SB2437 103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB103 26700 AMC 53063 b

103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2023 and 2024
SB2437

Introduced 2/10/2023, by Sen. Bill Cunningham

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Creates the First 2023 General Revisory Act. Combines multiple versions of Sections amended by more than one Public Act. Renumbers Sections of various Acts to eliminate duplication. Corrects obsolete cross-references and technical errors. Makes stylistic changes. Effective immediately.

A BILL FOR

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2023 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 102-692 through 102-1118 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Sections 4.38 and 7 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.38)

Sec. 4.38. Acts repealed on January 1, 2028. The following Acts are repealed on January 1, 2028:

The Acupuncture Practice Act.

The Behavior Analyst Licensing Act.

The Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act.

The Dietitian Nutritionist Practice Act.

The Elevator Safety and Regulation Act.

The Fire Equipment Distributor and Employee Regulation Act of 2011.

The Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code.

The Home Medical Equipment and Services Provider License Act.

The Illinois Petroleum Education and Marketing Act.

The Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act.

The Interpreter for the Deaf Licensure Act of 2007.

The Music Therapy Licensing and Practice Act.

The Naprapathic Practice Act.

The Nurse Practice Act.

The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

The Pharmacy Practice Act.

The Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

The Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act.

The Wholesale Drug Distribution Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-715, eff. 4-29-22; 102-878, eff. 5-13-22; 102-879, eff. 5-13-22; 102-880, eff. 5-13-22; 102-881, eff. 5-13-22; 102-882, eff. 5-13-22; 102-945, eff. 5-27-22; 102-953, eff. 5-27-22; 102-993, eff. 5-27-22; revised 7-27-22.)

(5 ILCS 80/7) (from Ch. 127, par. 1907)

Sec. 7. Additional criteria.

(a) In determining whether to recommend to the General Assembly under Section 5 the continuation of a regulatory agency or program or any function thereof, the Governor shall also consider the following criteria:

(1) whether the absence or modification of regulation would significantly harm or endanger the public health, safety or welfare;

(2) whether there is a reasonable relationship between the exercise of the State's police power and the protection of the public health, safety or welfare;

(3) whether there is another less restrictive method of regulation available which could adequately protect the public;

(4) whether the regulation has the effect of directly or indirectly increasing the costs of any goods or services involved, and if so, to what degree;

(5) whether the increase in cost is more harmful to the public than the harm which could result from the absence of regulation; and

(6) whether all facets of the regulatory process are designed solely for the purpose of, and have as their primary effect, the protection of the public.

(b) In making an evaluation or recommendation with respect to paragraph (3) of subsection (a), the Governor shall follow the following guidelines to address the following:

(1) Contractual disputes, including pricing disputes. The Governor may recommend enacting a specific civil cause of action in small claims small-claims court or district court to remedy consumer harm. This cause of action may provide for reimbursement of the attorney's fees or court costs, if a consumer's claim is successful.

(2) Fraud. The Governor may recommend strengthening powers under the State's deceptive trade practices acts or requiring disclosures that will reduce misleading attributes of the specific good or service.

(3) General health and safety risks. The Governor may recommend enacting a regulation on the related process or requiring a facility license.

(4) Unclean facilities. The Governor may recommend requiring periodic facility inspections.

(5) A provider's failure to complete a contract fully or to standards. The Governor may recommend requiring the provider to be bonded.

(6) A lack of protection for a person who is not a party to a contract between providers and consumers. The Governor may recommend requiring that the provider have insurance.

(7) Transactions with transient, out-of-state, or fly-by-night providers. The Governor may recommend requiring the provider register its business with the Secretary of State.

(8) A shortfall or imbalance in the consumer's knowledge about the good or service relative to the provider's knowledge (asymmetrical information). The Governor may recommend enacting government certification.

(9) An inability to qualify providers of new or highly specialized medical services for reimbursement by the State. The Governor may recommend enacting a specialty certification solely for medical reimbursement.

(10) A systematic information shortfall in which a reasonable consumer of the service is permanently unable to distinguish between the quality of providers and there is an absence of institutions that provide guidance to consumers. The Governor may recommend enacting an occupational license.

(11) The need to address multiple types of harm. The Governor may recommend a combination of regulations. This may include a government regulation combined with a private remedy, including third-party or consumer-created ratings and reviews or private certification.

(Source: P.A. 102-984, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-8-22.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.33 rep.)

Section 6. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by repealing Section 4.33.

Section 10. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 5-45.21, 5-45.22, and 5-45.23 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.21)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on April 19, 2023)

Sec. 5-45.21. Emergency rulemaking; Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the changes made to Section 74 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act by Public Act 102-699 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing the changes made to Section 74 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act by Public Act 102-699 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Human Services or other department essential to the implementation of the changes. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on April 19, 2023 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-699) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on April 19, 2023)

Sec. 5-45.22. Emergency rulemaking; Illinois Public Aid Code. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the changes made to Article 5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code by Public Act 102-699 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing the changes made to Article 5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code by Public Act 102-699 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or other department essential to the implementation of the changes. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on April 19, 2023 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-699) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.23)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on April 19, 2023)

Sec. 5-45.23. Emergency rulemaking; medical services for certain noncitizens. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the changes made to Article 12 of the Illinois Public Aid Code by Public Act 102-699 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing the changes made to Section 12-4.35 of the Illinois Public Aid Code by Public Act 102-699 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on April 19, 2023 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-699) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.28)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on April 19, 2023)

Sec. 5-45.28 5-45.21. Emergency rulemaking. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing Sections 208.5 and 212.1 of the Illinois Income Tax Act may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Revenue. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on April 19, 2023 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-700) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.29)

Sec. 5-45.29 5-45.21. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 102-1035, eff. 5-31-22. Repealed internally, eff. 9-30-22.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 2, 2023)

Sec. 5-45.30 5-45.21. Emergency rulemaking; Certified Nursing Assistant Intern Program; Department of Public Health. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Public Act 102-1037 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing Section 2310-434 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Public Health. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on June 2, 2023 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-1037) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1037, eff. 6-2-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.31)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on April 19, 2023)

Sec. 5-45.31 5-45.22. Emergency rulemaking. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Article 95 of Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing Article 95 of Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Agriculture. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on April 19, 2023 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-700) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.32)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 2, 2023)

Sec. 5-45.32 5-45.22. Emergency rulemaking; Certified Nursing Assistant Intern Program; Department of Healthcare and Family Services. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Public Act 102-1037 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing Section 5-5.01b of the Illinois Public Aid Code may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on June 2, 2023 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-1037) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1037, eff. 6-2-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.33)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 2, 2023)

Sec. 5-45.33 5-45.23. Emergency rulemaking; medical services to noncitizens. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of changes made by Public Act 102-1037 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly to Section 12-4.35 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, emergency rules implementing the changes made by Public Act 102-1037 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly to Section 12-4.35 of the Illinois Public Aid Code may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on June 2, 2023 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-1037) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1037, eff. 6-2-22; revised 7-26-22.)

Section 15. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public record that contains information that is exempt from disclosure under this Section, but also contains information that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect to redact the information that is exempt. The public body shall make the remaining information available for inspection and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations implementing federal or State law.

(b) Private information, unless disclosure is required by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law, or a court order.

(b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and specifically designed to provide information to one or more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or mental status of one or more individual subjects.

(c) Personal information contained within public records, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of information that is highly personal or objectionable to a reasonable person and in which the subject's right to privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in obtaining the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records in the possession of any public body created in the course of administrative enforcement proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency that is the recipient of the request;

(ii) interfere with active administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by the public body that is the recipient of the request;

(iii) create a substantial likelihood that a person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, or persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or penal agencies; except that the identities of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by agencies of local government, except when disclosure would interfere with an active criminal investigation conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the request;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation, or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct, and disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the agency or public body that is the recipient of the request;

(vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation by the agency that is the recipient of the request.

(d-5) A law enforcement record created for law enforcement purposes and contained in a shared electronic record management system if the law enforcement agency that is the recipient of the request did not create the record, did not participate in or have a role in any of the events which are the subject of the record, and only has access to the record through the shared electronic record management system.

(d-6) Records contained in the Officer Professional Conduct Database under Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act, except to the extent authorized under that Section. This includes the documents supplied to the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board from the Illinois State Police and Illinois State Police Merit Board.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(e-5) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those materials are available in the library of the correctional institution or facility or jail where the inmate is confined.

(e-6) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those materials include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information.

(e-7) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health if those materials are available through an administrative request to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health.

(e-8) Records requested by a person committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, the disclosure of which would result in the risk of harm to any person or the risk of an escape from a jail or correctional institution or facility.

(e-9) Records requested by a person in a county jail or committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, containing personal information pertaining to the person's victim or the victim's family, including, but not limited to, a victim's home address, home telephone number, work or school address, work telephone number, social security number, or any other identifying information, except as may be relevant to a requester's current or potential case or claim.

(e-10) Law enforcement records of other persons requested by a person committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, including, but not limited to, arrest and booking records, mug shots, and crime scene photographs, except as these records may be relevant to the requester's current or potential case or claim.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda, and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or commercial or financial information are furnished under a claim that they are proprietary, privileged, or confidential, and that disclosure of the trade secrets or commercial or financial information would cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only insofar as the claim directly applies to the records requested.

The information included under this exemption includes all trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings, and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) The following information pertaining to educational matters:

(i) test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to administer an academic examination;

(ii) information received by a primary or secondary school, college, or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers;

(iii) information concerning a school or university's adjudication of student disciplinary cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and

(iv) course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, including, but not limited to, power generating and distribution stations and other transmission and distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security.

(l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(m) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of cases in which discipline is imposed.

(o) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including, but not limited to, software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to determine the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(r) The records, documents, and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents, and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents, and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(s) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool. Insurance or self-insurance self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice, or communications.

(t) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions, insurance companies, or pharmacy benefit managers, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(u) Information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic signatures under the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act.

(v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to expose the vulnerability or jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures, policies, or plans, or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, to cybersecurity vulnerabilities, or to tactical operations.

(w) (Blank).

(x) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(y) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(z) Information about students exempted from disclosure under Section Sections 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the School Code, and information about undergraduate students enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit Card Marketing Act of 2009.

(aa) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(bb) Records and information provided to a mortality review team and records maintained by a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable.

(dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ee) The names, addresses, or other personal information of persons who are minors and are also participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations.

(ff) The names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations where such programs are targeted primarily to minors.

(gg) Confidential information described in Section 1-100 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(hh) The report submitted to the State Board of Education by the School Security and Standards Task Force under item (8) of subsection (d) of Section 2-3.160 of the School Code and any information contained in that report.

(ii) Records requested by persons committed to or detained by the Department of Human Services under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or committed to the Department of Corrections under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act if those materials: (i) are available in the library of the facility where the individual is confined; (ii) include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information; or (iii) are available through an administrative request to the Department of Human Services or the Department of Corrections.

(jj) Confidential information described in Section 5-535 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(kk) The public body's credit card numbers, debit card numbers, bank account numbers, Federal Employer Identification Number, security code numbers, passwords, and similar account information, the disclosure of which could result in identity theft or impression or defrauding of a governmental entity or a person.

(ll) Records concerning the work of the threat assessment team of a school district, including, but not limited to, any threat assessment procedure under the School Safety Drill Act and any information contained in the procedure.

(mm) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 15 of the Student Confidential Reporting Act.

(nn) (mm) Proprietary information submitted to the Environmental Protection Agency under the Drug Take-Back Act.

(oo) (mm) Records described in subsection (f) of Section 3-5-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(1.5) Any information exempt from disclosure under the Judicial Privacy Act shall be redacted from public records prior to disclosure under this Act.

(2) A public record that is not in the possession of a public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, for purposes of this Act.

(3) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-434, eff. 1-1-20; 101-452, eff. 1-1-20; 101-455, eff. 8-23-19; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-38, eff. 6-25-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; 102-752, eff. 5-6-22; 102-753, eff. 1-1-23; 102-776, eff. 1-1-23; 102-791, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1055, eff. 6-10-22; revised 12-13-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public record that contains information that is exempt from disclosure under this Section, but also contains information that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect to redact the information that is exempt. The public body shall make the remaining information available for inspection and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations implementing federal or State law.

(b) Private information, unless disclosure is required by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law, or a court order.

(b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and specifically designed to provide information to one or more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or mental status of one or more individual subjects.

(c) Personal information contained within public records, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of information that is highly personal or objectionable to a reasonable person and in which the subject's right to privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in obtaining the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records in the possession of any public body created in the course of administrative enforcement proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency that is the recipient of the request;

(ii) interfere with active administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by the public body that is the recipient of the request;

(iii) create a substantial likelihood that a person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, or persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or penal agencies; except that the identities of witnesses to traffic crashes, traffic crash reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by agencies of local government, except when disclosure would interfere with an active criminal investigation conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the request;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation, or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct, and disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the agency or public body that is the recipient of the request;

(vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation by the agency that is the recipient of the request.

(d-5) A law enforcement record created for law enforcement purposes and contained in a shared electronic record management system if the law enforcement agency that is the recipient of the request did not create the record, did not participate in or have a role in any of the events which are the subject of the record, and only has access to the record through the shared electronic record management system.

(d-6) Records contained in the Officer Professional Conduct Database under Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act, except to the extent authorized under that Section. This includes the documents supplied to the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board from the Illinois State Police and Illinois State Police Merit Board.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(e-5) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those materials are available in the library of the correctional institution or facility or jail where the inmate is confined.

(e-6) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those materials include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information.

(e-7) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health if those materials are available through an administrative request to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health.

(e-8) Records requested by a person committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, the disclosure of which would result in the risk of harm to any person or the risk of an escape from a jail or correctional institution or facility.

(e-9) Records requested by a person in a county jail or committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, containing personal information pertaining to the person's victim or the victim's family, including, but not limited to, a victim's home address, home telephone number, work or school address, work telephone number, social security number, or any other identifying information, except as may be relevant to a requester's current or potential case or claim.

(e-10) Law enforcement records of other persons requested by a person committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, including, but not limited to, arrest and booking records, mug shots, and crime scene photographs, except as these records may be relevant to the requester's current or potential case or claim.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda, and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or commercial or financial information are furnished under a claim that they are proprietary, privileged, or confidential, and that disclosure of the trade secrets or commercial or financial information would cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only insofar as the claim directly applies to the records requested.

The information included under this exemption includes all trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings, and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) The following information pertaining to educational matters:

(i) test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to administer an academic examination;

(ii) information received by a primary or secondary school, college, or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers;

(iii) information concerning a school or university's adjudication of student disciplinary cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and

(iv) course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, including, but not limited to, power generating and distribution stations and other transmission and distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security.

(l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(m) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of cases in which discipline is imposed.

(o) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including, but not limited to, software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to determine the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(r) The records, documents, and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents, and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents, and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(s) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool. Insurance or self-insurance self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice, or communications.

(t) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions, insurance companies, or pharmacy benefit managers, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(u) Information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic signatures under the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act.

(v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to expose the vulnerability or jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures, policies, or plans, or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, to cybersecurity vulnerabilities, or to tactical operations.

(w) (Blank).

(x) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(y) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(z) Information about students exempted from disclosure under Section Sections 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the School Code, and information about undergraduate students enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit Card Marketing Act of 2009.

(aa) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(bb) Records and information provided to a mortality review team and records maintained by a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable.

(dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ee) The names, addresses, or other personal information of persons who are minors and are also participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations.

(ff) The names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations where such programs are targeted primarily to minors.

(gg) Confidential information described in Section 1-100 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(hh) The report submitted to the State Board of Education by the School Security and Standards Task Force under item (8) of subsection (d) of Section 2-3.160 of the School Code and any information contained in that report.

(ii) Records requested by persons committed to or detained by the Department of Human Services under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or committed to the Department of Corrections under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act if those materials: (i) are available in the library of the facility where the individual is confined; (ii) include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information; or (iii) are available through an administrative request to the Department of Human Services or the Department of Corrections.

(jj) Confidential information described in Section 5-535 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(kk) The public body's credit card numbers, debit card numbers, bank account numbers, Federal Employer Identification Number, security code numbers, passwords, and similar account information, the disclosure of which could result in identity theft or impression or defrauding of a governmental entity or a person.

(ll) Records concerning the work of the threat assessment team of a school district, including, but not limited to, any threat assessment procedure under the School Safety Drill Act and any information contained in the procedure.

(mm) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 15 of the Student Confidential Reporting Act.

(nn) (mm) Proprietary information submitted to the Environmental Protection Agency under the Drug Take-Back Act.

(oo) (mm) Records described in subsection (f) of Section 3-5-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(1.5) Any information exempt from disclosure under the Judicial Privacy Act shall be redacted from public records prior to disclosure under this Act.

(2) A public record that is not in the possession of a public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, for purposes of this Act.

(3) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-434, eff. 1-1-20; 101-452, eff. 1-1-20; 101-455, eff. 8-23-19; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-38, eff. 6-25-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; 102-752, eff. 5-6-22; 102-753, eff. 1-1-23; 102-776, eff. 1-1-23; 102-791, eff. 5-13-22; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 102-1055, eff. 6-10-22; revised 12-13-22.)

Section 20. The Illinois Public Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(5 ILCS 315/3) (from Ch. 48, par. 1603)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Board" means the Illinois Labor Relations Board or, with respect to a matter over which the jurisdiction of the Board is assigned to the State Panel or the Local Panel under Section 5, the panel having jurisdiction over the matter.

(b) "Collective bargaining" means bargaining over terms and conditions of employment, including hours, wages, and other conditions of employment, as detailed in Section 7 and which are not excluded by Section 4.

(c) "Confidential employee" means an employee who, in the regular course of his or her duties, assists and acts in a confidential capacity to persons who formulate, determine, and effectuate management policies with regard to labor relations or who, in the regular course of his or her duties, has authorized access to information relating to the effectuation or review of the employer's collective bargaining policies. Determinations of confidential employee status shall be based on actual employee job duties and not solely on written job descriptions.

(d) "Craft employees" means skilled journeymen, crafts persons, and their apprentices and helpers.

(e) "Essential services employees" means those public employees performing functions so essential that the interruption or termination of the function will constitute a clear and present danger to the health and safety of the persons in the affected community.

(f) "Exclusive representative", except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, means the labor organization that has been (i) designated by the Board as the representative of a majority of public employees in an appropriate bargaining unit in accordance with the procedures contained in this Act; (ii) historically recognized by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State before July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act) as the exclusive representative of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit; (iii) after July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act) recognized by an employer upon evidence, acceptable to the Board, that the labor organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit; (iv) recognized as the exclusive representative of personal assistants under Executive Order 2003-8 prior to July 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-204), and the organization shall be considered to be the exclusive representative of the personal assistants as defined in this Section; or (v) recognized as the exclusive representative of child and day care home providers, including licensed and license exempt providers, pursuant to an election held under Executive Order 2005-1 prior to January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320), and the organization shall be considered to be the exclusive representative of the child and day care home providers as defined in this Section.

With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, "exclusive representative" means the labor organization that has been (i) designated by the Board as the representative of a majority of peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit in accordance with the procedures contained in this Act, (ii) historically recognized by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State before January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985) as the exclusive representative by a majority of the peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit, or (iii) after January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985) recognized by an employer upon evidence, acceptable to the Board, that the labor organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit.

Where a historical pattern of representation exists for the workers of a water system that was owned by a public utility, as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, prior to becoming certified employees of a municipality or municipalities once the municipality or municipalities have acquired the water system as authorized in Section 11-124-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code, the Board shall find the labor organization that has historically represented the workers to be the exclusive representative under this Act, and shall find the unit represented by the exclusive representative to be the appropriate unit.

(g) "Fair share agreement" means an agreement between the employer and an employee organization under which all or any of the employees in a collective bargaining unit are required to pay their proportionate share of the costs of the collective bargaining process, contract administration, and pursuing matters affecting wages, hours, and other conditions of employment, but not to exceed the amount of dues uniformly required of members. The amount certified by the exclusive representative shall not include any fees for contributions related to the election or support of any candidate for political office. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall preclude an employee from making voluntary political contributions in conjunction with his or her fair share payment.

(g-1) "Fire fighter" means, for the purposes of this Act only, any person who has been or is hereafter appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a state university and sworn or commissioned to perform fire fighter duties or paramedic duties, including paramedics employed by a unit of local government, except that the following persons are not included: part-time fire fighters, auxiliary, reserve or voluntary fire fighters, including paid on-call fire fighters, clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform fire fighter duties, or elected officials.

(g-2) "General Assembly of the State of Illinois" means the legislative branch of the government of the State of Illinois, as provided for under Article IV of the Constitution of the State of Illinois, and includes, but is not limited to, the House of Representatives, the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the Senate, the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services, and any legislative support services agency listed in the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(h) "Governing body" means, in the case of the State, the State Panel of the Illinois Labor Relations Board, the Director of the Department of Central Management Services, and the Director of the Department of Labor; the county board in the case of a county; the corporate authorities in the case of a municipality; and the appropriate body authorized to provide for expenditures of its funds in the case of any other unit of government.

(i) "Labor organization" means any organization in which public employees participate and that exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with a public employer concerning wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment, including the settlement of grievances.

(i-5) "Legislative liaison" means a person who is an employee of a State agency, the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, or the Treasurer, as the case may be, and whose job duties require the person to regularly communicate in the course of his or her employment with any official or staff of the General Assembly of the State of Illinois for the purpose of influencing any legislative action.

(j) "Managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged predominantly in executive and management functions and is charged with the responsibility of directing the effectuation of management policies and practices. Determination of managerial employee status shall be based on actual employee job duties and not solely on written job descriptions. With respect only to State employees in positions under the jurisdiction of the Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer (i) that were certified in a bargaining unit on or after December 2, 2008, (ii) for which a petition is filed with the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172), or (iii) for which a petition is pending before the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on that date, "managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged in executive and management functions or who is charged with the effectuation of management policies and practices or who represents management interests by taking or recommending discretionary actions that effectively control or implement policy. Nothing in this definition prohibits an individual from also meeting the definition of "supervisor" under subsection (r) of this Section.

(k) "Peace officer" means, for the purposes of this Act only, any persons who have been or are hereafter appointed to a police force, department, or agency and sworn or commissioned to perform police duties, except that the following persons are not included: part-time police officers, special police officers, auxiliary police as defined by Section 3.1-30-20 of the Illinois Municipal Code, night watchmen, "merchant police", court security officers as defined by Section 3-6012.1 of the Counties Code, temporary employees, traffic guards or wardens, civilian parking meter and parking facilities personnel or other individuals specially appointed to aid or direct traffic at or near schools or public functions or to aid in civil defense or disaster, parking enforcement employees who are not commissioned as peace officers and who are not armed and who are not routinely expected to effect arrests, parking lot attendants, clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a police department who are not routinely expected to effect arrests, or elected officials.

(l) "Person" includes one or more individuals, labor organizations, public employees, associations, corporations, legal representatives, trustees, trustees in bankruptcy, receivers, or the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State or governing body, but does not include the General Assembly of the State of Illinois or any individual employed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois.

(m) "Professional employee" means any employee engaged in work predominantly intellectual and varied in character rather than routine mental, manual, mechanical or physical work; involving the consistent exercise of discretion and adjustment in its performance; of such a character that the output produced or the result accomplished cannot be standardized in relation to a given period of time; and requiring advanced knowledge in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction and study in an institution of higher learning or a hospital, as distinguished from a general academic education or from apprenticeship or from training in the performance of routine mental, manual, or physical processes; or any employee who has completed the courses of specialized intellectual instruction and study prescribed in this subsection (m) and is performing related work under the supervision of a professional person to qualify to become a professional employee as defined in this subsection (m).

(n) "Public employee" or "employee", for the purposes of this Act, means any individual employed by a public employer, including (i) interns and residents at public hospitals, (ii) as of July 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-204), but not before, personal assistants working under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, (iii) as of January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320), but not before, child and day care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, (iv) as of January 29, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1158), but not before except as otherwise provided in this subsection (n), home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, no matter whether the State provides those services through direct fee-for-service arrangements, with the assistance of a managed care organization or other intermediary, or otherwise, (v) beginning on July 19, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-100) and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any person employed by a public employer and who is classified as or who holds the employment title of Chief Stationary Engineer, Assistant Chief Stationary Engineer, Sewage Plant Operator, Water Plant Operator, Stationary Engineer, Plant Operating Engineer, and any other employee who holds the position of: Civil Engineer V, Civil Engineer VI, Civil Engineer VII, Technical Manager I, Technical Manager II, Technical Manager III, Technical Manager IV, Technical Manager V, Technical Manager VI, Realty Specialist III, Realty Specialist IV, Realty Specialist V, Technical Advisor I, Technical Advisor II, Technical Advisor III, Technical Advisor IV, or Technical Advisor V employed by the Department of Transportation who is in a position which is certified in a bargaining unit on or before July 19, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-100), and (vi) beginning on July 19, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-100) and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any mental health administrator in the Department of Corrections who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 8K), any employee of the Office of the Inspector General in the Department of Human Services who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), any Deputy of Intelligence in the Department of Corrections who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), and any employee of the Illinois State Police who handles issues concerning the Illinois State Police Sex Offender Registry and who is classified as or holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), but excluding all of the following: employees of the General Assembly of the State of Illinois; elected officials; executive heads of a department; members of boards or commissions; the Executive Inspectors General; any special Executive Inspectors General; employees of each Office of an Executive Inspector General; commissioners and employees of the Executive Ethics Commission; the Auditor General's Inspector General; employees of the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General; the Legislative Inspector General; any special Legislative Inspectors General; employees of the Office of the Legislative Inspector General; commissioners and employees of the Legislative Ethics Commission; employees of any agency, board or commission created by this Act; employees appointed to State positions of a temporary or emergency nature; all employees of school districts and higher education institutions except firefighters and peace officers employed by a state university and except peace officers employed by a school district in its own police department in existence on July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1257); managerial employees; short-term employees; legislative liaisons; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Office of the Attorney General who is licensed to practice law or whose position authorizes, either directly or indirectly, meaningful input into government decision-making on issues where there is room for principled disagreement on goals or their implementation; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Office of the Comptroller who holds the position of Public Service Administrator or whose position is otherwise exempt under the Comptroller Merit Employment Code; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Secretary of State who holds the position classification of Executive I or higher, whose position authorizes, either directly or indirectly, meaningful input into government decision-making on issues where there is room for principled disagreement on goals or their implementation, or who is otherwise exempt under the Secretary of State Merit Employment Code; employees in the Office of the Secretary of State who are completely exempt from jurisdiction B of the Secretary of State Merit Employment Code and who are in Rutan-exempt positions on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172); a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Treasurer who holds a position that is exempt from the State Treasurer Employment Code; any employee of a State agency who (i) holds the title or position of, or exercises substantially similar duties as a legislative liaison, Agency General Counsel, Agency Chief of Staff, Agency Executive Director, Agency Deputy Director, Agency Chief Fiscal Officer, Agency Human Resources Director, Public Information Officer, or Chief Information Officer and (ii) was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any employee of a State agency who (i) is in a position that is Rutan-exempt, as designated by the employer, and completely exempt from jurisdiction B of the Personnel Code and (ii) was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any term appointed employee of a State agency pursuant to Section 8b.18 or 8b.19 of the Personnel Code who was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any employment position properly designated pursuant to Section 6.1 of this Act; confidential employees; independent contractors; and supervisors except as provided in this Act.

Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act shall not be considered public employees for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 93-204 or Public Act 97-1158, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

Child and day care home providers shall not be considered public employees for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 94-320, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

Notwithstanding Section 9, subsection (c), or any other provisions of this Act, all peace officers above the rank of captain in municipalities with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants shall be excluded from this Act.

(o) Except as otherwise in subsection (o-5), "public employer" or "employer" means the State of Illinois; any political subdivision of the State, unit of local government or school district; authorities including departments, divisions, bureaus, boards, commissions, or other agencies of the foregoing entities; and any person acting within the scope of his or her authority, express or implied, on behalf of those entities in dealing with its employees. As of July 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-204), but not before, the State of Illinois shall be considered the employer of the personal assistants working under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act. As of January 29, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1158), but not before except as otherwise provided in this subsection (o), the State shall be considered the employer of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, no matter whether the State provides those services through direct fee-for-service arrangements, with the assistance of a managed care organization or other intermediary, or otherwise, but subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 93-204 or Public Act 97-1158, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971. As of January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320), but not before, the State of Illinois shall be considered the employer of the day and child care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of child and day care home providers for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 94-320, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

"Public employer" or "employer" as used in this Act, however, does not mean and shall not include the General Assembly of the State of Illinois, the Executive Ethics Commission, the Offices of the Executive Inspectors General, the Legislative Ethics Commission, the Office of the Legislative Inspector General, the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General, the Office of the Governor, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, the Illinois Finance Authority, the Office of the Lieutenant Governor, the State Board of Elections, and educational employers or employers as defined in the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, except with respect to a state university in its employment of firefighters and peace officers and except with respect to a school district in the employment of peace officers in its own police department in existence on July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1257). County boards and county sheriffs shall be designated as joint or co-employers of county peace officers appointed under the authority of a county sheriff. Nothing in this subsection (o) shall be construed to prevent the State Panel or the Local Panel from determining that employers are joint or co-employers.

(o-5) With respect to wages, fringe benefits, hours, holidays, vacations, proficiency examinations, sick leave, and other conditions of employment, the public employer of public employees who are court reporters, as defined in the Court Reporters Act, shall be determined as follows:

(1) For court reporters employed by the Cook County Judicial Circuit, the chief judge of the Cook County Circuit Court is the public employer and employer representative.

(2) For court reporters employed by the 12th, 18th, 19th, and, on and after December 4, 2006, the 22nd judicial circuits, a group consisting of the chief judges of those circuits, acting jointly by majority vote, is the public employer and employer representative.

(3) For court reporters employed by all other judicial circuits, a group consisting of the chief judges of those circuits, acting jointly by majority vote, is the public employer and employer representative.

(p) "Security employee" means an employee who is responsible for the supervision and control of inmates at correctional facilities. The term also includes other non-security employees in bargaining units having the majority of employees being responsible for the supervision and control of inmates at correctional facilities.

(q) "Short-term employee" means an employee who is employed for less than 2 consecutive calendar quarters during a calendar year and who does not have a reasonable assurance that he or she will be rehired by the same employer for the same service in a subsequent calendar year.

(q-5) "State agency" means an agency directly responsible to the Governor, as defined in Section 3.1 of the Executive Reorganization Implementation Act, and the Illinois Commerce Commission, the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, the Civil Service Commission, the Pollution Control Board, the Illinois Racing Board, and the Illinois State Police Merit Board.

(r) "Supervisor" is:

(1) An employee whose principal work is substantially different from that of his or her subordinates and who has authority, in the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, direct, reward, or discipline employees, to adjust their grievances, or to effectively recommend any of those actions, if the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the consistent use of independent judgment. Except with respect to police employment, the term "supervisor" includes only those individuals who devote a preponderance of their employment time to exercising that authority, State supervisors notwithstanding. Determinations of supervisor status shall be based on actual employee job duties and not solely on written job descriptions. Nothing in this definition prohibits an individual from also meeting the definition of "managerial employee" under subsection (j) of this Section. In addition, in determining supervisory status in police employment, rank shall not be determinative. The Board shall consider, as evidence of bargaining unit inclusion or exclusion, the common law enforcement policies and relationships between police officer ranks and certification under applicable civil service law, ordinances, personnel codes, or Division 2.1 of Article 10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, but these factors shall not be the sole or predominant factors considered by the Board in determining police supervisory status.

Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, in determining supervisory status in fire fighter employment, no fire fighter shall be excluded as a supervisor who has established representation rights under Section 9 of this Act. Further, in fire fighter units, employees shall consist of fire fighters of the highest rank of company officer and below. A company officer may be responsible for multiple companies or apparatus on a shift, multiple stations, or an entire shift. There may be more than one company officer per shift. If a company officer otherwise qualifies as a supervisor under the preceding paragraph, however, he or she shall not be included in the fire fighter unit. If there is no rank between that of chief and the highest company officer, the employer may designate a position on each shift as a Shift Commander, and the persons occupying those positions shall be supervisors. All other ranks above that of the highest company officer shall be supervisors.

(2) With respect only to State employees in positions under the jurisdiction of the Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer (i) that were certified in a bargaining unit on or after December 2, 2008, (ii) for which a petition is filed with the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172), or (iii) for which a petition is pending before the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on that date, an employee who qualifies as a supervisor under (A) Section 152 of the National Labor Relations Act and (B) orders of the National Labor Relations Board interpreting that provision or decisions of courts reviewing decisions of the National Labor Relations Board.

(s)(1) "Unit" means a class of jobs or positions that are held by employees whose collective interests may suitably be represented by a labor organization for collective bargaining. Except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, a bargaining unit determined by the Board shall not include both employees and supervisors, or supervisors only, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (s) and except for bargaining units in existence on July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act). With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, a bargaining unit determined by the Board shall not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, or supervisors only, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (s) and except for bargaining units in existence on January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985). A bargaining unit determined by the Board to contain peace officers shall contain no employees other than peace officers unless otherwise agreed to by the employer and the labor organization or labor organizations involved. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a bargaining unit, including a historical bargaining unit, containing sworn peace officers of the Department of Natural Resources (formerly designated the Department of Conservation) shall contain no employees other than such sworn peace officers upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 or upon the expiration date of any collective bargaining agreement in effect upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 covering both such sworn peace officers and other employees.

(2) Notwithstanding the exclusion of supervisors from bargaining units as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (s), a public employer may agree to permit its supervisory employees to form bargaining units and may bargain with those units. This Act shall apply if the public employer chooses to bargain under this subsection.

(3) Public employees who are court reporters, as defined in the Court Reporters Act, shall be divided into 3 units for collective bargaining purposes. One unit shall be court reporters employed by the Cook County Judicial Circuit; one unit shall be court reporters employed by the 12th, 18th, 19th, and, on and after December 4, 2006, the 22nd judicial circuits; and one unit shall be court reporters employed by all other judicial circuits.

(t) "Active petition for certification in a bargaining unit" means a petition for certification filed with the Board under one of the following case numbers: S-RC-11-110; S-RC-11-098; S-UC-11-080; S-RC-11-086; S-RC-11-074; S-RC-11-076; S-RC-11-078; S-UC-11-052; S-UC-11-054; S-RC-11-062; S-RC-11-060; S-RC-11-042; S-RC-11-014; S-RC-11-016; S-RC-11-020; S-RC-11-030; S-RC-11-004; S-RC-10-244; S-RC-10-228; S-RC-10-222; S-RC-10-220; S-RC-10-214; S-RC-10-196; S-RC-10-194; S-RC-10-178; S-RC-10-176; S-RC-10-162; S-RC-10-156; S-RC-10-088; S-RC-10-074; S-RC-10-076; S-RC-10-078; S-RC-10-060; S-RC-10-070; S-RC-10-044; S-RC-10-038; S-RC-10-040; S-RC-10-042; S-RC-10-018; S-RC-10-024; S-RC-10-004; S-RC-10-006; S-RC-10-008; S-RC-10-010; S-RC-10-012; S-RC-09-202; S-RC-09-182; S-RC-09-180; S-RC-09-156; S-UC-09-196; S-UC-09-182; S-RC-08-130; S-RC-07-110; or S-RC-07-100.

(Source: P.A. 102-151, eff. 7-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-686, eff. 6-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 6-13-22.)

Section 25. The Illinois Governmental Ethics Act is amended by changing Section 2-104 as follows:

(5 ILCS 420/2-104) (from Ch. 127, par. 602-104)

Sec. 2-104. No legislator may accept or participate in any way in any representation case, as that term is defined in Section 1-113, before (1) the Court of Claims of this State or (2) before the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, when the State of Illinois is the respondent.

This Section does not prohibit participation in such a representation case by a person with whom the legislator maintains a close economic association, unless the fact of that association is used to influence or attempt to influence the State agency in the rendering of its decision.

A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 93-721, eff. 1-1-05; revised 6-13-22.)

Section 30. The Illinois TRUST Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 15 as follows:

(5 ILCS 805/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Citizenship or immigration status" means all matters regarding citizenship of the United States or any other country or the authority to reside in or otherwise be present in the United States.

"Civil immigration warrant" means any document that is not approved or ordered by a judge that can form the basis for an individual's arrest or detention for a civil immigration enforcement purpose. "Civil immigration warrant" includes Form I-200 "Warrant for the Arrest of Alien", Form I-203 "Order to Detain or Release Alien", Form I-205 "Warrant of Removal/Deportation", Form I-286 "Notice of Custody Determination", any predecessor or successor form, and all warrants, hits, or requests contained in the "Immigration Violator File" of the FBI's National Crime Information Center (NCIC) database. "Civil immigration warrant" does not include any criminal warrant.

"Contact information" means home address, work address, telephone number, electronic mail address, social media information, or any other personal identifying information that could be used as a means to contact an individual.

"Immigration agent" means an agent of federal Immigration and Customs Enforcement, federal Customs and Border Protection, or any similar or successor agency.

"Immigration detainer" means a request to a State or local law enforcement agency to provide notice of release or maintain custody of an individual based on an alleged violation of a civil immigration law, including detainers issued under Sections 1226 or 1357 of Title 8 of the United States Code or 287.7 or 236.1 of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. "Immigration detainer" includes Form I-247A "Immigration Detainer – Notice of Action" and any predecessor or successor form.

"Law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or of a unit of local government charged with enforcement of State, county, or municipal laws or with managing custody of detained persons in the State.

"Law enforcement official" means any individual with the power to arrest or detain individuals, including law enforcement officers, corrections officers officer, and others employed or designated by a law enforcement agency. "Law enforcement official" includes any probation officer.

(Source: P.A. 102-234, eff. 8-2-21; revised 9-13-22.)

(5 ILCS 805/15)

Sec. 15. Prohibition on enforcing federal civil immigration laws.

(a) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official shall not detain or continue to detain any individual solely on the basis of any immigration detainer or civil immigration warrant or otherwise comply with an immigration detainer or civil immigration warrant.

(b) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official shall not stop, arrest, search, detain, or continue to detain a person solely based on an individual's citizenship or immigration status.

(c) (Blank).

(d) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official acting in good faith in compliance with this Section who releases a person subject to an immigration detainer or civil immigration warrant shall have immunity from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise occur as a result of making the release, with the exception of willful or wanton misconduct.

(e) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official may not inquire about or investigate the citizenship or immigration status or place of birth of any individual in the agency or official's custody or who has otherwise been stopped or detained by the agency or official. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit the ability of a law enforcement agency or law enforcement official, pursuant to State or federal law, to notify a person in the law enforcement agency's custody about that person's right to communicate with consular officers from that person's country of nationality, or facilitate such communication, in accordance with the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations or other bilateral agreements. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit the ability of a law enforcement agency or law enforcement official to request evidence of citizenship or immigration status pursuant to the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or 18 United States Code Sections 921 through 931.

(f) Unless otherwise limited by federal law, a law enforcement agency or law enforcement official may not deny services, benefits, privileges, or opportunities to an individual in custody or under probation status, including, but not limited to, eligibility for or placement in a lower custody classification, educational, rehabilitative, or diversionary programs, on the basis of the individual's citizenship or immigration status, the issuance of an immigration detainer or civil immigration warrant against the individual, or the individual being in immigration removal proceedings.

(g)(1) No law enforcement agency, law enforcement official, or any unit of State or local government may enter into or renew any contract, intergovernmental service agreement, or any other agreement to house or detain individuals for federal civil immigration violations.

(2) Any law enforcement agency, law enforcement official, or unit of State or local government with an existing contract, intergovernmental agreement, or other agreement, whether in whole or in part, that is utilized to house or detain individuals for civil immigration violations shall exercise the termination provision in the agreement as applied to housing or detaining individuals for civil immigration violations no later than January 1, 2022.

(h) Unless presented with a federal criminal warrant, or otherwise required by federal law, a law enforcement agency or official may not:

(1) participate, support, or assist in any capacity with an immigration agent's enforcement operations, including any collateral assistance such as coordinating an arrest in a courthouse or other public facility, providing use of any equipment, transporting any individuals, or establishing a security or traffic perimeter surrounding such operations, or any other on-site support;

(2) give any immigration agent access, including by telephone, to any individual who is in that agency's custody;

(3) transfer any person into an immigration agent's custody;

(4) permit immigration agents use of agency facilities or equipment, including any agency electronic databases not available to the public, for investigative interviews or other investigative or immigration enforcement purpose;

(5) enter into or maintain any agreement regarding direct access to any electronic database or other data-sharing platform maintained by any law enforcement agency, or otherwise provide such direct access to the U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, United States Customs and Border Protection or any other federal entity enforcing civil immigration violations;

(6) provide information in response to any immigration agent's inquiry or request for information regarding any individual in the agency's custody; or

(7) provide to any immigration agent information not otherwise available to the public relating to an individual's release or contact information, or otherwise facilitate for an immigration agent to apprehend or question an individual for immigration enforcement.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall preclude a law enforcement official from otherwise executing that official's duties in investigating violations of criminal law and cooperating in such investigations with federal and other law enforcement agencies (including criminal investigations conducted by federal Homeland Security Investigations (HSI)) in order to ensure public safety.

(Source: P.A. 102-234, eff. 8-2-21; revised 9-14-22.)

Section 35. The First Responders Suicide Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(5 ILCS 840/40)

Sec. 40. Task Force recommendations.

(a) Task Force members shall recommend that agencies and organizations guarantee access to mental health and wellness services, including, but not limited to, peer support programs and providing ongoing education related to the ever-evolving concept of mental health wellness. These recommendations could be accomplished by:

(1) Revising agencies' and organizations' employee assistance programs (EAPs).

(2) Urging health care providers to replace outdated healthcare plans and include more progressive options catering to the needs and disproportionate risks shouldered by our first responders.

(3) Allocating funding or resources for public service announcements (PSA) and messaging campaigns aimed at raising awareness of available assistance options.

(4) Encouraging agencies and organizations to attach lists of all available resources to training manuals and continuing education requirements.

(b) Task Force members shall recommend agencies and organizations sponsor or facilitate first responders with specialized training in the areas of psychological fitness, depressive disorders, early detection, and mitigation best practices. Such trainings could be accomplished by:

(1) Assigning, appointing, or designating one member of an agency or organization to attend specialized training(s) sponsored by an accredited agency, association, or organization recognized in their fields of study.

(2) Seeking sponsorships or conducting fund-raisers, to host annual or semiannual on-site visits from qualified clinicians or physicians to provide early detection training techniques, or to provide regular access to mental health professionals.

(3) Requiring a minimum number of hours of disorders and wellness training be incorporated into reoccurring, annual or biannual training standards, examinations, and curriculums, taking into close consideration respective agency or organization size, frequency, and number of all current federal and state mandatory examinations and trainings expected respectively.

(4) Not underestimating the crucial importance of a balanced diet, sleep, mindfulness-based stress reduction techniques, moderate and vigorous intensity activities, and recreational hobbies, which have been scientifically proven to play a major role in brain health and mental wellness.

(c) Task Force members shall recommend that administrators and leadership personnel solicit training services from evidence-based, data driven organizations. Organizations with personnel trained on the analytical review and interpretation of specific fields related to the nature of first responders' exploits, such as PTSD, substance abuse, chronic state of duress. Task Force members shall further recommend funding for expansion and messaging campaigns of preliminary self-diagnosing technologies like the one described above. These objectives could be met by:

(1) Contacting an accredited agency, association, or organization recognized in the field or fields of specific study. Unbeknownst to the majority, many of the agencies and organizations listed above receive grants and allocations to assist communities with the very issues being discussed in this Section.

(2) Normalizing help-seeking behaviors for both first responders and their families through regular messaging and peer support outreach, beginning with academy curricula and continuing education throughout individuals' careers.

(3) Funding and implementing PSA campaigns that provide clear and concise calls to action about mental health and wellness, resiliency, help-seeking, treatment, and recovery.

(4) Promoting and raising awareness of not-for-profit non-for-profit organizations currently available to assist individuals in search of care and treatment. Organizations have intuitive user-friendly sites, most of which have mobile applications, so first responders can access at a moment's notice. However, because of limited funds, these organizations have a challenging time of getting the word out there about their existence.

(5) Expanding Family and Medical Leave Act protections for individuals voluntarily seeking preventative treatment.

(6) Promoting and ensuring complete patient confidentiality protections.

(d) Task Force members shall recommend that agencies and organizations incorporate the following training components into already existing modules and educational curriculums. Doing so could be done by:

(1) Bolstering academy and school curricula by requiring depressive disorder training catered to PTSD, substance abuse, and early detection techniques training, taking into close consideration respective agency or organization size, and the frequency and number of all current federal and state mandatory examinations and trainings expected respectively.

(2) Continuing to allocate or match federal and state funds to maintain Mobile Mobil Training Units (MTUs).

(3) Incorporating a state certificate for peer support training into already exiting statewide curriculums and mandatory examinations, annual State Fire Marshal examinations, and physical fitness examinations. The subject matter of the certificate should have an emphasis on mental health and wellness, as well as familiarization with topics ranging from clinical social work, clinical psychology, clinical behaviorist, and clinical psychiatry.

(4) Incorporating and performing statewide mental health check-ins during the same times as already mandated trainings. These checks are not to be compared or used as measures of fitness for duty evaluations or structured psychological examinations.

(5) Recommending comprehensive and evidence-based training on the importance of preventative measures on the topics of sleep, nutrition, mindfulness, and physical movement.

(6) Law enforcement agencies should provide training on the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Act, including seeking relief from the Illinois State Police under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and a FOID card being a continued condition of employment under Section 7.2 of the Uniform Peace Officers' Disciplinary Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-352, eff. 6-1-22; revised 8-8-22.)

Section 40. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 7-13, 7-16, 7-42, 7-43, 7-59, 7-61, 8-8, 10-14, 16-3, and 16-5.01 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/7-13) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-13)

Sec. 7-13. The board of election commissioners in cities of 500,000 or more population having such board, shall constitute an electoral board for the hearing and passing upon objections to nomination petitions for ward committeepersons.

Except as otherwise provided in this Code, such objections shall be filed in the office of the county clerk within 5 business days after the last day for filing nomination papers. The objection shall state the name and address of the objector, who may be any qualified elector in the ward, the specific grounds of objection and the relief requested of the electoral board. Upon the receipt of the objection, the county clerk shall forthwith transmit such objection and the petition of the candidate to the board of election commissioners. The board of election commissioners shall forthwith notify the objector and candidate objected to of the time and place for hearing hereon. After a hearing upon the validity of such objections, the board shall certify to the county clerk its decision stating whether or not the name of the candidate shall be printed on the ballot and the county clerk in his or her certificate to the board of election commissioners shall leave off of the certificate the name of the candidate for ward committeeperson that the election commissioners order not to be printed on the ballot. However, the decision of the board of election commissioners is subject to judicial review as provided in Section 10-10.1.

