved or amended that includes the development of vacant land (i) with a golf course and related clubhouse and other facilities or (ii) designated by federal, State, county, or municipal government as public land for outdoor recreational activities or for nature preserves and used for that purpose within 5 years prior to the adoption of the redevelopment plan. For the purpose of this subsection, "recreational activities" is limited to mean camping and hunting.

(p) "Redevelopment project area" means an area designated by the municipality, which is not less in the aggregate than 1 1/2 acres and in respect to which the municipality has made a finding that there exist conditions which cause the area to be classified as an industrial park conservation area or a blighted area or a conservation area, or a combination of both blighted areas and conservation areas.

(p-1) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, on and after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-680), a redevelopment project area may include areas within a one-half mile radius of an existing or proposed Regional Transportation Authority Suburban Transit Access Route (STAR Line) station without a finding that the area is classified as an industrial park conservation area, a blighted area, a conservation area, or a combination thereof, but only if the municipality receives unanimous consent from the joint review board created to review the proposed redevelopment project area.

(p-2) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, a redevelopment project area may include areas within a transit facility improvement area that has been established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3 without a finding that the area is classified as an industrial park conservation area, a blighted area, a conservation area, or any combination thereof.

(q) "Redevelopment project costs", except for redevelopment project areas created pursuant to subsection (p-1) or (p-2), means and includes the sum total of all reasonable or necessary costs incurred or estimated to be incurred, and any such costs incidental to a redevelopment plan and a redevelopment project. Such costs include, without limitation, the following:

(1) Costs of studies, surveys, development of plans, and specifications, implementation and administration of the redevelopment plan including but not limited to staff and professional service costs for architectural, engineering, legal, financial, planning or other services, provided however that no charges for professional services may be based on a percentage of the tax increment collected; except that on and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no contracts for professional services, excluding architectural and engineering services, may be entered into if the terms of the contract extend beyond a period of 3 years. In addition, "redevelopment project costs" shall not include lobbying expenses. After consultation with the municipality, each tax increment consultant or advisor to a municipality that plans to designate or has designated a redevelopment project area shall inform the municipality in writing of any contracts that the consultant or advisor has entered into with entities or individuals that have received, or are receiving, payments financed by tax increment revenues produced by the redevelopment project area with respect to which the consultant or advisor has performed, or will be performing, service for the municipality. This requirement shall be satisfied by the consultant or advisor before the commencement of services for the municipality and thereafter whenever any other contracts with those individuals or entities are executed by the consultant or advisor;

(1.5) After July 1, 1999, annual administrative costs shall not include general overhead or administrative costs of the municipality that would still have been incurred by the municipality if the municipality had not designated a redevelopment project area or approved a redevelopment plan;

(1.6) The cost of marketing sites within the redevelopment project area to prospective businesses, developers, and investors;

(2) Property assembly costs, including but not limited to acquisition of land and other property, real or personal, or rights or interests therein, demolition of buildings, site preparation, site improvements that serve as an engineered barrier addressing ground level or below ground environmental contamination, including, but not limited to parking lots and other concrete or asphalt barriers, and the clearing and grading of land;

(3) Costs of rehabilitation, reconstruction or repair or remodeling of existing public or private buildings, fixtures, and leasehold improvements; and the cost of replacing an existing public building if pursuant to the implementation of a redevelopment project the existing public building is to be demolished to use the site for private investment or devoted to a different use requiring private investment; including any direct or indirect costs relating to Green Globes or LEED certified construction elements or construction elements with an equivalent certification;

(4) Costs of the construction of public works or improvements, including any direct or indirect costs relating to Green Globes or LEED certified construction elements or construction elements with an equivalent certification, except that on and after November 1, 1999, redevelopment project costs shall not include the cost of constructing a new municipal public building principally used to provide offices, storage space, or conference facilities or vehicle storage, maintenance, or repair for administrative, public safety, or public works personnel and that is not intended to replace an existing public building as provided under paragraph (3) of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3 unless either (i) the construction of the new municipal building implements a redevelopment project that was included in a redevelopment plan that was adopted by the municipality prior to November 1, 1999, (ii) the municipality makes a reasonable determination in the redevelopment plan, supported by information that provides the basis for that determination, that the new municipal building is required to meet an increase in the need for public safety purposes anticipated to result from the implementation of the redevelopment plan, or (iii) the new municipal public building is for the storage, maintenance, or repair of transit vehicles and is located in a transit facility improvement area that has been established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3;

(5) Costs of job training and retraining projects, including the cost of "welfare to work" programs implemented by businesses located within the redevelopment project area;

(6) Financing costs, including but not limited to all necessary and incidental expenses related to the issuance of obligations and which may include payment of interest on any obligations issued hereunder including interest accruing during the estimated period of construction of any redevelopment project for which such obligations are issued and for not exceeding 36 months thereafter and including reasonable reserves related thereto;

(7) To the extent the municipality by written agreement accepts and approves the same, all or a portion of a taxing district's capital costs resulting from the redevelopment project necessarily incurred or to be incurred within a taxing district in furtherance of the objectives of the redevelopment plan and project;

(7.5) For redevelopment project areas designated (or redevelopment project areas amended to add or increase the number of tax-increment-financing assisted housing units) on or after November 1, 1999, an elementary, secondary, or unit school district's increased costs attributable to assisted housing units located within the redevelopment project area for which the developer or redeveloper receives financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the assisted housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act, and which costs shall be paid by the municipality from the Special Tax Allocation Fund when the tax increment revenue is received as a result of the assisted housing units and shall be calculated annually as follows:

(A) for foundation districts, excluding any school district in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000, by multiplying the district's increase in attendance resulting from the net increase in new students enrolled in that school district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by the most recently available per capita tuition cost as defined in Section 10-20.12a of the School Code less any increase in general State aid as defined in Section 18-8.05 of the School Code or evidence-based funding as defined in Section 18-8.15 of the School Code attributable to these added new students subject to the following annual limitations:

(i) for unit school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 25% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act;

(ii) for elementary school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 17% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act; and

(iii) for secondary school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 8% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act.

(B) For alternate method districts, flat grant districts, and foundation districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge equal to or more than $5,900, excluding any school district with a population in excess of 1,000,000, by multiplying the district's increase in attendance resulting from the net increase in new students enrolled in that school district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by the most recently available per capita tuition cost as defined in Section 10-20.12a of the School Code less any increase in general state aid as defined in Section 18-8.05 of the School Code or evidence-based funding as defined in Section 18-8.15 of the School Code attributable to these added new students subject to the following annual limitations:

(i) for unit school districts, no more than 40% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act;

(ii) for elementary school districts, no more than 27% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act; and

(iii) for secondary school districts, no more than 13% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act.

(C) For any school district in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000, the following restrictions shall apply to the reimbursement of increased costs under this paragraph (7.5):

(i) no increased costs shall be reimbursed unless the school district certifies that each of the schools affected by the assisted housing project is at or over its student capacity;

(ii) the amount reimbursable shall be reduced by the value of any land donated to the school district by the municipality or developer, and by the value of any physical improvements made to the schools by the municipality or developer; and

(iii) the amount reimbursed may not affect amounts otherwise obligated by the terms of any bonds, notes, or other funding instruments, or the terms of any redevelopment agreement.

Any school district seeking payment under this paragraph (7.5) shall, after July 1 and before September 30 of each year, provide the municipality with reasonable evidence to support its claim for reimbursement before the municipality shall be required to approve or make the payment to the school district. If the school district fails to provide the information during this period in any year, it shall forfeit any claim to reimbursement for that year. School districts may adopt a resolution waiving the right to all or a portion of the reimbursement otherwise required by this paragraph (7.5). By acceptance of this reimbursement the school district waives the right to directly or indirectly set aside, modify, or contest in any manner the establishment of the redevelopment project area or projects;

(7.7) For redevelopment project areas designated (or redevelopment project areas amended to add or increase the number of tax-increment-financing assisted housing units) on or after January 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 93-961), a public library district's increased costs attributable to assisted housing units located within the redevelopment project area for which the developer or redeveloper receives financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the assisted housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act shall be paid to the library district by the municipality from the Special Tax Allocation Fund when the tax increment revenue is received as a result of the assisted housing units. This paragraph (7.7) applies only if (i) the library district is located in a county that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law or (ii) the library district is not located in a county that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law but the district is prohibited by any other law from increasing its tax levy rate without a prior voter referendum.

The amount paid to a library district under this paragraph (7.7) shall be calculated by multiplying (i) the net increase in the number of persons eligible to obtain a library card in that district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by (ii) the per-patron cost of providing library services so long as it does not exceed $120. The per-patron cost shall be the Total Operating Expenditures Per Capita for the library in the previous fiscal year. The municipality may deduct from the amount that it must pay to a library district under this paragraph any amount that it has voluntarily paid to the library district from the tax increment revenue. The amount paid to a library district under this paragraph (7.7) shall be no more than 2% of the amount produced by the assisted housing units and deposited into the Special Tax Allocation Fund.

A library district is not eligible for any payment under this paragraph (7.7) unless the library district has experienced an increase in the number of patrons from the municipality that created the tax-increment-financing district since the designation of the redevelopment project area.

Any library district seeking payment under this paragraph (7.7) shall, after July 1 and before September 30 of each year, provide the municipality with convincing evidence to support its claim for reimbursement before the municipality shall be required to approve or make the payment to the library district. If the library district fails to provide the information during this period in any year, it shall forfeit any claim to reimbursement for that year. Library districts may adopt a resolution waiving the right to all or a portion of the reimbursement otherwise required by this paragraph (7.7). By acceptance of such reimbursement, the library district shall forfeit any right to directly or indirectly set aside, modify, or contest in any manner whatsoever the establishment of the redevelopment project area or projects;

(8) Relocation costs to the extent that a municipality determines that relocation costs shall be paid or is required to make payment of relocation costs by federal or State law or in order to satisfy subparagraph (7) of subsection (n);

(9) Payment in lieu of taxes;

(10) Costs of job training, retraining, advanced vocational education or career education, including but not limited to courses in occupational, semi-technical or technical fields leading directly to employment, incurred by one or more taxing districts, provided that such costs (i) are related to the establishment and maintenance of additional job training, advanced vocational education or career education programs for persons employed or to be employed by employers located in a redevelopment project area; and (ii) when incurred by a taxing district or taxing districts other than the municipality, are set forth in a written agreement by or among the municipality and the taxing district or taxing districts, which agreement describes the program to be undertaken, including but not limited to the number of employees to be trained, a description of the training and services to be provided, the number and type of positions available or to be available, itemized costs of the program and sources of funds to pay for the same, and the term of the agreement. Such costs include, specifically, the payment by community college districts of costs pursuant to Sections 3-37, 3-38, 3-40 and 3-40.1 of the Public Community College Act and by school districts of costs pursuant to Sections 10-22.20a and 10-23.3a of the School Code;

(11) Interest cost incurred by a redeveloper related to the construction, renovation or rehabilitation of a redevelopment project provided that:

(A) such costs are to be paid directly from the special tax allocation fund established pursuant to this Act;

(B) such payments in any one year may not exceed 30% of the annual interest costs incurred by the redeveloper with regard to the redevelopment project during that year;

(C) if there are not sufficient funds available in the special tax allocation fund to make the payment pursuant to this paragraph (11) then the amounts so due shall accrue and be payable when sufficient funds are available in the special tax allocation fund;

(D) the total of such interest payments paid pursuant to this Act may not exceed 30% of the total (i) cost paid or incurred by the redeveloper for the redevelopment project plus (ii) redevelopment project costs excluding any property assembly costs and any relocation costs incurred by a municipality pursuant to this Act;

(E) the cost limits set forth in subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11) shall be modified for the financing of rehabilitated or new housing units for low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The percentage of 75% shall be substituted for 30% in subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11); and

(F) instead of the eligible costs provided by subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11), as modified by this subparagraph, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, the municipality may pay from tax increment revenues up to 50% of the cost of construction of new housing units to be occupied by low-income households and very low-income households as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The cost of construction of those units may be derived from the proceeds of bonds issued by the municipality under this Act or other constitutional or statutory authority or from other sources of municipal revenue that may be reimbursed from tax increment revenues or the proceeds of bonds issued to finance the construction of that housing.

The eligible costs provided under this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11) shall be an eligible cost for the construction, renovation, and rehabilitation of all low and very low-income housing units, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, within the redevelopment project area. If the low and very low-income units are part of a residential redevelopment project that includes units not affordable to low and very low-income households, only the low and very low-income units shall be eligible for benefits under this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11). The standards for maintaining the occupancy by low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, of those units constructed with eligible costs made available under the provisions of this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11) shall be established by guidelines adopted by the municipality. The responsibility for annually documenting the initial occupancy of the units by low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, shall be that of the then current owner of the property. For ownership units, the guidelines will provide, at a minimum, for a reasonable recapture of funds, or other appropriate methods designed to preserve the original affordability of the ownership units. For rental units, the guidelines will provide, at a minimum, for the affordability of rent to low and very low-income households. As units become available, they shall be rented to income-eligible tenants. The municipality may modify these guidelines from time to time; the guidelines, however, shall be in effect for as long as tax increment revenue is being used to pay for costs associated with the units or for the retirement of bonds issued to finance the units or for the life of the redevelopment project area, whichever is later;

(11.5) If the redevelopment project area is located within a municipality with a population of more than 100,000, the cost of child day care services for children of employees from low-income families working for businesses located within the redevelopment project area and all or a portion of the cost of operation of child day care centers established by redevelopment project area businesses to serve employees from low-income families working in businesses located in the redevelopment project area. For the purposes of this paragraph, "low-income families" means families whose annual income does not exceed 80% of the municipal, county, or regional median income, adjusted for family size, as the annual income and municipal, county, or regional median income are determined from time to time by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.

(12) Costs relating to the development of urban agricultural areas under Division 15.2 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

Unless explicitly stated herein the cost of construction of new privately-owned buildings shall not be an eligible redevelopment project cost.

After November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), none of the redevelopment project costs enumerated in this subsection shall be eligible redevelopment project costs if those costs would provide direct financial support to a retail entity initiating operations in the redevelopment project area while terminating operations at another Illinois location within 10 miles of the redevelopment project area but outside the boundaries of the redevelopment project area municipality. For purposes of this paragraph, termination means a closing of a retail operation that is directly related to the opening of the same operation or like retail entity owned or operated by more than 50% of the original ownership in a redevelopment project area, but it does not mean closing an operation for reasons beyond the control of the retail entity, as documented by the retail entity, subject to a reasonable finding by the municipality that the current location contained inadequate space, had become economically obsolete, or was no longer a viable location for the retailer or serviceman.

No cost shall be a redevelopment project cost in a redevelopment project area if used to demolish, remove, or substantially modify a historic resource, after August 26, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-934), unless no prudent and feasible alternative exists. "Historic resource" for the purpose of this paragraph means (i) a place or structure that is included or eligible for inclusion on the National Register of Historic Places or (ii) a contributing structure in a district on the National Register of Historic Places. This paragraph does not apply to a place or structure for which demolition, removal, or modification is subject to review by the preservation agency of a Certified Local Government designated as such by the National Park Service of the United States Department of the Interior.

If a special service area has been established pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act or Special Service Area Tax Law, then any tax increment revenues derived from the tax imposed pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act or Special Service Area Tax Law may be used within the redevelopment project area for the purposes permitted by that Act or Law as well as the purposes permitted by this Act.

(q-1) For redevelopment project areas created pursuant to subsection (p-1), redevelopment project costs are limited to those costs in paragraph (q) that are related to the existing or proposed Regional Transportation Authority Suburban Transit Access Route (STAR Line) station.

(q-2) For a transit facility improvement area established prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly: (i) "redevelopment project costs" means those costs described in subsection (q) that are related to the construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, or repair of any existing or proposed transit facility, whether that facility is located within or outside the boundaries of a redevelopment project area established within that transit facility improvement area (and, to the extent a redevelopment project cost is described in subsection (q) as incurred or estimated to be incurred with respect to a redevelopment project area, then it shall apply with respect to such transit facility improvement area); and (ii) the provisions of Section 11-74.4-8 regarding tax increment allocation financing for a redevelopment project area located in a transit facility improvement area shall apply only to the lots, blocks, tracts and parcels of real property that are located within the boundaries of that redevelopment project area and not to the lots, blocks, tracts, and parcels of real property that are located outside the boundaries of that redevelopment project area.

(r) "State Sales Tax Boundary" means the redevelopment project area or the amended redevelopment project area boundaries which are determined pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 11-74.4-8a of this Act. The Department of Revenue shall certify pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 11-74.4-8a the appropriate boundaries eligible for the determination of State Sales Tax Increment.

(s) "State Sales Tax Increment" means an amount equal to the increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid by retailers and servicemen, other than retailers and servicemen subject to the Public Utilities Act, on transactions at places of business located within a State Sales Tax Boundary pursuant to the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act, except such portion of such increase that is paid into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Local Government Distributive Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund and the County and Mass Transit District Fund, for as long as State participation exists, over and above the Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes as certified by the Department of Revenue and paid under those Acts by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places of business located within the State Sales Tax Boundary during the base year which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year in which the municipality adopted tax increment allocation financing, less 3.0% of such amounts generated under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act and Service Use Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act, which sum shall be appropriated to the Department of Revenue to cover its costs of administering and enforcing this Section. For purposes of computing the aggregate amount of such taxes for base years occurring prior to 1985, the Department of Revenue shall compute the Initial Sales Tax Amount for such taxes and deduct therefrom an amount equal to 4% of the aggregate amount of taxes per year for each year the base year is prior to 1985, but not to exceed a total deduction of 12%. The amount so determined shall be known as the "Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amount". For purposes of determining the State Sales Tax Increment the Department of Revenue shall for each period subtract from the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen on transactions located in the State Sales Tax Boundary, the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act. For the State Fiscal Year 1989 this calculation shall be made by utilizing the calendar year 1987 to determine the tax amounts received. For the State Fiscal Year 1990, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from January 1, 1988, until September 30, 1988, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For the State Fiscal Year 1991, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from October 1, 1988, until June 30, 1989, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial State Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For every State Fiscal Year thereafter, the applicable period shall be the 12 months beginning July 1 and ending on June 30, to determine the tax amounts received which shall have deducted therefrom the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts. Municipalities intending to receive a distribution of State Sales Tax Increment must report a list of retailers to the Department of Revenue by October 31, 1988 and by July 31, of each year thereafter.

(t) "Taxing districts" means counties, townships, cities and incorporated towns and villages, school, road, park, sanitary, mosquito abatement, forest preserve, public health, fire protection, river conservancy, tuberculosis sanitarium and any other municipal corporations or districts with the power to levy taxes.

(u) "Taxing districts' capital costs" means those costs of taxing districts for capital improvements that are found by the municipal corporate authorities to be necessary and directly result from the redevelopment project.

(v) As used in subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-3 of this Act, "vacant land" means any parcel or combination of parcels of real property without industrial, commercial, and residential buildings which has not been used for commercial agricultural purposes within 5 years prior to the designation of the redevelopment project area, unless the parcel is included in an industrial park conservation area or the parcel has been subdivided; provided that if the parcel was part of a larger tract that has been divided into 3 or more smaller tracts that were accepted for recording during the period from 1950 to 1990, then the parcel shall be deemed to have been subdivided, and all proceedings and actions of the municipality taken in that connection with respect to any previously approved or designated redevelopment project area or amended redevelopment project area are hereby validated and hereby declared to be legally sufficient for all purposes of this Act. For purposes of this Section and only for land subject to the subdivision requirements of the Plat Act, land is subdivided when the original plat of the proposed Redevelopment Project Area or relevant portion thereof has been properly certified, acknowledged, approved, and recorded or filed in accordance with the Plat Act and a preliminary plat, if any, for any subsequent phases of the proposed Redevelopment Project Area or relevant portion thereof has been properly approved and filed in accordance with the applicable ordinance of the municipality.

(w) "Annual Total Increment" means the sum of each municipality's annual Net Sales Tax Increment and each municipality's annual Net Utility Tax Increment. The ratio of the Annual Total Increment of each municipality to the Annual Total Increment for all municipalities, as most recently calculated by the Department, shall determine the proportional shares of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund to be distributed to each municipality.

(x) "LEED certified" means any certification level of construction elements by a qualified Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design Accredited Professional as determined by the U.S. Green Building Council.

(y) "Green Globes certified" means any certification level of construction elements by a qualified Green Globes Professional as determined by the Green Building Initiative.

(Source: P.A. 102-627, eff. 8-27-21.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-80-15) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-80-15)

Sec. 11-80-15. Street advertising; adult entertainment advertising.

(a) The corporate authorities of each municipality may license street advertising by means of billboards, sign boards, and signs and may regulate the character and control the location of billboards, sign boards, and signs upon vacant property and upon buildings.

(b) The corporate authorities of each municipality may further regulate the character and control the location of adult entertainment advertising placed on billboards, sign boards, and signs upon vacant property and upon buildings that are within 1,000 feet of the property boundaries of schools, child day care centers, cemeteries, public parks, and places of religious worship.

For the purposes of this subsection, "adult entertainment" means entertainment provided by an adult bookstore, striptease club, or pornographic movie theater whose business is the commercial sale, dissemination, or distribution of sexually explicit materials, shows, or other exhibitions.

(Source: P.A. 89-605, eff. 8-2-96.)

Section 90. The River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act is amended by changing Section 10-8 as follows:

(65 ILCS 115/10-8)

Sec. 10-8. Zone Administration. The administration of a River Edge Redevelopment Zone shall be under the jurisdiction of the designating municipality. Each designating municipality shall, by ordinance, designate a Zone Administrator for the certified zones within its jurisdiction. A Zone Administrator must be an officer or employee of the municipality. The Zone Administrator shall be the liaison between the designating municipality, the Department, and any designated zone organizations within zones under his or her jurisdiction.

A designating municipality may designate one or more organizations to be a designated zone organization, as defined under Section 10-3. The municipality, may, by ordinance, delegate functions within a River Edge Redevelopment Zone to one or more designated zone organizations in such zones.

Subject to the necessary governmental authorizations, designated zone organizations may, in coordination with the municipality, provide or contract for provision of public services including, but not limited to:

(1) crime-watch patrols within zone neighborhoods;

(2) volunteer child care day-care centers;

(3) recreational activities for zone-area youth;

(4) garbage collection;

(5) street maintenance and improvements;

(6) bridge maintenance and improvements;

(7) maintenance and improvement of water and sewer lines;

(8) energy conservation projects;

(9) health and clinic services;

(10) drug abuse programs;

(11) senior citizen assistance programs;

(12) park maintenance;

(13) rehabilitation, renovation, and operation and maintenance of low and moderate income housing; and

(14) other types of public services as provided by law or regulation.

(Source: P.A. 94-1021, eff. 7-12-06.)

Section 95. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.66, 10-22.18b, 10-22.18c, and 34-18.4 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.66) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.66)

Sec. 2-3.66. Truants' alternative and optional education programs. To establish projects to offer modified instructional programs or other services designed to prevent students from dropping out of school, including programs pursuant to Section 2-3.41, and to serve as a part time or full time option in lieu of regular school attendance and to award grants to local school districts, educational service regions or community college districts from appropriated funds to assist districts in establishing such projects. The education agency may operate its own program or enter into a contract with another not-for-profit entity to implement the program. The projects shall allow dropouts, up to and including age 21, potential dropouts, including truants, uninvolved, unmotivated and disaffected students, as defined by State Board of Education rules and regulations, to enroll, as an alternative to regular school attendance, in an optional education program which may be established by school board policy and is in conformance with rules adopted by the State Board of Education. Truants' Alternative and Optional Education programs funded pursuant to this Section shall be planned by a student, the student's parents or legal guardians, unless the student is 18 years or older, and school officials and shall culminate in an individualized optional education plan. Such plan shall focus on academic or vocational skills, or both, and may include, but not be limited to, evening school, summer school, community college courses, adult education, preparation courses for high school equivalency testing, vocational training, work experience, programs to enhance self concept and parenting courses. School districts which are awarded grants pursuant to this Section shall be authorized to provide child day care services to children of students who are eligible and desire to enroll in programs established and funded under this Section, but only if and to the extent that such child day care is necessary to enable those eligible students to attend and participate in the programs and courses which are conducted pursuant to this Section. School districts and regional offices of education may claim general State aid under Section 18-8.05 or evidence-based funding under Section 18-8.15 for students enrolled in truants' alternative and optional education programs, provided that such students are receiving services that are supplemental to a program leading to a high school diploma and are otherwise eligible to be claimed for general State aid under Section 18-8.05 or evidence-based funding under Section 18-8.15, as applicable.

(Source: P.A. 100-465, eff. 8-31-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.18b) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.18b)

Sec. 10-22.18b. Before and after school programs. To develop and maintain before school and after school programs for students in kindergarten through the 6th grade. Such programs may include time for homework, physical exercise, afternoon nutritional snacks and educational offerings which are in addition to those offered during the regular school day. The chief administrator in each district shall be a certified teacher or a person who meets the requirements for supervising a child day care center under the Child Care Act of 1969. Individual programs shall be coordinated by certified teachers or by persons who meet the requirements for supervising a child day care center under the Child Care Act of 1969. Additional employees who are not so qualified may also be employed for such programs.

The schedule of these programs may follow the work calendar of the local community rather than the regular school calendar. Parents or guardians of the participating students shall be responsible for providing transportation for the students to and from the programs. The school board may charge parents of participating students a fee, not to exceed the actual cost of such before and after school programs.

(Source: P.A. 83-639.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.18c) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.18c)

Sec. 10-22.18c. Model child day care services program. Local school districts may establish, in cooperation with the State Board of Education, a model program for the provision of child day care services in a school. The program shall be administered by the local school district and shall be funded from monies available from private and public sources. Student parents shall not be charged a fee for the child day care services; school personnel also may utilize the services, but shall be charged a fee. The program shall be supervised by a trained child care professional who is qualified to teach students parenting skills. As part of the program, the school shall offer a course in child behavior in which students shall receive course credits for helping to care for the children in the program while learning parenting skills. The State Board of Education shall evaluate the programs' effectiveness in reducing school absenteeism and dropouts among teenage parents and shall report to the General Assembly concerning its findings after the program has been in operation for 2 years.

(Source: P.A. 85-769.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.4) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-18.4)

Sec. 34-18.4. Before and after school programs. The Board of Education may develop and maintain before school and after school programs for students in kindergarten through the 6th grade. Such programs may include time for homework, physical exercise, afternoon nutritional snacks and educational offerings which are in addition to those offered during the regular school day. The chief administrator in each district shall be a certified teacher or a person who meets the requirements for supervising a child day care center under the Child Care Act of 1969. Individual programs shall be coordinated by certified teachers or by persons who meet the requirements for supervising a child day care center under the Child Care Act of 1969. Additional employees who are not so qualified may also be employed for such programs.

The schedule of these programs may follow the work calendar of the local community rather than the regular school calendar. Parents or guardians of the participating students shall be responsible for providing transportation for the students to and from the programs. The school board may charge parents of participating students a fee, not to exceed the actual cost of such before and after school programs.

(Source: P.A. 83-639.)

Section 100. The Illinois School Student Records Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(105 ILCS 10/2) (from Ch. 122, par. 50-2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act:

(a) "Student" means any person enrolled or previously enrolled in a school.

(b) "School" means any public preschool, child day care center, kindergarten, nursery, elementary or secondary educational institution, vocational school, special educational facility or any other elementary or secondary educational agency or institution and any person, agency or institution which maintains school student records from more than one school, but does not include a private or non-public school.

(c) "State Board" means the State Board of Education.

(d) "School Student Record" means any writing or other recorded information concerning a student and by which a student may be individually identified, maintained by a school or at its direction or by an employee of a school, regardless of how or where the information is stored. The following shall not be deemed school student records under this Act: writings or other recorded information maintained by an employee of a school or other person at the direction of a school for his or her exclusive use; provided that all such writings and other recorded information are destroyed not later than the student's graduation or permanent withdrawal from the school; and provided further that no such records or recorded information may be released or disclosed to any person except a person designated by the school as a substitute unless they are first incorporated in a school student record and made subject to all of the provisions of this Act. School student records shall not include information maintained by law enforcement professionals working in the school.

(e) "Student Permanent Record" means the minimum personal information necessary to a school in the education of the student and contained in a school student record. Such information may include the student's name, birth date, address, grades and grade level, parents' names and addresses, attendance records, and such other entries as the State Board may require or authorize.

(f) "Student Temporary Record" means all information contained in a school student record but not contained in the student permanent record. Such information may include family background information, intelligence test scores, aptitude test scores, psychological and personality test results, teacher evaluations, and other information of clear relevance to the education of the student, all subject to regulations of the State Board. The information shall include information provided under Section 8.6 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and information contained in service logs maintained by a local education agency under subsection (d) of Section 14-8.02f of the School Code. In addition, the student temporary record shall include information regarding serious disciplinary infractions that resulted in expulsion, suspension, or the imposition of punishment or sanction. For purposes of this provision, serious disciplinary infractions means: infractions involving drugs, weapons, or bodily harm to another.

(g) "Parent" means a person who is the natural parent of the student or other person who has the primary responsibility for the care and upbringing of the student. All rights and privileges accorded to a parent under this Act shall become exclusively those of the student upon his 18th birthday, graduation from secondary school, marriage or entry into military service, whichever occurs first. Such rights and privileges may also be exercised by the student at any time with respect to the student's permanent school record.

(h) "Department" means the Department of Children and Family Services.

(Source: P.A. 101-515, eff. 8-23-19; 102-199, eff. 7-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act:

(a) "Student" means any person enrolled or previously enrolled in a school.

(b) "School" means any public preschool, child day care center, kindergarten, nursery, elementary or secondary educational institution, vocational school, special educational facility or any other elementary or secondary educational agency or institution and any person, agency or institution which maintains school student records from more than one school, but does not include a private or non-public school.

(c) "State Board" means the State Board of Education.

(d) "School Student Record" means any writing or other recorded information concerning a student and by which a student may be individually identified, maintained by a school or at its direction or by an employee of a school, regardless of how or where the information is stored. The following shall not be deemed school student records under this Act: writings or other recorded information maintained by an employee of a school or other person at the direction of a school for his or her exclusive use; provided that all such writings and other recorded information are destroyed not later than the student's graduation or permanent withdrawal from the school; and provided further that no such records or recorded information may be released or disclosed to any person except a person designated by the school as a substitute unless they are first incorporated in a school student record and made subject to all of the provisions of this Act. School student records shall not include information maintained by law enforcement professionals working in the school.

(e) "Student Permanent Record" means the minimum personal information necessary to a school in the education of the student and contained in a school student record. Such information may include the student's name, birth date, address, grades and grade level, parents' names and addresses, attendance records, and such other entries as the State Board may require or authorize.

(f) "Student Temporary Record" means all information contained in a school student record but not contained in the student permanent record. Such information may include family background information, intelligence test scores, aptitude test scores, psychological and personality test results, teacher evaluations, and other information of clear relevance to the education of the student, all subject to regulations of the State Board. The information shall include all of the following:

(1) Information provided under Section 8.6 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and information contained in service logs maintained by a local education agency under subsection (d) of Section 14-8.02f of the School Code.

(2) Information regarding serious disciplinary infractions that resulted in expulsion, suspension, or the imposition of punishment or sanction. For purposes of this provision, serious disciplinary infractions means: infractions involving drugs, weapons, or bodily harm to another.

(3) Information concerning a student's status and related experiences as a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence, as defined in Article 26A of the School Code, including a statement of the student or any other documentation, record, or corroborating evidence and the fact that the student has requested or obtained assistance, support, or services related to that status. Enforcement of this paragraph (3) shall follow the procedures provided in Section 26A-40 of the School Code.

(g) "Parent" means a person who is the natural parent of the student or other person who has the primary responsibility for the care and upbringing of the student. All rights and privileges accorded to a parent under this Act shall become exclusively those of the student upon his 18th birthday, graduation from secondary school, marriage or entry into military service, whichever occurs first. Such rights and privileges may also be exercised by the student at any time with respect to the student's permanent school record.

(h) "Department" means the Department of Children and Family Services.

(Source: P.A. 101-515, eff. 8-23-19; 102-199, eff. 7-1-22; 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

Section 105. The University of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 1d as follows:

(110 ILCS 305/1d) (from Ch. 144, par. 22d)

Sec. 1d. Child care services.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child care services" means child day care home or center services as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) The Board may contract for the provision of child care services for its employees. The Board may, in accordance with established rules, allow child day care centers to operate in State-owned or leased facilities. Such child day care centers shall be primarily for use by State employees of the university but use by non-employees may be allowed.

Where the Board enters into a contract to construct, acquire or lease all or a substantial portion of a building, in which more than 50 persons shall be employed, other than a renewal of an existing lease, after July 1, 1992, and where a need has been demonstrated, according to subsection (c), on-site child care services shall be provided for employees of the university.

The Board shall implement this Section and shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for this purpose. By April 1, 1993, the Board shall propose rules setting forth the standards and criteria, including need and feasibility, for determining if on-site child care services shall be provided. The Board shall consult with the Department of Children and Family Services in defining standards for child care service centers established pursuant to this Section to ensure compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969. The Board shall establish a schedule of fees that shall be charged for child care services under this Section. The schedule shall be established so that charges for service are based on the actual cost of care. Except as otherwise provided by law for employees who may qualify for public assistance or social services due to indigency or family circumstance, each employee obtaining child care services under this Section shall be responsible for full payment of all charges. The Board shall report, on or before December 31, 1993, to the Governor and the members of the General Assembly, on the feasibility and implementation of a plan for the provision of comprehensive child care services.

(c) Prior to contracting for child care services, the Board shall determine a need for child care services. Proof of need may include a survey of university employees as well as a determination of the availability of child care services through other State agencies, or in the community. The Board may also require submission of a feasibility, design and implementation plan, that takes into consideration similar needs and services of other State universities.

The Board shall have the sole responsibility for choosing the successful bidder and overseeing the operation of its child care service program within the guidelines established by the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that detail the specific standards to be used in the selection of a vendor of child care services.

The contract shall provide for the establishment of or arrangement for the use of a licensed child day care center or a licensed child day care agency, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 87-1019; 88-45.)

Section 110. The Southern Illinois University Management Act is amended by changing Section 8b.1 as follows:

(110 ILCS 520/8b.1) (from Ch. 144, par. 658b.1)

Sec. 8b.1. Child care services.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child care services" means child day care home or center services as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) The Board may contract for the provision of child care services for its employees. The Board may, in accordance with established rules, allow child day care centers to operate in State-owned or leased facilities. Such child day care centers shall be primarily for use by State employees of the university but use by non-employees may be allowed.

Where the Board enters into a contract to construct, acquire or lease all or a substantial portion of a building, in which more than 50 persons shall be employed, other than a renewal of an existing lease, after July 1, 1992, and where a need has been demonstrated, according to subsection (c), on-site child care services shall be provided for employees of the university.

The Board shall implement this Section and shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for this purpose. By April 1, 1993, the Board shall propose rules setting forth the standards and criteria, including need and feasibility, for determining if on-site child care services shall be provided. The Board shall consult with the Department of Children and Family Services in defining standards for child care service centers established pursuant to this Section to ensure compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969. The Board shall establish a schedule of fees that shall be charged for child care services under this Section. The schedule shall be established so that charges for service are based on the actual cost of care. Except as otherwise provided by law for employees who may qualify for public assistance or social services due to indigency or family circumstance, each employee obtaining child care services under this Section shall be responsible for full payment of all charges. The Board shall report, on or before December 31, 1993, to the Governor and the members of the General Assembly, on the feasibility and implementation of a plan for the provision of comprehensive child care services.

(c) Prior to contracting for child care services, the Board shall determine a need for child care services. Proof of need may include a survey of university employees as well as a determination of the availability of child care services through other State agencies, or in the community. The Board may also require submission of a feasibility, design and implementation plan, that takes into consideration similar needs and services of other State universities.

The Board shall have the sole responsibility for choosing the successful bidder and overseeing the operation of its child care service program within the guidelines established by the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that detail the specific standards to be used in the selection of a vendor of child care services.

The contract shall provide for the establishment of or arrangement for the use of a licensed child day care center or a licensed child day care agency, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 87-1019; 88-45.)

Section 115. The Chicago State University Law is amended by changing Section 5-95 as follows:

(110 ILCS 660/5-95)

Sec. 5-95. Child care services.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child care services" means child day care home or center services as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) The Board may contract for the provision of child care services for its employees. The Board may, in accordance with established rules, allow child day care centers to operate in State-owned or leased facilities. Such child day care centers shall be primarily for use by State employees of Chicago State University but use by non-employees may be allowed.

Where the Board enters into a contract to construct, acquire or lease all or a substantial portion of a building, in which more than 50 persons shall be employed, other than a renewal of an existing lease, and where a need has been demonstrated, according to subsection (c), on-site child care services shall be provided for employees of Chicago State University.

The Board shall implement this Section and shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for this purpose. By September 1, 1996, the Board shall propose rules setting forth the standards and criteria, including need and feasibility, for determining if September child care services shall be provided. The Board shall consult with the Department of Children and Family Services in defining standards for child care service centers established pursuant to this Section to ensure compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969. The Board shall establish a schedule of fees that shall be charged for child care services under this Section. The schedule shall be established so that charges for service are based on the actual cost of care. Except as otherwise provided by law for employees who may qualify for public assistance or social services due to indigency or family circumstance, each employee obtaining child care services under this Section shall be responsible for full payment of all charges. The Board shall report, on or before December 31, 1996, to the Governor and the members of the General Assembly, on the feasibility and implementation of a plan for the provision of comprehensive child care services.

(c) Prior to contracting for child care services, the Board shall determine a need for child care services. Proof of need may include a survey of University employees as well as a determination of the availability of child care services through other State agencies, or in the community. The Board may also require submission of a feasibility, design and implementation plan that takes into consideration similar needs and services of other State universities.

The Board shall have the sole responsibility for choosing the successful bidder and overseeing the operation of its child care service program within the guidelines established by the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that detail the specific standards to be used in the selection of a vendor of child care services.

The contract shall provide for the establishment of or arrangement for the use of a licensed child day care center or a licensed child day care agency, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 89-4, eff. 1-1-96.)

Section 120. The Eastern Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 10-95 as follows:

(110 ILCS 665/10-95)

Sec. 10-95. Child care services.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child care services" means child day care home or center services as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) The Board may contract for the provision of child care services for its employees. The Board may, in accordance with established rules, allow child day care centers to operate in State-owned or leased facilities. Such child day care centers shall be primarily for use by State employees of Eastern Illinois University but use by non-employees may be allowed.

Where the Board enters into a contract to construct, acquire or lease all or a substantial portion of a building, in which more than 50 persons shall be employed, other than a renewal of an existing lease, and where a need has been demonstrated, according to subsection (c), on-site child care services shall be provided for employees of Eastern Illinois University.

The Board shall implement this Section and shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for this purpose. By September 1, 1996 the Board shall propose rules setting forth the standards and criteria, including need and feasibility, for determining if September child care services shall be provided. The Board shall consult with the Department of Children and Family Services in defining standards for child care service centers established pursuant to this Section to ensure compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969. The Board shall establish a schedule of fees that shall be charged for child care services under this Section. The schedule shall be established so that charges for service are based on the actual cost of care. Except as otherwise provided by law for employees who may qualify for public assistance or social services due to indigency or family circumstance, each employee obtaining child care services under this Section shall be responsible for full payment of all charges. The Board shall report, on or before December 31, 1996, to the Governor and the members of the General Assembly, on the feasibility and implementation of a plan for the provision of comprehensive child care services.

(c) Prior to contracting for child care services, the Board shall determine a need for child care services. Proof of need may include a survey of University employees as well as a determination of the availability of child care services through other State agencies, or in the community. The Board may also require submission of a feasibility, design and implementation plan that takes into consideration similar needs and services of other State universities.

The Board shall have the sole responsibility for choosing the successful bidder and overseeing the operation of its child care service program within the guidelines established by the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that detail the specific standards to be used in the selection of a vendor of child care services.

The contract shall provide for the establishment of or arrangement for the use of a licensed child day care center or a licensed child day care agency, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 89-4, eff. 1-1-96.)

Section 125. The Governors State University Law is amended by changing Section 15-95 as follows:

(110 ILCS 670/15-95)

Sec. 15-95. Child care services.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child care services" means child day care home or center services as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) The Board may contract for the provision of child care services for its employees. The Board may, in accordance with established rules, allow child day care centers to operate in State-owned or leased facilities. Such child day care centers shall be primarily for use by State employees of Governors State University but use by non-employees may be allowed.

Where the Board enters into a contract to construct, acquire or lease all or a substantial portion of a building, in which more than 50 persons shall be employed, other than a renewal of an existing lease, and where a need has been demonstrated, according to subsection (c), on-site child care services shall be provided for employees of Governors State University.

The Board shall implement this Section and shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for this purpose. By September 1, 1996, the Board shall propose rules setting forth the standards and criteria, including need and feasibility, for determining if September child care services shall be provided. The Board shall consult with the Department of Children and Family Services in defining standards for child care service centers established pursuant to this Section to ensure compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969. The Board shall establish a schedule of fees that shall be charged for child care services under this Section. The schedule shall be established so that charges for service are based on the actual cost of care. Except as otherwise provided by law for employees who may qualify for public assistance or social services due to indigency or family circumstance, each employee obtaining child care services under this Section shall be responsible for full payment of all charges. The Board shall report, on or before December 31, 1996, to the Governor and the members of the General Assembly, on the feasibility and implementation of a plan for the provision of comprehensive child care services.

(c) Prior to contracting for child care services, the Board shall determine a need for child care services. Proof of need may include a survey of University employees as well as a determination of the availability of child care services through other State agencies, or in the community. The Board may also require submission of a feasibility, design and implementation plan that takes into consideration similar needs and services of other State universities.

The Board shall have the sole responsibility for choosing the successful bidder and overseeing the operation of its child care service program within the guidelines established by the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that detail the specific standards to be used in the selection of a vendor of child care services.

The contract shall provide for the establishment of or arrangement for the use of a licensed child day care center or a licensed child day care agency, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 89-4, eff. 1-1-96.)

Section 130. The Illinois State University Law is amended by changing Section 20-95 as follows:

(110 ILCS 675/20-95)

Sec. 20-95. Child care services.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child care services" means child day care home or center services as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) The Board may contract for the provision of child care services for its employees. The Board may, in accordance with established rules, allow child day care centers to operate in State-owned or leased facilities. Such child day care centers shall be primarily for use by State employees of Illinois State University but use by non-employees may be allowed.

Where the Board enters into a contract to construct, acquire or lease all or a substantial portion of a building, in which more than 50 persons shall be employed, other than a renewal of an existing lease, and where a need has been demonstrated, according to subsection (c), on-site child care services shall be provided for employees of Illinois State University.

The Board shall implement this Section and shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for this purpose. By September 1, 1996, the Board shall propose rules setting forth the standards and criteria, including need and feasibility, for determining if September child care services shall be provided. The Board shall consult with the Department of Children and Family Services in defining standards for child care service centers established pursuant to this Section to ensure compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969. The Board shall establish a schedule of fees that shall be charged for child care services under this Section. The schedule shall be established so that charges for service are based on the actual cost of care. Except as otherwise provided by law for employees who may qualify for public assistance or social services due to indigency or family circumstance, each employee obtaining child care services under this Section shall be responsible for full payment of all charges. The Board shall report, on or before December 31, 1996, to the Governor and the members of the General Assembly, on the feasibility and implementation of a plan for the provision of comprehensive child care services.

(c) Prior to contracting for child care services, the Board shall determine a need for child care services. Proof of need may include a survey of University employees as well as a determination of the availability of child care services through other State agencies, or in the community. The Board may also require submission of a feasibility, design and implementation plan that takes into consideration similar needs and services of other State universities.

The Board shall have the sole responsibility for choosing the successful bidder and overseeing the operation of its child care service program within the guidelines established by the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that detail the specific standards to be used in the selection of a vendor of child care services.

The contract shall provide for the establishment of or arrangement for the use of a licensed child day care center or a licensed child day care agency, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 89-4, eff. 1-1-96.)

Section 135. The Northeastern Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 25-95 as follows:

(110 ILCS 680/25-95)

Sec. 25-95. Child care services.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child care services" means child day care home or center services as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) The Board may contract for the provision of child care services for its employees. The Board may, in accordance with established rules, allow child day care centers to operate in State-owned or leased facilities. Such child day care centers shall be primarily for use by State employees of Northeastern Illinois University but use by non-employees may be allowed.

Where the Board enters into a contract to construct, acquire or lease all or a substantial portion of a building, in which more than 50 persons shall be employed, other than a renewal of an existing lease, and where a need has been demonstrated, according to subsection (c), on-site child care services shall be provided for employees of Northeastern Illinois University.

The Board shall implement this Section and shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for this purpose. By September 1, 1996, the Board shall propose rules setting forth the standards and criteria, including need and feasibility, for determining if September child care services shall be provided. The Board shall consult with the Department of Children and Family Services in defining standards for child care service centers established pursuant to this Section to ensure compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969. The Board shall establish a schedule of fees that shall be charged for child care services under this Section. The schedule shall be established so that charges for service are based on the actual cost of care. Except as otherwise provided by law for employees who may qualify for public assistance or social services due to indigency or family circumstance, each employee obtaining child care services under this Section shall be responsible for full payment of all charges. The Board shall report, on or before December 31, 1996, to the Governor and the members of the General Assembly, on the feasibility and implementation of a plan for the provision of comprehensive child care services.

(c) Prior to contracting for child care services, the Board shall determine a need for child care services. Proof of need may include a survey of University employees as well as a determination of the availability of child care services through other State agencies, or in the community. The Board may also require submission of a feasibility, design and implementation plan that takes into consideration similar needs and services of other State universities.

The Board shall have the sole responsibility for choosing the successful bidder and overseeing the operation of its child care service program within the guidelines established by the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that detail the specific standards to be used in the selection of a vendor of child care services.

The contract shall provide for the establishment of or arrangement for the use of a licensed child day care center or a licensed child day care agency, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 89-4, eff. 1-1-96.)

Section 140. The Northern Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 30-95 as follows:

(110 ILCS 685/30-95)

Sec. 30-95. Child care services.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child care services" means child day care home or center services as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) The Board may contract for the provision of child care services for its employees. The Board may, in accordance with established rules, allow child day care centers to operate in State-owned or leased facilities. Such child day care centers shall be primarily for use by State employees of Northern Illinois University but use by non-employees may be allowed.

Where the Board enters into a contract to construct, acquire or lease all or a substantial portion of a building, in which more than 50 persons shall be employed, other than a renewal of an existing lease, and where a need has been demonstrated, according to subsection (c), on-site child care services shall be provided for employees of Northern Illinois University.

The Board shall implement this Section and shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for this purpose. By September 1, 1996, the Board shall propose rules setting forth the standards and criteria, including need and feasibility, for determining if September child care services shall be provided. The Board shall consult with the Department of Children and Family Services in defining standards for child care service centers established pursuant to this Section to ensure compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969. The Board shall establish a schedule of fees that shall be charged for child care services under this Section. The schedule shall be established so that charges for service are based on the actual cost of care. Except as otherwise provided by law for employees who may qualify for public assistance or social services due to indigency or family circumstance, each employee obtaining child care services under this Section shall be responsible for full payment of all charges. The Board shall report, on or before December 31, 1996, to the Governor and the members of the General Assembly, on the feasibility and implementation of a plan for the provision of comprehensive child care services.

(c) Prior to contracting for child care services, the Board shall determine a need for child care services. Proof of need may include a survey of University employees as well as a determination of the availability of child care services through other State agencies, or in the community. The Board may also require submission of a feasibility, design and implementation plan that takes into consideration similar needs and services of other State universities.

The Board shall have the sole responsibility for choosing the successful bidder and overseeing the operation of its child care service program within the guidelines established by the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that detail the specific standards to be used in the selection of a vendor of child care services.

The contract shall provide for the establishment of or arrangement for the use of a licensed child day care center or a licensed child day care agency, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 89-4, eff. 1-1-96.)

Section 145. The Western Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 35-95 as follows:

(110 ILCS 690/35-95)

Sec. 35-95. Child care services.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child care services" means child day care home or center services as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) The Board may contract for the provision of child care services for its employees. The Board may, in accordance with established rules, allow child day care centers to operate in State-owned or leased facilities. Such child day care centers shall be primarily for use by State employees of Western Illinois University but use by non-employees may be allowed.

Where the Board enters into a contract to construct, acquire or lease all or a substantial portion of a building, in which more than 50 persons shall be employed, other than a renewal of an existing lease, and where a need has been demonstrated, according to subsection (c), on-site child care services shall be provided for employees of Western Illinois University.

The Board shall implement this Section and shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for this purpose. By September 1, 1996, the Board shall propose rules setting forth the standards and criteria, including need and feasibility, for determining if September child care services shall be provided. The Board shall consult with the Department of Children and Family Services in defining standards for child care service centers established pursuant to this Section to ensure compliance with the Child Care Act of 1969. The Board shall establish a schedule of fees that shall be charged for child care services under this Section. The schedule shall be established so that charges for service are based on the actual cost of care. Except as otherwise provided by law for employees who may qualify for public assistance or social services due to indigency or family circumstance, each employee obtaining child care services under this Section shall be responsible for full payment of all charges. The Board shall report, on or before December 31, 1996, to the Governor and the members of the General Assembly, on the feasibility and implementation of a plan for the provision of comprehensive child care services.

(c) Prior to contracting for child care services, the Board shall determine a need for child care services. Proof of need may include a survey of University employees as well as a determination of the availability of child care services through other State agencies, or in the community. The Board may also require submission of a feasibility, design and implementation plan that takes into consideration similar needs and services of other State universities.

The Board shall have the sole responsibility for choosing the successful bidder and overseeing the operation of its child care service program within the guidelines established by the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that detail the specific standards to be used in the selection of a vendor of child care services.

The contract shall provide for the establishment of or arrangement for the use of a licensed child day care center or a licensed child day care agency, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 89-4, eff. 1-1-96.)

Section 150. The Alternative Health Care Delivery Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(210 ILCS 3/35)

Sec. 35. Alternative health care models authorized. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, alternative health care models described in this Section may be established on a demonstration basis.

(1) (Blank).