The county electoral board composed as provided in Section 10-9 shall constitute an electoral board for the hearing and passing upon objections to nomination petitions for precinct and township committeepersons. Such objections shall be filed in the office of the county clerk within 5 business days after the last day for filing nomination papers. The objection shall state the name and address of the objector who may be any qualified elector in the precinct or in the township or part of a township that lies outside of a city having a population of 500,000 or more, the specific grounds of objection and the relief requested of the electoral board. Upon the receipt of the objection the county clerk shall forthwith transmit such objection and the petition of the candidate to the chair of the county electoral board. The chair of the county electoral board shall forthwith notify the objector, the candidate whose petition is objected to and the other members of the electoral board of the time and place for hearing thereon. After hearing upon the validity of such objections the board shall certify its decision to the county clerk stating whether or not the name of the candidate shall be printed on the ballot, and the county clerk, in his or her certificate to the board of election commissioners, shall leave off of the certificate the name of the candidate ordered by the board not to be printed on the ballot, and the county clerk shall also refrain from printing on the official primary ballot, the name of any candidate whose name has been ordered by the electoral board not to be printed on the ballot. However, the decision of the board is subject to judicial review as provided in Section 10-10.1.

In such proceedings the electoral boards have the same powers as other electoral boards under the provisions of Section 10-10 of this Code Act and their decisions are subject to judicial review under Section 10-10.1.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 2-28-22.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-16) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-16)

Sec. 7-16. Each election authority in each county shall prepare and cause to be printed the primary ballot of each political party for each precinct in his respective jurisdiction.

Except as otherwise provided in this Code, the election authority shall, at least 45 days prior to the date of the primary election, have a sufficient number of ballots printed so that such ballots will be available for mailing 45 days prior to the primary election to persons who have filed application for a ballot under the provisions of Article 20 of this Code Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 2-28-22.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-42) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-42)

Sec. 7-42. (a) Any person entitled to vote at such primary shall, on the day of such primary, with the consent of his employer, be entitled to absent himself from any service or employment in which he is then engaged or employed for a period of 2 two hours between the time of opening and closing the polls. The employer may specify the hours during which said employee employe may absent himself.

(b) Beginning the 15th day before the primary election or on the day of the primary election, any student entitled to vote at such primary shall be entitled to be absent from school for a period of 2 hours during the school day in order to vote. The school may specify the hours during which the eligible student may be absent. A student who is absent from school under this subsection (b) is not considered absent for the purpose of calculating enrollment under Section 18-8.15 of the School Code.

(Source: P.A. 101-624, eff. 6-1-20; revised 8-23-22.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-43) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-43)

Sec. 7-43. Every person having resided in this State 6 months and in the precinct 30 days next preceding any primary therein who shall be a citizen of the United States of the age of 18 or more years shall be entitled to vote at such primary.

The following regulations shall be applicable to primaries:

No person shall be entitled to vote at a primary:

(a) Unless he declares his party affiliations as required by this Article.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(c.5) If that person has participated in the town political party caucus, under Section 45-50 of the Township Code, of another political party by signing an affidavit of voters attending the caucus within 45 days before the first day of the calendar month in which the primary is held.

(d) (Blank).

In cities, villages, and incorporated towns having a board of election commissioners, only voters registered as provided by Article 6 of this Code Act shall be entitled to vote at such primary.

No person shall be entitled to vote at a primary unless he is registered under the provisions of Article Articles 4, 5, or 6 of this Code Act, when his registration is required by any of said Articles to entitle him to vote at the election with reference to which the primary is held.

A person (i) who filed a statement of candidacy for a partisan office as a qualified primary voter of an established political party or (ii) who voted the ballot of an established political party at a general primary election may not file a statement of candidacy as a candidate of a different established political party, a new political party, or as an independent candidate for a partisan office to be filled at the general election immediately following the general primary for which the person filed the statement or voted the ballot. A person may file a statement of candidacy for a partisan office as a qualified primary voter of an established political party regardless of any prior filing of candidacy for a partisan office or voting the ballot of an established political party at any prior election.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 2-28-22.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-59) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-59)

Sec. 7-59. (a) The person receiving the highest number of votes at a primary as a candidate of a party for the nomination for an office shall be the candidate of that party for such office, and his name as such candidate shall be placed on the official ballot at the election then next ensuing; provided, that where there are 2 two or more persons to be nominated for the same office or board, the requisite number of persons receiving the highest number of votes shall be nominated, and their names shall be placed on the official ballot at the following election.

Except as otherwise provided by Section 7-8 of this Code Act, the person receiving the highest number of votes of his party for State central committeeperson of his congressional district shall be declared elected State central committeeperson from said congressional district.

Unless a national political party specifies that delegates and alternate delegates to a National nominating convention be allocated by proportional selection representation according to the results of a Presidential preference primary, the requisite number of persons receiving the highest number of votes of their party for delegates and alternate delegates to National nominating conventions from the State at large, and the requisite number of persons receiving the highest number of votes of their party for delegates and alternate delegates to National nominating conventions in their respective congressional districts shall be declared elected delegates and alternate delegates to the National nominating conventions of their party.

A political party which elects the members to its State Central Committee by Alternative B under paragraph (a) of Section 7-8 shall select its congressional district delegates and alternate delegates to its national nominating convention by proportional selection representation according to the results of a Presidential preference primary in each congressional district in the manner provided by the rules of the national political party and the State Central Committee, when the rules and policies of the national political party so require.

A political party which elects the members to its State Central Committee by Alternative B under paragraph (a) of Section 7-8 shall select its at large delegates and alternate delegates to its national nominating convention by proportional selection representation according to the results of a Presidential preference primary in the whole State in the manner provided by the rules of the national political party and the State Central Committee, when the rules and policies of the national political party so require.

The person receiving the highest number of votes of his party for precinct committeeperson of his precinct shall be declared elected precinct committeeperson from said precinct.

The person receiving the highest number of votes of his party for township committeeperson of his township or part of a township as the case may be, shall be declared elected township committeeperson from said township or part of a township as the case may be. In cities where ward committeepersons are elected, the person receiving the highest number of votes of his party for ward committeeperson of his ward shall be declared elected ward committeeperson from said ward.

When 2 two or more persons receive an equal and the highest number of votes for the nomination for the same office or for committeeperson of the same political party, or where more than one person of the same political party is to be nominated as a candidate for office or committeeperson, if it appears that more than the number of persons to be nominated for an office or elected committeeperson have the highest and an equal number of votes for the nomination for the same office or for election as committeeperson, the election authority by which the returns of the primary are canvassed shall decide by lot which of said persons shall be nominated or elected, as the case may be. In such case the election authority shall issue notice in writing to such persons of such tie vote stating therein the place, the day (which shall not be more than 5 days thereafter) and the hour when such nomination or election shall be so determined.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this Code, write-in votes shall be counted only for persons who have filed notarized declarations of intent to be write-in candidates with the proper election authority or authorities not later than 61 days prior to the primary. However, whenever an objection to a candidate's nominating papers or petitions for any office is sustained under Section 10-10 after the 61st day before the election, then write-in votes shall be counted for that candidate if he or she has filed a notarized declaration of intent to be a write-in candidate for that office with the proper election authority or authorities not later than 7 days prior to the election.

Forms for the declaration of intent to be a write-in candidate shall be supplied by the election authorities. Such declaration shall specify the office for which the person seeks nomination or election as a write-in candidate.

The election authority or authorities shall deliver a list of all persons who have filed such declarations to the election judges in the appropriate precincts prior to the primary.

(c) (1) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, where the number of candidates whose names have been printed on a party's ballot for nomination for or election to an office at a primary is less than the number of persons the party is entitled to nominate for or elect to the office at the primary, a person whose name was not printed on the party's primary ballot as a candidate for nomination for or election to the office, is not nominated for or elected to that office as a result of a write-in vote at the primary unless the number of votes he received equals or exceeds the number of signatures required on a petition for nomination for that office; or unless the number of votes he receives exceeds the number of votes received by at least one of the candidates whose names were printed on the primary ballot for nomination for or election to the same office.

(2) Paragraph (1) of this subsection does not apply where the number of candidates whose names have been printed on the party's ballot for nomination for or election to the office at the primary equals or exceeds the number of persons the party is entitled to nominate for or elect to the office at the primary.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 2-28-22.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-61) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-61)

Sec. 7-61. Whenever a special election is necessary, the provisions of this Article are applicable to the nomination of candidates to be voted for at such special election.

In cases where a primary election is required, the officer or board or commission whose duty it is under the provisions of this Code Act relating to general elections to call an election, shall fix a date for the primary for the nomination of candidates to be voted for at such special election. Notice of such primary shall be given at least 15 days prior to the maximum time provided for the filing of petitions for such a primary as provided in Section 7-12.

Any vacancy in nomination under the provisions of this Article 7 occurring on or after the primary and prior to certification of candidates by the certifying board or officer, must be filled prior to the date of certification. Any vacancy in nomination occurring after certification but prior to 15 days before the general election shall be filled within 8 days after the event creating the vacancy. The resolution filling the vacancy shall be sent by U. S. mail or personal delivery to the certifying officer or board within 3 days of the action by which the vacancy was filled; provided, if such resolution is sent by mail and the U. S. postmark on the envelope containing such resolution is dated prior to the expiration of such 3-day 3 day limit, the resolution shall be deemed filed within such 3-day 3 day limit. Failure to so transmit the resolution within the time specified in this Section shall authorize the certifying officer or board to certify the original candidate. Vacancies shall be filled by the officers of a local municipal or township political party as specified in subsection (h) of Section 7-8, other than a statewide political party, that is established only within a municipality or township and the managing committee (or legislative committee in case of a candidate for State Senator or representative committee in the case of a candidate for State Representative in the General Assembly or State central committee in the case of a candidate for statewide office, including, but not limited to, the office of United States Senator) of the respective political party for the territorial area in which such vacancy occurs.

The resolution to fill a vacancy in nomination shall be duly acknowledged before an officer qualified to take acknowledgments acknowledgements of deeds and shall include, upon its face, the following information:

(a) the name of the original nominee and the office vacated;

(b) the date on which the vacancy occurred;

(c) the name and address of the nominee selected to fill the vacancy and the date of selection.

The resolution to fill a vacancy in nomination shall be accompanied by a Statement of Candidacy, as prescribed in Section 7-10, completed by the selected nominee and a receipt indicating that such nominee has filed a statement of economic interests as required by the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act.

The provisions of Section 10-8 through 10-10.1 relating to objections to certificates of nomination and nomination papers, hearings on objections, and judicial review, shall apply to and govern objections to resolutions for filling a vacancy in nomination.

Any vacancy in nomination occurring 15 days or less before the consolidated election or the general election shall not be filled. In this event, the certification of the original candidate shall stand and his name shall appear on the official ballot to be voted at the general election.

A vacancy in nomination occurs when a candidate who has been nominated under the provisions of this Article 7 dies before the election (whether death occurs prior to, on or after the day of the primary), or declines the nomination; provided that nominations may become vacant for other reasons.

If the name of no established political party candidate was printed on the consolidated primary ballot for a particular office and if no person was nominated as a write-in candidate for such office, a vacancy in nomination shall be created which may be filled in accordance with the requirements of this Section. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, if the name of no established political party candidate was printed on the general primary ballot for a particular office and if no person was nominated as a write-in candidate for such office, a vacancy in nomination shall be filled only by a person designated by the appropriate committee of the political party and only if that designated person files nominating petitions with the number of signatures required for an established party candidate for that office within 75 days after the day of the general primary. The circulation period for those petitions begins on the day the appropriate committee designates that person. The person shall file his or her nominating petitions, statements of candidacy, notice of appointment by the appropriate committee, and receipt of filing his or her statement of economic interests together. These documents shall be filed at the same location as provided in Section 7-12. The electoral boards having jurisdiction under Section 10-9 to hear and pass upon objections to nominating petitions also shall hear and pass upon objections to nomination petitions filed by candidates under this paragraph.

A candidate for whom a nomination paper has been filed as a partisan candidate at a primary election, and who is defeated for his or her nomination at such primary election, is ineligible to be listed on the ballot at that general or consolidated election as a candidate of another political party.

A candidate seeking election to an office for which candidates of political parties are nominated by caucus who is a participant in the caucus and who is defeated for his or her nomination at such caucus, is ineligible to be listed on the ballot at that general or consolidated election as a candidate of another political party.

In the proceedings to nominate a candidate to fill a vacancy or to fill a vacancy in the nomination, each precinct, township, ward, county, or congressional district, as the case may be, shall, through its representative on such central or managing committee, be entitled to one vote for each ballot voted in such precinct, township, ward, county, or congressional district, as the case may be, by the primary electors of its party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting at which such vacancy is to be filled.

For purposes of this Section, the words "certify" and "certification" shall refer to the act of officially declaring the names of candidates entitled to be printed upon the official ballot at an election and directing election authorities to place the names of such candidates upon the official ballot. "Certifying officers or board" shall refer to the local election official, the election authority, or the State Board of Elections, as the case may be, with whom nomination papers, including certificates of nomination and resolutions to fill vacancies in nomination, are filed and whose duty it is to "certify" candidates.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 2-28-22.)

(10 ILCS 5/8-8) (from Ch. 46, par. 8-8)

Sec. 8-8. Form of petition for nomination. The name of no candidate for nomination shall be printed upon the primary ballot unless a petition for nomination shall have been filed in his behalf as provided for in this Section. Each such petition shall include as a part thereof the oath required by Section 7-10.1 of this Code Act and a statement of candidacy by the candidate filing or in whose behalf the petition is filed. This statement shall set out the address of such candidate and , the office for which he is a candidate; , shall state that the candidate is a qualified primary voter of the party to which the petition relates, is qualified for the office specified, and has filed a statement of economic interests as required by the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act; , shall request that the candidate's name be placed upon the official ballot; and shall be subscribed and sworn by such candidate before some officer authorized to take acknowledgment of deeds in this State and may be in substantially the following form:

State of Illinois) ) ss. County ..........)

I, ...., being first duly sworn, say that I reside at .... street in the city (or village of) .... in the county of .... State of Illinois; that I am a qualified voter therein and am a qualified primary voter of .... party; that I am a candidate for nomination to the office of .... to be voted upon at the primary election to be held on (insert date); that I am legally qualified to hold such office and that I have filed a statement of economic interests as required by the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act and I hereby request that my name be printed upon the official primary ballot for nomination for such office.

Signed ....................

Subscribed and sworn to (or affirmed) before me by ...., who is to me personally known, on (insert date).

Signed .... (Official Character)

(Seal if officer has one.)

The receipt issued by the Secretary of State indicating that the candidate has filed the statement of economic interests required by the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act must be filed with the petitions for nomination as provided in subsection (8) of Section 7-12 of this Code.

Except as otherwise provided in this Code, all petitions for nomination for the office of State Senator shall be signed by at least 1,000 but not more than 3,000 of the qualified primary electors of the candidate's party in his legislative district.

Except as otherwise provided in this Code, all petitions for nomination for the office of Representative in the General Assembly shall be signed by at least 500 but not more than 1,500 of the qualified primary electors of the candidate's party in his or her representative district.

Opposite the signature of each qualified primary elector who signs a petition for nomination for the office of State Representative or State Senator such elector's residence address shall be written or printed. The residence address required to be written or printed opposite each qualified primary elector's name shall include the street address or rural route number of the signer, as the case may be, as well as the signer's county and city, village, or town.

For the purposes of this Section, the number of primary electors shall be determined by taking the total vote cast, in the applicable district, for the candidate for such political party who received the highest number of votes, state-wide, at the last general election in the State at which electors for President of the United States were elected.

A "qualified primary elector" of a party may not sign petitions for or be a candidate in the primary of more than one party.

In the affidavit at the bottom of each sheet, the petition circulator, who shall be a person 18 years of age or older who is a citizen of the United States, shall state his or her street address or rural route number, as the case may be, as well as his or her county, city, village or town, and state; and shall certify that the signatures on that sheet of the petition were signed in his or her presence; and shall certify that the signatures are genuine; and shall certify that, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, the persons so signing were at the time of signing the petition qualified primary voters for which the nomination is sought.

In the affidavit at the bottom of each petition sheet, the petition circulator shall either (1) indicate the dates on which he or she circulated that sheet, or (2) indicate the first and last dates on which the sheet was circulated, or (3) for elections where the petition circulation period is 90 days, certify that none of the signatures on the sheet were signed more than 90 days preceding the last day for the filing of the petition, or (4) for the 2022 general primary election only, certify that the signatures on the sheet were signed during the period of January 13, 2022 through March 14, 2022 or certify that the signatures on the sheet were signed during the period of January 13, 2022 through the date on which this statement was sworn or affirmed to. No petition sheet shall be circulated more than 90 days preceding the last day provided in Section 8-9 for the filing of such petition.

All petition sheets which are filed with the State Board of Elections shall be the original sheets which have been signed by the voters and by the circulator, and not photocopies or duplicates of such sheets.

The person circulating the petition, or the candidate on whose behalf the petition is circulated, may strike any signature from the petition, provided that:

(1) the person striking the signature shall initial the petition at the place where the signature is struck; and

(2) the person striking the signature shall sign a certification listing the page number and line number of each signature struck from the petition. Such certification shall be filed as a part of the petition.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; 102-692, eff. 1-7-22; revised 2-28-22.)

(10 ILCS 5/10-14) (from Ch. 46, par. 10-14)

Sec. 10-14. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, not less than 74 days before the date of the general election the State Board of Elections shall certify to the county clerk of each county the name of each candidate whose nomination papers, certificate of nomination, or resolution to fill a vacancy in nomination has been filed with the State Board of Elections and direct the county clerk to place upon the official ballot for the general election the names of such candidates in the same manner and in the same order as shown upon the certification. The name of no candidate for an office to be filled by the electors of the entire state shall be placed upon the official ballot unless his name is duly certified to the county clerk upon a certificate signed by the members of the State Board of Elections. The names of group candidates on petitions shall be certified to the several county clerks in the order in which such names appear on such petitions filed with the State Board of Elections.

Except as otherwise provided in this Code, not less than 68 days before the date of the general election, each county clerk shall certify the names of each of the candidates for county offices whose nomination papers, certificates of nomination, or resolutions to fill a vacancy in nomination have been filed with such clerk and declare that the names of such candidates for the respective offices shall be placed upon the official ballot for the general election in the same manner and in the same order as shown upon the certification. Each county clerk shall place a copy of the certification on file in his or her office and at the same time issue to the State Board of Elections a copy of such certification. In addition, each county clerk in whose county there is a board of election commissioners shall, not less than 69 days before the election, certify to the board of election commissioners the name of the person or persons nominated for such office as shown by the certificate of the State Board of Elections, together with the names of all other candidates as shown by the certification of county officers on file in the clerk's office, and in the order so certified. The county clerk or board of election commissioners shall print the names of the nominees on the ballot for each office in the order in which they are certified to or filed with the county clerk; provided, that in printing the name of nominees for any office, if any of such nominees have also been nominated by one or more political parties pursuant to this Code Act, the location of the name of such candidate on the ballot for nominations made under this Article shall be precisely in the same order in which it appears on the certification of the State Board of Elections to the county clerk.

For the general election, the candidates of new political parties shall be placed on the ballot for said election after the established political party candidates and in the order of new political party petition filings.

Each certification shall indicate, where applicable, the following:

(1) The political party affiliation, if any, of the candidates for the respective offices;

(2) If there is to be more than one candidate elected to an office from the State, political subdivision, or district;

(3) If the voter has the right to vote for more than one candidate for an office;

(4) The term of office, if a vacancy is to be filled for less than a full term or if the offices to be filled in a political subdivision are for different terms.

The State Board of Elections or the county clerk, as the case may be, shall issue an amended certification whenever it is discovered that the original certification is in error.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 2-28-22.)

(10 ILCS 5/16-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 16-3)

Sec. 16-3. (a) The names of all candidates to be voted for in each election district or precinct shall be printed on one ballot, except as is provided in Sections 16-6.1 and 21-1.01 of this Code Act and except as otherwise provided in this Code Act with respect to the odd year regular elections and the emergency referenda; all nominations of any political party being placed under the party appellation or title of such party as designated in the certificates of nomination or petitions. The names of all independent candidates shall be printed upon the ballot in a column or columns under the heading "independent" arranged under the names or titles of the respective offices for which such independent candidates shall have been nominated and so far as practicable, the name or names of any independent candidate or candidates for any office shall be printed upon the ballot opposite the name or names of any candidate or candidates for the same office contained in any party column or columns upon said ballot. The ballot shall contain no other names, except that in cases of electors for President and Vice-President of the United States, the names of the candidates for President and Vice-President may be added to the party designation and words calculated to aid the voter in his choice of candidates may be added, such as "Vote for one," "Vote for not more than three." If no candidate or candidates file for an office and if no person or persons file a declaration as a write-in candidate for that office, then below the title of that office the election authority instead shall print "No Candidate". When an electronic voting system is used which utilizes a ballot label booklet, the candidates and questions shall appear on the pages of such booklet in the order provided by this Code; and, in any case where candidates for an office appear on a page which does not contain the name of any candidate for another office, and where less than 50% of the page is utilized, the name of no candidate shall be printed on the lowest 25% of such page. On the back or outside of the ballot, so as to appear when folded, shall be printed the words "Official Ballot", followed by the designation of the polling place for which the ballot is prepared, the date of the election and a facsimile of the signature of the election authority who has caused the ballots to be printed. The ballots shall be of plain white paper, through which the printing or writing cannot be read. However, ballots for use at the nonpartisan and consolidated elections may be printed on different color paper, except blue paper, whenever necessary or desirable to facilitate distinguishing between ballots for different political subdivisions. In the case of nonpartisan elections for officers of a political subdivision, unless the statute or an ordinance adopted pursuant to Article VII of the Constitution providing the form of government therefor requires otherwise, the column listing such nonpartisan candidates shall be printed with no appellation or circle at its head. The party appellation or title, or the word "independent" at the head of any column provided for independent candidates, shall be printed in letters not less than one-fourth of an inch in height and a circle one-half inch in diameter shall be printed at the beginning of the line in which such appellation or title is printed, provided, however, that no such circle shall be printed at the head of any column or columns provided for such independent candidates. The names of candidates shall be printed in letters not less than one-eighth nor more than one-fourth of an inch in height, and at the beginning of each line in which a name of a candidate is printed a square shall be printed, the sides of which shall be not less than one-fourth of an inch in length. However, the names of the candidates for Governor and Lieutenant Governor on the same ticket shall be printed within a bracket and a single square shall be printed in front of the bracket. The list of candidates of the several parties and any such list of independent candidates shall be placed in separate columns on the ballot in such order as the election authorities charged with the printing of the ballots shall decide; provided, that the names of the candidates of the several political parties, certified by the State Board of Elections to the several county clerks shall be printed by the county clerk of the proper county on the official ballot in the order certified by the State Board of Elections. Any county clerk refusing, neglecting or failing to print on the official ballot the names of candidates of the several political parties in the order certified by the State Board of Elections, and any county clerk who prints or causes to be printed upon the official ballot the name of a candidate, for an office to be filled by the Electors of the entire State, whose name has not been duly certified to him upon a certificate signed by the State Board of Elections shall be guilty of a Class C misdemeanor.

(b) When an electronic voting system is used which utilizes a ballot card, on the inside flap of each ballot card envelope there shall be printed a form for write-in voting which shall be substantially as follows:

WRITE-IN VOTES

(See card of instructions for specific information. Duplicate form below by hand for additional write-in votes.)

.............................

Title of Office ( ) .............................

Name of Candidate

Write-in lines equal to the number of candidates for which a voter may vote shall be printed for an office only if one or more persons filed declarations of intent to be write-in candidates or qualify to file declarations to be write-in candidates under Sections 17-16.1 and 18-9.1 when the certification of ballot contains the words "OBJECTION PENDING".

(c) When an electronic voting system is used which uses a ballot sheet, the instructions to voters on the ballot sheet shall refer the voter to the card of instructions for specific information on write-in voting. Below each office appearing on such ballot sheet there shall be a provision for the casting of a write-in vote. Write-in lines equal to the number of candidates for which a voter may vote shall be printed for an office only if one or more persons filed declarations of intent to be write-in candidates or qualify to file declarations to be write-in candidates under Sections 17-16.1 and 18-9.1 when the certification of ballot contains the words "OBJECTION PENDING".

(d) When such electronic system is used, there shall be printed on the back of each ballot card, each ballot card envelope, and the first page of the ballot label when a ballot label is used, the words "Official Ballot," followed by the number of the precinct or other precinct identification, which may be stamped, in lieu thereof and, as applicable, the number and name of the township, ward or other election district for which the ballot card, ballot card envelope, and ballot label are prepared, the date of the election and a facsimile of the signature of the election authority who has caused the ballots to be printed. The back of the ballot card shall also include a method of identifying the ballot configuration such as a listing of the political subdivisions and districts for which votes may be cast on that ballot, or a number code identifying the ballot configuration or color coded ballots, except that where there is only one ballot configuration in a precinct, the precinct identification, and any applicable ward identification, shall be sufficient. Ballot card envelopes used in punch card systems shall be of paper through which no writing or punches may be discerned and shall be of sufficient length to enclose all voting positions. However, the election authority may provide ballot card envelopes on which no precinct number or township, ward or other election district designation, or election date are preprinted, if space and a preprinted form are provided below the space provided for the names of write-in candidates where such information may be entered by the judges of election. Whenever an election authority utilizes ballot card envelopes on which the election date and precinct is not preprinted, a judge of election shall mark such information for the particular precinct and election on the envelope in ink before tallying and counting any write-in vote written thereon. If some method of insuring ballot secrecy other than an envelope is used, such information must be provided on the ballot itself.

(e) In the designation of the name of a candidate on the ballot, the candidate's given name or names, initial or initials, a nickname by which the candidate is commonly known, or a combination thereof, may be used in addition to the candidate's surname. If a candidate has changed his or her name, whether by a statutory or common law procedure in Illinois or any other jurisdiction, within 3 years before the last day for filing the petition for nomination, nomination papers, or certificate of nomination for that office, whichever is applicable, then (i) the candidate's name on the ballot must be followed by "formerly known as (list all prior names during the 3-year period) until name changed on (list date of each such name change)" and (ii) the petition, papers, or certificate must be accompanied by the candidate's affidavit stating the candidate's previous names during the period specified in (i) and the date or dates each of those names was changed; failure to meet these requirements shall be grounds for denying certification of the candidate's name for the ballot or removing the candidate's name from the ballot, as appropriate, but these requirements do not apply to name changes resulting from adoption to assume an adoptive parent's or parents' surname, marriage or civil union to assume a spouse's surname, or dissolution of marriage or civil union or declaration of invalidity of marriage or civil union to assume a former surname or a name change that conforms the candidate's name to his or her gender identity. No other designation such as a political slogan, title, or degree or nickname suggesting or implying possession of a title, degree or professional status, or similar information may be used in connection with the candidate's surname. For purposes of this Section, a "political slogan" is defined as any word or words expressing or connoting a position, opinion, or belief that the candidate may espouse, including, but not limited to, any word or words conveying any meaning other than that of the personal identity of the candidate. A candidate may not use a political slogan as part of his or her name on the ballot, notwithstanding that the political slogan may be part of the candidate's name.

(f) The State Board of Elections, a local election official, or an election authority shall remove any candidate's name designation from a ballot that is inconsistent with subsection (e) of this Section. In addition, the State Board of Elections, a local election official, or an election authority shall not certify to any election authority any candidate name designation that is inconsistent with subsection (e) of this Section.

(g) If the State Board of Elections, a local election official, or an election authority removes a candidate's name designation from a ballot under subsection (f) of this Section, then the aggrieved candidate may seek appropriate relief in circuit court.

Where voting machines or electronic voting systems are used, the provisions of this Section may be modified as required or authorized by Article 24 or Article 24A, whichever is applicable.

Nothing in this Section shall prohibit election authorities from using or reusing ballot card envelopes which were printed before January 1, 1986 (the effective date of Public Act 84-820) this amendatory Act of 1985.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 2-28-22.)

(10 ILCS 5/16-5.01) (from Ch. 46, par. 16-5.01)

Sec. 16-5.01. (a) Except as otherwise provided in this Code, the election authority shall, at least 46 days prior to the date of any election at which federal officers are elected and 45 days prior to any other regular election, have a sufficient number of ballots printed so that such ballots will be available for mailing 45 days prior to the date of the election to persons who have filed application for a ballot under the provisions of Article 20 of this Code Act.

(b) If at any election at which federal offices are elected or nominated the election authority is unable to comply with the provisions of subsection (a), the election authority shall mail to each such person, in lieu of the ballot, a Special Write-in Vote by Mail Voter's Blank Ballot. The Special Write-in Vote by Mail Voter's Blank Ballot shall be used at all elections at which federal officers are elected or nominated and shall be prepared by the election authority in substantially the following form:

Special Write-in Vote by Mail Voter's Blank Ballot

(To vote for a person, write the title of the office and his or her name on the lines provided. Place to the left of and opposite the title of office a square and place a cross (X) in the square.)

Title of Office Name of Candidate

( )

( )

( )

( )

( )

( )

The election authority shall send with the Special Write-in Vote by Mail Voter's Blank Ballot a list of all referenda for which the voter is qualified to vote and all candidates for whom nomination papers have been filed and for whom the voter is qualified to vote. The voter shall be entitled to write in the name of any candidate seeking election and any referenda for which he or she is entitled to vote.

On the back or outside of the ballot, so as to appear when folded, shall be printed the words "Official Ballot", the date of the election and a facsimile of the signature of the election authority who has caused the ballot to be printed.

The provisions of Article 20, insofar as they may be applicable to the Special Write-in Vote by Mail Voter's Blank Ballot, shall be applicable herein.

(c) Notwithstanding any provision of this Code or other law to the contrary, the governing body of a municipality may adopt, upon submission of a written statement by the municipality's election authority attesting to the administrative ability of the election authority to administer an election using a ranked ballot to the municipality's governing body, an ordinance requiring, and that municipality's election authority shall prepare, a ranked vote by mail ballot for municipal and township office candidates to be voted on in the consolidated election. This ranked ballot shall be for use only by a qualified voter who either is a member of the United States military or will be outside of the United States on the consolidated primary election day and the consolidated election day. The ranked ballot shall contain a list of the titles of all municipal and township offices potentially contested at both the consolidated primary election and the consolidated election and the candidates for each office and shall permit the elector to vote in the consolidated election by indicating his or her order of preference for each candidate for each office. To indicate his or her order of preference for each candidate for each office, the voter shall put the number one next to the name of the candidate who is the voter's first choice, the number 2 for his or her second choice, and so forth so that, in consecutive numerical order, a number indicating the voter's preference is written by the voter next to each candidate's name on the ranked ballot. The voter shall not be required to indicate his or her preference for more than one candidate on the ranked ballot. The voter may not cast a write-in vote using the ranked ballot for the consolidated election. The election authority shall, if using the ranked vote by mail ballot authorized by this subsection, also prepare instructions for use of the ranked ballot. The ranked ballot for the consolidated election shall be mailed to the voter at the same time that the ballot for the consolidated primary election is mailed to the voter and the election authority shall accept the completed ranked ballot for the consolidated election when the authority accepts the completed ballot for the consolidated primary election.

The voter shall also be sent a vote by mail ballot for the consolidated election for those races that are not related to the results of the consolidated primary election as soon as the consolidated election ballot is certified.

The State Board of Elections shall adopt rules for election authorities for the implementation of this subsection, including, but not limited to, the application for and counting of ranked ballots.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 2-28-22.)

Section 45. The Disaster Relief Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 30/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 293.1)

Sec. 1. As used in this Act:

"Disaster" has shall have the same meaning as provided in Section 4 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

"Disaster area" means the area directly affected by or threatened with a disaster.

(Source: P.A. 102-955, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-8-22.)

Section 50. The Governor's Office of New Americans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(15 ILCS 55/10)

Sec. 10. State agency New American Americans Plans. Each State agency under the jurisdiction of the Governor shall develop a New American Plan that incorporates effective training and resources, ensures language access and culturally appropriate services, and includes administrative practices that reach out to and reflect the needs of the immigrant refugees. Each State agency under the jurisdiction of the Governor shall integrate guidance and recommendations made by the Governor's Office of New Americans statewide plan. Agency plans shall be submitted to the Governor's Office of New Americans for approval.

(Source: P.A. 102-1054, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-8-22.)

Section 55. The State Treasurer Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(15 ILCS 505/20)

Sec. 20. State Treasurer administrative charge. The State Treasurer may retain an administrative charge for both the costs of services associated with the deposit of moneys that are remitted directly to the State Treasurer and the investment or safekeeping of funds by the State Treasurer. The administrative charges collected under this Section shall be deposited into the State Treasurer's Administrative Fund. The amount of the administrative charges may be determined by the State Treasurer. Administrative charges from the deposit of moneys remitted directly to the State Treasurer shall not exceed 2% of the amount deposited. Administrative charges from the investment or safekeeping of funds by the State Treasurer shall be charged no more than monthly and the total amount charged per fiscal year shall not exceed $12,000,000 plus any amounts required as employer contributions under Section 14-131 of the Illinois Pension Code and Section 10 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

Administrative charges for the deposit of moneys shall apply to fines, fees, or other amounts remitted directly to the State Treasurer by circuit clerks, county clerks, and other entities for deposit into a fund in the State treasury. Administrative charges for the deposit of moneys do not apply to amounts remitted by State agencies or certified collection specialists as defined in 74 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 1200.50. Administrative charges for the deposit of moneys shall apply only to any form of fines, fees, or other collections created on or after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-965).

Moneys in the State Treasurer's Administrative Fund are subject to appropriation by the General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; revised 2-28-22.)

Section 60. The Data Governance and Organization to Support Equity and Racial Justice Act is amended by changing Section 20-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 65/20-15)

Sec. 20-15. Data Governance and Organization to Support Equity and Racial Justice.

(a) On or before July 1, 2022 and each July 1 thereafter, the Board and the Department shall report statistical data on the racial, ethnic, age, sex, disability status, sexual orientation, gender identity, and primary or preferred language demographics of program participants for each major program administered by the Board or the Department. Except as provided in subsection (b), when reporting the data required under this Section, the Board or the Department shall use the same racial and ethnic classifications for each program, which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) American Indian and Alaska Native alone.

(2) Asian alone.

(3) Black or African American alone.

(4) Hispanic or Latino of any race.

(5) Native Hawaiian and Other Pacific Islander alone.

(6) White alone.

(7) Some other race alone.

(8) Two or more races.

The Board and the Department may further define, by rule, the racial and ethnic classifications, including, if necessary, a classification of "No Race Specified".

(b) (c) If a program administered by the Board or the Department is subject to federal reporting requirements that include the collection and public reporting of statistical data on the racial and ethnic demographics of program participants, the Department may maintain the same racial and ethnic classifications used under the federal requirements if such classifications differ from the classifications listed in subsection (a).

(c) (d) The Department of Innovation and Technology shall assist the Board and the Department by establishing common technological processes and procedures for the Board and the Department to:

(1) Catalog data.

(2) Identify similar fields in datasets.

(3) Manage data requests.

(4) Share data.

(5) Collect data.

(6) Improve and clean data.

(7) Match data across the Board and Departments.

(8) Develop research and analytic agendas.

(9) Report on program participation disaggregated by race and ethnicity.

(10) Evaluate equitable outcomes for underserved populations in Illinois.

(11) Define common roles for data management.

(12) Ensure that all major programs can report disaggregated data by race, ethnicity, age, sex, disability status, sexual orientation, and gender identity, and primary or preferred language.

The Board and the Department shall use the common technological processes and procedures established by the Department of Innovation and Technology.

(d) (e) If the Board or the Department is unable to begin reporting the data required by subsection (a) by July 1, 2022, the Board or the Department shall state the reasons for the delay under the reporting requirements.

(e) (f) By no later than March 31, 2022, the Board and the Department shall provide a progress report to the General Assembly to disclose: (i) the programs and datasets that have been cataloged for which race, ethnicity, age, sex, disability status, sexual orientation, gender identity, and primary or preferred language have been standardized; and (ii) to the extent possible, the datasets and programs that are outstanding for each agency and the datasets that are planned for the upcoming year. On or before March 31, 2023, and each year thereafter, the Board and the Department Departments shall provide an updated report to the General Assembly.

(f) (g) By no later than October 31, 2021, the Governor's Office shall provide a plan to establish processes for input from the Board and the Department into processes outlined in subsection (c) (b). The plan shall incorporate ongoing efforts at data interoperability within the Department and the governance established to support the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System enacted by Public Act 96-107.

(g) (h) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the rights granted to individuals or data sharing protections established under existing State and federal data privacy and security laws.

(Source: P.A. 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-543, eff. 8-20-21; revised 2-4-23.)

Section 65. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.26 and 5.46 and by changing Sections 7.4, 8, and 35.10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5.26)

Sec. 5.26. Foster children; exit interviews.

(a) Unless clinically contraindicated, the Department shall ensure that an exit interview is conducted with every child age 5 and over who leaves a foster home.

(1) The interview shall be conducted by a caseworker, mental health provider, or clinician from the Department's Division of Clinical Practice.

(2) The interview shall be conducted within 5 days of the child's removal from the home.

(3) The interviewer shall comply with the provisions of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act if the child discloses abuse or neglect as defined by that Act.

(4) The interviewer shall immediately inform the licensing agency if the child discloses any information that would constitute a potential licensing violation.

(5) Documentation of the interview shall be (i) maintained in the foster parent's licensing file, (ii) maintained in the child's case file, (iii) included in the service plan for the child, and (iv) and provided to the child's guardian ad litem and attorney appointed under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(6) The determination that an interview in compliance with this Section is clinically contraindicated shall be made by the caseworker, in consultation with the child's mental health provider, if any, and the caseworker's supervisor. If the child does not have a mental health provider, the caseworker shall request a consultation with the Department's Division of Clinical Practice regarding whether an interview is clinically contraindicated. The decision and the basis for the decision shall be documented in writing and shall be (i) maintained in the foster parent's licensing file, (ii) maintained in the child's case file, and (iii) attached as part of the service plan for the child.

(7) The information gathered during the interview shall be dependent on the age and maturity of the child and the circumstances of the child's removal. The interviewer's observations and any information relevant to understanding the child's responses shall be recorded on the interview form. At a minimum, the interview shall address the following areas:

(A) How the child's basic needs were met in the home: who prepared food and was there sufficient food; whether the child had appropriate clothing; sleeping arrangements; supervision appropriate to the child's age and special needs; was the child enrolled in school; and did the child receive the support needed to complete his or her school work.

(B) Access to caseworker, therapist, or guardian ad litem: whether the child was able to contact these professionals and how.

(C) Safety and comfort in the home: how did the child feel in the home; was the foster parent affirming of the child's identity; did anything happen that made the child happy; did anything happen that was scary or sad; what happened when the child did something he or she should not have done; if relevant, how does the child think the foster parent felt about the child's family of origin, including parents and siblings; and was the foster parent supportive of the permanency goal.

(D) Normalcy: whether the child felt included in the family; whether the child participated in extracurricular activities; whether the foster parent participated in planning for the child, including child and family team meetings and school meetings.

(b) The Department shall develop procedures, including an interview form, no later than January 1, 2023, to implement this Section.

(c) Beginning July 1, 2023 and quarterly thereafter, the Department shall post on its webpage a report summarizing the details of the exit interviews.

(Source: P.A. 102-763, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-19-22.)

(20 ILCS 505/5.27)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 5.27 5.26. Holistic Mental Health Care for Youth in Care Task Force.

(a) The Holistic Mental Health Care for Youth in Care Task Force is created. The Task Force shall review and make recommendations regarding mental health and wellness services provided to youth in care, including a program of holistic mental health services provided 30 days after the date upon which a youth is placed in foster care, in order to determine how to best meet the mental health needs of youth in care. Additionally, the Task Force shall:

(1) assess the capacity of State licensed mental health professionals to provide preventive mental health care to youth in care;

(2) review the current payment rates for mental health providers serving the youth in care population;

(3) evaluate the process for smaller private practices and agencies to bill through managed care, evaluate delayed payments to mental health providers, and recommend improvements to make billing practices more efficient;

(4) evaluate the recruitment and retention of mental health providers who are persons of color to serve the youth in care population; and

(5) any other relevant subject and processes as deemed necessary by the Task Force.

(b) The Task Force shall have 9 members, comprised as follows:

(1) The Director of Healthcare and Family Services or the Director's designee.

(2) The Director of Children and Family Services or the Director's designee.

(3) A member appointed by the Governor from the Office of the Governor who has a focus on mental health issues.

(4) Two members from the House of Representatives, appointed one each by the Speaker of the House of Representatives and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(5) Two members of the Senate, appointed one each by the President of the Senate and the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(6) One member who is a former youth in care, appointed by the Governor.

(7) One representative from the managed care entity managing the YouthCare program, appointed by the Director of Healthcare and Family Services.

Task Force members shall serve without compensation but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(c) The Task Force shall meet at least once each month beginning no later than July 1, 2022 and at other times as determined by the Task Force. The Task Force may hold electronic meetings and a member of the Task Force shall be deemed present for the purposes of establishing a quorum and voting.

(d) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in conjunction with the Department of Children and Family Services, shall provide administrative and other support to the Task Force.

(e) The Task Force shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly at the end of each quarter a report that summarizes its work and makes recommendations resulting from its study. The Task Force shall submit its final report to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than December 31, 2024. Upon submission of its final report, the Task Force is dissolved.

(f) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2026.

(Source: P.A. 102-898, eff. 5-25-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(20 ILCS 505/5.46)

Sec. 5.46. Application for Social Security benefits, Supplemental Security Income, Veterans benefits, and Railroad Retirement benefits.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Benefits" means Social Security benefits, Supplemental Security Income, Veterans benefits, and Railroad Retirement benefits.

"Youth's attorney and guardian ad litem" means the person appointed as the youth's attorney or guardian ad litem in accordance with the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in the proceeding in which the Department is appointed as the youth's guardian or custodian.

(b) Application for benefits.

(1) Upon receiving temporary custody or guardianship of a youth in care, the Department shall assess the youth to determine whether the youth may be eligible for benefits. If, after the assessment, the Department determines that the youth may be eligible for benefits, the Department shall ensure that an application is filed on behalf of the youth. The Department shall prescribe by rule how it will review cases of youth in care at regular intervals to determine whether the youth may have become eligible for benefits after the initial assessment. The Department shall make reasonable efforts to encourage youth in care over the age of 18 who are likely eligible for benefits to cooperate with the application process and to assist youth with the application process.

(2) When applying for benefits under this Section for a youth in care the Department shall identify a representative payee in accordance with the requirements of 20 CFR 404.2021 and 416.621. If the Department is seeking to be appointed as the youth's representative payee, the Department must consider input, if provided, from the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem regarding whether another representative payee, consistent with the requirements of 20 CFR 404.2021 and 416.621, is available. If the Department serves as the representative payee for a youth over the age of 18, the Department shall request a court order, as described in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) and in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subsection (d).

(c) Notifications. The Department shall immediately notify a youth over the age of 16, the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem, and the youth's parent or legal guardian or another responsible adult of:

(1) any application for or any application to become representative payee for benefits on behalf of a youth in care;

(2) any communications from the Social Security Administration, the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, or the Railroad Retirement Board pertaining to the acceptance or denial of benefits or the selection of a representative payee; and

(3) any appeal or other action requested by the Department regarding an application for benefits.

(d) Use of benefits. Consistent with federal law, when the Department serves as the representative payee for a youth receiving benefits and receives benefits on the youth's behalf, the Department shall:

(1) Beginning January 1, 2023, ensure that when the youth attains the age of 14 years and until the Department no longer serves as the representative payee, a minimum percentage of the youth's Supplemental Security Income benefits are conserved in accordance with paragraph (4) as follows:

(A) From the age of 14 through age 15, at least 40%.

(B) From the age of 16 through age 17, at least 80%.

(C) From the age of 18 through 20, 100%, when a court order has been entered expressly allowing the Department to have the authority to establish and serve as an authorized agent of the youth over the age of 18 with respect to an account established in accordance with paragraph (4).

(2) Beginning January 1, 2024, ensure that when the youth attains the age of 14 years and until the Department no longer serves as the representative payee a minimum percentage of the youth's Social Security benefits, Veterans benefits, or Railroad Retirement benefits are conserved in accordance with paragraph (4) as follows:

(A) From the age of 14 through age 15, at least 40%.

(B) From the age of 16 through age 17, at least 80%.

(C) From the age of 18 through 20, 100%, when a court order has been entered expressly allowing the Department to have the authority to establish and serve as an authorized agent of the youth over the age of 18 with respect to an account established in accordance with paragraph (4).

(3) Exercise discretion in accordance with federal law and in the best interests of the youth when making decisions to use or conserve the youth's benefits that are less than or not subject to asset or resource limits under federal law, including using the benefits to address the youth's special needs and conserving the benefits for the youth's reasonably foreseeable future needs.

(4) Appropriately monitor any federal asset or resource limits for the benefits and ensure that the youth's best interest is served by using or conserving the benefits in a way that avoids violating any federal asset or resource limits that would affect the youth's eligibility to receive the benefits, including:

(A) applying to the Social Security Administration to establish a Plan to Achieve Self-Support (PASS) Account for the youth under the Social Security Act and determining whether it is in the best interest of the youth to conserve all or parts of the benefits in the PASS account;

(B) establishing a 529 plan for the youth and conserving the youth's benefits in that account in a manner that appropriately avoids any federal asset or resource limits;

(C) establishing an Individual Development Account for the youth and conserving the youth's benefits in that account in a manner that appropriately avoids any federal asset or resource limits;

(D) establishing an ABLE account authorized by Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, for the youth and conserving the youth's benefits in that account in a manner that appropriately avoids any federal asset or resource limits;

(E) establishing a Social Security Plan to Achieve Self-Support account for the youth and conserving the youth's benefits in a manner that appropriately avoids any federal asset or resource limits;

(F) establishing a special needs trust for the youth and conserving the youth's benefits in the trust in a manner that is consistent with federal requirements for special needs trusts and that appropriately avoids any federal asset or resource limits;

(G) if the Department determines that using the benefits for services for current special needs not already provided by the Department is in the best interest of the youth, using the benefits for those services;

(H) if federal law requires certain back payments of benefits to be placed in a dedicated account, complying with the requirements for dedicated accounts under 20 CFR 416.640(e); and

(I) applying any other exclusions from federal asset or resource limits available under federal law and using or conserving the youth's benefits in a manner that appropriately avoids any federal asset or resource limits.

(e) By July 1, 2024, the Department shall provide a report to the General Assembly regarding youth in care who receive benefits who are not subject to this Act. The report shall discuss a goal of expanding conservation of children's benefits to all benefits of all children of any age for whom the Department serves as representative payee. The report shall include a description of any identified obstacles, steps to be taken to address the obstacles, and a description of any need for statutory, rule, or procedural changes.

(f) Accounting. The Department shall provide an annual accounting to the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem of how the youth's benefits have been used and conserved. In addition, within 10 business days of a request from a youth or the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem, the Department shall provide an accounting to the youth of how the youth's benefits have been used and conserved. The accounting shall include:

(1) The amount of benefits received on the youth's behalf since the most recent accounting and the date the benefits were received.

(2) Information regarding the youth's benefits and resources, including the youth's benefits, insurance, cash assets, trust accounts, earnings, and other resources.

(3) An accounting of the disbursement of benefit funds, including the date, amount, identification of payee, and purpose.

(4) Information regarding each request by the youth, the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem, or the youth's caregiver for disbursement of funds and a statement regarding the reason for not granting the request if the request was denied.

When the Department's guardianship of the youth is being terminated, the Department shall provide (i) a final accounting to the Social Security Administration, to the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem, and to either the person or persons who will assume guardianship of the youth or who is in the process of adopting the youth, if the youth is under 18, or to the youth, if the youth is over 18 and (ii) information to the parent, guardian, or youth regarding how to apply to become the representative payee. The Department shall adopt rules to ensure that the representative payee transitions occur in a timely and appropriate manner.

(g) Financial literacy. The Department shall provide the youth with financial literacy training and support, including specific information regarding the existence, availability, and use of funds conserved for the youth in accordance with this subsection, beginning by age 14. The literacy program and support services shall be developed in consultation with input from the Department's Statewide Youth Advisory Board.

(h) Adoption of rules. The Department shall adopt rules to implement the provisions of this Section by January 1, 2023.

(i) Reporting. No later than February 28, 2023, the Department shall file a report with the General Assembly providing the following information for State Fiscal Years 2019, 2020, 2021, and 2022 and annually beginning February 28, 2023, for the preceding fiscal year:

(1) The number of youth entering care.

(2) The number of youth entering care receiving each of the following types of benefits: Social Security benefits, Supplemental Security Income, Veterans benefits, Railroad Retirement benefits.

(3) The number of youth entering care for whom the Department filed an application for each of the following types of benefits: Social Security benefits, Supplemental Security Income, Veterans benefits, Railroad Retirement benefits.

(4) The number of youth entering care who were awarded each of the following types of benefits based on an application filed by the Department: Social Security benefits, Supplemental Security Income, Veterans benefits, Railroad Retirement benefits.

(j) Annually beginning December 31, 2023, the Department shall file a report with the General Assembly with the following information regarding the preceding fiscal year:

(1) the number of conserved accounts established and maintained for youth in care;

(2) the average amount conserved by age group; and

(3) the total amount conserved by age group.

(Source: P.A. 102-1014, eff. 5-27-22.)

(20 ILCS 505/5.47)

Sec. 5.47 5.46. Extended Family Support Pilot Program. The Department may consult with independent partners to review Extended Family Support Program services and advise if additional services are needed prior to the start of the pilot program required under this Section. Beginning January 1, 2023, the Department shall implement a 3-year pilot program of additional resources for families receiving Extended Family Support Program services from the Department for the purpose of supporting relative caregivers. These resources may include, but are not limited to: (i) wraparound case management services, (ii) home visiting services for caregivers with children under the age of 5, and (iii) parent mentors for caregivers with children over the age of 3.

The services for the Extended Family Support Program are expanded given the program's inclusion in the Family First Prevention Services Act's targeted populations. Other target populations include intact families, pregnant and parenting youth, reunification within 6 months, and post adoption and subsidized guardianship. Inclusion provides the array of evidence-based interventions included within the State's Family First Prevention Services plan. Funding through Title IV-E of the Social Security Act shall be spent on services to prevent children and youth who are candidates for foster care from coming into care and allow them to remain with their families. Given the inclusion of the Extended Family Support Program in the Family First Prevention Services Act, the program is a part of the independent evaluation of Family First Prevention Services. This includes tracking deflection from foster care.

The resources provided by the pilot program are voluntary and refusing such resources shall not be used as evidence of neglect of a child.

The Department shall arrange for an independent evaluation of the pilot program to determine whether the pilot program is successfully supporting families receiving Extended Family Support Program services or Family First Prevention Program services and preventing entrance into the foster care system. This evaluation will support determining whether there is a long-term cost benefit to continuing the pilot program.

At the end of the 3-year pilot program, the Department shall submit a report to the General Assembly with its findings of the evaluation. The report shall state whether the Department intends to continue the pilot program and the rationale for its decision.

The Department may adopt rules and procedures to implement and administer this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-1029, eff. 5-27-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(20 ILCS 505/7.4)

Sec. 7.4. Development and preservation of sibling relationships for children in care; placement of siblings; contact among siblings placed apart.

(a) Purpose and policy. The General Assembly recognizes that sibling relationships are unique and essential for a person, but even more so for children who are removed from the care of their families and placed in the State child welfare system. When family separation occurs through State intervention, every effort must be made to preserve, support and nurture sibling relationships when doing so is in the best interest of each sibling. It is in the interests of foster children who are part of a sibling group to enjoy contact with one another, as long as the contact is in each child's best interest. This is true both while the siblings are in State care and after one or all of the siblings leave State care through adoption, guardianship, or aging out.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

(1) Whenever a best interest determination is required by this Section, the Department shall consider the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the Department's rules regarding Sibling Placement, 89 Ill. Adm. 111. Admin. Code 301.70 and Sibling Visitation, 89 Ill. Adm. 111. Admin. Code 301.220, and the Department's rules regarding Placement Selection Criteria, 89 Ill. Adm. 111. Admin. Code 301.60.

(2) "Adopted child" means a child who, immediately preceding the adoption, was in the custody or guardianship of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(3) "Adoptive parent" means a person who has become a parent through the legal process of adoption.

(4) "Child" means a person in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department who is under the age of 21.

(5) "Child placed in private guardianship" means a child who, immediately preceding the guardianship, was in the custody or guardianship of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act.

(6) "Contact" may include, but is not limited to visits, telephone calls, letters, sharing of photographs or information, e-mails, video conferencing, and other form of communication or contact.

(7) "Legal guardian" means a person who has become the legal guardian of a child who, immediately prior to the guardianship, was in the custody or guardianship of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(8) "Parent" means the child's mother or father who is named as the respondent in proceedings conducted under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(9) "Post Permanency Sibling Contact" means contact between siblings following the entry of a Judgment Order for Adoption under Section 14 of the Adoption Act regarding at least one sibling or an Order for Guardianship appointing a private guardian under Section 2-27 or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, regarding at least one sibling. Post Permanency Sibling Contact may include, but is not limited to, visits, telephone calls, letters, sharing of photographs or information, emails, video conferencing, and other form of communication or connection agreed to by the parties to a Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement.

(10) "Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement" means a written agreement between the adoptive parent or parents, the child, and the child's sibling regarding post permanency contact between the adopted child and the child's sibling, or a written agreement between the legal guardians, the child, and the child's sibling regarding post permanency contact between the child placed in guardianship and the child's sibling. The Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement may specify the nature and frequency of contact between the adopted child or child placed in guardianship and the child's sibling following the entry of the Judgment Order for Adoption or Order for Private Guardianship. The Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement may be supported by services as specified in this Section. The Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement is voluntary on the part of the parties to the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement and is not a requirement for finalization of the child's adoption or guardianship. The Post Permanency Sibling Contract Agreement shall not be enforceable in any court of law or administrative forum and no cause of action shall be brought to enforce the Agreement. When entered into, the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement shall be placed in the child's Post Adoption or Guardianship case record and in the case file of a sibling who is a party to the agreement and who remains in the Department's custody or guardianship.

(11) "Sibling Contact Support Plan" means a written document that sets forth the plan for future contact between siblings who are in the Department's care and custody and residing separately. The goal of the Support Plan is to develop or preserve and nurture the siblings' relationships. The Support Plan shall set forth the role of the foster parents, caregivers, and others in implementing the Support Plan. The Support Plan must meet the minimum standards regarding frequency of in-person visits provided for in Department rule.

(12) "Siblings" means children who share at least one parent in common. This definition of siblings applies solely for purposes of placement and contact under this Section. For purposes of this Section, children who share at least one parent in common continue to be siblings after their parent's parental rights are terminated, if parental rights were terminated while a petition under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 was pending. For purposes of this Section, children who share at least one parent in common continue to be siblings after a sibling is adopted or placed in private guardianship when the adopted child or child placed in private guardianship was in the Department's custody or guardianship under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 immediately prior to the adoption or private guardianship. For children who have been in the guardianship of the Department under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, have been adopted, and are subsequently returned to the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, "siblings" includes a person who would have been considered a sibling prior to the adoption and siblings through adoption.

(c) No later than January 1, 2013, the Department shall promulgate rules addressing the development and preservation of sibling relationships. The rules shall address, at a minimum:

(1) Recruitment, licensing, and support of foster parents willing and capable of either fostering sibling groups or supporting and being actively involved in planning and executing sibling contact for siblings placed apart. The rules shall address training for foster parents, licensing workers, placement workers, and others as deemed necessary.

(2) Placement selection for children who are separated from their siblings and how to best promote placements of children with foster parents or programs that can meet the children's needs, including the need to develop and maintain contact with siblings.

(3) State-supported guidance to siblings who have aged out of state care regarding positive engagement with siblings.

(4) Implementation of Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreements for children exiting State care, including services offered by the Department to encourage and assist parties in developing agreements, services offered by the Department post permanency to support parties in implementing and maintaining agreements, and including services offered by the Department post permanency to assist parties in amending agreements as necessary to meet the needs of the children.

(5) Services offered by the Department for children who exited foster care prior to the availability of Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreements, to invite willing parties to participate in a facilitated discussion, including, but not limited to, a mediation or joint team decision-making meeting, to explore sibling contact.

(d) The Department shall develop a form to be provided to youth entering care and exiting care explaining their rights and responsibilities related to sibling visitation while in care and post permanency.

(e) Whenever a child enters care or requires a new placement, the Department shall consider the development and preservation of sibling relationships.

(1) This subsection applies when a child entering care or requiring a change of placement has siblings who are in the custody or guardianship of the Department. When a child enters care or requires a new placement, the Department shall examine its files and other available resources and determine whether a sibling of that child is in the custody or guardianship of the Department. If the Department determines that a sibling is in its custody or guardianship, the Department shall then determine whether it is in the best interests of each of the siblings for the child needing placement to be placed with the sibling. If the Department determines that it is in the best interest of each sibling to be placed together, and the sibling's foster parent is able and willing to care for the child needing placement, the Department shall place the child needing placement with the sibling. A determination that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling shall be made in accordance with Department rules, and documented in the file of each sibling.

(2) This subsection applies when a child who is entering care has siblings who have been adopted or placed in private guardianship. When a child enters care, the Department shall examine its files and other available resources, including consulting with the child's parents, to determine whether a sibling of the child was adopted or placed in private guardianship from State care. The Department shall determine, in consultation with the child's parents, whether it would be in the child's best interests to explore placement with the adopted sibling or sibling in guardianship. Unless the parent objects, if the Department determines it is in the child's best interest to explore the placement, the Department shall contact the adoptive parents or guardians of the sibling, determine whether they are willing to be considered as placement resources for the child, and, if so, determine whether it is in the best interests of the child to be placed in the home with the sibling. If the Department determines that it is in the child's best interests to be placed in the home with the sibling, and the sibling's adoptive parents or guardians are willing and capable, the Department shall make the placement. A determination that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling shall be made in accordance with Department rule, and documented in the child's file.

(3) This subsection applies when a child in Department custody or guardianship requires a change of placement, and the child has siblings who have been adopted or placed in private guardianship. When a child in care requires a new placement, the Department may consider placing the child with the adoptive parent or guardian of a sibling under the same procedures and standards set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(4) When the Department determines it is not in the best interest of one or more siblings to be placed together the Department shall ensure that the child requiring placement is placed in a home or program where the caregiver is willing and able to be actively involved in supporting the sibling relationship to the extent doing so is in the child's best interest.

(f) When siblings in care are placed in separate placements, the Department shall develop a Sibling Contact Support Plan. The Department shall convene a meeting to develop the Support Plan. The meeting shall include, at a minimum, the case managers for the siblings, the foster parents or other care providers if a child is in a non-foster home placement and the child, when developmentally and clinically appropriate. The Department shall make all reasonable efforts to promote the participation of the foster parents. Parents whose parental rights are intact shall be invited to the meeting. Others, such as therapists and mentors, shall be invited as appropriate. The Support Plan shall set forth future contact and visits between the siblings to develop or preserve, and nurture the siblings' relationships. The Support Plan shall set forth the role of the foster parents and caregivers and others in implementing the Support Plan. The Support Plan must meet the minimum standards regarding frequency of in-person visits provided for in Department rule. The Support Plan will be incorporated in the child's service plan and reviewed at each administrative case review. The Support Plan should be modified if one of the children moves to a new placement, or as necessary to meet the needs of the children. The Sibling Contact Support Plan for a child in care may include siblings who are not in the care of the Department, with the consent and participation of that child's parent or guardian.

(g) By January 1, 2013, the Department shall develop a registry so that placement information regarding adopted siblings and siblings in private guardianship is readily available to Department and private agency caseworkers responsible for placing children in the Department's care. When a child is adopted or placed in private guardianship from foster care the Department shall inform the adoptive parents or guardians that they may be contacted in the future regarding placement of or contact with siblings subsequently requiring placement.

(h) When a child is in need of an adoptive placement, the Department shall examine its files and other available resources and attempt to determine whether a sibling of the child has been adopted or placed in private guardianship after being in the Department's custody or guardianship. If the Department determines that a sibling of the child has been adopted or placed in private guardianship, the Department shall make a good faith effort to locate the adoptive parents or guardians of the sibling and inform them of the availability of the child for adoption. The Department may determine not to inform the adoptive parents or guardians of a sibling of a child that the child is available for adoption only for a reason permitted under criteria adopted by the Department by rule, and documented in the child's case file. If a child available for adoption has a sibling who has been adopted or placed in guardianship, and the adoptive parents or guardians of that sibling apply to adopt the child, the Department shall consider them as adoptive applicants for the adoption of the child. The Department's final decision as to whether it will consent to the adoptive parents or guardians of a sibling being the adoptive parents of the child shall be based upon the welfare and best interest of the child. In arriving at its decision, the Department shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited to:

(1) the wishes of the child;

(2) the interaction and interrelationship of the child with the applicant to adopt the child;

(3) the child's need for stability and continuity of relationship with parent figures;

(4) the child's adjustment to his or her present home, school, and community;

(5) the mental and physical health of all individuals involved;

(6) the family ties between the child and the child's relatives, including siblings;

(7) the background, age, and living arrangements of the applicant to adopt the child;

(8) a criminal background report of the applicant to adopt the child.

If placement of the child available for adoption with the adopted sibling or sibling in private guardianship is not feasible, but it is in the child's best interest to develop a relationship with his or her sibling, the Department shall invite the adoptive parents, guardian, or guardians for a mediation or joint team decision-making meeting to facilitate a discussion regarding future sibling contact.

(i) Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. When a child in the Department's care has a permanency goal of adoption or private guardianship, and the Department is preparing to finalize the adoption or guardianship, the Department shall convene a meeting with the pre-adoptive parent or prospective guardian and the case manager for the child being adopted or placed in guardianship and the foster parents and case managers for the child's siblings, and others as applicable. The children should participate as is developmentally appropriate. Others, such as therapists and mentors, may participate as appropriate. At the meeting the Department shall encourage the parties to discuss sibling contact post permanency. The Department may assist the parties in drafting a Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement.

(1) Parties to the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement shall include:

(A) The adoptive parent or parents or guardian.

(B) The child's sibling or siblings, parents or guardians.

(C) The child.

(2) Consent of child 14 and over. The written consent of a child age 14 and over to the terms and conditions of the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement and subsequent modifications is required.

(3) In developing this Agreement, the Department shall encourage the parties to consider the following factors:

(A) the physical and emotional safety and welfare of the child;

(B) the child's wishes;

(C) the interaction and interrelationship of the child with the child's sibling or siblings who would be visiting or communicating with the child, including:

(i) the quality of the relationship between the child and the sibling or siblings, and

(ii) the benefits and potential harms to the child in allowing the relationship or relationships to continue or in ending them;

(D) the child's sense of attachments to the birth sibling or siblings and adoptive family, including:

(i) the child's sense of being valued;

(ii) the child's sense of familiarity; and

(iii) continuity of affection for the child; and

(E) other factors relevant to the best interest of the child.

(4) In considering the factors in paragraph (3) of this subsection, the Department shall encourage the parties to recognize the importance to a child of developing a relationship with siblings including siblings with whom the child does not yet have a relationship; and the value of preserving family ties between the child and the child's siblings, including:

(A) the child's need for stability and continuity of relationships with siblings, and

(B) the importance of sibling contact in the development of the child's identity.

(5) Modification or termination of Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. The parties to the agreement may modify or terminate the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. If the parties cannot agree to modification or termination, they may request the assistance of the Department of Children and Family Services or another agency identified and agreed upon by the parties to the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. Any and all terms may be modified by agreement of the parties. Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreements may also be modified to include contact with siblings whose whereabouts were unknown or who had not yet been born when the Judgment Order for Adoption or Order for Private Guardianship was entered.

(6) Adoptions and private guardianships finalized prior to the effective date of amendatory Act. Nothing in this Section prohibits the parties from entering into a Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement if the adoption or private guardianship was finalized prior to the effective date of this Section. If the Agreement is completed and signed by the parties, the Department shall include the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement in the child's Post Adoption or Private Guardianship case record and in the case file of siblings who are parties to the agreement who are in the Department's custody or guardianship.

(Source: P.A. 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 2-28-22.)

(20 ILCS 505/8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5008)

Sec. 8. Scholarships and fee waivers; tuition waiver.

(a) Each year the Department shall select a minimum of 53 students (at least 4 of whom shall be children of veterans) to receive scholarships and fee waivers which will enable them to attend and complete their post-secondary education at a community college, university, or college. Youth shall be selected from among the youth for whom the Department has court-ordered legal responsibility, youth who aged out of care at age 18 or older, or youth formerly under care who have been adopted or who have been placed in private guardianship. Recipients must have earned a high school diploma from an accredited institution or a State of Illinois High School Diploma or diploma or have met the State criteria for high school graduation before the start of the school year for which they are applying for the scholarship and waiver. Scholarships and fee waivers shall be available to students for at least 5 years, provided they are continuing to work toward graduation. Unused scholarship dollars and fee waivers shall be reallocated to new recipients. No later than January 1, 2015, the Department shall promulgate rules identifying the criteria for "continuing to work toward graduation" and for reallocating unused scholarships and fee waivers. Selection shall be made on the basis of several factors, including, but not limited to, scholastic record, aptitude, and general interest in higher education. The selection committee shall include at least 2 individuals formerly under the care of the Department who have completed their post-secondary education. In accordance with this Act, tuition scholarships and fee waivers shall be available to such students at any university or college maintained by the State of Illinois. The Department shall provide maintenance and school expenses, except tuition and fees, during the academic years to supplement the students' earnings or other resources so long as they consistently maintain scholastic records which are acceptable to their schools and to the Department. Students may attend other colleges and universities, if scholarships are awarded to them, and receive the same benefits for maintenance and other expenses as those students attending any Illinois State community college, university, or college under this Section. Beginning with recipients receiving scholarships and waivers in August 2014, the Department shall collect data and report annually to the General Assembly on measures of success, including (i) the number of youth applying for and receiving scholarships or waivers, (ii) the percentage of scholarship or waiver recipients who complete their college or university degree within 5 years, (iii) the average length of time it takes for scholarship or waiver recipients to complete their college or university degree, (iv) the reasons that scholarship or waiver recipients are discharged or fail to complete their college or university degree, (v) when available, youths' outcomes 5 years and 10 years after being awarded the scholarships or waivers, and (vi) budget allocations for maintenance and school expenses incurred by the Department.

(b) Youth shall receive a tuition and fee waiver to assist them in attending and completing their post-secondary education at any community college, university, or college maintained by the State of Illinois if they are youth for whom the Department has court-ordered legal responsibility, youth who aged out of care at age 18 or older, or youth formerly under care who have been adopted and were the subject of an adoption assistance agreement or who have been placed in private guardianship and were the subject of a subsidized guardianship agreement.

To receive a waiver under this subsection, an applicant must:

(1) have earned a high school diploma from an accredited institution or a State of Illinois High School Diploma or have met the State criteria for high school graduation before the start of the school year for which the applicant is applying for the waiver;

(2) enroll in a qualifying post-secondary education before the applicant reaches the age of 26; and

(3) apply for federal and State grant assistance by completing the Free Application for Federal Student Aid.

The community college or public university that an applicant attends must waive any tuition and fee amounts that exceed the amounts paid to the applicant under the federal Pell Grant Program or the State's Monetary Award Program.

Tuition and fee waivers shall be available to a student for at least the first 5 years the student is enrolled in a community college, university, or college maintained by the State of Illinois so long as the student makes satisfactory progress toward completing his or her degree. The age requirement and 5-year cap on tuition and fee waivers under this subsection shall be waived and eligibility for tuition and fee waivers shall be extended for any applicant or student who the Department determines was unable to enroll in a qualifying post-secondary school or complete an academic term because the applicant or student: (i) was called into active duty with the United States Armed Forces; (ii) was deployed for service in the United States Public Health Service Commissioned Corps; or (iii) volunteered in the Peace Corps or the AmeriCorps. The Department shall extend eligibility for a qualifying applicant or student by the total number of months or years during which the applicant or student served on active duty with the United States Armed Forces, was deployed for service in the United States Public Health Service Commissioned Corps, or volunteered in the Peace Corps or the AmeriCorps. The number of months an applicant or student served on active duty with the United States Armed Forces shall be rounded up to the next higher year to determine the maximum length of time to extend eligibility for the applicant or student.

The Department may provide the student with a stipend to cover maintenance and school expenses, except tuition and fees, during the academic years to supplement the student's earnings or other resources so long as the student consistently maintains scholastic records which are acceptable to the student's school and to the Department.

The Department shall develop outreach programs to ensure that youths who qualify for the tuition and fee waivers under this subsection who are high school students in grades 9 through 12 or who are enrolled in a high school equivalency testing program are aware of the availability of the tuition and fee waivers.

(c) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall provide eligible youth an apprenticeship stipend to cover those costs associated with entering and sustaining through completion an apprenticeship, including, but not limited to fees, tuition for classes, work clothes, rain gear, boots, and occupation-specific tools. The following youth may be eligible for the apprenticeship stipend provided under this subsection: youth for whom the Department has court-ordered legal responsibility; youth who aged out of care at age 18 or older; or youth formerly under care who have been adopted and were the subject of an adoption assistance agreement or who have been placed in private guardianship and were the subject of a subsidized guardianship agreement.

To receive a stipend under this subsection, an applicant must:

(1) be enrolled in an apprenticeship training program approved or recognized by the Illinois Department of Employment Security or an apprenticeship program approved by the United States Department of Labor;

(2) not be a recipient of a scholarship or fee waiver under subsection (a) or (b); and

(3) be under the age of 26 before enrolling in a qualified apprenticeship program.

Apprenticeship stipends shall be available to an eligible youth for a maximum of 5 years after the youth enrolls in a qualifying apprenticeship program so long as the youth makes satisfactory progress toward completing his or her apprenticeship. The age requirement and 5-year cap on the apprenticeship stipend provided under this subsection shall be extended for any applicant who the Department determines was unable to enroll in a qualifying apprenticeship program because the applicant: (i) was called into active duty with the United States Armed Forces; (ii) was deployed for service in the United States Public Health Service Commissioned Corps; or (iii) volunteered in the Peace Corps or the AmeriCorps. The Department shall extend eligibility for a qualifying applicant by the total number of months or years during which the applicant served on active duty with the United States Armed Forces, was deployed for service in the United States Public Health Service Commissioned Corps, or volunteered in the Peace Corps or the AmeriCorps. The number of months an applicant served on active duty with the United States Armed Forces shall be rounded up to the next higher year to determine the maximum length of time to extend eligibility for the applicant.

The Department shall develop outreach programs to ensure that youths who qualify for the apprenticeship stipends under this subsection who are high school students in grades 9 through 12 or who are enrolled in a high school equivalency testing program are aware of the availability of the apprenticeship stipend.

(Source: P.A. 101-558, eff. 1-1-20; 102-1100, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-8-22.)

(20 ILCS 505/35.10)

Sec. 35.10. Documents necessary for adult living. The Department shall assist a youth in care in identifying and obtaining documents necessary to function as an independent adult prior to the closure of the youth's case to terminate wardship as provided in Section 2-31 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. These necessary documents shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following:

(1) State identification card or driver's license.

(2) Social Security card.

(3) Medical records, including, but not limited to, health passport, dental records, immunization records, name and contact information for all current medical, dental, and mental health providers, and a signed certification that the Department provided the youth with education on executing a healthcare power of attorney.

(4) Medicaid card or other health eligibility documentation.

(5) Certified copy of birth certificate.

(6) Any applicable religious documents.

(7) Voter registration card.

(8) Immigration, citizenship, or naturalization documentation, if applicable.

(9) Death certificates of parents, if applicable.

(10) Life book or compilation of personal history and photographs.

(11) List of known relatives with relationships, addresses, telephone numbers, and other contact information, with the permission of the involved relative.

(12) Resume.

(13) Educational records, including list of schools attended, and transcript, high school diploma, or State of Illinois High School Diploma.

(14) List of placements while in care.

(15) List of community resources with referral information, including the Midwest Adoption Center for search and reunion services for former youth in care, whether or not they were adopted, and the Illinois Chapter of Foster Care Alumni of America.

(16) All documents necessary to complete a Free Application for Federal Student Aid form, if applicable, or an application for State financial aid.

(17) If applicable, a final accounting of the account maintained on behalf of the youth as provided under Section 5.46. If a court determines that a youth in care no longer requires wardship of the court and orders the wardship terminated and all proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 respecting the youth in care finally closed and discharged, the Department shall ensure that the youth in care receives a copy of the court's order.

(Source: P.A. 102-70, eff. 1-1-22; 102-1014, eff. 5-27-22; 102-1100, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-13-22.)

Section 70. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 605-503 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 605-1095 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-503)

Sec. 605-503. Entrepreneurship assistance centers.

(a) The Department shall establish and support, subject to appropriation, entrepreneurship assistance centers, including the issuance of grants, at career education agencies and not-for-profit corporations, including, but not limited to, local development corporations, chambers of commerce, community-based business outreach centers, and other community-based organizations. The purpose of the centers shall be to train minority group members, women, individuals with a disability, dislocated workers, veterans, and youth entrepreneurs in the principles and practice of entrepreneurship in order to prepare those persons to pursue self-employment opportunities and to pursue a minority business enterprise or a women-owned business enterprise. The centers shall provide for training in all aspects of business development and small business management as defined by the Department.

(b) The Department shall establish criteria for selection and designation of the centers which shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) the level of support for the center from local post-secondary education institutions, businesses, and government;

(2) the level of financial assistance provided at the local and federal level to support the operations of the center;

(3) the applicant's understanding of program goals and objectives articulated by the Department;

(4) the plans of the center to supplement State and local funding through fees for services which may be based on a sliding scale based on ability to pay;

(5) the need for and anticipated impact of the center on the community in which it will function;

(6) the quality of the proposed work plan and staff of the center; and

(7) the extent of economic distress in the area to be served.

(c) Each center shall:

(1) be operated by a board of directors representing community leaders in business, education, finance, and government;

(2) be incorporated as a not-for-profit corporation;

(3) be located in an area accessible to eligible clients;

(4) establish an advisory group of community business experts, at least one-half of whom shall be representative of the clientele to be served by the center, which shall constitute a support network to provide counseling and mentoring services to minority group members, women, individuals with a disability, dislocated workers, veterans, and youth entrepreneurs from the concept stage of development through the first one to 2 years of existence on a regular basis and as needed thereafter; and

(5) establish a referral system and linkages to existing area small business assistance programs and financing sources.

(d) Each entrepreneurship assistance center shall provide needed services to eligible clients, including, but not limited to: (i) orientation and screening of prospective entrepreneurs; (ii) analysis of business concepts and technical feasibility; (iii) market analysis; (iv) management analysis and counseling; (v) business planning and financial planning assistance; (vi) referrals to financial resources; (vii) referrals to existing educational programs for training in such areas as marketing, accounting, and other training programs as may be necessary and available; and (viii) referrals to business incubator facilities, when appropriate, for the purpose of entering into agreements to access shared support services.

(e) Applications for grants made under this Section shall be made in the manner and on forms prescribed by the Department. The application shall include, but shall not be limited to:

(1) a description of the training programs available within the geographic area to be served by the center to which eligible clients may be referred;

(2) designation of a program director;

(3) plans for providing ongoing technical assistance to program graduates, including linkages with providers of other entrepreneurial assistance programs and with providers of small business technical assistance and services;

(4) a program budget, including matching funds, in-kind and otherwise, to be provided by the applicant; and

(5) any other requirements as deemed necessary by the Department.

(f) Grants made under this Section shall be disbursed for payment of the cost of services and expenses of the program director, the instructors of the participating career education agency or not-for-profit corporation, the faculty and support personnel thereof, and any other person in the service of providing instruction and counseling in furtherance of the program.

(g) The Department shall monitor the performance of each entrepreneurial assistance center and require quarterly reports from each center at such time and in such a manner as prescribed by the Department.

The Department shall also evaluate the entrepreneurial assistance centers established under this Section and report annually beginning on January 1, 2023, and on or before January 1 of each year thereafter, the results of the evaluation to the Governor and the General Assembly. The report shall discuss the extent to which the centers serve minority group members, women, individuals with a disability, dislocated workers, veterans, and youth entrepreneurs; the extent to which the training program is coordinated with other assistance programs targeted to small and new businesses; the ability of the program to leverage other sources of funding and support; and the success of the program in aiding entrepreneurs to start up new businesses, including the number of new business start-ups resulting from the program. The report shall recommend changes and improvements in the training program and in the quality of supplemental technical assistance offered to graduates of the training programs. The report shall be made available to the public on the Department's website. Between evaluation due dates, the Department shall maintain the necessary records and data required to satisfy the evaluation requirements.

(h) For purposes of this Section:

"Entrepreneurship assistance center" or "center" means the business development centers or programs which provide assistance to primarily minority group members, women, individuals with a disability, dislocated workers, veterans, and youth entrepreneurs under this Section.

"Disability" means, with respect to an individual: (i) a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of an individual; (ii) a record of such an impairment; or (iii) being regarded as having an impairment.

"Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as provided for "minority-owned business" under Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

"Minority group member" has the same meaning as provided for "minority person" under Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

"Women-owned business enterprise" has the same meaning as provided for "women-owned business" under Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

"Veteran" means a person who served in and who has received an honorable or general discharge from, the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Marines, Coast Guard, or reserves thereof, or who served in the Army National Guard, Air National Guard, or Illinois National Guard.

"Youth entrepreneur" means a person who is between the ages of 16 and 29 years old and that is seeking community support to start a business in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 102-272, eff. 1-1-22; 102-821, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-8-22.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-1095)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2024)

Sec. 605-1095. Hotel Jobs Recovery Grant Program.

(a) In 2019, the hotel industry in the State of Illinois directly employed more than 60,000 people and generated $4,000,000,000 in State and local taxes. During the first year of the COVID-19 pandemic, one in three hotel workers were laid off or furloughed, and hotels lost $3,600,000,000 in economic activity. Unlike other segments of the hospitality industry, the hotel industry has not received any direct hotel-specific support from the federal government. Funds awarded under this Section will be used by hotels to support their workforce and recover from the COVID-19 pandemic.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Hotel" means any building or buildings in which the public may, for a consideration, obtain living quarters or , sleeping or housekeeping accommodations. The term includes, but is not limited to, inns, motels, tourist homes or courts, lodging houses, rooming houses, retreat centers, conference centers, and hunting lodges. "Hotel" does not include a short-term rental.

"Short-term rental" means a single-family dwelling, or a residential dwelling unit in a multi-unit structure, condominium, cooperative, timeshare, or similar joint property ownership arrangement, that is rented for a fee for less than 30 consecutive days. "Short-term rental" includes a vacation rental.

"Operator" and "room" have the meanings given to those terms in the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act.

(c) The Department may receive State funds and, directly or indirectly, federal funds under the authority of legislation passed in response to the Coronavirus epidemic including, but not limited to, the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021, (Public Law 117-2) ("ARPA"); such funds shall be used in accordance with the ARPA legislation and other State and federal law. Upon receipt or availability of such State or federal funds, and subject to appropriations for their use, the Department shall establish the Hotel Jobs Recovery Grant Program for the purpose of providing direct relief to hotels impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic. Based on an application filed by the hotel operator, the Department shall award a one-time grant in an amount of up to $1,500 for each room in the hotel. Every hotel in operation in the state prior to March 12, 2020 that remains in operation shall be eligible to apply for the grant. Grant awards shall be scaled based on a process determined by the Department, including reducing the grant amount by previous state and local relief provided to the business during the COVID-19 pandemic.

(d) Any operator who receives grant funds under this Section shall use a minimum of 80% of the funds on payroll costs, to the extent permitted by Section 9901 of ARPA, including, but not limited to, wages, benefits, and employer contributions to employee healthcare costs. The remaining funds shall be used on any other costs and losses permitted by ARPA.

(e) Within 12 months after receiving grant funds under this Section, the operator shall submit a written attestation to the Department acknowledging compliance with subsection (d).

(f) The Department may establish by rule administrative procedures for the grant program, including any application procedures, grant agreements, certifications, payment methodologies, and other accountability measures that may be imposed upon participants in the program. The emergency rulemaking process may be used to promulgate the initial rules of the program following April 19, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-699) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(g) The Department has the power to issue grants and enter into agreements with eligible hotels to carry out the purposes of this program.

(h) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; revised 7-27-22.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-1096)

Sec. 605-1096 605-1095. Industrial Biotechnology Workforce Development Grant Program.

(a) The Industrial Biotechnology Workforce Development Grant Program is hereby established as a program to be implemented and administered by the Department. The Program shall provide grants for the purpose of fostering a well-trained and well-skilled industrial biotechnology workforce.

(b) Subject to appropriation, grants under the Program may be awarded on an annual basis for one or more of the following:

(1) industrial biotechnology apprenticeships or apprenticeship programs;

(2) industrial biotechnology talent pipeline management programs that emphasize business-oriented strategies to increase workforce competitiveness, improve workforce diversity, and expand a regional talent pool around high-growth industries;

(3) industrial biotechnology industry-aligned credential (digital badging) expansion programs to increase the number of workers with in-demand skills needed to obtain a job or advance within the workplace and for merging competency-based education with responsive workforce training strategies; and

(4) high school and community college industrial biotechnology career pathway and pre-apprenticeship program development.

(c) To be eligible for grants provided under the Program, an entity must be either: (i) a State-sponsored, university-affiliated laboratory or research institution conducting collaboratives or for-hire research in the development of biorenewable chemicals, bio-based polymers, materials, novel feeds, or additional value-added biorenewables; or (ii) a State-accredited university or community college. An eligible entity must establish that it plans to use grant funds for a purpose specifically provided under subsection (b).

(d) On or before January 31 of the next calendar year to occur after the last day of any State fiscal year in which the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity receives State funding for the Program under this Section, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall submit an annual report to the General Assembly and the Governor on the use of grant funds under the Program. The report shall include, but not be limited to: (i) the disbursement of grant funds, categorized by eligible entity; (ii) the number of persons enrolled in or taking advantage of a program established or maintained using grant funds; (iii) the number of persons completing a program established or maintained using grant funds; and (iv) the number of person gaining employment in the industrial biotechnology industry following completion of a program established or maintained using grant funds.

(e) The Department shall adopt all rules necessary for the implementation and administration of the Program under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-991, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

Section 75. The Electric Vehicle Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(20 ILCS 627/45)

Sec. 45. Beneficial electrification.

(a) It is the intent of the General Assembly to decrease reliance on fossil fuels, reduce pollution from the transportation sector, increase access to electrification for all consumers, and ensure that electric vehicle adoption and increased electricity usage and demand do not place significant additional burdens on the electric system and create benefits for Illinois residents.

(1) Illinois should increase the adoption of electric vehicles in the State to 1,000,000 by 2030.

(2) Illinois should strive to be the best state in the nation in which to drive and manufacture electric vehicles.

(3) Widespread adoption of electric vehicles is necessary to electrify the transportation sector, diversify the transportation fuel mix, drive economic development, and protect air quality.

(4) Accelerating the adoption of electric vehicles will drive the decarbonization of Illinois' transportation sector.

(5) Expanded infrastructure investment will help Illinois more rapidly decarbonize the transportation sector.

(6) Statewide adoption of electric vehicles requires increasing access to electrification for all consumers.

(7) Widespread adoption of electric vehicles requires increasing public access to charging equipment throughout Illinois, especially in low-income and environmental justice communities, where levels of air pollution burden tend to be higher.

(8) Widespread adoption of electric vehicles and charging equipment has the potential to provide customers with fuel cost savings and electric utility customers with cost-saving benefits.

(9) Widespread adoption of electric vehicles can improve an electric utility's electric system efficiency and operational flexibility, including the ability of the electric utility to integrate renewable energy resources and make use of off-peak generation resources that support the operation of charging equipment.

(10) Widespread adoption of electric vehicles should stimulate innovation, competition, and increased choices in charging equipment and networks and should also attract private capital investments and create high-quality jobs in Illinois.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Agency" means the Environmental Protection Agency.

"Beneficial electrification programs" means programs that lower carbon dioxide emissions, replace fossil fuel use, create cost savings, improve electric grid operations, reduce increases to peak demand, improve electric usage load shape, and align electric usage with times of renewable generation. All beneficial electrification programs shall provide for incentives such that customers are induced to use electricity at times of low overall system usage or at times when generation from renewable energy sources is high. "Beneficial electrification programs" include a portfolio of the following:

(1) time-of-use electric rates;

(2) hourly pricing electric rates;

(3) optimized charging programs or programs that encourage charging at times beneficial to the electric grid;

(4) optional demand-response programs specifically related to electrification efforts;

(5) incentives for electrification and associated infrastructure tied to using electricity at off-peak times;

(6) incentives for electrification and associated infrastructure targeted to medium-duty and heavy-duty vehicles used by transit agencies;

(7) incentives for electrification and associated infrastructure targeted to school buses;

(8) incentives for electrification and associated infrastructure for medium-duty and heavy-duty government and private fleet vehicles;

(9) low-income programs that provide access to electric vehicles for communities where car ownership or new car ownership is not common;

(10) incentives for electrification in eligible communities;

(11) incentives or programs to enable quicker adoption of electric vehicles by developing public charging stations in dense areas, workplaces, and low-income communities;

(12) incentives or programs to develop electric vehicle infrastructure that minimizes range anxiety, filling the gaps in deployment, particularly in rural areas and along highway corridors;

(13) incentives to encourage the development of electrification and renewable energy generation in close proximity in order to reduce grid congestion;

(14) offer support to low-income communities who are experiencing financial and accessibility barriers such that electric vehicle ownership is not an option; and

(15) other such programs as defined by the Commission.

"Black, indigenous, and people of color" or "BIPOC" means people who are members of the groups described in subparagraphs (a) through (e) of paragraph (A) of subsection (1) of Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

"Commission" means the Illinois Commerce Commission.

"Coordinator" means the Electric Vehicle Coordinator.

"Electric vehicle" means a vehicle that is exclusively powered by and refueled by electricity, must be plugged in to charge, and is licensed to drive on public roadways. "Electric vehicle" does not include electric mopeds, electric off-highway vehicles, or hybrid electric vehicles and extended-range electric vehicles that are also equipped with conventional fueled propulsion or auxiliary engines.

"Electric vehicle charging station" means a station that delivers electricity from a source outside an electric vehicle into one or more electric vehicles.

"Environmental justice communities" means the definition of that term based on existing methodologies and findings, used and as may be updated by the Illinois Power Agency and its program administrator in the Illinois Solar for All Program.

"Equity investment eligible community" or "eligible community" means the geographic areas throughout Illinois which would most benefit from equitable investments by the State designed to combat discrimination and foster sustainable economic growth. Specifically, "eligible community" means the following areas:

(1) areas where residents have been historically excluded from economic opportunities, including opportunities in the energy sector, as defined pursuant to Section 10-40 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act; and

(2) areas where residents have been historically subject to disproportionate burdens of pollution, including pollution from the energy sector, as established by environmental justice communities as defined by the Illinois Power Agency pursuant to Illinois Power Agency Act, excluding any racial or ethnic indicators.

"Equity investment eligible person" or "eligible person" means the persons who would most benefit from equitable investments by the State designed to combat discrimination and foster sustainable economic growth. Specifically, "eligible person" means the following people:

(1) persons whose primary residence is in an equity investment eligible community;

(2) persons who are graduates of or currently enrolled in the foster care system; or

(3) persons who were formerly incarcerated.

"Low-income" means persons and families whose income does not exceed 80% of the state median income for the current State fiscal year as established by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.

"Make-ready infrastructure" means the electrical and construction work necessary between the distribution circuit to the connection point of charging equipment.

"Optimized charging programs" mean programs whereby owners of electric vehicles can set their vehicles to be charged based on the electric system's current demand, retail or wholesale market rates, incentives, the carbon or other pollution intensity of the electric generation mix, the provision of grid services, efficient use of the electric grid, or the availability of clean energy generation. Optimized charging programs may be operated by utilities as well as third parties.

(c) The Commission shall initiate a workshop process no later than November 30, 2021 for the purpose of soliciting input on the design of beneficial electrification programs that the utility shall offer. The workshop shall be coordinated by the Staff of the Commission, or a facilitator retained by Staff, and shall be organized and facilitated in a manner that encourages representation from diverse stakeholders, including stakeholders representing environmental justice and low-income communities, and ensures equitable opportunities for participation, without requiring formal intervention or representation by an attorney.

The stakeholder workshop process shall take into consideration the benefits of electric vehicle adoption and barriers to adoption, including:

(1) the benefit of lower bills for customers who do not charge electric vehicles;

(2) benefits to the distribution system from electric vehicle usage;

(3) the avoidance and reduction in capacity costs from optimized charging and off-peak charging;

(4) energy price and cost reductions;

(5) environmental benefits, including greenhouse gas emission and other pollution reductions;

(6) current barriers to mass-market adoption, including cost of ownership and availability of charging stations;

(7) current barriers to increasing access among populations that have limited access to electric vehicle ownership, communities significantly impacted by transportation-related pollution, and market segments that create disproportionate pollution impacts;

(8) benefits of and incentives for medium-duty and heavy-duty fleet vehicle electrification;

(9) opportunities for eligible communities to benefit from electrification;

(10) geographic areas and market segments that should be prioritized for electrification infrastructure investment.

The workshops shall consider barriers, incentives, enabling rate structures, and other opportunities for the bill reduction and environmental benefits described in this subsection.

The workshop process shall conclude no later than February 28, 2022. Following the workshop, the Staff of the Commission, or the facilitator retained by the Staff, shall prepare and submit a report, no later than March 31, 2022, to the Commission that includes, but is not limited to, recommendations for transportation electrification investment or incentives in the following areas:

(i) publicly accessible Level 2 and fast-charging stations, with a focus on bringing access to transportation electrification in densely populated areas and workplaces within eligible communities;

(ii) medium-duty and heavy-duty charging infrastructure used by government and private fleet vehicles that serve or travel through environmental justice or eligible communities;

(iii) medium-duty and heavy-duty charging infrastructure used in school bus operations, whether private or public, that primarily serve governmental or educational institutions, and also serve or travel through environmental justice or eligible communities;

(iv) public transit medium-duty and heavy-duty charging infrastructure, developed in consultation with public transportation agencies; and

(v) publicly accessible Level 2 and fast-charging stations targeted to fill gaps in deployment, particularly in rural areas and along State highway corridors.

The report must also identify the participants in the process, program designs proposed during the process, estimates of the costs and benefits of proposed programs, any material issues that remained unresolved at the conclusions of such process, and any recommendations for workshop process improvements. The report shall be used by the Commission to inform and evaluate the cost effectiveness and achievement of goals within the submitted Beneficial Electrification Plans.

(d) No later than July 1, 2022, electric utilities serving greater than 500,000 customers in the State shall file a Beneficial Electrification Plan with the Illinois Commerce Commission for programs that start no later than January 1, 2023. The plan shall take into consideration recommendations from the workshop report described in this Section. Within 45 days after the filing of the Beneficial Electrification Plan, the Commission shall, with reasonable notice, open an investigation to consider whether the plan meets the objectives and contains the information required by this Section. The Commission shall determine if the proposed plan is cost-beneficial and in the public interest. When considering if the plan is in the public interest and determining appropriate levels of cost recovery for investments and expenditures related to programs proposed by an electric utility, the Commission shall consider whether the investments and other expenditures are designed and reasonably expected to:

(1) maximize total energy cost savings and rate reductions so that nonparticipants can benefit;

(2) address environmental justice interests by ensuring there are significant opportunities for residents and businesses in eligible communities to directly participate in and benefit from beneficial electrification programs;

(3) support at least a 40% investment of make-ready infrastructure incentives to facilitate the rapid deployment of charging equipment in or serving environmental justice, low-income, and eligible communities; however, nothing in this subsection is intended to require a specific amount of spending in a particular geographic area;

(4) support at least a 5% investment target in electrifying medium-duty and heavy-duty school bus and diesel public transportation vehicles located in or serving environmental justice, low-income, and eligible communities in order to provide those communities and businesses with greater economic investment, transportation opportunities, and a cleaner environment so they can directly benefit from transportation electrification efforts; however, nothing in this subsection is intended to require a specific amount of spending in a particular geographic area;

(5) stimulate innovation, competition, private investment, and increased consumer choices in electric vehicle charging equipment and networks;

(6) contribute to the reduction of carbon emissions and meeting air quality standards, including improving air quality in eligible communities who disproportionately suffer from emissions from the medium-duty and heavy-duty transportation sector;

(7) support the efficient and cost-effective use of the electric grid in a manner that supports electric vehicle charging operations; and

(8) provide resources to support private investment in charging equipment for uses in public and private charging applications, including residential, multi-family, fleet, transit, community, and corridor applications.

The plan shall be determined to be cost-beneficial if the total cost of beneficial electrification expenditures is less than the net present value of increased electricity costs (defined as marginal avoided energy, avoided capacity, and avoided transmission and distribution system costs) avoided by programs under the plan, the net present value of reductions in other customer energy costs, net revenue from all electric charging in the service territory, and the societal value of reduced carbon emissions and surface-level pollutants, particularly in environmental justice communities. The calculation of costs and benefits should be based on net impacts, including the impact on customer rates.

The Commission shall approve, approve with modifications, or reject the plan within 270 days from the date of filing. The Commission may approve the plan if it finds that the plan will achieve the goals described in this Section and contains the information described in this Section. Proceedings under this Section shall proceed according to the rules provided by Article IX of the Public Utilities Act. Information contained in the approved plan shall be considered part of the record in any Commission proceeding under Section 16-107.6 of the Public Utilities Act, provided that a final order has not been entered prior to the initial filing date. The Beneficial Electrification Plan shall specifically address, at a minimum, the following:

(i) make-ready investments to facilitate the rapid deployment of charging equipment throughout the State, facilitate the electrification of public transit and other vehicle fleets in the light-duty, medium-duty, and heavy-duty sectors, and align with Agency-issued rebates for charging equipment;

(ii) the development and implementation of beneficial electrification programs, including time-of-use rates and their benefit for electric vehicle users and for all customers, optimized charging programs to achieve savings identified, and new contracts and compensation for services in those programs, through signals that allow electric vehicle charging to respond to local system conditions, manage critical peak periods, serve as a demand response or peak resource, and maximize renewable energy use and integration into the grid;

(iii) optional commercial tariffs utilizing alternatives to traditional demand-based rate structures to facilitate charging for light-duty, heavy-duty, light duty, heavy duty, and fleet electric vehicles;

(iv) financial and other challenges to electric vehicle usage in low-income communities, and strategies for overcoming those challenges, particularly in communities where and for people for whom car ownership is not an option;

(v) methods of minimizing ratepayer impacts and exempting or minimizing, to the extent possible, low-income ratepayers from the costs associated with facilitating the expansion of electric vehicle charging;

(vi) plans to increase access to Level 3 Public Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure to serve vehicles that need quicker charging times and vehicles of persons who have no other access to charging infrastructure, regardless of whether those projects participate in optimized charging programs;

(vii) whether to establish charging standards for type of plugs eligible for investment or incentive programs, and if so, what standards;

(viii) opportunities for coordination and cohesion with electric vehicle and electric vehicle charging equipment incentives established by any agency, department, board, or commission of the State, any other unit of government in the State, any national programs, or any unit of the federal government;

(ix) ideas for the development of online tools, applications, and data sharing that provide essential information to those charging electric vehicles, and enable an automated charging response to price signals, emission signals, real-time renewable generation production, and other Commission-approved or customer-desired indicators of beneficial charging times; and

(x) customer education, outreach, and incentive programs that increase awareness of the programs and the benefits of transportation electrification, including direct outreach to eligible communities. ;

(e) Proceedings under this Section shall proceed according to the rules provided by Article IX of the Public Utilities Act. Information contained in the approved plan shall be considered part of the record in any Commission proceeding under Section 16-107.6 of the Public Utilities Act, provided that a final order has not been entered prior to the initial filing date.