(2) Alternative health care delivery model; postsurgical recovery care center. A postsurgical recovery care center is a designated site which provides postsurgical recovery care for generally healthy patients undergoing surgical procedures that potentially require overnight nursing care, pain control, or observation that would otherwise be provided in an inpatient setting. Patients may be discharged from the postsurgical recovery care center in less than 24 hours if the attending physician or the facility's medical director believes the patient has recovered enough to be discharged. A postsurgical recovery care center is either freestanding or a defined unit of an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospital. No facility, or portion of a facility, may participate in a demonstration program as a postsurgical recovery care center unless the facility has been licensed as an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospital for at least 2 years before August 20, 1993 (the effective date of Public Act 88-441). The maximum length of stay for patients in a postsurgical recovery care center is not to exceed 48 hours unless the treating physician requests an extension of time from the recovery center's medical director on the basis of medical or clinical documentation that an additional care period is required for the recovery of a patient and the medical director approves the extension of time. In no case, however, shall a patient's length of stay in a postsurgical recovery care center be longer than 72 hours. If a patient requires an additional care period after the expiration of the 72-hour limit, the patient shall be transferred to an appropriate facility. Reports on variances from the 24-hour or 48-hour limit shall be sent to the Department for its evaluation. The reports shall, before submission to the Department, have removed from them all patient and physician identifiers. Blood products may be administered in the postsurgical recovery care center model. In order to handle cases of complications, emergencies, or exigent circumstances, every postsurgical recovery care center as defined in this paragraph shall maintain a contractual relationship, including a transfer agreement, with a general acute care hospital. A postsurgical recovery care center shall be no larger than 20 beds. A postsurgical recovery care center shall be located within 15 minutes travel time from the general acute care hospital with which the center maintains a contractual relationship, including a transfer agreement, as required under this paragraph.

No postsurgical recovery care center shall discriminate against any patient requiring treatment because of the source of payment for services, including Medicare and Medicaid recipients.

The Department shall adopt rules to implement the provisions of Public Act 88-441 concerning postsurgical recovery care centers within 9 months after August 20, 1993. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, a postsurgical recovery care center model may provide sleep laboratory or similar sleep studies in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations.

(3) Alternative health care delivery model; children's community-based health care center. A children's community-based health care center model is a designated site that provides nursing care, clinical support services, and therapies for a period of one to 14 days for short-term stays and 120 days to facilitate transitions to home or other appropriate settings for medically fragile children, technology dependent children, and children with special health care needs who are deemed clinically stable by a physician and are younger than 22 years of age. This care is to be provided in a home-like environment that serves no more than 12 children at a time, except that a children's community-based health care center in existence on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly that is located in Chicago on grade level for Life Safety Code purposes may provide care to no more than 16 children at a time. Children's community-based health care center services must be available through the model to all families, including those whose care is paid for through the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, and insurance companies who cover home health care services or private duty nursing care in the home.

Each children's community-based health care center model location shall be physically separate and apart from any other facility licensed by the Department of Public Health under this or any other Act and shall provide the following services: respite care, registered nursing or licensed practical nursing care, transitional care to facilitate home placement or other appropriate settings and reunite families, medical child day care, weekend camps, and diagnostic studies typically done in the home setting.

Coverage for the services provided by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under this paragraph (3) is contingent upon federal waiver approval and is provided only to Medicaid eligible clients participating in the home and community based services waiver designated in Section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act for medically frail and technologically dependent children or children in Department of Children and Family Services foster care who receive home health benefits.

(4) Alternative health care delivery model; community based residential rehabilitation center. A community-based residential rehabilitation center model is a designated site that provides rehabilitation or support, or both, for persons who have experienced severe brain injury, who are medically stable, and who no longer require acute rehabilitative care or intense medical or nursing services. The average length of stay in a community-based residential rehabilitation center shall not exceed 4 months. As an integral part of the services provided, individuals are housed in a supervised living setting while having immediate access to the community. The residential rehabilitation center authorized by the Department may have more than one residence included under the license. A residence may be no larger than 12 beds and shall be located as an integral part of the community. Day treatment or individualized outpatient services shall be provided for persons who reside in their own home. Functional outcome goals shall be established for each individual. Services shall include, but are not limited to, case management, training and assistance with activities of daily living, nursing consultation, traditional therapies (physical, occupational, speech), functional interventions in the residence and community (job placement, shopping, banking, recreation), counseling, self-management strategies, productive activities, and multiple opportunities for skill acquisition and practice throughout the day. The design of individualized program plans shall be consistent with the outcome goals that are established for each resident. The programs provided in this setting shall be accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities (CARF). The program shall have been accredited by CARF as a Brain Injury Community-Integrative Program for at least 3 years.

(5) Alternative health care delivery model; Alzheimer's disease management center. An Alzheimer's disease management center model is a designated site that provides a safe and secure setting for care of persons diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. An Alzheimer's disease management center model shall be a facility separate from any other facility licensed by the Department of Public Health under this or any other Act. An Alzheimer's disease management center shall conduct and document an assessment of each resident every 6 months. The assessment shall include an evaluation of daily functioning, cognitive status, other medical conditions, and behavioral problems. An Alzheimer's disease management center shall develop and implement an ongoing treatment plan for each resident. The treatment plan shall have defined goals. The Alzheimer's disease management center shall treat behavioral problems and mood disorders using nonpharmacologic approaches such as environmental modification, task simplification, and other appropriate activities. All staff must have necessary training to care for all stages of Alzheimer's Disease. An Alzheimer's disease management center shall provide education and support for residents and caregivers. The education and support shall include referrals to support organizations for educational materials on community resources, support groups, legal and financial issues, respite care, and future care needs and options. The education and support shall also include a discussion of the resident's need to make advance directives and to identify surrogates for medical and legal decision-making. The provisions of this paragraph establish the minimum level of services that must be provided by an Alzheimer's disease management center. An Alzheimer's disease management center model shall have no more than 100 residents. Nothing in this paragraph (5) shall be construed as prohibiting a person or facility from providing services and care to persons with Alzheimer's disease as otherwise authorized under State law.

(6) Alternative health care delivery model; birth center. A birth center shall be exclusively dedicated to serving the childbirth-related needs of women and their newborns and shall have no more than 10 beds. A birth center is a designated site that is away from the mother's usual place of residence and in which births are planned to occur following a normal, uncomplicated, and low-risk pregnancy. A birth center shall offer prenatal care and community education services and shall coordinate these services with other health care services available in the community.

(A) A birth center shall not be separately licensed if it is one of the following:

(1) A part of a hospital; or

(2) A freestanding facility that is physically distinct from a hospital but is operated under a license issued to a hospital under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(B) A separate birth center license shall be required if the birth center is operated as:

(1) A part of the operation of a federally qualified health center as designated by the United States Department of Health and Human Services; or

(2) A facility other than one described in subparagraph (A)(1), (A)(2), or (B)(1) of this paragraph (6) whose costs are reimbursable under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

In adopting rules for birth centers, the Department shall consider: the American Association of Birth Centers' Standards for Freestanding Birth Centers; the American Academy of Pediatrics/American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists Guidelines for Perinatal Care; and the Regionalized Perinatal Health Care Code. The Department's rules shall stipulate the eligibility criteria for birth center admission. The Department's rules shall stipulate the necessary equipment for emergency care according to the American Association of Birth Centers' standards and any additional equipment deemed necessary by the Department. The Department's rules shall provide for a time period within which each birth center not part of a hospital must become accredited by either the Commission for the Accreditation of Freestanding Birth Centers or The Joint Commission.

A birth center shall be certified to participate in the Medicare and Medicaid programs under Titles XVIII and XIX, respectively, of the federal Social Security Act. To the extent necessary, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow birth centers to be reimbursed under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

A birth center that is not operated under a hospital license shall be located within a ground travel time distance from the general acute care hospital with which the birth center maintains a contractual relationship, including a transfer agreement, as required under this paragraph, that allows for an emergency caesarian delivery to be started within 30 minutes of the decision a caesarian delivery is necessary. A birth center operating under a hospital license shall be located within a ground travel time distance from the licensed hospital that allows for an emergency caesarian delivery to be started within 30 minutes of the decision a caesarian delivery is necessary.

The services of a medical director physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, who is certified or eligible for certification by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists or the American Board of Osteopathic Obstetricians and Gynecologists or has hospital obstetrical privileges are required in birth centers. The medical director in consultation with the Director of Nursing and Midwifery Services shall coordinate the clinical staff and overall provision of patient care. The medical director or his or her physician designee shall be available on the premises or within a close proximity as defined by rule. The medical director and the Director of Nursing and Midwifery Services shall jointly develop and approve policies defining the criteria to determine which pregnancies are accepted as normal, uncomplicated, and low-risk, and the anesthesia services available at the center. No general anesthesia may be administered at the center.

If a birth center employs certified nurse midwives, a certified nurse midwife shall be the Director of Nursing and Midwifery Services who is responsible for the development of policies and procedures for services as provided by Department rules.

An obstetrician, family practitioner, or certified nurse midwife shall attend each woman in labor from the time of admission through birth and throughout the immediate postpartum period. Attendance may be delegated only to another physician or certified nurse midwife. Additionally, a second staff person shall also be present at each birth who is licensed or certified in Illinois in a health-related field and under the supervision of the physician or certified nurse midwife in attendance, has specialized training in labor and delivery techniques and care of newborns, and receives planned and ongoing training as needed to perform assigned duties effectively.

The maximum length of stay in a birth center shall be consistent with existing State laws allowing a 48-hour stay or appropriate post-delivery care, if discharged earlier than 48 hours.

A birth center shall participate in the Illinois Perinatal System under the Developmental Disability Prevention Act. At a minimum, this participation shall require a birth center to establish a letter of agreement with a hospital designated under the Perinatal System. A hospital that operates or has a letter of agreement with a birth center shall include the birth center under its maternity service plan under the Hospital Licensing Act and shall include the birth center in the hospital's letter of agreement with its regional perinatal center.

A birth center may not discriminate against any patient requiring treatment because of the source of payment for services, including Medicare and Medicaid recipients.

No general anesthesia and no surgery may be performed at a birth center. The Department may by rule add birth center patient eligibility criteria or standards as it deems necessary. The Department shall by rule require each birth center to report the information which the Department shall make publicly available, which shall include, but is not limited to, the following:

(i) Birth center ownership.

(ii) Sources of payment for services.

(iii) Utilization data involving patient length of stay.

(iv) Admissions and discharges.

(v) Complications.

(vi) Transfers.

(vii) Unusual incidents.

(viii) Deaths.

(ix) Any other publicly reported data required under the Illinois Consumer Guide.

(x) Post-discharge patient status data where patients are followed for 14 days after discharge from the birth center to determine whether the mother or baby developed a complication or infection.

Within 9 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the Department shall adopt rules that are developed with consideration of: the American Association of Birth Centers' Standards for Freestanding Birth Centers; the American Academy of Pediatrics/American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists Guidelines for Perinatal Care; and the Regionalized Perinatal Health Care Code.

The Department shall adopt other rules as necessary to implement the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly within 9 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 100-518, eff. 12-8-17 (see Section 5 of P.A. 100-558 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 100-518).)

Section 155. The MC/DD Act is amended by changing Section 1-114.001 as follows:

(210 ILCS 46/1-114.001)

Sec. 1-114.001. Habilitation. "Habilitation" means an effort directed toward increasing a person's level of physical, mental, social, or economic functioning. Habilitation may include, but is not limited to, diagnosis, evaluation, medical services, residential care, child day care, special living arrangements, training, education, employment services, protective services, and counseling.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 160. The ID/DD Community Care Act is amended by changing Section 1-114.001 as follows:

(210 ILCS 47/1-114.001)

Sec. 1-114.001. Habilitation. "Habilitation" means an effort directed toward increasing a person's level of physical, mental, social, or economic functioning. Habilitation may include, but is not limited to, diagnosis, evaluation, medical services, residential care, child day care, special living arrangements, training, education, employment services, protective services, and counseling.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

Section 165. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 6.13 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/6.13) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 147.13)

Sec. 6.13. Any hospital licensed under this Act may provide a program or service for the temporary custodial care of mildly ill children who, because of their illness, are unable to attend school or to participate in their normal child day care program. The Department shall develop minimum standards, rules and regulations to govern the operation of a sick child day program which is operated by a hospital and located on the hospital's licensed premises. Any such standards, rules and regulations shall provide that:

(a) a sick child day program may be located anywhere on the hospital's licensed premises, including patient care units, when the following conditions are met:

(1) Children in the sick child day program shall not simultaneously occupy the same room as a hospital patient; and

(2) Children in the sick child day program who are recovering from non-contagious conditions shall be cared for in a room separate from children registered in the program who have contagious conditions.

(b) children registered in a sick child day program are not considered to be hospital patients, and are not required to be under the professional care of a member of the hospital's medical staff except in those cases where emergency medical treatment is needed during the time the child is on the program premises; and

(c) medication may be administered to a child in a sick child program when the following conditions are met:

(1) Prescription medications shall be labeled with the child's name, directions for administering the medication, the date, the physician's name, the prescription number, and the dispensing drug store or pharmacy. Only current prescription medications will be administered by the program. Nothing in this paragraph (1) shall be construed to prohibit program staff from administering medication prescribed by any licensed professional who is permitted by law to do so, whether or not the professional is a member of the hospital's medical staff.

(2) Written parental permission shall be obtained before non-prescription medication is administered. Such medication shall be administered in accordance with package instructions.

(Source: P.A. 86-1461; 87-435.)

Section 170. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 155.31, 1204, and 1630 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/155.31)

Sec. 155.31. Child Day care and group child day care homes; coverage.

(a) No insurer providing insurance coverage, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 143.13 of this Code, shall nonrenew or cancel an insurance policy on a child day care home or group child day care home, as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969, solely on the basis that the insured operates a duly licensed child day care home or group child day care home on the insured premises.

(b) An insurer providing such insurance coverage to a licensed child day care home or licensed group child day care home may provide such coverage with a separate policy or endorsement to a policy of fire and extended coverage insurance, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 143.13.

(c) Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, the insurer providing such coverage shall be allowed to cancel or nonrenew an insurance policy on a child day care home or group child day care home based upon the authority provided under Sections 143.21 and 143.21.1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 90-401, eff. 1-1-98; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98.)

(215 ILCS 5/1204) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.904)

(Text of Section WITH the changes made by P.A. 94-677, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 1204. (A) The Secretary shall promulgate rules and regulations which shall require each insurer licensed to write property or casualty insurance in the State and each syndicate doing business on the Illinois Insurance Exchange to record and report its loss and expense experience and other data as may be necessary to assess the relationship of insurance premiums and related income as compared to insurance costs and expenses. The Secretary may designate one or more rate service organizations or advisory organizations to gather and compile such experience and data. The Secretary shall require each insurer licensed to write property or casualty insurance in this State and each syndicate doing business on the Illinois Insurance Exchange to submit a report, on a form furnished by the Secretary, showing its direct writings in this State and companywide.

(B) Such report required by subsection (A) of this Section may include, but not be limited to, the following specific types of insurance written by such insurer:

(1) Political subdivision liability insurance reported separately in the following categories:

(a) municipalities;

(b) school districts;

(c) other political subdivisions;

(2) Public official liability insurance;

(3) Dram shop liability insurance;

(4) Child Day care center liability insurance;

(5) Labor, fraternal or religious organizations liability insurance;

(6) Errors and omissions liability insurance;

(7) Officers and directors liability insurance reported separately as follows:

(a) non-profit entities;

(b) for-profit entities;

(8) Products liability insurance;

(9) Medical malpractice insurance;

(10) Attorney malpractice insurance;

(11) Architects and engineers malpractice insurance; and

(12) Motor vehicle insurance reported separately for commercial and private passenger vehicles as follows:

(a) motor vehicle physical damage insurance;

(b) motor vehicle liability insurance.

(C) Such report may include, but need not be limited to the following data, both specific to this State and companywide, in the aggregate or by type of insurance for the previous year on a calendar year basis:

(1) Direct premiums written;

(2) Direct premiums earned;

(3) Number of policies;

(4) Net investment income, using appropriate estimates where necessary;

(5) Losses paid;

(6) Losses incurred;

(7) Loss reserves:

(a) Losses unpaid on reported claims;

(b) Losses unpaid on incurred but not reported claims;

(8) Number of claims:

(a) Paid claims;

(b) Arising claims;

(9) Loss adjustment expenses:

(a) Allocated loss adjustment expenses;

(b) Unallocated loss adjustment expenses;

(10) Net underwriting gain or loss;

(11) Net operation gain or loss, including net investment income;

(12) Any other information requested by the Secretary.

(C-3) Additional information by an advisory organization as defined in Section 463 of this Code.

(1) An advisory organization as defined in Section 463 of this Code shall report annually the following information in such format as may be prescribed by the Secretary:

(a) paid and incurred losses for each of the past 10 years;

(b) medical payments and medical charges, if collected, for each of the past 10 years;

(c) the following indemnity payment information: cumulative payments by accident year by calendar year of development. This array will show payments made and frequency of claims in the following categories: medical only, permanent partial disability (PPD), permanent total disability (PTD), temporary total disability (TTD), and fatalities;

(d) injuries by frequency and severity;

(e) by class of employee.

(2) The report filed with the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation under paragraph (1) of this subsection (C-3) shall be made available, on an aggregate basis, to the General Assembly and to the general public. The identity of the petitioner, the respondent, the attorneys, and the insurers shall not be disclosed.

(3) Reports required under this subsection (C-3) shall be filed with the Secretary no later than September 1 in 2006 and no later than September 1 of each year thereafter.

(C-5) Additional information required from medical malpractice insurers.

(1) In addition to the other requirements of this Section, the following information shall be included in the report required by subsection (A) of this Section in such form and under such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Secretary:

(a) paid and incurred losses by county for each of the past 10 policy years;

(b) earned exposures by ISO code, policy type, and policy year by county for each of the past 10 years; and

(c) the following actuarial information:

(i) Base class and territory equivalent exposures by report year by relative accident year.

(ii) Cumulative loss array by accident year by calendar year of development. This array will show frequency of claims in the following categories: open, closed with indemnity (CWI), closed with expense (CWE), and closed no pay (CNP); paid severity in the following categories: indemnity and allocated loss adjustment expenses (ALAE) on closed claims; and indemnity and expense reserves on pending claims.

(iii) Cumulative loss array by report year by calendar year of development. This array will show frequency of claims in the following categories: open, closed with indemnity (CWI), closed with expense (CWE), and closed no pay (CNP); paid severity in the following categories: indemnity and allocated loss adjustment expenses (ALAE) on closed claims; and indemnity and expense reserves on pending claims.

(iv) Maturity year and tail factors.

(v) Any expense, contingency ddr (death, disability, and retirement), commission, tax, and/or off-balance factors.

(2) The following information must also be annually provided to the Department:

(a) copies of the company's reserve and surplus studies; and

(b) consulting actuarial report and data supporting the company's rate filing.

(3) All information collected by the Secretary under paragraphs (1) and (2) shall be made available, on a company-by-company basis, to the General Assembly and the general public. This provision shall supersede any other provision of State law that may otherwise protect such information from public disclosure as confidential.

(D) In addition to the information which may be requested under subsection (C), the Secretary may also request on a companywide, aggregate basis, Federal Income Tax recoverable, net realized capital gain or loss, net unrealized capital gain or loss, and all other expenses not requested in subsection (C) above.

(E) Violations - Suspensions - Revocations.

(1) Any company or person subject to this Article, who willfully or repeatedly fails to observe or who otherwise violates any of the provisions of this Article or any rule or regulation promulgated by the Secretary under authority of this Article or any final order of the Secretary entered under the authority of this Article shall by civil penalty forfeit to the State of Illinois a sum not to exceed $2,000. Each day during which a violation occurs constitutes a separate offense.

(2) No forfeiture liability under paragraph (1) of this subsection may attach unless a written notice of apparent liability has been issued by the Secretary and received by the respondent, or the Secretary sends written notice of apparent liability by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the last known address of the respondent. Any respondent so notified must be granted an opportunity to request a hearing within 10 days from receipt of notice, or to show in writing, why he should not be held liable. A notice issued under this Section must set forth the date, facts and nature of the act or omission with which the respondent is charged and must specifically identify the particular provision of this Article, rule, regulation or order of which a violation is charged.

(3) No forfeiture liability under paragraph (1) of this subsection may attach for any violation occurring more than 2 years prior to the date of issuance of the notice of apparent liability and in no event may the total civil penalty forfeiture imposed for the acts or omissions set forth in any one notice of apparent liability exceed $100,000.

(4) All administrative hearings conducted pursuant to this Article are subject to 50 Ill. Adm. Code 2402 and all administrative hearings are subject to the Administrative Review Law.

(5) The civil penalty forfeitures provided for in this Section are payable to the General Revenue Fund of the State of Illinois, and may be recovered in a civil suit in the name of the State of Illinois brought in the Circuit Court in Sangamon County or in the Circuit Court of the county where the respondent is domiciled or has its principal operating office.

(6) In any case where the Secretary issues a notice of apparent liability looking toward the imposition of a civil penalty forfeiture under this Section that fact may not be used in any other proceeding before the Secretary to the prejudice of the respondent to whom the notice was issued, unless (a) the civil penalty forfeiture has been paid, or (b) a court has ordered payment of the civil penalty forfeiture and that order has become final.

(7) When any person or company has a license or certificate of authority under this Code and knowingly fails or refuses to comply with a lawful order of the Secretary requiring compliance with this Article, entered after notice and hearing, within the period of time specified in the order, the Secretary may, in addition to any other penalty or authority provided, revoke or refuse to renew the license or certificate of authority of such person or company, or may suspend the license or certificate of authority of such person or company until compliance with such order has been obtained.

(8) When any person or company has a license or certificate of authority under this Code and knowingly fails or refuses to comply with any provisions of this Article, the Secretary may, after notice and hearing, in addition to any other penalty provided, revoke or refuse to renew the license or certificate of authority of such person or company, or may suspend the license or certificate of authority of such person or company, until compliance with such provision of this Article has been obtained.

(9) No suspension or revocation under this Section may become effective until 5 days from the date that the notice of suspension or revocation has been personally delivered or delivered by registered or certified mail to the company or person. A suspension or revocation under this Section is stayed upon the filing, by the company or person, of a petition for judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 94-277, eff. 7-20-05; 94-677, eff. 8-25-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 94-677, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 1204. (A) The Director shall promulgate rules and regulations which shall require each insurer licensed to write property or casualty insurance in the State and each syndicate doing business on the Illinois Insurance Exchange to record and report its loss and expense experience and other data as may be necessary to assess the relationship of insurance premiums and related income as compared to insurance costs and expenses. The Director may designate one or more rate service organizations or advisory organizations to gather and compile such experience and data. The Director shall require each insurer licensed to write property or casualty insurance in this State and each syndicate doing business on the Illinois Insurance Exchange to submit a report, on a form furnished by the Director, showing its direct writings in this State and companywide.

(B) Such report required by subsection (A) of this Section may include, but not be limited to, the following specific types of insurance written by such insurer:

(1) Political subdivision liability insurance reported separately in the following categories:

(a) municipalities;

(b) school districts;

(c) other political subdivisions;

(2) Public official liability insurance;

(3) Dram shop liability insurance;

(4) Child Day care center liability insurance;

(5) Labor, fraternal or religious organizations liability insurance;

(6) Errors and omissions liability insurance;

(7) Officers and directors liability insurance reported separately as follows:

(a) non-profit entities;

(b) for-profit entities;

(8) Products liability insurance;

(9) Medical malpractice insurance;

(10) Attorney malpractice insurance;

(11) Architects and engineers malpractice insurance; and

(12) Motor vehicle insurance reported separately for commercial and private passenger vehicles as follows:

(a) motor vehicle physical damage insurance;

(b) motor vehicle liability insurance.

(C) Such report may include, but need not be limited to the following data, both specific to this State and companywide, in the aggregate or by type of insurance for the previous year on a calendar year basis:

(1) Direct premiums written;

(2) Direct premiums earned;

(3) Number of policies;

(4) Net investment income, using appropriate estimates where necessary;

(5) Losses paid;

(6) Losses incurred;

(7) Loss reserves:

(a) Losses unpaid on reported claims;

(b) Losses unpaid on incurred but not reported claims;

(8) Number of claims:

(a) Paid claims;

(b) Arising claims;

(9) Loss adjustment expenses:

(a) Allocated loss adjustment expenses;

(b) Unallocated loss adjustment expenses;

(10) Net underwriting gain or loss;

(11) Net operation gain or loss, including net investment income;

(12) Any other information requested by the Director.

(C-3) Additional information by an advisory organization as defined in Section 463 of this Code.

(1) An advisory organization as defined in Section 463 of this Code shall report annually the following information in such format as may be prescribed by the Secretary:

(a) paid and incurred losses for each of the past 10 years;

(b) medical payments and medical charges, if collected, for each of the past 10 years;

(c) the following indemnity payment information: cumulative payments by accident year by calendar year of development. This array will show payments made and frequency of claims in the following categories: medical only, permanent partial disability (PPD), permanent total disability (PTD), temporary total disability (TTD), and fatalities;

(d) injuries by frequency and severity;

(e) by class of employee.

(2) The report filed with the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation under paragraph (1) of this subsection (C-3) shall be made available, on an aggregate basis, to the General Assembly and to the general public. The identity of the petitioner, the respondent, the attorneys, and the insurers shall not be disclosed.

(3) Reports required under this subsection (C-3) shall be filed with the Secretary no later than September 1 in 2006 and no later than September 1 of each year thereafter.

(D) In addition to the information which may be requested under subsection (C), the Director may also request on a companywide, aggregate basis, Federal Income Tax recoverable, net realized capital gain or loss, net unrealized capital gain or loss, and all other expenses not requested in subsection (C) above.

(E) Violations - Suspensions - Revocations.

(1) Any company or person subject to this Article, who willfully or repeatedly fails to observe or who otherwise violates any of the provisions of this Article or any rule or regulation promulgated by the Director under authority of this Article or any final order of the Director entered under the authority of this Article shall by civil penalty forfeit to the State of Illinois a sum not to exceed $2,000. Each day during which a violation occurs constitutes a separate offense.

(2) No forfeiture liability under paragraph (1) of this subsection may attach unless a written notice of apparent liability has been issued by the Director and received by the respondent, or the Director sends written notice of apparent liability by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the last known address of the respondent. Any respondent so notified must be granted an opportunity to request a hearing within 10 days from receipt of notice, or to show in writing, why he should not be held liable. A notice issued under this Section must set forth the date, facts and nature of the act or omission with which the respondent is charged and must specifically identify the particular provision of this Article, rule, regulation or order of which a violation is charged.

(3) No forfeiture liability under paragraph (1) of this subsection may attach for any violation occurring more than 2 years prior to the date of issuance of the notice of apparent liability and in no event may the total civil penalty forfeiture imposed for the acts or omissions set forth in any one notice of apparent liability exceed $100,000.

(4) All administrative hearings conducted pursuant to this Article are subject to 50 Ill. Adm. Code 2402 and all administrative hearings are subject to the Administrative Review Law.

(5) The civil penalty forfeitures provided for in this Section are payable to the General Revenue Fund of the State of Illinois, and may be recovered in a civil suit in the name of the State of Illinois brought in the Circuit Court in Sangamon County or in the Circuit Court of the county where the respondent is domiciled or has its principal operating office.

(6) In any case where the Director issues a notice of apparent liability looking toward the imposition of a civil penalty forfeiture under this Section that fact may not be used in any other proceeding before the Director to the prejudice of the respondent to whom the notice was issued, unless (a) the civil penalty forfeiture has been paid, or (b) a court has ordered payment of the civil penalty forfeiture and that order has become final.

(7) When any person or company has a license or certificate of authority under this Code and knowingly fails or refuses to comply with a lawful order of the Director requiring compliance with this Article, entered after notice and hearing, within the period of time specified in the order, the Director may, in addition to any other penalty or authority provided, revoke or refuse to renew the license or certificate of authority of such person or company, or may suspend the license or certificate of authority of such person or company until compliance with such order has been obtained.

(8) When any person or company has a license or certificate of authority under this Code and knowingly fails or refuses to comply with any provisions of this Article, the Director may, after notice and hearing, in addition to any other penalty provided, revoke or refuse to renew the license or certificate of authority of such person or company, or may suspend the license or certificate of authority of such person or company, until compliance with such provision of this Article has been obtained.

(9) No suspension or revocation under this Section may become effective until 5 days from the date that the notice of suspension or revocation has been personally delivered or delivered by registered or certified mail to the company or person. A suspension or revocation under this Section is stayed upon the filing, by the company or person, of a petition for judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 94-277, eff. 7-20-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(215 ILCS 5/1630)

Sec. 1630. Definitions. As used in this Article:

"Aggregator site" means a website that provides access to information regarding insurance products from more than one insurer, including product and insurer information, for use in comparison shopping.

"Blanket travel insurance" means a policy of travel insurance issued to any eligible group providing coverage for specific classes of persons defined in the policy with coverage provided to all members of the eligible group without a separate charge to individual members of the eligible group.

"Cancellation fee waiver" means a contractual agreement between a supplier of travel services and its customer to waive some or all of the nonrefundable cancellation fee provisions of the supplier's underlying travel contract with or without regard to the reason for the cancellation or form of reimbursement. A "cancellation fee waiver" is not insurance.

"Eligible group", solely for the purposes of travel insurance, means 2 or more persons who are engaged in a common enterprise, or have an economic, educational, or social affinity or relationship, including, but not limited to, any of the following:

(1) any entity engaged in the business of providing travel or travel services, including, but not limited to: tour operators, lodging providers, vacation property owners, hotels and resorts, travel clubs, travel agencies, property managers, cultural exchange programs, and common carriers or the operator, owner, or lessor of a means of transportation of passengers, including, but not limited to, airlines, cruise lines, railroads, steamship companies, and public bus carriers, wherein with regard to any particular travel or type of travel or travelers, all members or customers of the group must have a common exposure to risk attendant to such travel;

(2) any college, school, or other institution of learning covering students, teachers, employees, or volunteers;

(3) any employer covering any group of employees, volunteers, contractors, board of directors, dependents, or guests;

(4) any sports team, camp, or sponsor of any sports team or camp covering participants, members, campers, employees, officials, supervisors, or volunteers;

(5) any religious, charitable, recreational, educational, or civic organization, or branch of an organization covering any group of members, participants, or volunteers;

(6) any financial institution or financial institution vendor, or parent holding company, trustee, or agent of or designated by one or more financial institutions or financial institution vendors, including account holders, credit card holders, debtors, guarantors, or purchasers;

(7) any incorporated or unincorporated association, including labor unions, having a common interest, constitution and bylaws, and organized and maintained in good faith for purposes other than obtaining insurance for members or participants of such association covering its members;

(8) any trust or the trustees of a fund established, created, or maintained for the benefit of and covering members, employees or customers, subject to the Director's permitting the use of a trust and the State's premium tax provisions, of one or more associations meeting the requirements of paragraph (7) of this definition;

(9) any entertainment production company covering any group of participants, volunteers, audience members, contestants, or workers;

(10) any volunteer fire department, ambulance, rescue, police, court, or any first aid, civil defense, or other such volunteer group;

(11) preschools, child day care institutions for children or adults, and senior citizen clubs;

(12) any automobile or truck rental or leasing company covering a group of individuals who may become renters, lessees, or passengers defined by their travel status on the rented or leased vehicles. The common carrier, the operator, owner or lessor of a means of transportation, or the automobile or truck rental or leasing company, is the policyholder under a policy to which this Section applies; or

(13) any other group where the Director has determined that the members are engaged in a common enterprise, or have an economic, educational, or social affinity or relationship, and that issuance of the policy would not be contrary to the public interest.

"Fulfillment materials" means documentation sent to the purchaser of a travel protection plan confirming the purchase and providing the travel protection plan's coverage and assistance details.

"Group travel insurance" means travel insurance issued to any eligible group.

"Limited lines travel insurance producer" means one of the following:

(1) a licensed managing general agent or third-party administrator;

(2) a licensed insurance producer, including a limited lines producer; or

(3) a travel administrator.

"Offering and disseminating" means the following:

(1) Providing information to a prospective or current policyholder on behalf of a limited lines travel insurance entity, including brochures, buyer guides, descriptions of coverage, and price.

(2) Referring specific questions regarding coverage features and benefits from a prospective or current policyholder to a limited lines travel insurance entity.

(3) Disseminating and processing applications for coverage, coverage selection forms, or other similar forms in response to a request from a prospective or current policyholder.

(4) Collecting premiums from a prospective or current policyholder on behalf of a limited lines travel insurance entity.

(5) Receiving and recording information from a policyholder to share with a limited lines travel insurance entity.

"Primary policyholder" means an individual person who elects and purchases individual travel insurance.

"Travel administrator" means a person who directly or indirectly underwrites, collects charges, collateral, or premiums from, or adjusts or settles claims on residents of this State in connection with travel insurance, except that a person shall not be considered a travel administrator if that person's only actions that would otherwise cause the person to be considered a travel administrator are among the following:

(1) a person working for a travel administrator to the extent that the person's activities are subject to the supervision and control of the travel administrator;

(2) an insurance producer selling insurance or engaged in administrative and claims-related activities within the scope of the producer's license;

(3) a travel retailer offering and disseminating travel insurance and registered under the license of a limited lines travel insurance producer in accordance with Section 1635;

(4) an individual adjusting or settling claims in the normal course of that individual's practice or employment as an attorney-at-law and who does not collect charges or premiums in connection with insurance coverage; or

(5) a business entity that is affiliated with a licensed insurer while acting as a travel administrator for the direct and assumed insurance business of an affiliated insurer.

"Travel assistance services" means noninsurance services for which the consumer is not indemnified based on a fortuitous event, and where providing the service does not result in transfer or shifting of risk that would constitute the business of insurance. "Travel assistance services" include, but are not limited to: security advisories; destination information; vaccination and immunization information services; travel reservation services; entertainment; activity and event planning; translation assistance; emergency messaging; international legal and medical referrals; medical case monitoring; coordination of transportation arrangements; emergency cash transfer assistance; medical prescription replacement assistance; passport and travel document replacement assistance; lost luggage assistance; concierge services; and any other service that is furnished in connection with planned travel. "Travel assistance services" are not insurance and are not related to insurance.

"Travel insurance" means insurance coverage for personal risks incident to planned travel, including, but not limited to:

(1) the interruption or cancellation of a trip or event;

(2) the loss of baggage or personal effects;

(3) damages to accommodations or rental vehicles;

(4) sickness, accident, disability, or death occurring during travel;

(5) emergency evacuation;

(6) repatriation of remains; or

(7) any other contractual obligations to indemnify or pay a specified amount to the traveler upon determinable contingencies related to travel as approved by the Director.

"Travel insurance" does not include major medical plans that provide comprehensive medical protection for travelers with trips lasting 6 months or longer, including those working overseas as expatriates or as military personnel on deployment.

"Travel insurance business entity" means a licensed insurance producer designated by an insurer as set forth in subsection (h) of Section 1635.

"Travel protection plans" means plans that provide one or more of the following: travel insurance, travel assistance services, and cancellation fee waivers.

"Travel retailer" means a business organization that makes, arranges, or offers travel services and, with respect to travel insurance, is limited to offering and disseminating as defined in this Section, unless otherwise licensed under subsection (b) of Section 1635.

(Source: P.A. 102-212, eff. 10-28-21.)

Section 175. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Section 8-103B as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/8-103B)

Sec. 8-103B. Energy efficiency and demand-response measures.

(a) It is the policy of the State that electric utilities are required to use cost-effective energy efficiency and demand-response measures to reduce delivery load. Requiring investment in cost-effective energy efficiency and demand-response measures will reduce direct and indirect costs to consumers by decreasing environmental impacts and by avoiding or delaying the need for new generation, transmission, and distribution infrastructure. It serves the public interest to allow electric utilities to recover costs for reasonably and prudently incurred expenditures for energy efficiency and demand-response measures. As used in this Section, "cost-effective" means that the measures satisfy the total resource cost test. The low-income measures described in subsection (c) of this Section shall not be required to meet the total resource cost test. For purposes of this Section, the terms "energy-efficiency", "demand-response", "electric utility", and "total resource cost test" have the meanings set forth in the Illinois Power Agency Act. "Black, indigenous, and people of color" and "BIPOC" means people who are members of the groups described in subparagraphs (a) through (e) of paragraph (A) of subsection (1) of Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(a-5) This Section applies to electric utilities serving more than 500,000 retail customers in the State for those multi-year plans commencing after December 31, 2017.

(b) For purposes of this Section, electric utilities subject to this Section that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State shall be deemed to have achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings of 6.6% from energy efficiency measures and programs implemented during the period beginning January 1, 2012 and ending December 31, 2017, which percent is based on the deemed average weather normalized sales of electric power and energy during calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016 of 88,000,000 MWhs. For the purposes of this subsection (b) and subsection (b-5), the 88,000,000 MWhs of deemed electric power and energy sales shall be reduced by the number of MWhs equal to the sum of the annual consumption of customers that have opted out of subsections (a) through (j) of this Section under paragraph (1) of subsection (l) of this Section, as averaged across the calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016. After 2017, the deemed value of cumulative persisting annual savings from energy efficiency measures and programs implemented during the period beginning January 1, 2012 and ending December 31, 2017, shall be reduced each year, as follows, and the applicable value shall be applied to and count toward the utility's achievement of the cumulative persisting annual savings goals set forth in subsection (b-5):

(1) 5.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2018;

(2) 5.2% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2019;

(3) 4.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2020;

(4) 4.0% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2021;

(5) 3.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2022;

(6) 3.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2023;

(7) 2.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2024;

(8) 2.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2025;

(9) 2.3% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2026;

(10) 2.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2027;

(11) 1.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2028;

(12) 1.7% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2029;

(13) 1.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2030;

(14) 1.3% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2031;

(15) 1.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2032;

(16) 0.9% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2033;

(17) 0.7% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2034;

(18) 0.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2035;

(19) 0.4% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2036;

(20) 0.3% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2037;

(21) 0.2% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2038;

(22) 0.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2039; and

(23) 0.0% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2040 and all subsequent years.

For purposes of this Section, "cumulative persisting annual savings" means the total electric energy savings in a given year from measures installed in that year or in previous years, but no earlier than January 1, 2012, that are still operational and providing savings in that year because the measures have not yet reached the end of their useful lives.

(b-5) Beginning in 2018, electric utilities subject to this Section that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State shall achieve the following cumulative persisting annual savings goals, as modified by subsection (f) of this Section and as compared to the deemed baseline of 88,000,000 MWhs of electric power and energy sales set forth in subsection (b), as reduced by the number of MWhs equal to the sum of the annual consumption of customers that have opted out of subsections (a) through (j) of this Section under paragraph (1) of subsection (l) of this Section as averaged across the calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016, through the implementation of energy efficiency measures during the applicable year and in prior years, but no earlier than January 1, 2012:

(1) 7.8% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2018;

(2) 9.1% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2019;

(3) 10.4% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2020;

(4) 11.8% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2021;

(5) 13.1% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2022;

(6) 14.4% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2023;

(7) 15.7% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2024;

(8) 17% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2025;

(9) 17.9% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2026;

(10) 18.8% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2027;

(11) 19.7% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2028;

(12) 20.6% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2029; and

(13) 21.5% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2030.

No later than December 31, 2021, the Illinois Commerce Commission shall establish additional cumulative persisting annual savings goals for the years 2031 through 2035. No later than December 31, 2024, the Illinois Commerce Commission shall establish additional cumulative persisting annual savings goals for the years 2036 through 2040. The Commission shall also establish additional cumulative persisting annual savings goals every 5 years thereafter to ensure that utilities always have goals that extend at least 11 years into the future. The cumulative persisting annual savings goals beyond the year 2030 shall increase by 0.9 percentage points per year, absent a Commission decision to initiate a proceeding to consider establishing goals that increase by more or less than that amount. Such a proceeding must be conducted in accordance with the procedures described in subsection (f) of this Section. If such a proceeding is initiated, the cumulative persisting annual savings goals established by the Commission through that proceeding shall reflect the Commission's best estimate of the maximum amount of additional savings that are forecast to be cost-effectively achievable unless such best estimates would result in goals that represent less than 0.5 percentage point annual increases in total cumulative persisting annual savings. The Commission may only establish goals that represent less than 0.5 percentage point annual increases in cumulative persisting annual savings if it can demonstrate, based on clear and convincing evidence and through independent analysis, that 0.5 percentage point increases are not cost-effectively achievable. The Commission shall inform its decision based on an energy efficiency potential study that conforms to the requirements of this Section.

(b-10) For purposes of this Section, electric utilities subject to this Section that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State shall be deemed to have achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings of 6.6% from energy efficiency measures and programs implemented during the period beginning January 1, 2012 and ending December 31, 2017, which is based on the deemed average weather normalized sales of electric power and energy during calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016 of 36,900,000 MWhs. For the purposes of this subsection (b-10) and subsection (b-15), the 36,900,000 MWhs of deemed electric power and energy sales shall be reduced by the number of MWhs equal to the sum of the annual consumption of customers that have opted out of subsections (a) through (j) of this Section under paragraph (1) of subsection (l) of this Section, as averaged across the calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016. After 2017, the deemed value of cumulative persisting annual savings from energy efficiency measures and programs implemented during the period beginning January 1, 2012 and ending December 31, 2017, shall be reduced each year, as follows, and the applicable value shall be applied to and count toward the utility's achievement of the cumulative persisting annual savings goals set forth in subsection (b-15):

(1) 5.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2018;

(2) 5.2% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2019;

(3) 4.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2020;

(4) 4.0% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2021;

(5) 3.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2022;

(6) 3.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2023;

(7) 2.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2024;

(8) 2.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2025;

(9) 2.3% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2026;

(10) 2.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2027;

(11) 1.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2028;

(12) 1.7% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2029;

(13) 1.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2030;

(14) 1.3% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2031;

(15) 1.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2032;

(16) 0.9% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2033;

(17) 0.7% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2034;

(18) 0.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2035;

(19) 0.4% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2036;

(20) 0.3% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2037;

(21) 0.2% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2038;

(22) 0.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2039; and

(23) 0.0% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2040 and all subsequent years.

(b-15) Beginning in 2018, electric utilities subject to this Section that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State shall achieve the following cumulative persisting annual savings goals, as modified by subsection (b-20) and subsection (f) of this Section and as compared to the deemed baseline as reduced by the number of MWhs equal to the sum of the annual consumption of customers that have opted out of subsections (a) through (j) of this Section under paragraph (1) of subsection (l) of this Section as averaged across the calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016, through the implementation of energy efficiency measures during the applicable year and in prior years, but no earlier than January 1, 2012:

(1) 7.4% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2018;

(2) 8.2% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2019;

(3) 9.0% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2020;

(4) 9.8% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2021;

(5) 10.6% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2022;

(6) 11.4% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2023;

(7) 12.2% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2024;

(8) 13% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2025;

(9) 13.6% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2026;

(10) 14.2% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2027;

(11) 14.8% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2028;

(12) 15.4% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2029; and

(13) 16% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2030.

No later than December 31, 2021, the Illinois Commerce Commission shall establish additional cumulative persisting annual savings goals for the years 2031 through 2035. No later than December 31, 2024, the Illinois Commerce Commission shall establish additional cumulative persisting annual savings goals for the years 2036 through 2040. The Commission shall also establish additional cumulative persisting annual savings goals every 5 years thereafter to ensure that utilities always have goals that extend at least 11 years into the future. The cumulative persisting annual savings goals beyond the year 2030 shall increase by 0.6 percentage points per year, absent a Commission decision to initiate a proceeding to consider establishing goals that increase by more or less than that amount. Such a proceeding must be conducted in accordance with the procedures described in subsection (f) of this Section. If such a proceeding is initiated, the cumulative persisting annual savings goals established by the Commission through that proceeding shall reflect the Commission's best estimate of the maximum amount of additional savings that are forecast to be cost-effectively achievable unless such best estimates would result in goals that represent less than 0.4 percentage point annual increases in total cumulative persisting annual savings. The Commission may only establish goals that represent less than 0.4 percentage point annual increases in cumulative persisting annual savings if it can demonstrate, based on clear and convincing evidence and through independent analysis, that 0.4 percentage point increases are not cost-effectively achievable. The Commission shall inform its decision based on an energy efficiency potential study that conforms to the requirements of this Section.

(b-20) Each electric utility subject to this Section may include cost-effective voltage optimization measures in its plans submitted under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, and the costs incurred by a utility to implement the measures under a Commission-approved plan shall be recovered under the provisions of Article IX or Section 16-108.5 of this Act. For purposes of this Section, the measure life of voltage optimization measures shall be 15 years. The measure life period is independent of the depreciation rate of the voltage optimization assets deployed. Utilities may claim savings from voltage optimization on circuits for more than 15 years if they can demonstrate that they have made additional investments necessary to enable voltage optimization savings to continue beyond 15 years. Such demonstrations must be subject to the review of independent evaluation.

Within 270 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906), an electric utility that serves less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State shall file a plan with the Commission that identifies the cost-effective voltage optimization investment the electric utility plans to undertake through December 31, 2024. The Commission, after notice and hearing, shall approve or approve with modification the plan within 120 days after the plan's filing and, in the order approving or approving with modification the plan, the Commission shall adjust the applicable cumulative persisting annual savings goals set forth in subsection (b-15) to reflect any amount of cost-effective energy savings approved by the Commission that is greater than or less than the following cumulative persisting annual savings values attributable to voltage optimization for the applicable year:

(1) 0.0% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2018;

(2) 0.17% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2019;

(3) 0.17% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2020;

(4) 0.33% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2021;

(5) 0.5% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2022;

(6) 0.67% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2023;

(7) 0.83% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2024; and

(8) 1.0% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2025 and all subsequent years.

(b-25) In the event an electric utility jointly offers an energy efficiency measure or program with a gas utility under plans approved under this Section and Section 8-104 of this Act, the electric utility may continue offering the program, including the gas energy efficiency measures, in the event the gas utility discontinues funding the program. In that event, the energy savings value associated with such other fuels shall be converted to electric energy savings on an equivalent Btu basis for the premises. However, the electric utility shall prioritize programs for low-income residential customers to the extent practicable. An electric utility may recover the costs of offering the gas energy efficiency measures under this subsection (b-25).

For those energy efficiency measures or programs that save both electricity and other fuels but are not jointly offered with a gas utility under plans approved under this Section and Section 8-104 or not offered with an affiliated gas utility under paragraph (6) of subsection (f) of Section 8-104 of this Act, the electric utility may count savings of fuels other than electricity toward the achievement of its annual savings goal, and the energy savings value associated with such other fuels shall be converted to electric energy savings on an equivalent Btu basis at the premises.

In no event shall more than 10% of each year's applicable annual total savings requirement as defined in paragraph (7.5) of subsection (g) of this Section be met through savings of fuels other than electricity.

(b-27) Beginning in 2022, an electric utility may offer and promote measures that electrify space heating, water heating, cooling, drying, cooking, industrial processes, and other building and industrial end uses that would otherwise be served by combustion of fossil fuel at the premises, provided that the electrification measures reduce total energy consumption at the premises. The electric utility may count the reduction in energy consumption at the premises toward achievement of its annual savings goals. The reduction in energy consumption at the premises shall be calculated as the difference between: (A) the reduction in Btu consumption of fossil fuels as a result of electrification, converted to kilowatt-hour equivalents by dividing by 3,412 Btus Btu's per kilowatt hour; and (B) the increase in kilowatt hours of electricity consumption resulting from the displacement of fossil fuel consumption as a result of electrification. An electric utility may recover the costs of offering and promoting electrification measures under this subsection (b-27).

In no event shall electrification savings counted toward each year's applicable annual total savings requirement, as defined in paragraph (7.5) of subsection (g) of this Section, be greater than:

(1) 5% per year for each year from 2022 through 2025;

(2) 10% per year for each year from 2026 through 2029; and

(3) 15% per year for 2030 and all subsequent years. In addition, a minimum of 25% of all electrification savings counted toward a utility's applicable annual total savings requirement must be from electrification of end uses in low-income housing. The limitations on electrification savings that may be counted toward a utility's annual savings goals are separate from and in addition to the subsection (b-25) limitations governing the counting of the other fuel savings resulting from efficiency measures and programs.

As part of the annual informational filing to the Commission that is required under paragraph (9) of subsection (g) of this Section, each utility shall identify the specific electrification measures offered under this subsection subjection (b-27); the quantity of each electrification measure that was installed by its customers; the average total cost, average utility cost, average reduction in fossil fuel consumption, and average increase in electricity consumption associated with each electrification measure; the portion of installations of each electrification measure that were in low-income single-family housing, low-income multifamily housing, non-low-income single-family housing, non-low-income multifamily housing, commercial buildings, and industrial facilities; and the quantity of savings associated with each measure category in each customer category that are being counted toward the utility's applicable annual total savings requirement. Prior to installing an electrification measure, the utility shall provide a customer with an estimate of the impact of the new measure on the customer's average monthly electric bill and total annual energy expenses.

(c) Electric utilities shall be responsible for overseeing the design, development, and filing of energy efficiency plans with the Commission and may, as part of that implementation, outsource various aspects of program development and implementation. A minimum of 10%, for electric utilities that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State, and a minimum of 7%, for electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State, of the utility's entire portfolio funding level for a given year shall be used to procure cost-effective energy efficiency measures from units of local government, municipal corporations, school districts, public housing, and community college districts, provided that a minimum percentage of available funds shall be used to procure energy efficiency from public housing, which percentage shall be equal to public housing's share of public building energy consumption.

The utilities shall also implement energy efficiency measures targeted at low-income households, which, for purposes of this Section, shall be defined as households at or below 80% of area median income, and expenditures to implement the measures shall be no less than $40,000,000 per year for electric utilities that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State and no less than $13,000,000 per year for electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State. The ratio of spending on efficiency programs targeted at low-income multifamily buildings to spending on efficiency programs targeted at low-income single-family buildings shall be designed to achieve levels of savings from each building type that are approximately proportional to the magnitude of cost-effective lifetime savings potential in each building type. Investment in low-income whole-building weatherization programs shall constitute a minimum of 80% of a utility's total budget specifically dedicated to serving low-income customers.

The utilities shall work to bundle low-income energy efficiency offerings with other programs that serve low-income households to maximize the benefits going to these households. The utilities shall market and implement low-income energy efficiency programs in coordination with low-income assistance programs, the Illinois Solar for All Program, and weatherization whenever practicable. The program implementer shall walk the customer through the enrollment process for any programs for which the customer is eligible. The utilities shall also pilot targeting customers with high arrearages, high energy intensity (ratio of energy usage divided by home or unit square footage), or energy assistance programs with energy efficiency offerings, and then track reduction in arrearages as a result of the targeting. This targeting and bundling of low-income energy programs shall be offered to both low-income single-family and multifamily customers (owners and residents).

The utilities shall invest in health and safety measures appropriate and necessary for comprehensively weatherizing a home or multifamily building, and shall implement a health and safety fund of at least 15% of the total income-qualified weatherization budget that shall be used for the purpose of making grants for technical assistance, construction, reconstruction, improvement, or repair of buildings to facilitate their participation in the energy efficiency programs targeted at low-income single-family and multifamily households. These funds may also be used for the purpose of making grants for technical assistance, construction, reconstruction, improvement, or repair of the following buildings to facilitate their participation in the energy efficiency programs created by this Section: (1) buildings that are owned or operated by registered 501(c)(3) public charities; and (2) child day care centers, child day care homes, or group child day care homes, as defined under 89 Ill. Adm. Code Part 406, 407, or 408, respectively.

Each electric utility shall assess opportunities to implement cost-effective energy efficiency measures and programs through a public housing authority or authorities located in its service territory. If such opportunities are identified, the utility shall propose such measures and programs to address the opportunities. Expenditures to address such opportunities shall be credited toward the minimum procurement and expenditure requirements set forth in this subsection (c).

Implementation of energy efficiency measures and programs targeted at low-income households should be contracted, when it is practicable, to independent third parties that have demonstrated capabilities to serve such households, with a preference for not-for-profit entities and government agencies that have existing relationships with or experience serving low-income communities in the State.

Each electric utility shall develop and implement reporting procedures that address and assist in determining the amount of energy savings that can be applied to the low-income procurement and expenditure requirements set forth in this subsection (c). Each electric utility shall also track the types and quantities or volumes of insulation and air sealing materials, and their associated energy saving benefits, installed in energy efficiency programs targeted at low-income single-family and multifamily households.

The electric utilities shall participate in a low-income energy efficiency accountability committee ("the committee"), which will directly inform the design, implementation, and evaluation of the low-income and public-housing energy efficiency programs. The committee shall be comprised of the electric utilities subject to the requirements of this Section, the gas utilities subject to the requirements of Section 8-104 of this Act, the utilities' low-income energy efficiency implementation contractors, nonprofit organizations, community action agencies, advocacy groups, State and local governmental agencies, public-housing organizations, and representatives of community-based organizations, especially those living in or working with environmental justice communities and BIPOC communities. The committee shall be composed of 2 geographically differentiated subcommittees: one for stakeholders in northern Illinois and one for stakeholders in central and southern Illinois. The subcommittees shall meet together at least twice per year.

There shall be one statewide leadership committee led by and composed of community-based organizations that are representative of BIPOC and environmental justice communities and that includes equitable representation from BIPOC communities. The leadership committee shall be composed of an equal number of representatives from the 2 subcommittees. The subcommittees shall address specific programs and issues, with the leadership committee convening targeted workgroups as needed. The leadership committee may elect to work with an independent facilitator to solicit and organize feedback, recommendations and meeting participation from a wide variety of community-based stakeholders. If a facilitator is used, they shall be fair and responsive to the needs of all stakeholders involved in the committee.

All committee meetings must be accessible, with rotating locations if meetings are held in-person, virtual participation options, and materials and agendas circulated in advance.

There shall also be opportunities for direct input by committee members outside of committee meetings, such as via individual meetings, surveys, emails and calls, to ensure robust participation by stakeholders with limited capacity and ability to attend committee meetings. Committee meetings shall emphasize opportunities to bundle and coordinate delivery of low-income energy efficiency with other programs that serve low-income communities, such as the Illinois Solar for All Program and bill payment assistance programs. Meetings shall include educational opportunities for stakeholders to learn more about these additional offerings, and the committee shall assist in figuring out the best methods for coordinated delivery and implementation of offerings when serving low-income communities. The committee shall directly and equitably influence and inform utility low-income and public-housing energy efficiency programs and priorities. Participating utilities shall implement recommendations from the committee whenever possible.

Participating utilities shall track and report how input from the committee has led to new approaches and changes in their energy efficiency portfolios. This reporting shall occur at committee meetings and in quarterly energy efficiency reports to the Stakeholder Advisory Group and Illinois Commerce Commission, and other relevant reporting mechanisms. Participating utilities shall also report on relevant equity data and metrics requested by the committee, such as energy burden data, geographic, racial, and other relevant demographic data on where programs are being delivered and what populations programs are serving.

The Illinois Commerce Commission shall oversee and have relevant staff participate in the committee. The committee shall have a budget of 0.25% of each utility's entire efficiency portfolio funding for a given year. The budget shall be overseen by the Commission. The budget shall be used to provide grants for community-based organizations serving on the leadership committee, stipends for community-based organizations participating in the committee, grants for community-based organizations to do energy efficiency outreach and education, and relevant meeting needs as determined by the leadership committee. The education and outreach shall include, but is not limited to, basic energy efficiency education, information about low-income energy efficiency programs, and information on the committee's purpose, structure, and activities.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a utility providing approved energy efficiency measures and, if applicable, demand-response measures in the State shall be permitted to recover all reasonable and prudently incurred costs of those measures from all retail customers, except as provided in subsection (l) of this Section, as follows, provided that nothing in this subsection (d) permits the double recovery of such costs from customers:

(1) The utility may recover its costs through an automatic adjustment clause tariff filed with and approved by the Commission. The tariff shall be established outside the context of a general rate case. Each year the Commission shall initiate a review to reconcile any amounts collected with the actual costs and to determine the required adjustment to the annual tariff factor to match annual expenditures. To enable the financing of the incremental capital expenditures, including regulatory assets, for electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State, the utility's actual year-end capital structure that includes a common equity ratio, excluding goodwill, of up to and including 50% of the total capital structure shall be deemed reasonable and used to set rates.

(2) A utility may recover its costs through an energy efficiency formula rate approved by the Commission under a filing under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, which shall specify the cost components that form the basis of the rate charged to customers with sufficient specificity to operate in a standardized manner and be updated annually with transparent information that reflects the utility's actual costs to be recovered during the applicable rate year, which is the period beginning with the first billing day of January and extending through the last billing day of the following December. The energy efficiency formula rate shall be implemented through a tariff filed with the Commission under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section that is consistent with the provisions of this paragraph (2) and that shall be applicable to all delivery services customers. The Commission shall conduct an investigation of the tariff in a manner consistent with the provisions of this paragraph (2), subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, and the provisions of Article IX of this Act to the extent they do not conflict with this paragraph (2). The energy efficiency formula rate approved by the Commission shall remain in effect at the discretion of the utility and shall do the following:

(A) Provide for the recovery of the utility's actual costs incurred under this Section that are prudently incurred and reasonable in amount consistent with Commission practice and law. The sole fact that a cost differs from that incurred in a prior calendar year or that an investment is different from that made in a prior calendar year shall not imply the imprudence or unreasonableness of that cost or investment.

(B) Reflect the utility's actual year-end capital structure for the applicable calendar year, excluding goodwill, subject to a determination of prudence and reasonableness consistent with Commission practice and law. To enable the financing of the incremental capital expenditures, including regulatory assets, for electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State, a participating electric utility's actual year-end capital structure that includes a common equity ratio, excluding goodwill, of up to and including 50% of the total capital structure shall be deemed reasonable and used to set rates.

(C) Include a cost of equity, which shall be calculated as the sum of the following:

(i) the average for the applicable calendar year of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication; and

(ii) 580 basis points.

At such time as the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System ceases to include the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication, the monthly average yields of the U.S. Treasury bonds then having the longest duration published by the Board of Governors in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication shall instead be used for purposes of this paragraph (2).

(D) Permit and set forth protocols, subject to a determination of prudence and reasonableness consistent with Commission practice and law, for the following:

(i) recovery of incentive compensation expense that is based on the achievement of operational metrics, including metrics related to budget controls, outage duration and frequency, safety, customer service, efficiency and productivity, and environmental compliance; however, this protocol shall not apply if such expense related to costs incurred under this Section is recovered under Article IX or Section 16-108.5 of this Act; incentive compensation expense that is based on net income or an affiliate's earnings per share shall not be recoverable under the energy efficiency formula rate;

(ii) recovery of pension and other post-employment benefits expense, provided that such costs are supported by an actuarial study; however, this protocol shall not apply if such expense related to costs incurred under this Section is recovered under Article IX or Section 16-108.5 of this Act;

(iii) recovery of existing regulatory assets over the periods previously authorized by the Commission;

(iv) as described in subsection (e), amortization of costs incurred under this Section; and

(v) projected, weather normalized billing determinants for the applicable rate year.

(E) Provide for an annual reconciliation, as described in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), less any deferred taxes related to the reconciliation, with interest at an annual rate of return equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital, including a revenue conversion factor calculated to recover or refund all additional income taxes that may be payable or receivable as a result of that return, of the energy efficiency revenue requirement reflected in rates for each calendar year, beginning with the calendar year in which the utility files its energy efficiency formula rate tariff under this paragraph (2), with what the revenue requirement would have been had the actual cost information for the applicable calendar year been available at the filing date.

The utility shall file, together with its tariff, the projected costs to be incurred by the utility during the rate year under the utility's multi-year plan approved under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, including, but not limited to, the projected capital investment costs and projected regulatory asset balances with correspondingly updated depreciation and amortization reserves and expense, that shall populate the energy efficiency formula rate and set the initial rates under the formula.

The Commission shall review the proposed tariff in conjunction with its review of a proposed multi-year plan, as specified in paragraph (5) of subsection (g) of this Section. The review shall be based on the same evidentiary standards, including, but not limited to, those concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred by the utility, the Commission applies in a hearing to review a filing for a general increase in rates under Article IX of this Act. The initial rates shall take effect beginning with the January monthly billing period following the Commission's approval.

The tariff's rate design and cost allocation across customer classes shall be consistent with the utility's automatic adjustment clause tariff in effect on June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906); however, the Commission may revise the tariff's rate design and cost allocation in subsequent proceedings under paragraph (3) of this subsection (d).

If the energy efficiency formula rate is terminated, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as the energy efficiency costs are incorporated into new rates that are set under this subsection (d) or Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive rate adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs.

(3) The provisions of this paragraph (3) shall only apply to an electric utility that has elected to file an energy efficiency formula rate under paragraph (2) of this subsection (d). Subsequent to the Commission's issuance of an order approving the utility's energy efficiency formula rate structure and protocols, and initial rates under paragraph (2) of this subsection (d), the utility shall file, on or before June 1 of each year, with the Chief Clerk of the Commission its updated cost inputs to the energy efficiency formula rate for the applicable rate year and the corresponding new charges, as well as the information described in paragraph (9) of subsection (g) of this Section. Each such filing shall conform to the following requirements and include the following information:

(A) The inputs to the energy efficiency formula rate for the applicable rate year shall be based on the projected costs to be incurred by the utility during the rate year under the utility's multi-year plan approved under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, including, but not limited to, projected capital investment costs and projected regulatory asset balances with correspondingly updated depreciation and amortization reserves and expense. The filing shall also include a reconciliation of the energy efficiency revenue requirement that was in effect for the prior rate year (as set by the cost inputs for the prior rate year) with the actual revenue requirement for the prior rate year (determined using a year-end rate base) that uses amounts reflected in the applicable FERC Form 1 that reports the actual costs for the prior rate year. Any over-collection or under-collection indicated by such reconciliation shall be reflected as a credit against, or recovered as an additional charge to, respectively, with interest calculated at a rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital approved by the Commission for the prior rate year, the charges for the applicable rate year. Such over-collection or under-collection shall be adjusted to remove any deferred taxes related to the reconciliation, for purposes of calculating interest at an annual rate of return equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital approved by the Commission for the prior rate year, including a revenue conversion factor calculated to recover or refund all additional income taxes that may be payable or receivable as a result of that return. Each reconciliation shall be certified by the participating utility in the same manner that FERC Form 1 is certified. The filing shall also include the charge or credit, if any, resulting from the calculation required by subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (d).

Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the intent of the reconciliation is to ultimately reconcile both the revenue requirement reflected in rates for each calendar year, beginning with the calendar year in which the utility files its energy efficiency formula rate tariff under paragraph (2) of this subsection (d), with what the revenue requirement determined using a year-end rate base for the applicable calendar year would have been had the actual cost information for the applicable calendar year been available at the filing date.

For purposes of this Section, "FERC Form 1" means the Annual Report of Major Electric Utilities, Licensees and Others that electric utilities are required to file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission under the Federal Power Act, Sections 3, 4(a), 304 and 209, modified as necessary to be consistent with 83 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code Part 415 as of May 1, 2011. Nothing in this Section is intended to allow costs that are not otherwise recoverable to be recoverable by virtue of inclusion in FERC Form 1.

(B) The new charges shall take effect beginning on the first billing day of the following January billing period and remain in effect through the last billing day of the next December billing period regardless of whether the Commission enters upon a hearing under this paragraph (3).

(C) The filing shall include relevant and necessary data and documentation for the applicable rate year. Normalization adjustments shall not be required.

Within 45 days after the utility files its annual update of cost inputs to the energy efficiency formula rate, the Commission shall with reasonable notice, initiate a proceeding concerning whether the projected costs to be incurred by the utility and recovered during the applicable rate year, and that are reflected in the inputs to the energy efficiency formula rate, are consistent with the utility's approved multi-year plan under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section and whether the costs incurred by the utility during the prior rate year were prudent and reasonable. The Commission shall also have the authority to investigate the information and data described in paragraph (9) of subsection (g) of this Section, including the proposed adjustment to the utility's return on equity component of its weighted average cost of capital. During the course of the proceeding, each objection shall be stated with particularity and evidence provided in support thereof, after which the utility shall have the opportunity to rebut the evidence. Discovery shall be allowed consistent with the Commission's Rules of Practice, which Rules of Practice shall be enforced by the Commission or the assigned administrative law judge. The Commission shall apply the same evidentiary standards, including, but not limited to, those concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred by the utility, during the proceeding as it would apply in a proceeding to review a filing for a general increase in rates under Article IX of this Act. The Commission shall not, however, have the authority in a proceeding under this paragraph (3) to consider or order any changes to the structure or protocols of the energy efficiency formula rate approved under paragraph (2) of this subsection (d). In a proceeding under this paragraph (3), the Commission shall enter its order no later than the earlier of 195 days after the utility's filing of its annual update of cost inputs to the energy efficiency formula rate or December 15. The utility's proposed return on equity calculation, as described in paragraphs (7) through (9) of subsection (g) of this Section, shall be deemed the final, approved calculation on December 15 of the year in which it is filed unless the Commission enters an order on or before December 15, after notice and hearing, that modifies such calculation consistent with this Section. The Commission's determinations of the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred, and determination of such return on equity calculation, for the applicable calendar year shall be final upon entry of the Commission's order and shall not be subject to reopening, reexamination, or collateral attack in any other Commission proceeding, case, docket, order, rule, or regulation; however, nothing in this paragraph (3) shall prohibit a party from petitioning the Commission to rehear or appeal to the courts the order under the provisions of this Act.

(e) Beginning on June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906), a utility subject to the requirements of this Section may elect to defer, as a regulatory asset, up to the full amount of its expenditures incurred under this Section for each annual period, including, but not limited to, any expenditures incurred above the funding level set by subsection (f) of this Section for a given year. The total expenditures deferred as a regulatory asset in a given year shall be amortized and recovered over a period that is equal to the weighted average of the energy efficiency measure lives implemented for that year that are reflected in the regulatory asset. The unamortized balance shall be recognized as of December 31 for a given year. The utility shall also earn a return on the total of the unamortized balances of all of the energy efficiency regulatory assets, less any deferred taxes related to those unamortized balances, at an annual rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital that includes, based on a year-end capital structure, the utility's actual cost of debt for the applicable calendar year and a cost of equity, which shall be calculated as the sum of the (i) the average for the applicable calendar year of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication; and (ii) 580 basis points, including a revenue conversion factor calculated to recover or refund all additional income taxes that may be payable or receivable as a result of that return. Capital investment costs shall be depreciated and recovered over their useful lives consistent with generally accepted accounting principles. The weighted average cost of capital shall be applied to the capital investment cost balance, less any accumulated depreciation and accumulated deferred income taxes, as of December 31 for a given year.

When an electric utility creates a regulatory asset under the provisions of this Section, the costs are recovered over a period during which customers also receive a benefit which is in the public interest. Accordingly, it is the intent of the General Assembly that an electric utility that elects to create a regulatory asset under the provisions of this Section shall recover all of the associated costs as set forth in this Section. After the Commission has approved the prudence and reasonableness of the costs that comprise the regulatory asset, the electric utility shall be permitted to recover all such costs, and the value and recoverability through rates of the associated regulatory asset shall not be limited, altered, impaired, or reduced.

(f) Beginning in 2017, each electric utility shall file an energy efficiency plan with the Commission to meet the energy efficiency standards for the next applicable multi-year period beginning January 1 of the year following the filing, according to the schedule set forth in paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (f). If a utility does not file such a plan on or before the applicable filing deadline for the plan, it shall face a penalty of $100,000 per day until the plan is filed.

(1) No later than 30 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906), each electric utility shall file a 4-year energy efficiency plan commencing on January 1, 2018 that is designed to achieve the cumulative persisting annual savings goals specified in paragraphs (1) through (4) of subsection (b-5) of this Section or in paragraphs (1) through (4) of subsection (b-15) of this Section, as applicable, through implementation of energy efficiency measures; however, the goals may be reduced if the utility's expenditures are limited pursuant to subsection (m) of this Section or, for a utility that serves less than 3,000,000 retail customers, if each of the following conditions are met: (A) the plan's analysis and forecasts of the utility's ability to acquire energy savings demonstrate that achievement of such goals is not cost effective; and (B) the amount of energy savings achieved by the utility as determined by the independent evaluator for the most recent year for which savings have been evaluated preceding the plan filing was less than the average annual amount of savings required to achieve the goals for the applicable 4-year plan period. Except as provided in subsection (m) of this Section, annual increases in cumulative persisting annual savings goals during the applicable 4-year plan period shall not be reduced to amounts that are less than the maximum amount of cumulative persisting annual savings that is forecast to be cost-effectively achievable during the 4-year plan period. The Commission shall review any proposed goal reduction as part of its review and approval of the utility's proposed plan.

(2) No later than March 1, 2021, each electric utility shall file a 4-year energy efficiency plan commencing on January 1, 2022 that is designed to achieve the cumulative persisting annual savings goals specified in paragraphs (5) through (8) of subsection (b-5) of this Section or in paragraphs (5) through (8) of subsection (b-15) of this Section, as applicable, through implementation of energy efficiency measures; however, the goals may be reduced if either (1) clear and convincing evidence demonstrates, through independent analysis, that the expenditure limits in subsection (m) of this Section preclude full achievement of the goals or (2) each of the following conditions are met: (A) the plan's analysis and forecasts of the utility's ability to acquire energy savings demonstrate by clear and convincing evidence and through independent analysis that achievement of such goals is not cost effective; and (B) the amount of energy savings achieved by the utility as determined by the independent evaluator for the most recent year for which savings have been evaluated preceding the plan filing was less than the average annual amount of savings required to achieve the goals for the applicable 4-year plan period. If there is not clear and convincing evidence that achieving the savings goals specified in paragraph (b-5) or (b-15) of this Section is possible both cost-effectively and within the expenditure limits in subsection (m), such savings goals shall not be reduced. Except as provided in subsection (m) of this Section, annual increases in cumulative persisting annual savings goals during the applicable 4-year plan period shall not be reduced to amounts that are less than the maximum amount of cumulative persisting annual savings that is forecast to be cost-effectively achievable during the 4-year plan period. The Commission shall review any proposed goal reduction as part of its review and approval of the utility's proposed plan.

(3) No later than March 1, 2025, each electric utility shall file a 4-year energy efficiency plan commencing on January 1, 2026 that is designed to achieve the cumulative persisting annual savings goals specified in paragraphs (9) through (12) of subsection (b-5) of this Section or in paragraphs (9) through (12) of subsection (b-15) of this Section, as applicable, through implementation of energy efficiency measures; however, the goals may be reduced if either (1) clear and convincing evidence demonstrates, through independent analysis, that the expenditure limits in subsection (m) of this Section preclude full achievement of the goals or (2) each of the following conditions are met: (A) the plan's analysis and forecasts of the utility's ability to acquire energy savings demonstrate by clear and convincing evidence and through independent analysis that achievement of such goals is not cost effective; and (B) the amount of energy savings achieved by the utility as determined by the independent evaluator for the most recent year for which savings have been evaluated preceding the plan filing was less than the average annual amount of savings required to achieve the goals for the applicable 4-year plan period. If there is not clear and convincing evidence that achieving the savings goals specified in paragraphs (b-5) or (b-15) of this Section is possible both cost-effectively and within the expenditure limits in subsection (m), such savings goals shall not be reduced. Except as provided in subsection (m) of this Section, annual increases in cumulative persisting annual savings goals during the applicable 4-year plan period shall not be reduced to amounts that are less than the maximum amount of cumulative persisting annual savings that is forecast to be cost-effectively achievable during the 4-year plan period. The Commission shall review any proposed goal reduction as part of its review and approval of the utility's proposed plan.

(4) No later than March 1, 2029, and every 4 years thereafter, each electric utility shall file a 4-year energy efficiency plan commencing on January 1, 2030, and every 4 years thereafter, respectively, that is designed to achieve the cumulative persisting annual savings goals established by the Illinois Commerce Commission pursuant to direction of subsections (b-5) and (b-15) of this Section, as applicable, through implementation of energy efficiency measures; however, the goals may be reduced if either (1) clear and convincing evidence and independent analysis demonstrates that the expenditure limits in subsection (m) of this Section preclude full achievement of the goals or (2) each of the following conditions are met: (A) the plan's analysis and forecasts of the utility's ability to acquire energy savings demonstrate by clear and convincing evidence and through independent analysis that achievement of such goals is not cost-effective; and (B) the amount of energy savings achieved by the utility as determined by the independent evaluator for the most recent year for which savings have been evaluated preceding the plan filing was less than the average annual amount of savings required to achieve the goals for the applicable 4-year plan period. If there is not clear and convincing evidence that achieving the savings goals specified in paragraphs (b-5) or (b-15) of this Section is possible both cost-effectively and within the expenditure limits in subsection (m), such savings goals shall not be reduced. Except as provided in subsection (m) of this Section, annual increases in cumulative persisting annual savings goals during the applicable 4-year plan period shall not be reduced to amounts that are less than the maximum amount of cumulative persisting annual savings that is forecast to be cost-effectively achievable during the 4-year plan period. The Commission shall review any proposed goal reduction as part of its review and approval of the utility's proposed plan.

Each utility's plan shall set forth the utility's proposals to meet the energy efficiency standards identified in subsection (b-5) or (b-15), as applicable and as such standards may have been modified under this subsection (f), taking into account the unique circumstances of the utility's service territory. For those plans commencing on January 1, 2018, the Commission shall seek public comment on the utility's plan and shall issue an order approving or disapproving each plan no later than 105 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906). For those plans commencing after December 31, 2021, the Commission shall seek public comment on the utility's plan and shall issue an order approving or disapproving each plan within 6 months after its submission. If the Commission disapproves a plan, the Commission shall, within 30 days, describe in detail the reasons for the disapproval and describe a path by which the utility may file a revised draft of the plan to address the Commission's concerns satisfactorily. If the utility does not refile with the Commission within 60 days, the utility shall be subject to penalties at a rate of $100,000 per day until the plan is filed. This process shall continue, and penalties shall accrue, until the utility has successfully filed a portfolio of energy efficiency and demand-response measures. Penalties shall be deposited into the Energy Efficiency Trust Fund.

(g) In submitting proposed plans and funding levels under subsection (f) of this Section to meet the savings goals identified in subsection (b-5) or (b-15) of this Section, as applicable, the utility shall:

(1) Demonstrate that its proposed energy efficiency measures will achieve the applicable requirements that are identified in subsection (b-5) or (b-15) of this Section, as modified by subsection (f) of this Section.

(2) (Blank).

(2.5) Demonstrate consideration of program options for (A) advancing new building codes, appliance standards, and municipal regulations governing existing and new building efficiency improvements and (B) supporting efforts to improve compliance with new building codes, appliance standards and municipal regulations, as potentially cost-effective means of acquiring energy savings to count toward savings goals.

(3) Demonstrate that its overall portfolio of measures, not including low-income programs described in subsection (c) of this Section, is cost-effective using the total resource cost test or complies with paragraphs (1) through (3) of subsection (f) of this Section and represents a diverse cross-section of opportunities for customers of all rate classes, other than those customers described in subsection (l) of this Section, to participate in the programs. Individual measures need not be cost effective.

(3.5) Demonstrate that the utility's plan integrates the delivery of energy efficiency programs with natural gas efficiency programs, programs promoting distributed solar, programs promoting demand response and other efforts to address bill payment issues, including, but not limited to, LIHEAP and the Percentage of Income Payment Plan, to the extent such integration is practical and has the potential to enhance customer engagement, minimize market confusion, or reduce administrative costs.

(4) Present a third-party energy efficiency implementation program subject to the following requirements:

(A) beginning with the year commencing January 1, 2019, electric utilities that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State shall fund third-party energy efficiency programs in an amount that is no less than $25,000,000 per year, and electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State shall fund third-party energy efficiency programs in an amount that is no less than $8,350,000 per year;

(B) during 2018, the utility shall conduct a solicitation process for purposes of requesting proposals from third-party vendors for those third-party energy efficiency programs to be offered during one or more of the years commencing January 1, 2019, January 1, 2020, and January 1, 2021; for those multi-year plans commencing on January 1, 2022 and January 1, 2026, the utility shall conduct a solicitation process during 2021 and 2025, respectively, for purposes of requesting proposals from third-party vendors for those third-party energy efficiency programs to be offered during one or more years of the respective multi-year plan period; for each solicitation process, the utility shall identify the sector, technology, or geographical area for which it is seeking requests for proposals; the solicitation process must be either for programs that fill gaps in the utility's program portfolio and for programs that target low-income customers, business sectors, building types, geographies, or other specific parts of its customer base with initiatives that would be more effective at reaching these customer segments than the utilities' programs filed in its energy efficiency plans;

(C) the utility shall propose the bidder qualifications, performance measurement process, and contract structure, which must include a performance payment mechanism and general terms and conditions; the proposed qualifications, process, and structure shall be subject to Commission approval; and

(D) the utility shall retain an independent third party to score the proposals received through the solicitation process described in this paragraph (4), rank them according to their cost per lifetime kilowatt-hours saved, and assemble the portfolio of third-party programs.

The electric utility shall recover all costs associated with Commission-approved, third-party administered programs regardless of the success of those programs.

(4.5) Implement cost-effective demand-response measures to reduce peak demand by 0.1% over the prior year for eligible retail customers, as defined in Section 16-111.5 of this Act, and for customers that elect hourly service from the utility pursuant to Section 16-107 of this Act, provided those customers have not been declared competitive. This requirement continues until December 31, 2026.

(5) Include a proposed or revised cost-recovery tariff mechanism, as provided for under subsection (d) of this Section, to fund the proposed energy efficiency and demand-response measures and to ensure the recovery of the prudently and reasonably incurred costs of Commission-approved programs.

(6) Provide for an annual independent evaluation of the performance of the cost-effectiveness of the utility's portfolio of measures, as well as a full review of the multi-year plan results of the broader net program impacts and, to the extent practical, for adjustment of the measures on a going-forward basis as a result of the evaluations. The resources dedicated to evaluation shall not exceed 3% of portfolio resources in any given year.

(7) For electric utilities that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State:

(A) Through December 31, 2025, provide for an adjustment to the return on equity component of the utility's weighted average cost of capital calculated under subsection (d) of this Section:

(i) If the independent evaluator determines that the utility achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings that is less than the applicable annual incremental goal, then the return on equity component shall be reduced by a maximum of 200 basis points in the event that the utility achieved no more than 75% of such goal. If the utility achieved more than 75% of the applicable annual incremental goal but less than 100% of such goal, then the return on equity component shall be reduced by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility failed to achieve the goal.

(ii) If the independent evaluator determines that the utility achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings that is more than the applicable annual incremental goal, then the return on equity component shall be increased by a maximum of 200 basis points in the event that the utility achieved at least 125% of such goal. If the utility achieved more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal but less than 125% of such goal, then the return on equity component shall be increased by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility achieved above the goal. If the applicable annual incremental goal was reduced under paragraph paragraphs (1) or (2) of subsection (f) of this Section, then the following adjustments shall be made to the calculations described in this item (ii):

(aa) the calculation for determining achievement that is at least 125% of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the unreduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value; and

(bb) the calculation for determining achievement that is less than 125% but more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the reduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value for 100% achievement of the goal and shall use the unreduced goal to set the value for 125% achievement. The 8 basis point value shall also be modified, as necessary, so that the 200 basis points are evenly apportioned among each percentage point value between 100% and 125% achievement.

(B) For the period January 1, 2026 through December 31, 2029 and in all subsequent 4-year periods, provide for an adjustment to the return on equity component of the utility's weighted average cost of capital calculated under subsection (d) of this Section:

(i) If the independent evaluator determines that the utility achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings that is less than the applicable annual incremental goal, then the return on equity component shall be reduced by a maximum of 200 basis points in the event that the utility achieved no more than 66% of such goal. If the utility achieved more than 66% of the applicable annual incremental goal but less than 100% of such goal, then the return on equity component shall be reduced by 6 basis points for each percent by which the utility failed to achieve the goal.

(ii) If the independent evaluator determines that the utility achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings that is more than the applicable annual incremental goal, then the return on equity component shall be increased by a maximum of 200 basis points in the event that the utility achieved at least 134% of such goal. If the utility achieved more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal but less than 134% of such goal, then the return on equity component shall be increased by 6 basis points for each percent by which the utility achieved above the goal. If the applicable annual incremental goal was reduced under paragraph (3) of subsection (f) of this Section, then the following adjustments shall be made to the calculations described in this item (ii):

(aa) the calculation for determining achievement that is at least 134% of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the unreduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value; and

(bb) the calculation for determining achievement that is less than 134% but more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the reduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value for 100% achievement of the goal and shall use the unreduced goal to set the value for 134% achievement. The 6 basis point value shall also be modified, as necessary, so that the 200 basis points are evenly apportioned among each percentage point value between 100% and 134% achievement.

(C) Notwithstanding the provisions of subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph (7), if the applicable annual incremental goal for an electric utility is ever less than 0.6% of deemed average weather normalized sales of electric power and energy during calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016, an adjustment to the return on equity component of the utility's weighted average cost of capital calculated under subsection (d) of this Section shall be made as follows:

(i) If the independent evaluator determines that the utility achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings that is less than would have been achieved had the applicable annual incremental goal been achieved, then the return on equity component shall be reduced by a maximum of 200 basis points if the utility achieved no more than 75% of its applicable annual total savings requirement as defined in paragraph (7.5) of this subsection. If the utility achieved more than 75% of the applicable annual total savings requirement but less than 100% of such goal, then the return on equity component shall be reduced by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility failed to achieve the goal.

(ii) If the independent evaluator determines that the utility achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings that is more than would have been achieved had the applicable annual incremental goal been achieved, then the return on equity component shall be increased by a maximum of 200 basis points if the utility achieved at least 125% of its applicable annual total savings requirement. If the utility achieved more than 100% of the applicable annual total savings requirement but less than 125% of such goal, then the return on equity component shall be increased by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility achieved above the applicable annual total savings requirement. If the applicable annual incremental goal was reduced under paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (f) of this Section, then the following adjustments shall be made to the calculations described in this item (ii):

(aa) the calculation for determining achievement that is at least 125% of the applicable annual total savings requirement shall use the unreduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value; and

(bb) the calculation for determining achievement that is less than 125% but more than 100% of the applicable annual total savings requirement shall use the reduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value for 100% achievement of the goal and shall use the unreduced goal to set the value for 125% achievement. The 8 basis point value shall also be modified, as necessary, so that the 200 basis points are evenly apportioned among each percentage point value between 100% and 125% achievement.

(7.5) For purposes of this Section, the term "applicable annual incremental goal" means the difference between the cumulative persisting annual savings goal for the calendar year that is the subject of the independent evaluator's determination and the cumulative persisting annual savings goal for the immediately preceding calendar year, as such goals are defined in subsections (b-5) and (b-15) of this Section and as these goals may have been modified as provided for under subsection (b-20) and paragraphs (1) through (3) of subsection (f) of this Section. Under subsections (b), (b-5), (b-10), and (b-15) of this Section, a utility must first replace energy savings from measures that have expired before any progress towards achievement of its applicable annual incremental goal may be counted. Savings may expire because measures installed in previous years have reached the end of their lives, because measures installed in previous years are producing lower savings in the current year than in the previous year, or for other reasons identified by independent evaluators. Notwithstanding anything else set forth in this Section, the difference between the actual annual incremental savings achieved in any given year, including the replacement of energy savings that have expired, and the applicable annual incremental goal shall not affect adjustments to the return on equity for subsequent calendar years under this subsection (g).

In this Section, "applicable annual total savings requirement" means the total amount of new annual savings that the utility must achieve in any given year to achieve the applicable annual incremental goal. This is equal to the applicable annual incremental goal plus the total new annual savings that are required to replace savings that expired in or at the end of the previous year.

(8) For electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State:

(A) Through December 31, 2025, the applicable annual incremental goal shall be compared to the annual incremental savings as determined by the independent evaluator.

(i) The return on equity component shall be reduced by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility did not achieve 84.4% of the applicable annual incremental goal.

(ii) The return on equity component shall be increased by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility exceeded 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal.

(iii) The return on equity component shall not be increased or decreased if the annual incremental savings as determined by the independent evaluator is greater than 84.4% of the applicable annual incremental goal and less than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal.

(iv) The return on equity component shall not be increased or decreased by an amount greater than 200 basis points pursuant to this subparagraph (A).

(B) For the period of January 1, 2026 through December 31, 2029 and in all subsequent 4-year periods, the applicable annual incremental goal shall be compared to the annual incremental savings as determined by the independent evaluator.

(i) The return on equity component shall be reduced by 6 basis points for each percent by which the utility did not achieve 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal.

(ii) The return on equity component shall be increased by 6 basis points for each percent by which the utility exceeded 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal.

(iii) The return on equity component shall not be increased or decreased by an amount greater than 200 basis points pursuant to this subparagraph (B).

(C) Notwithstanding provisions in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (7) of this subsection, if the applicable annual incremental goal for an electric utility is ever less than 0.6% of deemed average weather normalized sales of electric power and energy during calendar years 2014, 2015 and 2016, an adjustment to the return on equity component of the utility's weighted average cost of capital calculated under subsection (d) of this Section shall be made as follows:

(i) The return on equity component shall be reduced by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility did not achieve 100% of the applicable annual total savings requirement.

(ii) The return on equity component shall be increased by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility exceeded 100% of the applicable annual total savings requirement.

(iii) The return on equity component shall not be increased or decreased by an amount greater than 200 basis points pursuant to this subparagraph (C).

(D) If the applicable annual incremental goal was reduced under paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (4) of subsection (f) of this Section, then the following adjustments shall be made to the calculations described in subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of this paragraph (8):

(i) The calculation for determining achievement that is at least 125% or 134%, as applicable, of the applicable annual incremental goal or the applicable annual total savings requirement, as applicable, shall use the unreduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value.

(ii) For the period through December 31, 2025, the calculation for determining achievement that is less than 125% but more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal or the applicable annual total savings requirement, as applicable, shall use the reduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value for 100% achievement of the goal and shall use the unreduced goal to set the value for 125% achievement. The 8 basis point value shall also be modified, as necessary, so that the 200 basis points are evenly apportioned among each percentage point value between 100% and 125% achievement.

(iii) For the period of January 1, 2026 through December 31, 2029 and all subsequent 4-year periods, the calculation for determining achievement that is less than 125% or 134%, as applicable, but more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal or the applicable annual total savings requirement, as applicable, shall use the reduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value for 100% achievement of the goal and shall use the unreduced goal to set the value for 125% achievement. The 6 basis-point value or 8 basis-point value, as applicable, shall also be modified, as necessary, so that the 200 basis points are evenly apportioned among each percentage point value between 100% and 125% or between 100% and 134% achievement, as applicable.

(9) The utility shall submit the energy savings data to the independent evaluator no later than 30 days after the close of the plan year. The independent evaluator shall determine the cumulative persisting annual savings for a given plan year, as well as an estimate of job impacts and other macroeconomic impacts of the efficiency programs for that year, no later than 120 days after the close of the plan year. The utility shall submit an informational filing to the Commission no later than 160 days after the close of the plan year that attaches the independent evaluator's final report identifying the cumulative persisting annual savings for the year and calculates, under paragraph (7) or (8) of this subsection (g), as applicable, any resulting change to the utility's return on equity component of the weighted average cost of capital applicable to the next plan year beginning with the January monthly billing period and extending through the December monthly billing period. However, if the utility recovers the costs incurred under this Section under paragraphs (2) and (3) of subsection (d) of this Section, then the utility shall not be required to submit such informational filing, and shall instead submit the information that would otherwise be included in the informational filing as part of its filing under paragraph (3) of such subsection (d) that is due on or before June 1 of each year.

For those utilities that must submit the informational filing, the Commission may, on its own motion or by petition, initiate an investigation of such filing, provided, however, that the utility's proposed return on equity calculation shall be deemed the final, approved calculation on December 15 of the year in which it is filed unless the Commission enters an order on or before December 15, after notice and hearing, that modifies such calculation consistent with this Section.

The adjustments to the return on equity component described in paragraphs (7) and (8) of this subsection (g) shall be applied as described in such paragraphs through a separate tariff mechanism, which shall be filed by the utility under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section.

(9.5) The utility must demonstrate how it will ensure that program implementation contractors and energy efficiency installation vendors will promote workforce equity and quality jobs.

(9.6) Utilities shall collect data necessary to ensure compliance with paragraph (9.5) no less than quarterly and shall communicate progress toward compliance with paragraph (9.5) to program implementation contractors and energy efficiency installation vendors no less than quarterly. Utilities shall work with relevant vendors, providing education, training, and other resources needed to ensure compliance and, where necessary, adjusting or terminating work with vendors that cannot assist with compliance.

(10) Utilities required to implement efficiency programs under subsections (b-5) and (b-10) shall report annually to the Illinois Commerce Commission and the General Assembly on how hiring, contracting, job training, and other practices related to its energy efficiency programs enhance the diversity of vendors working on such programs. These reports must include data on vendor and employee diversity, including data on the implementation of paragraphs (9.5) and (9.6). If the utility is not meeting the requirements of paragraphs (9.5) and (9.6), the utility shall submit a plan to adjust their activities so that they meet the requirements of paragraphs (9.5) and (9.6) within the following year.

(h) No more than 4% of energy efficiency and demand-response program revenue may be allocated for research, development, or pilot deployment of new equipment or measures. Electric utilities shall work with interested stakeholders to formulate a plan for how these funds should be spent, incorporate statewide approaches for these allocations, and file a 4-year plan that demonstrates that collaboration. If a utility files a request for modified annual energy savings goals with the Commission, then a utility shall forgo spending portfolio dollars on research and development proposals.

(i) When practicable, electric utilities shall incorporate advanced metering infrastructure data into the planning, implementation, and evaluation of energy efficiency measures and programs, subject to the data privacy and confidentiality protections of applicable law.

(j) The independent evaluator shall follow the guidelines and use the savings set forth in Commission-approved energy efficiency policy manuals and technical reference manuals, as each may be updated from time to time. Until such time as measure life values for energy efficiency measures implemented for low-income households under subsection (c) of this Section are incorporated into such Commission-approved manuals, the low-income measures shall have the same measure life values that are established for same measures implemented in households that are not low-income households.

(k) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, an electric utility subject to the requirements of this Section may file a tariff cancelling an automatic adjustment clause tariff in effect under this Section or Section 8-103, which shall take effect no later than one business day after the date such tariff is filed. Thereafter, the utility shall be authorized to defer and recover its expenditures incurred under this Section through a new tariff authorized under subsection (d) of this Section or in the utility's next rate case under Article IX or Section 16-108.5 of this Act, with interest at an annual rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital as approved by the Commission in such case. If the utility elects to file a new tariff under subsection (d) of this Section, the utility may file the tariff within 10 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906), and the cost inputs to such tariff shall be based on the projected costs to be incurred by the utility during the calendar year in which the new tariff is filed and that were not recovered under the tariff that was cancelled as provided for in this subsection. Such costs shall include those incurred or to be incurred by the utility under its multi-year plan approved under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, including, but not limited to, projected capital investment costs and projected regulatory asset balances with correspondingly updated depreciation and amortization reserves and expense. The Commission shall, after notice and hearing, approve, or approve with modification, such tariff and cost inputs no later than 75 days after the utility filed the tariff, provided that such approval, or approval with modification, shall be consistent with the provisions of this Section to the extent they do not conflict with this subsection (k). The tariff approved by the Commission shall take effect no later than 5 days after the Commission enters its order approving the tariff.

No later than 60 days after the effective date of the tariff cancelling the utility's automatic adjustment clause tariff, the utility shall file a reconciliation that reconciles the moneys collected under its automatic adjustment clause tariff with the costs incurred during the period beginning June 1, 2016 and ending on the date that the electric utility's automatic adjustment clause tariff was cancelled. In the event the reconciliation reflects an under-collection, the utility shall recover the costs as specified in this subsection (k). If the reconciliation reflects an over-collection, the utility shall apply the amount of such over-collection as a one-time credit to retail customers' bills.

(l) For the calendar years covered by a multi-year plan commencing after December 31, 2017, subsections (a) through (j) of this Section do not apply to eligible large private energy customers that have chosen to opt out of multi-year plans consistent with this subsection (1).

(1) For purposes of this subsection (l), "eligible large private energy customer" means any retail customers, except for federal, State, municipal, and other public customers, of an electric utility that serves more than 3,000,000 retail customers, except for federal, State, municipal and other public customers, in the State and whose total highest 30 minute demand was more than 10,000 kilowatts, or any retail customers of an electric utility that serves less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State and whose total highest 15 minute demand was more than 10,000 kilowatts. For purposes of this subsection (l), "retail customer" has the meaning set forth in Section 16-102 of this Act. However, for a business entity with multiple sites located in the State, where at least one of those sites qualifies as an eligible large private energy customer, then any of that business entity's sites, properly identified on a form for notice, shall be considered eligible large private energy customers for the purposes of this subsection (l). A determination of whether this subsection is applicable to a customer shall be made for each multi-year plan beginning after December 31, 2017. The criteria for determining whether this subsection (l) is applicable to a retail customer shall be based on the 12 consecutive billing periods prior to the start of the first year of each such multi-year plan.

(2) Within 45 days after September 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Commission shall prescribe the form for notice required for opting out of energy efficiency programs. The notice must be submitted to the retail electric utility 12 months before the next energy efficiency planning cycle. However, within 120 days after the Commission's initial issuance of the form for notice, eligible large private energy customers may submit a form for notice to an electric utility. The form for notice for opting out of energy efficiency programs shall include all of the following:

(A) a statement indicating that the customer has elected to opt out;

(B) the account numbers for the customer accounts to which the opt out shall apply;

(C) the mailing address associated with the customer accounts identified under subparagraph (B);

(D) an American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE) level 2 or higher audit report conducted by an independent third-party expert identifying cost-effective energy efficiency project opportunities that could be invested in over the next 10 years. A retail customer with specialized processes may utilize a self-audit process in lieu of the ASHRAE audit;

(E) a description of the customer's plans to reallocate the funds toward internal energy efficiency efforts identified in the subparagraph (D) report, including, but not limited to: (i) strategic energy management or other programs, including descriptions of targeted buildings, equipment and operations; (ii) eligible energy efficiency measures; and (iii) expected energy savings, itemized by technology. If the subparagraph (D) audit report identifies that the customer currently utilizes the best available energy efficient technology, equipment, programs, and operations, the customer may provide a statement that more efficient technology, equipment, programs, and operations are not reasonably available as a means of satisfying this subparagraph (E); and

(F) the effective date of the opt out, which will be the next January 1 following notice of the opt out.

(3) Upon receipt of a properly and timely noticed request for opt out submitted by an eligible large private energy customer, the retail electric utility shall grant the request, file the request with the Commission and, beginning January 1 of the following year, the opted out customer shall no longer be assessed the costs of the plan and shall be prohibited from participating in that 4-year plan cycle to give the retail utility the certainty to design program plan proposals.

(4) Upon a customer's election to opt out under paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (l) and commencing on the effective date of said opt out, the account properly identified in the customer's notice under paragraph (2) shall not be subject to any cost recovery and shall not be eligible to participate in, or directly benefit from, compliance with energy efficiency cumulative persisting savings requirements under subsections (a) through (j).

(5) A utility's cumulative persisting annual savings targets will exclude any opted out load.

(6) The request to opt out is only valid for the requested plan cycle. An eligible large private energy customer must also request to opt out for future energy plan cycles, otherwise the customer will be included in the future energy plan cycle.

(m) Notwithstanding the requirements of this Section, as part of a proceeding to approve a multi-year plan under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section if the multi-year plan has been designed to maximize savings, but does not meet the cost cap limitations of this Section, the Commission shall reduce the amount of energy efficiency measures implemented for any single year, and whose costs are recovered under subsection (d) of this Section, by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average net increase due to the cost of the measures to no more than

(1) 3.5% for each of the 4 years beginning January 1, 2018,

(2) (blank),

(3) 4% for each of the 4 years beginning January 1, 2022,

(4) 4.25% for the 4 years beginning January 1, 2026, and

(5) 4.25% plus an increase sufficient to account for the rate of inflation between January 1, 2026 and January 1 of the first year of each subsequent 4-year plan cycle, of the average amount paid per kilowatthour by residential eligible retail customers during calendar year 2015. An electric utility may plan to spend up to 10% more in any year during an applicable multi-year plan period to cost-effectively achieve additional savings so long as the average over the applicable multi-year plan period does not exceed the percentages defined in items (1) through (5). To determine the total amount that may be spent by an electric utility in any single year, the applicable percentage of the average amount paid per kilowatthour shall be multiplied by the total amount of energy delivered by such electric utility in the calendar year 2015, adjusted to reflect the proportion of the utility's load attributable to customers that have opted out of subsections (a) through (j) of this Section under subsection (l) of this Section. For purposes of this subsection (m), the amount paid per kilowatthour includes, without limitation, estimated amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on taxes. For purposes of this Section, "eligible retail customers" shall have the meaning set forth in Section 16-111.5 of this Act. Once the Commission has approved a plan under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, no subsequent rate impact determinations shall be made.

(n) A utility shall take advantage of the efficiencies available through existing Illinois Home Weatherization Assistance Program infrastructure and services, such as enrollment, marketing, quality assurance and implementation, which can reduce the need for similar services at a lower cost than utility-only programs, subject to capacity constraints at community action agencies, for both single-family and multifamily weatherization services, to the extent Illinois Home Weatherization Assistance Program community action agencies provide multifamily services. A utility's plan shall demonstrate that in formulating annual weatherization budgets, it has sought input and coordination with community action agencies regarding agencies' capacity to expand and maximize Illinois Home Weatherization Assistance Program delivery using the ratepayer dollars collected under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 2-28-22.)

Section 180. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Sections 2.09, 2.11, 2.18, 2.20, 3, 4.5, 5, 5.1, 5.3, 5.5, 5.6, 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, 6, 7, 7.10, 9.1c, 9.2, and 12 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/2.09) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.09)

Sec. 2.09. "Child Day care center" means any child care facility which regularly provides child day care for less than 24 hours per day for (1) more than 8 children in a family home, or (2) more than 3 children in a facility other than a family home, including senior citizen buildings.

The term does not include:

(a) programs operated by (i) public or private elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning that serve children who shall have attained the age of 3 years or (ii) private entities on the grounds of public or private elementary or secondary schools and that serve children who have attained the age of 3 years, except that this exception applies only to the facility and not to the private entities' personnel operating the program;

(b) programs or that portion of the program which serves children who shall have attained the age of 3 years and which are recognized by the State Board of Education;

(c) educational program or programs serving children who shall have attained the age of 3 years and which are operated by a school which is registered with the State Board of Education and which is recognized or accredited by a recognized national or multistate educational organization or association which regularly recognizes or accredits schools;

(d) programs which exclusively serve or that portion of the program which serves children with disabilities who shall have attained the age of 3 years but are less than 21 years of age and which are registered and approved as meeting standards of the State Board of Education and applicable fire marshal standards;

(e) facilities operated in connection with a shopping center or service, religious services, or other similar facility, where transient children are cared for temporarily while parents or custodians of the children are occupied on the premises and readily available;

(f) any type of child day care center that is conducted on federal government premises;

(g) special activities programs, including athletics, crafts instruction, and similar activities conducted on an organized and periodic basis by civic, charitable and governmental organizations;

(h) part day child care facilities, as defined in Section 2.10 of this Act;

(i) programs or that portion of the program which:

(1) serves children who shall have attained the age of 3 years;

(2) is operated by churches or religious institutions as described in Section 501(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code;

(3) receives no governmental aid;

(4) is operated as a component of a religious, nonprofit elementary school;

(5) operates primarily to provide religious education; and

(6) meets appropriate State or local health and fire safety standards; or

(j) programs or portions of programs that:

(1) serve only school-age children and youth (defined as full-time kindergarten children, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 407.45, or older);

(2) are organized to promote childhood learning, child and youth development, educational or recreational activities, or character-building;

(3) operate primarily during out-of-school time or at times when school is not normally in session;

(4) comply with the standards of the Illinois Department of Public Health (77 Ill. Adm. Code 750) or the local health department, the Illinois State Fire Marshal (41 Ill. Adm. Code 100), and the following additional health and safety requirements: procedures for employee and volunteer emergency preparedness and practice drills; procedures to ensure that first aid kits are maintained and ready to use; the placement of a minimum level of liability insurance as determined by the Department; procedures for the availability of a working telephone that is onsite and accessible at all times; procedures to ensure that emergency phone numbers are posted onsite; and a restriction on handgun or weapon possession onsite, except if possessed by a peace officer;

(5) perform and maintain authorization and results of criminal history checks through the Illinois State Police and FBI and checks of the Illinois Sex Offender Registry, the National Sex Offender Registry, and Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System for employees and volunteers who work directly with children;

(6) make hiring decisions in accordance with the prohibitions against barrier crimes as specified in Section 4.2 of this Act or in Section 21B-80 of the School Code;

(7) provide parents with written disclosure that the operations of the program are not regulated by licensing requirements; and

(8) obtain and maintain records showing the first and last name and date of birth of the child, name, address, and telephone number of each parent, emergency contact information, and written authorization for medical care.