(f) The utility shall file an update to the plan on July 1, 2024 and every 3 years thereafter. This update shall describe transportation investments made during the prior plan period, investments planned for the following 24 months, and updates to the information required by this Section. Beginning with the first update, the utility shall develop the plan in conjunction with the distribution system planning process described in Section 16-105.17, including incorporation of stakeholder feedback from that process.

(g) Within 35 days after the utility files its report, the Commission shall, upon its own initiative, open an investigation regarding the utility's plan update to investigate whether the objectives described in this Section are being achieved. The Commission shall determine whether investment targets should be increased based on achievement of spending goals outlined in the Beneficial Electrification Plan and consistency with outcomes directed in the plan stakeholder workshop report. If the Commission finds, after notice and hearing, that the utility's plan is materially deficient, the Commission shall issue an order requiring the utility to devise a corrective action plan, subject to Commission approval, to bring the plan into compliance with the goals of this Section. The Commission's order shall be entered within 270 days after the utility files its annual report. The contents of a plan filed under this Section shall be available for evidence in Commission proceedings. However, omission from an approved plan shall not render any future utility expenditure to be considered unreasonable or imprudent. The Commission may, upon sufficient evidence, allow expenditures that were not part of any particular distribution plan. The Commission shall consider revenues from electric vehicles in the utility's service territory in evaluating the retail rate impact. The retail rate impact from the development of electric vehicle infrastructure shall not exceed 1% per year of the total annual revenue requirements of the utility.

(h) In meeting the requirements of this Section, the utility shall demonstrate efforts to increase the use of contractors and electric vehicle charging station installers that meet multiple workforce equity actions, including, but not limited to:

(1) the business is headquartered in or the person resides in an eligible community;

(2) the business is majority owned by eligible person or the contractor is an eligible person;

(3) the business or person is certified by another municipal, State, federal, or other certification for disadvantaged businesses;

(4) the business or person meets the eligibility criteria for a certification program such as:

(A) certified under Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act;

(B) certified by another municipal, State, federal, or other certification for disadvantaged businesses;

(C) submits an affidavit showing that the vendor meets the eligibility criteria for a certification program such as those in items (A) and (B); or

(D) if the vendor is a nonprofit, meets any of the criteria in those in item (A), (B), or (C) with the exception that the nonprofit is not required to meet any criteria related to being a for-profit entity, or is controlled by a board of directors that consists of 51% or greater individuals who are equity investment eligible persons; or

(E) ensuring that program implementation contractors and electric vehicle charging station installers pay employees working on electric vehicle charging installations at or above the prevailing wage rate as published by the Department of Labor.

Utilities shall establish reporting procedures for vendors that ensure compliance with this subsection, but are structured to avoid, wherever possible, placing an undue administrative burden on vendors.

(i) Program data collection.

(1) In order to ensure that the benefits provided to Illinois residents and business by the clean energy economy are equitably distributed across the State, it is necessary to accurately measure the applicants and recipients of this Program. The purpose of this paragraph is to require the implementing utilities to collect all data from Program applicants and beneficiaries to track and improve equitable distribution of benefits across Illinois communities. The further purpose is to measure any potential impact of racial discrimination on the distribution of benefits and provide the utilities the information necessary to correct any discrimination through methods consistent with State and federal law.

(2) The implementing utilities shall collect demographic and geographic data for each applicant and each person or business awarded benefits or contracts under this Program.

(3) The implementing utilities shall collect the following information from applicants and Program or procurement beneficiaries where applicable:

(A) demographic information, including racial or ethnic identity for real persons employed, contracted, or subcontracted through the program;

(B) demographic information, including racial or ethnic identity of business owners;

(C) geographic location of the residency of real persons or geographic location of the headquarters for businesses; and

(D) any other information necessary for the purpose of achieving the purpose of this paragraph.

(4) The utility shall publish, at least annually, aggregated information on the demographics of program and procurement applicants and beneficiaries. The utilities shall protect personal and confidential business information as necessary.

(5) The utilities shall conduct a regular review process to confirm the accuracy of reported data.

(6) On a quarterly basis, utilities shall collect data necessary to ensure compliance with this Section and shall communicate progress toward compliance to program implementation contractors and electric vehicle charging station installation vendors.

(7) Utilities filing Beneficial Electrification Plans under this Section shall report annually to the Illinois Commerce Commission and the General Assembly on how hiring, contracting, job training, and other practices related to its Beneficial electrification programs enhance the diversity of vendors working on such programs. These reports must include data on vendor and employee diversity.

(j) The provisions of this Section are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; 102-820, eff. 5-13-22; revised 9-14-22.)

Section 80. The Renewable Energy, Energy Efficiency, and Coal Resources Development Law of 1997 is amended by changing Section 6-5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 687/6-5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2025)

Sec. 6-5. Renewable Energy Resources and Coal Technology Development Assistance Charge.

(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 16-111 of the Public Utilities Act but subject to subsection (e) of this Section, each public utility, electric cooperative, as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, and municipal utility, as referenced in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, that is engaged in the delivery of electricity or the distribution of natural gas within the State of Illinois shall, effective January 1, 1998, assess each of its customer accounts a monthly Renewable Energy Resources and Coal Technology Development Assistance Charge. The delivering public utility, municipal electric or gas utility, or electric or gas cooperative for a self-assessing purchaser remains subject to the collection of the fee imposed by this Section. The monthly charge shall be as follows:

(1) $0.05 per month on each account for residential electric service as defined in Section 13 of the Energy Assistance Act;

(2) $0.05 per month on each account for residential gas service as defined in Section 13 of the Energy Assistance Act;

(3) $0.50 per month on each account for nonresidential electric service, as defined in Section 13 of the Energy Assistance Act, which had less than 10 megawatts of peak demand during the previous calendar year;

(4) $0.50 per month on each account for nonresidential gas service, as defined in Section 13 of the Energy Assistance Act, which had distributed to it less than 4,000,000 therms of gas during the previous calendar year;

(5) $37.50 per month on each account for nonresidential electric service, as defined in Section 13 of the Energy Assistance Act, which had 10 megawatts or greater of peak demand during the previous calendar year; and

(6) $37.50 per month on each account for nonresidential gas service, as defined in Section 13 of the Energy Assistance Act, which had 4,000,000 or more therms of gas distributed to it during the previous calendar year.

(b) The Renewable Energy Resources and Coal Technology Development Assistance Charge assessed by electric and gas public utilities shall be considered a charge for public utility service.

(c) Fifty percent of the moneys collected pursuant to this Section shall be deposited in the Renewable Energy Resources Trust Fund by the Department of Revenue. From those funds, $2,000,000 may be used annually by the Environmental Protection Agency to provide grants to the Illinois Green Economy Network for the purposes of funding education and training for renewable energy and energy efficiency technology and for the operation and services of the Illinois Green Economy Network. The remaining 50 percent of the moneys collected pursuant to this Section shall be deposited in the Coal Technology Development Assistance Fund by the Department of Revenue for the exclusive purposes of (1) capturing or sequestering carbon emissions produced by coal combustion; (2) supporting research on the capture and sequestration of carbon emissions produced by coal combustion; and (3) improving coal miner safety.

(d) By the 20th day of the month following the month in which the charges imposed by this Section were collected, each utility and alternative retail electric supplier collecting charges pursuant to this Section shall remit to the Department of Revenue for deposit in the Renewable Energy Resources Trust Fund and the Coal Technology Development Assistance Fund all moneys received as payment of the charge provided for in this Section on a return prescribed and furnished by the Department of Revenue showing such information as the Department of Revenue may reasonably require.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the utility or alternative alternate retail electric supplier's liabilities under this Act, as shown on an original return, the utility or alternative retail electric supplier may credit the excess payment against liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department of Revenue under this Act.

(e) The charges imposed by this Section shall only apply to customers of municipal electric or gas utilities and electric or gas cooperatives if the municipal electric or gas utility or electric or gas cooperative makes an affirmative decision to impose the charge. If a municipal electric or gas utility or an electric or gas cooperative makes an affirmative decision to impose the charge provided by this Section, the municipal electric or gas utility or electric or gas cooperative shall inform the Department of Revenue in writing of such decision when it begins to impose the charge. If a municipal electric or gas utility or electric or gas cooperative does not assess this charge, its customers shall not be eligible for the Renewable Energy Resources Program.

(f) The Department of Revenue may establish such rules as it deems necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-444, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-13-22.)

Section 85. The Financial Institutions Code is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1205/6)

Sec. 6. General powers and duties. In addition to the powers and duties provided by law and imposed elsewhere in this Act, the Division has the following powers and duties:

(1) To administer and enforce the Consumer Installment Loan Act and its implementing rules.

(2) To administer and enforce the Currency Exchange Act and its implementing rules. the Currency Exchange Act

(3) To administer and enforce the Debt Management Service Act and its implementing rules.

(4) To administer and enforce the Debt Settlement Consumer Protection Act and its implementing rules.

(5) To administer and enforce the Illinois Development Credit Corporation Act and its implementing rules.

(6) To administer and enforce the Payday Loan Reform Act and its implementing rules. the Safety Deposit License Act

(7) To administer and enforce the Safety Deposit License Act and its implementing rules.

(8) To administer and enforce the Sales Finance Agency Act and its implementing rules.

(9) To administer and enforce the Title Insurance Act and its implementing rules.

(10) To administer and enforce the Transmitters of Money Act and its implementing rules.

(11) To administer and enforce the Predatory Loan Prevention Act and its implementing rules.

(12) To administer and enforce the Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act and its implementing rules.

(13) To administer and enforce the Retail Installment Sales Act and its implementing rules.

(14) To administer and enforce the Illinois Credit Union Act and its implementing rules.

(15) To administer and enforce the Collection Agency Act and its implementing rules.

(16) To administer and enforce any other Act administered by the Director or Division.

(17) If the Division is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, to obtain from the Illinois State Police, upon request and payment of the fees required by the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, pursuant to positive identification, such information contained in State files as is necessary to carry out the duties of the Division.

(18) To authorize and administer examinations to ascertain the qualifications of applicants and licensees for which the examination is held.

(19) To conduct hearings in proceedings to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, or take other disciplinary action regarding licenses, charters, certifications, registrations, or authorities of persons as authorized in any Act administered by the Division.

(Source: P.A. 101-658, eff. 3-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-975, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-13-22.)

Section 90. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Section 1-17 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1-75 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-17)

Sec. 1-17. Inspector General.

(a) Nature and purpose. It is the express intent of the General Assembly to ensure the health, safety, and financial condition of individuals receiving services in this State due to mental illness, developmental disability, or both by protecting those persons from acts of abuse, neglect, or both by service providers. To that end, the Office of the Inspector General for the Department of Human Services is created to investigate and report upon allegations of the abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals receiving services within mental health facilities, developmental disabilities facilities, and community agencies operated, licensed, funded, or certified by the Department of Human Services, but not licensed or certified by any other State agency.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this Section:

"Agency" or "community agency" means (i) a community agency licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service, or (ii) a program licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service.

"Aggravating circumstance" means a factor that is attendant to a finding and that tends to compound or increase the culpability of the accused.

"Allegation" means an assertion, complaint, suspicion, or incident involving any of the following conduct by an employee, facility, or agency against an individual or individuals: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Day" means working day, unless otherwise specified.

"Deflection" means a situation in which an individual is presented for admission to a facility or agency, and the facility staff or agency staff do not admit the individual. "Deflection" includes triage, redirection, and denial of admission.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Egregious neglect" means a finding of neglect as determined by the Inspector General that (i) represents a gross failure to adequately provide for, or a callused indifference to, the health, safety, or medical needs of an individual and (ii) results in an individual's death or other serious deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition.

"Employee" means any person who provides services at the facility or agency on-site or off-site. The service relationship can be with the individual or with the facility or agency. Also, "employee" includes any employee or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency involved in providing or monitoring or administering mental health or developmental disability services. This includes but is not limited to: owners, operators, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

"Facility" or "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department.

"Financial exploitation" means taking unjust advantage of an individual's assets, property, or financial resources through deception, intimidation, or conversion for the employee's, facility's, or agency's own advantage or benefit.

"Finding" means the Office of Inspector General's determination regarding whether an allegation is substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

"Health Care Worker Registry" or "Registry" means the Health Care Worker Registry under the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

"Individual" means any person receiving mental health service, developmental disabilities service, or both from a facility or agency, while either on-site or off-site.

"Mental abuse" means the use of demeaning, intimidating, or threatening words, signs, gestures, or other actions by an employee about an individual and in the presence of an individual or individuals that results in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, or could have resulted in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, for any individual present.

"Mental illness" means "mental illness" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mentally ill" means having a mental illness.

"Mitigating circumstance" means a condition that (i) is attendant to a finding, (ii) does not excuse or justify the conduct in question, but (iii) may be considered in evaluating the severity of the conduct, the culpability of the accused, or both the severity of the conduct and the culpability of the accused.

"Neglect" means an employee's, agency's, or facility's failure to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance and that, as a consequence, (i) causes an individual pain, injury, or emotional distress, (ii) results in either an individual's maladaptive behavior or the deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition, or (iii) places the individual's health or safety at substantial risk.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person having a developmental disability.

"Physical abuse" means an employee's non-accidental and inappropriate contact with an individual that causes bodily harm. "Physical abuse" includes actions that cause bodily harm as a result of an employee directing an individual or person to physically abuse another individual.

"Recommendation" means an admonition, separate from a finding, that requires action by the facility, agency, or Department to correct a systemic issue, problem, or deficiency identified during an investigation.

"Required reporter" means any employee who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Secretary" means the Chief Administrative Officer of the Department.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual contact or intimate physical contact between an employee and an individual, including an employee's coercion or encouragement of an individual to engage in sexual behavior that results in sexual contact, intimate physical contact, sexual behavior, or intimate physical behavior. Sexual abuse also includes (i) an employee's actions that result in the sending or showing of sexually explicit images to an individual via computer, cellular phone, electronic mail, portable electronic device, or other media with or without contact with the individual or (ii) an employee's posting of sexually explicit images of an individual online or elsewhere whether or not there is contact with the individual.

"Sexually explicit images" includes, but is not limited to, any material which depicts nudity, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse, or which contains explicit and detailed verbal descriptions or narrative accounts of sexual excitement, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse.

"Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of the evidence to support the allegation.

"Unfounded" means there is no credible evidence to support the allegation.

"Unsubstantiated" means there is credible evidence, but less than a preponderance of evidence to support the allegation.

(c) Appointment. The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary and the Governor.

(d) Operation and appropriation. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department with respect to the operations of the Office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department.

(e) Powers and duties. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or agency and shall have authority to take immediate action to prevent any one or more of the following from happening to individuals under its jurisdiction: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Upon written request of an agency of this State, the Inspector General may assist another agency of the State in investigating reports of the abuse, neglect, or abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness, persons with developmental disabilities, or persons with both. To comply with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section, the Inspector General shall also review all reportable deaths for which there is no allegation of abuse or neglect. Nothing in this Section shall preempt any duties of the Medical Review Board set forth in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Inspector General shall have no authority to investigate alleged violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Allegations of misconduct under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act shall be referred to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation.

(f) Limitations. The Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation within an agency or facility if that investigation would be redundant to or interfere with an investigation conducted by another State agency. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over, or involvement in, the routine programmatic, licensing, funding, or certification operations of the Department. Nothing in this subsection limits investigations by the Department that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in the Department's capacity as central administrative authority responsible for the operation of the State's mental health and developmental disabilities facilities.

(g) Rulemaking authority. The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations as well as for initiating, conducting, and completing investigations based upon the nature of the allegation or allegations. The rules shall clearly establish that if 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that would be redundant to, or interfere with, an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall further clarify the method and circumstances under which the Office of Inspector General may interact with the licensing, funding, or certification units of the Department in preventing further occurrences of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, and financial exploitation.

(h) Training programs. The Inspector General shall (i) establish a comprehensive program to ensure that every person authorized to conduct investigations receives ongoing training relative to investigation techniques, communication skills, and the appropriate means of interacting with persons receiving treatment for mental illness, developmental disability, or both mental illness and developmental disability, and (ii) establish and conduct periodic training programs for facility and agency employees concerning the prevention and reporting of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. The Inspector General shall further ensure (i) every person authorized to conduct investigations at community agencies receives ongoing training in Title 59, Parts 115, 116, and 119 of the Illinois Administrative Code, and (ii) every person authorized to conduct investigations shall receive ongoing training in Title 59, Part 50 of the Illinois Administrative Code. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prevent the Office of Inspector General from conducting any other training as determined by the Inspector General to be necessary or helpful.

(i) Duty to cooperate.

(1) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any facility or agency for the purpose of investigating any allegation, conducting unannounced site visits, monitoring compliance with a written response, or completing any other statutorily assigned duty. The Inspector General shall conduct unannounced site visits to each facility at least annually for the purpose of reviewing and making recommendations on systemic issues relative to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation.

(2) Any employee who fails to cooperate with an Office of the Inspector General investigation is in violation of this Act. Failure to cooperate with an investigation includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) creating and transmitting a false report to the Office of the Inspector General hotline, (ii) providing false information to an Office of the Inspector General Investigator during an investigation, (iii) colluding with other employees to cover up evidence, (iv) colluding with other employees to provide false information to an Office of the Inspector General investigator, (v) destroying evidence, (vi) withholding evidence, or (vii) otherwise obstructing an Office of the Inspector General investigation. Additionally, any employee who, during an unannounced site visit or written response compliance check, fails to cooperate with requests from the Office of the Inspector General is in violation of this Act.

(j) Subpoena powers. The Inspector General shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and compel the production of all documents and physical evidence relating to his or her investigations and any hearings authorized by this Act. This subpoena power shall not extend to persons or documents of a labor organization or its representatives insofar as the persons are acting in a representative capacity to an employee whose conduct is the subject of an investigation or the documents relate to that representation. Any person who otherwise fails to respond to a subpoena or who knowingly provides false information to the Office of the Inspector General by subpoena during an investigation is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(k) Reporting allegations and deaths.

(1) Allegations. If an employee witnesses, is told of, or has reason to believe an incident of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred, the employee, agency, or facility shall report the allegation by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline according to the agency's or facility's procedures, but in no event later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident, allegation, or suspicion of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A required reporter as defined in subsection (b) of this Section who knowingly or intentionally fails to comply with these reporting requirements is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Deaths. Absent an allegation, a required reporter shall, within 24 hours after initial discovery, report by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline each of the following:

(i) Any death of an individual occurring within 14 calendar days after discharge or transfer of the individual from a residential program or facility.

(ii) Any death of an individual occurring within 24 hours after deflection from a residential program or facility.

(iii) Any other death of an individual occurring at an agency or facility or at any Department-funded site.

(3) Retaliation. It is a violation of this Act for any employee or administrator of an agency or facility to take retaliatory action against an employee who acts in good faith in conformance with his or her duties as a required reporter.

(l) Reporting to law enforcement. Reporting criminal acts. Within 24 hours after determining that there is credible evidence indicating that a criminal act may have been committed or that special expertise may be required in an investigation, the Inspector General shall notify the Illinois State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority, or ensure that such notification is made. The Illinois State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, sexual assault, or other felony by an employee. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(m) Investigative reports. Upon completion of an investigation, the Office of Inspector General shall issue an investigative report identifying whether the allegations are substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. Within 10 business days after the transmittal of a completed investigative report substantiating an allegation, finding an allegation is unsubstantiated, or if a recommendation is made, the Inspector General shall provide the investigative report on the case to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency where any one or more of the following occurred: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. The director of the facility or agency shall be responsible for maintaining the confidentiality of the investigative report consistent with State and federal law. In a substantiated case, the investigative report shall include any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. If the case involves substantiated neglect, the investigative report shall also state whether egregious neglect was found. An investigative report may also set forth recommendations. All investigative reports prepared by the Office of the Inspector General shall be considered confidential and shall not be released except as provided by the law of this State or as required under applicable federal law. Unsubstantiated and unfounded reports shall not be disclosed except as allowed under Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. Raw data used to compile the investigative report shall not be subject to release unless required by law or a court order. "Raw data used to compile the investigative report" includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: the initial complaint, witness statements, photographs, investigator's notes, police reports, or incident reports. If the allegations are substantiated, the victim, the victim's guardian, and the accused shall be provided with a redacted copy of the investigative report. Death reports where there was no allegation of abuse or neglect shall only be released pursuant to applicable State or federal law or a valid court order. Unredacted investigative reports, as well as raw data, may be shared with a local law enforcement entity, a State's Attorney's office, or a county coroner's office upon written request.

(n) Written responses, clarification requests, and reconsideration requests.

(1) Written responses. Within 30 calendar days from receipt of a substantiated investigative report or an investigative report which contains recommendations, absent a reconsideration request, the facility or agency shall file a written response that addresses, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken to: (i) protect the individual; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions. If the written response is not filed within the allotted 30 calendar day period, the Secretary shall determine the appropriate corrective action to be taken.

(2) Requests for clarification. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of Inspector General clarify the finding or findings for which clarification is sought.

(3) Requests for reconsideration. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of the Inspector General reconsider the finding or findings or the recommendations. A request for reconsideration shall be subject to a multi-layer review and shall include at least one reviewer who did not participate in the investigation or approval of the original investigative report. After the multi-layer review process has been completed, the Inspector General shall make the final determination on the reconsideration request. The investigation shall be reopened if the reconsideration determination finds that additional information is needed to complete the investigative record.

(o) Disclosure of the finding by the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall disclose the finding of an investigation to the following persons: (i) the Governor, (ii) the Secretary, (iii) the director of the facility or agency, (iv) the alleged victims and their guardians, (v) the complainant, and (vi) the accused. This information shall include whether the allegations were deemed substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

(p) Secretary review. Upon review of the Inspector General's investigative report and any agency's or facility's written response, the Secretary shall accept or reject the written response and notify the Inspector General of that determination. The Secretary may further direct that other administrative action be taken, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) additional site visits, (ii) training, (iii) provision of technical assistance relative to administrative needs, licensure, or certification, or (iv) the imposition of appropriate sanctions.

(q) Action by facility or agency. Within 30 days of the date the Secretary approves the written response or directs that further administrative action be taken, the facility or agency shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General that provides the status of the action taken. The facility or agency shall be allowed an additional 30 days to send notice of completion of the action or to send an updated implementation report. If the action has not been completed within the additional 30-day period, the facility or agency shall send updated implementation reports every 60 days until completion. The Inspector General shall conduct a review of any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days after approval to complete, and shall monitor compliance through a random review of approved written responses, which may include, but are not limited to: (i) site visits, (ii) telephone contact, and (iii) requests for additional documentation evidencing compliance.

(r) Sanctions. Sanctions, if imposed by the Secretary under Subdivision (p)(iv) of this Section, shall be designed to prevent further acts of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation or some combination of one or more of those acts at a facility or agency, and may include any one or more of the following:

(1) Appointment of on-site monitors.

(2) Transfer or relocation of an individual or individuals.

(3) Closure of units.

(4) Termination of any one or more of the following: (i) Department licensing, (ii) funding, or (iii) certification.

The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Illinois Attorney General or the office of any State's Attorney in implementing sanctions.

(s) Health Care Worker Registry.

(1) Reporting to the Registry. The Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's Health Care Worker Registry, a public registry, the identity and finding of each employee of a facility or agency against whom there is a final investigative report prepared by the Office of the Inspector General containing a substantiated allegation of physical or sexual abuse, financial exploitation, or egregious neglect of an individual, unless the Inspector General requests a stipulated disposition of the investigative report that does not include the reporting of the employee's name to the Health Care Worker Registry and the Secretary of Human Services agrees with the requested stipulated disposition.

(2) Notice to employee. Prior to reporting the name of an employee, the employee shall be notified of the Department's obligation to report and shall be granted an opportunity to request an administrative hearing, the sole purpose of which is to determine if the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the Registry. Notice to the employee shall contain a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the Registry is based, offer the employee an opportunity for a hearing, and identify the process for requesting such a hearing. Notice is sufficient if provided by certified mail to the employee's last known address. If the employee fails to request a hearing within 30 days from the date of the notice, the Inspector General shall report the name of the employee to the Registry. Nothing in this subdivision (s)(2) shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under any other federal labor statute.

(3) Registry hearings. If the employee requests an administrative hearing, the employee shall be granted an opportunity to appear before an administrative law judge to present reasons why the employee's name should not be reported to the Registry. The Department shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the Registry. After considering all the evidence presented, the administrative law judge shall make a recommendation to the Secretary as to whether the substantiated finding warrants reporting the name of the employee to the Registry. The Secretary shall render the final decision. The Department and the employee shall have the right to request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(4) Testimony at Registry hearings. A person who makes a report or who investigates a report under this Act shall testify fully in any judicial proceeding resulting from such a report, as to any evidence of abuse or neglect, or the cause thereof. No evidence shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect, or the individual alleged as the victim in the report, and the person making or investigating the report. Testimony at hearings is exempt from the confidentiality requirements of subsection (f) of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(5) Employee's rights to collateral action. No reporting to the Registry shall occur and no hearing shall be set or proceed if an employee notifies the Inspector General in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally contesting an adverse employment action resulting from a substantiated finding by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or which otherwise seeks to enforce the employee's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against an employee as a result of a finding of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or egregious neglect is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement and if that employee's name has already been sent to the Registry, the employee's name shall be removed from the Registry.

(6) Removal from Registry. At any time after the report to the Registry, but no more than once in any 12-month period, an employee may petition the Department in writing to remove his or her name from the Registry. Upon receiving notice of such request, the Inspector General shall conduct an investigation into the petition. Upon receipt of such request, an administrative hearing will be set by the Department. At the hearing, the employee shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of the name from the Registry is in the public interest. The parties may jointly request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(t) Review of Administrative Decisions. The Department shall preserve a record of all proceedings at any formal hearing conducted by the Department involving Health Care Worker Registry hearings. Final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(u) Quality Care Board. There is created, within the Office of the Inspector General, a Quality Care Board to be composed of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. One of the members shall be designated as chairman by the Governor. Of the initial appointments made by the Governor, 4 Board members shall each be appointed for a term of 4 years and 3 members shall each be appointed for a term of 2 years. Upon the expiration of each member's term, a successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. In the case of a vacancy in the office of any member, the Governor shall appoint a successor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

Members appointed by the Governor shall be qualified by professional knowledge or experience in the area of law, investigatory techniques, or in the area of care of the mentally ill or care of persons with developmental disabilities. Two members appointed by the Governor shall be persons with a disability or parents of persons with a disability. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

The Board shall meet quarterly, and may hold other meetings on the call of the chairman. Four members shall constitute a quorum allowing the Board to conduct its business. The Board may adopt rules and regulations it deems necessary to govern its own procedures.

The Board shall monitor and oversee the operations, policies, and procedures of the Inspector General to ensure the prompt and thorough investigation of allegations of neglect and abuse. In fulfilling these responsibilities, the Board may do the following:

(1) Provide independent, expert consultation to the Inspector General on policies and protocols for investigations of alleged abuse, neglect, or both abuse and neglect.

(2) Review existing regulations relating to the operation of facilities.

(3) Advise the Inspector General as to the content of training activities authorized under this Section.

(4) Recommend policies concerning methods for improving the intergovernmental relationships between the Office of the Inspector General and other State or federal offices.

(v) Annual report. The Inspector General shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of reports and investigations made under this Act for the prior fiscal year with respect to individuals receiving mental health or developmental disabilities services. The report shall detail the imposition of sanctions, if any, and the final disposition of any corrective or administrative action directed by the Secretary. The summaries shall not contain any confidential or identifying information of any individual, but shall include objective data identifying any trends in the number of reported allegations, the timeliness of the Office of the Inspector General's investigations, and their disposition, for each facility and Department-wide, for the most recent 3-year time period. The report shall also identify, by facility, the staff-to-patient ratios taking account of direct care staff only. The report shall also include detailed recommended administrative actions and matters for consideration by the General Assembly.

(w) Program audit. The Auditor General shall conduct a program audit of the Office of the Inspector General on an as-needed basis, as determined by the Auditor General. The audit shall specifically include the Inspector General's compliance with the Act and effectiveness in investigating reports of allegations occurring in any facility or agency. The Auditor General shall conduct the program audit according to the provisions of the Illinois State Auditing Act and shall report its findings to the General Assembly no later than January 1 following the audit period.

(x) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to mean that an individual is a victim of abuse or neglect because of health care services appropriately provided or not provided by health care professionals.

(y) Nothing in this Section shall require a facility, including its employees, agents, medical staff members, and health care professionals, to provide a service to an individual in contravention of that individual's stated or implied objection to the provision of that service on the ground that that service conflicts with the individual's religious beliefs or practices, nor shall the failure to provide a service to an individual be considered abuse under this Section if the individual has objected to the provision of that service based on his or her religious beliefs or practices.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-883, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(20 ILCS 1305/1-75)

Sec. 1-75. Off-Hours Child Care Program.

(a) Legislative intent. The General Assembly finds that:

(1) Finding child care can be a challenge for firefighters, paramedics, police officers, nurses, and other third shift workers across the State who often work non-typical work hours. This can impact home life, school, bedtime routines, job safety, and the mental health of some of our most critical front line workers and their families.

(2) There is a need for increased options for off-hours child care in the State. A majority of the State's child care facilities do not provide care outside of normal work hours, with just 3,251 day care homes and 435 group day care homes that provide night care.

(3) Illinois has a vested interest in ensuring that our first responders and working families can provide their children with appropriate care during off hours to improve the morale of existing first responders and to improve recruitment into the future.

(b) As used in this Section, "first responders" means emergency medical services personnel as defined in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, firefighters, law enforcement officers, and, as determined by the Department, any other workers who, on account of their work schedule, need child care outside of the hours when licensed child care facilities typically operate.

(c) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services shall establish and administer an Off-Hours Child Care Program to help first responders and other workers identify and access off-hours, night, or sleep time child care. Services funded under the program must address the child care needs of first responders. Funding provided under the program may also be used to cover any capital and operating expenses related to the provision of off-hours, night, or sleep time child care for first responders. Funding awarded under this Section shall be funded through appropriations from the Off-Hours Child Care Program Fund created under subsection (d). The Department shall implement the program by July 1, 2023. The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement the program.

(d) The Off-Hours Child Care Program Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Fund shall consist of any moneys appropriated to the Department of Human Services for the Off-Hours Child Care Program. Moneys in the Fund shall be expended for the Off-Hours Child Care Program and for no other purpose. All interest earned on moneys in the Fund shall be deposited into the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-912, eff. 5-27-22.)

(20 ILCS 1305/1-80)

Sec. 1-80 1-75. Homeless services and supportive housing; veterans data. The Department's Bureau of Homeless Services and Supportive Housing within the Office of Family Support Services shall annually review and collect data on the number of military veterans receiving services or benefits under the Emergency and Transitional Housing Program, the Emergency Food Program, the Homeless Prevention Program, the Supporting Housing Program, and the Prince Home at Manteno administered by the Department of Veterans' Affairs. The Bureau may request and receive the cooperation of the Department of Veterans' Affairs and any other State agency that is relevant to the collection of the data required under this Section. The Bureau shall annually submit to the General Assembly a written report that details the number of military veterans served under each program no later than December 31, 2023 and every December 31 thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 102-961, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

Section 95. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Section 74 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/74)

Sec. 74. Rates and reimbursements.

(a) Within 30 days after July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23), the Department shall increase rates and reimbursements to fund a minimum of a $0.75 per hour wage increase for front-line personnel, including, but not limited to, direct support professionals, aides, front-line supervisors, qualified intellectual disabilities professionals, nurses, and non-administrative support staff working in community-based provider organizations serving individuals with developmental disabilities. The Department shall adopt rules, including emergency rules under subsection (y) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to implement the provisions of this Section.

(b) Rates and reimbursements. Within 30 days after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Department shall increase rates and reimbursements to fund a minimum of a $0.50 per hour wage increase for front-line personnel, including, but not limited to, direct support professionals, aides, front-line supervisors, qualified intellectual disabilities professionals, nurses, and non-administrative support staff working in community-based provider organizations serving individuals with developmental disabilities. The Department shall adopt rules, including emergency rules under subsection (bb) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to implement the provisions of this Section.

(c) Rates and reimbursements. Within 30 days after June 5, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-10) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, subject to federal approval, the Department shall increase rates and reimbursements in effect on June 30, 2019 for community-based providers for persons with Developmental Disabilities by 3.5% The Department shall adopt rules, including emergency rules under subsection (jj) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to implement the provisions of this Section, including wage increases for direct care staff.

(d) For community-based providers serving persons with intellectual/developmental disabilities, subject to federal approval of any relevant Waiver Amendment, the rates taking effect for services delivered on or after January 1, 2022, shall include an increase in the rate methodology sufficient to provide a $1.50 per hour wage increase for direct support professionals in residential settings and sufficient to provide wages for all residential non-executive direct care staff, excluding direct support professionals, at the federal Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics' average wage as defined in rule by the Department.

The establishment of and any changes to the rate methodologies for community-based services provided to persons with intellectual/developmental disabilities are subject to federal approval of any relevant Waiver Amendment and shall be defined in rule by the Department. The Department shall adopt rules, including emergency rules as authorized by Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to implement the provisions of this subsection (d).

(e) For community-based providers serving persons with intellectual/developmental disabilities, subject to federal approval of any relevant Waiver Amendment, the rates taking effect for services delivered on or after January 1, 2023, shall include an increase in the rate methodology sufficient to provide a $1.00 per hour wage increase for all direct support professionals personnel and all other frontline personnel who are not subject to the Bureau of Labor Statistics' average wage increases, who work in residential and community day services settings, with at least $0.50 of those funds to be provided as a direct increase to base wages, with the remaining $0.50 to be used flexibly for base wage increases. In addition, the rates taking effect for services delivered on or after January 1, 2023 shall include an increase sufficient to provide wages for all residential non-executive direct care staff, excluding direct support professionals personnel, at the federal Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics' average wage as defined in rule by the Department.

The establishment of and any changes to the rate methodologies for community-based services provided to persons with intellectual/developmental disabilities are subject to federal approval of any relevant Waiver Amendment and shall be defined in rule by the Department. The Department shall adopt rules, including emergency rules as authorized by Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to implement the provisions of this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-830, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-13-22.)

Section 100. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 2310-434 and 2310-710 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-434)

Sec. 2310-434. Certified Nursing Assistant Intern Program.

(a) As used in this Section, "facility" means a facility licensed by the Department under the Nursing Home Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act or an establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

(b) The Department shall establish or approve a Certified Nursing Assistant Intern Program to address the increasing need for trained health care workers and provide additional pathways for individuals to become certified nursing assistants. Upon successful completion of the classroom education and on-the-job training requirements of the Program required under this Section, an individual may provide, at a facility, the patient and resident care services determined under the Program and may perform the procedures listed under subsection (e).

(c) In order to qualify as a certified nursing assistant intern, an individual shall successfully complete at least 8 hours of classroom education on the services and procedures determined under the Program and listed under subsection (e). The classroom education shall be:

(1) taken within the facility where the certified nursing assistant intern will be employed;

(2) proctored by either an advanced practice registered nurse or a registered nurse who holds a bachelor's degree in nursing, has a minimum of 3 years of continuous experience in geriatric care, or is certified as a nursing assistant instructor; and

(3) satisfied by the successful completion of an approved 8-hour online training course or in-person group training.

(d) In order to qualify as a certified nursing assistant intern, an individual shall successfully complete at least 24 hours of on-the-job training in the services and procedures determined under the Program and listed under subsection (e), as follows:

(1) The training program instructor shall be either an advanced practice registered nurse or a registered nurse who holds a bachelor's degree in nursing, has a minimum of 3 years of continuous experience in geriatric care, or is certified as a nursing assistant instructor.

(2) The training program instructor shall ensure that the student meets the competencies determined under the Program and those listed under subsection (e). The instructor shall document the successful completion or failure of the competencies and any remediation that may allow for the successful completion of the competencies.

(3) All on-the-job training shall be under the direct observation of either an advanced practice registered nurse or a registered nurse who holds a bachelor's degree in nursing, has a minimum of 3 years of continuous experience in geriatric care, or is certified as a nursing assistant instructor.

(4) All on-the-job training shall be conducted at a facility that is licensed by the State of Illinois and that is the facility where the certified nursing assistant intern will be working.

(e) A certified nursing assistant intern shall receive classroom and on-the-job training on how to provide the patient or resident care services and procedures, as determined under the Program, that are required of a certified nursing assistant's performance skills, including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Successful completion and maintenance of active certification in both first aid and the American Red Cross' courses on cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

(2) Infection control and in-service training required at the facility.

(3) Washing a resident's hands.

(4) Performing oral hygiene on a resident.

(5) Shaving a resident with an electric razor.

(6) Giving a resident a partial bath.

(7) Making a bed that is occupied.

(8) Dressing a resident.

(9) Transferring a resident to a wheelchair using a gait belt or transfer belt.

(10) Ambulating a resident with a gait belt or transfer belt.

(11) Feeding a resident.

(12) Calculating a resident's intake and output.

(13) Placing a resident in a side-lying position.

(14) The Heimlich maneuver.

(f) A certified nursing assistant intern may not perform any of the following on a resident:

(1) Shaving with a nonelectric razor.

(2) Nail care.

(3) Perineal care.

(4) Transfer using a mechanical lift.

(5) Passive range of motion.

(g) A certified nursing assistant intern may only provide the patient or resident care services and perform the procedures that he or she is deemed qualified to perform that are listed under subsection (e). A certified nursing assistant intern may not provide the procedures excluded under subsection (f).

(h) The Program is subject to the Health Care Worker Background Check Act and the Health Care Worker Background Check Code under 77 Ill. Adm. Code 955. Program participants and personnel shall be included on the Health Care Worker Registry.

(i) A Program participant who has completed the training required under paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 3-206 of the Nursing Home Care Act, has completed the Program from April 21, 2020 through September 18, 2020, and has shown competency in all of the performance skills listed under subsection (e) may be considered a certified nursing assistant intern once the observing advanced practice registered nurse or registered nurse educator has confirmed the Program participant's competency in all of those performance skills.

(j) The requirement under subsection (b) of Section 395.400 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative Code that a student must pass a BNATP written competency examination within 12 months after the completion of the BNATP does not apply to a certified nursing assistant intern under this Section. However, upon a Program participant's enrollment in a certified nursing assistant course, the requirement under subsection (b) of Section 395.400 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative Code that a student pass a BNATP written competency examination within 12 months after completion of the BNATP program applies.

(k) A certified nursing assistant intern shall enroll in a certified nursing assistant program within 6 months after completing his or her certified nursing assistant intern training under the Program. The individual may continue to work as a certified nursing assistant intern during his or her certified nursing assistant training. If the scope of work for a nurse assistant in training pursuant to 77 Ill. Adm. Code 300.660 is broader in scope than the work permitted to be performed by a certified nursing assistant intern, then the certified nursing assistant intern enrolled in certified nursing assistant training may perform the work allowed under 77. Ill. Adm. Code 300.660 with written documentation that the certified nursing assistant intern has successfully passed the competencies necessary to perform such skills. The facility shall maintain documentation as to the additional jobs and duties the certified nursing assistant intern is authorized to perform, which shall be made available to the Department upon request. The individual shall receive one hour of credit for every hour employed as a certified nursing assistant intern or as a temporary nurse assistant, not to exceed 30 hours of credit, subject to the approval of an accredited certified nursing assistant training program.

(l) A facility that seeks to train and employ a certified nursing assistant intern at the facility must:

(1) not have received or applied for a registered nurse waiver under Section 3-303.1 of the Nursing Home Care Act, if applicable;

(2) not have been cited for a violation, except a citation for noncompliance with COVID-19 reporting requirements, that has caused severe harm to or the death of a resident within the 2 years prior to employing a certified nursing assistant; for purposes of this paragraph, the revocation of the facility's ability to hire and train a certified nursing assistant intern shall only occur if the underlying federal citation for the revocation remains substantiated following an informal dispute resolution or independent informal dispute resolution;

(3) not have been cited for a violation that resulted in a pattern of certified nursing assistants being removed from the Health Care Worker Registry as a result of resident abuse, neglect, or exploitation within the 2 years prior to employing a certified nursing assistant intern;

(4) if the facility is a skilled nursing facility, meet a minimum staffing ratio of 3.8 hours of nursing and personal care time, as those terms are used in subsection (e) of Section 3-202.05 of the Nursing Home Care Act, each day for a resident needing skilled care and 2.5 hours of nursing and personal care time each day for a resident needing intermediate care;

(5) not have lost the ability to offer a Nursing Assistant Training and Competency Evaluation Program as a result of an enforcement action;

(6) establish a certified nursing assistant intern mentoring program within the facility for the purposes of increasing education and retention, which must include an experienced certified nurse assistant who has at least 3 years of active employment and is employed by the facility;

(7) not have a monitor or temporary management placed upon the facility by the Department;

(8) not have provided the Department with a notice of imminent closure; and

(9) not have had a termination action initiated by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services or the Department for failing to comply with minimum regulatory or licensure requirements.

(m) A facility that does not meet the requirements of subsection (l) shall cease its new employment training, education, or onboarding of any employee under the Program. The facility may resume its new employment training, education, or onboarding of an employee under the Program once the Department determines that the facility is in compliance with subsection (l).

(n) To study the effectiveness of the Program, the Department shall collect data from participating facilities and publish a report on the extent to which the Program brought individuals into continuing employment as certified nursing assistants in long-term care. Data collected from facilities shall include, but shall not be limited to, the number of certified nursing assistants employed, the number of persons who began participation in the Program, the number of persons who successfully completed the Program, and the number of persons who continue employment in a long-term care service or facility. The report shall be published no later than 6 months after the Program end date determined under subsection (p). A facility participating in the Program shall, twice annually, submit data under this subsection in a manner and time determined by the Department. Failure to submit data under this subsection shall result in suspension of the facility's Program.

(o) The Department may adopt emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45.30 5-45.21 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(p) The Program shall end upon the termination of the Secretary of Health and Human Services' public health emergency declaration for COVID-19 or 3 years after the date that the Program becomes operational, whichever occurs later.

(q) This Section is inoperative 18 months after the Program end date determined under subsection (p).

(Source: P.A. 102-1037, eff. 6-2-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-436)

Sec. 2310-436 2310-434. Homeless service providers.

(a) In this Section, "homeless service provider" means a person or entity who provides services to homeless persons under any of the programs of or identified by the Department of Human Services.

(b) The Department shall consider all homeless service providers in the State to be essential critical infrastructure workers in accordance with the most recent guidance from the federal Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency. The Department shall ensure that homeless service providers qualify for the same priority benefits afforded to frontline workers by the State, including, but not limited to:

(1) federal funding for relief relating to public health emergencies;

(2) personal protective equipment; and

(3) vaccinations.

(c) In accordance with this Section, during a federally designated federally-designated public health emergency or a public health disaster declared by a proclamation issued by the Governor under Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, the Department and the Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall offer recommendations to their local counterparts, including local public health departments and local emergency management assistance agencies, encouraging them to consider homeless service providers when making determinations about providing assistance.

(d) The Department may adopt rules for the implementation and administration of this Section and to ensure that homeless service providers are considered essential critical infrastructure workers in the event of a pandemic.

(Source: P.A. 102-919, eff. 5-27-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-437)

Sec. 2310-437 2310-434. Governors State University; stroke awareness campaign.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall partner with Governors State University's College of Health and Human Services, and any additional partnership that may be necessary, in establishing a 12-month outreach and educational campaign focused on promoting the following:

(1) Stroke awareness for select communities determined by the Department to be at risk for strokes, particularly within Chicago's Southland community.

(2) Stroke recognition and prevention strategies.

(3) Access to reliable sources of information about strokes.

(b) An amount of the moneys appropriated to the Department under subsection (a) shall be made available to the Governors State University's College of Health and Human Services in an amount to be mutually agreed upon between the Governors State University's College of Health and Human Services and the Department.

(Source: P.A. 102-1070, eff. 1-1-23; revised 7-26-22.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-710)

Sec. 2310-710. Emergency Medical Services personnel; continuing training on Alzheimer's disease and other dementias.

(a) In this Section, "Emergency Medical Services personnel" means a person licensed or registered under any of the levels of licensure defined in Section 3.50 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, including, but not limited to, Emergency Medical Technician, Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate, Advanced Emergency Medical Technician, Paramedic (EMT-P), or Emergency Medical Responder.

(b) For license renewals occurring on or after January 1, 2023, Emergency Medical Services personnel must complete at least one one-hour course of training on the diagnosis, treatment, and care of individuals with Alzheimer's disease or other dementias per license renewal period. This training shall include, but not be limited to, assessment and diagnosis, effective communication strategies, and management and care planning.

(c) Emergency Medical Services personnel may count one hour for completion of the course toward meeting the minimum credit hours required for Emergency Medical Services personnel relicensure requirements.

(d) Any training on Alzheimer's disease and other dementias applied to meet any other State licensure requirement, professional accreditation or certification requirement, or health care institutional practice agreement may count toward the continuing education required under this Section.

(e) The Department may adopt rules for the implementation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-772, eff. 5-13-22.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-715)

Sec. 2310-715 2310-710. Safety-Net Hospital Health Equity and Access Leadership (HEAL) Grant Program.

(a) Findings. The General Assembly finds that there are communities in Illinois that experience significant health care disparities, as recently emphasized by the COVID-19 pandemic, aggravated by social determinants of health and a lack of sufficient access to high quality health care healthcare resources, particularly community-based services, preventive care, obstetric care, chronic disease management, and specialty care. Safety-net hospitals, as defined under the Illinois Public Aid Code, serve as the anchors of the health care system for many of these communities. Safety-net hospitals not only care for their patients, they also are rooted in their communities by providing jobs and partnering with local organizations to help address the social determinants of health, such as food, housing, and transportation needs.

However, safety-net hospitals serve a significant number of Medicare, Medicaid, and uninsured patients, and therefore, are heavily dependent on underfunded government payers, and are heavily burdened by uncompensated care. At the same time, the overall cost of providing care has increased substantially in recent years, driven by increasing costs for staffing, prescription drugs, technology, and infrastructure.