Programs or portions of programs requesting Child Care Assistance Program (CCAP) funding and otherwise meeting the requirements under item (j) shall request exemption from the Department and be determined exempt prior to receiving funding and must annually meet the eligibility requirements and be appropriate for payment under the CCAP.

Programs or portions of programs under item (j) that do not receive State or federal funds must comply with staff qualification and training standards established by rule by the Department of Human Services. The Department of Human Services shall set such standards after review of Afterschool for Children and Teens Now (ACT Now) evidence-based quality standards developed for school-age out-of-school time programs, feedback from the school-age out-of-school time program professionals, and review of out-of-school time professional development frameworks and quality tools.

Out-of-school time programs for school-age youth that receive State or federal funds must comply with only those staff qualifications and training standards set for the program by the State or federal entity issuing the funds.

For purposes of items (a), (b), (c), (d), and (i) of this Section, "children who shall have attained the age of 3 years" shall mean children who are 3 years of age, but less than 4 years of age, at the time of enrollment in the program.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-699, eff. 7-29-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)

(225 ILCS 10/2.11) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.11)

Sec. 2.11. "Child Day care agency" means any person, group of persons, public or private agency, association or organization which undertakes to provide one or more child day care homes with administrative services including, but not limited to, consultation, technical assistance, training, supervision, evaluation and provision of or referral to health and social services under contractual arrangement.

(Source: P.A. 83-126.)

(225 ILCS 10/2.18) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.18)

Sec. 2.18. "Child Day care homes" means family homes which receive more than 3 up to a maximum of 12 children for less than 24 hours per day. The number counted includes the family's natural or adopted children and all other persons under the age of 12. The term does not include facilities which receive only children from a single household.

(Source: P.A. 87-674.)

(225 ILCS 10/2.20) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.20)

Sec. 2.20. "Group child day care home" means a family home which receives more than 3 up to a maximum of 16 children for less than 24 hours per day. The number counted includes the family's natural or adopted children and all other persons under the age of 12.

(Source: P.A. 87-675)

(225 ILCS 10/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 2213)

Sec. 3. (a) No person, group of persons or corporation may operate or conduct any facility for child care, as defined in this Act, without a license or permit issued by the Department or without being approved by the Department as meeting the standards established for such licensing, with the exception of facilities for whom standards are established by the Department of Corrections under Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections and with the exception of facilities defined in Section 2.10 of this Act, and with the exception of programs or facilities licensed by the Department of Human Services under the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(b) No part day child care facility as described in Section 2.10 may operate without written notification to the Department or without complying with Section 7.1. Notification shall include a notarized statement by the facility that the facility complies with state or local health standards and state fire safety standards, and shall be filed with the department every 2 years.

(c) The Director of the Department shall establish policies and coordinate activities relating to child care licensing, licensing of child day care homes and child day care centers.

(d) Any facility or agency which is exempt from licensing may apply for licensing if licensing is required for some government benefit.

(e) A provider of child day care described in items (a) through (j) of Section 2.09 of this Act is exempt from licensure. The Department shall provide written verification of exemption and description of compliance with standards for the health, safety, and development of the children who receive the services upon submission by the provider of, in addition to any other documentation required by the Department, a notarized statement that the facility complies with: (1) the standards of the Department of Public Health or local health department, (2) the fire safety standards of the State Fire Marshal, and (3) if operated in a public school building, the health and safety standards of the State Board of Education.

(Source: P.A. 99-699, eff. 7-29-16; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19.)

(225 ILCS 10/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Children with disabilities; training.

(a) An owner or operator of a licensed child day care home or group child day care home or the onsite executive director of a licensed child day care center must successfully complete a basic training course in providing care to children with disabilities. The basic training course will also be made available on a voluntary basis to those providers who are exempt from the licensure requirements of this Act.

(b) The Department of Children and Family Services shall promulgate rules establishing the requirements for basic training in providing care to children with disabilities.

(Source: P.A. 92-164, eff. 1-1-02.)

(225 ILCS 10/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 2215)

Sec. 5. (a) In respect to child care institutions, maternity centers, child welfare agencies, child day care centers, child day care agencies and group homes, the Department, upon receiving application filed in proper order, shall examine the facilities and persons responsible for care of children therein.

(b) In respect to foster family and child day care homes, applications may be filed on behalf of such homes by a licensed child welfare agency, by a State agency authorized to place children in foster care or by out-of-State agencies approved by the Department to place children in this State. In respect to child day care homes, applications may be filed on behalf of such homes by a licensed child day care agency or licensed child welfare agency. In applying for license in behalf of a home in which children are placed by and remain under supervision of the applicant agency, such agency shall certify that the home and persons responsible for care of unrelated children therein, or the home and relatives, as defined in Section 2.17 of this Act, responsible for the care of related children therein, were found to be in reasonable compliance with standards prescribed by the Department for the type of care indicated.

(c) The Department shall not allow any person to examine facilities under a provision of this Act who has not passed an examination demonstrating that such person is familiar with this Act and with the appropriate standards and regulations of the Department.

(d) With the exception of child day care centers, child day care homes, and group child day care homes, licenses shall be issued in such form and manner as prescribed by the Department and are valid for 4 years from the date issued, unless revoked by the Department or voluntarily surrendered by the licensee. Licenses issued for child day care centers, child day care homes, and group child day care homes shall be valid for 3 years from the date issued, unless revoked by the Department or voluntarily surrendered by the licensee. When a licensee has made timely and sufficient application for the renewal of a license or a new license with reference to any activity of a continuing nature, the existing license shall continue in full force and effect for up to 30 days until the final agency decision on the application has been made. The Department may further extend the period in which such decision must be made in individual cases for up to 30 days, but such extensions shall be only upon good cause shown.

(e) The Department may issue one 6-month permit to a newly established facility for child care to allow that facility reasonable time to become eligible for a full license. If the facility for child care is a foster family home, or child day care home the Department may issue one 2-month permit only.

(f) The Department may issue an emergency permit to a child care facility taking in children as a result of the temporary closure for more than 2 weeks of a licensed child care facility due to a natural disaster. An emergency permit under this subsection shall be issued to a facility only if the persons providing child care services at the facility were employees of the temporarily closed child day care center at the time it was closed. No investigation of an employee of a child care facility receiving an emergency permit under this subsection shall be required if that employee has previously been investigated at another child care facility. No emergency permit issued under this subsection shall be valid for more than 90 days after the date of issuance.

(g) During the hours of operation of any licensed child care facility, authorized representatives of the Department may without notice visit the facility for the purpose of determining its continuing compliance with this Act or regulations adopted pursuant thereto.

(h) Child Day care centers, child day care homes, and group child day care homes shall be monitored at least annually by a licensing representative from the Department or the agency that recommended licensure.

(Source: P.A. 98-804, eff. 1-1-15.)

(225 ILCS 10/5.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 2215.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 5.1. (a) The Department shall ensure that no child day care center, group home or child care institution as defined in this Act shall on a regular basis transport a child or children with any motor vehicle unless such vehicle is operated by a person who complies with the following requirements:

1. is 21 years of age or older;

2. currently holds a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked or suspended for one or more traffic violations during the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

3. demonstrates physical fitness to operate vehicles by submitting the results of a medical examination conducted by a licensed physician;

4. has not been convicted of more than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles within a twelve month period;

5. has not been convicted of reckless driving or driving under the influence or manslaughter or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within the past 3 years;

6. has signed and submitted a written statement certifying that he has not, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused an accident which resulted in the death of any person within the 5 years immediately prior to the date of application.

However, such child day care centers, group homes and child care institutions may provide for transportation of a child or children for special outings, functions or purposes that are not scheduled on a regular basis without verification that drivers for such purposes meet the requirements of this Section.

(a-5) As a means of ensuring compliance with the requirements set forth in subsection (a), the Department shall implement appropriate measures to verify that every individual who is employed at a group home or child care institution meets those requirements.

For every individual employed at a group home or child care institution who regularly transports children in the course of performing his or her duties, the Department must make the verification every 2 years. Upon the Department's request, the Secretary of State shall provide the Department with the information necessary to enable the Department to make the verifications required under subsection (a).

In the case of an individual employed at a group home or child care institution who becomes subject to subsection (a) for the first time after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, the Department must make that verification with the Secretary of State before the individual operates a motor vehicle to transport a child or children under the circumstances described in subsection (a).

In the case of an individual employed at a group home or child care institution who is subject to subsection (a) on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, the Department must make that verification with the Secretary of State within 30 days after that effective date.

If the Department discovers that an individual fails to meet the requirements set forth in subsection (a), the Department shall promptly notify the appropriate group home or child care institution.

(b) Any individual who holds a valid Illinois school bus driver permit issued by the Secretary of State pursuant to The Illinois Vehicle Code, and who is currently employed by a school district or parochial school, or by a contractor with a school district or parochial school, to drive a school bus transporting children to and from school, shall be deemed in compliance with the requirements of subsection (a).

(c) The Department may, pursuant to Section 8 of this Act, revoke the license of any child day care center, group home or child care institution that fails to meet the requirements of this Section.

(d) A group home or child care institution that fails to meet the requirements of this Section is guilty of a petty offense and is subject to a fine of not more than $1,000. Each day that a group home or child care institution fails to meet the requirements of this Section is a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 94-943, eff. 1-1-07.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 5.1. (a) The Department shall ensure that no child day care center, group home or child care institution as defined in this Act shall on a regular basis transport a child or children with any motor vehicle unless such vehicle is operated by a person who complies with the following requirements:

1. is 21 years of age or older;

2. currently holds a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked or suspended for one or more traffic violations during the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

3. demonstrates physical fitness to operate vehicles by submitting the results of a medical examination conducted by a licensed physician;

4. has not been convicted of more than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles within a twelve month period;

5. has not been convicted of reckless driving or driving under the influence or manslaughter or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within the past 3 years;

6. has signed and submitted a written statement certifying that he has not, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused a crash which resulted in the death of any person within the 5 years immediately prior to the date of application.

However, such child day care centers, group homes and child care institutions may provide for transportation of a child or children for special outings, functions or purposes that are not scheduled on a regular basis without verification that drivers for such purposes meet the requirements of this Section.

(a-5) As a means of ensuring compliance with the requirements set forth in subsection (a), the Department shall implement appropriate measures to verify that every individual who is employed at a group home or child care institution meets those requirements.

For every individual employed at a group home or child care institution who regularly transports children in the course of performing his or her duties, the Department must make the verification every 2 years. Upon the Department's request, the Secretary of State shall provide the Department with the information necessary to enable the Department to make the verifications required under subsection (a).

In the case of an individual employed at a group home or child care institution who becomes subject to subsection (a) for the first time after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, the Department must make that verification with the Secretary of State before the individual operates a motor vehicle to transport a child or children under the circumstances described in subsection (a).

In the case of an individual employed at a group home or child care institution who is subject to subsection (a) on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, the Department must make that verification with the Secretary of State within 30 days after that effective date.

If the Department discovers that an individual fails to meet the requirements set forth in subsection (a), the Department shall promptly notify the appropriate group home or child care institution.

(b) Any individual who holds a valid Illinois school bus driver permit issued by the Secretary of State pursuant to The Illinois Vehicle Code, and who is currently employed by a school district or parochial school, or by a contractor with a school district or parochial school, to drive a school bus transporting children to and from school, shall be deemed in compliance with the requirements of subsection (a).

(c) The Department may, pursuant to Section 8 of this Act, revoke the license of any child day care center, group home or child care institution that fails to meet the requirements of this Section.

(d) A group home or child care institution that fails to meet the requirements of this Section is guilty of a petty offense and is subject to a fine of not more than $1,000. Each day that a group home or child care institution fails to meet the requirements of this Section is a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23.)

(225 ILCS 10/5.3)

Sec. 5.3. Lunches in child day care homes. In order to increase the affordability and availability of child day care, a child day care home licensed under this Act may allow any child it receives to bring his or her lunch for consumption instead of or in addition to the lunch provided by the child day care home.

(Source: P.A. 90-242, eff. 1-1-98.)

(225 ILCS 10/5.5)

Sec. 5.5. Smoking in child day care facilities.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares that:

(1) The U.S. government has determined that secondhand tobacco smoke is a major threat to public health for which there is no safe level of exposure.

(2) The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency recently classified secondhand tobacco smoke a Class A carcinogen, ranking it with substances such as asbestos and benzene.

(3) According to U.S. government figures, secondhand tobacco smoke is linked to the lung-cancer deaths of an estimated 3,000 nonsmokers per year.

(4) Cigarette smoke is a special risk to children, causing between 150,000 and 300,000 respiratory infections each year in children under 18 months old, and endangering between 200,000 and one million children with asthma.

(5) The health of the children of this State should not be compromised by needless exposure to secondhand tobacco smoke.

(b) It is a violation of this Act for any person to smoke tobacco in any area of a child day care center.

(c) It is a violation of this Act for any person to smoke tobacco in any area of a child day care home or group child day care home.

(d) It is a violation of this Act for any person responsible for the operation of a child day care center, child day care home, or group child day care home to knowingly allow or encourage any violation of subsection (b) or (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-343, eff. 8-11-15.)

(225 ILCS 10/5.6)

Sec. 5.6. Pesticide and lawn care product application at child day care centers.

(a) Licensed child day care centers shall abide by the requirements of Sections 10.2 and 10.3 of the Structural Pest Control Act.

(b) Notification required pursuant to Section 10.3 of the Structural Pest Control Act may not be given more than 30 days before the application of the pesticide.

(c) Each licensed child day care center, subject to the requirements of Section 10.3 of the Structural Pest Control Act, must ensure that pesticides will not be applied when children are present at the center. Toys and other items mouthed or handled by the children must be removed from the area before pesticides are applied. Children must not return to the treated area within 2 hours after a pesticide application or as specified on the pesticide label, whichever time is greater.

(d) The owners and operators of licensed child day care centers must ensure that lawn care products will not be applied to child day care center grounds when children are present at the center or on its grounds. For the purpose of this Section, "lawn care product" has the same meaning as that term is defined in the Lawn Care Products Application and Notice Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-424, eff. 8-13-09.)

(225 ILCS 10/5.8)

Sec. 5.8. Radon testing of licensed child day care centers, licensed child day care homes, and licensed group child day care homes.

(a) Effective January 1, 2013, licensed child day care centers, licensed child day care homes, and licensed group child day care homes shall have the facility tested for radon at least once every 3 years pursuant to rules established by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

(b) Effective January 1, 2014, as part of an initial application or application for renewal of a license for child day care centers, child day care homes, and group child day care homes, the Department shall require proof the facility has been tested within the last 3 years for radon pursuant to rules established by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

(c) The report of the most current radon measurement shall be posted in the facility next to the license issued by the Department. Copies of the report shall be provided to parents or guardians upon request.

(d) Included with the report referenced in subsection (c) shall be the following statement:

"Every parent or guardian is notified that this facility has performed radon measurements to ensure the health and safety of the occupants. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency (IEMA) recommends that all residential homes be tested and that corrective actions be taken at levels equal to or greater than 4.0 pCi/L. Radon is a Class A human carcinogen, the leading cause of lung cancer in non-smokers, and the second leading cause of lung cancer overall. For additional information about this facility contact the licensee and for additional information regarding radon contact the IEMA Radon Program at 800-325-1245 or on the Internet at www.radon.illinois.gov.".

(Source: P.A. 97-981, eff. 1-1-13.)

(225 ILCS 10/5.9)

Sec. 5.9. Lead testing of water in licensed child day care centers, child day care homes and group child day care homes.

(a) On or before January 1, 2018, the Department, in consultation with the Department of Public Health, shall adopt rules that prescribe the procedures and standards to be used by the Department in assessing levels of lead in water in licensed child day care centers, child day care homes, and group child day care homes constructed on or before January 1, 2000 that serve children under the age of 6. Such rules shall, at a minimum, include provisions regarding testing parameters, the notification of sampling results, training requirements for lead exposure and mitigation.

(b) After adoption of the rules required by subsection (a), and as part of an initial application or application for renewal of a license for child day care centers, child day care homes, and group child day care homes, the Department shall require proof that the applicant has complied with all such rules.

(Source: P.A. 99-922, eff. 1-17-17.)

(225 ILCS 10/5.10)

Sec. 5.10. Child care limitation on expulsions. Consistent with the purposes of this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly and the requirements therein under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 2-3.71 of the School Code, the Department, in consultation with the Governor's Office of Early Childhood Development and the State Board of Education, shall adopt rules prohibiting the use of expulsion due to a child's persistent and serious challenging behaviors in licensed child day care centers, child day care homes, and group child day care homes. The rulemaking shall address, at a minimum, requirements for licensees to establish intervention and transition policies, notify parents of policies, document intervention steps, and collect and report data on children transitioning out of the program.

(Source: P.A. 100-105, eff. 1-1-18.)

(225 ILCS 10/5.11)

Sec. 5.11. Plan for anaphylactic shock. The Department shall require each licensed child day care center, child day care home, and group child day care home to have a plan for anaphylactic shock to be followed for the prevention of anaphylaxis and during a medical emergency resulting from anaphylaxis. The plan should be based on the guidance and recommendations provided by the American Academy of Pediatrics relating to the management of food allergies or other allergies. The plan should be shared with parents or guardians upon enrollment at each licensed child day care center, child day care home, and group child day care home. If a child requires specific specialized treatment during an episode of anaphylaxis, that child's treatment plan should be kept by the staff of the child day care center, child day care home, or group child day care home and followed in the event of an emergency. Each licensed child day care center, child day care home, and group child day care home shall have at least one staff member present at all times who has taken a training course in recognizing and responding to anaphylaxis.

(Source: P.A. 102-413, eff. 8-20-21.)

(225 ILCS 10/6) (from Ch. 23, par. 2216)

Sec. 6. (a) A licensed facility operating as a "child care institution", "maternity center", "child welfare agency", "child day care agency" or "child day care center" must apply for renewal of its license held, the application to be made to the Department on forms prescribed by it.

(b) The Department, a duly licensed child welfare agency or a suitable agency or person designated by the Department as its agent to do so, must re-examine every child care facility for renewal of license, including in that process the examination of the premises and records of the facility as the Department considers necessary to determine that minimum standards for licensing continue to be met, and random surveys of parents or legal guardians who are consumers of such facilities' services to assess the quality of care at such facilities. In the case of foster family homes, or child day care homes under the supervision of or otherwise required to be licensed by the Department, or under supervision of a licensed child welfare agency or child day care agency, the examination shall be made by the Department, or agency supervising such homes. If the Department is satisfied that the facility continues to maintain minimum standards which it prescribes and publishes, it shall renew the license to operate the facility.

(b-5) In the case of a quality of care concerns applicant as defined in Section 2.22a of this Act, in addition to the examination required in subsection (b) of this Section, the Department shall not renew the license of a quality of care concerns applicant unless the Department is satisfied that the foster family home does not pose a risk to children and that the foster family home will be able to meet the physical and emotional needs of children. In making this determination, the Department must obtain and carefully review all relevant documents and shall obtain consultation from its Clinical Division as appropriate and as prescribed by Department rule and procedure. The Department has the authority to deny an application for renewal based on a record of quality of care concerns. In the alternative, the Department may (i) approve the application for renewal subject to obtaining additional information or assessments, (ii) approve the application for renewal for purposes of placing or maintaining only a particular child or children only in the foster home, or (iii) approve the application for renewal. The Department shall notify the quality of care concerns applicant of its decision and the basis for its decision in writing.

(c) If a child care facility's license, other than a license for a foster family home, is revoked, or if the Department refuses to renew a facility's license, the facility may not reapply for a license before the expiration of 12 months following the Department's action; provided, however, that the denial of a reapplication for a license pursuant to this subsection must be supported by evidence that the prior revocation renders the applicant unqualified or incapable of satisfying the standards and rules promulgated by the Department pursuant to this Act or maintaining a facility which adheres to such standards and rules.

(d) If a foster family home license (i) is revoked, (ii) is surrendered for cause, or (iii) expires or is surrendered with either certain types of involuntary placement holds in place or while a licensing or child abuse or neglect investigation is pending, or if the Department refuses to renew a foster home license, the foster home may not reapply for a license before the expiration of 5 years following the Department's action or following the expiration or surrender of the license.

(Source: P.A. 99-779, eff. 1-1-17.)

(225 ILCS 10/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 2217)

Sec. 7. (a) The Department must prescribe and publish minimum standards for licensing that apply to the various types of facilities for child care defined in this Act and that are equally applicable to like institutions under the control of the Department and to foster family homes used by and under the direct supervision of the Department. The Department shall seek the advice and assistance of persons representative of the various types of child care facilities in establishing such standards. The standards prescribed and published under this Act take effect as provided in the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, and are restricted to regulations pertaining to the following matters and to any rules and regulations required or permitted by any other Section of this Act:

(1) The operation and conduct of the facility and responsibility it assumes for child care;

(2) The character, suitability and qualifications of the applicant and other persons directly responsible for the care and welfare of children served. All child day care center licensees and employees who are required to report child abuse or neglect under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act shall be required to attend training on recognizing child abuse and neglect, as prescribed by Department rules;

(3) The general financial ability and competence of the applicant to provide necessary care for children and to maintain prescribed standards;

(4) The number of individuals or staff required to insure adequate supervision and care of the children received. The standards shall provide that each child care institution, maternity center, child day care center, group home, child day care home, and group child day care home shall have on its premises during its hours of operation at least one staff member certified in first aid, in the Heimlich maneuver and in cardiopulmonary resuscitation by the American Red Cross or other organization approved by rule of the Department. Child welfare agencies shall not be subject to such a staffing requirement. The Department may offer, or arrange for the offering, on a periodic basis in each community in this State in cooperation with the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association or other appropriate organization, voluntary programs to train operators of foster family homes and child day care homes in first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation;

(5) The appropriateness, safety, cleanliness, and general adequacy of the premises, including maintenance of adequate fire prevention and health standards conforming to State laws and municipal codes to provide for the physical comfort, care, and well-being of children received;

(6) Provisions for food, clothing, educational opportunities, program, equipment and individual supplies to assure the healthy physical, mental, and spiritual development of children served;

(7) Provisions to safeguard the legal rights of children served;

(8) Maintenance of records pertaining to the admission, progress, health, and discharge of children, including, for child day care centers and child day care homes, records indicating each child has been immunized as required by State regulations. The Department shall require proof that children enrolled in a facility have been immunized against Haemophilus Influenzae B (HIB);

(9) Filing of reports with the Department;

(10) Discipline of children;

(11) Protection and fostering of the particular religious faith of the children served;

(12) Provisions prohibiting firearms on child day care center premises except in the possession of peace officers;

(13) Provisions prohibiting handguns on child day care home premises except in the possession of peace officers or other adults who must possess a handgun as a condition of employment and who reside on the premises of a child day care home;

(14) Provisions requiring that any firearm permitted on child day care home premises, except handguns in the possession of peace officers, shall be kept in a disassembled state, without ammunition, in locked storage, inaccessible to children and that ammunition permitted on child day care home premises shall be kept in locked storage separate from that of disassembled firearms, inaccessible to children;

(15) Provisions requiring notification of parents or guardians enrolling children at a child day care home of the presence in the child day care home of any firearms and ammunition and of the arrangements for the separate, locked storage of such firearms and ammunition;

(16) Provisions requiring all licensed child care facility employees who care for newborns and infants to complete training every 3 years on the nature of sudden unexpected infant death (SUID), sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), and the safe sleep recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics; and

(17) With respect to foster family homes, provisions requiring the Department to review quality of care concerns and to consider those concerns in determining whether a foster family home is qualified to care for children.

By July 1, 2022, all licensed child day care home providers, licensed group child day care home providers, and licensed child day care center directors and classroom staff shall participate in at least one training that includes the topics of early childhood social emotional learning, infant and early childhood mental health, early childhood trauma, or adverse childhood experiences. Current licensed providers, directors, and classroom staff shall complete training by July 1, 2022 and shall participate in training that includes the above topics at least once every 3 years.

(b) If, in a facility for general child care, there are children diagnosed as mentally ill or children diagnosed as having an intellectual or physical disability, who are determined to be in need of special mental treatment or of nursing care, or both mental treatment and nursing care, the Department shall seek the advice and recommendation of the Department of Human Services, the Department of Public Health, or both Departments regarding the residential treatment and nursing care provided by the institution.

(c) The Department shall investigate any person applying to be licensed as a foster parent to determine whether there is any evidence of current drug or alcohol abuse in the prospective foster family. The Department shall not license a person as a foster parent if drug or alcohol abuse has been identified in the foster family or if a reasonable suspicion of such abuse exists, except that the Department may grant a foster parent license to an applicant identified with an alcohol or drug problem if the applicant has successfully participated in an alcohol or drug treatment program, self-help group, or other suitable activities and if the Department determines that the foster family home can provide a safe, appropriate environment and meet the physical and emotional needs of children.

(d) The Department, in applying standards prescribed and published, as herein provided, shall offer consultation through employed staff or other qualified persons to assist applicants and licensees in meeting and maintaining minimum requirements for a license and to help them otherwise to achieve programs of excellence related to the care of children served. Such consultation shall include providing information concerning education and training in early childhood development to providers of child day care home services. The Department may provide or arrange for such education and training for those providers who request such assistance.

(e) The Department shall distribute copies of licensing standards to all licensees and applicants for a license. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall distribute copies of the appropriate licensing standards and any other information required by the Department to child care facilities under its supervision. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall maintain appropriate documentation of the distribution of the standards. Such documentation shall be part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by authorized representatives of the Department.

(f) The Department shall prepare summaries of child day care licensing standards. Each licensee or holder of a permit for a child day care facility shall distribute a copy of the appropriate summary and any other information required by the Department, to the legal guardian of each child cared for in that facility at the time when the child is enrolled or initially placed in the facility. The licensee or holder of a permit for a child day care facility shall secure appropriate documentation of the distribution of the summary and brochure. Such documentation shall be a part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by an authorized representative of the Department.

(g) The Department shall distribute to each licensee and holder of a permit copies of the licensing or permit standards applicable to such person's facility. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall make available by posting at all times in a common or otherwise accessible area a complete and current set of licensing standards in order that all employees of the facility may have unrestricted access to such standards. All employees of the facility shall have reviewed the standards and any subsequent changes. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall maintain appropriate documentation of the current review of licensing standards by all employees. Such records shall be part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by authorized representatives of the Department.

(h) Any standards involving physical examinations, immunization, or medical treatment shall include appropriate exemptions for children whose parents object thereto on the grounds that they conflict with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious organization, of which the parent is an adherent or member, and for children who should not be subjected to immunization for clinical reasons.

(i) The Department, in cooperation with the Department of Public Health, shall work to increase immunization awareness and participation among parents of children enrolled in child day care centers and child day care homes by publishing on the Department's website information about the benefits of immunization against vaccine preventable diseases, including influenza and pertussis. The information for vaccine preventable diseases shall include the incidence and severity of the diseases, the availability of vaccines, and the importance of immunizing children and persons who frequently have close contact with children. The website content shall be reviewed annually in collaboration with the Department of Public Health to reflect the most current recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP). The Department shall work with child day care centers and child day care homes licensed under this Act to ensure that the information is annually distributed to parents in August or September.

(j) Any standard adopted by the Department that requires an applicant for a license to operate a child day care home to include a copy of a high school diploma or equivalent certificate with his or her application shall be deemed to be satisfied if the applicant includes a copy of a high school diploma or equivalent certificate or a copy of a degree from an accredited institution of higher education or vocational institution or equivalent certificate.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21.)

(225 ILCS 10/7.10)

Sec. 7.10. Progress report.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child day care licensing" or "child day care licensing" means licensing of child day care centers, child day care homes, and group child day care homes.

(b) No later than September 30th of each year, the Department shall provide the General Assembly with a comprehensive report on its progress in meeting performance measures and goals related to child day care licensing.

(c) The report shall include:

(1) details on the funding for child day care licensing, including:

(A) the total number of full-time employees working on child day care licensing;

(B) the names of all sources of revenue used to support child day care licensing;

(C) the amount of expenditures that is claimed against federal funding sources;

(D) the identity of federal funding sources; and

(E) how funds are appropriated, including appropriations for line staff, support staff, supervisory staff, and training and other expenses and the funding history of such licensing since fiscal year 2010;

(2) current staffing qualifications of child day care licensing representatives and child day care licensing supervisors in comparison with staffing qualifications specified in the job description;

(3) data history for fiscal year 2010 to the current fiscal year on child day care licensing representative caseloads and staffing levels in all areas of the State;

(4) per the DCFS Child Day Care Licensing Advisory Council's work plan, quarterly data on the following measures:

(A) the percentage of new applications disposed of within 90 days;

(B) the percentage of licenses renewed on time;

(C) the percentage of child day care centers receiving timely annual monitoring visits;

(D) the percentage of child day care homes receiving timely annual monitoring visits;

(E) the percentage of group child day care homes receiving timely annual monitoring visits;

(F) the percentage of provider requests for supervisory review;

(G) the progress on adopting a key indicator system;

(H) the percentage of complaints disposed of within 30 days;

(I) the average number of days a child day care center applicant must wait to attend a licensing orientation;

(J) the number of licensing orientation sessions available per region in the past year; and

(K) the number of Department trainings related to licensing and child development available to providers in the past year; and

(5) efforts to coordinate with the Department of Human Services and the State Board of Education on professional development, credentialing issues, and child developers, including training registry, child developers, and Quality Rating and Improvement Systems (QRIS).

(d) The Department shall work with the Governor's appointed Early Learning Council on issues related to and concerning child day care.

(Source: P.A. 97-1096, eff. 8-24-12; 98-839, eff. 1-1-15.)

(225 ILCS 10/9.1c)

Sec. 9.1c. Public database of child day care homes, group child day care homes, and child day care centers; license status. No later than July 1, 2018, the Department shall establish and maintain on its official website a searchable database, freely accessible to the public, that provides the following information on each child day care home, group child day care home, and child day care center licensed by the Department: whether, within the past 5 years, the child day care home, group child day care home, or child day care center has had its license revoked by or surrendered to the Department during a child abuse or neglect investigation or its application for a renewal of its license was denied by the Department, and, if so, the dates upon which the license was revoked by or surrendered to the Department or the application for a renewal of the license was denied by the Department. The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow or authorize the Department to release or disclose any information that is prohibited from public disclosure under this Act or under any other State or federal law.

(Source: P.A. 100-52, eff. 1-1-18.)

(225 ILCS 10/9.2)

Sec. 9.2. Toll free number; child day care information. The Department of Children and Family Services shall establish and maintain a statewide toll-free telephone number that all persons may use to inquire about the past history and record of a child day care facility operating in this State. The past history and record shall include, but shall not be limited to, Department substantiated complaints against a child day care facility and Department staff findings of license violations by a child day care facility. Information disclosed in accordance with this Section shall be subject to the confidentiality requirements provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-671, eff. 1-1-99.)

(225 ILCS 10/12) (from Ch. 23, par. 2222)

Sec. 12. Advertisements.

(a) In this Section, "advertise" means communication by any public medium originating or distributed in this State, including, but not limited to, newspapers, periodicals, telephone book listings, outdoor advertising signs, radio, or television.

(b) A child care facility or child welfare agency licensed or operating under a permit issued by the Department may publish advertisements for the services that the facility is specifically licensed or issued a permit under this Act to provide. A person, group of persons, agency, association, organization, corporation, institution, center, or group who advertises or causes to be published any advertisement offering, soliciting, or promising to perform adoption services as defined in Section 2.24 of this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and shall be subject to a fine not to exceed $10,000 or 9 months imprisonment for each advertisement, unless that person, group of persons, agency, association, organization, corporation, institution, center, or group is (i) licensed or operating under a permit issued by the Department as a child care facility or child welfare agency, (ii) a biological parent or a prospective adoptive parent acting on his or her own behalf, or (iii) a licensed attorney advertising his or her availability to provide legal services relating to adoption, as permitted by law.

(c) Every advertisement published after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall include the Department-issued license number of the facility or agency.

(d) Any licensed child welfare agency providing adoption services that, after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, causes to be published an advertisement containing reckless or intentional misrepresentations concerning adoption services or circumstances material to the placement of a child for adoption is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and is subject to a fine not to exceed $10,000 or 9 months imprisonment for each advertisement.

(e) An out-of-state agency that is not licensed in Illinois and that has a written interagency agreement with one or more Illinois licensed child welfare agencies may advertise under this Section, provided that (i) the out-of-state agency must be officially recognized by the United States Internal Revenue Service as a tax-exempt organization under 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (or any successor provision of federal tax law), (ii) the out-of-state agency provides only international adoption services and is covered by the Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000, (iii) the out-of-state agency displays, in the advertisement, the license number of at least one of the Illinois licensed child welfare agencies with which it has a written agreement, and (iv) the advertisements pertain only to international adoption services. Subsection (d) of this Section shall apply to any out-of-state agencies described in this subsection (e).

(f) An advertiser, publisher, or broadcaster, including, but not limited to, newspapers, periodicals, telephone book publishers, outdoor advertising signs, radio stations, or television stations, who knowingly or recklessly advertises or publishes any advertisement offering, soliciting, or promising to perform adoption services, as defined in Section 2.24 of this Act, on behalf of a person, group of persons, agency, association, organization, corporation, institution, center, or group, not authorized to advertise under subsection (b) or subsection (e) of this Section, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and is subject to a fine not to exceed $10,000 or 9 months imprisonment for each advertisement.

(g) The Department shall maintain a website listing child welfare agencies licensed by the Department that provide adoption services and other general information for biological parents and adoptive parents. The website shall include, but not be limited to, agency addresses, phone numbers, e-mail addresses, website addresses, annual reports as referenced in Section 7.6 of this Act, agency license numbers, the Birth Parent Bill of Rights, the Adoptive Parents Bill of Rights, and the Department's complaint registry established under Section 9.1a of this Act. The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(h) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a child day care agency, child day care center, child day care home, or group child day care home that does not provide or perform adoption services, as defined in Section 2.24 of this Act, from advertising or marketing the child day care agency, child day care center, child day care home, or group child day care home.

(Source: P.A. 100-406, eff. 1-1-18.)

Section 185. The Structural Pest Control Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3.03, 3.27, 10.2, 10.3, and 21.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 235/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2202)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 2. Legislative intent. It is declared that there exists and may in the future exist within the State of Illinois locations where pesticides are received, stored, formulated or prepared and subsequently used for the control of structural pests, and improper selection, formulation and application of pesticides may adversely affect the public health and general welfare.

It is further established that the use of certain pesticides is restricted or may in the future be restricted to use only by or under the supervision of persons certified in accordance with this Act.

It is recognized that pests can best be controlled through an integrated pest management program that combines preventive techniques, nonchemical pest control methods, and the appropriate use of pesticides with preference for products that are the least harmful to human health and the environment. Integrated pest management is a good practice in the management of pest populations, and it is prudent to employ pest control strategies that are the least hazardous to human health and the environment.

Therefore, the purpose of this Act is to protect, promote and preserve the public health and general welfare by providing for the establishment of minimum standards for selection, formulation and application of restricted pesticides and to provide for the licensure of commercial structural pest control businesses, the registration of persons who own or operate non-commercial structural pest control locations where restricted pesticides are used, and the certification of pest control technicians.

It is also the purpose of this Act to reduce economic, health, and environmental risks by promoting the use of integrated pest management for structural pest control in schools and child day care centers, by making guidelines on integrated pest management available to schools and child day care centers.

(Source: P.A. 93-381, eff. 7-1-04; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08.)

(225 ILCS 235/3.03) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2203.03)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 3.03. "Person" means any individual, group of individuals, association, trust, partnership, corporation, person doing business under an assumed name, the State of Illinois, or department thereof, any other state-owned and operated institution, public school, licensed child day care center, or any other entity.

(Source: P.A. 82-725; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08; 96-1362, eff. 7-28-10.)

(225 ILCS 235/3.27)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 3.27. "Child Day care center" means any structure used as a licensed child day care center in this State.

(Source: P.A. 93-381, eff. 7-1-04; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08.)

(225 ILCS 235/10.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2210.2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 10.2. Integrated pest management guidelines; notification; training of designated persons; request for copies.

(a) The Department shall prepare guidelines for an integrated pest management program for structural pest control practices at school buildings and other school facilities and child day care centers. Such guidelines shall be made available to schools, child day care centers and the public upon request.

(b) When economically feasible, each school and child day care center is required to develop and implement an integrated pest management program that incorporates the guidelines developed by the Department. Each school and child day care center must notify the Department, within one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and every 5 years thereafter, on forms provided by the Department that the school or child day care center has developed and is implementing an integrated pest management program. In implementing an integrated pest management program, a school or child day care center must assign a designated person to assume responsibility for the oversight of pest management practices in that school or child day care center and for recordkeeping requirements.

(b-1) If adopting an integrated pest management program is not economically feasible because such adoption would result in an increase in the pest control costs of the school or child day care center, the school or child day care center must provide, within one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and every 5 years thereafter, written notification to the Department, on forms provided by the Department, that the development and implementation of an integrated pest management program is not economically feasible. The notification must include projected pest control costs for the term of the pest control program and projected costs for implementing an integrated pest management program for that same time period.

(b-2) Each school or child day care center that provides written notification to the Department that the adoption of an integrated pest management program is not economically feasible pursuant to subsection (b-1) of this Section must have its designated person attend a training course on integrated pest management within one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, and every 5 years thereafter until an integrated pest management program is developed and implemented in the school or child day care center. The training course shall be approved by the Department in accordance with the minimum standards established by the Department under this Act.

(b-3) Each school and child day care center shall ensure that all parents, guardians, and employees are notified at least once each school year that the notification requirements established by this Section have been met. The school and child day care center shall keep copies of all notifications required by this Section and any written integrated pest management program plan developed in accordance with this Section and make these copies available for public inspection at the school or child day care center.

(c) The Structural Pest Control Advisory Council shall assist the Department in developing the guidelines for integrated pest management programs. In developing the guidelines, the Council shall consult with individuals knowledgeable in the area of integrated pest management.

(d) The Department, with the assistance of the Cooperative Extension Service and other relevant agencies, may prepare a training program for school or child day care center pest control specialists.

(e) The Department may request copies of a school's or child day care center's integrated pest management program plan and notification required by this Act and offer assistance and training to schools and child day care centers on integrated pest management programs.

(f) The requirements of this Section are subject to appropriation to the Department for the implementation of integrated pest management programs.

(Source: P.A. 95-58, eff. 8-10-07; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08.)

(225 ILCS 235/10.3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 10.3. Notification. School districts and child day care centers must maintain a registry of parents and guardians of students and employees who have registered to receive written or telephonic notification prior to application of pesticides to school property or child day care centers or provide written or telephonic notification to all parents and guardians of students before such pesticide application. Written notification may be included in newsletters, bulletins, calendars, or other correspondence currently published by the school district or child day care center. The written or telephonic notification must be given at least 2 business days before application of the pesticide application and should identify the intended date of the application of the pesticide and the name and telephone contact number for the school or child day care center personnel responsible for the pesticide application program. Prior notice shall not be required if there is an imminent threat to health or property. If such a situation arises, the appropriate school or child day care center personnel must sign a statement describing the circumstances that gave rise to the health threat and ensure that written or telephonic notice is provided as soon as practicable. For purposes of this Section, pesticides subject to notification requirements shall not include (i) an antimicrobial agent, such as disinfectant, sanitizer, or deodorizer, or (ii) insecticide baits and rodenticide baits.

(Source: P.A. 93-381, eff. 7-1-04; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08; 96-1362, eff. 7-28-10.)

(225 ILCS 235/21.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2221.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 21.1. Administrative civil fines. The Department is empowered to assess administrative civil fines in accordance with Section 15 of this Act against a licensee, registrant, certified technician, person, public school, licensed child day care center, or other entity for violations of this Act or its rules and regulations. These fines shall be established by the Department by rule and may be assessed in addition to, or in lieu of, license, registration, or certification suspensions and revocations.

Any fine assessed and not paid within 60 days after receiving notice from the Department may be submitted to the Attorney General's Office, or any other public or private agency, for collection of the amounts owed plus any fees and costs incurred during the collection process. Failure to pay a fine shall also be grounds for immediate suspension or revocation of a license, registration, or certification issued under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 87-703; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08; 96-1362, eff. 7-28-10.)

Section 190. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Section 6-15 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/6-15) (from Ch. 43, par. 130)

Sec. 6-15. No alcoholic liquors shall be sold or delivered in any building belonging to or under the control of the State or any political subdivision thereof except as provided in this Act. The corporate authorities of any city, village, incorporated town, township, or county may provide by ordinance, however, that alcoholic liquor may be sold or delivered in any specifically designated building belonging to or under the control of the municipality, township, or county, or in any building located on land under the control of the municipality, township, or county; provided that such township or county complies with all applicable local ordinances in any incorporated area of the township or county. Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold under the authority of a special use permit on any property owned by a conservation district organized under the Conservation District Act, provided that (i) the alcoholic liquor is sold only at an event authorized by the governing board of the conservation district, (ii) the issuance of the special use permit is authorized by the local liquor control commissioner of the territory in which the property is located, and (iii) the special use permit authorizes the sale of alcoholic liquor for one day or less. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at any airport belonging to or under the control of a municipality of more than 25,000 inhabitants, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a park district organized under the Park District Code, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or on the grounds within 500 feet of any building owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act during times when food is dispensed for consumption within 500 feet of the building from which the food is dispensed, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in a building owned by a Local Mass Transit District organized under the Local Mass Transit District Act, subject to the approval of the governing Board of the District, or in Bicentennial Park, or on the premises of the City of Mendota Lake Park located adjacent to Route 51 in Mendota, Illinois, or on the premises of Camden Park in Milan, Illinois, or in the community center owned by the City of Loves Park that is located at 1000 River Park Drive in Loves Park, Illinois, or, in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption on the premises, and at the following aquarium and museums located in public parks: Art Institute of Chicago, Chicago Academy of Sciences, Chicago Historical Society, Field Museum of Natural History, Museum of Science and Industry, DuSable Museum of African American History, John G. Shedd Aquarium and Adler Planetarium, or at Lakeview Museum of Arts and Sciences in Peoria, or in connection with the operation of the facilities of the Chicago Zoological Society or the Chicago Horticultural Society on land owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, subject to the control of the Forest Preserve District Board of Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage, and harm, or in any building located on land owned by the Chicago Park District if approved by the Park District Commissioners, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes and owned by the Illinois International Port District if approved by the District's governing board, or at any airport, golf course, faculty center, or facility in which conference and convention type activities take place belonging to or under control of any State university or public community college district, provided that with respect to a facility for conference and convention type activities alcoholic liquors shall be limited to the use of the convention or conference participants or participants in cultural, political or educational activities held in such facilities, and provided further that the faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district, or members of an organization of students, alumni, faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district are active participants in the conference or convention, or in Memorial Stadium on the campus of the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign during games in which the Chicago Bears professional football team is playing in that stadium during the renovation of Soldier Field, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the Chicago Storm professional soccer team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the WNBA professional women's basketball team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the 10-minute mark of the second half of the game, or by a catering establishment which has rented facilities from a board of trustees of a public community college district, or in a restaurant that is operated by a commercial tenant in the North Campus Parking Deck building that (1) is located at 1201 West University Avenue, Urbana, Illinois and (2) is owned by the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, or, if approved by the District board, on land owned by the Metropolitan Sanitary District of Greater Chicago and leased to others for a term of at least 20 years. Nothing in this Section precludes the sale or delivery of alcoholic liquor in the form of original packaged goods in premises located at 500 S. Racine in Chicago belonging to the University of Illinois and used primarily as a grocery store by a commercial tenant during the term of a lease that predates the University's acquisition of the premises; but the University shall have no power or authority to renew, transfer, or extend the lease with terms allowing the sale of alcoholic liquor; and the sale of alcoholic liquor shall be subject to all local laws and regulations. After the acquisition by Winnebago County of the property located at 404 Elm Street in Rockford, a commercial tenant who sold alcoholic liquor at retail on a portion of the property under a valid license at the time of the acquisition may continue to do so for so long as the tenant and the County may agree under existing or future leases, subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Memorial Hall, located at 211 North Main Street, Rockford, under conditions approved by Winnebago County and subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Each facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the State, municipality, State university, airport, golf course, faculty center, facility in which conference and convention type activities take place, park district, Forest Preserve District, public community college district, aquarium, museum, or sanitary district from all financial loss, damage or harm. Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings of golf courses owned by municipalities or Illinois State University in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption upon the premises. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a fire protection district organized under the Fire Protection District Act, provided that such delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of the district, and provided further that such delivery and sale is limited to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year. However, the limitation to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year does not apply to the delivery, sale, or manufacture of alcoholic liquors at the building located at 59 Main Street in Oswego, Illinois, owned by the Oswego Fire Protection District if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed as approved by the Oswego Fire Protection District and the property is no longer being utilized for fire protection purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois for events that the Board may determine are public events and not related student activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months of August 15, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-847) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, among other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) regarding the anticipated attendees at the event, the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. In addition, any policy submitted by the Board of Trustees to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission must require that any event at which alcoholic liquors are served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees shall require the prior written approval of the Office of the Chancellor for the University campus where the event is located. The Board of Trustees shall submit its policy, and any subsequently revised, updated, new, or amended policies, to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission, and any University event, or location for an event, exempted under such policies shall apply for a license under the applicable Sections of this Act.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-45) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after August 2, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-132) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after March 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1166) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after August 12, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-795) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of a public university for events that the Board of Trustees of that public university may determine are public events and not student-related activities. If the Board of Trustees of a public university has not issued a written policy pursuant to an exemption under this Section on or before July 15, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-550), then that Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after July 15, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-550) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. As used in this paragraph, "public university" means the University of Illinois, Illinois State University, Chicago State University, Governors State University, Southern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Eastern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, and Northeastern Illinois University.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of a community college district for events that the Board of Trustees of that community college district may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after July 15, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-550) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and community college district policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. This paragraph does not apply to any community college district authorized to sell or serve alcoholic liquor under any other provision of this Section.

Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Dorchester Senior Business Center owned by the Village of Dolton if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons, and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Village of Dolton and the State from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building used as an Illinois State Armory provided:

(i) the Adjutant General's written consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such building is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons; and

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to save harmless the facility and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Chicago Civic Center, provided that:

(i) the written consent of the Public Building Commission which administers the Chicago Civic Center is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons;

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Civic Center, the City of Chicago and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm; and

(v) all applicable local ordinances are complied with.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered or sold in any building belonging to or under the control of any city, village or incorporated town where more than 75% of the physical properties of the building is used for commercial or recreational purposes, and the building is located upon a pier extending into or over the waters of a navigable lake or stream or on the shore of a navigable lake or stream. In accordance with a license issued under this Act, alcoholic liquor may be sold, served, or delivered in buildings and facilities under the control of the Department of Natural Resources during events or activities lasting no more than 7 continuous days upon the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources acting as the controlling government authority. The Director of Natural Resources may specify conditions on that approval, including but not limited to requirements for insurance and hours of operation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by a United States Army Corps of Engineers or Department of Natural Resources concessionaire who was operating on June 1, 1991 for on-premises consumption only is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX. Beer and wine may be sold on the premises of the Joliet Park District Stadium owned by the Joliet Park District when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such premises is filed with the local liquor commissioner by the Joliet Park District. Beer and wine may be sold in buildings on the grounds of State veterans' homes when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, and the facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save the facility harmless from all financial loss, damage or harm. Such liquors may be delivered to and sold at any property owned or held under lease by a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority or Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority.

Beer and wine may be sold and dispensed at professional sporting events and at professional concerts and other entertainment events conducted on premises owned by the Forest Preserve District of Kane County, subject to the control of the District Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Nothing in this Section shall preclude the sale or delivery of beer and wine at a State or county fair or the sale or delivery of beer or wine at a city fair in any otherwise lawful manner.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in State parks under the control of the Department of Natural Resources, provided:

a. the State park has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. (blank), and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the State park lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by the State park or restaurant concessionaire is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings on properties under the control of the Division of Historic Preservation of the Department of Natural Resources or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum provided:

a. the property has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Division of Historic Preservation of the Department of Natural Resources or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.

The sale of alcoholic liquors pursuant to this Section does not authorize the establishment and operation of facilities commonly called taverns, saloons, bars, cocktail lounges, and the like except as a part of lodge and restaurant facilities in State parks or golf courses owned by Forest Preserve Districts with a population of less than 3,000,000 or municipalities or park districts.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in the Springfield Administration Building of the Department of Transportation and the Illinois State Armory in Springfield; provided, that the controlling government authority may consent to such sales only if

a. the request is from a not-for-profit organization;

b. such sales would not impede normal operations of the departments involved;

c. the not-for-profit organization provides dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits and agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm;

d. no such sale shall be made during normal working hours of the State of Illinois; and

e. the consent is in writing.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in recreational areas of river conservancy districts under the control of, or leased from, the river conservancy districts. Such sales are subject to reasonable local regulations as provided in Article IV; however, no such regulations may prohibit or substantially impair the sale of alcoholic liquors on Sundays or Holidays.

Alcoholic liquors may be provided in long term care facilities owned or operated by a county under Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, when approved by the facility operator and not in conflict with the regulations of the Illinois Department of Public Health, to residents of the facility who have had their consumption of the alcoholic liquors provided approved in writing by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and dispensed in State housing assigned to employees of the Department of Corrections. No person shall furnish or allow to be furnished any alcoholic liquors to any prisoner confined in any jail, reformatory, prison or house of correction except upon a physician's prescription for medicinal purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Willard Ice Building in Springfield, at the State Library in Springfield, and at Illinois State Museum facilities by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at authorized functions.

The controlling government authority for the Willard Ice Building in Springfield shall be the Director of the Department of Revenue. The controlling government authority for Illinois State Museum facilities shall be the Director of the Illinois State Museum. The controlling government authority for the State Library in Springfield shall be the Secretary of State.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed at any facility, property or building under the jurisdiction of the Division of Historic Preservation of the Department of Natural Resources or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum where the delivery, sale or dispensing is by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from a controlling government authority, or by (2) an individual or organization provided that such individual or organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal workings of State offices or operations located at the facility, property or building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity of the individual or organization in the facility, property or building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

The controlling government authority for the Division of Historic Preservation of the Department of Natural Resources shall be the Director of Natural Resources, and the controlling government authority for the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum shall be the Executive Director of the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed for consumption at the Michael Bilandic Building at 160 North LaSalle Street, Chicago IL 60601, after the normal business hours of any child day care or child care facility located in the building, by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who accepts delivery of, sells, or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify, and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the delivery, sale, or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial, or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to accept delivery of and sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building; and

d. provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless, and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, subject to the provisions of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, and 222 South College Street in Springfield, Illinois by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease or sublease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered at any facility owned by the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority provided that dram shop liability insurance has been made available in a form, with such coverage and in such amounts as the Authority reasonably determines is necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Rockford State Office Building by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Department of Central Management Services, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Department of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county in the City of Bloomington, and used by the McLean County Historical Society if the sale or delivery is approved by an ordinance adopted by the county board, and the municipality in which the building is located may not prohibit that sale or delivery, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section. The regulation of the sale and delivery of alcoholic liquor in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county, and used by the McLean County Historical Society as provided in this paragraph is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of the power of a home rule municipality to regulate that sale and delivery.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in any building situated on land held in trust for any school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, if the building is not used for school purposes and if the sale or delivery is approved by the board of education.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a public library district, provided that the delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of that public library district and is limited to library fundraising events or programs of a cultural or educational nature. Before the board of trustees of a public library district may approve the delivery and sale of alcoholic liquors, the board of trustees of the public library district must have a written policy that has been approved by the board of trustees of the public library district governing when and under what circumstances alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail on property owned by that public library district. The written policy must (i) provide that no alcoholic liquor may be sold, distributed, or consumed in any area of the library accessible to the general public during the event or program, (ii) prohibit the removal of alcoholic liquor from the venue during the event, and (iii) require that steps be taken to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquor to persons under the age of 21. Any public library district that has alcoholic liquor delivered to or sold at retail on property owned by the public library district shall provide dram shop liability insurance in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the public library districts from all financial loss, damage, or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in buildings owned by the Community Building Complex Committee of Boone County, Illinois if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance with coverage and in amounts that the Committee reasonably determines are necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in the building located at 1200 Centerville Avenue in Belleville, Illinois and occupied by either the Belleville Area Special Education District or the Belleville Area Special Services Cooperative.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Louis Joliet Renaissance Center, City Center Campus, located at 214 N. Ottawa Street, Joliet, and the Food Services/Culinary Arts Department facilities, Main Campus, located at 1215 Houbolt Road, Joliet, owned by or under the control of Joliet Junior College, Illinois Community College District No. 525.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Triton College, Illinois Community College District No. 504.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the College of DuPage, Illinois Community College District No. 502.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold on any property owned, operated, or controlled by Lewis and Clark Community College, Illinois Community College District No. 536.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the building located at 446 East Hickory Avenue in Apple River, Illinois, owned by the Apple River Fire Protection District, and occupied by the Apple River Community Association if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions approved by the Apple River Community Association for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Apple River Fire Protection District, the Village of Apple River, and the Apple River Community Association from all financial loss, damage, and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Sikia Restaurant, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, and at the Food Services in the Great Hall/Washburne Culinary Institute Department facility, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, owned by or under the control of City Colleges of Chicago, Illinois Community College District No. 508.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-484, eff. 10-30-15; 99-550, eff. 7-15-16; 99-559, eff. 7-15-16; 99-795, eff. 8-12-16; 100-120, eff. 8-18-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-695, eff. 8-3-18.)

Section 195. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-19, 9-6, 9A-7, and 9A-11 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-19) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-19)

Sec. 5-19. Healthy Kids Program.

(a) Any child under the age of 21 eligible to receive Medical Assistance from the Illinois Department under Article V of this Code shall be eligible for Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment services provided by the Healthy Kids Program of the Illinois Department under the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396d(r).

(b) Enrollment of Children in Medicaid. The Illinois Department shall provide for receipt and initial processing of applications for Medical Assistance for all pregnant women and children under the age of 21 at locations in addition to those used for processing applications for cash assistance, including disproportionate share hospitals, federally qualified health centers and other sites as selected by the Illinois Department.

(c) Healthy Kids Examinations. The Illinois Department shall consider any examination of a child eligible for the Healthy Kids services provided by a medical provider meeting the requirements and complying with the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department to be reimbursed as a Healthy Kids examination.

(d) Medical Screening Examinations.

(1) The Illinois Department shall insure Medicaid coverage for periodic health, vision, hearing, and dental screenings for children eligible for Healthy Kids services scheduled from a child's birth up until the child turns 21 years. The Illinois Department shall pay for vision, hearing, dental and health screening examinations for any child eligible for Healthy Kids services by qualified providers at intervals established by Department rules.

(2) The Illinois Department shall pay for an interperiodic health, vision, hearing, or dental screening examination for any child eligible for Healthy Kids services whenever an examination is:

(A) requested by a child's parent, guardian, or custodian, or is determined to be necessary or appropriate by social services, developmental, health, or educational personnel; or

(B) necessary for enrollment in school; or

(C) necessary for enrollment in a licensed child day care program, including Head Start; or

(D) necessary for placement in a licensed child welfare facility, including a foster home, group home or child care institution; or

(E) necessary for attendance at a camping program; or

(F) necessary for participation in an organized athletic program; or

(G) necessary for enrollment in an early childhood education program recognized by the Illinois State Board of Education; or

(H) necessary for participation in a Women, Infant, and Children (WIC) program; or

(I) deemed appropriate by the Illinois Department.

(e) Minimum Screening Protocols For Periodic Health Screening Examinations. Health Screening Examinations must include the following services:

(1) Comprehensive Health and Development Assessment including:

(A) Development/Mental Health/Psychosocial Assessment; and

(B) Assessment of nutritional status including tests for iron deficiency and anemia for children at the following ages: 9 months, 2 years, 8 years, and 18 years;

(2) Comprehensive unclothed physical exam;

(3) Appropriate immunizations at a minimum, as required by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under 42 U.S.C. 1396d(r).

(4) Appropriate laboratory tests including blood lead levels appropriate for age and risk factors.

(A) Anemia test.

(B) Sickle cell test.

(C) Tuberculin test at 12 months of age and every 1-2 years thereafter unless the treating health care professional determines that testing is medically contraindicated.

(D) Other -- The Illinois Department shall insure that testing for HIV, drug exposure, and sexually transmitted diseases is provided for as clinically indicated.

(5) Health Education. The Illinois Department shall require providers to provide anticipatory guidance as recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics.

(6) Vision Screening. The Illinois Department shall require providers to provide vision screenings consistent with those set forth in the Department of Public Health's Administrative Rules.

(7) Hearing Screening. The Illinois Department shall require providers to provide hearing screenings consistent with those set forth in the Department of Public Health's Administrative Rules.

(8) Dental Screening. The Illinois Department shall require providers to provide dental screenings consistent with those set forth in the Department of Public Health's Administrative Rules.

(f) Covered Medical Services. The Illinois Department shall provide coverage for all necessary health care, diagnostic services, treatment and other measures to correct or ameliorate defects, physical and mental illnesses, and conditions whether discovered by the screening services or not for all children eligible for Medical Assistance under Article V of this Code.

(g) Notice of Healthy Kids Services.

(1) The Illinois Department shall inform any child eligible for Healthy Kids services and the child's family about the benefits provided under the Healthy Kids Program, including, but not limited to, the following: what services are available under Healthy Kids, including discussion of the periodicity schedules and immunization schedules, that services are provided at no cost to eligible children, the benefits of preventive health care, where the services are available, how to obtain them, and that necessary transportation and scheduling assistance is available.

(2) The Illinois Department shall widely disseminate information regarding the availability of the Healthy Kids Program throughout the State by outreach activities which shall include, but not be limited to, (i) the development of cooperation agreements with local school districts, public health agencies, clinics, hospitals and other health care providers, including developmental disability and mental health providers, and with charities, to notify the constituents of each of the Program and assist individuals, as feasible, with applying for the Program, (ii) using the media for public service announcements and advertisements of the Program, and (iii) developing posters advertising the Program for display in hospital and clinic waiting rooms.

(3) The Illinois Department shall utilize accepted methods for informing persons who are illiterate, blind, deaf, or cannot understand the English language, including but not limited to public services announcements and advertisements in the foreign language media of radio, television and newspapers.

(4) The Illinois Department shall provide notice of the Healthy Kids Program to every child eligible for Healthy Kids services and his or her family at the following times:

(A) orally by the intake worker and in writing at the time of application for Medical Assistance;

(B) at the time the applicant is informed that he or she is eligible for Medical Assistance benefits; and

(C) at least 20 days before the date of any periodic health, vision, hearing, and dental examination for any child eligible for Healthy Kids services. Notice given under this subparagraph (C) must state that a screening examination is due under the periodicity schedules and must advise the eligible child and his or her family that the Illinois Department will provide assistance in scheduling an appointment and arranging medical transportation.

(h) Data Collection. The Illinois Department shall collect data in a usable form to track utilization of Healthy Kids screening examinations by children eligible for Healthy Kids services, including but not limited to data showing screening examinations and immunizations received, a summary of follow-up treatment received by children eligible for Healthy Kids services and the number of children receiving dental, hearing and vision services.

(i) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(j) To ensure full access to the benefits set forth in this Section, on and after January 1, 2022, the Illinois Department shall ensure that provider and hospital reimbursements for immunization as required under this Section are no lower than 70% of the median regional maximum administration fee for the State of Illinois as established by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services' Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

(Source: P.A. 102-43, eff. 7-6-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/9-6) (from Ch. 23, par. 9-6)

Sec. 9-6. Job Search, Training and Work Programs. The Illinois Department and local governmental units shall initiate, promote and develop job search, training and work programs which will provide employment for and contribute to the training and experience of persons receiving aid under Articles III, V, and VI.

The job search, training and work programs shall be designed to preserve and improve the work habits and skills of recipients for whom jobs are not otherwise immediately available and to provide training and experience for recipients who lack the skills required for such employment opportunities as are or may become available. The Illinois Department and local governmental unit shall determine by rule those classes of recipients who shall be subject to participation in such programs. If made subject to participation, every applicant for or recipient of public aid who is determined to be "able to engage in employment", as defined by the Department or local governmental unit pursuant to rules and regulations, for whom unsubsidized jobs are not otherwise immediately available shall be required to participate in any program established under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall establish with the Director of Central Management Services an outreach and training program designed to encourage and assist recipients participating in job search, training and work programs to participate in open competitive examinations for trainee and other entry level positions to maximize opportunities for placement on open competitive eligible listings and referral to State agencies for employment consideration.

The Department shall provide payment for transportation, child care day-care and Workers' Compensation costs which occur for recipients as a result of participating in job search, training and work programs as described in this Section. The Department may decline to initiate such programs in areas where eligible recipients would be so few in number as to not economically justify such programs; and in this event the Department shall not require persons in such areas to participate in any job search, training, or work programs whatsoever as a condition of their continued receipt of, or application for, aid.

The programs may include, but shall not be limited to, service in child care centers, in preschool programs as teacher aides and in public health programs as home visitors and health aides; the maintenance of or services required in connection with public offices, buildings and grounds; state, county and municipal hospitals, forest preserves, parks, playgrounds, streets and highways, and other governmental maintenance or construction directed toward environmental improvement; and similar facilities.

The Illinois Department or local governmental units may enter into agreements with local taxing bodies and private not-for-profit organizations, agencies and institutions to provide for the supervision and administration of job search, work and training projects authorized by this Section. Such agreements shall stipulate the requirements for utilization of recipients in such projects. In addition to any other requirements dealing with the administration of these programs, the Department shall assure, pursuant to rules and regulations, that:

(a) Recipients may not displace regular employees.

(b) The maximum number of hours of mandatory work is 8 hours per day and 40 hours per week, not to exceed 120 hours per month.

(c) The maximum number of hours per month shall be determined by dividing the recipient's benefits by the federal minimum wage, rounded to the lowest full hour. "Recipient's benefits" in this subsection includes: (i) both cash assistance and food stamps provided to the entire assistance unit or household by the Illinois Department where the job search, work and training program is administered by the Illinois Department and, where federal programs are involved, includes all such cash assistance and food stamps provided to the greatest extent allowed by federal law; or (ii) includes only cash assistance provided to the entire assistance unit by the local governmental unit where the job search, work and training program is administered by the local governmental unit.

(d) The recipient shall be provided or compensated for transportation to and from the work location.

(e) Appropriate terms regarding recipient compensation are met.

Local taxing bodies and private not-for-profit organizations, agencies and institutions which utilize recipients in job search, work and training projects authorized by this Section are urged to include such recipients in the formulation of their employment policies.

Unless directly paid by an employing local taxing body or not-for-profit agency, a recipient participating in a work project who meets all requirements set forth by the Illinois Department shall receive credit towards his or her monthly assistance benefits for work performed based upon the applicable minimum wage rate. Where a recipient is paid directly by an employing agency, the Illinois Department or local governmental unit shall provide for payment to such employing entity the appropriate amount of assistance benefits to which the recipient would otherwise be entitled under this Code.

The Illinois Department or its designee, including local governmental units, may enter into agreements with the agencies or institutions providing work under programs established hereunder for payment to each such employer (hereinafter called "public service employer") of all or a portion of the wages to be paid to persons for the work performed and other appropriate costs.

If the number of persons receiving aid under Article VI is insufficient to justify the establishment of job search, training and work programs on a local basis by a local governmental unit, or if for other good cause the establishment of a local program is impractical or unwarranted, the local governmental unit shall cooperate with other local governmental units, with civic and non-profit community agencies, and with the Illinois Department in developing a program or programs which will jointly serve the participating governmental units and agencies.

A local governmental unit receiving State funds shall refer all recipients able to engage in employment to such job search, training and work programs as are established, whether within or without the governmental unit, and as are accessible to persons receiving aid from the governmental unit. The Illinois Department shall withhold allocation of state funds to any governmental unit which fails or refuses to make such referrals.

Participants in job search, training and work programs shall be required to maintain current registration for regular employment under Section 11-10 and to accept any bona fide offer of regular employment. They shall likewise be required to accept education, work and training opportunities available to them under other provisions of this Code or Federal law. The Illinois Department or local governmental unit shall provide by rule for periodic review of the circumstances of each participant to determine the feasibility of his placement in regular employment or other work, education and training opportunities.

Moneys made available for public aid purposes under Articles IV and VI may be expended to pay public service employers all or a portion of the wages of public service employees and other appropriate costs, to provide necessary supervisory personnel and equipment, to purchase Workers' Compensation Insurance or to pay Workers' Compensation claims, and to provide transportation to and from work sites.

The Department shall provide through rules and regulations for sanctions against applicants and recipients of aid under this Code who fail to cooperate with the regulations and requirements established pursuant to this Section. Such sanctions may include the loss of eligibility to receive aid under Article VI of this Code for up to 3 months.

The Department, in cooperation with a local governmental unit, may maintain a roster of persons who are required to participate in a local job search, training and work program. In such cases, the roster shall be available for inspection by employers for the selection of possible workers.

In addition to the programs authorized by this Section, the Illinois Department is authorized to administer any job search, training or work projects in conjunction with the Federal Food Stamp Program, either under this Section or under other regulations required by the Federal government.

The Illinois Department may also administer pilot programs to provide job search, training and work programs to unemployed parents of children receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-111, eff. 1-1-02; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02.)

(305 ILCS 5/9A-7) (from Ch. 23, par. 9A-7)

Sec. 9A-7. Good cause and pre-sanction process.

(a) The Department shall establish by rule what constitutes good cause for failure to participate in education, training and employment programs, failure to accept suitable employment or terminating employment or reducing earnings.

The Department shall establish, by rule, a pre-sanction process to assist in resolving disputes over proposed sanctions and in determining if good cause exists. Good cause shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) temporary illness for its duration;

(2) court required appearance or temporary incarceration;

(3) (blank);

(4) death in the family;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) (blank);

(8) (blank);

(9) extreme inclement weather;

(10) (blank);

(11) lack of any support service even though the necessary service is not specifically provided under the Department program, to the extent the lack of the needed service presents a significant barrier to participation;

(12) if an individual is engaged in employment or training or both that is consistent with the employment related goals of the program, if such employment and training is later approved by Department staff;

(13) (blank);

(14) failure of Department staff to correctly forward the information to other Department staff;

(15) failure of the participant to cooperate because of attendance at a test or a mandatory class or function at an educational program (including college), when an education or training program is officially approved by the Department;

(16) failure of the participant due to his or her illiteracy;

(17) failure of the participant because it is determined that he or she should be in a different activity;

(18) non-receipt by the participant of a notice advising him or her of a participation requirement. If the non-receipt of mail occurs frequently, the Department shall explore an alternative means of providing notices of participation requests to participants;

(19) (blank);

(20) non-comprehension of English, either written or oral or both;

(21) (blank);

(22) (blank);

(23) child care (or adult day care for an incapacitated individual living in the same home as a dependent child) is necessary for the participation or employment and such care is not available for a child under age 13;

(24) failure to participate in an activity due to a scheduled job interview, medical appointment for the participant or a household member, or school appointment;

(25) if an individual or family is experiencing homelessness; an individual or family is experiencing homelessness if the individual or family: (i) lacks a fixed, regular, and adequate nighttime residence, or shares the housing of other persons due to the loss of housing, economic hardship, or a similar reason; (ii) is living in a motel, hotel, trailer park, or camping ground due to the lack of alternative accommodations; (iii) is living in an emergency or transitional shelter; (iv) resides in a primary nighttime residence that is a public or private place not designed for or ordinarily used as a regular sleeping accommodation for human beings; or (v) is living in a car, park, public space, abandoned building, substandard housing, bus, train station, or similar settings;

(26) circumstances beyond the control of the participant which prevent the participant from completing program requirements;

(27) (blank);

(28) if an individual or family receives an eviction notice;

(29) if an individual's or family's utilities are disconnected;

(30) if an individual or family receives an utility disconnection notice; or

(31) if an individual is exiting a publicly funded institution or system of care (such as a health-care facility, a mental health facility, foster care or other youth facility, or correction program or institution) without an option to move to a fixed, adequate night time residence.

(b) (Blank).

(c)(1) The Department shall establish a reconciliation procedure to assist in resolving disputes related to any aspect of participation, including exemptions, good cause, sanctions or proposed sanctions, supportive services, assessments, responsibility and service plans, assignment to activities, suitability of employment, or refusals of offers of employment. Through the reconciliation process the Department shall have a mechanism to identify good cause, ensure that the client is aware of the issue, and enable the client to perform required activities without facing sanction.

(2) A participant may request reconciliation and receive notice in writing of a meeting. At least one face-to-face meeting may be scheduled to resolve misunderstandings or disagreements related to program participation and situations which may lead to a potential sanction. The meeting will address the underlying reason for the dispute and plan a resolution to enable the individual to participate in TANF employment and work activity requirements.

(2.5) If the individual fails to appear at the reconciliation meeting without good cause, the reconciliation is unsuccessful and a sanction shall be imposed.

(3) The reconciliation process shall continue after it is determined that the individual did not have good cause for non-cooperation. Any necessary demonstration of cooperation on the part of the participant will be part of the reconciliation process. Failure to demonstrate cooperation will result in immediate sanction.

(4) For the first instance of non-cooperation, if the client reaches agreement to cooperate, the client shall be allowed 30 days to demonstrate cooperation before any sanction activity may be imposed. In any subsequent instances of non-cooperation, the client shall be provided the opportunity to show good cause or remedy the situation by immediately complying with the requirement.

(5) The Department shall document in the case record the proceedings of the reconciliation and provide the client in writing with a reconciliation agreement.

(6) If reconciliation resolves the dispute, no sanction shall be imposed. If the client fails to comply with the reconciliation agreement, the Department shall then immediately impose the original sanction. If the dispute cannot be resolved during reconciliation, a sanction shall not be imposed until the reconciliation process is complete.

(Source: P.A. 101-103, eff. 7-19-19.)

(305 ILCS 5/9A-11) (from Ch. 23, par. 9A-11)

Sec. 9A-11. Child care.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes that families with children need child care in order to work. Child care is expensive and families with low incomes, including those who are transitioning from welfare to work, often struggle to pay the costs of child day care. The General Assembly understands the importance of helping low-income working families become and remain self-sufficient. The General Assembly also believes that it is the responsibility of families to share in the costs of child care. It is also the preference of the General Assembly that all working poor families should be treated equally, regardless of their welfare status.

(b) To the extent resources permit, the Illinois Department shall provide child care services to parents or other relatives as defined by rule who are working or participating in employment or Department approved education or training programs. At a minimum, the Illinois Department shall cover the following categories of families:

(1) recipients of TANF under Article IV participating in work and training activities as specified in the personal plan for employment and self-sufficiency;

(2) families transitioning from TANF to work;

(3) families at risk of becoming recipients of TANF;

(4) families with special needs as defined by rule;

(5) working families with very low incomes as defined by rule;

(6) families that are not recipients of TANF and that need child care assistance to participate in education and training activities;

(7) youth in care, as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act, who are parents, regardless of income or whether they are working or participating in Department-approved employment or education or training programs. Any family that receives child care assistance in accordance with this paragraph shall receive one additional 12-month child care eligibility period after the parenting youth in care's case with the Department of Children and Family Services is closed, regardless of income or whether the parenting youth in care is working or participating in Department-approved employment or education or training programs;

(8) families receiving Extended Family Support Program services from the Department of Children and Family Services, regardless of income or whether they are working or participating in Department-approved employment or education or training programs; and

(9) families with children under the age of 5 who have an open intact family services case with the Department of Children and Family Services. Any family that receives child care assistance in accordance with this paragraph shall remain eligible for child care assistance 6 months after the child's intact family services case is closed, regardless of whether the child's parents or other relatives as defined by rule are working or participating in Department approved employment or education or training programs. The Department of Human Services, in consultation with the Department of Children and Family Services, shall adopt rules to protect the privacy of families who are the subject of an open intact family services case when such families enroll in child care services. Additional rules shall be adopted to offer children who have an open intact family services case the opportunity to receive an Early Intervention screening and other services that their families may be eligible for as provided by the Department of Human Services.

Beginning October 1, 2023, and every October 1 thereafter, the Department of Children and Family Services shall report to the General Assembly on the number of children who received child care via vouchers paid for by the Department of Children and Family Services during the preceding fiscal year. The report shall include the ages of children who received child care, the type of child care they received, and the number of months they received child care.

The Department shall specify by rule the conditions of eligibility, the application process, and the types, amounts, and duration of services. Eligibility for child care benefits and the amount of child care provided may vary based on family size, income, and other factors as specified by rule.

The Department shall update the Child Care Assistance Program Eligibility Calculator posted on its website to include a question on whether a family is applying for child care assistance for the first time or is applying for a redetermination of eligibility.

A family's eligibility for child care services shall be redetermined no sooner than 12 months following the initial determination or most recent redetermination. During the 12-month periods, the family shall remain eligible for child care services regardless of (i) a change in family income, unless family income exceeds 85% of State median income, or (ii) a temporary change in the ongoing status of the parents or other relatives, as defined by rule, as working or attending a job training or educational program.

In determining income eligibility for child care benefits, the Department annually, at the beginning of each fiscal year, shall establish, by rule, one income threshold for each family size, in relation to percentage of State median income for a family of that size, that makes families with incomes below the specified threshold eligible for assistance and families with incomes above the specified threshold ineligible for assistance. Through and including fiscal year 2007, the specified threshold must be no less than 50% of the then-current State median income for each family size. Beginning in fiscal year 2008, the specified threshold must be no less than 185% of the then-current federal poverty level for each family size. Notwithstanding any other provision of law or administrative rule to the contrary, beginning in fiscal year 2019, the specified threshold for working families with very low incomes as defined by rule must be no less than 185% of the then-current federal poverty level for each family size. Notwithstanding any other provision of law or administrative rule to the contrary, beginning in State fiscal year 2022, the specified income threshold shall be no less than 200% of the then-current federal poverty level for each family size.

In determining eligibility for assistance, the Department shall not give preference to any category of recipients or give preference to individuals based on their receipt of benefits under this Code.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as conferring entitlement status to eligible families.

The Illinois Department is authorized to lower income eligibility ceilings, raise parent co-payments, create waiting lists, or take such other actions during a fiscal year as are necessary to ensure that child care benefits paid under this Article do not exceed the amounts appropriated for those child care benefits. These changes may be accomplished by emergency rule under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that the limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24-month period shall not apply.

The Illinois Department may contract with other State agencies or child care organizations for the administration of child care services.

(c) Payment shall be made for child care that otherwise meets the requirements of this Section and applicable standards of State and local law and regulation, including any requirements the Illinois Department promulgates by rule in addition to the licensure requirements promulgated by the Department of Children and Family Services and Fire Prevention and Safety requirements promulgated by the Office of the State Fire Marshal, and is provided in any of the following:

(1) a child care center which is licensed or exempt from licensure pursuant to Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969;

(2) a licensed child care home or home exempt from licensing;

(3) a licensed group child care home;

(4) other types of child care, including child care provided by relatives or persons living in the same home as the child, as determined by the Illinois Department by rule.

(c-5) Solely for the purposes of coverage under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, child and day care home providers, including licensed and license exempt, participating in the Department's child care assistance program shall be considered to be public employees and the State of Illinois shall be considered to be their employer as of January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320), but not before. The State shall engage in collective bargaining with an exclusive representative of child and day care home providers participating in the child care assistance program concerning their terms and conditions of employment that are within the State's control. Nothing in this subsection shall be understood to limit the right of families receiving services defined in this Section to select child and day care home providers or supervise them within the limits of this Section. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of child and day care home providers for any purposes not specifically provided in Public Act 94-320, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

In according child and day care home providers and their selected representative rights under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, the State intends that the State action exemption to application of federal and State antitrust laws be fully available to the extent that their activities are authorized by Public Act 94-320.

(d) The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, a co-payment scale that provides for cost sharing by families that receive child care services, including parents whose only income is from assistance under this Code. The co-payment shall be based on family income and family size and may be based on other factors as appropriate. Co-payments may be waived for families whose incomes are at or below the federal poverty level.

(d-5) The Illinois Department, in consultation with its Child Care and Development Advisory Council, shall develop a plan to revise the child care assistance program's co-payment scale. The plan shall be completed no later than February 1, 2008, and shall include:

(1) findings as to the percentage of income that the average American family spends on child care and the relative amounts that low-income families and the average American family spend on other necessities of life;

(2) recommendations for revising the child care co-payment scale to assure that families receiving child care services from the Department are paying no more than they can reasonably afford;

(3) recommendations for revising the child care co-payment scale to provide at-risk children with complete access to Preschool for All and Head Start; and

(4) recommendations for changes in child care program policies that affect the affordability of child care.

(e) (Blank).

(f) The Illinois Department shall, by rule, set rates to be paid for the various types of child care. Child care may be provided through one of the following methods:

(1) arranging the child care through eligible providers by use of purchase of service contracts or vouchers;

(2) arranging with other agencies and community volunteer groups for non-reimbursed child care;

(3) (blank); or

(4) adopting such other arrangements as the Department determines appropriate.

(f-1) Within 30 days after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587), the Department of Human Services shall establish rates for child care providers that are no less than the rates in effect on January 1, 2018 increased by 4.26%.

(f-5) (Blank).

(g) Families eligible for assistance under this Section shall be given the following options:

(1) receiving a child care certificate issued by the Department or a subcontractor of the Department that may be used by the parents as payment for child care and development services only; or

(2) if space is available, enrolling the child with a child care provider that has a purchase of service contract with the Department or a subcontractor of the Department for the provision of child care and development services. The Department may identify particular priority populations for whom they may request special consideration by a provider with purchase of service contracts, provided that the providers shall be permitted to maintain a balance of clients in terms of household incomes and families and children with special needs, as defined by rule.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-657, eff. 3-23-21; 102-491, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-926, eff. 5-27-22.)

Section 200. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 4, and 8.2 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 2052)

Sec. 2. (a) The Illinois Department of Children and Family Services shall, upon receiving reports made under this Act, protect the health, safety, and best interests of the child in all situations in which the child is vulnerable to child abuse or neglect, offer protective services in order to prevent any further harm to the child and to other children in the same environment or family, stabilize the home environment, and preserve family life whenever possible. Recognizing that children also can be abused and neglected while living in public or private residential agencies or institutions meant to serve them, while attending child day care centers, schools, or religious activities, or when in contact with adults who are responsible for the welfare of the child at that time, this Act also provides for the reporting and investigation of child abuse and neglect in such instances. In performing any of these duties, the Department may utilize such protective services of voluntary agencies as are available.

(b) The Department shall be responsible for receiving and investigating reports of adult resident abuse or neglect under the provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1446, eff. 8-20-10.)

(325 ILCS 5/4)

Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged communications; transmitting false report.

(a) The following persons are required to immediately report to the Department when they have reasonable cause to believe that a child known to them in their professional or official capacities may be an abused child or a neglected child:

(1) Medical personnel, including any: physician licensed to practice medicine in any of its branches (medical doctor or doctor of osteopathy); resident; intern; medical administrator or personnel engaged in the examination, care, and treatment of persons; psychiatrist; surgeon; dentist; dental hygienist; chiropractic physician; podiatric physician; physician assistant; emergency medical technician; physical therapist; physical therapy assistant; occupational therapist; occupational therapy assistant; acupuncturist; registered nurse; licensed practical nurse; advanced practice registered nurse; genetic counselor; respiratory care practitioner; home health aide; or certified nursing assistant.

(2) Social services and mental health personnel, including any: licensed professional counselor; licensed clinical professional counselor; licensed social worker; licensed clinical social worker; licensed psychologist or assistant working under the direct supervision of a psychologist; associate licensed marriage and family therapist; licensed marriage and family therapist; field personnel of the Departments of Healthcare and Family Services, Public Health, Human Services, Human Rights, or Children and Family Services; supervisor or administrator of the General Assistance program established under Article VI of the Illinois Public Aid Code; social services administrator; or substance abuse treatment personnel.

(3) Crisis intervention personnel, including any: crisis line or hotline personnel; or domestic violence program personnel.

(4) Education personnel, including any: school personnel (including administrators and certified and non-certified school employees); personnel of institutions of higher education; educational advocate assigned to a child in accordance with the School Code; member of a school board or the Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private school (but only to the extent required under subsection (d)); or truant officer.

(5) Recreation or athletic program or facility personnel; or an athletic trainer.

(6) Child care personnel, including any: early intervention provider as defined in the Early Intervention Services System Act; director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day care center; or foster parent, homemaker, or child care worker.

(7) Law enforcement personnel, including any: law enforcement officer; field personnel of the Department of Juvenile Justice; field personnel of the Department of Corrections; probation officer; or animal control officer or field investigator of the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.

(8) Any funeral home director; funeral home director and embalmer; funeral home employee; coroner; or medical examiner.

(9) Any member of the clergy.

(10) Any physician, physician assistant, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified nursing assistant, licensed social worker, licensed clinical social worker, or licensed professional counselor of any office, clinic, licensed behavior analyst, licensed assistant behavior analyst, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives.

(b) When 2 or more persons who work within the same workplace and are required to report under this Act share a reasonable cause to believe that a child may be an abused or neglected child, one of those reporters may be designated to make a single report. The report shall include the names and contact information for the other mandated reporters sharing the reasonable cause to believe that a child may be an abused or neglected child. The designated reporter must provide written confirmation of the report to those mandated reporters within 48 hours. If confirmation is not provided, those mandated reporters are individually responsible for immediately ensuring a report is made. Nothing in this Section precludes or may be used to preclude any person from reporting child abuse or child neglect.

(c)(1) As used in this Section, "a child known to them in their professional or official capacities" means:

(A) the mandated reporter comes into contact with the child in the course of the reporter's employment or practice of a profession, or through a regularly scheduled program, activity, or service;

(B) the mandated reporter is affiliated with an agency, institution, organization, school, school district, regularly established church or religious organization, or other entity that is directly responsible for the care, supervision, guidance, or training of the child; or

(C) a person makes a specific disclosure to the mandated reporter that an identifiable child is the victim of child abuse or child neglect, and the disclosure happens while the mandated reporter is engaged in his or her employment or practice of a profession, or in a regularly scheduled program, activity, or service.

(2) Nothing in this Section requires a child to come before the mandated reporter in order for the reporter to make a report of suspected child abuse or child neglect.

(d) If an allegation is raised to a school board member during the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an employee of a school district has made a report or caused a report to be made to the Department under this Act involving the conduct of a current or former employee of the school district and a request is made by another school district for the provision of information concerning the job performance or qualifications of the current or former employee because he or she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school district, the general superintendent of the school district to which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting school district the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school district to which the request for information concerning the applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases where the employee and the general superintendent have not been informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded. An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her employment with the school district must be informed by that school district that if he or she applies for employment with another school district, the general superintendent of the former school district, upon the request of the school district to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting school district that the employee is or was the subject of such a report.

(e) Whenever such person is required to report under this Act in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act and may also notify the person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of such report to the Department.

(f) In addition to the persons required to report suspected cases of child abuse or child neglect under this Section, any other person may make a report if such person has reasonable cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected child.

(g) The privileged quality of communication between any professional person required to report and his patient or client shall not apply to situations involving abused or neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure to report as required by this Act or constitute grounds for failure to share information or documents with the Department during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in writing that the information or documents disclosed by the professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation.

The reporting requirements of this Act shall not apply to the contents of a privileged communication between an attorney and his or her client or to confidential information within the meaning of Rule 1.6 of the Illinois Rules of Professional Conduct relating to the legal representation of an individual client.

A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(h) Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives shall provide to all office personnel copies of written information and training materials about abuse and neglect and the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child.

(i) Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1, 1986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act. On and after January 1, 2019, the statement shall also include information about available mandated reporter training provided by the Department. The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the statement shall be borne by the employer.

(j) Persons required to report child abuse or child neglect as provided under this Section must complete an initial mandated reporter training, including a section on implicit bias, within 3 months of their date of engagement in a professional or official capacity as a mandated reporter, or within the time frame of any other applicable State law that governs training requirements for a specific profession, and at least every 3 years thereafter. The initial requirement only applies to the first time they engage in their professional or official capacity. In lieu of training every 3 years, medical personnel, as listed in paragraph (1) of subsection (a), must meet the requirements described in subsection (k).

The mandated reporter trainings shall be in-person or web-based, and shall include, at a minimum, information on the following topics: (i) indicators for recognizing child abuse and child neglect, as defined under this Act; (ii) the process for reporting suspected child abuse and child neglect in Illinois as required by this Act and the required documentation; (iii) responding to a child in a trauma-informed manner; and (iv) understanding the response of child protective services and the role of the reporter after a call has been made. Child-serving organizations are encouraged to provide in-person annual trainings.

The implicit bias section shall be in-person or web-based, and shall include, at a minimum, information on the following topics: (i) implicit bias and (ii) racial and ethnic sensitivity. As used in this subsection, "implicit bias" means the attitudes or internalized stereotypes that affect people's perceptions, actions, and decisions in an unconscious manner and that exist and often contribute to unequal treatment of people based on race, ethnicity, gender identity, sexual orientation, age, disability, and other characteristics. The implicit bias section shall provide tools to adjust automatic patterns of thinking and ultimately eliminate discriminatory behaviors. During these trainings mandated reporters shall complete the following: (1) a pretest to assess baseline implicit bias levels; (2) an implicit bias training task; and (3) a posttest to reevaluate bias levels after training. The implicit bias curriculum for mandated reporters shall be developed within one year after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-604) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and shall be created in consultation with organizations demonstrating expertise and or experience in the areas of implicit bias, youth and adolescent developmental issues, prevention of child abuse, exploitation, and neglect, culturally diverse family systems, and the child welfare system.

The mandated reporter training, including a section on implicit bias, shall be provided through the Department, through an entity authorized to provide continuing education for professionals licensed through the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the State Board of Education, the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or the Illinois Department of State Police, or through an organization approved by the Department to provide mandated reporter training, including a section on implicit bias. The Department must make available a free web-based training for reporters.

Each mandated reporter shall report to his or her employer and, when applicable, to his or her licensing or certification board that he or she received the mandated reporter training. The mandated reporter shall maintain records of completion.

Beginning January 1, 2021, if a mandated reporter receives licensure from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the State Board of Education, and his or her profession has continuing education requirements, the training mandated under this Section shall count toward meeting the licensee's required continuing education hours.

(k)(1) Medical personnel, as listed in paragraph (1) of subsection (a), who work with children in their professional or official capacity, must complete mandated reporter training at least every 6 years. Such medical personnel, if licensed, must attest at each time of licensure renewal on their renewal form that they understand they are a mandated reporter of child abuse and neglect, that they are aware of the process for making a report, that they know how to respond to a child in a trauma-informed manner, and that they are aware of the role of child protective services and the role of a reporter after a call has been made.

(2) In lieu of repeated training, medical personnel, as listed in paragraph (1) of subsection (a), who do not work with children in their professional or official capacity, may instead attest each time at licensure renewal on their renewal form that they understand they are a mandated reporter of child abuse and neglect, that they are aware of the process for making a report, that they know how to respond to a child in a trauma-informed manner, and that they are aware of the role of child protective services and the role of a reporter after a call has been made. Nothing in this paragraph precludes medical personnel from completing mandated reporter training and receiving continuing education credits for that training.

(l) The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon request, to all employers employing persons who shall be required under the provisions of this Section to report under this Act.

(m) Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.

Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent violation of transmitting a false report as described in the preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other prior offense).

(n) A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices such beliefs.

(o) A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.

(p) Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.

(q) A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(r) For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect" includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-564, eff. 1-1-20; 102-604, eff. 1-1-22; 102-861, eff. 1-1-23; 102-953, eff. 5-27-22; revised 12-14-22.)

(325 ILCS 5/8.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 2058.2)

Sec. 8.2. If the Child Protective Service Unit determines, following an investigation made pursuant to Section 7.4 of this Act, that there is credible evidence that the child is abused or neglected, the Department shall assess the family's need for services, and, as necessary, develop, with the family, an appropriate service plan for the family's voluntary acceptance or refusal. In any case where there is evidence that the perpetrator of the abuse or neglect has a substance use disorder as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, the Department, when making referrals for drug or alcohol abuse services, shall make such referrals to facilities licensed by the Department of Human Services or the Department of Public Health. The Department shall comply with Section 8.1 by explaining its lack of legal authority to compel the acceptance of services and may explain its concomitant authority to petition the Circuit court under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or refer the case to the local law enforcement authority or State's attorney for criminal prosecution.

For purposes of this Act, the term "family preservation services" refers to all services to help families, including adoptive and extended families. Family preservation services shall be offered, where safe and appropriate, to prevent the placement of children in substitute care when the children can be cared for at home or in the custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare without endangering the children's health or safety, to reunite them with their families if so placed when reunification is an appropriate goal, or to maintain an adoptive placement. The term "homemaker" includes emergency caretakers, homemakers, caretakers, housekeepers and chore services. The term "counseling" includes individual therapy, infant stimulation therapy, family therapy, group therapy, self-help groups, drug and alcohol abuse counseling, vocational counseling and post-adoptive services. The term "child day care" includes protective child day care and child day care to meet educational, prevocational or vocational needs. The term "emergency assistance and advocacy" includes coordinated services to secure emergency cash, food, housing and medical assistance or advocacy for other subsistence and family protective needs.

Before July 1, 2000, appropriate family preservation services shall, subject to appropriation, be included in the service plan if the Department has determined that those services will ensure the child's health and safety, are in the child's best interests, and will not place the child in imminent risk of harm. Beginning July 1, 2000, appropriate family preservation services shall be uniformly available throughout the State. The Department shall promptly notify children and families of the Department's responsibility to offer and provide family preservation services as identified in the service plan. Such plans may include but are not limited to: case management services; homemakers; counseling; parent education; child day care; emergency assistance and advocacy assessments; respite care; in-home health care; transportation to obtain any of the above services; and medical assistance. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a private right of action or claim on the part of any individual or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set out in the plan, if those services are not provided with reasonable promptness and if those services are available.

Each Department field office shall maintain on a local basis directories of services available to children and families in the local area where the Department office is located.

The Department shall refer children and families served pursuant to this Section to private agencies and governmental agencies, where available.

Incentives that discourage or reward a decision to provide family preservation services after a report is indicated or a decision to refer a child for the filing of a petition under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 are strictly prohibited and shall not be included in any contract, quality assurance, or performance review process. Incentives include, but are not limited to, monetary benefits, contingencies, and enhanced or diminished performance reviews for individuals or agencies.

Any decision regarding whether to provide family preservation services after an indicated report or to refer a child for the filing of a petition under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be based solely on the child's health, safety, and best interests and on any applicable law. If a difference of opinion exists between a private agency and the Department regarding whether to refer for the filing of a petition under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the case shall be referred to the Deputy Director of Child Protection for review and determination.

Any Department employee responsible for reviewing contracts or program plans who is aware of a violation of this Section shall immediately refer the matter to the Inspector General of the Department.

Where there are 2 equal proposals from both a not-for-profit and a for-profit agency to provide services, the Department shall give preference to the proposal from the not-for-profit agency.

No service plan shall compel any child or parent to engage in any activity or refrain from any activity which is not reasonably related to remedying a condition or conditions that gave rise or which could give rise to any finding of child abuse or neglect.

(Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 101-528, eff. 8-23-19.)

Section 205. The Missing Children Records Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(325 ILCS 50/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 2285)

Sec. 5. Duties of school or other entity.

(a) Upon notification by the Illinois State Police of a person's disappearance, a school, preschool educational program, child care facility, or child day care home or group child day care home in which the person is currently or was previously enrolled shall flag the record of that person in such a manner that whenever a copy of or information regarding the record is requested, the school or other entity shall be alerted to the fact that the record is that of a missing person. The school or other entity shall immediately report to the Illinois State Police any request concerning flagged records or knowledge as to the whereabouts of any missing person. Upon notification by the Illinois State Police that the missing person has been recovered, the school or other entity shall remove the flag from the person's record.

(b) (1) For every child enrolled in a particular elementary or secondary school, public or private preschool educational program, public or private child care facility licensed under the Child Care Act of 1969, or child day care home or group child day care home licensed under the Child Care Act of 1969, that school or other entity shall notify in writing the person enrolling the child that within 30 days he must provide either (i) a certified copy of the child's birth certificate or (ii) other reliable proof, as determined by the Illinois State Police, of the child's identity and age and an affidavit explaining the inability to produce a copy of the birth certificate. Other reliable proof of the child's identity and age shall include a passport, visa or other governmental documentation of the child's identity. When the person enrolling the child provides the school or other entity with a certified copy of the child's birth certificate, the school or other entity shall promptly make a copy of the certified copy for its records and return the original certified copy to the person enrolling the child. Once a school or other entity has been provided with a certified copy of a child's birth certificate as required under item (i) of this subdivision (b)(1), the school or other entity need not request another such certified copy with respect to that child for any other year in which the child is enrolled in that school or other entity.

(2) Upon the failure of a person enrolling a child to comply with subsection (b) (1), the school or other entity shall immediately notify the Illinois State Police or local law enforcement agency of such failure, and shall notify the person enrolling the child in writing that he has 10 additional days to comply.

(3) The school or other entity shall immediately report to the Illinois State Police any affidavit received pursuant to this subsection which appears inaccurate or suspicious in form or content.

(c) Within 14 days after enrolling a transfer student, the elementary or secondary school shall request directly from the student's previous school a certified copy of his record. The requesting school shall exercise due diligence in obtaining the copy of the record requested. Any elementary or secondary school requested to forward a copy of a transferring student's record to the new school shall comply within 10 days of receipt of the request unless the record has been flagged pursuant to subsection (a), in which case the copy shall not be forwarded and the requested school shall notify the Illinois State Police or local law enforcement authority of the request.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

Section 210. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 1-111 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/1-111) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-111)

Sec. 1-111. "Habilitation" means an effort directed toward the alleviation of a developmental disability or toward increasing a person with a developmental disability's level of physical, mental, social or economic functioning. Habilitation may include, but is not limited to, diagnosis, evaluation, medical services, residential care, child care and adult day care, special living arrangements, training, education, sheltered employment, protective services, counseling and other services provided to persons with a developmental disability by developmental disabilities facilities.

(Source: P.A. 88-380.)

Section 215. The Epinephrine Injector Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 27/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Administer" means to directly apply an epinephrine injector to the body of an individual.

"Authorized entity" means any entity or organization, other than a school covered under Section 22-30 of the School Code, in connection with or at which allergens capable of causing anaphylaxis may be present, including, but not limited to, independent contractors who provide student transportation to schools, recreation camps, colleges and universities, child day care facilities, youth sports leagues, amusement parks, restaurants, sports arenas, and places of employment. The Department shall, by rule, determine what constitutes a child day care facility under this definition.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Epinephrine injector" includes an auto-injector approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the administration of epinephrine and a pre-filled syringe approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and used for the administration of epinephrine that contains a pre-measured dose of epinephrine that is equivalent to the dosages used in an auto-injector.

"Health care practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a physician assistant under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 with prescriptive authority, or an advanced practice registered nurse with prescribing authority under Article 65 of the Nurse Practice Act.

"Pharmacist" has the meaning given to that term under subsection (k-5) of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

"Undesignated epinephrine injector" means an epinephrine injector prescribed in the name of an authorized entity.

(Source: P.A. 99-711, eff. 1-1-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-799, eff. 1-1-19.)

Section 220. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 7.1 as follows:

(410 ILCS 45/7.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1307.1)

Sec. 7.1. Requirements for child care facilities. Each child day care center, child day care home, preschool, nursery school, kindergarten, or other child care facility, licensed or approved by the State, including such programs operated by a public school district, shall include a requirement that each parent or legal guardian of a child between one and 7 years of age provide a statement from a physician or health care provider that the child has been assessed for risk of lead poisoning or tested or both, as provided in Section 6.2. This statement shall be provided prior to admission and subsequently in conjunction with required physical examinations.

Child care facilities that participate in the Illinois Child Care Assistance Program (CCAP) shall annually send or deliver to the parents or guardians of children enrolled in the facility's care an informational pamphlet regarding awareness of lead poisoning. Pamphlets shall be produced and made available by the Department and shall be downloadable from the Department's Internet website. The Department of Human Services and the Department of Public Health shall assist in the distribution of the pamphlet.

(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 225. The Medical Patient Rights Act is amended by changing Section 3.4 as follows:

(410 ILCS 50/3.4)

Sec. 3.4. Rights of women; pregnancy and childbirth.

(a) In addition to any other right provided under this Act, every woman has the following rights with regard to pregnancy and childbirth:

(1) The right to receive health care before, during, and after pregnancy and childbirth.

(2) The right to receive care for her and her infant that is consistent with generally accepted medical standards.

(3) The right to choose a certified nurse midwife or physician as her maternity care professional.

(4) The right to choose her birth setting from the full range of birthing options available in her community.

(5) The right to leave her maternity care professional and select another if she becomes dissatisfied with her care, except as otherwise provided by law.

(6) The right to receive information about the names of those health care professionals involved in her care.

(7) The right to privacy and confidentiality of records, except as provided by law.

(8) The right to receive information concerning her condition and proposed treatment, including methods of relieving pain.

(9) The right to accept or refuse any treatment, to the extent medically possible.

(10) The right to be informed if her caregivers wish to enroll her or her infant in a research study in accordance with Section 3.1 of this Act.

(11) The right to access her medical records in accordance with Section 8-2001 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(12) The right to receive information in a language in which she can communicate in accordance with federal law.

(13) The right to receive emotional and physical support during labor and birth.

(14) The right to freedom of movement during labor and to give birth in the position of her choice, within generally accepted medical standards.

(15) The right to contact with her newborn, except where necessary care must be provided to the mother or infant.

(16) The right to receive information about breastfeeding.

(17) The right to decide collaboratively with caregivers when she and her baby will leave the birth site for home, based on their conditions and circumstances.

(18) The right to be treated with respect at all times before, during, and after pregnancy by her health care professionals.

(19) The right of each patient, regardless of source of payment, to examine and receive a reasonable explanation of her total bill for services rendered by her maternity care professional or health care provider, including itemized charges for specific services received. Each maternity care professional or health care provider shall be responsible only for a reasonable explanation of those specific services provided by the maternity care professional or health care provider.

(b) The Department of Public Health, Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Department of Children and Family Services, and Department of Human Services shall post, either by physical or electronic means, information about these rights on their publicly available websites. Every health care provider, child day care center licensed under the Child Care Act of 1969, Head Start, and community center shall post information about these rights in a prominent place and on their websites, if applicable.

(c) The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules to implement this Section.

(d) Nothing in this Section or any rules adopted under subsection (c) shall be construed to require a physician, health care professional, hospital, hospital affiliate, or health care provider to provide care inconsistent with generally accepted medical standards or available capabilities or resources.

(Source: P.A. 101-445, eff. 1-1-20; 102-4, eff. 4-27-21.)

Section 230. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act is amended by changing Sections 105 and 130 as follows:

(410 ILCS 130/105)

Sec. 105. Requirements; prohibitions; penalties for cultivation centers.

(a) The operating documents of a registered cultivation center shall include procedures for the oversight of the cultivation center, a cannabis plant monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, a cannabis container system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate record keeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) A registered cultivation center shall implement a security plan reviewed by the Illinois State Police and including but not limited to: facility access controls, perimeter intrusion detection systems, personnel identification systems, 24-hour surveillance system to monitor the interior and exterior of the registered cultivation center facility and accessible to authorized law enforcement and the Department of Agriculture in real-time.