For all of these reasons, the General Assembly finds that the long-term long term sustainability of safety-net hospitals is threatened. While the General Assembly is providing funding to the Department to be paid to support the expenses of specific safety-net hospitals in State Fiscal Year 2023, such annual, ad hoc funding is not a reliable and stable source of funding that will enable safety-net hospitals to develop strategies to achieve long term sustainability. Such annual, ad hoc funding also does not provide the State with transparency and accountability to ensure that such funding is being used effectively and efficiently to maximize the benefit to members of the community.

Therefore, it is the intent of the General Assembly that the Department of Public Health and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services jointly provide options and recommendations to the General Assembly by February 1, 2023, for the establishment of a permanent Safety-Net Hospital Health Equity and Access Leadership (HEAL) Grant Program, in accordance with this Section. It is the intention of the General Assembly that during State fiscal years 2024 through 2029, the Safety-Net Hospital Health Equity and Access Leadership (HEAL) Grant Program shall be supported by an annual funding pool of up to $100,000,000, subject to appropriation.

(b) By February 1, 2023, the Department of Public Health and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide a joint report to the General Assembly on options and recommendations for the establishment of a permanent Safety-Net Hospital Health Equity and Access Leadership (HEAL) Grant Program to be administered by the State. For this report, "safety-net hospital" means a hospital identified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Section 5-5e.1 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The Departments of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services may consult with the statewide association representing a majority of hospitals and safety-net hospitals on the report. The report may include, but need not be limited to:

(1) Criteria for a safety-net hospital to be eligible for the program, such as:

(A) The hospital is a participating provider in at least one Medicaid managed care plan.

(B) The hospital is located in a medically underserved area.

(C) The hospital's Medicaid utilization rate (for both inpatient and outpatient services).

(D) The hospital's Medicare utilization rate (for both inpatient and outpatient services).

(E) The hospital's uncompensated care percentage.

(F) The hospital's role in providing access to services, reducing health disparities, and improving health equity in its service area.

(G) The hospital's performance on quality indicators.

(2) Potential projects eligible for grant funds which may include projects to reduce health disparities, advance health equity, or improve access to or the quality of health care healthcare services.

(3) Potential policies, standards, and procedures to ensure accountability for the use of grant funds.

(4) Potential strategies to generate federal Medicaid matching funds for expenditures under the program.

(5) Potential policies, processes, and procedures for the administration of the program.

(Source: P.A. 102-886, eff. 5-17-22; revised 5-26-22.)

Section 105. The Illinois State Police Act is amended by changing Sections 9, 12.6, and 46 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2610/9) (from Ch. 121, par. 307.9)

Sec. 9. Appointment; qualifications.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the appointment of Illinois State Police officers shall be made from those applicants who have been certified by the Board as being qualified for appointment. All persons so appointed shall, at the time of their appointment, be not less than 21 years of age, or 20 years of age and have successfully completed an associate's degree or 60 credit hours at an accredited college or university. Any person appointed subsequent to successful completion of an associate's degree or 60 credit hours at an accredited college or university shall not have power of arrest, nor shall he or she be permitted to carry firearms, until he or she reaches 21 years of age. In addition, all persons so certified for appointment shall be of sound mind and body, be of good moral character, be citizens of the United States, have no criminal records, possess such prerequisites of training, education, and experience as the Board may from time to time prescribe so long as persons who have an associate's degree or 60 credit hours at an accredited college or university are not disqualified, and shall be required to pass successfully such mental and physical tests and examinations as may be prescribed by the Board. All persons who meet one of the following requirements are deemed to have met the collegiate educational requirements:

(i) have been honorably discharged and who have been awarded a Southwest Asia Service Medal, Kosovo Campaign Medal, Korean Defense Service Medal, Afghanistan Campaign Medal, Iraq Campaign Medal, or Global War on Terrorism Expeditionary Medal by the United States Armed Forces;

(ii) are active members of the Illinois National Guard or a reserve component of the United States Armed Forces and who have been awarded a Southwest Asia Service Medal, Kosovo Campaign Medal, Korean Defense Service Medal, Afghanistan Campaign Medal, Iraq Campaign Medal, or Global War on Terrorism Expeditionary Medal as a result of honorable service during deployment on active duty;

(iii) have been honorably discharged who served in a combat mission by proof of hostile fire pay or imminent danger pay during deployment on active duty; or

(iv) have at least 3 years of full active and continuous military duty and received an honorable discharge before hiring.

Preference shall be given in such appointments to persons who have honorably served in the military or naval services of the United States. All appointees shall serve a probationary period of 12 months from the date of appointment and during that period may be discharged at the will of the Director. However, the Director may in his or her sole discretion extend the probationary period of an officer up to an additional 6 months when to do so is deemed in the best interest of the Illinois State Police. Nothing in this subsection (a) limits the Board's ability to prescribe education prerequisites or requirements to certify Illinois State Police officers for promotion as provided in Section 10 of this Act.

(b) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Act, after July 1, 1977 and before July 1, 1980, the Director of State Police may appoint and promote not more than 20 persons having special qualifications as special agents as he or she deems necessary to carry out the Department's objectives. Any such appointment or promotion shall be ratified by the Board.

(c) During the 90 days following March 31, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-9), the Director of State Police may appoint up to 25 persons as State Police officers. These appointments shall be made in accordance with the requirements of this subsection (c) and any additional criteria that may be established by the Director, but are not subject to any other requirements of this Act. The Director may specify the initial rank for each person appointed under this subsection.

All appointments under this subsection (c) shall be made from personnel certified by the Board. A person certified by the Board and appointed by the Director under this subsection must have been employed by the Illinois Commerce Commission on November 30, 1994 in a job title subject to the Personnel Code and in a position for which the person was eligible to earn "eligible creditable service" as a "noncovered employee", as those terms are defined in Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code.

Persons appointed under this subsection (c) shall thereafter be subject to the same requirements and procedures as other State police officers. A person appointed under this subsection must serve a probationary period of 12 months from the date of appointment, during which he or she may be discharged at the will of the Director.

This subsection (c) does not affect or limit the Director's authority to appoint other State Police officers under subsection (a) of this Section.

(d) During the 180 days following January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652), the Director of the Illinois State Police may appoint current Illinois State Police employees serving in law enforcement officer positions previously within Central Management Services as State Police officers. These appointments shall be made in accordance with the requirements of this subsection (d) and any institutional criteria that may be established by the Director, but are not subject to any other requirements of this Act. All appointments under this subsection (d) shall be made from personnel certified by the Board. A person certified by the Board and appointed by the Director under this subsection must have been employed by the a State agency, board, or commission on January 1, 2021 in a job title subject to the Personnel Code and in a position for which the person was eligible to earn "eligible creditable service" as a "noncovered employee", as those terms are defined in Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code. Persons appointed under this subsection (d) shall thereafter be subject to the same requirements, and subject to the same contractual benefits and obligations, as other State police officers. This subsection (d) does not affect or limit the Director's authority to appoint other State Police officers under subsection (a) of this Section.

(e) The Merit Board shall review Illinois State Police Cadet applicants. The Illinois State Police may provide background check and investigation material to the Board for its review pursuant to this Section. The Board shall approve and ensure that no cadet applicant is certified unless the applicant is a person of good character and has not been convicted of, or entered a plea of guilty to, a felony offense, any of the misdemeanors specified in this Section or if committed in any other state would be an offense similar to Section 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9.1, 11-9.1B, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-30, 12-2, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5, 16-1, 17-1, 17-2, 26.5-1, 26.5-2, 26.5-3, 28-3, 29-1, any misdemeanor in violation of any Section of Part E of Title III of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, 32-4a, or 32-7 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, to Section 5 or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act, or any felony or misdemeanor in violation of federal law or the law of any state that is the equivalent of any of the offenses specified therein. The Officer Professional Conduct Database, provided for in Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act, shall be searched as part of this process. For purposes of this Section, "convicted of, or entered a plea of guilty" regardless of whether the adjudication of guilt or sentence is withheld or not entered thereon. This includes sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, or any similar disposition provided for by law.

(f) The Board shall by rule establish an application fee waiver program for any person who meets one or more of the following criteria:

(1) his or her available personal income is 200% or less of the current poverty level; or

(2) he or she is, in the discretion of the Board, unable to proceed in an action with payment of application fee and payment of that fee would result in substantial hardship to the person or the person's family.

(Source: P.A. 101-374, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 8-24-22.)

(20 ILCS 2610/12.6)

Sec. 12.6. Automatic termination of Illinois State Police officers. The Board shall terminate a State police officer convicted of a felony offense under the laws of this State or any other state which if committed in this State would be punishable as a felony. The Board must also terminate Illinois State Police officers who were convicted of, or entered a plea of guilty to, on or after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, any misdemeanor specified in this Section or if committed in any other state would be an offense similar to Section 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9.1, 11-9.1B, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-30, 12-2, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5, 16-1, 17-1, 17-2, 26.5-1, 26.5-2, 26.5-3, 28-3, 29-1, any misdemeanor in violation of any Section of Part E of Title III of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, 32-4a, or 32-7 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, to Section 5 or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act, or any felony or misdemeanor in violation of federal law or the law of any state that is the equivalent of any of the offenses specified therein. The Illinois State Police Merit Board shall report terminations under this Section to the Officer Professional Conduct Database provided in Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act. For purposes of this Section, "convicted of, or entered a plea of guilty" regardless of whether the adjudication of guilt or sentence is withheld or not entered thereon. This includes sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, or any similar disposition provided for by law.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 8-25-22.)

(20 ILCS 2610/46)

Sec. 46. Officer Professional Conduct Database; reporting, transparency.

(a) The Illinois State Police Merit Board shall be responsible for reporting all required information contained in the Officer Professional Conduct Database provided in Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act.

(b) Before the Illinois State Police Merit Board certifies any Illinois State Police Cadet the Board shall conduct a search of all Illinois State Police Cadet applicants in the Officer Professional Conduct Database.

(c) The database, documents, materials, or other information in the possession or control of the Board that are obtained by or disclosed to the Board pursuant to this subsection shall be confidential by law and privileged, shall not be subject to subpoena, and shall not be subject to discovery or admissible in evidence in any private civil action. However, the Board is authorized to use such documents, materials, or other information in furtherance of any regulatory or legal action brought as part of the Board's official duties. Unless otherwise required by law, the Board shall not disclose the database or make such documents, materials, or other information public without the prior written consent of the law enforcement agency and the law enforcement officer. The Board nor any person who received documents, materials or other information shared pursuant to this subsection shall be required to testify in any private civil action concerning the database or any confidential documents, materials, or information subject to this subsection.

Nothing in this Section shall exempt a law enforcement agency from which the Board has obtained data, documents, materials, or other information or that has disclosed data, documents, materials, or other information to the Board from disclosing public records in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 8-24-22.)

Section 110. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement, sealing, and immediate sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the following Sections of the Unified Code of Corrections:

Business Offense, Section 5-1-2.

Charge, Section 5-1-3.

Court, Section 5-1-6.

Defendant, Section 5-1-7.

Felony, Section 5-1-9.

Imprisonment, Section 5-1-10.

Judgment, Section 5-1-12.

Misdemeanor, Section 5-1-14.

Offense, Section 5-1-15.

Parole, Section 5-1-16.

Petty Offense, Section 5-1-17.

Probation, Section 5-1-18.

Sentence, Section 5-1-19.

Supervision, Section 5-1-21.

Victim, Section 5-1-22.

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by Section 5-1-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(G-5) "Minor Cannabis Offense" means a violation of Section 4 or 5 of the Cannabis Control Act concerning not more than 30 grams of any substance containing cannabis, provided the violation did not include a penalty enhancement under Section 7 of the Cannabis Control Act and is not associated with an arrest, conviction or other disposition for a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes, but is not limited to, the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section. A sentence is terminated notwithstanding any outstanding financial legal obligation.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(2.5) Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the law enforcement agency issuing the citation shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the law enforcement records of a person found to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the law enforcement agency's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for that offense. The law enforcement agency shall provide by rule the process for access, review, and to confirm the automatic expungement by the law enforcement agency issuing the citation. Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the clerk of the circuit court shall expunge, upon order of the court, or in the absence of a court order on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the court records of a person found in the circuit court to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the clerk's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for any of those offenses.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 and a misdemeanor violation of Section 11-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Section Sections 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) Class A misdemeanors or felony offenses under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) (blank).

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(1.5) When a petitioner seeks to have a record of arrest expunged under this Section, and the offender has been convicted of a criminal offense, the State's Attorney may object to the expungement on the grounds that the records contain specific relevant information aside from the mere fact of the arrest.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Illinois State Police for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Illinois State Police, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Illinois State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Illinois State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Illinois State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults. Subsection (g) of this Section provides for immediate sealing of certain records.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions unless otherwise excluded by subsection (a) paragraph (3) of this Section.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsections subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed 2 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(C) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 3 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)). Convictions requiring public registration under the Arsonist Registration Act, the Sex Offender Registration Act, or the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act may not be sealed until the petitioner is no longer required to register under that relevant Act.

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(E) Records identified as eligible under subsection subsections (c)(2)(C), (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), or (c)(2)(F) may be sealed upon termination of the petitioner's last sentence if the petitioner earned a high school diploma, associate's degree, career certificate, vocational technical certification, or bachelor's degree, or passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development, during the period of his or her sentence or mandatory supervised release. This subparagraph shall apply only to a petitioner who has not completed the same educational goal prior to the period of his or her sentence or mandatory supervised release. If a petition for sealing eligible records filed under this subparagraph is denied by the court, the time periods under subparagraph (B) or (C) shall apply to any subsequent petition for sealing filed by the petitioner.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, except no fee shall be required if the petitioner has obtained a court order waiving fees under Supreme Court Rule 298 or it is otherwise waived.

(1.5) County fee waiver pilot program. From August 9, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-306) through December 31, 2020, in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, no fee shall be required to be paid by a petitioner if the records sought to be expunged or sealed were arrests resulting in release without charging or arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B). The provisions of this paragraph (1.5), other than this sentence, are inoperative on and after January 1, 2022.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition a test showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Illinois State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Illinois State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(C) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not deny a petition for sealing under this Section because the petitioner has not satisfied an outstanding legal financial obligation established, imposed, or originated by a court, law enforcement agency, or a municipal, State, county, or other unit of local government, including, but not limited to, any cost, assessment, fine, or fee. An outstanding legal financial obligation does not include any court ordered restitution to a victim under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the restitution has been converted to a civil judgment. Nothing in this subparagraph (C) waives, rescinds, or abrogates a legal financial obligation or otherwise eliminates or affects the right of the holder of any financial obligation to pursue collection under applicable federal, State, or local law.

(D) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not deny a petition to expunge or seal under this Section because the petitioner has submitted a drug test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition to expunge or seal that indicates a positive test for the presence of cannabis within the petitioner's body. In this subparagraph (D), "cannabis" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Illinois State Police as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Illinois State Police, in a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to subsection (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Illinois State Police, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to subsection (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Illinois State Police within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Illinois State Police within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Illinois State Police, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records, from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Illinois State Police shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Illinois State Police to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Illinois State Police shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(E) Upon motion, the court may order that a sealed judgment or other court record necessary to demonstrate the amount of any legal financial obligation due and owing be made available for the limited purpose of collecting any legal financial obligations owed by the petitioner that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceeding for which those records have been sealed. The records made available under this subparagraph (E) shall not be entered into the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act and shall be immediately re-impounded upon the collection of the outstanding financial obligations.

(F) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a circuit court clerk may access a sealed record for the limited purpose of collecting payment for any legal financial obligations that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceedings for which those records have been sealed.

(10) Fees. The Illinois State Police may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and remit the Illinois State Police portion of the fee to the State Treasurer and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund. If the record brought under an expungement petition was previously sealed under this Section, the fee for the expungement petition for that same record shall be waived.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Illinois State Police pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Illinois State Police pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Illinois State Police pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(g) Immediate Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement or sealing of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the immediate sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal or dismissal with prejudice, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B), that occur on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282), may be sealed immediately if the petition is filed with the circuit court clerk on the same day and during the same hearing in which the case is disposed.

(3) When Records are Eligible to be Immediately Sealed. Eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) may be sealed immediately after entry of the final disposition of a case, notwithstanding the disposition of other charges in the same case.

(4) Notice of Eligibility for Immediate Sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (g), the defendant shall be informed by the court of his or her right to have eligible records immediately sealed and the procedure for the immediate sealing of these records.

(5) Procedure. The following procedures apply to immediate sealing under this subsection (g).

(A) Filing the Petition. Upon entry of the final disposition of the case, the defendant's attorney may immediately petition the court, on behalf of the defendant, for immediate sealing of eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) that are entered on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282). The immediate sealing petition may be filed with the circuit court clerk during the hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered. If the defendant's attorney does not file the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing, the defendant may file a petition for sealing at any time as authorized under subsection (c)(3)(A).

(B) Contents of Petition. The immediate sealing petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address, and for each eligible record, the case number, the date of arrest if applicable, the identity of the arresting authority if applicable, and other information as the court may require.

(C) Drug Test. The petitioner shall not be required to attach proof that he or she has passed a drug test.

(D) Service of Petition. A copy of the petition shall be served on the State's Attorney in open court. The petitioner shall not be required to serve a copy of the petition on any other agency.

(E) Entry of Order. The presiding trial judge shall enter an order granting or denying the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing in which it is filed. Petitions for immediate sealing shall be ruled on in the same hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered.

(F) Hearings. The court shall hear the petition for immediate sealing on the same day and during the same hearing in which the disposition is rendered.

(G) Service of Order. An order to immediately seal eligible records shall be served in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(H) Implementation of Order. An order to immediately seal records shall be implemented in conformance with subsections (d)(9)(C) and (d)(9)(D).

(I) Fees. The fee imposed by the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police shall comply with paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(J) Final Order. No court order issued under this subsection (g) shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to service of the order in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(K) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner, State's Attorney, or the Illinois State Police may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order denying the petition to immediately seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(L) Effect of Order. An order granting an immediate sealing petition shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of an error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable, and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under subparagraph (L) of this subsection (g).

(M) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to immediately seal, all parties entitled to service of the order must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order.

(h) Sealing; trafficking victims.

(1) A trafficking victim as defined by paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be eligible to petition for immediate sealing of his or her criminal record upon the completion of his or her last sentence if his or her participation in the underlying offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(2) A petitioner under this subsection (h), in addition to the requirements provided under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, shall include in his or her petition a clear and concise statement that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(3) If an objection is filed alleging that the petitioner is not entitled to immediate sealing under this subsection (h), the court shall conduct a hearing under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of this Section and the court shall determine whether the petitioner is entitled to immediate sealing under this subsection (h). A petitioner is eligible for immediate relief under this subsection (h) if he or she shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(i) Minor Cannabis Offenses under the Cannabis Control Act.

(1) Expungement of Arrest Records of Minor Cannabis Offenses.

(A) The Illinois State Police and all law enforcement agencies within the State shall automatically expunge all criminal history records of an arrest, charge not initiated by arrest, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation for a Minor Cannabis Offense committed prior to June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) if:

(i) One year or more has elapsed since the date of the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records; and

(ii) No criminal charges were filed relating to the arrest or law enforcement interaction or criminal charges were filed and subsequently dismissed or vacated or the arrestee was acquitted.

(B) If the law enforcement agency is unable to verify satisfaction of condition (ii) in paragraph (A), records that satisfy condition (i) in paragraph (A) shall be automatically expunged.

(C) Records shall be expunged by the law enforcement agency under the following timelines:

(i) Records created prior to June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), but on or after January 1, 2013, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2021;

(ii) Records created prior to January 1, 2013, but on or after January 1, 2000, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2023;

(iii) Records created prior to January 1, 2000 shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2025.

In response to an inquiry for expunged records, the law enforcement agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed; however, it shall provide a certificate of disposition or confirmation that the record was expunged to the individual whose record was expunged if such a record exists.

(D) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to restrict or modify an individual's right to have that individual's records expunged except as otherwise may be provided in this Act, or diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the individual.

(2) Pardons Authorizing Expungement of Minor Cannabis Offenses.

(A) Upon June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), the Department of State Police shall review all criminal history record information and identify all records that meet all of the following criteria:

(i) one or more convictions for a Minor Cannabis Offense;

(ii) the conviction identified in paragraph (2)(A)(i) did not include a penalty enhancement under Section 7 of the Cannabis Control Act; and

(iii) the conviction identified in paragraph (2)(A)(i) is not associated with a conviction for a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(B) Within 180 days after June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), the Department of State Police shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of all such records that meet the criteria established in paragraph (2)(A).

(i) The Prisoner Review Board shall notify the State's Attorney of the county of conviction of each record identified by State Police in paragraph (2)(A) that is classified as a Class 4 felony. The State's Attorney may provide a written objection to the Prisoner Review Board on the sole basis that the record identified does not meet the criteria established in paragraph (2)(A). Such an objection must be filed within 60 days or by such later date set by the Prisoner Review Board in the notice after the State's Attorney received notice from the Prisoner Review Board.

(ii) In response to a written objection from a State's Attorney, the Prisoner Review Board is authorized to conduct a non-public hearing to evaluate the information provided in the objection.

(iii) The Prisoner Review Board shall make a confidential and privileged recommendation to the Governor as to whether to grant a pardon authorizing expungement for each of the records identified by the Department of State Police as described in paragraph (2)(A).

(C) If an individual has been granted a pardon authorizing expungement as described in this Section, the Prisoner Review Board, through the Attorney General, shall file a petition for expungement with the Chief Judge of the circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge where the individual had been convicted. Such petition may include more than one individual. Whenever an individual who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor that specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed. Petitions to expunge under this subsection (i) may include more than one individual. Within 90 days of the filing of such a petition, the court shall enter an order expunging the records of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be expunged and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which the individual had received a pardon but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly provide a copy of the order and a certificate of disposition to the individual who was pardoned to the individual's last known address or by electronic means (if available) or otherwise make it available to the individual upon request.

(D) Nothing in this Section is intended to diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the individual.

(3) Any individual may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a misdemeanor or Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 or Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (i) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the motion to vacate and expunge, and any supporting documentation, on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense. When considering such a motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the petitioner's age, the petitioner's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. An individual may file such a petition after the completion of any non-financial sentence or non-financial condition imposed by the conviction. Within 60 days of the filing of such motion, a State's Attorney may file an objection to such a petition along with supporting evidence. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraphs (d)(8) and (d)(9)(A) of this Section. An agency providing civil legal aid, as defined by Section 15 of the Public Interest Attorney Assistance Act, assisting individuals seeking to file a motion to vacate and expunge under this subsection may file motions to vacate and expunge with the Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and the motion may include more than one individual. Motions filed by an agency providing civil legal aid concerning more than one individual may be prepared, presented, and signed electronically.

(4) Any State's Attorney may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a misdemeanor or Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 or Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (i) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and may include more than one individual. Motions filed by a State's Attorney concerning more than one individual may be prepared, presented, and signed electronically. When considering such a motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the individual's age, the individual's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. Upon entry of an order granting a motion to vacate and expunge records pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney shall notify the Prisoner Review Board within 30 days. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly provide a copy of the order and a certificate of disposition to the individual whose records will be expunged to the individual's last known address or by electronic means (if available) or otherwise make available to the individual upon request. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraphs (d)(8) and (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(5) In the public interest, the State's Attorney of a county has standing to file motions to vacate and expunge pursuant to this Section in the circuit court with jurisdiction over the underlying conviction.

(6) If a person is arrested for a Minor Cannabis Offense as defined in this Section before June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) and the person's case is still pending but a sentence has not been imposed, the person may petition the court in which the charges are pending for an order to summarily dismiss those charges against him or her, and expunge all official records of his or her arrest, plea, trial, conviction, incarceration, supervision, or expungement. If the court determines, upon review, that: (A) the person was arrested before June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) for an offense that has been made eligible for expungement; (B) the case is pending at the time; and (C) the person has not been sentenced of the minor cannabis violation eligible for expungement under this subsection, the court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the petitioner's age, the petitioner's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. If a motion to dismiss and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(7) A person imprisoned solely as a result of one or more convictions for Minor Cannabis Offenses under this subsection (i) shall be released from incarceration upon the issuance of an order under this subsection.

(8) The Illinois State Police shall allow a person to use the access and review process, established in the Illinois State Police, for verifying that his or her records relating to Minor Cannabis Offenses of the Cannabis Control Act eligible under this Section have been expunged.

(9) No conviction vacated pursuant to this Section shall serve as the basis for damages for time unjustly served as provided in the Court of Claims Act.

(10) Effect of Expungement. A person's right to expunge an expungeable offense shall not be limited under this Section. The effect of an order of expungement shall be to restore the person to the status he or she occupied before the arrest, charge, or conviction.

(11) Information. The Illinois State Police shall post general information on its website about the expungement process described in this subsection (i).

(j) Felony Prostitution Convictions.

(1) Any individual may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a prior Class 4 felony violation of prostitution. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (j) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit, or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge. When considering the motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following:

(A) the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement;

(B) the petitioner's age;

(C) the petitioner's age at the time of offense; and

(D) the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. An individual may file the petition after the completion of any sentence or condition imposed by the conviction. Within 60 days of the filing of the motion, a State's Attorney may file an objection to the petition along with supporting evidence. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section. An agency providing civil legal aid, as defined in Section 15 of the Public Interest Attorney Assistance Act, assisting individuals seeking to file a motion to vacate and expunge under this subsection may file motions to vacate and expunge with the Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and the motion may include more than one individual.

(2) Any State's Attorney may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a Class 4 felony violation of prostitution. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (j) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit, or any judge of the circuit court designated by the Chief Judge, and may include more than one individual. When considering the motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following reasons:

(A) the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement;

(B) the petitioner's age;

(C) the petitioner's age at the time of offense;

(D) the time since the conviction; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences if denied.

If the State's Attorney files a motion to vacate and expunge records for felony prostitution convictions pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney shall notify the Prisoner Review Board within 30 days of the filing. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(3) In the public interest, the State's Attorney of a county has standing to file motions to vacate and expunge pursuant to this Section in the circuit court with jurisdiction over the underlying conviction.

(4) The Illinois State Police shall allow a person to a use the access and review process, established in the Illinois State Police, for verifying that his or her records relating to felony prostitution eligible under this Section have been expunged.

(5) No conviction vacated pursuant to this Section shall serve as the basis for damages for time unjustly served as provided in the Court of Claims Act.

(6) Effect of Expungement. A person's right to expunge an expungeable offense shall not be limited under this Section. The effect of an order of expungement shall be to restore the person to the status he or she occupied before the arrest, charge, or conviction.

(7) Information. The Illinois State Police shall post general information on its website about the expungement process described in this subsection (j).

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-159, eff. 1-1-20; 101-306, eff. 8-9-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 101-645, eff. 6-26-20; 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-558, 8-20-21; 102-639, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-933, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-8-22.)

Section 115. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act is amended by changing Section 23 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3305/23)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2032)

Sec. 23. Access and Functional Needs Advisory Committee.

(a) In this Section, "Advisory Committee" means the Access and Functional Needs Advisory Committee.

(b) The Access and Functional Needs Advisory Committee is created.

(c) The Advisory Committee shall:

(1) Coordinate meetings occurring, at a minimum, 3 times each year, in addition to emergency meetings called by the chairperson of the Advisory Committee.

(2) Research and provide recommendations for identifying and effectively responding to the needs of persons with access and functional needs before, during, and after a disaster using an intersectional lens for equity.

(3) Provide recommendations to the Illinois Emergency Management Agency regarding how to ensure that persons with a disability are included in disaster strategies and emergency management plans, including updates and implementation of disaster strategies and emergency management plans.

(4) Review and provide recommendations for the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, and all relevant State agencies that are involved in drafting and implementing the Illinois Emergency Operation Plan, to integrate access and functional needs into State and local emergency plans.

(d) The Advisory Committee shall be composed of the Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency or his or her designee, the Attorney General or his or her designee, the Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee, the Director of on Aging or his or her designee, and the Director of Public Health or his or her designee, together with the following members appointed by the Governor on or before January 1, 2022:

(1) Two members, either from a municipal or county-level emergency agency or a local emergency management coordinator.

(2) Nine members from the community of persons with a disability who represent persons with different types of disabilities, including, but not limited to, individuals with mobility and physical disabilities, hearing and visual disabilities, deafness or who are hard of hearing, blindness or who have low vision, mental health disabilities, and intellectual or developmental disabilities. Members appointed under this paragraph shall reflect a diversity of age, gender, race, and ethnic background.

(3) Four members who represent first responders from different geographical regions around the State.

(e) Of those members appointed by the Governor, the initial appointments of 6 members shall be for terms of 2 years and the initial appointments of 5 members shall be for terms of 4 years. Thereafter, members shall be appointed for terms of 4 years. A member shall serve until his or her successor is appointed and qualified. If a vacancy occurs in the Advisory Committee membership, the vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment for the remainder of the unexpired term.

(f) After all the members are appointed, and annually thereafter, they shall elect a chairperson from among the members appointed under paragraph (2) of subsection (d).

(g) The initial meeting of the Advisory Committee shall be convened by the Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency no later than February 1, 2022.

(h) Advisory Committee members shall serve without compensation.

(i) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall provide administrative support to the Advisory Committee.

(j) The Advisory Committee shall prepare and deliver a report to the General Assembly, the Governor's Office, and the Illinois Emergency Management Agency by July 1, 2022, and annually thereafter. The report shall include the following:

(1) Identification of core emergency management services that need to be updated or changed to ensure the needs of persons with a disability are met, and shall include disaster strategies in State and local emergency plans.

(2) Any proposed changes in State policies, laws, rules, or regulations necessary to fulfill the purposes of this Act.

(3) Recommendations on improving the accessibility and effectiveness of disaster and emergency communication.

(4) Recommendations on comprehensive training for first responders and other frontline workers when working with persons with a disability during emergency situations or disasters, as defined in Section 4 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(5) Any additional recommendations regarding emergency management and persons with a disability that the Advisory Committee deems necessary.

(k) The annual report prepared and delivered under subsection (j) shall be annually considered by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency when developing new State and local emergency plans or updating existing State and local emergency plans.

(l) The Advisory Committee is dissolved and this Section is repealed on January 1, 2032.

(Source: P.A. 102-361, eff. 8-13-21; 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; revised 8-24-22.)

Section 120. The Illinois State Agency Historic Resources Preservation Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3420/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 133c25)

Sec. 5. Responsibilities of the Department of Natural Resources.

(a) The Director shall include in the Department's annual report an outline of State agency actions on which comment was requested or issued under this Act.

(b) The Director shall maintain a current list of all historic resources owned, operated, or leased by the State and appropriate maps indicating the location of all such resources. These maps shall be in a form available to the public and State agencies, except that the location of archaeological resources shall be excluded.

(c) The Director shall make rules and issue appropriate guidelines to implement this Act. These shall include, but not be limited to, regulations for holding on-site inspections, public information meetings and procedures for consultation, mediation, and resolutions by the Committee pursuant to subsections (e) and (f) of Section 4.

(d) The Director shall (1) assist, to the fullest extent possible, the State agencies in their identification of properties for inclusion in an inventory of historic resources, including provision of criteria for evaluation; (2) provide information concerning professional methods and techniques for preserving, improving, restoring, and maintaining historic resources when requested by State agencies; and (3) help facilitate State agency compliance with this Act.

(e) The Director shall monitor the implementation of actions of each State agency which have an effect, either adverse or beneficial, on a an historic resource.

(f) The Department of Natural Resources shall manage and control the preservation, conservation, inventory, and analysis of fine and decorative arts, furnishings, and artifacts of the Illinois Executive Mansion in Springfield, the Governor's offices in the Capitol in Springfield and the James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, and the Hayes House in DuQuoin. The Department of Natural Resources shall manage the preservation and conservation of the buildings and grounds of the Illinois Executive Mansion in Springfield. The Governor shall appoint a Curator of the Executive Mansion, with the advice and consent of the Senate, to assist the Department of Natural Resources in carrying out the duties under this item (f). The person appointed Curator must have experience in historic preservation or as a curator. The Curator shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor. The Governor shall determine the compensation of the Curator, which shall not be diminished during the term of appointment.

(Source: P.A. 102-1005, eff. 5-27-22; revised 8-22-22.)

Section 125. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by changing Section 1-10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3855/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions.

"Agency" means the Illinois Power Agency.

"Agency loan agreement" means any agreement pursuant to which the Illinois Finance Authority agrees to loan the proceeds of revenue bonds issued with respect to a project to the Agency upon terms providing for loan repayment installments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on those revenue bonds, and providing for maintenance, insurance, and other matters in respect of the project.

"Authority" means the Illinois Finance Authority.

"Brownfield site photovoltaic project" means photovoltaics that are either:

(1) interconnected to an electric utility as defined in this Section, a municipal utility as defined in this Section, a public utility as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, or an electric cooperative as defined in Section 3-119 of the Public Utilities Act and located at a site that is regulated by any of the following entities under the following programs:

(A) the United States Environmental Protection Agency under the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended;

(B) the United States Environmental Protection Agency under the Corrective Action Program of the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, as amended;

(C) the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency under the Illinois Site Remediation Program; or

(D) the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency under the Illinois Solid Waste Program; or

(2) located at the site of a coal mine that has permanently ceased coal production, permanently halted any re-mining operations, and is no longer accepting any coal combustion residues; has both completed all clean-up and remediation obligations under the federal Surface Mining and Reclamation Act of 1977 and all applicable Illinois rules and any other clean-up, remediation, or ongoing monitoring to safeguard the health and well-being of the people of the State of Illinois, as well as demonstrated compliance with all applicable federal and State environmental rules and regulations, including, but not limited, to 35 Ill. Adm. Code Part 845 and any rules for historic fill of coal combustion residuals, including any rules finalized in Subdocket A of Illinois Pollution Control Board docket R2020-019.

"Clean coal facility" means an electric generating facility that uses primarily coal as a feedstock and that captures and sequesters carbon dioxide emissions at the following levels: at least 50% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit if, at the time construction commences, the facility is scheduled to commence operation before 2016, at least 70% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit if, at the time construction commences, the facility is scheduled to commence operation during 2016 or 2017, and at least 90% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit if, at the time construction commences, the facility is scheduled to commence operation after 2017. The power block of the clean coal facility shall not exceed allowable emission rates for sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, particulates and mercury for a natural gas-fired combined-cycle facility the same size as and in the same location as the clean coal facility at the time the clean coal facility obtains an approved air permit. All coal used by a clean coal facility shall have high volatile bituminous rank and greater than 1.7 pounds of sulfur per million Btu btu content, unless the clean coal facility does not use gasification technology and was operating as a conventional coal-fired electric generating facility on June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1027).

"Clean coal SNG brownfield facility" means a facility that (1) has commenced construction by July 1, 2015 on an urban brownfield site in a municipality with at least 1,000,000 residents; (2) uses a gasification process to produce substitute natural gas; (3) uses coal as at least 50% of the total feedstock over the term of any sourcing agreement with a utility and the remainder of the feedstock may be either petroleum coke or coal, with all such coal having a high bituminous rank and greater than 1.7 pounds of sulfur per million Btu content unless the facility reasonably determines that it is necessary to use additional petroleum coke to deliver additional consumer savings, in which case the facility shall use coal for at least 35% of the total feedstock over the term of any sourcing agreement; and (4) captures and sequesters at least 85% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit.

"Clean coal SNG facility" means a facility that uses a gasification process to produce substitute natural gas, that sequesters at least 90% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit, that uses at least 90% coal as a feedstock, with all such coal having a high bituminous rank and greater than 1.7 pounds of sulfur per million Btu btu content, and that has a valid and effective permit to construct emission sources and air pollution control equipment and approval with respect to the federal regulations for Prevention of Significant Deterioration of Air Quality (PSD) for the plant pursuant to the federal Clean Air Act; provided, however, a clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall not be a clean coal SNG facility.

"Clean energy" means energy generation that is 90% or greater free of carbon dioxide emissions.

"Commission" means the Illinois Commerce Commission.

"Community renewable generation project" means an electric generating facility that:

(1) is powered by wind, solar thermal energy, photovoltaic cells or panels, biodiesel, crops and untreated and unadulterated organic waste biomass, and hydropower that does not involve new construction or significant expansion of hydropower dams;

(2) is interconnected at the distribution system level of an electric utility as defined in this Section, a municipal utility as defined in this Section that owns or operates electric distribution facilities, a public utility as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, or an electric cooperative, as defined in Section 3-119 of the Public Utilities Act;

(3) credits the value of electricity generated by the facility to the subscribers of the facility; and

(4) is limited in nameplate capacity to less than or equal to 5,000 kilowatts.

"Costs incurred in connection with the development and construction of a facility" means:

(1) the cost of acquisition of all real property, fixtures, and improvements in connection therewith and equipment, personal property, and other property, rights, and easements acquired that are deemed necessary for the operation and maintenance of the facility;

(2) financing costs with respect to bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness of the Agency;

(3) all origination, commitment, utilization, facility, placement, underwriting, syndication, credit enhancement, and rating agency fees;

(4) engineering, design, procurement, consulting, legal, accounting, title insurance, survey, appraisal, escrow, trustee, collateral agency, interest rate hedging, interest rate swap, capitalized interest, contingency, as required by lenders, and other financing costs, and other expenses for professional services; and

(5) the costs of plans, specifications, site study and investigation, installation, surveys, other Agency costs and estimates of costs, and other expenses necessary or incidental to determining the feasibility of any project, together with such other expenses as may be necessary or incidental to the financing, insuring, acquisition, and construction of a specific project and starting up, commissioning, and placing that project in operation.

"Delivery services" has the same definition as found in Section 16-102 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Delivery year" means the consecutive 12-month period beginning June 1 of a given year and ending May 31 of the following year.

"Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Power Agency.

"Demand-response" means measures that decrease peak electricity demand or shift demand from peak to off-peak periods.

"Distributed renewable energy generation device" means a device that is:

(1) powered by wind, solar thermal energy, photovoltaic cells or panels, biodiesel, crops and untreated and unadulterated organic waste biomass, tree waste, and hydropower that does not involve new construction or significant expansion of hydropower dams, waste heat to power systems, or qualified combined heat and power systems;

(2) interconnected at the distribution system level of either an electric utility as defined in this Section, a municipal utility as defined in this Section that owns or operates electric distribution facilities, or a rural electric cooperative as defined in Section 3-119 of the Public Utilities Act;

(3) located on the customer side of the customer's electric meter and is primarily used to offset that customer's electricity load; and

(4) (blank).

"Energy efficiency" means measures that reduce the amount of electricity or natural gas consumed in order to achieve a given end use. "Energy efficiency" includes voltage optimization measures that optimize the voltage at points on the electric distribution voltage system and thereby reduce electricity consumption by electric customers' end use devices. "Energy efficiency" also includes measures that reduce the total Btus of electricity, natural gas, and other fuels needed to meet the end use or uses.

"Electric utility" has the same definition as found in Section 16-102 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Equity investment eligible community" or "eligible community" are synonymous and mean the geographic areas throughout Illinois which would most benefit from equitable investments by the State designed to combat discrimination. Specifically, the eligible communities shall be defined as the following areas:

(1) R3 Areas as established pursuant to Section 10-40 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act, where residents have historically been excluded from economic opportunities, including opportunities in the energy sector; and

(2) environmental Environmental justice communities, as defined by the Illinois Power Agency pursuant to the Illinois Power Agency Act, where residents have historically been subject to disproportionate burdens of pollution, including pollution from the energy sector.

"Equity eligible persons" or "eligible persons" means persons who would most benefit from equitable investments by the State designed to combat discrimination, specifically:

(1) persons who graduate from or are current or former participants in the Clean Jobs Workforce Network Program, the Clean Energy Contractor Incubator Program, the Illinois Climate Works Preapprenticeship Program, Returning Residents Clean Jobs Training Program, or the Clean Energy Primes Contractor Accelerator Program, and the solar training pipeline and multi-cultural jobs program created in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(3) of Section 16-208.12 16-108.21 of the Public Utilities Act;

(2) persons who are graduates of or currently enrolled in the foster care system;

(3) persons who were formerly incarcerated;

(4) persons whose primary residence is in an equity investment eligible community.

"Equity eligible contractor" means a business that is majority-owned by eligible persons, or a nonprofit or cooperative that is majority-governed by eligible persons, or is a natural person that is an eligible person offering personal services as an independent contractor.

"Facility" means an electric generating unit or a co-generating unit that produces electricity along with related equipment necessary to connect the facility to an electric transmission or distribution system.

"General contractor Contractor" means the entity or organization with main responsibility for the building of a construction project and who is the party signing the prime construction contract for the project.

"Governmental aggregator" means one or more units of local government that individually or collectively procure electricity to serve residential retail electrical loads located within its or their jurisdiction.

"High voltage direct current converter station" means the collection of equipment that converts direct current energy from a high voltage direct current transmission line into alternating current using Voltage Source Conversion technology and that is interconnected with transmission or distribution assets located in Illinois.

"High voltage direct current renewable energy credit" means a renewable energy credit associated with a renewable energy resource where the renewable energy resource has entered into a contract to transmit the energy associated with such renewable energy credit over high voltage direct current transmission facilities.

"High voltage direct current transmission facilities" means the collection of installed equipment that converts alternating current energy in one location to direct current and transmits that direct current energy to a high voltage direct current converter station using Voltage Source Conversion technology. "High voltage direct current transmission facilities" includes the high voltage direct current converter station itself and associated high voltage direct current transmission lines. Notwithstanding the preceding, after September 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, an otherwise qualifying collection of equipment does not qualify as high voltage direct current transmission facilities unless its developer entered into a project labor agreement, is capable of transmitting electricity at 525kv with an Illinois converter station located and interconnected in the region of the PJM Interconnection, LLC, and the system does not operate as a public utility, as that term is defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Index price" means the real-time energy settlement price at the applicable Illinois trading hub, such as PJM-NIHUB or MISO-IL, for a given settlement period.

"Indexed renewable energy credit" means a tradable credit that represents the environmental attributes of one megawatt hour of energy produced from a renewable energy resource, the price of which shall be calculated by subtracting the strike price offered by a new utility-scale wind project or a new utility-scale photovoltaic project from the index price in a given settlement period.

"Indexed renewable energy credit counterparty" has the same meaning as "public utility" as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Local government" means a unit of local government as defined in Section 1 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

"Municipality" means a city, village, or incorporated town.

"Municipal utility" means a public utility owned and operated by any subdivision or municipal corporation of this State.

"Nameplate capacity" means the aggregate inverter nameplate capacity in kilowatts AC.

"Person" means any natural person, firm, partnership, corporation, either domestic or foreign, company, association, limited liability company, joint stock company, or association and includes any trustee, receiver, assignee, or personal representative thereof.

"Project" means the planning, bidding, and construction of a facility.

"Project labor agreement" means a pre-hire collective bargaining agreement that covers all terms and conditions of employment on a specific construction project and must include the following:

(1) provisions establishing the minimum hourly wage for each class of labor organization employee;

(2) provisions establishing the benefits and other compensation for each class of labor organization employee;

(3) provisions establishing that no strike or disputes will be engaged in by the labor organization employees;

(4) provisions establishing that no lockout or disputes will be engaged in by the general contractor building the project; and

(5) provisions for minorities and women, as defined under the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, setting forth goals for apprenticeship hours to be performed by minorities and women and setting forth goals for total hours to be performed by underrepresented minorities and women.

A labor organization and the general contractor building the project shall have the authority to include other terms and conditions as they deem necessary.

"Public utility" has the same definition as found in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Qualified combined heat and power systems" means systems that, either simultaneously or sequentially, produce electricity and useful thermal energy from a single fuel source. Such systems are eligible for "renewable energy credits" in an amount equal to its total energy output where a renewable fuel is consumed or in an amount equal to the net reduction in nonrenewable fuel consumed on a total energy output basis.

"Real property" means any interest in land together with all structures, fixtures, and improvements thereon, including lands under water and riparian rights, any easements, covenants, licenses, leases, rights-of-way, uses, and other interests, together with any liens, judgments, mortgages, or other claims or security interests related to real property.

"Renewable energy credit" means a tradable credit that represents the environmental attributes of one megawatt hour of energy produced from a renewable energy resource.

"Renewable energy resources" includes energy and its associated renewable energy credit or renewable energy credits from wind, solar thermal energy, photovoltaic cells and panels, biodiesel, anaerobic digestion, crops and untreated and unadulterated organic waste biomass, and hydropower that does not involve new construction or significant expansion of hydropower dams, waste heat to power systems, or qualified combined heat and power systems. For purposes of this Act, landfill gas produced in the State is considered a renewable energy resource. "Renewable energy resources" does not include the incineration or burning of tires, garbage, general household, institutional, and commercial waste, industrial lunchroom or office waste, landscape waste, railroad crossties, utility poles, or construction or demolition debris, other than untreated and unadulterated waste wood. "Renewable energy resources" also includes high voltage direct current renewable energy credits and the associated energy converted to alternating current by a high voltage direct current converter station to the extent that: (1) the generator of such renewable energy resource contracted with a third party to transmit the energy over the high voltage direct current transmission facilities, and (2) the third-party contracting for delivery of renewable energy resources over the high voltage direct current transmission facilities have ownership rights over the unretired associated high voltage direct current renewable energy credit.

"Retail customer" has the same definition as found in Section 16-102 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Revenue bond" means any bond, note, or other evidence of indebtedness issued by the Authority, the principal and interest of which is payable solely from revenues or income derived from any project or activity of the Agency.

"Sequester" means permanent storage of carbon dioxide by injecting it into a saline aquifer, a depleted gas reservoir, or an oil reservoir, directly or through an enhanced oil recovery process that may involve intermediate storage, regardless of whether these activities are conducted by a clean coal facility, a clean coal SNG facility, a clean coal SNG brownfield facility, or a party with which a clean coal facility, clean coal SNG facility, or clean coal SNG brownfield facility has contracted for such purposes.

"Service area" has the same definition as found in Section 16-102 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Settlement period" means the period of time utilized by MISO and PJM and their successor organizations as the basis for settlement calculations in the real-time energy market.

"Sourcing agreement" means (i) in the case of an electric utility, an agreement between the owner of a clean coal facility and such electric utility, which agreement shall have terms and conditions meeting the requirements of paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of Section 1-75, (ii) in the case of an alternative retail electric supplier, an agreement between the owner of a clean coal facility and such alternative retail electric supplier, which agreement shall have terms and conditions meeting the requirements of Section 16-115(d)(5) of the Public Utilities Act, and (iii) in case of a gas utility, an agreement between the owner of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility and the gas utility, which agreement shall have the terms and conditions meeting the requirements of subsection (h-1) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Strike price" means a contract price for energy and renewable energy credits from a new utility-scale wind project or a new utility-scale photovoltaic project.

"Subscriber" means a person who (i) takes delivery service from an electric utility, and (ii) has a subscription of no less than 200 watts to a community renewable generation project that is located in the electric utility's service area. No subscriber's subscriptions may total more than 40% of the nameplate capacity of an individual community renewable generation project. Entities that are affiliated by virtue of a common parent shall not represent multiple subscriptions that total more than 40% of the nameplate capacity of an individual community renewable generation project.

"Subscription" means an interest in a community renewable generation project expressed in kilowatts, which is sized primarily to offset part or all of the subscriber's electricity usage.

"Substitute natural gas" or "SNG" means a gas manufactured by gasification of hydrocarbon feedstock, which is substantially interchangeable in use and distribution with conventional natural gas.

"Total resource cost test" or "TRC test" means a standard that is met if, for an investment in energy efficiency or demand-response measures, the benefit-cost ratio is greater than one. The benefit-cost ratio is the ratio of the net present value of the total benefits of the program to the net present value of the total costs as calculated over the lifetime of the measures. A total resource cost test compares the sum of avoided electric utility costs, representing the benefits that accrue to the system and the participant in the delivery of those efficiency measures and including avoided costs associated with reduced use of natural gas or other fuels, avoided costs associated with reduced water consumption, and avoided costs associated with reduced operation and maintenance costs, as well as other quantifiable societal benefits, to the sum of all incremental costs of end-use measures that are implemented due to the program (including both utility and participant contributions), plus costs to administer, deliver, and evaluate each demand-side program, to quantify the net savings obtained by substituting the demand-side program for supply resources. In calculating avoided costs of power and energy that an electric utility would otherwise have had to acquire, reasonable estimates shall be included of financial costs likely to be imposed by future regulations and legislation on emissions of greenhouse gases. In discounting future societal costs and benefits for the purpose of calculating net present values, a societal discount rate based on actual, long-term Treasury bond yields should be used. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, the TRC test shall not include or take into account a calculation of market price suppression effects or demand reduction induced price effects.

"Utility-scale solar project" means an electric generating facility that:

(1) generates electricity using photovoltaic cells; and

(2) has a nameplate capacity that is greater than 5,000 kilowatts.

"Utility-scale wind project" means an electric generating facility that:

(1) generates electricity using wind; and

(2) has a nameplate capacity that is greater than 5,000 kilowatts.

"Waste Heat to Power Systems" means systems that capture and generate electricity from energy that would otherwise be lost to the atmosphere without the use of additional fuel.

"Zero emission credit" means a tradable credit that represents the environmental attributes of one megawatt hour of energy produced from a zero emission facility.

"Zero emission facility" means a facility that: (1) is fueled by nuclear power; and (2) is interconnected with PJM Interconnection, LLC or the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., or their successors.

(Source: P.A. 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 6-2-22.)

Section 130. The Illinois African-American Family Commission Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3903/5)

Sec. 5. Legislative findings. It is the policy of this State to promote family preservation and to preserve and strengthen families.

(a) Over 12 million people live in Illinois. African-Americans represent 15% of the population and 26% of the residents living in Cook County. Despite some progress over the last few decades, African-Americans in Illinois continue to lag behind other racial groups relative to indicators of well-being in education, employment, income, and health. According to the 2000 U.S. Census, just 26% of the African-American population over 25 years of age in Illinois completed their high school education; 6% held an associate's degree; less than 10% (9%) held a bachelor's degree; less than 5% (3%) held a master's degree; and less than one percent held either a professional (.8%) or doctoral (.4%) degree.

These levels of education attainment reflect more fundamental problems with retaining African-Americans in school. The Illinois State Board of Education reported that for the 2001-2002 school year, 36,373, or 6%, of students enrolled in public high schools dropped out. Thirty-nine percent of these students were African-Americans; 38% were White; 21% were Hispanic; and 2% were classified as Other.

Although African-Americans make up 18% of the high school population, they are disproportionately represented in the number of students who are suspended and expelled. In the 2001-2002 school year, 29,068 students were suspended from school. Forty-seven percent were White, 37% were African-American, 14% were Hispanic, and 1% were classified as Other. In regards to expulsions Statewide, the total number of high school students expelled was 1,651. Forty-three percent were African-American, 41% were White, 14% were Hispanic, and 2% were classified as Other. Within Chicago public schools, 448 students were expelled. Seventy-seven of these students were African-American; 27% were White; 14% were Hispanic; and 4% were classified as Other. The fact that African-Americans are more likely to be suspended or expelled from school also contributes to the high dropout rate among African-American high school students.

In addition to educational challenges, African-Americans face challenges in the areas of employment and income. In the year 2000, the unemployment rate for African-Americans age 16 years or older was 15% compared to only 6% for the total Illinois population. Moreover, the median household income of African-Americans in Illinois was $31,699 compared to $46,590 for the total Illinois population, and the percentage of African-American families below the poverty level in Illinois was 26% percent in 1999 compared to 10.7% for the total Illinois population in that same year.

Indicators of child welfare and criminal justice reveal still more challenges that African-American families face in Illinois. In 2000, African-American children represented 18% of children 18 years of age and under, but comprised 73% of children in substitute care. African-Americans are also overrepresented in the criminal justice population. Of the total Illinois adult inmate population in the year 2000, 65% were African-American. During this same time period, African-American youth represented 58% of the juvenile inmate population in Illinois.

While the leading causes of death among African-Americans are the same as those for the general population in Illinois, African-Americans have a higher rate of death per 100,000 residents. The rate of overall deaths per 100,000 residents among African-Americans in the year 2000 was 1,181; 847 for Whites; and 411 for those classified as Other. The rate of cancer-related deaths per 100,000 residents by racial or ethnic groups in 2000 was: 278 African-Americans; 206 Whites; and 110 of those classified as Other. The rate of diabetes-related deaths per 100,000 residents among African-Americans in 2000 was 41 compared to 23 for Whites and 13 for those classified as Other. The rate of deaths per 100,000 residents by heart disease among African-Americans in 2000 was 352 compared to 257 for Whites and 120 for those classified as Other. The rate of deaths per 100,000 residents by stroke among African-Americans in 2000 was 75; 60 for Whites; and 35 for those classified as Other.

African-Americans had higher rates of smoking and obesity than other racial groups in Illinois in 2001. African-Americans accounted for more of the new adult/adolescent AIDS cases, cumulative adult/adolescent AIDS cases, and number of people living with AIDS than other racial groups in Illinois in the year 2002. Still, 23% of uninsured persons in Illinois are African-American.

(b) The Illinois African-American Family Commission continues to be an essential key to promoting the preservation and strengthening of families. As of January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-693) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, just under 13 million people live in Illinois. African-Americans represent 15% of the population and 25% of the residents living in Cook County. Despite some progress over the last few decades, African-Americans in Illinois continue to lag behind other racial groups relative to indicators of well-being in education, employment, income, and health. According to the 2010 federal decennial census: just 28% of the African-American population over 25 years of age in Illinois completed their high school education; 36% had some college or an associate's degree; less than 12% held a bachelor's degree; less than 8% held either a graduate or professional degree.

These levels of education attainment reflect more fundamental problems with retaining African-Americans in school. The State Board of Education reported that for the 2010-2011 school year, 18,210, or 2.77%, of students enrolled in public high schools dropped out. 39.3% of these students were African-Americans; 32.6% were White; 24.2% were Hispanic; and 2% were classified as Other.

Although African-Americans make up 20% of the high school population, they are disproportionately represented in the number of students who are suspended and expelled. In the 2011-2012 school year, 29,928 students were suspended from school. 36% were White, 34% were African-American, 26% were Hispanic, and 4% were classified as Other. With regard to expulsions statewide, the total number of high school students expelled was 982. 37% were African-American, 41% were White, 21% were Hispanic, and 2% were classified as Other. Within Chicago public schools, 294 students were expelled. 80% of these students were African-American; none were White; 17% were Hispanic; and 3% were classified as Other. The fact that African-Americans are more likely to be suspended or expelled from school also contributes to the high dropout rate among African-American high school students.

In addition to educational challenges, African-Americans face challenges in the areas of employment and income. In the year 2010, the unemployment rate for African-Americans age 16 years or older was 16% compared to only 9% for the total Illinois population. Moreover, the median household income of African-Americans in Illinois was $34,874 compared to $60,433 for the total Illinois population, and the percentage of African-American families below the poverty level in Illinois was 32% percent in 2012 compared to 15% for the total Illinois population in that same year.

Indicators of child welfare and criminal justice reveal still more challenges that African-American families face in Illinois. In 2010, African-American children represented 14% of children 18 years of age and under, but comprised 56% of children in substitute care. African-Americans are also overrepresented in the criminal justice population. Of the total Illinois adult inmate population in the year 2012, 57% were African-American. During this same time period, African-American youth represented 66% of the juvenile inmate population in Illinois.

While the leading causes of death among African-Americans are the same as those for the general population in Illinois, African-Americans have a higher rate of death per 100,000 residents. The rate of overall deaths per 100,000 residents among African-Americans in the year 2010 was 898; 741 for Whites; and 458 for those classified as Other. The rate of cancer-related deaths per 100,000 residents by racial or ethnic groups in 2010 was 216 for African-Americans; 179 for Whites; and 124 for those classified as Other. The rate of diabetes-related deaths per 100,000 residents among African-Americans in 2010 was 114 compared to 66 for Whites and 75 for those classified as Other. The rate of deaths per 100,000 residents by heart disease among African-Americans in 2010 was 232 compared to 179 for Whites and 121 for those classified as Other. The rate of deaths per 100,000 residents by stroke among African-Americans in 2010 was 108; 73 for Whites; and 56 for those classified as Other.

African-Americans had higher rates of smoking and obesity than other racial groups in Illinois in 2013. African-Americans accounted for more of the new adult/adolescent AIDS cases, cumulative adult/adolescent AIDS cases, and number of people living with AIDS than other racial groups in Illinois in the year 2013. Still, 24% of uninsured persons in Illinois are African-American.

(c) These huge disparities in education, employment, income, child welfare, criminal justice, and health demonstrate the tremendous challenges facing the African-American family in Illinois. These challenges are severe. There is a need for government, child and family advocates, and other key stakeholders to create and implement public policies to address the health and social crises facing African-American families. The development of given solutions clearly transcends any one State agency and requires a coordinated effort. The Illinois African-American Family Commission shall assist State agencies with this task.

The African-American Family Commission was created in October 1994 by Executive Order to assist the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services in developing and implementing programs and public policies that affect the State's child welfare system. The Commission has a proven track record of bringing State agencies, community providers, and consumers together to address child welfare issues. The ability of the Commission to address the above-mentioned health issues, community factors, and the personal well-being of African-American families and children has been limited due to the Executive Order's focus on child welfare. It is apparent that broader issues of health, mental health, criminal justice, education, and economic development also directly affect the health and well-being of African-American families and children. Accordingly, the role of the Illinois African-American Family Commission is hereby expanded to encompass working relationships with every department, agency, and commission within State government if any of its activities impact African-American children and families. The focus of the Commission is hereby restructured and shall exist by legislative mandate to engage State agencies in its efforts to preserve and strengthen African-American families.

(Source: P.A. 98-693, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-14-22.)

Section 135. The Illinois Vehicle Hijacking and Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention and Insurance Verification Act is amended by changing Sections 8.5 and 8.6 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4005/8.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 8.5. State Police Vehicle Hijacking and Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Trust Fund. The State Police Vehicle Hijacking and Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Trust Fund is created as a trust fund in the State treasury. The State Treasurer shall be the custodian of the Fund. The State Police Vehicle Hijacking and Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Trust Fund is established to receive funds from the Illinois Vehicle Hijacking and Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention and Insurance Verification Council. All interest earned from the investment or deposit of moneys accumulated in the Fund shall be deposited into the Fund. Moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Illinois State Police for motor vehicle theft prevention purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-904, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-13-22.)

(20 ILCS 4005/8.6)

Sec. 8.6. State Police Training and Academy Fund; Law Enforcement Training Fund. Before April 1 of each year, each insurer engaged in writing private passenger motor vehicle insurance coverage that is included in Class 2 and Class 3 of Section 4 of the Illinois Insurance Code, as a condition of its authority to transact business in this State, may collect and shall pay to the Department of Insurance an amount equal to $4, or a lesser amount determined by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board by rule, multiplied by the insurer's total earned car years of private passenger motor vehicle insurance policies providing physical damage insurance coverage written in this State during the preceding calendar year. Of the amounts collected under this Section, the Department of Insurance shall deposit 10% into the State Police Training and Academy Fund and 90% into the Law Enforcement Training Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 9-1-22.)

Section 140. The Task Force on Missing and Murdered Chicago Women Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4119/10)

Sec. 10. Task Force on Missing and Murdered Chicago Women.

(a) The Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority or the Executive Director's designee, in consultation with the Director of the Illinois State Police and the Chicago Police Superintendent, shall appoint the non-legislative members to the Task Force on Missing and Murdered Chicago Women to advise the Director and the Chicago Police Superintendent and to report to the General Assembly on recommendations to reduce and end violence against Chicago women and girls. The Task Force may also serve as a liaison between the Director, the Chicago Police Superintendent, and agencies and nongovernmental organizations that provide services to victims, victims' families, and victims' communities. Task Force members shall serve without compensation but may, subject to appropriation, receive reimbursement for their expenses as members of the Task Force.

(b) There is created the Task Force on Missing and Murdered Chicago Women, which shall consist of the following individuals, or their designees, who are knowledgeable in crime victims' rights or violence protection and, unless otherwise specified, members shall be appointed for 2-year terms as follows:

(1) Two members of the Senate, one appointed by the President of the Senate and one appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate; .

(2) Two members of the House of Representatives, one appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives and one appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives; .

(3) Two members from among the following appointed by the Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority or the Executive Director's designee:

(A) an association representing Illinois chiefs of police;

(B) an association representing Illinois sheriffs;

(C) an officer who is employed by the Illinois State Police; or

(D) an Illinois peace officer's association; .

(4) One or more representatives from among the following:

(A) an association representing State's Attorneys;

(B) an attorney representing the United States Attorney's Office in Chicago; or

(C) a circuit judge, associate judge, or attorney working in juvenile court;

(D) the Cook County Medical Examiner, or his or her designee, or a representative from a statewide coroner's or medical examiner's association or a representative of the Department of Public Health;

(5) Two representatives for victims, with a focus on individuals who work with victims of violence or their families appointed by the Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority or the Executive Director's designee; and

(6) Four or more members from among the following appointed by the Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority or the Executive Director's designee:

(A) a statewide or local organization that provides legal services to Chicago women and girls;

(B) a statewide or local organization that provides advocacy or counseling for Chicago women and girls who have been victims of violence;

(C) a statewide or local organization that provides healthcare services to Chicago women and girls;

(D) a statewide organization that represents women and girls who have been sexually assaulted;

(E) a women's health organization or agency; or

(F) a Chicago woman who is a survivor of gender-related violence.

(c) Vacancies in positions appointed by the Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority or the Executive Director's designee shall be filled by the Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority or the Executive Director's designee consistent with the qualifications of the vacating member required by this Section.

(d) Task Force members shall annually elect a chair and vice-chair from among the Task Force's members, and may elect other officers as necessary. The Task Force shall meet at least quarterly, or upon the call of its chair, and may hold meetings throughout the City of Chicago. The Task Force shall meet frequently enough to accomplish the tasks identified in this Section. Meetings of the Task Force are subject to the Open Meetings Act. The Task Force shall seek out and enlist the cooperation and assistance of nongovernmental organizations, community, and advocacy organizations working with the Chicago community, and academic researchers and experts, specifically those specializing in violence against Chicago women and girls, representing diverse communities disproportionately affected by violence against women and girls, or focusing on issues related to gender-related violence and violence against Chicago women and girls.

(e) The Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority or the Executive Director's designee shall convene the first meeting of the Task Force no later than 30 days after the appointment of a majority of the members of the Task Force. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall provide meeting space and administrative assistance as necessary for the Task Force to conduct its work. The chair of the Task Force may call electronic meetings of the Task Force. A member of the Task Force participating electronically shall be deemed present for purposes of establishing a quorum and voting.

(f) The Task Force must examine and report on the following:

(1) the systemic causes behind violence that Chicago women and girls experience, including patterns and underlying factors that explain why disproportionately high levels of violence occur against Chicago women and girls, including underlying historical, social, economic, institutional, and cultural factors that may contribute to the violence;

(2) appropriate methods for tracking and collecting data on violence against Chicago women and girls, including data on missing and murdered Chicago women and girls;

(3) policies and institutions such as policing, child welfare, medical examiner practices, and other governmental practices that impact violence against Chicago women and girls and the investigation and prosecution of crimes of gender-related violence against Chicago residents;

(4) measures necessary to address and reduce violence against Chicago women and girls; and

(5) measures to help victims, victims' families, and victims' communities prevent and heal from violence that occurs against Chicago women and girls.

(g) The Task Force shall report on or before December 31 of 2024, and on or before December 31 of each year thereafter, to the General Assembly and the Governor on the work of the Task Force, including, but not limited to, the issues to be examined in subsection (g), and shall include in the annual report recommendations regarding institutional policies and practices or proposed institutional policies and practices that are effective in reducing gender-related violence and increasing the safety of Chicago women and girls. The report shall include recommendations to reduce and end violence against Chicago women and girls and help victims and communities heal from gender-related violence and violence against Chicago women and girls.

(Source: P.A. 102-1057, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-16-22.)

Section 150. The Legislative Audit Commission Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(25 ILCS 150/3) (from Ch. 63, par. 106)

Sec. 3. The Commission shall receive the reports of the Auditor General and other financial statements and shall determine what remedial measures, if any, are needed, and whether special studies and investigations are necessary. If the Commission shall deem such studies and investigations to be necessary, the Commission may direct the Auditor General to undertake such studies or investigations.

When a disagreement between the Audit Commission and an agency under the Governor's jurisdiction arises in the process of the Audit Commission's review of audit reports relating to such agency, the Audit Commission shall promptly advise the Governor of such areas of disagreement. The Governor shall respond to the Audit Commission within a reasonable period of time, and in no event later than 60 days, expressing his views concerning such areas of disagreement and indicating the corrective action taken by his office with reference thereto or, if no action is taken, indicating the reasons therefor.

The Audit Commission also promptly shall advise all other responsible officials of the Executive, Judicial, and Legislative branches of the State government of areas of disagreement arising in the process of the Commission's review of their respective audit reports. With reference to his particular office, each such responsible official shall respond to the Audit Commission within a reasonable period of time, and in no event later than 60 days, expressing his view concerning such areas of disagreement and indicating the corrective action taken with reference thereto or stating the reasons that no action has been taken.

The Commission shall report its activities to the General Assembly including such remedial measures as it deems to be necessary. The report of the Commission shall be made to the General Assembly not less often than annually and not later than March 1 in each year.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

In addition, the Commission has the powers and duties provided for in the "Illinois State Auditing Act", enacted by the 78th General Assembly, and, if the provisions of that Act are conflict with those of this Act, that Act prevails.

(Source: P.A. 100-1148, eff. 12-10-18; revised 9-12-22.)

Section 155. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.935, 5.970, 5.971, 5.972, 5.973, 5.974, 5.975, 5.976, and 6z-131, by changing Sections 6z-18, 6z-64, 6z-126, and 29a, and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 6z-130 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.935)

Sec. 5.935. The Freedom Schools Fund.

(Source: P.A. 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.965)

Sec. 5.965 5.935. The 100 Club of Illinois Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1060, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-27-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.966)

Sec. 5.966 5.970. The Serve Illinois Commission Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; revised 7-27-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.967)

Sec. 5.967 5.970. The Illinois Production Workforce Development Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; revised 7-27-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.968)

Sec. 5.968 5.970. The Law Enforcement Recruitment and Retention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-755, eff. 5-10-22; revised 7-27-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.969)

Sec. 5.969 5.970. The Organized Retail Crime Enforcement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-757, eff. 1-1-23; revised 1-10-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.970)

Sec. 5.970. The Future Farmers of America Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-809, eff. 1-1-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.971)

Sec. 5.971. The Statewide 9-8-8 Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.972)

Sec. 5.972. The Board of Higher Education State Contracts and Grants Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.973)

Sec. 5.973. The Agriculture Federal Projects Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.974)

Sec. 5.974. The DNR Federal Projects Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.975)

Sec. 5.975. The Illinois Opioid Remediation State Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.976)

Sec. 5.976. The General Assembly Technology Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.977)

Sec. 5.977 5.970. The First Responder Behavioral Health Grant Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-911, eff. 1-1-23; revised 1-10-23.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.978)

Sec. 5.978 5.970. The Off-Hours Child Care Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-912, eff. 5-27-22; revised 7-27-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.979)

Sec. 5.979 5.970. The Division of Real Estate General Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-970, eff. 5-27-22; revised 7-27-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.980)

Sec. 5.980 5.970. The Aeronautics Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-27-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.981)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 5.981 5.971. The Grocery Tax Replacement Fund. This Section is repealed January 1, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; revised 7-28-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.982)

Sec. 5.982 5.971. The Emergency Planning and Training Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-28-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.983)

Sec. 5.983 5.972. The ISAC Accounts Receivable Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-28-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.984)

Sec. 5.984 5.973. The Motor Fuel and Petroleum Standards Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-28-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.985)

Sec. 5.985 5.974. The State Small Business Credit Initiative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-28-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.986)

Sec. 5.986 5.975. The Public Pension Regulation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-28-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.987)

Sec. 5.987 5.976. The Vehicle Inspection Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-28-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-18) (from Ch. 127, par. 142z-18)

Sec. 6z-18. Local Government Tax Fund. A portion of the money paid into the Local Government Tax Fund from sales of tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act, which occurred in municipalities, shall be distributed to each municipality based upon the sales which occurred in that municipality. The remainder shall be distributed to each county based upon the sales which occurred in the unincorporated area of that county.

Moneys transferred from the Grocery Tax Replacement Fund to the Local Government Tax Fund under Section 6z-130 shall be treated under this Section in the same manner as if they had been remitted with the return on which they were reported.

A portion of the money paid into the Local Government Tax Fund from the 6.25% general use tax rate on the selling price of tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by any agency of this State's government shall be distributed to municipalities as provided in this paragraph. Each municipality shall receive the amount attributable to sales for which Illinois addresses for titling or registration purposes are given as being in such municipality. The remainder of the money paid into the Local Government Tax Fund from such sales shall be distributed to counties. Each county shall receive the amount attributable to sales for which Illinois addresses for titling or registration purposes are given as being located in the unincorporated area of such county.

A portion of the money paid into the Local Government Tax Fund from the 6.25% general rate (and, beginning July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, the 1.25% rate on motor fuel and gasohol, and beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, and beginning again on August 5, 2022 through August 14, 2022, the 1.25% rate on sales tax holiday items) on sales subject to taxation under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act, which occurred in municipalities, shall be distributed to each municipality, based upon the sales which occurred in that municipality. The remainder shall be distributed to each county, based upon the sales which occurred in the unincorporated area of such county.

For the purpose of determining allocation to the local government unit, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund of money paid into the Local Government Tax Fund should be made to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in such notification from the Department. Such refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Local Government Tax Fund.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district and deposited into the Local Government Tax Fund, less 3% of that amount, which shall be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department in administering the Innovation Development and Economy Act.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities and counties, the municipalities and counties to be those entitled to distribution of taxes or penalties paid to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality or county shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected during the second preceding calendar month by the Department and paid into the Local Government Tax Fund, plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, and not including any amount which the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which are payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality or county, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt, by the Comptroller, of the disbursement certification to the municipalities and counties, provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in such certification.

When certifying the amount of monthly disbursement to a municipality or county under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease that amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the 6 months preceding the time a misallocation is discovered.

The provisions directing the distributions from the special fund in the State treasury Treasury provided for in this Section shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation of all amounts as provided herein. The State Treasurer and State Comptroller are hereby authorized to make distributions as provided in this Section.

In construing any development, redevelopment, annexation, preannexation, or other lawful agreement in effect prior to September 1, 1990, which describes or refers to receipts from a county or municipal retailers' occupation tax, use tax or service occupation tax which now cannot be imposed, such description or reference shall be deemed to include the replacement revenue for such abolished taxes, distributed from the Local Government Tax Fund.

As soon as possible after March 8, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-3) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the State Comptroller shall order and the State Treasurer shall transfer $6,600,000 from the Local Government Tax Fund to the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 65, Section 65-15, eff. 4-19-22; revised 6-2-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-64)

Sec. 6z-64. The Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund.

(a) The Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund is created as a revolving fund, not subject to fiscal year limitations, in the State treasury. The following moneys shall be deposited into the Fund:

(1) amounts authorized for transfer to the Fund from the General Revenue Fund and other State funds (except for funds classified by the Comptroller as federal trust funds or State trust funds) pursuant to State law or Executive Order;

(2) federal funds received by the Department of Central Management Services (the "Department") as a result of expenditures from the Fund;

(3) interest earned on moneys in the Fund;

(4) receipts or inter-fund transfers resulting from billings issued to State agencies, officers, boards, commissions, and universities for the cost of workers' compensation services that are not compensated through the specific fund transfers authorized by this Section, if any;

(5) amounts received from a State agency, officer, board, commission, or university for workers' compensation payments for temporary total disability, as provided in Section 405-105 of the Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois; and

(6) amounts recovered through subrogation in workers' compensation and workers' occupational disease cases.

(b) Moneys in the Fund may be used by the Department for reimbursement or payment for:

(1) providing workers' compensation services to State agencies, officers, boards, commissions, and universities; or

(2) providing for payment of administrative and other expenses (and, beginning January 1, 2013, fees and charges made pursuant to a contract with a private vendor) incurred in providing workers' compensation services. The Department, or any successor agency designated to enter into contracts with one or more private vendors for the administration of the workers' compensation program for State employees pursuant to subdivision (10b) subsection 10b of Section 405-105 of the Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, is authorized to establish one or more special funds, as separate accounts provided by any bank or banks as defined by the Illinois Banking Act, any savings and loan association or associations as defined by the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985, or any credit union as defined by the Illinois Credit Union Act, to be held by the Director outside of the State treasury, for the purpose of receiving the transfer of moneys from the Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund. The Department may promulgate rules further defining the methodology for the transfers. Any interest earned by moneys in the funds or accounts shall be deposited into the Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund. The transferred moneys, and interest accrued thereon, shall be used exclusively for transfers to contracted private vendors or their financial institutions for payments to workers' compensation claimants and providers for workers' compensation services, claims, and benefits pursuant to this Section and subdivision (9) subsection 9 of Section 405-105 of the Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. The transferred moneys, and interest accrued thereon, shall not be used for any other purpose, including, but not limited to, reimbursement or payment of administrative fees due the contracted vendor pursuant to its contract or contracts with the Department.

(c) State agencies, officers, boards, and commissions may direct the Comptroller to process inter-fund transfers or make payment through the voucher and warrant process to the Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund in satisfaction of billings issued under subsection (a) of this Section.

(d) (Blank.).

(d-5) (Blank.).

(d-10) (Blank.).

(d-12) (Blank.).

(d-15) (Blank.).

(d-20) (Blank.).

(d-25) (Blank.).

(d-30) (Blank.).

(d-35) (Blank.).

(d-40) (Blank.).

(d-45) (Blank.).

(d-50) (Blank.).

(d-55) (Blank.).

(e) The term "workers' compensation services" means services, claims expenses, and related administrative costs incurred in performing the duties under Sections 405-105 and 405-411 of the Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 102-767, eff. 5-13-22; revised 9-13-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-126)

Sec. 6z-126. Law Enforcement Training Fund. The Law Enforcement Training Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund shall consist of: (i) 90% of the revenue from increasing the insurance producer license fees, as provided under subsection (a-5) of Section 500-135 of the Illinois Insurance Code; and (ii) 90% of the moneys collected from auto insurance policy fees under Section 8.6 of the Illinois Vehicle Hijacking and Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention and Insurance Verification Act. This Fund shall be used by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board to fund law enforcement certification compliance and the development and provision of basic courses by Board-approved academics, and in-service courses by approved academies.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-904, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 12-13-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-130)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 6z-130. Grocery Tax Replacement Fund.

(a) The Grocery Tax Replacement Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury.

(b) On April 19, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-700) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as practical, but no later than June 30, 2022, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $325,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Grocery Tax Replacement Fund.

(c) On July 1, 2022, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $75,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Grocery Tax Replacement Fund.

(d) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, beginning on April 19, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-700) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and until November 30, 2023, the Director may certify additional transfer amounts needed beyond the amounts specified in subsections (b) and (c) to cover any additional amounts needed to equal the net revenue that, but for the reduction of the rate to 0% in the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, would have been realized if the items that are subject to the rate reduction had been taxed at the 1% rate during the period of the reduction. The State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the amounts certified by the Director from the General Revenue Fund to the Grocery Tax Replacement Fund.

(e) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, beginning on July 1, 2022 and until December 1, 2023, at the direction of the Department of Revenue, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the Grocery Tax Replacement Fund to the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund any amounts needed to equal the net revenue that, but for the reduction of the rate to 0% in the Use Tax Act and Service Use Tax Act under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, would have been deposited into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund if the items that are subject to the rate reduction had been taxed at the 1% rate during the period of the reduction.

(f) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, beginning on July 1, 2022 and until December 1, 2023, at the direction of the Department of Revenue, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the Grocery Tax Replacement Fund to the Local Government Tax Fund any amounts needed to equal the net revenue that, but for the reduction of the rate to 0% in the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, would have been deposited into the Local Government Tax Fund if the items that are subject to the rate reduction had been taxed at the 1% rate during the period of the reduction.

(g) The State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance in the Grocery Tax Replacement Fund to the General Revenue Fund on December 1, 2023, or as soon thereafter as practical. Upon completion of the transfer, the Grocery Tax Replacement Fund is dissolved.

(h) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; revised 8-1-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-131)

Sec. 6z-131. Agriculture Federal Projects Fund. The Agriculture Federal Projects Fund is established as a federal trust fund in the State treasury. This Fund is established to receive funds from all federal departments and agencies, including grants and awards. In addition, the Fund may also receive interagency receipts from other State agencies and funds from other public and private sources. Moneys in the Agriculture Federal Projects Fund shall be held by the State Treasurer as ex officio custodian and shall be used for the specific purposes established by the terms and conditions of the federal grant or award and for other authorized expenses in accordance with federal requirements. Other moneys deposited into the Fund may be used for purposes associated with the federally financed projects.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-135)

Sec. 6z-135 6z-130. The Law Enforcement Recruitment and Retention Fund.

(a) The Law Enforcement Recruitment and Retention Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury.

(b) Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Law Enforcement Recruitment and Retention Fund shall be used by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board to award grants to units of local government, public institutions of higher education, and qualified nonprofit entities for the purpose of hiring and retaining law enforcement officers.

(c) When awarding grants, the Board shall prioritize:

(1) grants that will be used to hire, retain, or hire and retain law enforcement officers in underserved areas and areas experiencing the most need;

(2) achieving demographic and geographic diversity of law enforcement officers that are recruited or hired by applicants that are awarded grants;

(3) maximizing the effects of moneys spent on the actual recruitment and retention of law enforcement officers; and

(4) providing grants that can impact multiple employers.

(d) Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, including, but not limited to, fee receipts, gifts, grants, and awards from any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

(e) The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board may, by rule, set requirements for the distribution of grant moneys and determine which entities are eligible.

(f) The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall consider compliance with the Uniform Crime Reporting Act as a factor in awarding grant moneys.

(g) As used in this Section, "qualified nonprofit entity" means a nonprofit entity, as defined by the Board by rule, that has established experience in recruitment and retention of law enforcement officers in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 102-755, eff. 5-10-22; revised 8-1-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-136)

Sec. 6z-136 6z-130. Industrial Biotechnology Human Capital Fund.

(a) The Industrial Biotechnology Human Capital Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury and may receive funds from any source, public or private, including moneys appropriated for use by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and laboratories and institutions conducting industrial biotechnology research. Subject to appropriation, the Industrial Biotechnology Human Capital Fund shall receive moneys from the General Revenue Fund until June 30, 2025. Each eligible entity receiving a grant under this Section shall, as a condition of receiving the grant, contribute moneys to the Fund as part of a cost-sharing agreement between the grantee and the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in accordance with rules adopted by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity. Grants issued under this the Section may be for a period of 2 years. An eligible entity issued a grant under this Section Sections shall be eligible for more than one such grant, but no more than one grant annually, for the purpose of hiring and retaining experts in residence Experts in Residence; however, such entity may maintain more than one grant at any given time.

(b) Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Fund shall be used for providing grants to laboratories and research institutions for the purpose of hiring and retaining in-house specialists, to be known as experts in residence, with the knowledge and experience in moving industrial biotechnology products through the development phase.

(c) To be eligible for grants provided from the Fund, an entity must be a State-sponsored, university-affiliated laboratory or research institution conducting collaboratives or for-hire research in the development of biorenewable chemicals, bio-based polymers, materials, novel feeds, or additional value added biorenewables. Eligible entities must also establish that the expert in residence Expert-In-Residence they seek to hire or retain using the grant funds possesses expertise in fermentation engineering, process engineering, catalytic engineering, analytical chemistry, or is a scale-up specialist.

(d) On or before January 31 of the next calendar year to occur after the last day of any State fiscal year in which the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity receives State funding for the Program under this Section, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall submit an annual report to the General Assembly and the Governor on the use of moneys in the Fund. The report shall include, but not be limited to: (i) the number of laboratories or institutions utilizing moneys in the Fund, including the name of such entities; (ii) the number of experts in residence hired by each laboratory or institution; (iii) the expertise or specialty area of each expert in residence hired or retained; and (iv) a summary of the benefit to the economy of the State of Illinois economy in providing the grants.

(e) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall adopt all rules necessary for the implementation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-991, eff. 1-1-23; revised 8-1-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-137)

Sec. 6z-137 6z-131. Industrial Biotechnology Capital Maintenance Fund.

(a) The Industrial Biotechnology Capital Maintenance Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury and may receive funds from any source, public or private, including from moneys appropriated for use by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and laboratories and institutions conducting industrial biotechnology research.

(b) Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Fund shall be used for providing grants to laboratories and research institutions for the purpose of maintenance and repair of capital assets. Such maintenance and repairs of capital assets shall be designed to extend the serviceable life of equipment and buildings and expand the capacity of equipment and buildings by at least 10%. For the purposes of this Section, "capital assets" means equipment or buildings that have a value greater than $250,000.

(c) To be eligible for grants provided from the Fund, an entity must be a State-sponsored, university-affiliated laboratory or research institution conducting collaboratives or for-hire research in the development of biorenewable chemicals, bio-based polymers, materials, novel feeds, or additional value added biorenewables. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall determine the disbursement of moneys for the purposes of this Section. Each eligible entity, as a condition of receiving a grant under this Section, shall match up to at least 50% of the moneys to be granted to the entity.

(d) On or before January 31 of the next calendar year to occur after the last day of any State fiscal year in which the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity receives State funding for the Program under this Section, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall submit an annual report to the General Assembly and the Governor on the use of moneys in the Fund. The report shall include, but not be limited to: (i) the name of the institution or laboratory receiving funds; (ii) the capital assets that were maintained or repaired at each institution or laboratory; (iii) the expected usable life extension of each maintained or repaired asset; and (iv) the capacity increase of each maintained or repaired asset.

(e) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall adopt all rules necessary for the implementation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-991, eff. 1-1-23; revised 8-1-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/29a) (from Ch. 127, par. 165a)

Sec. 29a. The Department of Transportation is authorized to contract with any bank or banks in the State for the payment by such banks for the labor and services of day laborers engaged in State road construction and maintenance work and for emergency purchases in such work. Any such emergency purchase shall not be for an amount in excess of $25.00. Such bank or banks shall be reimbursed out of appropriations made to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act, and shall be paid such reasonable compensation for its services as may be agreed on by the Department and the bank.

Such payments by any bank shall be made only upon the authorization of some employee employe or agent of the Department duly designated by it for this purpose. Such employee employe or agent shall be required to furnish to the Department a bond, to be paid for by the Department, in an amount equal to twice the total of such payments at any one time.

(Source: P.A. 81-840; revised 9-9-22.)

Section 160. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Sections 35-40 and 45-23 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/35-40)

Sec. 35-40. Subcontractors.

(a) Any contract granted under this Article shall state whether the services of a subcontractor will be used. The contract shall include the names and addresses of all subcontractors with an annual value that exceeds the small purchase maximum established by Section 20-20 of this Code, the general type of work to be performed by these subcontractors, and the expected amount of money each will receive under the contract. Upon the request of the chief procurement officer appointed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 10-20, the contractor shall provide the chief procurement officer a copy of a subcontract so identified within 15 calendar days after the request is made. A subcontractor, or contractor on behalf of a subcontractor, may identify information that is deemed proprietary or confidential. If the chief procurement officer determines the information is not relevant to the primary contract, the chief procurement officer may excuse the inclusion of the information. If the chief procurement officer determines the information is proprietary or could harm the business interest of the subcontractor, the chief procurement officer may, in his or her discretion, redact the information. Redacted information shall not become part of the public record.

(b) If at any time during the term of a contract, a contractor adds or changes any subcontractors, he or she shall promptly notify, in writing, the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate, and the responsible State purchasing officer, or their designee of the names and addresses and the expected amount of money each new or replaced subcontractor will receive. Upon request of the chief procurement officer appointed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 10-20, the contractor shall provide the chief procurement officer a copy of any new or amended subcontract so identified within 15 calendar days after the request is made.

(c) In addition to any other requirements of this Code, a subcontract subject to this Section must include all of the subcontractor's certifications required by Article 50 of this Code.

(d) For purposes of this Section, the changes made by Public Act 98-1076 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to procurements solicited on or after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1076) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-721, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-9-22.)

(30 ILCS 500/45-23)

Sec. 45-23. Single-use plastics prohibition; preference.

(a) For the purposes of this Section:

"Compostable" means that the item meets the ASTM D6400 standard of compostability and has been certified by the Biodegradable Products Institute as compostable.

"Compostable foodware" means containers, bowls, straws, plates, trays, cartons, cups, lids, forks, spoons, knives, and other items that are designed for one-time use for beverages, prepared food, or leftovers from meals that are compostable.

"Plastic" means a synthetic material made from linking monomers through a chemical reaction to create an organic polymer chain that can be molded or extruded at high heat into various solid forms retaining their defined shapes during their life cycle and after disposal.

"Recyclable foodware" means items that are designed for one-time use for beverages, prepared food, or leftovers from meals and that are commonly accepted in local curbside residential recycling pickup pick up.

"Single-use plastic disposable foodware" means containers, bowls, straws, plates, trays, cartons, cups, lids, forks, spoons, knives, and other items that are designed for one-time use for beverages, prepared food, or leftovers from meals and that are made of plastic, are not compostable, and are not accepted in residential curbside recycling pickup pick up.

(b) When a State agency or institution of higher education is to award a contract to the lowest responsible bidder, an otherwise qualified bidder who will fulfill the contract through the use of compostable foodware or recyclable foodware may be given preference over other bidders unable to do so; provided that the bid is not more than 5% greater than the cost of products that are single-use plastic disposable foodware. The contract awarded the cost preference in this subsection (b) shall also include the option of providing the State agency or institution of higher education with single-use plastic straws.

(c) After January 1, 2023, State agencies and departments may not procure single-use plastic disposable foodware for use at any State parks or natural areas, and instead shall offer only compostable foodware or recyclable foodware for use at State parks or natural areas.

(d) After January 1, 2024, or at the renewal of its next contract, whichever occurs later, no vendor contracted through a State agency or department may provide customers with single-use plastic disposable foodware at any site located at a State park or a natural area, and instead shall offer only compostable foodware or recyclable foodware for use at State parks or natural areas.

(e) This Section does not apply to the procurement of supplies for the Illinois State Fair.

(Source: P.A. 102-1081, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-16-22.)

Section 165. The Community Behavioral Health Center Infrastructure Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(30 ILCS 732/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Behavioral health center site" means a physical site where a community behavioral health center shall provide behavioral healthcare services linked to a particular Department-contracted community behavioral healthcare provider, from which this provider delivers a Department-funded service and has the following characteristics:

(i) The site must be owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by a Department-funded provider.

(ii) A Department-funded provider may have multiple service sites.

(iii) A Department-funded provider may provide both Medicaid and non-Medicaid services for which they are certified or approved at a certified site.

"Board" means the Capital Development Board.

"Community behavioral healthcare provider" includes, but is not limited to, Department-contracted prevention, intervention, or treatment care providers of services and supports for persons with mental health services, alcohol and substance abuse services, rehabilitation services, and early intervention services provided by a vendor.

For the purposes of this definition, "vendor" includes, but is not limited to, community providers, including community-based organizations that are licensed to provide prevention, intervention, or treatment services and support for persons with mental illness or substance abuse problems in this State, that comply with applicable federal, State, and local rules and statutes, including, but not limited to, the following:

(A) Federal requirements:

(1) Block Grants for Community Mental Health Services, Subpart I & III, Part B, Title XIX, P.H.S. Act/45 CFR C.F.R. Part 96.

(2) Medicaid (42 U.S.C. U.S.C.A. 1396 (1996)).

(3) 42 CFR C.F.R. 440 (Services: General Provision) and 456 (Utilization Control) (1996).

(4) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) as specified in 45 CFR C.F.R. Section 160.310.

(5) The Substance Abuse Prevention Block Grant Regulations (45 CFR C.F.R. Part 96).

(6) Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986 (45 CFR C.F.R. Part 79).

(7) Federal regulations regarding Opioid Maintenance Therapy (21 CFR C.F.R. 29) (21 CFR C.F.R. 1301-1307 (D.E.A.)).

(8) Federal regulations regarding Diagnostic, Screening, Prevention, and Rehabilitation Services (Medicaid) (42 CFR C.F.R. 440.130).

(9) Charitable Choice: Providers that qualify as religious organizations under 42 CFR C.F.R. 54.2(b), who comply with the Charitable Choice Regulations as set forth in 42 CFR C.F.R. 54.1 et seq. with regard to funds provided directly to pay for substance abuse prevention and treatment services.

(B) State requirements:

(1) 59 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 50, Office of Inspector General Investigations of Alleged Abuse or Neglect in State-Operated Facilities and Community Agencies.

(2) (Blank). 59 Ill. Admin. Code 51, Office of Inspector General Adults with Disabilities Project.

(3) 59 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 103, Grants.

(4) 59 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 115, Standards and Licensure Requirements for Community-Integrated Living Arrangements.

(5) 59 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 117, Family Assistance and Home-Based Support Programs for Persons with Mental Disabilities.

(6) 59 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 125, Recipient Discharge/Linkage/Aftercare.

(7) 59 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 131, Children's Mental Health Screening, Assessment and Supportive Services Program.

(8) 59 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 132, Medicaid Community Mental Health Services Program.

(9) (Blank). 59 Ill. Admin. Code 135, Individual Care Grants for Mentally Ill Children.

(10) 89 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 140, Medical Payment.

(11) 89 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 140.642, Screening Assessment for Nursing Facility and Alternative Residential Settings and Services.

(12) 89 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 507, Audit Requirements of Illinois Department of Human Services.

(13) 89 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 509, Fiscal/Administrative Recordkeeping and Requirements.

(14) 89 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 511, Grants and Grant Funds Recovery.

(15) 77 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code, Parts 2030, 2060, and 2090.

(16) Title 77 Illinois Administrative Code:

(a) Part 630: Maternal and Child Health Services Code.

(b) Part 635: Family Planning Services Code.

(c) Part 672: WIC Vendor Management Code.

(d) Part 2030: Award and Monitoring of Funds.

(e) Part 2200: School Based/Linked Health Centers.

(17) Title 89 Illinois Administrative Code:

(a) Section Part 130.200: Administration of Social Service Programs, Domestic Violence Shelter and Service Programs.

(b) Part 310: Delivery of Youth Services Funded by the Department of Human Services.

(c) Part 313: Community Services.

(d) Part 334: Administration and Funding of Community-Based Services to Youth.

(e) Part 500: Early Intervention Program.

(f) Part 501: Partner Abuse Intervention.

(g) Part 507: Audit Requirements of DHS.

(h) Part 509: Fiscal/Administrative Recordkeeping and Requirements.

(i) Part 511: Grants and Grant Funds Recovery.

(18) State statutes:

(a) The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(b) The Community Services Act.

(c) The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(d) The Substance Use Disorder Act.

(e) The Early Intervention Services System Act.

(f) The Children and Family Services Act.

(g) The Illinois Commission on Volunteerism and Community Services Act.

(h) The Department of Human Services Act.

(i) The Domestic Violence Shelters Act.

(j) The Illinois Youthbuild Act.

(k) The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(l) The Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act.

(m) The Child Care Act of 1969.

(n) The Solicitation for Charity Act.

(o) Sections 9-1, 12-4.5 through 12-4.7, and 12-13 of the The Illinois Public Aid Code (305 ILCS 5/9-1, 12-4.5 through 12-4.7, and 12-13).

(p) The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(q) The Charitable Trust Act.

(r) The Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act.

(C) The Provider shall be in compliance with all applicable requirements for services and service reporting as specified in the following Department manuals or handbooks:

(1) DHS/DMH Provider Manual.

(2) DHS Mental Health CSA Program Manual.

(3) DHS/DMH PAS/MH Manual.

(4) Community Forensic Services Handbook.

(5) Community Mental Health Service Definitions and Reimbursement Guide.

(6) DHS/DMH Collaborative Provider Manual.

(7) Handbook for Providers of Screening Assessment and Support Services, Chapter CMH-200 Policy and Procedures For Screening, Assessment and Support Services.

(8) DHS Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery:

(a) Contractual Policy Manual.

(b) Medicaid Handbook.

(c) DARTS Manual.

(9) Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery Best Practice Program Guidelines for Specific Populations.

(10) Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery Contract Program Manual.

"Community behavioral healthcare services" means any of the following:

(i) Behavioral health services, including, but not limited to, prevention, intervention, or treatment care services and support for eligible persons provided by a vendor of the Department.

(ii) Referrals to providers of medical services and other health-related services, including substance abuse and mental health services.

(iii) Patient case management services, including counseling, referral, and follow-up services, and other services designed to assist community behavioral health center patients in establishing eligibility for and gaining access to federal, State, and local programs that provide or financially support the provision of medical, social, educational, or other related services.

(iv) Services that enable individuals to use the services of the behavioral health center including outreach and transportation services and, if a substantial number of the individuals in the population are of limited English-speaking ability, the services of appropriate personnel fluent in the language spoken by a predominant number of those individuals.

(v) Education of patients and the general population served by the community behavioral health center regarding the availability and proper use of behavioral health services.

(vi) Additional behavioral healthcare services consisting of services that are appropriate to meet the health needs of the population served by the behavioral health center involved and that may include housing assistance.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Uninsured population" means persons who do not own private healthcare insurance, are not part of a group insurance plan, and are not eligible for any State or federal government-sponsored healthcare program.

(Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; revised 2-28-22.)

Section 170. The Downstate Public Transportation Act is amended by changing Section 2-7 as follows:

(30 ILCS 740/2-7) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 667)

Sec. 2-7. Quarterly reports; annual audit.

(a) Any Metro-East Transit District participant shall, no later than 60 days following the end of each quarter of any fiscal year, file with the Department on forms provided by the Department for that purpose, a report of the actual operating deficit experienced during that quarter. The Department shall, upon receipt of the quarterly report, determine whether the operating deficits were incurred in conformity with the program of proposed expenditures and services approved by the Department pursuant to Section 2-11. Any Metro-East District may either monthly or quarterly for any fiscal year file a request for the participant's eligible share, as allocated in accordance with Section 2-6, of the amounts transferred into the Metro-East Public Transportation Fund.