(c) A registered cultivation center may not be located within 2,500 feet of the property line of a pre-existing public or private preschool or elementary or secondary school or child day care center, child day care home, group child day care home, part day child care facility, or an area zoned for residential use.

(d) All cultivation of cannabis for distribution to a registered dispensing organization must take place in an enclosed, locked facility as it applies to cultivation centers at the physical address provided to the Department of Agriculture during the registration process. The cultivation center location shall only be accessed by the cultivation center agents working for the registered cultivation center, Department of Agriculture staff performing inspections, Department of Public Health staff performing inspections, law enforcement or other emergency personnel, and contractors working on jobs unrelated to medical cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring.

(e) A cultivation center may not sell or distribute any cannabis to any individual or entity other than another cultivation center, a dispensing organization registered under this Act, or a laboratory licensed by the Department of Agriculture.

(f) All harvested cannabis intended for distribution to a dispensing organization must be packaged in a labeled medical cannabis container and entered into a data collection system.

(g) No person who has been convicted of an excluded offense may be a cultivation center agent.

(h) Registered cultivation centers are subject to random inspection by the Illinois State Police.

(i) Registered cultivation centers are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture and the Department of Public Health.

(j) A cultivation center agent shall notify local law enforcement, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone or in-person, or by written or electronic communication.

(k) A cultivation center shall comply with all State and federal rules and regulations regarding the use of pesticides.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(410 ILCS 130/130)

Sec. 130. Requirements; prohibitions; penalties; dispensing organizations.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall implement the provisions of this Section by rule.

(b) A dispensing organization shall maintain operating documents which shall include procedures for the oversight of the registered dispensing organization and procedures to ensure accurate recordkeeping.

(c) A dispensing organization shall implement appropriate security measures, as provided by rule, to deter and prevent the theft of cannabis and unauthorized entrance into areas containing cannabis.

(d) A dispensing organization may not be located within 1,000 feet of the property line of a pre-existing public or private preschool or elementary or secondary school or child day care center, child day care home, group child day care home, or part day child care facility. A registered dispensing organization may not be located in a house, apartment, condominium, or an area zoned for residential use. This subsection shall not apply to any dispensing organizations registered on or after July 1, 2019.

(e) A dispensing organization is prohibited from acquiring cannabis from anyone other than a cultivation center, craft grower, processing organization, another dispensing organization, or transporting organization licensed or registered under this Act or the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act. A dispensing organization is prohibited from obtaining cannabis from outside the State of Illinois.

(f) A registered dispensing organization is prohibited from dispensing cannabis for any purpose except to assist registered qualifying patients with the medical use of cannabis directly or through the qualifying patients' designated caregivers.

(g) The area in a dispensing organization where medical cannabis is stored can only be accessed by dispensing organization agents working for the dispensing organization, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation staff performing inspections, law enforcement or other emergency personnel, and contractors working on jobs unrelated to medical cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring.

(h) A dispensing organization may not dispense more than 2.5 ounces of cannabis to a registered qualifying patient, directly or via a designated caregiver, in any 14-day period unless the qualifying patient has a Department of Public Health-approved quantity waiver. Any Department of Public Health-approved quantity waiver process must be made available to qualified veterans.

(i) Except as provided in subsection (i-5), before medical cannabis may be dispensed to a designated caregiver or a registered qualifying patient, a dispensing organization agent must determine that the individual is a current cardholder in the verification system and must verify each of the following:

(1) that the registry identification card presented to the registered dispensing organization is valid;

(2) that the person presenting the card is the person identified on the registry identification card presented to the dispensing organization agent;

(3) (blank); and

(4) that the registered qualifying patient has not exceeded his or her adequate supply.

(i-5) A dispensing organization may dispense medical cannabis to an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant under Section 62 and to a person presenting proof of provisional registration under Section 55. Before dispensing medical cannabis, the dispensing organization shall comply with the requirements of Section 62 or Section 55, whichever is applicable, and verify the following:

(1) that the written certification presented to the registered dispensing organization is valid and an original document;

(2) that the person presenting the written certification is the person identified on the written certification; and

(3) that the participant has not exceeded his or her adequate supply.

(j) Dispensing organizations shall ensure compliance with this limitation by maintaining internal, confidential records that include records specifying how much medical cannabis is dispensed to the registered qualifying patient and whether it was dispensed directly to the registered qualifying patient or to the designated caregiver. Each entry must include the date and time the cannabis was dispensed. Additional recordkeeping requirements may be set by rule.

(k) The health care professional-patient privilege as set forth by Section 8-802 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall apply between a qualifying patient and a registered dispensing organization and its agents with respect to communications and records concerning qualifying patients' debilitating conditions.

(l) A dispensing organization may not permit any person to consume cannabis on the property of a medical cannabis organization.

(m) A dispensing organization may not share office space with or refer patients to a certifying health care professional.

(n) Notwithstanding any other criminal penalties related to the unlawful possession of cannabis, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may deem proper with regard to the registration of any person issued under this Act to operate a dispensing organization or act as a dispensing organization agent, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, for any violations of this Act and rules adopted in accordance with this Act. The procedures for disciplining a registered dispensing organization shall be determined by rule. All final administrative decisions of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation are subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law and its rules. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(o) Dispensing organizations are subject to random inspection and cannabis testing by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Illinois State Police, the Department of Revenue, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Agriculture, or as provided by rule.

(p) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall adopt rules permitting returns, and potential refunds, for damaged or inadequate products.

(q) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may issue nondisciplinary citations for minor violations which may be accompanied by a civil penalty not to exceed $10,000 per violation. The penalty shall be a civil penalty or other condition as established by rule. The citation shall be issued to the licensee and shall contain the licensee's name, address, and license number, a brief factual statement, the Sections of the law or rule allegedly violated, and the civil penalty, if any, imposed. The citation must clearly state that the licensee may choose, in lieu of accepting the citation, to request a hearing. If the licensee does not dispute the matter in the citation with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation within 30 days after the citation is served, then the citation shall become final and shall not be subject to appeal.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21.)

Section 235. The Coal Tar Sealant Disclosure Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 170/10)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 10. Coal tar sealant disclosure; public schools.

(a) A public school, public school district, or child day care shall provide written or telephonic notification to parents and guardians of students and employees prior to any application of a coal-tar based sealant product or a high polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon sealant product. The written notification:

(1) may be included in newsletters, bulletins, calendars, or other correspondence currently published by the school district or child day care center;

(2) must be given at least 10 business days before the application and should identify the intended date and location of the application of the coal-tar based sealant product or high polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon sealant;

(3) must include the name and telephone contact number for the school or child day care center personnel responsible for the application; and

(4) must include any health hazards associated with coal tar-based sealant product or high polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon sealant product, as provided by a corresponding safety data sheet.

(b) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act or any other law to the contrary, a public school or public school district that bids a pavement engineering project using a coal tar-based sealant product or high polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon sealant product for pavement engineering-related use shall request a bid with an alternative for asphalt-based or latex-based sealant product as a part of the engineering project. The public school or public school district shall consider whether asphalt-based or latex-based sealant product should be used for the project based upon costs and life cycle costs that regard preserving pavements, product warranties, and the benefits to public health and safety.

(c) The Department, in consultation with the State Board of Education, shall conduct outreach to public schools and public school districts to provide guidance for compliance with the provisions of this Act.

(d) On or before May 1, 2023, the Department and the State Board of Education shall post on their websites guidance on screening for coal tar-based sealant product or high polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon sealant product, requirements for a request for proposals, and requirements for disclosure.

(Source: P.A. 102-242, eff. 1-1-23.)

Section 240. The Child Vision and Hearing Test Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 205/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 2333)

Sec. 3. Vision and hearing screening services shall be administered to all children as early as possible, but no later than their first year in any public or private education program, licensed child day care center or residential facility for children with disabilities; and periodically thereafter, to identify those children with vision or hearing impairments or both so that such conditions can be managed or treated.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

Section 245. The Food Handling Regulation Enforcement Act is amended by changing Section 3.06 as follows:

(410 ILCS 625/3.06)

Sec. 3.06. Food handler training; restaurants.

(a) For the purpose of this Section, "restaurant" means any business that is primarily engaged in the sale of ready-to-eat food for immediate consumption. "Primarily engaged" means having sales of ready-to-eat food for immediate consumption comprising at least 51% of the total sales, excluding the sale of liquor.

(b) Unless otherwise provided, all food handlers employed by a restaurant, other than someone holding a food service sanitation manager certificate, must receive or obtain American National Standards Institute-accredited training in basic safe food handling principles within 30 days after employment and every 3 years thereafter. Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 3.05 of this Act, food handlers employed in nursing homes, licensed child day care homes and facilities, hospitals, schools, and long-term care facilities must renew their training every 3 years. There is no limit to how many times an employee may take the training. The training indicated in subsections (e) and (f) of this Section is transferable between employers, but not individuals. The training indicated in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section is not transferable between individuals or employers. Proof that a food handler has been trained must be available upon reasonable request by a State or local health department inspector and may be provided electronically.

(c) If a business with an internal training program is approved in another state prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, then the business's training program and assessment shall be automatically approved by the Department upon the business providing proof that the program is approved in said state.

(d) The Department shall approve the training program of any multi-state business or a franchisee, as defined in the Franchise Disclosure Act of 1987, of any multi-state business with a plan that follows the guidelines in subsection (b) of Section 3.05 of this Act and is on file with the Department by August 1, 2017.

(e) If an entity uses an American National Standards Institute food handler training accredited program, that training program shall be automatically approved by the Department.

(f) Certified local health departments in counties serving jurisdictions with a population of 100,000 or less, as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population, may have a training program. The training program must meet the requirements of Section 3.05(b) and be approved by the Department. This Section notwithstanding, certified local health departments in the following counties may have a training program:

(1) a county with a population of 677,560 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;

(2) a county with a population of 308,760 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;

(3) a county with a population of 515,269 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;

(4) a county with a population of 114,736 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;

(5) a county with a population of 110,768 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;

(6) a county with a population of 135,394 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population.

The certified local health departments in paragraphs (1) through (6) of this subsection (f) must have their training programs on file with the Department no later than 90 days after the effective date of this Act. Any modules that meet the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3.05 of this Act and are not approved within 180 days after the Department's receipt of the application of the entity seeking to conduct the training shall automatically be considered approved by the Department.

(g) Any and all documents, materials, or information related to a restaurant or business food handler training module submitted to the Department is confidential and shall not be open to public inspection or dissemination and is exempt from disclosure under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act. Training may be conducted by any means available, including, but not limited to, on-line, computer, classroom, live trainers, remote trainers, and certified food service sanitation managers. There must be at least one commercially available, approved food handler training module at a cost of no more than $15 per employee; if an approved food handler training module is not available at that cost, then the provisions of this Section 3.06 shall not apply.

(h) The regulation of food handler training is considered to be an exclusive function of the State, and local regulation is prohibited. This subsection (h) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(i) The provisions of this Section apply beginning July 1, 2014. From July 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, enforcement of the provisions of this Section shall be limited to education and notification of requirements to encourage compliance.

(Source: P.A. 99-62, eff. 7-16-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 100-367, eff. 8-25-17.)

Section 250. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Section 17.12 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/17.12)

Sec. 17.12. Lead service line replacement and notification.

(a) The purpose of this Act is to: (1) require the owners and operators of community water supplies to develop, implement, and maintain a comprehensive water service line material inventory and a comprehensive lead service line replacement plan, provide notice to occupants of potentially affected buildings before any construction or repair work on water mains or lead service lines, and request access to potentially affected buildings before replacing lead service lines; and (2) prohibit partial lead service line replacements, except as authorized within this Section.

(b) The General Assembly finds and declares that:

(1) There is no safe level of exposure to heavy metal lead, as found by the United States Environmental Protection Agency and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

(2) Lead service lines can convey this harmful substance to the drinking water supply.

(3) According to the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency's 2018 Service Line Material Inventory, the State of Illinois is estimated to have over 680,000 lead-based service lines still in operation.

(4) The true number of lead service lines is not fully known because Illinois lacks an adequate inventory of lead service lines.

(5) For the general health, safety and welfare of its residents, all lead service lines in Illinois should be disconnected from the drinking water supply, and the State's drinking water supply.

(c) In this Section:

"Advisory Board" means the Lead Service Line Replacement Advisory Board created under subsection (x).

"Community water supply" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3.145 of this Act.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Emergency repair" means any unscheduled water main, water service, or water valve repair or replacement that results from failure or accident.

"Fund" means the Lead Service Line Replacement Fund created under subsection (bb).

"Lead service line" means a service line made of lead or service line connected to a lead pigtail, lead gooseneck, or other lead fitting.

"Material inventory" means a water service line material inventory developed by a community water supply under this Act.

"Non-community water supply" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act.

"NSF/ANSI Standard" means a water treatment standard developed by NSF International.

"Partial lead service line replacement" means replacement of only a portion of a lead service line.

"Potentially affected building" means any building that is provided water service through a service line that is either a lead service line or a suspected lead service line.

"Public water supply" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3.365 of this Act.

"Service line" means the piping, tubing, and necessary appurtenances acting as a conduit from the water main or source of potable water supply to the building plumbing at the first shut-off valve or 18 inches inside the building, whichever is shorter.

"Suspected lead service line" means a service line that a community water supply finds more likely than not to be made of lead after completing the requirements under paragraphs (2) through (5) of subsection (h).

"Small system" means a community water supply that regularly serves water to 3,300 or fewer persons.

(d) An owner or operator of a community water supply shall:

(1) develop an initial material inventory by April 15, 2022 and electronically submit by April 15, 2023 an updated material inventory electronically to the Agency; and

(2) deliver a complete material inventory to the Agency no later than April 15, 2024, or such time as required by federal law, whichever is sooner. The complete inventory shall report the composition of all service lines in the community water supply's distribution system.

(e) The Agency shall review and approve the final material inventory submitted to it under subsection (d).

(f) If a community water supply does not submit a complete inventory to the Agency by April 15, 2024 under paragraph (2) of subsection (d), the community water supply may apply for an extension to the Agency no less than 3 months prior to the due date. The Agency shall develop criteria for granting material inventory extensions. When considering requests for extension, the Agency shall, at a minimum, consider:

(1) the number of service connections in a water supply; and

(2) the number of service lines of an unknown material composition.

(g) A material inventory prepared for a community water supply under subsection (d) shall identify:

(1) the total number of service lines connected to the community water supply's distribution system;

(2) the materials of construction of each service line connected to the community water supply's distribution system;

(3) the number of suspected lead service lines that were newly identified in the material inventory for the community water supply after the community water supply last submitted a service line inventory to the Agency; and

(4) the number of suspected or known lead service lines that were replaced after the community water supply last submitted a service line inventory to the Agency, and the material of the service line that replaced each lead service line.

When identifying the materials of construction under paragraph (2) of this subsection, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall to the best of the owner's or operator's ability identify the type of construction material used on the customer's side of the curb box, meter, or other line of demarcation and the community water supply's side of the curb box, meter, or other line of demarcation.

(h) In completing a material inventory under subsection (d), the owner or operator of a community water supply shall:

(1) prioritize inspections of high-risk areas identified by the community water supply and inspections of high-risk facilities, such as preschools, child day care centers, child day care homes, group child day care homes, parks, playgrounds, hospitals, and clinics, and confirm service line materials in those areas and at those facilities;

(2) review historical documentation, such as construction logs or cards, as-built drawings, purchase orders, and subdivision plans, to determine service line material construction;

(3) when conducting distribution system maintenance, visually inspect service lines and document materials of construction;

(4) identify any time period when the service lines being connected to its distribution system were primarily lead service lines, if such a time period is known or suspected; and

(5) discuss service line repair and installation with its employees, contractors, plumbers, other workers who worked on service lines connected to its distribution system, or all of the above.

(i) The owner or operator of each community water supply shall maintain records of persons who refuse to grant access to the interior of a building for purposes of identifying the materials of construction of a service line. If a community water supply has been denied access on the property or to the interior of a building for that reason, then the community water supply shall attempt to identify the service line as a suspected lead service line, unless documentation is provided showing otherwise.

(j) If a community water supply identifies a lead service line connected to a building, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall attempt to notify the owner of the building and all occupants of the building of the existence of the lead service line within 15 days after identifying the lead service line, or as soon as is reasonably possible thereafter. Individual written notice shall be given according to the provisions of subsection (jj).

(k) An owner or operator of a community water supply has no duty to include in the material inventory required under subsection (d) information about service lines that are physically disconnected from a water main in its distribution system.

(l) The owner or operator of each community water supply shall post on its website a copy of the most recently submitted material inventory or alternatively may request that the Agency post a copy of that material inventory on the Agency's website.

(m) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require service lines to be unearthed for the sole purpose of inventorying.

(n) When an owner or operator of a community water supply awards a contract under this Section, the owner or operator shall make a good faith effort to use contractors and vendors owned by minority persons, women, and persons with a disability, as those terms are defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, for not less than 20% of the total contracts, provided that:

(1) contracts representing at least 11% of the total projects shall be awarded to minority-owned businesses, as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act;

(2) contracts representing at least 7% of the total projects shall be awarded to women-owned businesses, as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act; and

(3) contracts representing at least 2% of the total projects shall be awarded to businesses owned by persons with a disability.

Owners or operators of a community water supply are encouraged to divide projects, whenever economically feasible, into contracts of smaller size that ensure small business contractors or vendors shall have the ability to qualify in the applicable bidding process, when determining the ability to deliver on a given contract based on scope and size, as a responsible and responsive bidder.

When a contractor or vendor submits a bid or letter of intent in response to a request for proposal or other bid submission, the contractor or vendor shall include with its responsive documents a utilization plan that shall address how compliance with applicable good faith requirements set forth in this subsection shall be addressed.

Under this subsection, "good faith effort" means a community water supply has taken all necessary steps to comply with the goals of this subsection by complying with the following:

(1) Soliciting through reasonable and available means the interest of a business, as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, that have the capability to perform the work of the contract. The community water supply must solicit this interest within sufficient time to allow certified businesses to respond.

(2) Providing interested certified businesses with adequate information about the plans, specifications, and requirements of the contract, including addenda, in a timely manner to assist them in responding to the solicitation.

(3) Meeting in good faith with interested certified businesses that have submitted bids.

(4) Effectively using the services of the State, minority or women community organizations, minority or women contractor groups, local, State, and federal minority or women business assistance offices, and other organizations to provide assistance in the recruitment and placement of certified businesses.

(5) Making efforts to use appropriate forums for purposes of advertising subcontracting opportunities suitable for certified businesses.

The diversity goals defined in this subsection can be met through direct award to diverse contractors and through the use of diverse subcontractors and diverse vendors to contracts.

(o) An owner or operator of a community water supply shall collect data necessary to ensure compliance with subsection (n) no less than semi-annually and shall include progress toward compliance of subsection (n) in the owner or operator's report required under subsection (t-5). The report must include data on vendor and employee diversity, including data on the owner's or operator's implementation of subsection (n).

(p) Every owner or operator of a community water supply that has known or suspected lead service lines shall:

(1) create a plan to:

(A) replace each lead service line connected to its distribution system; and

(B) replace each galvanized service line connected to its distribution system, if the galvanized service line is or was connected downstream to lead piping; and

(2) electronically submit, by April 15, 2024 its initial lead service line replacement plan to the Agency;

(3) electronically submit by April 15 of each year after 2024 until April 15, 2027 an updated lead service line replacement plan to the Agency for review; the updated replacement plan shall account for changes in the number of lead service lines or unknown service lines in the material inventory described in subsection (d);

(4) electronically submit by April 15, 2027 a complete and final replacement plan to the Agency for approval; the complete and final replacement plan shall account for all known and suspected lead service lines documented in the final material inventory described under paragraph (3) of subsection (d); and

(5) post on its website a copy of the plan most recently submitted to the Agency or may request that the Agency post a copy of that plan on the Agency's website.

(q) Each plan required under paragraph (1) of subsection (p) shall include the following:

(1) the name and identification number of the community water supply;

(2) the total number of service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply;

(3) the total number of suspected lead service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply;

(4) the total number of known lead service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply;

(5) the total number of lead service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply that have been replaced each year beginning in 2020;

(6) a proposed lead service line replacement schedule that includes one-year, 5-year, 10-year, 15-year, 20-year, 25-year, and 30-year goals;

(7) an analysis of costs and financing options for replacing the lead service lines connected to the community water supply's distribution system, which shall include, but shall not be limited to:

(A) a detailed accounting of costs associated with replacing lead service lines and galvanized lines that are or were connected downstream to lead piping;

(B) measures to address affordability and prevent service shut-offs for customers or ratepayers; and

(C) consideration of different scenarios for structuring payments between the utility and its customers over time; and

(8) a plan for prioritizing high-risk facilities, such as preschools, child day care centers, child day care homes, group child day care homes, parks, playgrounds, hospitals, and clinics, as well as high-risk areas identified by the community water supply;

(9) a map of the areas where lead service lines are expected to be found and the sequence with which those areas will be inventoried and lead service lines replaced;

(10) measures for how the community water supply will inform the public of the plan and provide opportunity for public comment; and

(11) measures to encourage diversity in hiring in the workforce required to implement the plan as identified under subsection (n).

(r) The Agency shall review final plans submitted to it under subsection (p). The Agency shall approve a final plan if the final plan includes all of the elements set forth under subsection (q) and the Agency determines that:

(1) the proposed lead service line replacement schedule set forth in the plan aligns with the timeline requirements set forth under subsection (v);

(2) the plan prioritizes the replacement of lead service lines that provide water service to high-risk facilities, such as preschools, child day care centers, child day care homes, group child day care homes, parks, playgrounds, hospitals, and clinics, and high-risk areas identified by the community water supply;

(3) the plan includes analysis of cost and financing options; and

(4) the plan provides documentation of public review.

(s) An owner or operator of a community water supply has no duty to include in the plans required under subsection (p) information about service lines that are physically disconnected from a water main in its distribution system.

(t) If a community water supply does not deliver a complete plan to the Agency by April 15, 2027, the community water supply may apply to the Agency for an extension no less than 3 months prior to the due date. The Agency shall develop criteria for granting plan extensions. When considering requests for extension, the Agency shall, at a minimum, consider:

(1) the number of service connections in a water supply; and

(2) the number of service lines of an unknown material composition.

(t-5) After the Agency has approved the final replacement plan described in subsection (p), the owner or operator of a community water supply shall submit a report detailing progress toward plan goals to the Agency for its review. The report shall be submitted annually for the first 10 years, and every 3 years thereafter until all lead service lines have been replaced. Reports under this subsection shall be published in the same manner described in subsection (l). The report shall include at least the following information as it pertains to the preceding reporting period:

(1) The number of lead service lines replaced and the average cost of lead service line replacement.

(2) Progress toward meeting hiring requirements as described in subsection (n) and subsection (o).

(3) The percent of customers electing a waiver offered, as described in subsections (ii) and (jj), among those customers receiving a request or notification to perform a lead service line replacement.

(4) The method or methods used by the community water supply to finance lead service line replacement.

(u) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in order to provide for costs associated with lead service line remediation and replacement, the corporate authorities of a municipality may, by ordinance or resolution by the corporate authorities, exercise authority provided in Section 27-5 et seq. of the Property Tax Code and Sections 8-3-1, 8-11-1, 8-11-5, 8-11-6, 9-1-1 et seq., 9-3-1 et seq., 9-4-1 et seq., 11-131-1, and 11-150-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code. Taxes levied for this purpose shall be in addition to taxes for general purposes authorized under Section 8-3-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code and shall be included in the taxing district's aggregate extension for the purposes of Division 5 of Article 18 of the Property Tax Code.

(v) Every owner or operator of a community water supply shall replace all known lead service lines, subject to the requirements of subsection (ff), according to the following replacement rates and timelines to be calculated from the date of submission of the final replacement plan to the Agency:

(1) A community water supply reporting 1,200 or fewer lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 7% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 15 years for completion.

(2) A community water supply reporting more than 1,200 but fewer than 5,000 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 6% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 17 years for completion.

(3) A community water supply reporting more than 4,999 but fewer than 10,000 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 5% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 20 years for completion.

(4) A community water supply reporting more than 9,999 but fewer than 99,999 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 3% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 34 years for completion.

(5) A community water supply reporting more than 99,999 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 2% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 50 years for completion.

(w) A community water supply may apply to the Agency for an extension to the replacement timelines described in paragraphs (1) through (5) of subsection (v). The Agency shall develop criteria for granting replacement timeline extensions. When considering requests for timeline extensions, the Agency shall, at a minimum, consider:

(1) the number of service connections in a water supply; and

(2) unusual circumstances creating hardship for a community.

The Agency may grant one extension of additional time equal to not more than 20% of the original replacement timeline, except in situations of extreme hardship in which the Agency may consider a second additional extension equal to not more than 10% of the original replacement timeline.

Replacement rates and timelines shall be calculated from the date of submission of the final plan to the Agency.

(x) The Lead Service Line Replacement Advisory Board is created within the Agency. The Advisory Board shall convene within 120 days after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613).

The Advisory Board shall consist of at least 28 voting members, as follows:

(1) the Director of the Agency, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chairperson;

(2) the Director of Revenue, or his or her designee;

(3) the Director of Public Health, or his or her designee;

(4) fifteen members appointed by the Agency as follows:

(A) one member representing a statewide organization of municipalities as authorized by Section 1-8-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code;

(B) two members who are mayors representing municipalities located in any county south of the southernmost county represented by one of the 10 largest municipalities in Illinois by population, or their respective designees;

(C) two members who are representatives from public health advocacy groups;

(D) two members who are representatives from publicly-owned water utilities;

(E) one member who is a representative from a public utility as defined under Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act that provides water service in the State of Illinois;

(F) one member who is a research professional employed at an Illinois academic institution and specializing in water infrastructure research;

(G) two members who are representatives from nonprofit civic organizations;

(H) one member who is a representative from a statewide organization representing environmental organizations;

(I) two members who are representatives from organized labor; and

(J) one member representing an environmental justice organization; and

(5) ten members who are the mayors of the 10 largest municipalities in Illinois by population, or their respective designees.

No less than 10 of the 28 voting members shall be persons of color, and no less than 3 shall represent communities defined or self-identified as environmental justice communities.

Advisory Board members shall serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties from funds appropriated for that purpose. The Agency shall provide administrative support to the Advisory Board.

The Advisory Board shall meet no less than once every 6 months.

(y) The Advisory Board shall have, at a minimum, the following duties:

(1) advising the Agency on best practices in lead service line replacement;

(2) reviewing the progress of community water supplies toward lead service line replacement goals;

(3) advising the Agency on other matters related to the administration of the provisions of this Section;

(4) advising the Agency on the integration of existing lead service line replacement plans with any statewide plan; and

(5) providing technical support and practical expertise in general.

(z) Within 18 months after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613), the Advisory Board shall deliver a report of its recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly concerning opportunities for dedicated, long-term revenue options for funding lead service line replacement. In submitting recommendations, the Advisory Board shall consider, at a minimum, the following:

(1) the sufficiency of various revenue sources to adequately fund replacement of all lead service lines in Illinois;

(2) the financial burden, if any, on households falling below 150% of the federal poverty limit;

(3) revenue options that guarantee low-income households are protected from rate increases;

(4) an assessment of the ability of community water supplies to assess and collect revenue;

(5) variations in financial resources among individual households within a service area; and

(6) the protection of low-income households from rate increases.

(aa) Within 10 years after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613), the Advisory Board shall prepare and deliver a report to the Governor and General Assembly concerning the status of all lead service line replacement within the State.

(bb) The Lead Service Line Replacement Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury to be used by the Agency for the purposes provided under this Section. The Fund shall be used exclusively to finance and administer programs and activities specified under this Section and listed under this subsection.

The objective of the Fund is to finance activities associated with identifying and replacing lead service lines, build Agency capacity to oversee the provisions of this Section, and provide related assistance for the activities listed under this subsection.

The Agency shall be responsible for the administration of the Fund and shall allocate moneys on the basis of priorities established by the Agency through administrative rule. On July 1, 2022 and on July 1 of each year thereafter, the Agency shall determine the available amount of resources in the Fund that can be allocated to the activities identified under this Section and shall allocate the moneys accordingly.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Lead Service Line Replacement Fund is not subject to sweeps, administrative charge-backs, or any other fiscal maneuver that would in any way transfer any amounts from the Lead Service Line Replacement Fund into any other fund of the State.

(cc) Within one year after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613), the Agency shall design rules for a program for the purpose of administering lead service line replacement funds. The rules must, at minimum, contain:

(1) the process by which community water supplies may apply for funding; and

(2) the criteria for determining unit of local government eligibility and prioritization for funding, including the prevalence of low-income households, as measured by median household income, the prevalence of lead service lines, and the prevalence of water samples that demonstrate elevated levels of lead.

(dd) Funding under subsection (cc) shall be available for costs directly attributable to the planning, design, or construction directly related to the replacement of lead service lines and restoration of property.

Funding shall not be used for the general operating expenses of a municipality or community water supply.

(ee) An owner or operator of any community water supply receiving grant funding under subsection (cc) shall bear the entire expense of full lead service line replacement for all lead service lines in the scope of the grant.

(ff) When replacing a lead service line, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall replace the service line in its entirety, including, but not limited to, any portion of the service line (i) running on private property and (ii) within the building's plumbing at the first shut-off valve. Partial lead service line replacements are expressly prohibited. Exceptions shall be made under the following circumstances:

(1) In the event of an emergency repair that affects a lead service line or a suspected lead service line, a community water supply must contact the building owner to begin the process of replacing the entire service line. If the building owner is not able to be contacted or the building owner or occupant refuses to grant access and permission to replace the entire service line at the time of the emergency repair, then the community water supply may perform a partial lead service line replacement. Where an emergency repair on a service line constructed of lead or galvanized steel pipe results in a partial service line replacement, the water supply responsible for commencing the repair shall perform the following:

(A) Notify the building's owner or operator and the resident or residents served by the lead service line in writing that a repair has been completed. The notification shall include, at a minimum:

(i) a warning that the work may result in sediment, possibly containing lead, in the buildings water supply system;

(ii) information concerning practices for preventing the consumption of any lead in drinking water, including a recommendation to flush water distribution pipe during and after the completion of the repair or replacement work and to clean faucet aerator screens; and

(iii) information regarding the dangers of lead to young children and pregnant women.

(B) Provide filters for at least one fixture supplying potable water for consumption. The filter must be certified by an accredited third-party certification body to NSF/ANSI 53 and NSF/ANSI 42 for the reduction of lead and particulate. The filter must be provided until such time that the remaining portions of the service line have been replaced with a material approved by the Department or a waiver has been issued under subsection (ii).

(C) Replace the remaining portion of the lead service line within 30 days of the repair, or 120 days in the event of weather or other circumstances beyond reasonable control that prohibits construction. If a complete lead service line replacement cannot be made within the required period, the community water supply responsible for commencing the repair shall notify the Department in writing, at a minimum, of the following within 24 hours of the repair:

(i) an explanation of why it is not feasible to replace the remaining portion of the lead service line within the allotted time; and

(ii) a timeline for when the remaining portion of the lead service line will be replaced.

(D) If complete repair of a lead service line cannot be completed due to denial by the property owner, the community water supply commencing the repair shall request the affected property owner to sign a waiver developed by the Department. If a property owner of a nonresidential building or residence operating as rental properties denies a complete lead service line replacement, the property owner shall be responsible for installing and maintaining point-of-use filters certified by an accredited third-party certification body to NSF/ANSI 53 and NSF/ANSI 42 for the reduction of lead and particulate at all fixtures intended to supply water for the purposes of drinking, food preparation, or making baby formula. The filters shall continue to be supplied by the property owner until such time that the property owner has affected the remaining portions of the lead service line to be replaced.

(E) Document any remaining lead service line, including a portion on the private side of the property, in the community water supply's distribution system materials inventory required under subsection (d).

For the purposes of this paragraph (1), written notice shall be provided in the method and according to the provisions of subsection (jj).

(2) Lead service lines that are physically disconnected from the distribution system are exempt from this subsection.

(gg) Except as provided in subsection (hh), on and after January 1, 2022, when the owner or operator of a community water supply replaces a water main, the community water supply shall identify all lead service lines connected to the water main and shall replace the lead service lines by:

(1) identifying the material or materials of each lead service line connected to the water main, including, but not limited to, any portion of the service line (i) running on private property and (ii) within the building plumbing at the first shut-off valve or 18 inches inside the building, whichever is shorter;

(2) in conjunction with replacement of the water main, replacing any and all portions of each lead service line connected to the water main that are composed of lead; and

(3) if a property owner or customer refuses to grant access to the property, following prescribed notice provisions as outlined in subsection (ff).

If an owner of a potentially affected building intends to replace a portion of a lead service line or a galvanized service line and the galvanized service line is or was connected downstream to lead piping, then the owner of the potentially affected building shall provide the owner or operator of the community water supply with notice at least 45 days before commencing the work. In the case of an emergency repair, the owner of the potentially affected building must provide filters for each kitchen area that are certified by an accredited third-party certification body to NSF/ANSI 53 and NSF/ANSI 42 for the reduction of lead and particulate. If the owner of the potentially affected building notifies the owner or operator of the community water supply that replacement of a portion of the lead service line after the emergency repair is completed, then the owner or operator of the community water supply shall replace the remainder of the lead service line within 30 days after completion of the emergency repair. A community water supply may take up to 120 days if necessary due to weather conditions. If a replacement takes longer than 30 days, filters provided by the owner of the potentially affected building must be replaced in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations. Partial lead service line replacements by the owners of potentially affected buildings are otherwise prohibited.

(hh) For municipalities with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants, the requirements of subsection (gg) shall commence on January 1, 2023.

(ii) At least 45 days before conducting planned lead service line replacement, the owner or operator of a community water supply shall, by mail, attempt to contact the owner of the potentially affected building serviced by the lead service line to request access to the building and permission to replace the lead service line in accordance with the lead service line replacement plan. If the owner of the potentially affected building does not respond to the request within 15 days after the request is sent, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall attempt to post the request on the entrance of the potentially affected building.

If the owner or operator of a community water supply is unable to obtain approval to access and replace a lead service line, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall request that the owner of the potentially affected building sign a waiver. The waiver shall be developed by the Department and should be made available in the owner's language. If the owner of the potentially affected building refuses to sign the waiver or fails to respond to the community water supply after the community water supply has complied with this subsection, then the community water supply shall notify the Department in writing within 15 working days.

(jj) When replacing a lead service line or repairing or replacing water mains with lead service lines or partial lead service lines attached to them, the owner or operator of a community water supply shall provide the owner of each potentially affected building that is serviced by the affected lead service lines or partial lead service lines, as well as the occupants of those buildings, with an individual written notice. The notice shall be delivered by mail or posted at the primary entranceway of the building. The notice may, in addition, be electronically mailed. Written notice shall include, at a minimum, the following:

(1) a warning that the work may result in sediment, possibly containing lead from the service line, in the building's water;

(2) information concerning the best practices for preventing exposure to or risk of consumption of lead in drinking water, including a recommendation to flush water lines during and after the completion of the repair or replacement work and to clean faucet aerator screens; and

(3) information regarding the dangers of lead exposure to young children and pregnant women.

When the individual written notice described in the first paragraph of this subsection is required as a result of planned work other than the repair or replacement of a water meter, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall provide the notice not less than 14 days before work begins. When the individual written notice described in the first paragraph of this subsection is required as a result of emergency repairs other than the repair or replacement of a water meter, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall provide the notice at the time the work is initiated. When the individual written notice described in the first paragraph of this subsection is required as a result of the repair or replacement of a water meter, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall provide the notice at the time the work is initiated.

The notifications required under this subsection must contain the following statement in Spanish, Polish, Chinese, Tagalog, Arabic, Korean, German, Urdu, and Gujarati: "This notice contains important information about your water service and may affect your rights. We encourage you to have this notice translated in full into a language you understand and before you make any decisions that may be required under this notice."

An owner or operator of a community water supply that is required under this subsection to provide an individual written notice to the owner and occupant of a potentially affected building that is a multi-dwelling building may satisfy that requirement and the requirements of this subsection regarding notification to non-English speaking customers by posting the required notice on the primary entranceway of the building and at the location where the occupant's mail is delivered as reasonably as possible.

When this subsection would require the owner or operator of a community water supply to provide an individual written notice to the entire community served by the community water supply or would require the owner or operator of a community water supply to provide individual written notices as a result of emergency repairs or when the community water supply that is required to comply with this subsection is a small system, the owner or operator of the community water supply may provide the required notice through local media outlets, social media, or other similar means in lieu of providing the individual written notices otherwise required under this subsection.

No notifications are required under this subsection for work performed on water mains that are used to transmit treated water between community water supplies and properties that have no service connections.

(kk) No community water supply that sells water to any wholesale or retail consecutive community water supply may pass on any costs associated with compliance with this Section to consecutive systems.

(ll) To the extent allowed by law, when a community water supply replaces or installs a lead service line in a public right-of-way or enters into an agreement with a private contractor for replacement or installation of a lead service line, the community water supply shall be held harmless for all damage to property when replacing or installing the lead service line. If dangers are encountered that prevent the replacement of the lead service line, the community water supply shall notify the Department within 15 working days of why the replacement of the lead service line could not be accomplished.

(mm) The Agency may propose to the Board, and the Board may adopt, any rules necessary to implement and administer this Section. The Department may adopt rules necessary to address lead service lines attached to non-community water supplies.

(nn) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, no requirement in this Section shall be construed as being less stringent than existing applicable federal requirements.

(oo) All lead service line replacements financed in whole or in part with funds obtained under this Section shall be considered public works for purposes of the Prevailing Wage Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-613, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

Section 255. The Lawn Care Products Application and Notice Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3, and 6 as follows:

(415 ILCS 65/2) (from Ch. 5, par. 852)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

For purposes of this Act:

"Application" means the spreading of lawn care products on a lawn.

"Applicator for hire" means any person who makes an application of lawn care products to a lawn or lawns for compensation, including applications made by an employee to lawns owned, occupied or managed by his employer and includes those licensed by the Department as licensed commercial applicators, commercial not-for-hire applicators, licensed public applicators, certified applicators and licensed operators and those otherwise subject to the licensure provisions of the Illinois Pesticide Act, as now or hereafter amended.

"Buffer" means an area adjacent to a body of water that is left untreated with any fertilizer.

"Child Day care center" means any facility that qualifies as a "child day care center" under the Child Care Act of 1969.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Agriculture.

"Department of Public Health" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Facility" means a building or structure and appurtenances thereto used by an applicator for hire for storage and handling of pesticides or the storage or maintenance of pesticide application equipment or vehicles.

"Fertilizer" means any substance containing nitrogen, phosphorus or potassium or other recognized plant nutrient or compound, which is used for its plant nutrient content.

"Golf course" means an area designated for the play or practice of the game of golf, including surrounding grounds, trees, ornamental beds and the like.

"Golf course superintendent" means any person entrusted with and employed for the care and maintenance of a golf course.

"Impervious surface" means any structure, surface, or improvement that reduces or prevents absorption of stormwater into land, and includes pavement, porous paving, paver blocks, gravel, crushed stone, decks, patios, elevated structures, and other similar structures, surfaces, or improvements.

"Lawn" means land area covered with turf kept closely mown or land area covered with turf and trees or shrubs. The term does not include (1) land area used for research for agricultural production or for the commercial production of turf, (2) land area situated within a public or private right-of-way, or (3) land area which is devoted to the production of any agricultural commodity, including, but not limited to plants and plant parts, livestock and poultry and livestock or poultry products, seeds, sod, shrubs and other products of agricultural origin raised for sale or for human or livestock consumption.

"Lawn care products" means fertilizers or pesticides applied or intended for application to lawns.

"Lawn repair products" means seeds, including seeding soils, that contain or are coated with or encased in fertilizer material.

"Person" means any individual, partnership, association, corporation or State governmental agency, school district, unit of local government and any agency thereof.

"Pesticide" means any substance or mixture of substances defined as a pesticide under the Illinois Pesticide Act, as now or hereafter amended.

"Plant protectants" means any substance or material used to protect plants from infestation of insects, fungi, weeds and rodents, or any other substance that would benefit the overall health of plants.

"Soil test" means a chemical and mechanical analysis of soil nutrient values and pH level as it relates to the soil and development of a lawn.

"Spreader" means any commercially available fertilizing device used to evenly distribute fertilizer material.

"Turf" means the upper stratum of soils bound by grass and plant roots into a thick mat.

"0% phosphate fertilizer" means a fertilizer that contains no more than 0.67% available phosphoric acid (P₂O₅).

(Source: P.A. 96-424, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1005, eff. 7-6-10.)

(415 ILCS 65/3) (from Ch. 5, par. 853)

Sec. 3. Notification requirements for application of lawn care products.

(a) Lawn Markers.

(1) Immediately following application of lawn care products to a lawn, other than a golf course, an applicator for hire shall place a lawn marker at the usual point or points of entry.

(2) The lawn marker shall consist of a 4 inch by 5 inch sign, vertical or horizontal, attached to the upper portion of a dowel or other supporting device with the bottom of the marker extending no less than 12 inches above the turf.

(3) The lawn marker shall be white and lettering on the lawn marker shall be in a contrasting color. The marker shall state on one side, in letters of not less than 3/8 inch, the following: "LAWN CARE APPLICATION - STAY OFF GRASS UNTIL DRY - FOR MORE INFORMATION CONTACT: (here shall be inserted the name and business telephone number of the applicator for hire)."

(4) The lawn marker shall be removed and discarded by the property owner or resident, or such other person authorized by the property owner or resident, on the day following the application. The lawn marker shall not be removed by any person other than the property owner or resident or person designated by such property owner or resident.

(5) For applications to residential properties of 2 families or less, the applicator for hire shall be required to place lawn markers at the usual point or points of entry.

(6) For applications to residential properties of 2 families or more, or for application to other commercial properties, the applicator for hire shall place lawn markers at the usual point or points of entry to the property to provide notice that lawn care products have been applied to the lawn.

(b) Notification requirement for application of plant protectants on golf courses.

(1) Blanket posting procedure. Each golf course shall post in a conspicuous place or places an all-weather poster or placard stating to users of or visitors to the golf course that from time to time plant protectants are in use and additionally stating that if any questions or concerns arise in relation thereto, the golf course superintendent or his designee should be contacted to supply the information contained in subsection (c) of this Section.

(2) The poster or placard shall be prominently displayed in the pro shop, locker rooms and first tee at each golf course.

(3) The poster or placard shall be a minimum size of 8 1/2 by 11 inches and the lettering shall not be less than 1/2 inch.

(4) The poster or placard shall read: "PLANT PROTECTANTS ARE PERIODICALLY APPLIED TO THIS GOLF COURSE. IF DESIRED, YOU MAY CONTACT YOUR GOLF COURSE SUPERINTENDENT FOR FURTHER INFORMATION."

(c) Information to Customers of Applicators for Hire. At the time of application of lawn care products to a lawn, an applicator for hire shall provide the following information to the customer:

(1) The brand name, common name, and scientific name of each lawn care product applied;

(2) The type of fertilizer or pesticide contained in the lawn care product applied;

(3) The reason for use of each lawn care product applied;

(4) The range of concentration of end use product applied to the lawn and amount of material applied;

(5) Any special instruction appearing on the label of the lawn care product applicable to the customer's use of the lawn following application;

(6) The business name and telephone number of the applicator for hire as well as the name of the person actually applying lawn care products to the lawn; and

(7) Upon the request of a customer or any person whose property abuts or is adjacent to the property of a customer of an applicator for hire, a copy of the material safety data sheet and approved pesticide registration label for each applied lawn care product.

(d) Prior notification of application to lawn. In the case of all lawns other than golf courses:

(1) Any neighbor whose property abuts or is adjacent to the property of a customer of an applicator for hire may receive prior notification of an application by contacting the applicator for hire and providing his name, address and telephone number.

(2) At least the day before a scheduled application, an applicator for hire shall provide notification to a person who has requested notification pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), such notification to be made in writing, in person or by telephone, disclosing the date and approximate time of day of application.

(3) In the event that an applicator for hire is unable to provide prior notification to a neighbor whose property abuts or is adjacent to the property because of the absence or inaccessibility of the individual, at the time of application to a customer's lawn, the applicator for hire shall leave a written notice at the residence of the person requesting notification, which shall provide the information specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d).

(e) Prior notification of application to golf courses.

(1) Any landlord or resident with property that abuts or is adjacent to a golf course may receive prior notification of an application of lawn care products or plant protectants, or both, by contacting the golf course superintendent and providing his name, address and telephone number.

(2) At least the day before a scheduled application of lawn care products or plant protectants, or both, the golf course superintendent shall provide notification to any person who has requested notification pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection (e), such notification to be made in writing, in person or by telephone, disclosing the date and approximate time of day of application.

(3) In the event that the golf course superintendent is unable to provide prior notification to a landlord or resident because of the absence or inaccessibility, at the time of application, of the landlord or resident, the golf course superintendent shall leave a written notice with the landlord or at the residence which shall provide the information specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (e).

(f) Notification for applications of pesticides to child day care center grounds other than child day care center structures and school grounds other than school structures.

(1) The owner or operator of a child day care center must either (i) maintain a registry of parents and guardians of children in his or her care who have registered to receive written notification before the application of pesticide to child day care center grounds and notify persons on that registry before applying pesticides or having pesticide applied to child day care center grounds or (ii) provide written or telephonic notice to all parents and guardians of children in his or her care before applying pesticide or having pesticide applied to child day care center grounds.

(2) School districts must either (i) maintain a registry of parents and guardians of students who have registered to receive written or telephonic notification before the application of pesticide to school grounds and notify persons on that list before applying pesticide or having pesticide applied to school grounds or (ii) provide written or telephonic notification to all parents and guardians of students before applying pesticide or having pesticide applied to school grounds.

(3) Written notification required under item (1) or (2) of subsection (f) of this Section may be included in newsletters, calendars, or other correspondence currently published by the school district, but posting on a bulletin board is not sufficient. The written or telephonic notification must be given at least 4 business days before application of the pesticide and should identify the intended date of the application of the pesticide and the name and telephone contact number for the school personnel responsible for the pesticide application program or, in the case of a child day care center, the owner or operator of the child day care center. Prior notice shall not be required if there is imminent threat to health or property. If such a situation arises, the appropriate school personnel or, in the case of a child day care center, the owner or operator of the child day care center must sign a statement describing the circumstances that gave rise to the health threat and ensure that written or telephonic notice is provided as soon as practicable.

(Source: P.A. 96-424, eff. 8-13-09.)

(415 ILCS 65/6) (from Ch. 5, par. 856)

Sec. 6. This Act shall be administered and enforced by the Department. The Department may promulgate rules and regulations as necessary for the enforcement of this Act. The Department of Public Health must inform school boards and the owners and operators of child day care centers about the provisions of this Act that are applicable to school districts and child day care centers, and it must inform school boards about the requirements contained in Sections 10-20.49 and 34-18.40 of the School Code. The Department of Public Health must recommend that child day care centers and schools use a pesticide-free turf care program to maintain their turf. The Department of Public Health must also report violations of this Act of which it becomes aware to the Department for enforcement.

(Source: P.A. 96-424, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

Section 260. The Furniture Fire Safety Act is amended by changing Section 1002 as follows:

(425 ILCS 45/1002) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 951-2)

Sec. 1002. As used in this Act:

(a) "Sell" or any of its variants means and includes any of or any combination of the following: to sell, offer or expose for sale, barter, trade, deliver, give away, rent, consign, lease, or possess with an intent to sell or dispose of in any other commercial manner.

(b) "Seating furniture" means any furniture, including children's furniture, movable or stationery, which (1) is made of or with cushions or pillows, loose or attached, (2) is itself stuffed or filled in whole or in part with any filling material, (3) is or can be stuffed or filled in whole or in part with any substance or material, hidden or concealed by fabric or any other covering, including cushions or pillows belonging to or forming a part thereof, together with the structural units, the filling material and its container and covering which can be used as a support for the body of a human being, or the limbs and feet when sitting or resting in an upright or reclining position.

(c) "Filling material" means cotton, wool, kapok, feathers, down, hair, liquid, or any other material or substance, natural or man-made, or any other prefabricated form, concealed or not concealed, to be used or that could be used in articles of seating furniture.

(d) "Manufacturer" means a person who, either by himself or through employees or agents, makes any article of seating furniture in whole or in part.

(e) "Public occupancies" means:

(1) Jails, prisons, and penal institutions;

(2) Hospitals, mental health facilities, and similar health care facilities;

(3) Nursing care and convalescent homes;

(4) Child day care centers;

(5) Public auditoriums and stadiums; and

(6) Public assembly areas of hotels and motels containing more than 10 articles of seating furniture.

(Source: P.A. 86-631.)

Section 265. The Space Heating Safety Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(425 ILCS 65/9) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 709)

Sec. 9. Prohibited use of kerosene heaters. The use of kerosene fueled heaters will be prohibited under any circumstances in the following types of structures:

(i) nursing homes or convalescent centers;

(ii) child care day-care centers having children present;

(iii) any type of center for persons with disabilities;

(iv) common areas of multifamily dwellings;

(v) hospitals;

(vi) structures more than 3 stories in height; and

(vii) structures open to the public which have a capacity for 50 or more persons.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

Section 270. The Firearm Dealer License Certification Act is amended by changing Section 5-20 as follows:

(430 ILCS 68/5-20)

Sec. 5-20. Additional licensee requirements.

(a) A certified licensee shall make a photo copy of a buyer's or transferee's valid photo identification card whenever a firearm sale transaction takes place. The photo copy shall be attached to the documentation detailing the record of sale.

(b) A certified licensee shall post in a conspicuous position on the premises where the licensee conducts business a sign that contains the following warning in block letters not less than one inch in height:

"With few exceptions enumerated in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, it is unlawful for you to:

(A) store or leave an unsecured firearm in a place where a child can obtain access to it;

(B) sell or transfer your firearm to someone else without receiving approval for the transfer from the Illinois State Police, or

(C) fail to report the loss or theft of your firearm to local law enforcement within 72 hours.". This sign shall be created by the Illinois State Police and made available for printing or downloading from the Illinois State Police's website.