(b) Each participant other than any Metro-East Transit District participant shall, 30 days before the end of each quarter, file with the Department on forms provided by the Department for such purposes a report of the projected eligible operating expenses to be incurred in the next quarter and 30 days before the third and fourth quarters of any fiscal year a statement of actual eligible operating expenses incurred in the preceding quarters. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b-5), within 45 days of receipt by the Department of such quarterly report, the Comptroller shall order paid and the Treasurer shall pay from the Downstate Public Transportation Fund to each participant an amount equal to one-third of such participant's eligible operating expenses; provided, however, that in Fiscal Year 1997, the amount paid to each participant from the Downstate Public Transportation Fund shall be an amount equal to 47% of such participant's eligible operating expenses and shall be increased to 49% in Fiscal Year 1998, 51% in Fiscal Year 1999, 53% in Fiscal Year 2000, 55% in Fiscal Years 2001 through 2007, and 65% in Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter; however, in any year that a participant receives funding under subsection (i) of Section 2705-305 of the Department of Transportation Law (20 ILCS 2705/2705-305), that participant shall be eligible only for assistance equal to the following percentage of its eligible operating expenses: 42% in Fiscal Year 1997, 44% in Fiscal Year 1998, 46% in Fiscal Year 1999, 48% in Fiscal Year 2000, and 50% in Fiscal Year 2001 and thereafter. Any such payment for the third and fourth quarters of any fiscal year shall be adjusted to reflect actual eligible operating expenses for preceding quarters of such fiscal year. However, no participant shall receive an amount less than that which was received in the immediate prior year, provided in the event of a shortfall in the fund those participants receiving less than their full allocation pursuant to Section 2-6 of this Article shall be the first participants to receive an amount not less than that received in the immediate prior year.

(b-5) (Blank.).

(b-10) On July 1, 2008, each participant shall receive an appropriation in an amount equal to 65% of its fiscal year 2008 eligible operating expenses adjusted by the annual 10% increase required by Section 2-2.04 of this Act. In no case shall any participant receive an appropriation that is less than its fiscal year 2008 appropriation. Every fiscal year thereafter, each participant's appropriation shall increase by 10% over the appropriation established for the preceding fiscal year as required by Section 2-2.04 of this Act.

(b-15) Beginning on July 1, 2007, and for each fiscal year thereafter, each participant shall maintain a minimum local share contribution (from farebox and all other local revenues) equal to the actual amount provided in Fiscal Year 2006 or, for new recipients, an amount equivalent to the local share provided in the first year of participation. The local share contribution shall be reduced by an amount equal to the total amount of lost revenue for services provided under Section 2-15.2 and Section 2-15.3 of this Act.

(b-20) Any participant in the Downstate Public Transportation Fund may use State operating assistance funding pursuant to this Section to provide transportation services within any county that is contiguous to its territorial boundaries as defined by the Department and subject to Departmental approval. Any such contiguous-area service provided by a participant after July 1, 2007 must meet the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 2-5.1.

(c) No later than 180 days following the last day of the participant's Fiscal Year each participant shall provide the Department with an audit prepared by a Certified Public Accountant covering that Fiscal Year. For those participants other than a Metro-East Transit District, any discrepancy between the funds paid and the percentage of the eligible operating expenses provided for by paragraph (b) of this Section shall be reconciled by appropriate payment or credit. In the case of any Metro-East Transit District, any amount of payments from the Metro-East Public Transportation Fund which exceed the eligible deficit of the participant shall be reconciled by appropriate payment or credit.

(d) Upon the Department's final reconciliation determination that identifies a discrepancy between the Downstate Operating Assistance Program funds paid and the percentage of the eligible operating expenses which results in a reimbursement payment due to the Department, the participant shall remit the reimbursement payment to the Department no later than 90 days after written notification.

(e) Funds received by the Department from participants for reimbursement as a result of an overpayment over payment from a prior State fiscal year shall be deposited into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund in the fiscal year in which they are received and all unspent funds shall roll to following fiscal years.

(f) Upon the Department's final reconciliation determination that identifies a discrepancy between the Downstate Operating Assistance Program funds paid and the percentage of the eligible operating expenses which results in a reimbursement payment due to the participant, the Department shall remit the reimbursement payment to the participant no later than 90 days after written notifications.

(Source: P.A. 102-626, eff. 8-27-21; 102-790, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-9-22.)

Section 175. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Sections 8.45 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.45)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 8.45. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 102-16, 102-63, 102-81, 102-91, 102-97, 102-113, 102-125, 102-202, 102-210, 102-263, 102-265, 102-293, 102-342, 102-540, 102-552, or 102-636, or 102-822.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-63, eff. 7-9-21; 102-81, eff. 7-9-21; 102-91, eff. 7-9-21; 102-97, eff. 1-1-22; 102-113, eff. 7-23-21; 102-125, eff. 7-23-21; 102-202, eff. 7-30-21; 102-210, eff. 1-1-22; 102-263, eff. 8-6-21; 102-265, eff. 8-6-21; 102-293, eff. 8-6-21; 102-342, eff. 8-13-21; 102-540, eff. 8-20-21; 102-552, eff. 1-1-22; 102-636, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-822, eff. 5-13-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 8.45. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 102-16, 102-63, 102-81, 102-91, 102-97, 102-113, 102-125, 102-202, 102-210, 102-263, 102-265, 102-293, 102-342, 102-466, 102-540, 102-552, or 102-636, or 102-822.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-63, eff. 7-9-21; 102-81, eff. 7-9-21; 102-91, eff. 7-9-21; 102-97, eff. 1-1-22; 102-113, eff. 7-23-21; 102-125, eff. 7-23-21; 102-202, eff. 7-30-21; 102-210, eff. 1-1-22; 102-263, eff. 8-6-21; 102-265, eff. 8-6-21; 102-293, eff. 8-6-21; 102-342, eff. 8-13-21; 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; 102-540, eff. 8-20-21; 102-552, eff. 1-1-22; 102-636, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-822, eff. 5-13-22; revised 7-26-22.)

Section 180. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 212.1, 901, and 917 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 232 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/212.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on April 19, 2023)

Sec. 212.1. Individual income tax rebates.

(a) Each taxpayer who files an individual income tax return under this Act, on or before October 17, 2022, for the taxable year that began on January 1, 2021 and whose adjusted gross income for the taxable year is less than (i) $400,000, in the case of spouses filing a joint federal tax return, or (ii) $200,000, in the case of all other taxpayers, is entitled to a one-time rebate under this Section. The amount of the rebate shall be $50 for single filers and $100 for spouses filing a joint return, plus an additional $100 for each person who is claimed as a dependent, up to 3 dependents, on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year that began on January 1, 2021. A taxpayer who files an individual income tax return under this Act for the taxable year that began on January 1, 2021, and who is claimed as a dependent on another individual's return for that year, is ineligible for the rebate provided under this Section. Spouses who qualify for a rebate under this Section and who file a joint return shall be treated as a single taxpayer for the purposes of the rebate under this Section. For a part-year resident, the amount of the rebate under this Section shall be in proportion to the amount of the taxpayer's income that is attributable to this State for the taxable year that began on January 1, 2021. Taxpayers who were non-residents for the taxable year that began on January 1, 2021 are not entitled to a rebate under this Section.

(b) Beginning on July 5, 2022, the Department shall certify to the Comptroller the names of the taxpayers who are eligible for a one-time rebate under this Section, the amounts of those rebates, and any other information that the Comptroller requires to direct the payment of the rebates provided under this Section to taxpayers.

(c) If a taxpayer files an amended return indicating that the taxpayer is entitled to a rebate under this Section that the taxpayer did not receive, or indicating that the taxpayer did not receive the full rebate amount to which the taxpayer is entitled, then the rebate shall be processed in the same manner as a claim for refund under Article 9. If the taxpayer files an amended return indicating that the taxpayer received a rebate under this Section to which the taxpayer is not entitled, then the Department shall issue a notice of deficiency as provided in Article 9.

(d) The Department shall make the rebate payments authorized by this Section from the Income Tax Refund Fund.

(e) The amount of a rebate under this Section shall not be included in the taxpayer's income or resources for the purposes of determining eligibility or benefit level in any means-tested benefit program administered by a governmental entity unless required by federal law.

(f) Nothing in this Section prevents a taxpayer from receiving the earned income tax credit and the rebate under this Section for the same taxable year.

(g) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the rebates shall not be subject to offset by the Comptroller against any liability owed either to the State or to any unit of local government.

(h) The Department shall adopt rules for the implementation of this Section, including emergency rules under Section 5-45.28 5-45.21 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(i) This Section is repealed on April 19, 2023 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-700) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(35 ILCS 5/232)

Sec. 232. Tax credit for agritourism liability insurance.

(a) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2022 and ending on or before December 31, 2023, any individual or entity that operates an agritourism operation in the State during the taxable year shall be entitled to a tax credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 equal to the lesser of 100% of the liability insurance premiums paid by that individual or entity during the taxable year or $1,000. To claim the credit, the taxpayer must apply to the Department of Agriculture for a certificate of credit in the form and manner required by the Department of Agriculture by rule. If granted, the taxpayer shall attach a copy of the certificate of credit to his or her Illinois income tax return for the taxable year. The total amount of credits that may be awarded by the Department of Agriculture may not exceed $1,000,000 in any calendar year.

(b) For the purposes of this Section:

"Agricultural property" means property that is used in whole or in part for production agriculture, as defined in Section 3-35 of the Use Tax Act, or used in connection with one or more of the following:

(1) the growing and harvesting of crops;

(2) the feeding, breeding, and management of livestock;

(3) dairying or any other agricultural or horticultural use or combination of those uses, including, but not limited to, the harvesting of hay, grain, fruit, or truck or vegetable crops, or floriculture, mushroom growing, plant or tree nurseries, orchards, forestry, sod farming, or greenhouses; or

(4) the keeping, raising, and feeding of livestock or poultry, including dairying, poultry, swine, sheep, beef cattle, ponies or horses, fur farming, bees, fish and wildlife farming.

"Agritourism activities" includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(1) historic, cultural, and on-site educational programs;

(2) guided and self-guided tours, including school tours;

(3) animal exhibitions or petting zoos;

(4) agricultural crop mazes, such as corn or flower mazes;

(5) harvest-your-own or U-pick operations;

(6) horseback or pony rides; and

(7) hayrides or sleigh rides.

"Agritourism activities" does not include the following activities:

(1) hunting;

(2) fishing;

(3) amusement rides;

(4) rodeos;

(5) off-road biking or motorized off-highway or all-terrain vehicle activities;

(6) boating, swimming, canoeing, hiking, camping, skiing, bounce houses, or similar activities; or

(7) entertainment venues such as weddings or concerts.

"Agritourism operation" means an individual or entity that carries out agricultural activities on agricultural property and allows members of the general public, for recreational, entertainment, or educational purposes, to view or enjoy those activities.

(c) If the taxpayer is a partnership or Subchapter S corporation, the credit shall be allowed to the partners or shareholders in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

(d) In no event shall a credit under this Section reduce the taxpayer's liability to less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for the year, the excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The tax credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits for more than one year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22.)

(35 ILCS 5/233)

Sec. 233 232. Recovery and Mental Health Tax Credit Act. For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, a taxpayer who has been awarded a credit under the Recovery and Mental Health Tax Credit Act is entitled to a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 as provided in that Act. This Section is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(Source: P.A. 102-1053, eff. 6-10-22; revised 8-3-22.)

(35 ILCS 5/901)

Sec. 901. Collection authority.

(a) In general. The Department shall collect the taxes imposed by this Act. The Department shall collect certified past due child support amounts under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (e), (f), (g), and (h) of this Section, money collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund in the State treasury; money collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury; and money collected under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund, a special fund outside the State Treasury, or to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as directed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(b) Local Government Distributive Fund. Beginning August 1, 2017 and continuing through July 31, 2022, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of: (i) 6.06% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 4.95% individual income tax rate after July 1, 2017) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month; (ii) 6.85% (10% of the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 7% corporate income tax rate after July 1, 2017) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month; and (iii) beginning February 1, 2022, 6.06% of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsection (p) of Section 201 of this Act upon electing pass-through entities. Beginning August 1, 2022, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of: (i) 6.16% of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month; (ii) 6.85% of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month; and (iii) 6.16% of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsection (p) of Section 201 of this Act upon electing pass-through entities. Net revenue realized for a month shall be defined as the revenue from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act which is deposited in the General Revenue Fund, the Education Assistance Fund, the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund, the Fund for the Advancement of Education, and the Commitment to Human Services Fund during the month minus the amount paid out of the General Revenue Fund in State warrants during that same month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability under the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23), those amounts required under this subsection (b) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the Local Government Distributive Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall be directly deposited into the Local Government Distributive Fund as the revenue is realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.

(c) Deposits Into Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.5%. For fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 10%. For fiscal year 2018, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.8%. For fiscal year 2019, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.7%. For fiscal year 2020, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.5%. For fiscal year 2021, the Annual Percentage shall be 9%. For fiscal year 2022, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.25%. For fiscal year 2023, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.25%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, minus the amounts transferred into the Income Tax Refund Fund from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 7.6%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(2) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 13.4%. For fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2018, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2019, the Annual Percentage shall be 15.5%. For fiscal year 2020, the Annual Percentage shall be 14.25%. For fiscal year 2021, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2022, the Annual Percentage shall be 15%. For fiscal year 2023, the Annual Percentage shall be 14.5%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 23%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(3) The Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund (i) $35,000,000 in January, 2001, (ii) $35,000,000 in January, 2002, and (iii) $35,000,000 in January, 2003.

(d) Expenditures from Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning January 1, 1989, money in the Income Tax Refund Fund shall be expended exclusively for the purpose of paying refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act and for making transfers pursuant to this subsection (d), except that in State fiscal years 2022 and 2023, moneys in the Income Tax Refund Fund shall also be used to pay one-time rebate payments as provided under Sections 208.5 and 212.1.

(2) The Director shall order payment of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act from the Income Tax Refund Fund only to the extent that amounts collected pursuant to Section 201 of this Act and transfers pursuant to this subsection (d) and item (3) of subsection (c) have been deposited and retained in the Fund.

(3) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4.5) As soon as possible after the end of fiscal year 1999 and of each fiscal year thereafter, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the General Revenue Fund any surplus remaining in the Income Tax Refund Fund as of the end of such fiscal year; excluding for fiscal years 2000, 2001, and 2002 amounts attributable to transfers under item (3) of subsection (c) less refunds resulting from the earned income tax credit, and excluding for fiscal year 2022 amounts attributable to transfers from the General Revenue Fund authorized by Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(5) This Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation from the Income Tax Refund Fund for the purposes of (i) paying refunds upon the order of the Director in accordance with the provisions of this Section and (ii) paying one-time rebate payments under Sections 208.5 and 212.1.

(e) Deposits into the Education Assistance Fund and the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund. On July 1, 1991, and thereafter, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 7.3% into the Education Assistance Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1991, and continuing through January 31, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 3.0% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning February 1, 1993 and continuing through June 30, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 4.4% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1993, and continuing through June 30, 1994, of the amounts collected under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 1.475% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury.

(f) Deposits into the Fund for the Advancement of Education. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the Fund for the Advancement of Education:

(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February 1, 2025, 1/30; and

(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.

If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act, the Department shall not make the deposits required by this subsection (f) on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(g) Deposits into the Commitment to Human Services Fund. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the Commitment to Human Services Fund:

(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February 1, 2025, 1/30; and

(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.

If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act, the Department shall not make the deposits required by this subsection (g) on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(h) Deposits into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. Beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department from the tax imposed by subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, net of deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund made from those cash receipts.

(Source: P.A. 101-8, see Section 99 for effective date; 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-658, eff. 8-27-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 8-2-22.)

(35 ILCS 5/917) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-917)

Sec. 917. Confidentiality and information sharing.

(a) Confidentiality. Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the Department from returns filed under this Act, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Act, shall be confidential, except for official purposes within the Department or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State tax or pursuant to an investigation or audit by the Illinois State Scholarship Commission of a delinquent student loan or monetary award or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by another statute imposing a State tax, and any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except for such purposes and pursuant to order of the Director or in accordance with a proper judicial order, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. However, the provisions of this paragraph are not applicable to information furnished to (i) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), State's Attorneys, and the Attorney General for child support enforcement purposes and (ii) a licensed attorney representing the taxpayer where an appeal or a protest has been filed on behalf of the taxpayer. If it is necessary to file information obtained pursuant to this Act in a child support enforcement proceeding, the information shall be filed under seal. The furnishing upon request of the Auditor General, or his or her authorized agents, for official use of returns filed and information related thereto under this Act is deemed to be an official purpose within the Department within the meaning of this Section.

(b) Public information. Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director from publishing or making available to the public the names and addresses of persons filing returns under this Act, or from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the tax wherein the contents of returns are grouped into aggregates in such a way that the information contained in any individual return shall not be disclosed.

(c) Governmental agencies. The Director may make available to the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States or his delegate, or the proper officer or his delegate of any other state imposing a tax upon or measured by income, for exclusively official purposes, information received by the Department in the administration of this Act, but such permission shall be granted only if the United States or such other state, as the case may be, grants the Department substantially similar privileges. The Director may exchange information with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, and any other health benefit program administered by the State. The Director may exchange information with the Director of the Department of Employment Security for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act and Acts administered by the Department of Employment Security. The Director may make available to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission information regarding employers for the purpose of verifying the insurance coverage required under the Workers' Compensation Act and Workers' Occupational Diseases Act. The Director may exchange information with the Illinois Department on Aging for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income for purposes directly related to confirming eligibility for participation in the programs of benefits authorized by the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act. The Director may exchange information with the State Treasurer's Office and the Department of Employment Security for the purpose of implementing, administering, and enforcing the Illinois Secure Choice Savings Program Act. The Director may exchange information with the State Treasurer's Office for the purpose of administering the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act or successor Acts. The Director may make information available to the Secretary of State for the purpose of administering Section 5-901 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The Director may exchange information with the State Treasurer's Office for the purpose of administering the Illinois Higher Education Savings Program established under Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act. The Director may make individual income tax information available to the State health benefits exchange, as defined in Section 513, if the disclosure is authorized by the taxpayer pursuant to Section 513.

The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, which licenses persons to engage in any occupation, information that a person licensed by such agency has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest due under this Act. The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, information regarding whether a bidder, contractor, or an affiliate of a bidder or contractor has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty, and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest due under this Act, for the limited purpose of enforcing bidder and contractor certifications. For purposes of this Section, the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (a), an entity controls another entity if it owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (a), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, units of local government, and school districts, information regarding whether a bidder or contractor is an affiliate of a person who is not collecting and remitting Illinois Use taxes, for the limited purpose of enforcing bidder and contractor certifications.

The Director may also make available to the Secretary of State information that a corporation which has been issued a certificate of incorporation by the Secretary of State has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest due under this Act. An assessment is final when all proceedings in court for review of such assessment have terminated or the time for the taking thereof has expired without such proceedings being instituted. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1987, the Director may make available to the Director or principal officer of any Department of the State of Illinois, information that a person employed by such Department has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein. For purposes of this paragraph, the word "Department" shall have the same meaning as provided in Section 3 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

(d) The Director shall make available for public inspection in the Department's principal office and for publication, at cost, administrative decisions issued on or after January 1, 1995. These decisions are to be made available in a manner so that the following taxpayer information is not disclosed:

(1) The names, addresses, and identification numbers of the taxpayer, related entities, and employees.

(2) At the sole discretion of the Director, trade secrets or other confidential information identified as such by the taxpayer, no later than 30 days after receipt of an administrative decision, by such means as the Department shall provide by rule.

The Director shall determine the appropriate extent of the deletions allowed in paragraph (2). In the event the taxpayer does not submit deletions, the Director shall make only the deletions specified in paragraph (1).

The Director shall make available for public inspection and publication an administrative decision within 180 days after the issuance of the administrative decision. The term "administrative decision" has the same meaning as defined in Section 3-101 of Article III of the Code of Civil Procedure. Costs collected under this Section shall be paid into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund.

(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director from divulging information to any person pursuant to a request or authorization made by the taxpayer, by an authorized representative of the taxpayer, or, in the case of information related to a joint return, by the spouse filing the joint return with the taxpayer.

(Source: P.A. 102-61, eff. 7-9-21; 102-129, eff. 7-23-21; 102-799, eff. 5-13-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-941, eff. 7-1-22; revised 8-3-22.)

Section 185. The Historic Preservation Tax Credit Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 31/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Director" means the Director of Natural Resources or his or her designee.

"Division" means the State Historic Preservation Office within the Department of Natural Resources.

"Placed in service" means the date when the property is placed in a condition or state of readiness and availability for a specifically assigned function as defined under Section 47 of the federal Internal Revenue Code and federal Treasury Regulation Sections 1.46 and 1.48.

"Qualified expenditures" means all the costs and expenses defined as qualified rehabilitation expenditures under Section 47 of the federal Internal Revenue Code that were incurred in connection with a qualified rehabilitation plan.

"Qualified historic structure" means any structure that is located in Illinois and is defined as a certified historic structure under Section 47(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code.

"Qualified rehabilitation plan" means a project that is approved by the Department of Natural Resources and the National Park Service as being consistent with the United States Secretary of the Interior's Standards for Rehabilitation.

"Qualified taxpayer" means the owner of the structure or any other person or entity that who may qualify for the federal rehabilitation credit allowed by Section 47 of the federal Internal Revenue Code.

"Recapture event" means any of the following events occurring during the recapture period:

(1) failure to place in service the rehabilitated portions of the qualified historic structure, or failure to maintain the rehabilitated portions of the qualified historic structure in service after they are placed in service; provided that a recapture event under this paragraph (1) shall not include a removal from service for a reasonable period of time to conduct maintenance and repairs that are reasonably necessary to protect the health and safety of the public or to protect the structural integrity of the qualified historic structure or a neighboring structure;

(2) demolition or other alteration of the qualified historic structure in a manner that is inconsistent with the qualified rehabilitation plan or the Secretary of the Interior's Standards for Rehabilitation;

(3) disposition of the rehabilitated qualified historic structure in whole or a proportional disposition of a partnership interest therein, except as otherwise permitted by this Section; or

(4) use of the qualified historic structure in a manner that is inconsistent with the qualified rehabilitation plan or that is otherwise inconsistent with the provisions and intent of this Section.

A recapture event occurring in one taxable year shall be deemed continuing to subsequent taxable years unless and until corrected.

The following dispositions of a qualified historic structure shall not be deemed to be a recapture event for purposes of this Section:

(1) a transfer by reason of death;

(2) a transfer between spouses incident to divorce;

(3) a sale by and leaseback to an entity that, when the rehabilitated portions of the qualified historic structure are placed in service, will be a lessee of the qualified historic structure, but only for so long as the entity continues to be a lessee; and

(4) a mere change in the form of conducting the trade or business by the owner (or, if applicable, the lessee) of the qualified historic structure, so long as the property interest in such qualified historic structure is retained in such trade or business and the owner or lessee retains a substantial interest in such trade or business.

"Recapture period" means the 5-year period beginning on the date that the qualified historic structure or rehabilitated portions of the qualified historic structure are placed in service.

(Source: P.A. 102-741, eff. 5-6-22; revised 9-8-22.)

Section 190. The Invest in Kids Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(35 ILCS 40/40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 40. Scholarship granting organization responsibilities.

(a) Before granting a scholarship for an academic year, all scholarship granting organizations shall assess and document each student's eligibility for the academic year.

(b) A scholarship granting organization shall grant scholarships only to eligible students.

(c) A scholarship granting organization shall allow an eligible student to attend any qualified school of the student's choosing, subject to the availability of funds.

(d) In granting scholarships, beginning in the 2022-2023 school year and for each school year thereafter, a scholarship granting organization shall give priority to eligible students who received a scholarship from a scholarship granting organization during the previous school year. Second priority shall be given to the following priority groups:

(1) (blank);

(2) eligible students who are members of a household whose previous year's total annual income does not exceed 185% of the federal poverty level;

(3) eligible students who reside within a focus district; and

(4) eligible students who are siblings of students currently receiving a scholarship.

(d-5) A scholarship granting organization shall begin granting scholarships no later than February 1 preceding the school year for which the scholarship is sought. Each priority group identified in subsection (d) of this Section shall be eligible to receive scholarships on a first-come, first-served basis until April 1 immediately preceding the school year for which the scholarship is sought, starting with the first priority group identified in subsection (d) of this Section. Applications for scholarships for eligible students meeting the qualifications of one or more priority groups that are received before April 1 must be either approved or denied within 10 business days after receipt. Beginning April 1, all eligible students shall be eligible to receive scholarships without regard to the priority groups identified in subsection (d) of this Section.

(e) Except as provided in subsection (e-5) of this Section, scholarships shall not exceed the lesser of (i) the statewide average operational expense per student among public schools or (ii) the necessary costs and fees for attendance at the qualified school. A qualified school may set a lower maximum scholarship amount for eligible students whose family income falls within paragraphs (2) and (3) of this subsection (e); that amount may not exceed the necessary costs and fees for attendance at the qualified school and is subject to the limitations on average scholarship amounts set forth in paragraphs (2) and (3) of this subsection, as applicable. The qualified school shall notify the scholarship granting organization of its necessary costs and fees as well as any maximum scholarship amount set by the school. Scholarships shall be prorated as follows:

(1) for eligible students whose household income is less than 185% of the federal poverty level, the scholarship shall be 100% of the amount determined pursuant to this subsection (e) and subsection (e-5) of this Section;

(2) for eligible students whose household income is 185% or more of the federal poverty level but less than 250% of the federal poverty level, the average of scholarships shall be 75% of the amount determined pursuant to this subsection (e) and subsection (e-5) of this Section; and

(3) for eligible students whose household income is 250% or more of the federal poverty level, the average of scholarships shall be 50% of the amount determined pursuant to this subsection (e) and subsection (e-5) of this Section.

(e-5) The statewide average operational expense per student among public schools shall be multiplied by the following factors:

(1) for students determined eligible to receive services under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, 2;

(2) for students who are English learners, as defined in subsection (d) of Section 14C-2 of the School Code, 1.2; and

(3) for students who are gifted and talented children, as defined in Section 14A-20 of the School Code, 1.1.

(f) A scholarship granting organization shall distribute scholarship payments to the participating school where the student is enrolled.

(g) For the 2018-2019 school year through the 2022-2023 school year, each scholarship granting organization shall expend no less than 75% of the qualified contributions received during the calendar year in which the qualified contributions were received. No more than 25% of the qualified contributions may be carried forward to the following calendar year.

(h) For the 2023-2024 school year, each scholarship granting organization shall expend all qualified contributions received during the calendar year in which the qualified contributions were received. No qualified contributions may be carried forward to the following calendar year.

(i) A scholarship granting organization shall allow an eligible student to transfer a scholarship during a school year to any other participating school of the custodian's choice. Such scholarships shall be prorated.

(j) With the prior approval of the Department, a scholarship granting organization may transfer funds to another scholarship granting organization if additional funds are required to meet scholarship demands at the receiving scholarship granting organization. All transferred funds must be deposited by the receiving scholarship granting organization into its scholarship accounts. All transferred amounts received by any scholarship granting organization must be separately disclosed to the Department.

(k) If the approval of a scholarship granting organization is revoked as provided in Section 20 of this Act or the scholarship granting organization is dissolved, all remaining qualified contributions of the scholarship granting organization shall be transferred to another scholarship granting organization. All transferred funds must be deposited by the receiving scholarship granting organization into its scholarship accounts.

(l) Scholarship granting organizations shall make reasonable efforts to advertise the availability of scholarships to eligible students.

(Source: P.A. 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1059, eff. 6-10-22; revised 8-3-22.)

Section 195. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5, 3-10, and 9 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (18).

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (18) includes production related tangible personal property, as defined in Section 3-50, purchased on or after July 1, 2019. The exemption provided by this paragraph (18) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (18) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (6) of this Section.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item (21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(31) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise, whether for-hire or not.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2024, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (35) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (35) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(36) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(37) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(38) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(39) Tangible personal property purchased by a purchaser who is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(40) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 been in effect may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (40) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (40):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated in to the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (40) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(41) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (41) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90. As used in this item (41):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(42) (41) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (42) (41) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(Source: P.A. 101-9, eff. 6-5-19; 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-629, eff. 2-5-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; revised 8-1-22.)

(35 ILCS 105/3-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of either the selling price or the fair market value, if any, of the tangible personal property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is the same as the property that was purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the selling price of the property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is a by-product or waste product that has been refined, manufactured, or produced from property purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the lower of the fair market value, if any, of the specific property so used in this State or on the selling price of the property purchased at retail. For purposes of this Section "fair market value" means the price at which property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or sell and both having reasonable knowledge of the relevant facts. The fair market value shall be established by Illinois sales by the taxpayer of the same property as that functionally used or consumed, or if there are no such sales by the taxpayer, then comparable sales or purchases of property of like kind and character in Illinois.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, and beginning again on August 5, 2022 through August 14, 2022, with respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 3-6 of this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2024. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to biodiesel and biodiesel blends with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1.

Until July 1, 2022 and beginning again on July 1, 2023, with respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. Beginning on July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, with respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), the tax is imposed at the rate of 0%.

With respect to prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, blood sugar testing materials, syringes, and needles used by human diabetics, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including, but not limited to, soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 CFR C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) a A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) a A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

If the property that is purchased at retail from a retailer is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-700, Article 20, Section 20-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 65, Section 65-5, eff. 4-19-22; revised 5-27-22.)

(35 ILCS 105/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.9)

Sec. 9. Except as to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, each retailer required or authorized to collect the tax imposed by this Act shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax (except as otherwise provided) at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collected, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990, and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. When determining the discount allowed under this Section, retailers shall include the amount of tax that would have been due at the 6.25% rate but for the 1.25% rate imposed on sales tax holiday items under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. The discount under this Section is not allowed for the 1.25% portion of taxes paid on aviation fuel that is subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133. When determining the discount allowed under this Section, retailers shall include the amount of tax that would have been due at the 1% rate but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final. A retailer need not remit that part of any tax collected by him to the extent that he is required to remit and does remit the tax imposed by the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, with respect to the sale of the same property.

Where such tangible personal property is sold under a conditional sales contract, or under any other form of sale wherein the payment of the principal sum, or a part thereof, is extended beyond the close of the period for which the return is filed, the retailer, in collecting the tax (except as to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State), may collect for each tax return period, only the tax applicable to that part of the selling price actually received during such tax return period.

Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such retailer shall file a return for the preceding calendar month. Such return shall be filed on forms prescribed by the Department and shall furnish such information as the Department may reasonably require. The return shall include the gross receipts on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) which were received during the preceding calendar month, quarter, or year, as appropriate, and upon which tax would have been due but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. The return shall also include the amount of tax that would have been due on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

On and after January 1, 2018, except for returns required to be filed prior to January 1, 2023 for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. On and after January 1, 2023, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act, including, but not limited to, returns for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be filed electronically. Retailers who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Each retailer required or authorized to collect the tax imposed by this Act on aviation fuel sold at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall, instead of reporting and paying tax on aviation fuel as otherwise required by this Section, report and pay such tax on a separate aviation fuel tax return. The requirements related to the return shall be as otherwise provided in this Section. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, retailers collecting tax on aviation fuel shall file all aviation fuel tax returns and shall make all aviation fuel tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department. For purposes of this Section, "aviation fuel" means jet fuel and aviation gasoline.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, retailers subject to tax on cannabis shall file all cannabis tax returns and shall make all cannabis tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985, and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. Quarter monthly payment status shall be determined under this paragraph as if the rate reduction to 1.25% in Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly on sales tax holiday items had not occurred. For quarter monthly payments due on or after July 1, 2023 and through June 30, 2024, "25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year" shall be determined as if the rate reduction to 1.25% in Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly on sales tax holiday items had not occurred. Quarter monthly payment status shall be determined under this paragraph as if the rate reduction to 0% in Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) had not occurred. For quarter monthly payments due under this paragraph on or after July 1, 2023 and through June 30, 2024, "25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year" shall be determined as if the rate reduction to 0% in Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly had not occurred. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

If any such payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown by an original monthly return, the Department shall issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment, which memorandum may be submitted by the taxpayer to the Department in payment of tax liability subsequently to be remitted by the taxpayer to the Department or be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department, except that if such excess payment is shown on an original monthly return and is made after December 31, 1986, no credit memorandum shall be issued, unless requested by the taxpayer. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted by the taxpayer to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determines that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% or 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February, and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, except as otherwise provided in this Section, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 3-55 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all the aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every person who is engaged in the business of leasing or renting such items and who, in connection with such business, sells any such item to a retailer for the purpose of resale is, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, authorized to meet the return-filing requirement of this Act by reporting the transfer of all the aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transferred for resale during a month to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form on or before the 20th of the month following the month in which the transfer takes place. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, all returns filed under this paragraph must be filed by electronic means in the manner and form as required by the Department.

The transaction reporting return in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft and aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the date of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the tax that is imposed by this Act may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer, and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Where a retailer collects the tax with respect to the selling price of tangible personal property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such tangible personal property and the retailer refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such retailer shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the retailer may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other use tax which such retailer may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, if the amount of the tax to be deducted was previously remitted to the Department by such retailer. If the retailer has not previously remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he is entitled to no deduction under this Act upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

Any retailer filing a return under this Section shall also include (for the purpose of paying tax thereon) the total tax covered by such return upon the selling price of tangible personal property purchased by him at retail from a retailer, but as to which the tax imposed by this Act was not collected from the retailer filing such return, and such retailer shall remit the amount of such tax to the Department when filing such return.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable retailers, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by both Acts on the one form.

Where the retailer has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registration under this Act, such retailer may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax imposed under this Act.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury, 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property, other than (i) tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government and (ii) aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019. This exception for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

For aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, each month the Department shall pay into the State Aviation Program Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of aviation fuel, less an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 20% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act, which amount shall be deposited into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall only pay moneys into the State Aviation Program Fund and the Aviation Fuels Sales Tax Refund Fund under this Act for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. If, in any month, the tax on sales tax holiday items, as defined in Section 3-6, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the Department shall pay 100% of the net revenue realized for that month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total payment into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund under this Act and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Capital Projects Fund, the Clean Air Act Permit Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, for aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, the Department shall each month deposit into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 80% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act. The Department shall only deposit moneys into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this paragraph for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Subject to payments of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, beginning on July 1, 2018 the Department shall pay each month into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund the moneys required to be so paid under Section 2-3 of the Downstate Public Transportation Act.

Subject to successful execution and delivery of a public-private agreement between the public agency and private entity and completion of the civic build, beginning on July 1, 2023, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, the Department shall deposit the following specified deposits in the aggregate from collections under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, as required under Section 8.25g of the State Finance Act for distribution consistent with the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Civic and Transit Infrastructure Fund are subject to the pledge, claim, and charge set forth in Section 25-55 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. As used in this paragraph, "civic build", "private entity", "public-private agreement", and "public agency" have the meanings provided in Section 25-10 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act.

Fiscal Year............................Total Deposit

2024....................................$200,000,000

2025....................................$206,000,000

2026....................................$212,200,000

2027....................................$218,500,000

2028....................................$225,100,000

2029....................................$288,700,000

2030....................................$298,900,000

2031....................................$309,300,000

2032....................................$320,100,000

2033....................................$331,200,000

2034....................................$341,200,000

2035....................................$351,400,000

2036....................................$361,900,000

2037....................................$372,800,000

2038....................................$384,000,000

2039....................................$395,500,000

2040....................................$407,400,000

2041....................................$419,600,000

2042....................................$432,200,000

2043....................................$445,100,000

Beginning July 1, 2021 and until July 1, 2022, subject to the payment of amounts into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 16% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, subject to the payment of amounts into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 32% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2023 and until July 1, 2024, subject to the payment of amounts into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 48% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2024 and until July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 64% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning on July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 80% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. As used in this paragraph "motor fuel" has the meaning given to that term in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and "gasohol" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3-40 of this Act.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, Article 15, Section 15-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-10, Article 25, Section 25-105, eff. 6-5-19; 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-32, eff. 6-28-19; 101-604, eff. 12-13-19; 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 65, Section 65-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1019, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-13-22.)

Section 200. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under Section 2 of this Act.

(6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item (14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(24) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(25) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2024, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property transferred incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (27) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (27) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(28) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(30) Tangible personal property transferred to a purchaser who is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(31) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly been in effect, may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (31) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (31):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated in to the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (31) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(32) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (32) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75. As used in this item (32):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(33) (32) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (33) (32) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-629, eff. 2-5-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; revised 8-3-22.)

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2024. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

Until July 1, 2022 and beginning again on July 1, 2023, the tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. Until July 1, 2022 and beginning again on July 1, 2023, the tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph).

Beginning on July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, the tax shall be imposed at the rate of 0% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. Beginning on July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, the tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 0% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph).

The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, blood sugar testing materials, syringes, and needles used by human diabetics. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including, but not limited to, soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 CFR C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) a A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) a A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 20, Section 20-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-20, eff. 4-19-22; revised 6-1-22.)

Section 205. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. The following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by any not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under Section 2 of this Act.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(13) Beginning January 1, 1992 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(14) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(15) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (15) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55, and the exemption provided for under this item (15) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(16) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(17) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(19) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(20) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(21) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(23) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(24) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(25) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(26) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (26). The permit issued under this paragraph (26) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(28) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2024, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the transfer of qualifying tangible personal property incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of an aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (29) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (29) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(31) Tangible personal property transferred to a purchaser who is exempt from tax by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(32) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly been in effect, may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (32) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (32):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated in to the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (32) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(33) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (33) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55. As used in this item (33):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(34) (33) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (34) (33) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-629, eff. 2-5-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; revised 8-9-22.)

(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the cost price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2024. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

Until July 1, 2022 and beginning again on July 1, 2023, the tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Use Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. Until July 1, 2022 and beginning again on July 1, 2023, the tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph).

Beginning on July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, the tax shall be imposed at the rate of 0% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Use Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. Beginning July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, the tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 0% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph).

The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, blood sugar testing materials, syringes, and needles used by human diabetics. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including, but not limited to, soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 CFR C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) a A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) a A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 20, Section 20-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-25, eff. 4-19-22; revised 6-1-22.)

Section 210. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2-5, 2-10, and 3 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-5)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (2) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (14).

(5) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) (Blank).

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (14) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (14) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (4) of this Section.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Tangible personal property sold to a purchaser if the purchaser is exempt from use tax by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(22) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois. The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state that does not allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from this state following the filing of an intent to title the vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30 days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general rate imposed under this Act.

(25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after the later of either the issuance of the final billing for the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for return to service, completion of the maintenance record entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test for inspection, as required by 14 CFR C.F.R. 91.407;

(2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this State after the sale of the aircraft; and

(3) the seller retains in his or her books and records and provides to the Department a signed and dated certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, certifying that the requirements of this item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the name and address of the purchaser, the address of the location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered, the address of the primary physical location of the aircraft, and other information that the Department may reasonably require.

For purposes of this item (25-7):

"Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.

"Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division, or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation Administration to an address located in this State.

This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item (27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(40) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2024, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the sale of qualifying tangible personal property to persons who modify, refurbish, complete, replace, or maintain an aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (40) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (40) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(41) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(42) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(43) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(44) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly been in effect, may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (44) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (44):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated into the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (44) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(45) Beginning January 1, 2020 and through December 31, 2020, sales of tangible personal property made by a marketplace seller over a marketplace for which tax is due under this Act but for which use tax has been collected and remitted to the Department by a marketplace facilitator under Section 2d of the Use Tax Act are exempt from tax under this Act. A marketplace seller claiming this exemption shall maintain books and records demonstrating that the use tax on such sales has been collected and remitted by a marketplace facilitator. Marketplace sellers that have properly remitted tax under this Act on such sales may file a claim for credit as provided in Section 6 of this Act. No claim is allowed, however, for such taxes for which a credit or refund has been issued to the marketplace facilitator under the Use Tax Act, or for which the marketplace facilitator has filed a claim for credit or refund under the Use Tax Act.

(46) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (46) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70. As used in this item (46):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(47) (46) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (47) (46) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-629, eff. 2-5-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-634, eff. 8-27-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-20, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-20, eff. 4-19-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; revised 8-15-22.)

(35 ILCS 120/2-10)

Sec. 2-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property made in the course of business.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, and beginning again on August 5, 2022 through August 14, 2022, with respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 2-8 of this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Within 14 days after July 1, 2000 (the effective date of Public Act 91-872) this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, each retailer of motor fuel and gasohol shall cause the following notice to be posted in a prominently visible place on each retail dispensing device that is used to dispense motor fuel or gasohol in the State of Illinois: "As of July 1, 2000, the State of Illinois has eliminated the State's share of sales tax on motor fuel and gasohol through December 31, 2000. The price on this pump should reflect the elimination of the tax." The notice shall be printed in bold print on a sign that is no smaller than 4 inches by 8 inches. The sign shall be clearly visible to customers. Any retailer who fails to post or maintain a required sign through December 31, 2000 is guilty of a petty offense for which the fine shall be $500 per day per each retail premises where a violation occurs.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2024. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act.

Until July 1, 2022 and beginning again on July 1, 2023, with respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. Beginning July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, with respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), the tax is imposed at the rate of 0%.

With respect to prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, blood sugar testing materials, syringes, and needles used by human diabetics, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including, but not limited to, soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 CFR C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) a A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) a A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-700, Article 20, Section 20-20, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-30, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 65, Section 65-10, eff. 4-19-22; revised 6-1-22.)

(35 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 120, par. 442)

Sec. 3. Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, every person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. His residence address and the address of his principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. Total amount of receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter, as the case may be, from sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him during such preceding calendar month or quarter;

4. Total amount received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter on charge and time sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him prior to the month or quarter for which the return is filed;

5. Deductions allowed by law;

6. Gross receipts which were received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed, including gross receipts on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) which were received during the preceding calendar month or quarter and upon which tax would have been due but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly;

7. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

8. The amount of tax due, including the amount of tax that would have been due on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly;

9. The signature of the taxpayer; and

10. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

On and after January 1, 2018, except for returns required to be filed prior to January 1, 2023 for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. On and after January 1, 2023, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act, including, but not limited to, returns for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be filed electronically. Retailers who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Each return shall be accompanied by the statement of prepaid tax issued pursuant to Section 2e for which credit is claimed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004 a retailer may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Use Tax as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted by a retailer prior to October 1, 2003 and on and after September 1, 2004 as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act, may be used by that retailer to satisfy Retailers' Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Every person engaged in the business of selling aviation fuel at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall, instead of reporting and paying tax as otherwise required by this Section, report and pay such tax on a separate aviation fuel tax return. The requirements related to the return shall be as otherwise provided in this Section. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, retailers selling aviation fuel shall file all aviation fuel tax returns and shall make all aviation fuel tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department. For purposes of this Section, "aviation fuel" means jet fuel and aviation gasoline.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, any person who is not a licensed distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer, as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, but is engaged in the business of selling, at retail, alcoholic liquor shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, in a format and at a time prescribed by the Department, showing the total amount paid for alcoholic liquor purchased during the preceding month and such other information as is reasonably required by the Department. The Department may adopt rules to require that this statement be filed in an electronic or telephonic format. Such rules may provide for exceptions from the filing requirements of this paragraph. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term "alcoholic liquor" shall have the meaning prescribed in the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, every distributor, importing distributor, and manufacturer of alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which transactions occurred, by electronic means, showing the total amount of gross receipts from the sale of alcoholic liquor sold or distributed during the preceding month to purchasers; identifying the purchaser to whom it was sold or distributed; the purchaser's tax registration number; and such other information reasonably required by the Department. A distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer of alcoholic liquor must personally deliver, mail, or provide by electronic means to each retailer listed on the monthly statement a report containing a cumulative total of that distributor's, importing distributor's, or manufacturer's total sales of alcoholic liquor to that retailer no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which the transaction occurred. The distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall notify the retailer as to the method by which the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer will provide the sales information. If the retailer is unable to receive the sales information by electronic means, the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall furnish the sales information by personal delivery or by mail. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "electronic means" includes, but is not limited to, the use of a secure Internet website, e-mail, or facsimile.

If a total amount of less than $1 is payable, refundable or creditable, such amount shall be disregarded if it is less than 50 cents and shall be increased to $1 if it is 50 cents or more.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, retailers subject to tax on cannabis shall file all cannabis tax returns and shall make all cannabis tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Any amount which is required to be shown or reported on any return or other document under this Act shall, if such amount is not a whole-dollar amount, be increased to the nearest whole-dollar amount in any case where the fractional part of a dollar is 50 cents or more, and decreased to the nearest whole-dollar amount where the fractional part of a dollar is less than 50 cents.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability with the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

Where the same person has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations under this Act, such person may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, except as otherwise provided in this Section, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle retailer or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 2-5 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every person who is engaged in the business of leasing or renting such items and who, in connection with such business, sells any such item to a retailer for the purpose of resale is, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, authorized to meet the return-filing requirement of this Act by reporting the transfer of all the aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transferred for resale during a month to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form on or before the 20th of the month following the month in which the transfer takes place. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, all returns filed under this paragraph must be filed by electronic means in the manner and form as required by the Department.

Any retailer who sells only motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, so that all retailers' occupation tax liability is required to be reported, and is reported, on such transaction reporting returns and who is not otherwise required to file monthly or quarterly returns, need not file monthly or quarterly returns. However, those retailers shall be required to file returns on an annual basis.

The transaction reporting return, in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft or aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the day of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the Illinois use tax may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a use tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of the tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Refunds made by the seller during the preceding return period to purchasers, on account of tangible personal property returned to the seller, shall be allowed as a deduction under subdivision 5 of his monthly or quarterly return, as the case may be, in case the seller had theretofore included the receipts from the sale of such tangible personal property in a return filed by him and had paid the tax imposed by this Act with respect to such receipts.

Where the seller is a corporation, the return filed on behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president, vice-president, secretary or treasurer or by the properly accredited agent of such corporation.

Where the seller is a limited liability company, the return filed on behalf of the limited liability company shall be signed by a manager, member, or properly accredited agent of the limited liability company.

Except as provided in this Section, the retailer filing the return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. On and after January 1, 2021, a certified service provider, as defined in the Leveling the Playing Field for Illinois Retail Act, filing the return under this Section on behalf of a remote retailer shall, at the time of such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 1.75%. A remote retailer using a certified service provider to file a return on its behalf, as provided in the Leveling the Playing Field for Illinois Retail Act, is not eligible for the discount. When determining the discount allowed under this Section, retailers shall include the amount of tax that would have been due at the 1% rate but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. When determining the discount allowed under this Section, retailers shall include the amount of tax that would have been due at the 6.25% rate but for the 1.25% rate imposed on sales tax holiday items under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. The discount under this Section is not allowed for the 1.25% portion of taxes paid on aviation fuel that is subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133. Any prepayment made pursuant to Section 2d of this Act shall be included in the amount on which such 2.1% or 1.75% discount is computed. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985 and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987 and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $10,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $20,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. Quarter monthly payment status shall be determined under this paragraph as if the rate reduction to 0% in Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) had not occurred. For quarter monthly payments due under this paragraph on or after July 1, 2023 and through June 30, 2024, "25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year" shall be determined as if the rate reduction to 0% in Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly had not occurred. Quarter monthly payment status shall be determined under this paragraph as if the rate reduction to 1.25% in Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly on sales tax holiday items had not occurred. For quarter monthly payments due on or after July 1, 2023 and through June 30, 2024, "25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year" shall be determined as if the rate reduction to 1.25% in Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly on sales tax holiday items had not occurred. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

The provisions of this paragraph apply before October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes which average in excess of $25,000 per month during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters, shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to September 1, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 84-221), each payment shall be in an amount not less than 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability under Section 2d. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1986, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding calendar year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters is $25,000 or less. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

The provisions of this paragraph apply on and after October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes that average in excess of $20,000 per month during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which the liability is incurred. Each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of the quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until the taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarters is less than $20,000. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown on an original monthly return, the Department shall, if requested by the taxpayer, issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment. The credit evidenced by such credit memorandum may be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determined that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% and 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and that taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If a retailer of motor fuel is entitled to a credit under Section 2d of this Act which exceeds the taxpayer's liability to the Department under this Act for the month for which the taxpayer is filing a return, the Department shall issue the taxpayer a credit memorandum for the excess.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax imposed under this Act.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate other than aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019. This exception for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. If, in any month, the tax on sales tax holiday items, as defined in Section 2-8, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the Department shall pay 20% of the net revenue realized for that month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items into the County and Mass Transit District Fund.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property other than aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019. This exception for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

For aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, each month the Department shall pay into the State Aviation Program Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of aviation fuel, less an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 20% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act, which amount shall be deposited into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall only pay moneys into the State Aviation Program Fund and the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this Act for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. If, in any month, the tax on sales tax holiday items, as defined in Section 2-8, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the Department shall pay 80% of the net revenue realized for that month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items into the Local Government Tax Fund.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total payment into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund under this Act and the Use Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as hereinafter defined), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; the "Annual Specified Amount" means the amounts specified below for fiscal years 1986 through 1993: and means the Certified Annual Debt Service Requirement (as defined in Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act) or the Tax Act Amount, whichever is greater, for fiscal year 1994 and each fiscal year thereafter; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year. The amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under clause (b) of the first sentence in this paragraph shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the first sentence of this paragraph and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to that clause (b). The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Capital Projects Fund, the Clean Air Act Permit Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, for aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, the Department shall each month deposit into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 80% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act. The Department shall only deposit moneys into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this paragraph for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Subject to payments of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, beginning on July 1, 2018 the Department shall pay each month into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund the moneys required to be so paid under Section 2-3 of the Downstate Public Transportation Act.