(c) No retail location established after the effective date of this Act shall be located within 500 feet of any school, pre-school, or child day care facility in existence at its location before the retail location is established as measured from the nearest corner of the building holding the retail location to the corner of the school, pre-school, or child day care facility building nearest the retail location at the time the retail location seeks licensure.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

Section 275. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 6-205, 6-206, and 12-707.01 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/6-205)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 6-205. Mandatory revocation of license or permit; hardship cases.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately revoke the license, permit, or driving privileges of any driver upon receiving a report of the driver's conviction of any of the following offenses:

1. Reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle;

2. Violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof;

3. Any felony under the laws of any State or the federal government in the commission of which a motor vehicle was used;

4. Violation of Section 11-401 of this Code relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a traffic accident involving death or personal injury;

5. Perjury or the making of a false affidavit or statement under oath to the Secretary of State under this Code or under any other law relating to the ownership or operation of motor vehicles;

6. Conviction upon 3 charges of violation of Section 11-503 of this Code relating to the offense of reckless driving committed within a period of 12 months;

7. Conviction of any offense defined in Section 4-102 of this Code if the person exercised actual physical control over the vehicle during the commission of the offense;

8. Violation of Section 11-504 of this Code relating to the offense of drag racing;

9. Violation of Chapters 8 and 9 of this Code;

10. Violation of Section 12-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 arising from the use of a motor vehicle;

11. Violation of Section 11-204.1 of this Code relating to aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer;

12. Violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 6-507, or a similar law of any other state, relating to the unlawful operation of a commercial motor vehicle;

13. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the driver has been previously convicted of a violation of that Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the driver was less than 21 years of age at the time of the offense;

14. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-506 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of street racing;

15. A second or subsequent conviction of driving while the person's driver's license, permit or privileges was revoked for reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense;

16. Any offense against any provision in this Code, or any local ordinance, regulating the movement of traffic when that offense was the proximate cause of the death of any person. Any person whose driving privileges have been revoked pursuant to this paragraph may seek to have the revocation terminated or to have the length of revocation reduced by requesting an administrative hearing with the Secretary of State prior to the projected driver's license application eligibility date;

17. Violation of subsection (a-2) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

18. A second or subsequent conviction of illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. A defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

19. Violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-1414 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, relating to the offense of overtaking or passing of a school bus when the driver, in committing the violation, is involved in a motor vehicle accident that results in death to another and the violation is a proximate cause of the death.

(b) The Secretary of State shall also immediately revoke the license or permit of any driver in the following situations:

1. Of any minor upon receiving the notice provided for in Section 5-901 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 that the minor has been adjudicated under that Act as having committed an offense relating to motor vehicles prescribed in Section 4-103 of this Code;

2. Of any person when any other law of this State requires either the revocation or suspension of a license or permit;

3. Of any person adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based on an offense determined to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The revocation shall remain in effect for the period determined by the court.

(c)(1) Whenever a person is convicted of any of the offenses enumerated in this Section, the court may recommend and the Secretary of State in his discretion, without regard to whether the recommendation is made by the court may, upon application, issue to the person a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility for the receipt of necessary medical care or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or persons with disabilities who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from child care daycare; if the petitioner is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship, as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would result from a failure to issue the restricted driving permit.

(1.5) A person subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code may make application for a restricted driving permit at a hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code after the expiration of 5 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation, or after 5 years from the date of release from a period of imprisonment resulting from a conviction of the most recent offense, whichever is later, provided the person, in addition to all other requirements of the Secretary, shows by clear and convincing evidence:

(A) a minimum of 3 years of uninterrupted abstinence from alcohol and the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis under the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound under the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and

(B) the successful completion of any rehabilitative treatment and involvement in any ongoing rehabilitative activity that may be recommended by a properly licensed service provider according to an assessment of the person's alcohol or drug use under Section 11-501.01 of this Code.

In determining whether an applicant is eligible for a restricted driving permit under this paragraph (1.5), the Secretary may consider any relevant evidence, including, but not limited to, testimony, affidavits, records, and the results of regular alcohol or drug tests. Persons subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code and who have been convicted of more than one violation of paragraph (3), paragraph (4), or paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of this Code shall not be eligible to apply for a restricted driving permit.

A restricted driving permit issued under this paragraph (1.5) shall provide that the holder may only operate motor vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as required under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section and subparagraph (A) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of Section 6-206 of this Code. The Secretary may revoke a restricted driving permit or amend the conditions of a restricted driving permit issued under this paragraph (1.5) if the holder operates a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device, or for any other reason authorized under this Code.

A restricted driving permit issued under this paragraph (1.5) shall be revoked, and the holder barred from applying for or being issued a restricted driving permit in the future, if the holder is subsequently convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar offense in another state.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If:

(A) a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; or

(B) a person has been convicted of one violation of subparagraph (C) or (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide where the use of alcohol or other drugs was recited as an element of the offense, or a similar provision of a law of another state; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned on the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes. For any person who, within a 5-year period, is convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, this employment exemption does not apply until either a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had his or her driving privileges revoked or a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had a restricted driving permit which required the use of an ignition interlock device on every motor vehicle owned or operated by that person.

(6) In each case the Secretary of State may issue a restricted driving permit for a period he deems appropriate, except that the permit shall expire no later than 2 years from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the petitioner to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program. However, if an individual's driving privileges have been revoked in accordance with paragraph 13 of subsection (a) of this Section, no restricted driving permit shall be issued until the individual has served 6 months of the revocation period.

(c-5) (Blank).

(c-6) If a person is convicted of a second violation of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked, where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the person's driving privileges shall be revoked pursuant to subdivision (a)(15) of this Section. The person may not make application for a license or permit until the expiration of five years from the effective date of the revocation or the expiration of five years from the date of release from a term of imprisonment, whichever is later.

(c-7) If a person is convicted of a third or subsequent violation of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked, where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the person may never apply for a license or permit.

(d)(1) Whenever a person under the age of 21 is convicted under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of that person. One year after the date of revocation, and upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle only between the hours of 5 a.m. and 9 p.m. or as otherwise provided by this Section for a period of one year. After this one-year period, and upon reapplication for a license as provided in Section 6-106, upon payment of the appropriate reinstatement fee provided under paragraph (b) of Section 6-118, the Secretary of State, in his discretion, may reinstate the petitioner's driver's license and driving privileges, or extend the restricted driving permit as many times as the Secretary of State deems appropriate, by additional periods of not more than 24 months each.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times due to any combination of:

(A) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(B) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(C) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1; arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3.5) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to a conviction for a violation of subparagraph (C) or (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against driving a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes. For any person who, within a 5-year period, is convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, this employment exemption does not apply until either a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had his or her driving privileges revoked or a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had a restricted driving permit which required the use of an ignition interlock device on every motor vehicle owned or operated by that person.

(6) A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit.

(d-5) The revocation of the license, permit, or driving privileges of a person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state, is permanent. The Secretary may not, at any time, issue a license or permit to that person.

(e) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Driver License Compact.

(f) Any revocation imposed upon any person under subsections 2 and 3 of paragraph (b) that is in effect on December 31, 1988 shall be converted to a suspension for a like period of time.

(g) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(h) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices for a period not less than 5 years on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. During the time period in which a person is required to install an ignition interlock device under this subsection (h), that person shall only operate vehicles in which ignition interlock devices have been installed, except as allowed by subdivision (c)(5) or (d)(5) of this Section. Regardless of whether an exemption under subdivision (c) (5) or (d) (5) applies, every person subject to this subsection shall not be eligible for reinstatement until the person installs an ignition interlock device and maintains the ignition interlock device for 5 years.

(i) (Blank).

(j) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked, suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(k) The Secretary of State shall notify by mail any person whose driving privileges have been revoked under paragraph 16 of subsection (a) of this Section that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be revoked 90 days from the date of the mailing of the notice.

(Source: P.A. 101-623, eff. 7-1-20; 102-299, eff. 8-6-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 6-205. Mandatory revocation of license or permit; hardship cases.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately revoke the license, permit, or driving privileges of any driver upon receiving a report of the driver's conviction of any of the following offenses:

1. Reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle;

2. Violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof;

3. Any felony under the laws of any State or the federal government in the commission of which a motor vehicle was used;

4. Violation of Section 11-401 of this Code relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a traffic crash involving death or personal injury;

5. Perjury or the making of a false affidavit or statement under oath to the Secretary of State under this Code or under any other law relating to the ownership or operation of motor vehicles;

6. Conviction upon 3 charges of violation of Section 11-503 of this Code relating to the offense of reckless driving committed within a period of 12 months;

7. Conviction of any offense defined in Section 4-102 of this Code if the person exercised actual physical control over the vehicle during the commission of the offense;

8. Violation of Section 11-504 of this Code relating to the offense of drag racing;

9. Violation of Chapters 8 and 9 of this Code;

10. Violation of Section 12-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 arising from the use of a motor vehicle;

11. Violation of Section 11-204.1 of this Code relating to aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer;

12. Violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 6-507, or a similar law of any other state, relating to the unlawful operation of a commercial motor vehicle;

13. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the driver has been previously convicted of a violation of that Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the driver was less than 21 years of age at the time of the offense;

14. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-506 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of street racing;

15. A second or subsequent conviction of driving while the person's driver's license, permit or privileges was revoked for reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense;

16. Any offense against any provision in this Code, or any local ordinance, regulating the movement of traffic when that offense was the proximate cause of the death of any person. Any person whose driving privileges have been revoked pursuant to this paragraph may seek to have the revocation terminated or to have the length of revocation reduced by requesting an administrative hearing with the Secretary of State prior to the projected driver's license application eligibility date;

17. Violation of subsection (a-2) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

18. A second or subsequent conviction of illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. A defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

19. Violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-1414 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, relating to the offense of overtaking or passing of a school bus when the driver, in committing the violation, is involved in a motor vehicle crash that results in death to another and the violation is a proximate cause of the death.

(b) The Secretary of State shall also immediately revoke the license or permit of any driver in the following situations:

1. Of any minor upon receiving the notice provided for in Section 5-901 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 that the minor has been adjudicated under that Act as having committed an offense relating to motor vehicles prescribed in Section 4-103 of this Code;

2. Of any person when any other law of this State requires either the revocation or suspension of a license or permit;

3. Of any person adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based on an offense determined to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The revocation shall remain in effect for the period determined by the court.

(c)(1) Whenever a person is convicted of any of the offenses enumerated in this Section, the court may recommend and the Secretary of State in his discretion, without regard to whether the recommendation is made by the court may, upon application, issue to the person a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility for the receipt of necessary medical care or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or persons with disabilities who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from child care daycare; if the petitioner is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship, as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would result from a failure to issue the restricted driving permit.

(1.5) A person subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code may make application for a restricted driving permit at a hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code after the expiration of 5 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation, or after 5 years from the date of release from a period of imprisonment resulting from a conviction of the most recent offense, whichever is later, provided the person, in addition to all other requirements of the Secretary, shows by clear and convincing evidence:

(A) a minimum of 3 years of uninterrupted abstinence from alcohol and the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis under the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound under the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and

(B) the successful completion of any rehabilitative treatment and involvement in any ongoing rehabilitative activity that may be recommended by a properly licensed service provider according to an assessment of the person's alcohol or drug use under Section 11-501.01 of this Code.

In determining whether an applicant is eligible for a restricted driving permit under this paragraph (1.5), the Secretary may consider any relevant evidence, including, but not limited to, testimony, affidavits, records, and the results of regular alcohol or drug tests. Persons subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code and who have been convicted of more than one violation of paragraph (3), paragraph (4), or paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of this Code shall not be eligible to apply for a restricted driving permit.

A restricted driving permit issued under this paragraph (1.5) shall provide that the holder may only operate motor vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as required under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section and subparagraph (A) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of Section 6-206 of this Code. The Secretary may revoke a restricted driving permit or amend the conditions of a restricted driving permit issued under this paragraph (1.5) if the holder operates a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device, or for any other reason authorized under this Code.

A restricted driving permit issued under this paragraph (1.5) shall be revoked, and the holder barred from applying for or being issued a restricted driving permit in the future, if the holder is subsequently convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar offense in another state.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If:

(A) a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; or

(B) a person has been convicted of one violation of subparagraph (C) or (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide where the use of alcohol or other drugs was recited as an element of the offense, or a similar provision of a law of another state; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned on the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes. For any person who, within a 5-year period, is convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, this employment exemption does not apply until either a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had his or her driving privileges revoked or a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had a restricted driving permit which required the use of an ignition interlock device on every motor vehicle owned or operated by that person.

(6) In each case the Secretary of State may issue a restricted driving permit for a period he deems appropriate, except that the permit shall expire no later than 2 years from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the petitioner to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program. However, if an individual's driving privileges have been revoked in accordance with paragraph 13 of subsection (a) of this Section, no restricted driving permit shall be issued until the individual has served 6 months of the revocation period.

(c-5) (Blank).

(c-6) If a person is convicted of a second violation of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked, where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the person's driving privileges shall be revoked pursuant to subdivision (a)(15) of this Section. The person may not make application for a license or permit until the expiration of five years from the effective date of the revocation or the expiration of five years from the date of release from a term of imprisonment, whichever is later.

(c-7) If a person is convicted of a third or subsequent violation of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked, where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the person may never apply for a license or permit.

(d)(1) Whenever a person under the age of 21 is convicted under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of that person. One year after the date of revocation, and upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle only between the hours of 5 a.m. and 9 p.m. or as otherwise provided by this Section for a period of one year. After this one-year period, and upon reapplication for a license as provided in Section 6-106, upon payment of the appropriate reinstatement fee provided under paragraph (b) of Section 6-118, the Secretary of State, in his discretion, may reinstate the petitioner's driver's license and driving privileges, or extend the restricted driving permit as many times as the Secretary of State deems appropriate, by additional periods of not more than 24 months each.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times due to any combination of:

(A) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(B) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(C) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1; arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3.5) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to a conviction for a violation of subparagraph (C) or (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against driving a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes. For any person who, within a 5-year period, is convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, this employment exemption does not apply until either a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had his or her driving privileges revoked or a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had a restricted driving permit which required the use of an ignition interlock device on every motor vehicle owned or operated by that person.

(6) A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit.

(d-5) The revocation of the license, permit, or driving privileges of a person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state, is permanent. The Secretary may not, at any time, issue a license or permit to that person.

(e) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Driver License Compact.

(f) Any revocation imposed upon any person under subsections 2 and 3 of paragraph (b) that is in effect on December 31, 1988 shall be converted to a suspension for a like period of time.

(g) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(h) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices for a period not less than 5 years on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. During the time period in which a person is required to install an ignition interlock device under this subsection (h), that person shall only operate vehicles in which ignition interlock devices have been installed, except as allowed by subdivision (c)(5) or (d)(5) of this Section. Regardless of whether an exemption under subdivision (c) (5) or (d) (5) applies, every person subject to this subsection shall not be eligible for reinstatement until the person installs an ignition interlock device and maintains the ignition interlock device for 5 years.

(i) (Blank).

(j) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked, suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(k) The Secretary of State shall notify by mail any person whose driving privileges have been revoked under paragraph 16 of subsection (a) of this Section that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be revoked 90 days from the date of the mailing of the notice.

(Source: P.A. 101-623, eff. 7-1-20; 102-299, eff. 8-6-21; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke license or permit; right to a hearing.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other sufficient evidence that the person:

1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon conviction;

2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 12-month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle caused or contributed to an accident resulting in injury requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this subsection shall start no later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which violation is related to the accident, or shall start not more than one year after the date of the accident, whichever date occurs later;

5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a driver's license, identification card, or permit;

6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or offenses in another state, including the authorization contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;

7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the examination;

8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under the provisions of Section 6-103;

9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact or has used false information or identification in any application for a license, identification card, or permit;

10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to fraudulently use any license, identification card, or permit not issued to the person;

11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or suspended unless the operation was authorized by a monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to drive, or restricted driving permit issued under this Code;

12. Has submitted to any portion of the application process for another person or has obtained the services of another person to submit to any portion of the application process for the purpose of obtaining a license, identification card, or permit for some other person;

13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driver's license or permit was invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;

14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301, 6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Code, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B of the Illinois Identification Card Act or a similar offense in another state if, at the time of the offense, the person held an Illinois driver's license or identification card;

15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to criminal trespass to vehicles if the person exercised actual physical control over the vehicle during the commission of the offense, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;

17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section 11-501.1;

18. (Blank);

19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's license;

20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104 relating to classification of driver's license;

21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of this Code relating to leaving the scene of an accident resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph (3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code for a second or subsequent time within one year of a similar violation;

24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the United States at a military installation in Illinois or in another state of or for a traffic-related offense that is the same as or similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or 6-206 of this Code;

25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used by another in the application process in order to obtain or attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or permit;

26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has possessed an altered license, identification card, or permit;

27. (Blank);

28. Has been convicted for a first time of the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year. Any defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that were committed while the person was operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and the manufacture, sale or delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;

30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of this subsection, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;

31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by Section 11-501.6 of this Code or Section 5-16c of the Boat Registration and Safety Act or has submitted to a test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;

32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3 years;

33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 24-month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the property of another or the death or injury of another;

38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the person was an occupant of a motor vehicle at the time of the violation;

39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-908 of this Code;

41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-605.1 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar violation in any other state within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;

42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the person was an occupant of a motor vehicle at the time of the violation, in which case the suspension shall be for a period of 3 months;

44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles after having previously had his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this Section;

45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code: (i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for another person;

46. Has committed a violation of subsection (j) of Section 3-413 of this Code;

47. Has committed a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-502.1 of this Code;

48. Has submitted a falsified or altered medical examiner's certificate to the Secretary of State or provided false information to obtain a medical examiner's certificate;

49. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 11-1002 or 11-1002.5 that resulted in a Type A injury to another, in which case the driving privileges of the person shall be suspended for 12 months;

50. Has committed a violation of subsection (b-5) of Section 12-610.2 that resulted in great bodily harm, permanent disability, or disfigurement, in which case the driving privileges of the person shall be suspended for 12 months;

51. Has committed a violation of Section 10-15 Of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance while in a motor vehicle; or

52. Has committed a violation of subsection (b) of Section 10-20 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26, and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license, any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license, a probationary driver's license, or a temporary driver's license.

(b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6-month limitation prescribed shall not apply.

(c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the last known address of the person.

2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a permit issued prior to the effective date of the suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit shall also state the number of offenses committed while operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section. If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the remainder of the suspension period.

The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of operating a commercial motor vehicle.

Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section 6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving privileges revoked without further rights.

3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor, rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment-related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself, or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or persons with disabilities who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from child care or adult day care daycare. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare.

(A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B-5) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to a conviction for a violation of subparagraph (C) or (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes. For any person who, within a 5-year period, is convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, this employment exemption does not apply until either a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had his or her driving privileges revoked or a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had a restricted driving permit which required the use of an ignition interlock device on every motor vehicle owned or operated by that person.

(E) In each case the Secretary may issue a restricted driving permit for a period deemed appropriate, except that all permits shall expire no later than 2 years from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program.

(F) A person subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code may make application for a restricted driving permit at a hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code after the expiration of 5 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation or after 5 years from the date of release from a period of imprisonment resulting from a conviction of the most recent offense, whichever is later, provided the person, in addition to all other requirements of the Secretary, shows by clear and convincing evidence:

(i) a minimum of 3 years of uninterrupted abstinence from alcohol and the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis under the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound under the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and

(ii) the successful completion of any rehabilitative treatment and involvement in any ongoing rehabilitative activity that may be recommended by a properly licensed service provider according to an assessment of the person's alcohol or drug use under Section 11-501.01 of this Code.

In determining whether an applicant is eligible for a restricted driving permit under this subparagraph (F), the Secretary may consider any relevant evidence, including, but not limited to, testimony, affidavits, records, and the results of regular alcohol or drug tests. Persons subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code and who have been convicted of more than one violation of paragraph (3), paragraph (4), or paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of this Code shall not be eligible to apply for a restricted driving permit under this subparagraph (F).

A restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) shall provide that the holder may only operate motor vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as required under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 6-205 of this Code and subparagraph (A) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of this Section. The Secretary may revoke a restricted driving permit or amend the conditions of a restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) if the holder operates a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device, or for any other reason authorized under this Code.

A restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) shall be revoked, and the holder barred from applying for or being issued a restricted driving permit in the future, if the holder is convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar offense in another state.

(c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the actual time the suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the Secretary of State, or the parent or legal guardian of a driver under the age of 18. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made available to the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon request.

(c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of the notice.

(c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he or she reached the age of 21 years pursuant to any of the provisions of this Section, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial education course and be retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.

(d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Driver License Compact.

(e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(f) In accordance with 49 CFR 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 101-90, eff. 7-1-20; 101-470, eff. 7-1-20; 101-623, eff. 7-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-299, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-749, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 12-14-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke license or permit; right to a hearing.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other sufficient evidence that the person:

1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon conviction;

2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 12-month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle caused or contributed to a crash resulting in injury requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this subsection shall start no later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which violation is related to the crash, or shall start not more than one year after the date of the crash, whichever date occurs later;

5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a driver's license, identification card, or permit;

6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or offenses in another state, including the authorization contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;

7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the examination;

8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under the provisions of Section 6-103;

9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact or has used false information or identification in any application for a license, identification card, or permit;

10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to fraudulently use any license, identification card, or permit not issued to the person;

11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or suspended unless the operation was authorized by a monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to drive, or restricted driving permit issued under this Code;

12. Has submitted to any portion of the application process for another person or has obtained the services of another person to submit to any portion of the application process for the purpose of obtaining a license, identification card, or permit for some other person;

13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driver's license or permit was invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;

14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301, 6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Code, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B of the Illinois Identification Card Act or a similar offense in another state if, at the time of the offense, the person held an Illinois driver's license or identification card;

15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to criminal trespass to vehicles if the person exercised actual physical control over the vehicle during the commission of the offense, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;

17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section 11-501.1;

18. (Blank);

19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's license;

20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104 relating to classification of driver's license;

21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of this Code relating to leaving the scene of a crash resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph (3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code for a second or subsequent time within one year of a similar violation;

24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the United States at a military installation in Illinois or in another state of or for a traffic-related offense that is the same as or similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or 6-206 of this Code;

25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used by another in the application process in order to obtain or attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or permit;

26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has possessed an altered license, identification card, or permit;

27. (Blank);

28. Has been convicted for a first time of the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year. Any defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that were committed while the person was operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and the manufacture, sale or delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;

30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of this subsection, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;

31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by Section 11-501.6 of this Code or Section 5-16c of the Boat Registration and Safety Act or has submitted to a test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;

32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3 years;

33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 24-month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the property of another or the death or injury of another;

38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the person was an occupant of a motor vehicle at the time of the violation;

39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-908 of this Code;

41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-605.1 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar violation in any other state within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;

42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the person was an occupant of a motor vehicle at the time of the violation, in which case the suspension shall be for a period of 3 months;

44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles after having previously had his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this Section;

45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code: (i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for another person;

46. Has committed a violation of subsection (j) of Section 3-413 of this Code;

47. Has committed a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-502.1 of this Code;

48. Has submitted a falsified or altered medical examiner's certificate to the Secretary of State or provided false information to obtain a medical examiner's certificate;

49. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 11-1002 or 11-1002.5 that resulted in a Type A injury to another, in which case the driving privileges of the person shall be suspended for 12 months;

50. Has committed a violation of subsection (b-5) of Section 12-610.2 that resulted in great bodily harm, permanent disability, or disfigurement, in which case the driving privileges of the person shall be suspended for 12 months;

51. Has committed a violation of Section 10-15 Of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance while in a motor vehicle; or

52. Has committed a violation of subsection (b) of Section 10-20 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26, and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license, any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license, a probationary driver's license, or a temporary driver's license.

(b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6-month limitation prescribed shall not apply.

(c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the last known address of the person.

2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a permit issued prior to the effective date of the suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit shall also state the number of offenses committed while operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section. If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the remainder of the suspension period.

The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of operating a commercial motor vehicle.

Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section 6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving privileges revoked without further rights.

3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor, rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment-related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself, or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or persons with disabilities who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from child care or adult day care daycare. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare.

(A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B-5) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to a conviction for a violation of subparagraph (C) or (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes. For any person who, within a 5-year period, is convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, this employment exemption does not apply until either a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had his or her driving privileges revoked or a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had a restricted driving permit which required the use of an ignition interlock device on every motor vehicle owned or operated by that person.

(E) In each case the Secretary may issue a restricted driving permit for a period deemed appropriate, except that all permits shall expire no later than 2 years from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program.

(F) A person subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code may make application for a restricted driving permit at a hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code after the expiration of 5 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation or after 5 years from the date of release from a period of imprisonment resulting from a conviction of the most recent offense, whichever is later, provided the person, in addition to all other requirements of the Secretary, shows by clear and convincing evidence:

(i) a minimum of 3 years of uninterrupted abstinence from alcohol and the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis under the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound under the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and

(ii) the successful completion of any rehabilitative treatment and involvement in any ongoing rehabilitative activity that may be recommended by a properly licensed service provider according to an assessment of the person's alcohol or drug use under Section 11-501.01 of this Code.

In determining whether an applicant is eligible for a restricted driving permit under this subparagraph (F), the Secretary may consider any relevant evidence, including, but not limited to, testimony, affidavits, records, and the results of regular alcohol or drug tests. Persons subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code and who have been convicted of more than one violation of paragraph (3), paragraph (4), or paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of this Code shall not be eligible to apply for a restricted driving permit under this subparagraph (F).

A restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) shall provide that the holder may only operate motor vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as required under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 6-205 of this Code and subparagraph (A) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of this Section. The Secretary may revoke a restricted driving permit or amend the conditions of a restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) if the holder operates a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device, or for any other reason authorized under this Code.

A restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) shall be revoked, and the holder barred from applying for or being issued a restricted driving permit in the future, if the holder is convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar offense in another state.

(c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the actual time the suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the Secretary of State, or the parent or legal guardian of a driver under the age of 18. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made available to the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon request.

(c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of the notice.

(c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he or she reached the age of 21 years pursuant to any of the provisions of this Section, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial education course and be retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.

(d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Driver License Compact.

(e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(f) In accordance with 49 CFR 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 101-90, eff. 7-1-20; 101-470, eff. 7-1-20; 101-623, eff. 7-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-299, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-749, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; revised 12-14-22.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-707.01) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-707.01)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 12-707.01. Liability insurance.

(a) No school bus, first division vehicle including a taxi which is used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit, commuter van or motor vehicle owned by or used for hire by and in connection with the operation of private or public schools, day camps, summer camps or nursery schools, and no commuter van or passenger car used for a for-profit ridesharing arrangement, shall be operated for such purposes unless the owner thereof shall carry a minimum of personal injury liability insurance in the amount of $25,000 for any one person in any one accident, and subject to the limit for one person, $100,000 for two or more persons injured by reason of the operation of the vehicle in any one accident. This subsection (a) applies only to personal injury liability policies issued or renewed before January 1, 2013.

(b) Liability insurance policies issued or renewed on and after January 1, 2013 shall comply with the following:

(1) except as provided in subparagraph (2) of this subsection (b), any vehicle that is used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit under Section 6-104 of this Code shall carry a minimum of liability insurance in the amount of $2,000,000. This minimum insurance requirement may be satisfied by either (i) a $2,000,000 combined single limit primary commercial automobile policy; or (ii) a $1 million primary commercial automobile policy and a minimum $5,000,000 excess or umbrella liability policy;

(2) any vehicle that is used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit under Section 6-104 of this Code and is used in connection with the operation of private child day care facilities, day camps, summer camps, or nursery schools shall carry a minimum of liability insurance in the amount of $1,000,000 combined single limit per accident;

(3) any commuter van or passenger car used for a for-profit ridesharing arrangement shall carry a minimum of liability insurance in the amount of $500,000 combined single limit per accident.

(c) Primary insurance coverage under the provisions of this Section must be provided by a licensed and admitted insurance carrier or an intergovernmental cooperative formed under Section 10 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, or Section 6 or 9 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, or provided by a certified self-insurer under Section 7-502 of this Code. The excess or umbrella liability coverage requirement may be met by securing surplus line insurance as defined under Section 445 of the Illinois Insurance Code. If the excess or umbrella liability coverage requirement is met by securing surplus line insurance, that coverage must be effected through a licensed surplus line producer acting under the surplus line insurance laws and regulations of this State. Nothing in this subsection (c) shall be construed as prohibiting a licensed and admitted insurance carrier or an intergovernmental cooperative formed under Section 10 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, or Section 6 or 9 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, or a certified self-insurer under Section 7-502 of this Code, from retaining the risk required under paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (b) of this Section or issuing a single primary policy meeting the requirements of paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (b).

(d) Each owner of a vehicle required to obtain the minimum liability requirements under subsection (b) of this Section shall attest that the vehicle meets the minimum insurance requirements under this Section. The Secretary of State shall create a form for each owner of a vehicle to attest that the owner meets the minimum insurance requirements and the owner of the vehicle shall submit the form with each registration application. The form shall be valid for the full registration period; however, if at any time the Secretary has reason to believe that the owner does not have the minimum required amount of insurance for a vehicle, then the Secretary may require a certificate of insurance, or its equivalent, to ensure the vehicle is insured. If the owner fails to produce a certificate of insurance, or its equivalent, within 2 calendar days after the request was made, then the Secretary may revoke the vehicle owner's registration until the Secretary is assured the vehicle meets the minimum insurance requirements. If the owner of a vehicle participates in an intergovernmental cooperative or is self-insured, then the owner shall attest that the insurance required under this Section is equivalent to or greater than the insurance required under paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section. The Secretary may adopt any rules necessary to enforce the provisions of this subsection (d).

(Source: P.A. 99-595, eff. 1-1-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 12-707.01. Liability insurance.

(a) No school bus, first division vehicle including a taxi which is used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit, commuter van or motor vehicle owned by or used for hire by and in connection with the operation of private or public schools, day camps, summer camps or nursery schools, and no commuter van or passenger car used for a for-profit ridesharing arrangement, shall be operated for such purposes unless the owner thereof shall carry a minimum of personal injury liability insurance in the amount of $25,000 for any one person in any one crash, and subject to the limit for one person, $100,000 for two or more persons injured by reason of the operation of the vehicle in any one crash. This subsection (a) applies only to personal injury liability policies issued or renewed before January 1, 2013.

(b) Liability insurance policies issued or renewed on and after January 1, 2013 shall comply with the following:

(1) except as provided in subparagraph (2) of this subsection (b), any vehicle that is used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit under Section 6-104 of this Code shall carry a minimum of liability insurance in the amount of $2,000,000. This minimum insurance requirement may be satisfied by either (i) a $2,000,000 combined single limit primary commercial automobile policy; or (ii) a $1 million primary commercial automobile policy and a minimum $5,000,000 excess or umbrella liability policy;

(2) any vehicle that is used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit under Section 6-104 of this Code and is used in connection with the operation of private child day care facilities, day camps, summer camps, or nursery schools shall carry a minimum of liability insurance in the amount of $1,000,000 combined single limit per crash;

(3) any commuter van or passenger car used for a for-profit ridesharing arrangement shall carry a minimum of liability insurance in the amount of $500,000 combined single limit per crash.

(c) Primary insurance coverage under the provisions of this Section must be provided by a licensed and admitted insurance carrier or an intergovernmental cooperative formed under Section 10 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, or Section 6 or 9 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, or provided by a certified self-insurer under Section 7-502 of this Code. The excess or umbrella liability coverage requirement may be met by securing surplus line insurance as defined under Section 445 of the Illinois Insurance Code. If the excess or umbrella liability coverage requirement is met by securing surplus line insurance, that coverage must be effected through a licensed surplus line producer acting under the surplus line insurance laws and regulations of this State. Nothing in this subsection (c) shall be construed as prohibiting a licensed and admitted insurance carrier or an intergovernmental cooperative formed under Section 10 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, or Section 6 or 9 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, or a certified self-insurer under Section 7-502 of this Code, from retaining the risk required under paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (b) of this Section or issuing a single primary policy meeting the requirements of paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (b).

(d) Each owner of a vehicle required to obtain the minimum liability requirements under subsection (b) of this Section shall attest that the vehicle meets the minimum insurance requirements under this Section. The Secretary of State shall create a form for each owner of a vehicle to attest that the owner meets the minimum insurance requirements and the owner of the vehicle shall submit the form with each registration application. The form shall be valid for the full registration period; however, if at any time the Secretary has reason to believe that the owner does not have the minimum required amount of insurance for a vehicle, then the Secretary may require a certificate of insurance, or its equivalent, to ensure the vehicle is insured. If the owner fails to produce a certificate of insurance, or its equivalent, within 2 calendar days after the request was made, then the Secretary may revoke the vehicle owner's registration until the Secretary is assured the vehicle meets the minimum insurance requirements. If the owner of a vehicle participates in an intergovernmental cooperative or is self-insured, then the owner shall attest that the insurance required under this Section is equivalent to or greater than the insurance required under paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section. The Secretary may adopt any rules necessary to enforce the provisions of this subsection (d).

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23.)

Section 280. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 2-5.1, 2-5.2, 2-8.1, 11-0.1, 11-9.3, 11-24, 18-1, 19-1, and 48-1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/2-5.1)

Sec. 2-5.1. Child Day care center. "Child Day care center" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 96-556, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/2-5.2)

Sec. 2-5.2. Child Day care home. "Child Day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.18 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 96-556, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/2-8.1)

Sec. 2-8.1. Group child day care home. "Group child day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.20 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 96-556, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-0.1)

Sec. 11-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following terms are defined as indicated:

"Accused" means a person accused of an offense prohibited by Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code or a person for whose conduct the accused is legally responsible under Article 5 of this Code.

"Adult obscenity or child pornography Internet site". See Section 11-23.

"Advance prostitution" means:

(1) Soliciting for a prostitute by performing any of the following acts when acting other than as a prostitute or a patron of a prostitute:

(A) Soliciting another for the purpose of prostitution.

(B) Arranging or offering to arrange a meeting of persons for the purpose of prostitution.

(C) Directing another to a place knowing the direction is for the purpose of prostitution.

(2) Keeping a place of prostitution by controlling or exercising control over the use of any place that could offer seclusion or shelter for the practice of prostitution and performing any of the following acts when acting other than as a prostitute or a patron of a prostitute:

(A) Knowingly granting or permitting the use of the place for the purpose of prostitution.

(B) Granting or permitting the use of the place under circumstances from which he or she could reasonably know that the place is used or is to be used for purposes of prostitution.

(C) Permitting the continued use of the place after becoming aware of facts or circumstances from which he or she should reasonably know that the place is being used for purposes of prostitution.

"Agency". See Section 11-9.5.

"Arranges". See Section 11-6.5.

"Bodily harm" means physical harm, and includes, but is not limited to, sexually transmitted disease, pregnancy, and impotence.

"Care and custody". See Section 11-9.5.

"Child care institution". See Section 11-9.3.

"Child pornography". See Section 11-20.1.

"Child sex offender". See Section 11-9.3.

"Community agency". See Section 11-9.5.

"Conditional release". See Section 11-9.2.

"Consent" means a freely given agreement to the act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct in question. Lack of verbal or physical resistance or submission by the victim resulting from the use of force or threat of force by the accused shall not constitute consent. The manner of dress of the victim at the time of the offense shall not constitute consent.

"Custody". See Section 11-9.2.

"Child Day care center". See Section 11-9.3.

"Depict by computer". See Section 11-20.1.

"Depiction by computer". See Section 11-20.1.

"Disseminate". See Section 11-20.1.

"Distribute". See Section 11-21.

"Family member" means a parent, grandparent, child, aunt, uncle, great-aunt, or great-uncle, whether by whole blood, half-blood, or adoption, and includes a step-grandparent, step-parent, or step-child. "Family member" also means, if the victim is a child under 18 years of age, an accused who has resided in the household with the child continuously for at least 6 months.

"Force or threat of force" means the use of force or violence or the threat of force or violence, including, but not limited to, the following situations:

(1) when the accused threatens to use force or violence on the victim or on any other person, and the victim under the circumstances reasonably believes that the accused has the ability to execute that threat; or

(2) when the accused overcomes the victim by use of superior strength or size, physical restraint, or physical confinement.

"Harmful to minors". See Section 11-21.

"Loiter". See Section 9.3.

"Material". See Section 11-21.

"Minor". See Section 11-21.

"Nudity". See Section 11-21.

"Obscene". See Section 11-20.

"Part day child care facility". See Section 11-9.3.

"Penal system". See Section 11-9.2.

"Person responsible for the child's welfare". See Section 11-9.1A.

"Person with a disability". See Section 11-9.5.

"Playground". See Section 11-9.3.

"Probation officer". See Section 11-9.2.

"Produce". See Section 11-20.1.

"Profit from prostitution" means, when acting other than as a prostitute, to receive anything of value for personally rendered prostitution services or to receive anything of value from a prostitute, if the thing received is not for lawful consideration and the person knows it was earned in whole or in part from the practice of prostitution.

"Public park". See Section 11-9.3.

"Public place". See Section 11-30.

"Reproduce". See Section 11-20.1.

"Sado-masochistic abuse". See Section 11-21.

"School". See Section 11-9.3.

"School official". See Section 11-9.3.

"Sexual abuse". See Section 11-9.1A.

"Sexual act". See Section 11-9.1.

"Sexual conduct" means any knowing touching or fondling by the victim or the accused, either directly or through clothing, of the sex organs, anus, or breast of the victim or the accused, or any part of the body of a child under 13 years of age, or any transfer or transmission of semen by the accused upon any part of the clothed or unclothed body of the victim, for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the victim or the accused.

"Sexual excitement". See Section 11-21.

"Sexual penetration" means any contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus of one person and an object or the sex organ, mouth, or anus of another person, or any intrusion, however slight, of any part of the body of one person or of any animal or object into the sex organ or anus of another person, including, but not limited to, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anal penetration. Evidence of emission of semen is not required to prove sexual penetration.

"Solicit". See Section 11-6.

"State-operated facility". See Section 11-9.5.

"Supervising officer". See Section 11-9.2.

"Surveillance agent". See Section 11-9.2.

"Treatment and detention facility". See Section 11-9.2.

"Unable to give knowing consent" includes when the accused administers any intoxicating or anesthetic substance, or any controlled substance causing the victim to become unconscious of the nature of the act and this condition was known, or reasonably should have been known by the accused. "Unable to give knowing consent" also includes when the victim has taken an intoxicating substance or any controlled substance causing the victim to become unconscious of the nature of the act, and this condition was known or reasonably should have been known by the accused, but the accused did not provide or administer the intoxicating substance. As used in this paragraph, "unconscious of the nature of the act" means incapable of resisting because the victim meets any one of the following conditions:

(1) was unconscious or asleep;

(2) was not aware, knowing, perceiving, or cognizant that the act occurred;

(3) was not aware, knowing, perceiving, or cognizant of the essential characteristics of the act due to the perpetrator's fraud in fact; or

(4) was not aware, knowing, perceiving, or cognizant of the essential characteristics of the act due to the perpetrator's fraudulent representation that the sexual penetration served a professional purpose when it served no professional purpose.

A victim is presumed "unable to give knowing consent" when the victim:

(1) is committed to the care and custody or supervision of the Illinois Department of Corrections (IDOC) and the accused is an employee or volunteer who is not married to the victim who knows or reasonably should know that the victim is committed to the care and custody or supervision of such department;

(2) is committed to or placed with the Department of Children and Family Services (DCFS) and in residential care, and the accused employee is not married to the victim, and knows or reasonably should know that the victim is committed to or placed with DCFS and in residential care;

(3) is a client or patient and the accused is a health care provider or mental health care provider and the sexual conduct or sexual penetration occurs during a treatment session, consultation, interview, or examination;

(4) is a resident or inpatient of a residential facility and the accused is an employee of the facility who is not married to such resident or inpatient who provides direct care services, case management services, medical or other clinical services, habilitative services or direct supervision of the residents in the facility in which the resident resides; or an officer or other employee, consultant, contractor or volunteer of the residential facility, who knows or reasonably should know that the person is a resident of such facility; or

(5) is detained or otherwise in the custody of a police officer, peace officer, or other law enforcement official who: (i) is detaining or maintaining custody of such person; or (ii) knows, or reasonably should know, that at the time of the offense, such person was detained or in custody and the police officer, peace officer, or other law enforcement official is not married to such detainee.

"Victim" means a person alleging to have been subjected to an offense prohibited by Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-567, eff. 1-1-22; 102-1096, eff. 1-1-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.3)

Sec. 11-9.3. Presence within school zone by child sex offenders prohibited; approaching, contacting, residing with, or communicating with a child within certain places by child sex offenders prohibited.

(a) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any school building, on real property comprising any school, or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building, on the grounds or in the conveyance, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a student attending the school and the parent or guardian is: (i) attending a conference at the school with school personnel to discuss the progress of his or her child academically or socially, (ii) participating in child review conferences in which evaluation and placement decisions may be made with respect to his or her child regarding special education services, or (iii) attending conferences to discuss other student issues concerning his or her child such as retention and promotion and notifies the principal of the school of his or her presence at the school or unless the offender has permission to be present from the superintendent or the school board or in the case of a private school from the principal. In the case of a public school, if permission is granted, the superintendent or school board president must inform the principal of the school where the sex offender will be present. Notification includes the nature of the sex offender's visit and the hours in which the sex offender will be present in the school. The sex offender is responsible for notifying the principal's office when he or she arrives on school property and when he or she departs from school property. If the sex offender is to be present in the vicinity of children, the sex offender has the duty to remain under the direct supervision of a school official.

(a-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present within 100 feet of a site posted as a pick-up or discharge stop for a conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity when one or more persons under the age of 18 are present at the site.

(a-10) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any public park building, a playground or recreation area within any publicly accessible privately owned building, or on real property comprising any public park when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.

(b) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter within 500 feet of a school building or real property comprising any school while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a student attending the school and the parent or guardian is: (i) attending a conference at the school with school personnel to discuss the progress of his or her child academically or socially, (ii) participating in child review conferences in which evaluation and placement decisions may be made with respect to his or her child regarding special education services, or (iii) attending conferences to discuss other student issues concerning his or her child such as retention and promotion and notifies the principal of the school of his or her presence at the school or has permission to be present from the superintendent or the school board or in the case of a private school from the principal. In the case of a public school, if permission is granted, the superintendent or school board president must inform the principal of the school where the sex offender will be present. Notification includes the nature of the sex offender's visit and the hours in which the sex offender will be present in the school. The sex offender is responsible for notifying the principal's office when he or she arrives on school property and when he or she departs from school property. If the sex offender is to be present in the vicinity of children, the sex offender has the duty to remain under the direct supervision of a school official.

(b-2) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter on a public way within 500 feet of a public park building or real property comprising any public park while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.

(b-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a school building or the real property comprising any school that persons under the age of 18 attend. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a school building or the real property comprising any school that persons under 18 attend if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before July 7, 2000 (the effective date of Public Act 91-911).

(b-10) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a playground, child care institution, child day care center, part day child care facility, child day care home, group child day care home, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a playground or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before July 7, 2000. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a child care institution, child day care center, or part day child care facility if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before June 26, 2006. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a child day care home or group child day care home if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before August 14, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-821).

(b-15) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of the victim of the sex offense. Nothing in this subsection (b-15) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of the victim if the property in which the child sex offender resides is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before August 22, 2002.

This subsection (b-15) does not apply if the victim of the sex offense is 21 years of age or older.

(b-20) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly communicate, other than for a lawful purpose under Illinois law, using the Internet or any other digital media, with a person under 18 years of age or with a person whom he or she believes to be a person under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age.

(c) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, volunteer at, be associated with, or knowingly be present at any: (i) facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under the age of 18; (ii) child day care center; (iii) part day child care facility; (iv) child care institution; (v) school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age; (vi) child day care home; or (vii) group child day care home. This does not prohibit a child sex offender from owning the real property upon which the programs or services are offered or upon which the child day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, or school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age is located, provided the child sex offender refrains from being present on the premises for the hours during which: (1) the programs or services are being offered or (2) the child day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, or school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age, child day care home, or group child day care home is operated.

(c-2) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, including but not limited to distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter. For the purposes of this subsection, child sex offender has the meaning as defined in this Section, but does not include as a sex offense under paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section, the offense under subsection (c) of Section 11-1.50 of this Code. This subsection does not apply to a child sex offender who is a parent or guardian of children under 18 years of age that are present in the home and other non-familial minors are not present.

(c-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, or be associated with any carnival, amusement enterprise, or county or State fair when persons under the age of 18 are present.

(c-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender who owns and resides at residential real estate to knowingly rent any residential unit within the same building in which he or she resides to a person who is the parent or guardian of a child or children under 18 years of age. This subsection shall apply only to leases or other rental arrangements entered into after January 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-820).

(c-7) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly offer or provide any programs or services to persons under 18 years of age in his or her residence or the residence of another or in any facility for the purpose of offering or providing such programs or services, whether such programs or services are offered or provided by contract, agreement, arrangement, or on a volunteer basis.

(c-8) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, whether authorized to do so or not, any of the following vehicles: (1) a vehicle which is specifically designed, constructed or modified and equipped to be used for the retail sale of food or beverages, including but not limited to an ice cream truck; (2) an authorized emergency vehicle; or (3) a rescue vehicle.

(d) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Child sex offender" means any person who:

(i) has been charged under Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal law or law of another state, with a sex offense set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and the victim is a person under 18 years of age at the time of the offense; and:

(A) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(B) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(C) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(D) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(E) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(F) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(ii) is certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal law or the law of another state, when any conduct giving rise to such certification is committed or attempted against a person less than 18 years of age; or

(iii) is subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Section as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2.5), "sex offense" means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 10-4 (forcible detention), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child), 11-9.2 (custodial sexual misconduct), 11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability), 11-11 (sexual relations within families), 11-14.3(a)(1) (promoting prostitution by advancing prostitution), 11-14.3(a)(2)(A) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by compelling a person to be a prostitute), 11-14.3(a)(2)(C) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by means other than as described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 11-14.3), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B (aggravated child pornography), 11-21 (harmful material), 11-25 (grooming), 11-26 (traveling to meet a minor or traveling to meet a child), 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child), 11-20 (obscenity) (when that offense was committed in any school, on real property comprising any school, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park), 11-30 (public indecency) (when committed in a school, on real property comprising a school, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse), 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint),

11-9.1(A) (permitting sexual abuse of a child).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in clause (2)(i) or (2)(ii) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(2.5) For the purposes of subsections (b-5) and (b-10) only, a sex offense means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9.2 (custodial sexual misconduct), 11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability), 11-11 (sexual relations within families), 11-14.3(a)(1) (promoting prostitution by advancing prostitution), 11-14.3(a)(2)(A) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by compelling a person to be a prostitute), 11-14.3(a)(2)(C) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by means other than as described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 11-14.3), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B (aggravated child pornography), 11-25 (grooming), 11-26 (traveling to meet a minor or traveling to meet a child), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint),

11-9.1(A) (permitting sexual abuse of a child).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this paragraph (2.5) of this subsection.

(3) A conviction for an offense of federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Section. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Section.

(4) "Authorized emergency vehicle", "rescue vehicle", and "vehicle" have the meanings ascribed to them in Sections 1-105, 1-171.8 and 1-217, respectively, of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(5) "Child care institution" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.06 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(6) "Child Day care center" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(7) "Child Day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.18 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(8) "Facility providing programs or services directed towards persons under the age of 18" means any facility providing programs or services exclusively directed towards persons under the age of 18.

(9) "Group child day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.20 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(10) "Internet" has the meaning set forth in Section 16-0.1 of this Code.

(11) "Loiter" means:

(i) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle, or remaining in or around school or public park property.

(ii) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle, or remaining in or around school or public park property, for the purpose of committing or attempting to commit a sex offense.

(iii) Entering or remaining in a building in or around school property, other than the offender's residence.

(12) "Part day child care facility" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.10 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(13) "Playground" means a piece of land owned or controlled by a unit of local government that is designated by the unit of local government for use solely or primarily for children's recreation.

(14) "Public park" includes a park, forest preserve, bikeway, trail, or conservation area under the jurisdiction of the State or a unit of local government.

(15) "School" means a public or private preschool or elementary or secondary school.

(16) "School official" means the principal, a teacher, or any other certified employee of the school, the superintendent of schools or a member of the school board.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, the 500 feet distance shall be measured from: (1) the edge of the property of the school building or the real property comprising the school that is closest to the edge of the property of the child sex offender's residence or where he or she is loitering, and (2) the edge of the property comprising the public park building or the real property comprising the public park, playground, child care institution, child day care center, part day child care facility, or facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age, or a victim of the sex offense who is under 21 years of age, to the edge of the child sex offender's place of residence or place where he or she is loitering.

(f) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 102-997, eff. 1-1-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-24)

Sec. 11-24. Child photography by sex offender.

(a) In this Section:

"Child" means a person under 18 years of age.

"Child sex offender" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(b) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly:

(1) conduct or operate any type of business in which he or she photographs, videotapes, or takes a digital image of a child; or

(2) conduct or operate any type of business in which he or she instructs or directs another person to photograph, videotape, or take a digital image of a child; or

(3) photograph, videotape, or take a digital image of a child, or instruct or direct another person to photograph, videotape, or take a digital image of a child without the consent of the parent or guardian.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 2 felony. A person who violates this Section at a playground, park facility, school, forest preserve, child day care facility, or at a facility providing programs or services directed to persons under 17 years of age is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/18-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 18-1)

Sec. 18-1. Robbery; aggravated robbery.

(a) Robbery. A person commits robbery when he or she knowingly takes property, except a motor vehicle covered by Section 18-3 or 18-4, from the person or presence of another by the use of force or by threatening the imminent use of force.

(b) Aggravated robbery.

(1) A person commits aggravated robbery when he or she violates subsection (a) while indicating verbally or by his or her actions to the victim that he or she is presently armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon, including a knife, club, ax, or bludgeon. This offense shall be applicable even though it is later determined that he or she had no firearm or other dangerous weapon, including a knife, club, ax, or bludgeon, in his or her possession when he or she committed the robbery.

(2) A person commits aggravated robbery when he or she knowingly takes property from the person or presence of another by delivering (by injection, inhalation, ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) to the victim without his or her consent, or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any controlled substance.

(c) Sentence.

Robbery is a Class 2 felony, unless the victim is 60 years of age or over or is a person with a physical disability, or the robbery is committed in a school, child day care center, child day care home, group child day care home, or part day child care facility, or place of worship, in which case robbery is a Class 1 felony. Aggravated robbery is a Class 1 felony.

(d) Regarding penalties prescribed in subsection (c) for violations committed in a child day care center, child day care home, group child day care home, or part day child care facility, the time of day, time of year, and whether children under 18 years of age were present in the child day care center, child day care home, group child day care home, or part day child care facility are irrelevant.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/19-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-1)

Sec. 19-1. Burglary.

(a) A person commits burglary when without authority he or she knowingly enters or without authority remains within a building, housetrailer, watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, freight container, or any part thereof, with intent to commit therein a felony or theft. This offense shall not include the offenses set out in Section 4-102 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(b) Sentence.

Burglary committed in, and without causing damage to, a watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, freight container, or any part thereof is a Class 3 felony. Burglary committed in a building, housetrailer, or any part thereof or while causing damage to a watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, freight container, or any part thereof is a Class 2 felony. A burglary committed in a school, child day care center, child day care home, group child day care home, or part day child care facility, or place of worship is a Class 1 felony, except that this provision does not apply to a child day care center, child day care home, group child day care home, or part day child care facility operated in a private residence used as a dwelling.

(c) Regarding penalties prescribed in subsection (b) for violations committed in a child day care center, child day care home, group child day care home, or part day child care facility, the time of day, time of year, and whether children under 18 years of age were present in the child day care center, child day care home, group child day care home, or part day child care facility are irrelevant.

(Source: P.A. 102-546, eff. 1-1-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-1) (was 720 ILCS 5/26-5)

Sec. 48-1. Dog fighting. (For other provisions that may apply to dog fighting, see the Humane Care for Animals Act. For provisions similar to this Section that apply to animals other than dogs, see in particular Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act.)

(a) No person may own, capture, breed, train, or lease any dog which he or she knows is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between the dog and any other animal or human, or the intentional killing of any dog for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(b) No person may promote, conduct, carry on, advertise, collect money for or in any other manner assist or aid in the presentation for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment of any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more dogs or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog.

(c) No person may sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move, or deliver or receive any dog which he or she knows has been captured, bred, or trained, or will be used, to fight another dog or human or be intentionally killed for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(c-5) No person may solicit a minor to violate this Section.

(d) No person may manufacture for sale, shipment, transportation, or delivery any device or equipment which he or she knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any human and dog, or the intentional killing of any dog for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(e) No person may own, possess, sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move any equipment or device which he or she knows or should know is intended for use in connection with any show, exhibition, program, or activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(f) No person may knowingly make available any site, structure, or facility, whether enclosed or not, that he or she knows is intended to be used for the purpose of conducting any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog or knowingly manufacture, distribute, or deliver fittings to be used in a fight between 2 or more dogs or a dog and human.

(g) No person may knowingly attend or otherwise patronize any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(h) No person may tie or attach or fasten any live animal to any machine or device propelled by any power for the purpose of causing the animal to be pursued by a dog or dogs. This subsection (h) applies only when the dog is intended to be used in a dog fight.

(i) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of violating subsection (a), (b), (c), or (h) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent violation, and may be fined an amount not to exceed $50,000.

(1.5) A person who knowingly owns a dog for fighting purposes or for producing a fight between 2 or more dogs or a dog and human or who knowingly offers for sale or sells a dog bred for fighting is guilty of a Class 3 felony and may be fined an amount not to exceed $50,000, if the dog participates in a dogfight and any of the following factors is present:

(i) the dogfight is performed in the presence of a person under 18 years of age;

(ii) the dogfight is performed for the purpose of or in the presence of illegal wagering activity; or

(iii) the dogfight is performed in furtherance of streetgang related activity as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(1.7) A person convicted of violating subsection (c-5) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of violating subsection (d) or (e) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (d) or (e) of this Section is a Class 3 felony.

(2.5) Any person convicted of violating subsection (f) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Any person convicted of violating subsection (f) of this Section in which the site, structure, or facility made available to violate subsection (f) is located within 1,000 feet of a school, public park, playground, child care institution, child day care center, part day child care facility, child day care home, group child day care home, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age is guilty of a Class 3 felony for a first violation and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(3) Any person convicted of violating subsection (g) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (g) of this Section is a Class 3 felony. If a person under 13 years of age is present at any show, exhibition, program, or other activity prohibited in subsection (g), the parent, legal guardian, or other person who is 18 years of age or older who brings that person under 13 years of age to that show, exhibition, program, or other activity is guilty of a Class 3 felony for a first violation and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(i-5) A person who commits a felony violation of this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(j) Any dog or equipment involved in a violation of this Section shall be immediately seized and impounded under Section 12 of the Humane Care for Animals Act when located at any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a dog fight for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(k) Any vehicle or conveyance other than a common carrier that is used in violation of this Section shall be seized, held, and offered for sale at public auction by the sheriff's department of the proper jurisdiction, and the proceeds from the sale shall be remitted to the general fund of the county where the violation took place.

(l) Any veterinarian in this State who is presented with a dog for treatment of injuries or wounds resulting from fighting where there is a reasonable possibility that the dog was engaged in or utilized for a fighting event for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment shall file a report with the Department of Agriculture and cooperate by furnishing the owners' names, dates, and descriptions of the dog or dogs involved. Any veterinarian who in good faith complies with the requirements of this subsection has immunity from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, that may result from his or her actions. For the purposes of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of the veterinarian shall be rebuttably presumed.

(m) In addition to any other penalty provided by law, upon conviction for violating this Section, the court may order that the convicted person and persons dwelling in the same household as the convicted person who conspired, aided, or abetted in the unlawful act that was the basis of the conviction, or who knew or should have known of the unlawful act, may not own, harbor, or have custody or control of any dog or other animal for a period of time that the court deems reasonable.

(n) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section may be inferred from evidence that the accused possessed any device or equipment described in subsection (d), (e), or (h) of this Section, and also possessed any dog.

(o) When no longer required for investigations or court proceedings relating to the events described or depicted therein, evidence relating to convictions for violations of this Section shall be retained and made available for use in training peace officers in detecting and identifying violations of this Section. Such evidence shall be made available upon request to other law enforcement agencies and to schools certified under the Illinois Police Training Act.

(p) For the purposes of this Section, "school" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 11-9.3 of this Code; and "public park", "playground", "child care institution", "child day care center", "part day child care facility", "child day care home", "group child day care home", and "facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 11-9.4 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-226, eff. 8-11-09; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1091, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 285. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 112A-14.5, 112A-14.7, and 112A-22 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/112A-14.5)

Sec. 112A-14.5. Civil no contact order; remedies.

(a) The court may order any of the remedies listed in this Section. The remedies listed in this Section shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner:

(1) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance from the petitioner;

(2) restrain the respondent from having any contact, including nonphysical contact, with the petitioner directly, indirectly, or through third parties, regardless of whether those third parties know of the order;

(3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance from the petitioner's residence, school, child day care or other specified location;

(4) order the respondent to stay away from any property or animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by the petitioner and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the property or animal; and

(5) order any other injunctive relief as necessary or appropriate for the protection of the petitioner.

(b) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public or private elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a civil no contact order and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. If the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(c) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. If the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents or legal guardians of the respondent are responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(d) Denial of a remedy may not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) the respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) the respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) the petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if the petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) the petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) the petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration by the respondent; or

(6) the petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration by the respondent.

(e) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-14.7)

Sec. 112A-14.7. Stalking no contact order; remedies.

(a) The court may order any of the remedies listed in this Section. The remedies listed in this Section shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner. A stalking no contact order shall order one or more of the following:

(1) prohibit the respondent from threatening to commit or committing stalking;

(2) order the respondent not to have any contact with the petitioner or a third person specifically named by the court;

(3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within a specified distance of the petitioner or the petitioner's residence, school, child care daycare, or place of employment, or any specified place frequented by the petitioner; however, the court may order the respondent to stay away from the respondent's own residence, school, or place of employment only if the respondent has been provided actual notice of the opportunity to appear and be heard on the petition;

(4) prohibit the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owners Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; and

(5) order other injunctive relief the court determines to be necessary to protect the petitioner or third party specifically named by the court.

(b) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a stalking no contact order and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. If the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(c) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. If the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent are responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(d) The court shall not hold a school district or private or non-public school or any of its employees in civil or criminal contempt unless the school district or private or non-public school has been allowed to intervene.

(e) The court may hold the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent in civil or criminal contempt for a violation of any provision of any order entered under this Article for conduct of the minor respondent in violation of this Article if the parents, guardian, or legal custodian directed, encouraged, or assisted the respondent minor in the conduct.

(f) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.

(g) If the stalking no contact order prohibits the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; the court shall confiscate the respondent's Firearm Owner's Identification Card and immediately return the card to the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-22) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-22)

Sec. 112A-22. Notice of orders.

(a) Entry and issuance. Upon issuance of any protective order, the clerk shall immediately, or on the next court day if an ex parte order is issued under subsection (e) of Section 112A-17.5 of this Code, (i) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures and (ii) provide a file stamped copy of the order to respondent and to petitioner, if present, and to the State's Attorney. If the victim is not present the State's Attorney shall (i) as soon as practicable notify the petitioner the order has been entered and (ii) provide a file stamped copy of the order to the petitioner within 3 days.

(b) Filing with sheriff. The clerk of the issuing judge shall, on the same day that a protective order is issued, file a copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Illinois State Police records or charged with serving the order upon respondent. If the order was issued under subsection (e) of Section 112A-17.5 of this Code, the clerk on the next court day shall file a certified copy of the order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Illinois State Police records.

(c) (Blank).

(c-2) Service by sheriff. Unless respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon respondent and file proof of the service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent; however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or other persons defined in Section 112A-22.1 of this Code may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in Section 112A-22.1 of this Code. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, process shall be served with the order or short form notification if the service is made by the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server.

(c-3) If the person against whom the protective order is issued is arrested and the written order is issued under subsection (e) of Section 112A-17.5 of this Code and received by the custodial law enforcement agency before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody, the custodial law enforcement agency shall promptly serve the order upon the respondent or arrestee before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody. In no event shall detention of the respondent or arrestee be extended for a hearing on the petition for protective order or receipt of the order issued under Section 112A-17 of this Code.

(c-4) Extensions, modifications, and revocations. Any order extending, modifying, or revoking any protective order shall be promptly recorded, issued, and served as provided in this Section.

(c-5) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) Notice to health care facilities and health care practitioners. Upon the request of the petitioner, the clerk of the circuit court shall send a certified copy of the protective order to any specified health care facility or health care practitioner requested by the petitioner at the mailing address provided by the petitioner.

(f) Disclosure by health care facilities and health care practitioners. After receiving a certified copy of a protective order that prohibits a respondent's access to records, no health care facility or health care practitioner shall allow a respondent access to the records of any child who is a protected person under the protective order, or release information in those records to the respondent, unless the order has expired or the respondent shows a certified copy of the court order vacating the corresponding protective order that was sent to the health care facility or practitioner. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require health care facilities or health care practitioners to alter procedures related to billing and payment. The health care facility or health care practitioner may file the copy of the protective order in the records of a child who is a protected person under the protective order, or may employ any other method to identify the records to which a respondent is prohibited access. No health care facility or health care practitioner shall be civilly or professionally liable for reliance on a copy of a protective order, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(g) Notice to schools. Upon the request of the petitioner, within 24 hours of the issuance of a protective order, the clerk of the issuing judge shall send a certified copy of the protective order to the child care day-care facility, pre-school or pre-kindergarten, or private school or the principal office of the public school district or any college or university in which any child who is a protected person under the protective order or any child of the petitioner is enrolled as requested by the petitioner at the mailing address provided by the petitioner. If the child transfers enrollment to another child care day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, private school, public school, college, or university, the petitioner may, within 24 hours of the transfer, send to the clerk written notice of the transfer, including the name and address of the institution to which the child is transferring. Within 24 hours of receipt of notice from the petitioner that a child is transferring to another child care day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, private school, public school, college, or university, the clerk shall send a certified copy of the order to the institution to which the child is transferring.

(h) Disclosure by schools. After receiving a certified copy of a protective order that prohibits a respondent's access to records, neither a child care day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, public or private school, college, or university nor its employees shall allow a respondent access to a protected child's records or release information in those records to the respondent. The school shall file the copy of the protective order in the records of a child who is a protected person under the order. When a child who is a protected person under the protective order transfers to another child care day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, public or private school, college, or university, the institution from which the child is transferring may, at the request of the petitioner, provide, within 24 hours of the transfer, written notice of the protective order, along with a certified copy of the order, to the institution to which the child is transferring.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

Section 290. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(725 ILCS 207/40)

Sec. 40. Commitment.

(a) If a court or jury determines that the person who is the subject of a petition under Section 15 of this Act is a sexually violent person, the court shall order the person to be committed to the custody of the Department for control, care and treatment until such time as the person is no longer a sexually violent person.

(b)(1) The court shall enter an initial commitment order under this Section pursuant to a hearing held as soon as practicable after the judgment is entered that the person who is the subject of a petition under Section 15 is a sexually violent person. If the court lacks sufficient information to make the determination required by paragraph (b)(2) of this Section immediately after trial, it may adjourn the hearing and order the Department to conduct a predisposition investigation or a supplementary mental examination, or both, to assist the court in framing the commitment order. If the Department's examining evaluator previously rendered an opinion that the person who is the subject of a petition under Section 15 does not meet the criteria to be found a sexually violent person, then another evaluator shall conduct the predisposition investigation and/or supplementary mental examination. A supplementary mental examination under this Section shall be conducted in accordance with Section 3-804 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The State has the right to have the person evaluated by experts chosen by the State.

(2) An order for commitment under this Section shall specify either institutional care in a secure facility, as provided under Section 50 of this Act, or conditional release. In determining whether commitment shall be for institutional care in a secure facility or for conditional release, the court shall consider the nature and circumstances of the behavior that was the basis of the allegation in the petition under paragraph (b)(1) of Section 15, the person's mental history and present mental condition, and what arrangements are available to ensure that the person has access to and will participate in necessary treatment. All treatment, whether in institutional care, in a secure facility, or while on conditional release, shall be conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and conducted by a treatment provider licensed under the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act. The Department shall arrange for control, care and treatment of the person in the least restrictive manner consistent with the requirements of the person and in accordance with the court's commitment order.

(3) If the court finds that the person is appropriate for conditional release, the court shall notify the Department. The Department shall prepare a plan that identifies the treatment and services, if any, that the person will receive in the community. The plan shall address the person's need, if any, for supervision, counseling, medication, community support services, residential services, vocational services, and alcohol or other drug abuse treatment. The Department may contract with a county health department, with another public agency or with a private agency to provide the treatment and services identified in the plan. The plan shall specify who will be responsible for providing the treatment and services identified in the plan. The plan shall be presented to the court for its approval within 60 days after the court finding that the person is appropriate for conditional release, unless the Department and the person to be released request additional time to develop the plan. The conditional release program operated under this Section is not subject to the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(4) An order for conditional release places the person in the custody and control of the Department. A person on conditional release is subject to the conditions set by the court and to the rules of the Department. Before a person is placed on conditional release by the court under this Section, the court shall so notify the municipal police department and county sheriff for the municipality and county in which the person will be residing. The notification requirement under this Section does not apply if a municipal police department or county sheriff submits to the court a written statement waiving the right to be notified. Notwithstanding any other provision in the Act, the person being supervised on conditional release shall not reside at the same street address as another sex offender being supervised on conditional release under this Act, mandatory supervised release, parole, aftercare release, probation, or any other manner of supervision. If the Department alleges that a released person has violated any condition or rule, or that the safety of others requires that conditional release be revoked, he or she may be taken into custody under the rules of the Department.

At any time during which the person is on conditional release, if the Department determines that the person has violated any condition or rule, or that the safety of others requires that conditional release be revoked, the Department may request the Attorney General or State's Attorney to request the court to issue an emergency ex parte order directing any law enforcement officer to take the person into custody and transport the person to the county jail. The Department may request, or the Attorney General or State's Attorney may request independently of the Department, that a petition to revoke conditional release be filed. When a petition is filed, the court may order the Department to issue a notice to the person to be present at the Department or other agency designated by the court, order a summons to the person to be present, or order a body attachment for all law enforcement officers to take the person into custody and transport him or her to the county jail, hospital, or treatment facility. The Department shall submit a statement showing probable cause of the detention and a petition to revoke the order for conditional release to the committing court within 48 hours after the detention. The court shall hear the petition within 30 days, unless the hearing or time deadline is waived by the detained person. Pending the revocation hearing, the Department may detain the person in a jail, in a hospital or treatment facility. The State has the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that any rule or condition of release has been violated, or that the safety of others requires that the conditional release be revoked. If the court determines after hearing that any rule or condition of release has been violated, or that the safety of others requires that conditional release be revoked, it may revoke the order for conditional release and order that the released person be placed in an appropriate institution until the person is discharged from the commitment under Section 65 of this Act or until again placed on conditional release under Section 60 of this Act.

(5) An order for conditional release places the person in the custody, care, and control of the Department. The court shall order the person be subject to the following rules of conditional release, in addition to any other conditions ordered, and the person shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions of conditional release. These conditions shall be that the person:

(A) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(B) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court and the Department;

(C) refrain from possession of a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(D) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature, that prior consent by the court is not possible without the prior notification and approval of the Department;

(E) at the direction of the Department, notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record or sexual offending history or characteristics, and permit the supervising officer or agent to make the notification requirement;

(F) attend and fully participate in assessment, treatment, and behavior monitoring including, but not limited to, medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment specific to sexual offending, drug addiction, or alcoholism, to the extent appropriate to the person based upon the recommendation and findings made in the Department evaluation or based upon any subsequent recommendations by the Department;

(G) waive confidentiality allowing the court and Department access to assessment or treatment results or both;

(H) work regularly at a Department approved occupation or pursue a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department within 72 hours of any change in employment, study, or training;

(I) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by the Department officer;

(J) submit to the search of his or her person, residence, vehicle, or any personal or real property under his or her control at any time by the Department;

(K) financially support his or her dependents and provide the Department access to any requested financial information;

(L) serve a term of home confinement, the conditions of which shall be that the person:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his or her confinement during the hours designated by the Department;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the Department into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the person's compliance with the condition of his or her confinement;

(iii) if deemed necessary by the Department, be placed on an electronic monitoring device;

(M) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the Department by the clerk of the court;

(N) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms the Department finds appropriate. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, others accompanying the person, and advance approval by the Department;

(O) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family, and report any incidental contact with the victim or the victim's family to the Department within 72 hours; refrain from entering onto the premises of, traveling past, or loitering near the victim's residence, place of employment, or other places frequented by the victim;

(P) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, with particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs, drug users, drug dealers, or prostitutes;

(Q) refrain from all contact, direct or indirect, personally, by telephone, letter, or through another person, with minor children without prior identification and approval of the Department;

(R) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of alcohol or any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her breath, saliva, blood, or urine for tests to determine the presence of alcohol or any illicit drug;

(S) not establish a dating, intimate, or sexual relationship with a person without prior written notification to the Department;

(T) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is pornographic, sexually oriented, or sexually stimulating, or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity or depicts minors under the age of 18, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(U) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers or any other sex-related telephone numbers;

(V) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, child day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of the Department and report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department within 72 hours;

(W) not establish any living arrangement or residence without prior approval of the Department;

(X) not publish any materials or print any advertisements without providing a copy of the proposed publications to the Department officer and obtaining permission prior to publication;

(Y) not leave the county except with prior permission of the Department and provide the Department officer or agent with written travel routes to and from work and any other designated destinations;

(Z) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending items including video or still camera items or children's toys;

(AA) provide a written daily log of activities as directed by the Department;

(BB) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access or potential victims.

(6) A person placed on conditional release and who during the term undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device may be ordered to pay all costs incidental to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing and all costs incidental to the approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the person's ability to pay those costs. The Department may establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring.

(Source: P.A. 97-1098, eff. 7-1-14 (see Section 5 of P.A. 98-612 for the effective date of P.A. 97-1098); 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 295. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2.5-95, 3-3-7, and 5-5-3.2 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-95)

Sec. 3-2.5-95. Conditions of aftercare release.

(a) The conditions of aftercare release for all youth committed to the Department under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be such as the Department of Juvenile Justice deems necessary to assist the youth in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every aftercare release are that the youth:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the aftercare release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department;

(4) permit the agent or aftercare specialist to visit the youth at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent or aftercare specialist to discharge his or her duties;

(5) reside at a Department-approved host site;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody and immediately report service or notification of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order to an agent of the Department;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by an agent of the Department;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her aftercare specialist and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on aftercare release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by an agent of the Department;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Department or by law to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her aftercare release or to protect the public; these instructions by the agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory; a no contact order issued under the Civil No Contact Order Act; or a no contact order issued under the Stalking No Contact Order Act;

(17) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, and a sex offender treatment provider has evaluated and recommended further sex offender treatment while on aftercare release, the youth shall undergo treatment by a sex offender treatment provider or associate sex offender provider as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act at his or her expense based on his or her ability to pay for the treatment;

(18) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(19) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the offender as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the youth's aftercare release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the offender used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the youth's aftercare release term;

(20) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the offender as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the offender and whom the offender reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (20), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the offender if the person is not: (A) the spouse, brother, or sister of the offender; (B) a descendant of the offender; (C) a first or second cousin of the offender; or (D) a step-child or adopted child of the offender;

(21) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(22) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the offender as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act, not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(23) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses:

(A) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(B) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the youth's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the youth's aftercare specialist, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of the information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(C) submit to the installation on the youth's computer or device with Internet capability, at the youth's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(D) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the youth's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Department or the youth's aftercare specialist;

(24) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act, refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(25) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that requires the youth to register as a sex offender under that Act, not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the youth uses;

(26) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the youth is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(27) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code; and

(28) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense, be:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Department may in addition to other conditions require that the youth:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or aftercare release;

(4) support his or her dependents;

(5) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the youth as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the youth and whom the youth reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the youth if the person is: (A) the spouse, brother, or sister of the youth; (B) a descendant of the youth; (C) a first or second cousin of the youth; or (D) a step-child or adopted child of the youth;

(6) if convicted for an offense that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(A) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(B) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the youth's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the youth's aftercare specialist, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of the information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(C) submit to the installation on the youth's computer or device with Internet capability, at the youth's offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(D) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the youth's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Department or the youth's aftercare specialist; and

(7) in addition to other conditions:

(A) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(B) attend school;

(C) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(D) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(c) In addition to the conditions under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, youths required to register as sex offenders under the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice, may be required by the Department to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department;

(6) be electronically monitored for a specified period of time from the date of release as determined by the Department;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department; these terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the youth;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including, but not limited to, visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, child day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the youth from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of an agent of the Department before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(d) The conditions under which the aftercare release is to be served shall be communicated to the youth in writing prior to his or her release, and he or she shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection if one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the youth and another copy forwarded to the officer or aftercare specialist in charge of his or her supervision.

(e) After a revocation hearing under Section 3-3-9.5, the Department of Juvenile Justice may modify or enlarge the conditions of aftercare release.

(f) The Department shall inform all youth of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist youth in availing themselves of the optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(Source: P.A. 99-628, eff. 1-1-17.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-7)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(a) The conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(4) permit the agent to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody and immediately report service or notification of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-988), wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child committed on or after August 11, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-236) when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the defendant used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-640), not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(7.11) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent;

(7.12) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(7.13) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections;

(12) not knowingly frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) except when the association described in either subparagraph (A) or (B) of this paragraph (13) involves activities related to community programs, worship services, volunteering, engaging families, or some other pro-social activity in which there is no evidence of criminal intent:

(A) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent; or

(B) not knowingly associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code;

(18) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory; a no contact order issued pursuant to the Civil No Contact Order Act; or a no contact order issued pursuant to the Stalking No Contact Order Act;

(19) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense, be:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate;

(20) if convicted of a hate crime under Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours and enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes involving the protected class identified in subsection (a) of Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 that gave rise to the offense the offender committed ordered by the court; and

(21) be evaluated by the Department of Corrections prior to release using a validated risk assessment and be subject to a corresponding level of supervision. In accordance with the findings of that evaluation:

(A) All subjects found to be at a moderate or high risk to recidivate, or on parole or mandatory supervised release for first degree murder, a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012, any felony that requires registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or a Class X felony or Class 1 felony that is not a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, shall be subject to high level supervision. The Department shall define high level supervision based upon evidence-based and research-based practices. Notwithstanding this placement on high level supervision, placement of the subject on electronic monitoring or detention shall not occur unless it is required by law or expressly ordered or approved by the Prisoner Review Board.

(B) All subjects found to be at a low risk to recidivate shall be subject to low-level supervision, except for those subjects on parole or mandatory supervised release for first degree murder, a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012, any felony that requires registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or a Class X felony or Class 1 felony that is not a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. Low level supervision shall require the subject to check in with the supervising officer via phone or other electronic means. Notwithstanding this placement on low level supervision, placement of the subject on electronic monitoring or detention shall not occur unless it is required by law or expressly ordered or approved by the Prisoner Review Board.

(b) The Board may in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his or her dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) (blank);

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.6) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent; and

(8) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, child day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his or her release, and he or she shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer in charge of his or her supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-260, eff. 1-1-18; 100-575, eff. 1-8-18; 101-382, eff. 8-16-19.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in aggravation and extended-term sentencing.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who has a physical disability or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (O-1) of Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was on pretrial release or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly or infirm or who was a person with a disability by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly or infirm person or person with a disability;

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and possessed 100 or more images;

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation;

(26) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1B or Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;

(27) the defendant committed the offense of first degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person who was a veteran and the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the person was a veteran performing duties as a representative of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization" means an organization comprised of members of which substantially all are individuals who are veterans or spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to confer a public benefit;

(28) the defendant committed the offense of assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person that the defendant knew or reasonably should have known was a letter carrier or postal worker while that person was performing his or her duties delivering mail for the United States Postal Service;

(29) the defendant committed the offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse against a victim with an intellectual disability, and the defendant holds a position of trust, authority, or supervision in relation to the victim;

(30) the defendant committed the offense of promoting juvenile prostitution, patronizing a prostitute, or patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution and at the time of the commission of the offense knew that the prostitute or minor engaged in prostitution was in the custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services;

(31) the defendant (i) committed the offense of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof in violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) the defendant during the commission of the offense was driving his or her vehicle upon a roadway designated for one-way traffic in the opposite direction of the direction indicated by official traffic control devices;

(32) the defendant committed the offense of reckless homicide while committing a violation of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(33) the defendant was found guilty of an administrative infraction related to an act or acts of public indecency or sexual misconduct in the penal institution. In this paragraph (33), "penal institution" has the same meaning as in Section 2-14 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(34) the defendant committed the offense of leaving the scene of an accident in violation of subsection (b) of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the accident resulted in the death of a person and at the time of the offense, the defendant was: (i) driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined by Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or (ii) operating the motor vehicle while using an electronic communication device as defined in Section 12-610.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

"Intellectual disability" means significantly subaverage intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

"Traffic control devices" means all signs, signals, markings, and devices that conform to the Illinois Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices, placed or erected by authority of a public body or official having jurisdiction, for the purpose of regulating, warning, or guiding traffic.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person who had a physical disability at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-7 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged; or

(9) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40 or 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(8) When the defendant is convicted of attempted mob action, solicitation to commit mob action, or conspiracy to commit mob action under Section 8-1, 8-2, or 8-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, where the criminal object is a violation of Section 25-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and an electronic communication is used in the commission of the offense. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "electronic communication" shall have the meaning provided in Section 26.5-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been convicted of a felony violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and, during the commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the victim had consumed alcohol.

(Source: P.A. 101-173, eff. 1-1-20; 101-401, eff. 1-1-20; 101-417, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in aggravation and extended-term sentencing.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who has a physical disability or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (O-1) of Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was on pretrial release or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or child day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a child day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a child day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any child day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly or infirm or who was a person with a disability by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly or infirm person or person with a disability;

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and possessed 100 or more images;

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation;

(26) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1B or Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;

(27) the defendant committed the offense of first degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person who was a veteran and the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the person was a veteran performing duties as a representative of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization" means an organization comprised of members of which substantially all are individuals who are veterans or spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to confer a public benefit;

(28) the defendant committed the offense of assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person that the defendant knew or reasonably should have known was a letter carrier or postal worker while that person was performing his or her duties delivering mail for the United States Postal Service;

(29) the defendant committed the offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse against a victim with an intellectual disability, and the defendant holds a position of trust, authority, or supervision in relation to the victim;

(30) the defendant committed the offense of promoting juvenile prostitution, patronizing a prostitute, or patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution and at the time of the commission of the offense knew that the prostitute or minor engaged in prostitution was in the custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services;

(31) the defendant (i) committed the offense of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof in violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) the defendant during the commission of the offense was driving his or her vehicle upon a roadway designated for one-way traffic in the opposite direction of the direction indicated by official traffic control devices;

(32) the defendant committed the offense of reckless homicide while committing a violation of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(33) the defendant was found guilty of an administrative infraction related to an act or acts of public indecency or sexual misconduct in the penal institution. In this paragraph (33), "penal institution" has the same meaning as in Section 2-14 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(34) the defendant committed the offense of leaving the scene of a crash in violation of subsection (b) of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the crash resulted in the death of a person and at the time of the offense, the defendant was: (i) driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined by Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or (ii) operating the motor vehicle while using an electronic communication device as defined in Section 12-610.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Child Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed child day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a child day care center.

"Intellectual disability" means significantly subaverage intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

"Traffic control devices" means all signs, signals, markings, and devices that conform to the Illinois Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices, placed or erected by authority of a public body or official having jurisdiction, for the purpose of regulating, warning, or guiding traffic.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person who had a physical disability at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-7 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged; or

(9) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40 or 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(8) When the defendant is convicted of attempted mob action, solicitation to commit mob action, or conspiracy to commit mob action under Section 8-1, 8-2, or 8-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, where the criminal object is a violation of Section 25-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and an electronic communication is used in the commission of the offense. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "electronic communication" shall have the meaning provided in Section 26.5-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been convicted of a felony violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and, during the commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the victim had consumed alcohol.

(Source: P.A. 101-173, eff. 1-1-20; 101-401, eff. 1-1-20; 101-417, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23.)

Section 300. The Stalking No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Sections 80 and 115 as follows:

(740 ILCS 21/80)

Sec. 80. Stalking no contact orders; remedies.

(a) If the court finds that the petitioner has been a victim of stalking, a stalking no contact order shall issue; provided that the petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of Section 95 on emergency orders or Section 100 on plenary orders. The petitioner shall not be denied a stalking no contact order because the petitioner or the respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue a stalking no contact order, may not require physical injury on the person of the petitioner. Modification and extension of prior stalking no contact orders shall be in accordance with this Act.

(b) A stalking no contact order shall order one or more of the following:

(1) prohibit the respondent from threatening to commit or committing stalking;

(2) order the respondent not to have any contact with the petitioner or a third person specifically named by the court;

(3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within a specified distance of the petitioner or the petitioner's residence, school, child care daycare, or place of employment, or any specified place frequented by the petitioner; however, the court may order the respondent to stay away from the respondent's own residence, school, or place of employment only if the respondent has been provided actual notice of the opportunity to appear and be heard on the petition;

(4) prohibit the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owners Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; and

(5) order other injunctive relief the court determines to be necessary to protect the petitioner or third party specifically named by the court.

(b-5) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a stalking no contact order and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(b-6) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent are responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(b-7) The court shall not hold a school district or private or non-public school or any of its employees in civil or criminal contempt unless the school district or private or non-public school has been allowed to intervene.

(b-8) The court may hold the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent in civil or criminal contempt for a violation of any provision of any order entered under this Act for conduct of the minor respondent in violation of this Act if the parents, guardian, or legal custodian directed, encouraged, or assisted the respondent minor in such conduct.

(c) The court may award the petitioner costs and attorneys fees if a stalking no contact order is granted.

(d) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.

(e) If the stalking no contact order prohibits the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; the court shall confiscate the respondent's Firearm Owner's Identification Card and immediately return the card to the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(740 ILCS 21/115)

Sec. 115. Notice of orders.

(a) Upon issuance of any stalking no contact order, the clerk shall immediately:

(1) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures; and

(2) provide a file stamped copy of the order to the respondent, if present, and to the petitioner.

(b) The clerk of the issuing judge shall, or the petitioner may, on the same day that a stalking no contact order is issued, file a certified copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Illinois State Police records or charged with serving the order upon the respondent. If the respondent, at the time of the issuance of the order, is committed to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or is on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Illinois State Police records shall notify the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice within 48 hours of receipt of a copy of the stalking no contact order from the clerk of the issuing judge or the petitioner. Such notice shall include the name of the respondent, the respondent's IDOC inmate number or IDJJ youth identification number, the respondent's date of birth, and the LEADS Record Index Number.

(c) Unless the respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon the respondent and file proof of such service in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent, however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or other persons defined in Section 117 may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in Section 117. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, it shall be served with the order or short form notification if such service is made by the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server.

(d) If the person against whom the stalking no contact order is issued is arrested and the written order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 95 and received by the custodial law enforcement agency before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody, the custodial law enforcement agent shall promptly serve the order upon the respondent or arrestee before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody. In no event shall detention of the respondent or arrestee be extended for hearing on the petition for stalking no contact order or receipt of the order issued under Section 95 of this Act.

(e) Any order extending, modifying, or revoking any stalking no contact order shall be promptly recorded, issued, and served as provided in this Section.

(f) Upon the request of the petitioner, within 24 hours of the issuance of a stalking no contact order, the clerk of the issuing judge shall send written notice of the order along with a certified copy of the order to any school, child care daycare, college, or university at which the petitioner is enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 101-508, eff. 1-1-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

Section 305. The Civil No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Section 213 as follows:

(740 ILCS 22/213)

Sec. 213. Civil no contact order; remedies.

(a) If the court finds that the petitioner has been a victim of non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration, a civil no contact order shall issue; provided that the petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of Section 214 on emergency orders or Section 215 on plenary orders. The petitioner shall not be denied a civil no contact order because the petitioner or the respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue a civil no contact order, may not require physical injury on the person of the victim. Modification and extension of prior civil no contact orders shall be in accordance with this Act.

(a-5) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) The court may provide relief as follows:

(1) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance from the petitioner;

(2) restrain the respondent from having any contact, including nonphysical contact and electronic communication as defined in Section 26.5-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, with the petitioner directly, indirectly, or through third parties, regardless of whether those third parties know of the order;

(3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance from the petitioner's residence, school, child day care or other specified location;

(4) order the respondent to stay away from any property or animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by the petitioner and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the property or animal; and

(5) order any other injunctive relief as necessary or appropriate for the protection of the petitioner.

(b-6) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public or private elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a civil no contact order and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(b-7) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents or legal guardians of the respondent are responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(c) Denial of a remedy may not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) the respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) the respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) the petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if the petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) the petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) the petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration by the respondent; or

(6) the petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration by the respondent.

(d) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.

(Source: P.A. 101-255, eff. 1-1-20; 102-220, eff. 1-1-22; 102-831, eff. 5-13-22.)

Section 310. The Illinois Parentage Act of 2015 is amended by changing Section 106 as follows:

(750 ILCS 46/106)

Sec. 106. Protection of participants. Proceedings under this Act are subject to other law of this State governing the health, safety, privacy, and liberty of a child or other individual who could be jeopardized by disclosure of identifying information, including address, telephone number, place of employment, social security number, and the child's child care day-care facility and school.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16.)

Section 315. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Sections 203 and 222 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/203) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-3)

Sec. 203. Pleading; non-disclosure of address; non-disclosure of schools.

(a) A petition for an order of protection shall be in writing and verified or accompanied by affidavit and shall allege that petitioner has been abused by respondent, who is a family or household member. The petition shall further set forth whether there is any other pending action between the parties. During the pendency of this proceeding, each party has a continuing duty to inform the court of any subsequent proceeding for an order of protection in this or any other state.

(b) If the petition states that disclosure of petitioner's address would risk abuse of petitioner or any member of petitioner's family or household or reveal the confidential address of a shelter for domestic violence victims, that address may be omitted from all documents filed with the court. If disclosure is necessary to determine jurisdiction or consider any venue issue, it shall be made orally and in camera. If petitioner has not disclosed an address under this subsection, petitioner shall designate an alternative address at which respondent may serve notice of any motions.

(c) If the petitioner is seeking to have a child protected by the order of protection, and if that child is enrolled in any child care day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, private school, public school district, college, or university, the petitioner may provide the name and address of the child care day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, private school, public school district, college, or university to the court. However, if the petition states that disclosure of this information would risk abuse to petitioner or to the child protected under the order, this information may be omitted from all documents filed with the court.

(Source: P.A. 92-90, eff. 7-18-01.)

(750 ILCS 60/222) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-22)

Sec. 222. Notice of orders.

(a) Entry and issuance. Upon issuance of any order of protection, the clerk shall immediately (i) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures and (ii) provide a file stamped copy of the order to respondent, if present, and to petitioner.

(b) Filing with sheriff. The clerk of the issuing judge shall, or the petitioner may, on the same day that an order of protection is issued, file a certified copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Illinois State Police records or charged with serving the order upon respondent. If the respondent, at the time of the issuance of the order, is committed to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or is on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Illinois State Police records shall notify the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice within 48 hours of receipt of a copy of the order of protection from the clerk of the issuing judge or the petitioner. Such notice shall include the name of the respondent, the respondent's IDOC inmate number or IDJJ youth identification number, the respondent's date of birth, and the LEADS Record Index Number.

(c) Service by sheriff. Unless respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon respondent and file proof of such service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent, however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or other persons defined in Section 222.10 may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in Section 222.10. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, it shall be served with the order or short form notification if such service is made by the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server. A single fee may be charged for service of an order obtained in civil court, or for service of such an order together with process, unless waived or deferred under Section 210.

(c-5) If the person against whom the order of protection is issued is arrested and the written order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 217 and received by the custodial law enforcement agency before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody, the custodial law enforcement agent shall promptly serve the order upon the respondent or arrestee before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody. In no event shall detention of the respondent or arrestee be extended for hearing on the petition for order of protection or receipt of the order issued under Section 217 of this Act.

(d) Extensions, modifications and revocations. Any order extending, modifying or revoking any order of protection shall be promptly recorded, issued and served as provided in this Section.

(e) Notice to schools. Upon the request of the petitioner, within 24 hours of the issuance of an order of protection, the clerk of the issuing judge shall send a certified copy of the order of protection to the child care day-care facility, pre-school or pre-kindergarten, or private school or the principal office of the public school district or any college or university in which any child who is a protected person under the order of protection or any child of the petitioner is enrolled as requested by the petitioner at the mailing address provided by the petitioner. If the child transfers enrollment to another child care day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, private school, public school, college, or university, the petitioner may, within 24 hours of the transfer, send to the clerk written notice of the transfer, including the name and address of the institution to which the child is transferring. Within 24 hours of receipt of notice from the petitioner that a child is transferring to another child care day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, private school, public school, college, or university, the clerk shall send a certified copy of the order to the institution to which the child is transferring.

(f) Disclosure by schools. After receiving a certified copy of an order of protection that prohibits a respondent's access to records, neither a child care day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, public or private school, college, or university nor its employees shall allow a respondent access to a protected child's records or release information in those records to the respondent. The school shall file the copy of the order of protection in the records of a child who is a protected person under the order of protection. When a child who is a protected person under the order of protection transfers to another child care day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, public or private school, college, or university, the institution from which the child is transferring may, at the request of the petitioner, provide, within 24 hours of the transfer, written notice of the order of protection, along with a certified copy of the order, to the institution to which the child is transferring.

(g) Notice to health care facilities and health care practitioners. Upon the request of the petitioner, the clerk of the circuit court shall send a certified copy of the order of protection to any specified health care facility or health care practitioner requested by the petitioner at the mailing address provided by the petitioner.

(h) Disclosure by health care facilities and health care practitioners. After receiving a certified copy of an order of protection that prohibits a respondent's access to records, no health care facility or health care practitioner shall allow a respondent access to the records of any child who is a protected person under the order of protection, or release information in those records to the respondent, unless the order has expired or the respondent shows a certified copy of the court order vacating the corresponding order of protection that was sent to the health care facility or practitioner. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require health care facilities or health care practitioners to alter procedures related to billing and payment. The health care facility or health care practitioner may file the copy of the order of protection in the records of a child who is a protected person under the order of protection, or may employ any other method to identify the records to which a respondent is prohibited access. No health care facility or health care practitioner shall be civilly or professionally liable for reliance on a copy of an order of protection, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 101-508, eff. 1-1-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

Section 320. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Section 5-101 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/5-101) (from Ch. 68, par. 5-101)

Sec. 5-101. Definitions. The following definitions are applicable strictly in the context of this Article:

(A) Place of Public Accommodation. "Place of public accommodation" includes, but is not limited to:

(1) an inn, hotel, motel, or other place of lodging, except for an establishment located within a building that contains not more than 5 units for rent or hire and that is actually occupied by the proprietor of such establishment as the residence of such proprietor;

(2) a restaurant, bar, or other establishment serving food or drink;

(3) a motion picture house, theater, concert hall, stadium, or other place of exhibition or entertainment;

(4) an auditorium, convention center, lecture hall, or other place of public gathering;

(5) a bakery, grocery store, clothing store, hardware store, shopping center, or other sales or rental establishment;

(6) a laundromat, dry-cleaner, bank, barber shop, beauty shop, travel service, shoe repair service, funeral parlor, gas station, office of an accountant or lawyer, pharmacy, insurance office, professional office of a health care provider, hospital, or other service establishment;

(7) public conveyances on air, water, or land;

(8) a terminal, depot, or other station used for specified public transportation;

(9) a museum, library, gallery, or other place of public display or collection;

(10) a park, zoo, amusement park, or other place of recreation;

(11) a non-sectarian nursery, child day care center, elementary, secondary, undergraduate, or postgraduate school, or other place of education;

(12) a senior citizen center, homeless shelter, food bank, non-sectarian adoption agency, or other social service center establishment; and

(13) a gymnasium, health spa, bowling alley, golf course, or other place of exercise or recreation.

(B) Operator. "Operator" means any owner, lessee, proprietor, manager, superintendent, agent, or occupant of a place of public accommodation or an employee of any such person or persons.

(C) Public Official. "Public official" means any officer or employee of the state or any agency thereof, including state political subdivisions, municipal corporations, park districts, forest preserve districts, educational institutions, and schools.

(Source: P.A. 100-863, eff. 8-14-18.)

Section 325. The Minimum Wage Law is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(820 ILCS 105/3) (from Ch. 48, par. 1003)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act:

(a) "Director" means the Director of the Department of Labor, and "Department" means the Department of Labor.

(b) "Wages" means compensation due to an employee by reason of his employment, including allowances determined by the Director in accordance with the provisions of this Act for gratuities and, when furnished by the employer, for meals and lodging actually used by the employee.

(c) "Employer" includes any individual, partnership, association, corporation, limited liability company, business trust, governmental or quasi-governmental body, or any person or group of persons acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee, for which one or more persons are gainfully employed on some day within a calendar year. An employer is subject to this Act in a calendar year on and after the first day in such calendar year in which he employs one or more persons, and for the following calendar year.

(d) "Employee" includes any individual permitted to work by an employer in an occupation, and includes, notwithstanding subdivision (1) of this subsection (d), one or more domestic workers as defined in Section 10 of the Domestic Workers' Bill of Rights Act, but does not include any individual permitted to work:

(1) For an employer employing fewer than 4 employees exclusive of the employer's parent, spouse or child or other members of his immediate family.

(2) As an employee employed in agriculture or aquaculture (A) if such employee is employed by an employer who did not, during any calendar quarter during the preceding calendar year, use more than 500 man-days of agricultural or aquacultural labor, (B) if such employee is the parent, spouse or child, or other member of the employer's immediate family, (C) if such employee (i) is employed as a hand harvest laborer and is paid on a piece rate basis in an operation which has been, and is customarily and generally recognized as having been, paid on a piece rate basis in the region of employment, (ii) commutes daily from his permanent residence to the farm on which he is so employed, and (iii) has been employed in agriculture less than 13 weeks during the preceding calendar year, (D) if such employee (other than an employee described in clause (C) of this subparagraph): (i) is 16 years of age or under and is employed as a hand harvest laborer, is paid on a piece rate basis in an operation which has been, and is customarily and generally recognized as having been, paid on a piece rate basis in the region of employment, (ii) is employed on the same farm as his parent or person standing in the place of his parent, and (iii) is paid at the same piece rate as employees over 16 are paid on the same farm.

(3) (Blank).

(4) As an outside salesman.

(5) As a member of a religious corporation or organization.

(6) At an accredited Illinois college or university employed by the college or university at which he is a student who is covered under the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as heretofore or hereafter amended.

(7) For a motor carrier and with respect to whom the U.S. Secretary of Transportation has the power to establish qualifications and maximum hours of service under the provisions of Title 49 U.S.C. or the State of Illinois under Section 18b-105 (Title 92 of the Illinois Administrative Code, Part 395 - Hours of Service of Drivers) of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(8) As an employee employed as a player who is 28 years old or younger, a manager, a coach, or an athletic trainer by a minor league professional baseball team not affiliated with a major league baseball club, if (A) the minor league professional baseball team does not operate for more than 7 months in any calendar year or (B) during the preceding calendar year, the minor league professional baseball team's average receipts for any 6-month period of the year were not more than 33 1/3% of its average receipts for the other 6 months of the year.

The above exclusions from the term "employee" may be further defined by regulations of the Director.

(e) "Occupation" means an industry, trade, business or class of work in which employees are gainfully employed.

(f) "Gratuities" means voluntary monetary contributions to an employee from a guest, patron or customer in connection with services rendered.

(g) "Outside salesman" means an employee regularly engaged in making sales or obtaining orders or contracts for services where a major portion of such duties are performed away from his employer's place of business.

(h) "Day camp" means a seasonal recreation program in operation for no more than 16 weeks intermittently throughout the calendar year, accommodating for profit or under philanthropic or charitable auspices, 5 or more children under 18 years of age, not including overnight programs. The term "day camp" does not include a "child day care agency", "child care facility" or "foster family home" as licensed by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

(Source: P.A. 99-758, eff. 1-1-17; 100-192, eff. 8-18-17.)

Section 330. The Domestic Workers' Bill of Rights Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(820 ILCS 182/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Domestic work" means:

(1) housekeeping;

(2) house cleaning;

(3) home management;

(4) nanny services including child care childcare and child monitoring;

(5) caregiving, personal care or home health services for elderly persons or persons with an illness, injury, or disability who require assistance in caring for themselves;

(6) laundering;

(7) cooking;

(8) companion services;

(9) chauffeuring; or

(10) other household services for members of households or their guests in or about a private home or residence or any other location where the domestic work is performed.

"Domestic worker" means a person employed to perform domestic work. "Domestic worker" does not include: (i) a person performing domestic work who is the employer's parent, spouse, child, or other member of his or her immediate family, exclusive of individuals whose primary work duties are caregiving, companion services, personal care or home health services for elderly persons or persons with an illness, injury, or disability who require assistance in caring for themselves; (ii) child and day care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code; (iii) a person who is employed by one or more employers in or about a private home or residence or any other location where the domestic work is performed for 8 hours or less in the aggregate in any workweek on a regular basis, exclusive of individuals whose primary work duties are caregiving, companion services, personal care or home health services for elderly persons or persons with an illness, injury, or disability who require assistance in caring for themselves; or (iv) a person who the employer establishes: (A) has been and will continue to be free from control and direction over the performance of his or her work, both under a contract of service and in fact; (B) is engaged in an independently established trade, occupation, profession or business; or (C) is deemed a legitimate sole proprietor or partnership. A sole proprietor or partnership shall be deemed to be legitimate if the employer establishes that:

(1) the sole proprietor or partnership is performing the service free from the direction or control over the means and manner of providing the service, subject only to the right of the employer for whom the service is provided to specify the desired result;

(2) the sole proprietor or partnership is not subject to cancellation or destruction upon severance of the relationship with the employer;

(3) the sole proprietor or partnership has a substantial investment of capital in the sole proprietorship or partnership beyond ordinary tools and equipment and a personal vehicle;

(4) the sole proprietor or partnership owns the capital goods and gains the profits and bears the losses of the sole proprietorship or partnership;

(5) the sole proprietor or partnership makes its services available to the general public on a continuing basis;

(6) the sole proprietor or partnership includes services rendered on a Federal Income Tax Schedule as an independent business or profession;

(7) the sole proprietor or partnership performs services for the contractor under the sole proprietorship's or partnership's name;

(8) when the services being provided require a license or permit, the sole proprietor or partnership obtains and pays for the license or permit in the sole proprietorship's or partnership's name;

(9) the sole proprietor or partnership furnishes the tools and equipment necessary to provide the service;

(10) if necessary, the sole proprietor or partnership hires its own employees without approval of the employer, pays the employees without reimbursement from the employer and reports the employees' income to the Internal Revenue Service;

(11) the employer does not represent the sole proprietorship or partnership as an employee of the employer to the public; and

(12) the sole proprietor or partnership has the right to perform similar services for others on whatever basis and whenever it chooses.

"Employ" includes to suffer or permit to work.

"Employee" means a domestic worker.

"Employer" means: any individual; partnership; association; corporation; limited liability company; business trust; employment and labor placement agency where wages are made directly or indirectly by the agency or business for work undertaken by employees under hire to a third party pursuant to a contract between the business or agency with the third party; the State of Illinois and local governments, or any political subdivision of the State or local government, or State or local government agency; for which one or more persons is gainfully employed, express or implied, whether lawfully or unlawfully employed, who employs a domestic worker or who exercises control over the domestic worker's wage, remuneration, or other compensation, hours of employment, place of employment, or working conditions, or whose agent or any other person or group of persons acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to the employee exercises control over the domestic worker's wage, remuneration or other compensation, hours of employment, place of employment, or working conditions.

(Source: P.A. 99-758, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.