Subject to successful execution and delivery of a public-private agreement between the public agency and private entity and completion of the civic build, beginning on July 1, 2023, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, the Department shall deposit the following specified deposits in the aggregate from collections under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, as required under Section 8.25g of the State Finance Act for distribution consistent with the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Civic and Transit Infrastructure Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 25-55 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. As used in this paragraph, "civic build", "private entity", "public-private agreement", and "public agency" have the meanings provided in Section 25-10 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act.

Fiscal Year.............................Total Deposit

2024.....................................$200,000,000

2025....................................$206,000,000

2026....................................$212,200,000

2027....................................$218,500,000

2028....................................$225,100,000

2029....................................$288,700,000

2030....................................$298,900,000

2031....................................$309,300,000

2032....................................$320,100,000

2033....................................$331,200,000

2034....................................$341,200,000

2035....................................$351,400,000

2036....................................$361,900,000

2037....................................$372,800,000

2038....................................$384,000,000

2039....................................$395,500,000

2040....................................$407,400,000

2041....................................$419,600,000

2042....................................$432,200,000

2043....................................$445,100,000

Beginning July 1, 2021 and until July 1, 2022, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 16% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 32% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2023 and until July 1, 2024, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 48% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2024 and until July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 64% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning on July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 80% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. As used in this paragraph "motor fuel" has the meaning given to that term in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and "gasohol" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State treasury Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the retailer's last Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the retailer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The retailer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the retailer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, costs of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the retailer during such year, payroll information of the retailer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such retailer as provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The provisions of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return do not apply to a retailer who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

Any person who promotes, organizes, provides retail selling space for concessionaires or other types of sellers at the Illinois State Fair, DuQuoin State Fair, county fairs, local fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, including any transient merchant as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, is required to file a report with the Department providing the name of the merchant's business, the name of the person or persons engaged in merchant's business, the permanent address and Illinois Retailers Occupation Tax Registration Number of the merchant, the dates and location of the event and other reasonable information that the Department may require. The report must be filed not later than the 20th day of the month next following the month during which the event with retail sales was held. Any person who fails to file a report required by this Section commits a business offense and is subject to a fine not to exceed $250.

Any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail as a concessionaire or other type of seller at the Illinois State Fair, county fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, or any transient merchants, as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, may be required to make a daily report of the amount of such sales to the Department and to make a daily payment of the full amount of tax due. The Department shall impose this requirement when it finds that there is a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State at such an exhibition or event. Such a finding shall be based on evidence that a substantial number of concessionaires or other sellers who are not residents of Illinois will be engaging in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail at the exhibition or event, or other evidence of a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State. The Department shall notify concessionaires and other sellers affected by the imposition of this requirement. In the absence of notification by the Department, the concessionaires and other sellers shall file their returns as otherwise required in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, Article 15, Section 15-25, eff. 6-5-19; 101-10, Article 25, Section 25-120, eff. 6-5-19; 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-32, eff. 6-28-19; 101-604, eff. 12-13-19; 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-634, eff. 8-27-21; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-30, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 65, Section 65-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1019, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-13-22.)

Section 215. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 10-390, 10-800, 15-168, 15-169, 18-185, 18-190.7, 22-10, and 22-25 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/10-390)

Sec. 10-390. Valuation of supportive living facilities.

(a) Notwithstanding Section 1-55, to determine the fair cash value of any supportive living facility established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, in assessing the facility, a local assessment officer must use the income capitalization approach. For the purposes of this Section, gross potential income must not exceed the maximum individual Supplemental Security Income (SSI) amount, minus a resident's personal allowance as defined at 89 Ill. Adm. Ill Admin. Code 146.205, multiplied by the number of apartments authorized by the supportive living facility certification.

(b) When assessing supportive living facilities, the local assessment officer may not consider:

(1) payments from Medicaid for services provided to residents of supportive living facilities when such payments constitute income that is attributable to services and not attributable to the real estate; or

(2) payments by a resident of a supportive living facility for services that would be paid by Medicaid if the resident were Medicaid-eligible, when such payments constitute income that is attributable to services and not attributable to real estate.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 2-28-22.)

(35 ILCS 200/10-800)

Sec. 10-800. Southland reactivation property.

(a) For the purposes of this Section:

"Base year" means the last tax year prior to the date of the application for southland reactivation designation during which the property was occupied and assessed and had an equalized assessed value.

"Cook County Land Bank Authority" means the Cook County Land Bank Authority created by ordinance of the Cook County Board.

"Municipality" means a city, village, or incorporated town located in the State.

"Participating entity" means any of the following, either collectively or individually: the municipality in which the property is located; the South Suburban Land Bank and Development Authority; or the Cook County Land Bank Development Authority.

"Southland reactivation property" means property that:

(1) has been designated by the municipality by resolution as a priority tax reactivation parcel, site, or property due to its clear pattern of stagnation and depressed condition or the decline in its assessed valuation;

(2) is held by a participating entity; and

(3) meets all of the following criteria:

(A) the property is zoned for commercial or industrial use;

(B) the property has had its past property taxes cleared and is now classified as exempt, or the property has not had a lawful occupant for at least 12 months immediately preceding the application for certification as southland reactivation property, as attested to by a supporting affidavit;

(C) the sale or transfer of the property, following southland reactivation designation, to a developer would result in investment which would result a higher assessed value;

(D) the property will be sold by a participating entity to a buyer of property that has been approved by the corporate authorities of the municipality or to a developer that has been approved by the corporate authorities of the municipality whose redevelopment of the parcel, site, or property would reverse long-standing divestment in the area, enhance inclusive economic growth, create jobs or career pathways, support equitable recovery of the community, and stabilize the tax base through investments that align with local government plans and priorities;

(E) an application for southland reactivation designation is filed with the participating entity and a resolution designating the property as southland reactivation property is passed by the municipality prior to the sale, rehabilitation, or reoccupation;

(F) if not for the southland reactivation designation, development or redevelopment of the property would not occur; and

(G) the property is located in any of the following Townships in Cook County: Bloom, Bremen, Calumet, Rich, Thornton, or Worth.

"South Suburban Land Bank and Development Authority" means the South Suburban Land Bank and Development Authority created in 2012 by intergovernmental agreement.

"Tax year" means the calendar year for which assessed value is determined as of January 1 of that year.

(b) Within 5 years after May 27, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1010) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, purchasers of real property from any of the participating entities may apply to that entity to have the property certified as southland reactivation property if the property meets the criteria for southland reactivation property set forth in subsection (a). The participating entity has 5 years from May 27, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1010) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly within which it may certify the property as southland reactivation property for the purposes of promoting rehabilitation of abandoned, vacant, or underutilized property to attract and enhance economic activities and investment that stabilize, restore, and grow the tax base in severely blighted areas within Chicago's south suburbs. This certification is nonrenewable and shall be transmitted by the municipality, or by the participating entity on behalf of the municipality, to the chief county assessment officer as soon as possible after the property is certified. Southland reactivation designation is limited to the original applicant unless expressly approved by the corporate authorities of the municipality and the property has no change in use.

Support by the corporate authorities of the municipality for southland reactivation designation shall be considered in a lawful public meeting, and impacted taxing districts shall receive notification of the agenda item to consider southland reactivation of the site not less than 15 days prior to that meeting.

(c) Beginning with the first tax year after the property is certified as southland reactivation property and continuing through the twelfth tax year after the property is certified as southland reactivation property, for the purpose of taxation under this Code, the property shall be valued at 50% of the base year equalized assessed value as established by the chief county assessment officer, excluding all years with property tax exemptions applied as a result of the participating entity's ownership. For the first year after the property is certified as southland reactivation property, the aggregate property tax liability for the property shall be no greater than $100,000 per year. That aggregate property tax liability, once collected, shall be distributed to the taxing districts in which the property is located according to each taxing district's proportionate share of that aggregate liability. Beginning with the second tax year after the property is certified as southland reactivation property and continuing through the twelfth tax year after the property is certified as southland reactivation property, the property tax liability for the property for each taxing district in which the property is located shall be increased over the property tax liability for the property for the preceding year by 10%. In no event shall the purchaser's annual tax liability decrease.

(d) No later than March 1 of each year, the municipality or the participating entity on behalf of the municipality shall certify to the county clerk of the county in which the property is located a percentage southland reactivation reduction to be applied to property taxes for that calendar year, as provided in this Section.

(e) The participating entity shall collect the following information annually for the pilot program period: the number of program applicants; the street address of each certified property; the proposed use of certified properties; the amount of investment; the number of jobs created as a result of the certification; and copies of the certification of each southland reactivation site to allow for the evaluation and assessment of the effectiveness of southland reactivation designation. The participating entity responsible for seeking the southland reactivation designation shall present this information to the governing body of each taxing district affected by a southland reactivation designation on an annual basis, and the participating entity shall report the above information to any requesting members of the General Assembly at the conclusion of the 5-year designation period.

(f) Any southland reactivation certification granted under this Section shall be void if the property is conveyed to an entity or person that is liable for any unpaid, delinquent property taxes associated with the property.

(Source: P.A. 102-1010, eff. 5-27-22; revised 9-7-22.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-168)

Sec. 15-168. Homestead exemption for persons with disabilities.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption is granted to persons with disabilities in the amount of $2,000, except as provided in subsection (c), to be deducted from the property's value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. The person with a disability shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability.

(2) The person with a disability must be liable for paying the real estate taxes on the property.

(3) The person with a disability must be an owner of record of the property or have a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. In the case of a leasehold interest in property, the lease must be for a single family residence.

A person who has a disability during the taxable year is eligible to apply for this homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of residence. If a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "person with a disability" means a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of a medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months. Persons with disabilities filing claims under this Act shall submit proof of disability in such form and manner as the Department shall by rule and regulation prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to receive disability benefits under the Federal Social Security Act shall constitute proof of disability for purposes of this Act. Issuance of an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person named thereon is a person with a disability for purposes of this Act. A person with a disability not covered under the Federal Social Security Act and not presenting an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by a physician, optometrist (if the person qualifies because of a visual disability), advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant designated by the Department, and his status as a person with a disability determined using the same standards as used by the Social Security Administration. The costs of any required examination shall be borne by the claimant.

(c) For land improved with (i) an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or (ii) a life care facility as defined under Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act that is considered to be a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized or assessed by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person with a disability. The person with a disability shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability.

(2) The person with a disability must be liable by contract with the owner or owners of record for paying the apportioned property taxes on the property of the cooperative or life care facility. In the case of a life care facility, the person with a disability must be liable for paying the apportioned property taxes under a life care contract as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

(3) The person with a disability must be an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building. A leasehold interest does not meet this requirement. If a homestead exemption is granted under this subsection, the cooperative association or management firm shall credit the savings resulting from the exemption to the apportioned tax liability of the qualifying person with a disability. The chief county assessment officer may request reasonable proof that the association or firm has properly credited the exemption. A person who willfully refuses to credit an exemption to the qualified person with a disability is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) The chief county assessment officer shall determine the eligibility of property to receive the homestead exemption according to guidelines established by the Department. After a person has received an exemption under this Section, an annual verification of eligibility for the exemption shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the chief county assessment officer shall provide to each person granted a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the person's qualifying property. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay an administrative fee of $5 to the chief county assessment officer. The assessment officer shall then file the executed designation with the county collector, who shall issue the duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person with a disability in the manner required by the chief county assessment officer.

(d-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, each chief county assessment officer may approve this exemption for the 2020 taxable year, without application, for any property that was approved for this exemption for the 2019 taxable year, provided that:

(1) the county board has declared a local disaster as provided in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act related to the COVID-19 public health emergency;

(2) the owner of record of the property as of January 1, 2020 is the same as the owner of record of the property as of January 1, 2019;

(3) the exemption for the 2019 taxable year has not been determined to be an erroneous exemption as defined by this Code; and

(4) the applicant for the 2019 taxable year has not asked for the exemption to be removed for the 2019 or 2020 taxable years.

(d-10) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, each chief county assessment officer may approve this exemption for the 2021 taxable year, without application, for any property that was approved for this exemption for the 2020 taxable year, if:

(1) the county board has declared a local disaster as provided in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act related to the COVID-19 public health emergency;

(2) the owner of record of the property as of January 1, 2021 is the same as the owner of record of the property as of January 1, 2020;

(3) the exemption for the 2020 taxable year has not been determined to be an erroneous exemption as defined by this Code; and

(4) the taxpayer for the 2020 taxable year has not asked for the exemption to be removed for the 2020 or 2021 taxable years.

(d-15) For taxable years 2022 through 2027, in any county of more than 3,000,000 residents, and in any other county where the county board has authorized such action by ordinance or resolution, a chief county assessment officer may renew this exemption for any person who applied for the exemption and presented proof of eligibility, as described in subsection (b) above, without an annual application as required under subsection (d) above. A chief county assessment officer shall not automatically renew an exemption under this subsection if: the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, optometrist, or physician assistant who examined the claimant determined that the disability is not expected to continue for 12 months or more; the exemption has been deemed erroneous since the last application; or the claimant has reported their ineligibility to receive the exemption. A chief county assessment officer who automatically renews an exemption under this subsection shall notify a person of a subsequent determination not to automatically renew that person's exemption and shall provide that person with an application to renew the exemption.

(e) A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-635, eff. 6-5-20; 102-136, eff. 7-23-21; 102-895, eff. 5-23-22; revised 9-7-22.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-169)

Sec. 15-169. Homestead exemption for veterans with disabilities.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption, limited to the amounts set forth in subsections (b) and (b-3), is granted for property that is used as a qualified residence by a veteran with a disability.

(b) For taxable years prior to 2015, the amount of the exemption under this Section is as follows:

(1) for veterans with a service-connected disability of at least (i) 75% for exemptions granted in taxable years 2007 through 2009 and (ii) 70% for exemptions granted in taxable year 2010 and each taxable year thereafter, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the annual exemption is $5,000; and

(2) for veterans with a service-connected disability of at least 50%, but less than (i) 75% for exemptions granted in taxable years 2007 through 2009 and (ii) 70% for exemptions granted in taxable year 2010 and each taxable year thereafter, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the annual exemption is $2,500.

(b-3) For taxable years 2015 and thereafter:

(1) if the veteran has a service connected disability of 30% or more but less than 50%, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the annual exemption is $2,500;

(2) if the veteran has a service connected disability of 50% or more but less than 70%, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the annual exemption is $5,000;

(3) if the veteran has a service connected disability of 70% or more, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the property is exempt from taxation under this Code; and

(4) for taxable year 2023 and thereafter, if the taxpayer is the surviving spouse of a veteran whose death was determined to be service-connected and who is certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs as a recipient of dependency and indemnity compensation under federal law, then the property is also exempt from taxation under this Code.

(b-5) If a homestead exemption is granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility operated by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person who qualified for the homestead exemption.

(c) The tax exemption under this Section carries over to the benefit of the veteran's surviving spouse as long as the spouse holds the legal or beneficial title to the homestead, permanently resides thereon, and does not remarry. If the surviving spouse sells the property, an exemption not to exceed the amount granted from the most recent ad valorem tax roll may be transferred to his or her new residence as long as it is used as his or her primary residence and he or she does not remarry.

As used in this subsection (c):

(1) for taxable years prior to 2015, "surviving spouse" means the surviving spouse of a veteran who obtained an exemption under this Section prior to his or her death;

(2) for taxable years 2015 through 2022, "surviving spouse" means (i) the surviving spouse of a veteran who obtained an exemption under this Section prior to his or her death and (ii) the surviving spouse of a veteran who was killed in the line of duty at any time prior to the expiration of the application period in effect for the exemption for the taxable year for which the exemption is sought; and

(3) for taxable year 2023 and thereafter, "surviving spouse" means: (i) the surviving spouse of a veteran who obtained the exemption under this Section prior to his or her death; (ii) the surviving spouse of a veteran who was killed in the line of duty at any time prior to the expiration of the application period in effect for the exemption for the taxable year for which the exemption is sought; (iii) the surviving spouse of a veteran who did not obtain an exemption under this Section before death, but who would have qualified for the exemption under this Section in the taxable year for which the exemption is sought if he or she had survived, and whose surviving spouse has been a resident of Illinois from the time of the veteran's death through the taxable year for which the exemption is sought; and (iv) the surviving spouse of a veteran whose death was determined to be service-connected, but who would not otherwise qualify under item items (i), (ii), or (iii), if the spouse (A) is certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs as a recipient of dependency and indemnity compensation under federal law at any time prior to the expiration of the application period in effect for the exemption for the taxable year for which the exemption is sought and (B) remains eligible for that dependency and indemnity compensation as of January 1 of the taxable year for which the exemption is sought.

(c-1) Beginning with taxable year 2015, nothing in this Section shall require the veteran to have qualified for or obtained the exemption before death if the veteran was killed in the line of duty.

(d) The exemption under this Section applies for taxable year 2007 and thereafter. A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-168 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (e), each taxpayer who has been granted an exemption under this Section must reapply on an annual basis. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence. The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption provided by this Section by application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable methods. The determination must be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department.

On and after May 23, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-895) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, if a veteran has a combined service connected disability rating of 100% and is deemed to be permanently and totally disabled, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the taxpayer who has been granted an exemption under this Section shall no longer be required to reapply for the exemption on an annual basis, and the exemption shall be in effect for as long as the exemption would otherwise be permitted under this Section.

(e-1) If the person qualifying for the exemption does not occupy the qualified residence as of January 1 of the taxable year, the exemption granted under this Section shall be prorated on a monthly basis. The prorated exemption shall apply beginning with the first complete month in which the person occupies the qualified residence.

(e-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, each chief county assessment officer may approve this exemption for the 2020 taxable year, without application, for any property that was approved for this exemption for the 2019 taxable year, provided that:

(1) the county board has declared a local disaster as provided in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act related to the COVID-19 public health emergency;

(2) the owner of record of the property as of January 1, 2020 is the same as the owner of record of the property as of January 1, 2019;

(3) the exemption for the 2019 taxable year has not been determined to be an erroneous exemption as defined by this Code; and

(4) the applicant for the 2019 taxable year has not asked for the exemption to be removed for the 2019 or 2020 taxable years.

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude a veteran whose service connected disability rating has changed since the 2019 exemption was granted from applying for the exemption based on the subsequent service connected disability rating.

(e-10) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, each chief county assessment officer may approve this exemption for the 2021 taxable year, without application, for any property that was approved for this exemption for the 2020 taxable year, if:

(1) the county board has declared a local disaster as provided in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act related to the COVID-19 public health emergency;

(2) the owner of record of the property as of January 1, 2021 is the same as the owner of record of the property as of January 1, 2020;

(3) the exemption for the 2020 taxable year has not been determined to be an erroneous exemption as defined by this Code; and

(4) the taxpayer for the 2020 taxable year has not asked for the exemption to be removed for the 2020 or 2021 taxable years.

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude a veteran whose service connected disability rating has changed since the 2020 exemption was granted from applying for the exemption based on the subsequent service connected disability rating.

(f) For the purposes of this Section:

"Qualified residence" means real property, but less any portion of that property that is used for commercial purposes, with an equalized assessed value of less than $250,000 that is the primary residence of a veteran with a disability. Property rented for more than 6 months is presumed to be used for commercial purposes.

"Veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces on active duty or State active duty, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces and who has received an honorable discharge.

(Source: P.A. 101-635, eff. 6-5-20; 102-136, eff. 7-23-21; 102-895, eff. 5-23-22; revised 9-6-22.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-185)

Sec. 18-185. Short title; definitions. This Division 5 may be cited as the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law. As used in this Division 5:

"Consumer Price Index" means the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor.

"Extension limitation" means (a) the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year or (b) the rate of increase approved by voters under Section 18-205.

"Affected county" means a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants or a county contiguous to a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants.

"Taxing district" has the same meaning provided in Section 1-150, except as otherwise provided in this Section. For the 1991 through 1994 levy years only, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district having the majority of its 1990 equalized assessed value within any county or counties contiguous to a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants. Beginning with the 1995 levy year, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year and each non-home rule taxing district not subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year having the majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value in an affected county or counties. Beginning with the levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to a taxing district as provided in Section 18-213, "taxing district" also includes those taxing districts made subject to this Law as provided in Section 18-213.

"Aggregate extension" for taxing districts to which this Law applied before the 1995 levy year means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after October 1, 1991 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before October 1, 1991 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before October 1, 1991, to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before October 1, 1991; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), (e), and (h) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made by a school district that participates in the Special Education District of Lake County, created by special education joint agreement under Section 10-22.31 of the School Code, for payment of the school district's share of the amounts required to be contributed by the Special Education District of Lake County to the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under Article 7 of the Illinois Pension Code; the amount of any extension under this item (k) shall be certified by the school district to the county clerk; (l) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (m) made for temporary relocation loan repayment purposes pursuant to Sections 2-3.77 and 17-2.2d of the School Code; (n) made for payment of principal and interest on any bonds issued under the authority of Section 17-2.2d of the School Code; (o) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (p) made for road purposes in the first year after a township assumes the rights, powers, duties, assets, property, liabilities, obligations, and responsibilities of a road district abolished under the provisions of Section 6-133 of the Illinois Highway Code.

"Aggregate extension" for the taxing districts to which this Law did not apply before the 1995 levy year (except taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213) means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after March 1, 1995 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before March 1, 1995 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before March 1, 1995 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before March 1, 1995; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (h-4) made for stormwater management purposes by the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District of Greater Chicago under Section 12 of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; (h-8) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 9.6a of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to make contributions to the pension fund established under Article 13 of the Illinois Pension Code; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum and bonds described in subsections (h) and (h-8) of this definition; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium or museum projects and bonds issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for the purpose of making contributions to the pension fund established under Article 12 of the Illinois Pension Code; (l) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 87-1191 or 93-601 and (i) issued pursuant to Section 21.2 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act, (ii) issued under Section 42 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for zoological park projects, or (iii) issued under Section 44.1 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for botanical gardens projects; (m) made pursuant to Section 34-53.5 of the School Code, whether levied annually or not; (n) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (o) made by the Chicago Park District for recreational programs for persons with disabilities under subsection (c) of Section 7.06 of the Chicago Park District Act; (p) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; (q) made by Ford Heights School District 169 under Section 17-9.02 of the School Code; and (r) made for the purpose of making employer contributions to the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago under Section 34-53 of the School Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those taxing districts subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held if the bonds were approved by referendum after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (m) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of the School Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718) if the bonds were approved by referendum after March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718) for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718) to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; and (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code.

"Debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for a taxing district for the 1994 levy year, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, for the levy year in which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 for the 1996 levy year, constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the taxing district without referendum, but not including excluded non-referendum bonds. For park districts (i) that were first subject to this Law in 1991 or 1995 and (ii) whose extension for the 1994 levy year for the payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds) was less than 51% of the amount for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds), "debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds). A debt service extension base established or increased at any time pursuant to any provision of this Law, except Section 18-212, shall be increased each year commencing with the later of (i) the 2009 levy year or (ii) the first levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to the taxing district, by the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year. The debt service extension base may be established or increased as provided under Section 18-212. "Excluded non-referendum bonds" means (i) bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium and museum projects; (ii) bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; or (iii) refunding obligations issued to refund or to continue to refund obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum.

"Special purpose extensions" include, but are not limited to, extensions for levies made on an annual basis for unemployment and workers' compensation, self-insurance, contributions to pension plans, and extensions made pursuant to Section 6-601 of the Illinois Highway Code for a road district's permanent road fund whether levied annually or not. The extension for a special service area is not included in the aggregate extension.

"Aggregate extension base" means the taxing district's last preceding aggregate extension as adjusted under Sections 18-135, 18-215, 18-230, 18-206, and 18-233. Beginning with levy year 2022, for taxing districts that are specified in Section 18-190.7, the taxing district's aggregate extension base shall be calculated as provided in Section 18-190.7. An adjustment under Section 18-135 shall be made for the 2007 levy year and all subsequent levy years whenever one or more counties within which a taxing district is located (i) used estimated valuations or rates when extending taxes in the taxing district for the last preceding levy year that resulted in the over or under extension of taxes, or (ii) increased or decreased the tax extension for the last preceding levy year as required by Section 18-135(c). Whenever an adjustment is required under Section 18-135, the aggregate extension base of the taxing district shall be equal to the amount that the aggregate extension of the taxing district would have been for the last preceding levy year if either or both (i) actual, rather than estimated, valuations or rates had been used to calculate the extension of taxes for the last levy year, or (ii) the tax extension for the last preceding levy year had not been adjusted as required by subsection (c) of Section 18-135.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for levy year 2012, the aggregate extension base for West Northfield School District No. 31 in Cook County shall be $12,654,592.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for levy year 2022, the aggregate extension base of a home equity assurance program that levied at least $1,000,000 in property taxes in levy year 2019 or 2020 under the Home Equity Assurance Act shall be the amount that the program's aggregate extension base for levy year 2021 would have been if the program had levied a property tax for levy year 2021.

"Levy year" has the same meaning as "year" under Section 1-155.

"New property" means (i) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of new improvements or additions to existing improvements on any parcel of real property that increase the assessed value of that real property during the levy year multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, (ii) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of real property not exempt from real estate taxation, which real property was exempt from real estate taxation for any portion of the immediately preceding levy year, multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, including the assessed value, upon final stabilization of occupancy after new construction is complete, of any real property located within the boundaries of an otherwise or previously exempt military reservation that is intended for residential use and owned by or leased to a private corporation or other entity, (iii) in counties that classify in accordance with Section 4 of Article IX of the Illinois Constitution, an incentive property's additional assessed value resulting from a scheduled increase in the level of assessment as applied to the first year final board of review market value, and (iv) any increase in assessed value due to oil or gas production from an oil or gas well required to be permitted under the Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act that was not produced in or accounted for during the previous levy year. In addition, the county clerk in a county containing a population of 3,000,000 or more shall include in the 1997 recovered tax increment value for any school district, any recovered tax increment value that was applicable to the 1995 tax year calculations.

"Qualified airport authority" means an airport authority organized under the Airport Authorities Act and located in a county bordering on the State of Wisconsin and having a population in excess of 200,000 and not greater than 500,000.

"Recovered tax increment value" means, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value, in the first year after a municipality terminates the designation of an area as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Economic Development Project Area Tax Increment Act of 1995, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. For the taxes which are extended for the 1997 levy year, the recovered tax increment value for a non-home rule taxing district that first became subject to this Law for the 1995 levy year because a majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value was in an affected county or counties shall be increased if a municipality terminated the designation of an area in 1993 as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, by an amount equal to the 1994 equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. In the first year after a municipality removes a taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property from a redevelopment project area established under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, "recovered tax increment value" means the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property removed from the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of that real property before removal from the redevelopment project area.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, "limiting rate" means a fraction the numerator of which is the last preceding aggregate extension base times an amount equal to one plus the extension limitation defined in this Section and the denominator of which is the current year's equalized assessed value of all real property in the territory under the jurisdiction of the taxing district during the prior levy year. For those taxing districts that reduced their aggregate extension for the last preceding levy year, except for school districts that reduced their extension for educational purposes pursuant to Section 18-206, the highest aggregate extension in any of the last 3 preceding levy years shall be used for the purpose of computing the limiting rate. The denominator shall not include new property or the recovered tax increment value. If a new rate, a rate decrease, or a limiting rate increase has been approved at an election held after March 21, 2006, then (i) the otherwise applicable limiting rate shall be increased by the amount of the new rate or shall be reduced by the amount of the rate decrease, as the case may be, or (ii) in the case of a limiting rate increase, the limiting rate shall be equal to the rate set forth in the proposition approved by the voters for each of the years specified in the proposition, after which the limiting rate of the taxing district shall be calculated as otherwise provided. In the case of a taxing district that obtained referendum approval for an increased limiting rate on March 20, 2012, the limiting rate for tax year 2012 shall be the rate that generates the approximate total amount of taxes extendable for that tax year, as set forth in the proposition approved by the voters; this rate shall be the final rate applied by the county clerk for the aggregate of all capped funds of the district for tax year 2012.

(Source: P.A. 102-263, eff. 8-6-21; 102-311, eff. 8-6-21; 102-519, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-707, eff. 4-22-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-895, eff. 5-23-22; revised 8-29-22.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-190.7)

Sec. 18-190.7. Alternative aggregate extension base for certain taxing districts; recapture.

(a) This Section applies to the following taxing districts that are subject to this Division 5:

(1) school districts that have a designation of recognition or review according to the State Board of Education's School District Financial Profile System as of the first day of the levy year for which the taxing district seeks to increase its aggregate extension under this Section;

(2) park districts;

(3) library districts; and

(4) community college districts.

(b) Subject to the limitations of subsection (c), beginning in levy year 2022, a taxing district specified in subsection (a) may recapture certain levy amounts that are otherwise unavailable to the taxing district as a result of the taxing district not extending the maximum amount permitted under this Division 5 in a previous levy year. For that purpose, the taxing district's aggregate extension base shall be the greater of: (1) the taxing district's aggregate extension limit; or (2) the taxing district's last preceding aggregate extension, as adjusted under Sections 18-135, 18-215, 18-230, 18-206, and 18-233.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, the aggregate extension of a taxing district that uses an aggregate extension limit under this Section for a particular levy year may not exceed the taxing district's aggregate extension for the immediately preceding levy year by more than 5% unless the increase is approved by the voters under Section 18-205; however, if a taxing district is unable to recapture the entire unrealized levy amount in a single levy year due to the limitations of this subsection (c), the taxing district may increase its aggregate extension in each immediately succeeding levy year until the entire levy amount is recaptured, except that the increase in each succeeding levy year may not exceed the greater of (i) 5% or (ii) the increase approved by the voters under Section 18-205.

In order to be eligible for recapture under this Section, the taxing district must certify to the county clerk that the taxing district did not extend the maximum amount permitted under this Division 5 for a particular levy year. That certification must be made not more than 60 days after the taxing district files its levy ordinance or resolution with the county clerk for the levy year for which the taxing district did not extend the maximum amount permitted under this Division 5.

(d) As used in this Section, "aggregate extension limit" means the taxing district's last preceding aggregate extension if the district had utilized the maximum limiting rate permitted without referendum for each of the 3 immediately preceding levy years, as adjusted under Sections Section 18-135, 18-215, 18-230, 18-206, and 18-233.

(Source: P.A. 102-895, eff. 5-23-22; revised 9-6-22.)

(35 ILCS 200/22-10)

Sec. 22-10. Notice of expiration of period of redemption. A purchaser or assignee shall not be entitled to a tax deed to the property sold unless, not less than 3 months nor more than 6 months prior to the expiration of the period of redemption, he or she gives notice of the sale and the date of expiration of the period of redemption to the owners, occupants, and parties interested in the property, including any mortgagee of record, as provided below. the

The Notice to be given to the parties shall be in at least 10-point 10 point type in the following form completely filled in:

TAX DEED NO. .................... FILED ....................

TAKE NOTICE

County of ...............................................

Date Premises Sold ......................................

Certificate No. ........................................

Sold for General Taxes of (year) ........................

Sold for Special Assessment of (Municipality)

and special assessment number ...........................

Warrant No. ................ Inst. No. .................

THIS PROPERTY HAS BEEN SOLD FOR

DELINQUENT TAXES

Property located at .........................................

Legal Description or Property Index No. .....................

.............................................................

.............................................................

This notice is to advise you that the above property has been sold for delinquent taxes and that the period of redemption from the sale will expire on .....................

.............................................................

The amount to redeem is subject to increase at 6 month intervals from the date of sale and may be further increased if the purchaser at the tax sale or his or her assignee pays any subsequently accruing taxes or special assessments to redeem the property from subsequent forfeitures or tax sales. Check with the county clerk as to the exact amount you owe before redeeming.

This notice is also to advise you that a petition has been filed for a tax deed which will transfer title and the right to possession of this property if redemption is not made on or before ......................................................

This matter is set for hearing in the Circuit Court of this county in ...., Illinois on .....

You may be present at this hearing but your right to redeem will already have expired at that time.

YOU ARE URGED TO REDEEM IMMEDIATELY

TO PREVENT LOSS OF PROPERTY

Redemption can be made at any time on or before .... by applying to the County Clerk of ...., County, Illinois at the Office of the County Clerk in ...., Illinois.

For further information contact the County Clerk

ADDRESS:.................... TELEPHONE:..................

..........................

Purchaser or Assignee.

Dated (insert date).

In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the notice shall also state the address, room number, and time at which the matter is set for hearing.

The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-557 apply only to matters in which a petition for tax deed is filed on or after July 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-557).

The changes to this Section made by Public Act 102-1003 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly apply to matters in which a petition for tax deed is filed on or after May 27, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1003) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. Failure of any party or any public official to comply with the changes made to this Section by Public Act 102-528 does not invalidate any tax deed issued prior to May 27, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1003) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-528, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1003, eff. 5-27-22; revised 9-1-22.)

(35 ILCS 200/22-25)

Sec. 22-25. Mailed notice. In addition to the notice required to be served not less than one month nor more than 6 months prior to the expiration of the period of redemption, the purchaser or his or her assignee shall prepare and deliver to the clerk of the Circuit Court of the county in which the property is located, not more than 6 months and not less than 111 days prior to the expiration of the period of redemption, the notice provided for in this Section, together with the statutory costs for mailing the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested. The form of notice to be mailed by the clerk shall be identical in form to that provided by Section 22-10 for service upon owners residing upon the property sold, except that it shall bear the signature of the clerk instead of the name of the purchaser or assignee and shall designate the parties to whom it is to be mailed. The clerk may furnish the form. The clerk shall mail the notices delivered to him or her by certified mail, return receipt requested, not less than 3 months prior to the expiration of the period of redemption. The certificate of the clerk that he or she has mailed the notices, together with the return receipts, shall be filed in and made a part of the court record. The notices shall be mailed to the owners of the property at their last known addresses, and to those persons who are entitled to service of notice as occupants.

The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-557 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall be construed as being declaratory of existing law and not as a new enactment.

The changes to this Section made by Public Act 102-1003 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly apply to matters in which a petition for tax deed is filed on or after May 27, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1003) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. Failure of any party or any public official to comply with the changes made to this Section by Public Act 102-528 does not invalidate any tax deed issued prior to May 27, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1003) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-528, eff. 1-1-22; 102-815, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1003, eff. 5-27-22; revised 8-12-22.)

Section 220. The Parking Excise Tax Act is amended by changing Section 10-20 as follows:

(35 ILCS 525/10-20)

Sec. 10-20. Exemptions. The tax imposed by this Act shall not apply to:

(1) Parking in a parking area or garage operated by the federal government or its instrumentalities that has been issued an active tax exemption number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act; for this exemption to apply, the parking area or garage must be operated by the federal government or its instrumentalities; the exemption under this paragraph (1) does not apply if the parking area or garage is operated by a third party, whether under a lease or other contractual arrangement, or any other manner whatsoever.

(2) Residential off-street parking for home or apartment tenants or condominium occupants, if the arrangement for such parking is provided in the home or apartment lease or in a separate writing between the landlord and tenant, or in a condominium agreement between the condominium association and the owner, occupant, or guest of a unit, whether the parking charge is payable to the landlord, condominium association, or to the operator of the parking spaces.

(3) Parking by hospital employees in a parking space that is owned and operated by the hospital for which they work.

(4) Parking in a parking area or garage where 3 or fewer motor vehicles are stored, housed, or parked for hire, charge, fee, or other valuable consideration, if the operator of the parking area or garage does not act as the operator of more than a total of 3 parking spaces located in the State; if any operator of parking areas or garages, including any facilitator or aggregator, acts as an operator of more than 3 parking spaces in total that are located in the State, then this exemption shall not apply to any of those spaces.

(5) For the duration of the Illinois State Fair or the DuQuoin State Fair, parking in a parking area or garage operated for the use of attendees, vendors, or employees of the State Fair and not otherwise subject to taxation under this Act in the ordinary course of business.

(6) Parking in a parking area or garage operated by the State, a State university created by statute, or a unit of local government that has been issued an active tax exemption number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act; the parking area or garage must be operated by the State, State university, or unit of local government; the exemption under this paragraph does not apply if the parking area or garage is operated by a third party, whether under a lease or other contractual arrangement, or held in any other manner, unless the parking area or garage is exempt under paragraph (5).

(7) Parking in a parking area or garage owned and operated by a person engaged in the business of renting real estate if the parking area or garage is used by the lessee to park motor vehicles, recreational vehicles, or self-propelled vehicles for the lessee's own use and not for the purpose of subleasing parking spaces for consideration.

(8) The purchase of a parking space by the State, a State university created by statute, or a unit of local government that has been issued an active tax exemption number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, for use by employees of the State, State university, or unit of local government, provided that the purchase price is paid directly by the governmental entity.

(9) Parking in a parking space leased to a governmental entity that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (1) or (6) when the exempt entity rents or leases the parking spaces in the parking area or garage to the public; the purchase price must be paid by the governmental entity; the exempt governmental entity is exempt from collecting tax subject to the provisions of paragraph (1) or (6), as applicable, when renting or leasing the parking spaces to the public.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 102-920, eff. 5-27-22; revised 9-6-22.)

Section 225. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 7-144, 16-203, and 17-149 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/7-144) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 7-144)

Sec. 7-144. Retirement annuities; suspended annuities - suspended during employment.

(a) If any person receiving any annuity again becomes an employee and receives earnings from employment in a position requiring him, or entitling him to elect, to become a participating employee, then the annuity payable to such employee shall be suspended as of the first 1st day of the month coincidental with or next following the date upon which such person becomes such an employee, unless the person is authorized under subsection (b) of Section 7-137.1 of this Code to continue receiving a retirement annuity during that period. Upon proper qualification of the participating employee payment of such annuity may be resumed on the first 1st day of the month following such qualification and upon proper application therefor. The participating employee in such case shall be entitled to a supplemental annuity arising from service and credits earned subsequent to such re-entry as a participating employee.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, an annuitant shall be considered a participating employee if he or she returns to work as an employee with a participating employer and works more than 599 hours annually (or 999 hours annually with a participating employer that has adopted a resolution pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 7-137 of this Code). Each of these annual periods shall commence on the month and day upon which the annuitant is first employed with the participating employer following the effective date of the annuity.

(a-5) If any annuitant under this Article must be considered a participating employee per the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section, and the participating municipality or participating instrumentality that employs or re-employs that annuitant knowingly fails to notify the Board to suspend the annuity, the participating municipality or participating instrumentality may be required to reimburse the Fund for an amount up to one-half of the total of any annuity payments made to the annuitant after the date the annuity should have been suspended, as determined by the Board. In no case shall the total amount repaid by the annuitant plus any amount reimbursed by the employer to the Fund be more than the total of all annuity payments made to the annuitant after the date the annuity should have been suspended. This subsection shall not apply if the annuitant returned to work for the employer for less than 12 months.

The Fund shall notify all annuitants that they must notify the Fund immediately if they return to work for any participating employer. The notification by the Fund shall occur upon retirement and no less than annually thereafter in a format determined by the Fund. The Fund shall also develop and maintain a system to track annuitants who have returned to work and notify the participating employer and annuitant at least annually of the limitations on returning to work under this Section.

(b) Supplemental annuities to persons who return to service for less than 48 months shall be computed under the provisions of Sections 7-141, 7-142, and 7-143. In determining whether an employee is eligible for an annuity which requires a minimum period of service, his entire period of service shall be taken into consideration but the supplemental annuity shall be based on earnings and service in the supplemental period only. The effective date of the suspended and supplemental annuity for the purpose of increases after retirement shall be considered to be the effective date of the suspended annuity.

(c) Supplemental annuities to persons who return to service for 48 months or more shall be a monthly amount determined as follows:

(1) An amount shall be computed under subparagraph b of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 7-142, considering all of the service credits of the employee. ;

(2) The actuarial value in monthly payments for life of the annuity payments made before suspension shall be determined and subtracted from the amount determined in paragraph (1) above. ;

(3) The monthly amount of the suspended annuity, with any applicable increases after retirement computed from the effective date to the date of reinstatement, shall be subtracted from the amount determined in paragraph (2) above and the remainder shall be the amount of the supplemental annuity provided that this amount shall not be less than the amount computed under subsection (b) of this Section.

(4) The suspended annuity shall be reinstated at an amount including any increases after retirement from the effective date to date of reinstatement.

(5) The effective date of the combined suspended and supplemental annuities for the purposes of increases after retirement shall be considered to be the effective date of the supplemental annuity.

(d) If a Tier 2 regular employee becomes a member or participant under any other system or fund created by this Code and is employed on a full-time basis, except for those members or participants exempted from the provisions of subsection (a) of Section 1-160 of this Code (other than a participating employee under this Article), then the person's retirement annuity shall be suspended during that employment. Upon termination of that employment, the person's retirement annuity shall resume and be recalculated as required by this Section.

(e) If a Tier 2 regular employee first began participation on or after January 1, 2012 and is receiving a retirement annuity and accepts on a contractual basis a position to provide services to a governmental entity from which he or she has retired, then that person's annuity or retirement pension shall be suspended during that contractual service, notwithstanding the provisions of any other Section in this Article. Such annuitant shall notify the Fund, as well as his or her contractual employer, of his or her retirement status before accepting contractual employment. A person who fails to submit such notification shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and required to pay a fine of $1,000. Upon termination of that contractual employment, the person's retirement annuity shall resume and be recalculated as required by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-210, eff. 1-1-22; revised 8-19-22.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-203)

Sec. 16-203. Application and expiration of new benefit increases.

(a) As used in this Section, "new benefit increase" means an increase in the amount of any benefit provided under this Article, or an expansion of the conditions of eligibility for any benefit under this Article, that results from an amendment to this Code that takes effect after June 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-4). "New benefit increase", however, does not include any benefit increase resulting from the changes made to Article 1 or this Article by Public Act 95-910, Public Act 100-23, Public Act 100-587, Public Act 100-743, Public Act 100-769, Public Act 101-10, Public Act 101-49, Public Act 102-16, or Public Act 102-871 Public Act 102-16 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code or any subsequent amendment to this Code, every new benefit increase is subject to this Section and shall be deemed to be granted only in conformance with and contingent upon compliance with the provisions of this Section.

(c) The Public Act enacting a new benefit increase must identify and provide for payment to the System of additional funding at least sufficient to fund the resulting annual increase in cost to the System as it accrues.

Every new benefit increase is contingent upon the General Assembly providing the additional funding required under this subsection. The Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability shall analyze whether adequate additional funding has been provided for the new benefit increase and shall report its analysis to the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance. A new benefit increase created by a Public Act that does not include the additional funding required under this subsection is null and void. If the Public Pension Division determines that the additional funding provided for a new benefit increase under this subsection is or has become inadequate, it may so certify to the Governor and the State Comptroller and, in the absence of corrective action by the General Assembly, the new benefit increase shall expire at the end of the fiscal year in which the certification is made.

(d) Every new benefit increase shall expire 5 years after its effective date or on such earlier date as may be specified in the language enacting the new benefit increase or provided under subsection (c). This does not prevent the General Assembly from extending or re-creating a new benefit increase by law.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the language creating the new benefit increase, a new benefit increase that expires under this Section continues to apply to persons who applied and qualified for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect and to the affected beneficiaries and alternate payees of such persons, but does not apply to any other person, including, without limitation, a person who continues in service after the expiration date and did not apply and qualify for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-49, eff. 7-12-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-871, eff. 5-13-22; revised 7-26-22.)

(40 ILCS 5/17-149) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 17-149)

Sec. 17-149. Cancellation of pensions.

(a) If any person receiving a disability retirement pension from the Fund is re-employed as a teacher by an Employer, the pension shall be cancelled on the date the re-employment begins, or on the first day of a payroll period for which service credit was validated, whichever is earlier.

(b) If any person receiving a service retirement pension from the Fund is re-employed as a teacher on a permanent or annual basis by an Employer, the pension shall be cancelled on the date the re-employment begins, or on the first day of a payroll period for which service credit was validated, whichever is earlier. However, subject to the limitations and requirements of subsection subsections (c-5) or (c-10), (c-6), and (c-7), or (c-10), the pension shall not be cancelled in the case of a service retirement pensioner who is re-employed on a temporary and non-annual basis or on an hourly basis.

(c) If the date of re-employment on a permanent or annual basis occurs within 5 school months after the date of previous retirement, exclusive of any vacation period, the member shall be deemed to have been out of service only temporarily and not permanently retired. Such person shall be entitled to pension payments for the time he could have been employed as a teacher and received salary, but shall not be entitled to pension for or during the summer vacation prior to his return to service.

When the member again retires on pension, the time of service and the money contributed by him during re-employment shall be added to the time and money previously credited. Such person must acquire 3 consecutive years of additional contributing service before he may retire again on a pension at a rate and under conditions other than those in force or attained at the time of his previous retirement.

(c-5) For school years beginning on or after July 1, 2019 and before July 1, 2022, the service retirement pension shall not be cancelled in the case of a service retirement pensioner who is re-employed as a teacher on a temporary and non-annual basis or on an hourly basis, so long as the person (1) does not work as a teacher for compensation on more than 120 days in a school year or (2) does not accept gross compensation for the re-employment in a school year in excess of (i) $30,000 or (ii) in the case of a person who retires with at least 5 years of service as a principal, an amount that is equal to the daily rate normally paid to retired principals multiplied by 100. These limitations apply only to school years that begin on or after July 1, 2019 and before July 1, 2022. Such re-employment does not require contributions, result in service credit, or constitute active membership in the Fund.

The service retirement pension shall not be cancelled in the case of a service retirement pensioner who is re-employed as a teacher on a temporary and non-annual basis or on an hourly basis, so long as the person (1) does not work as a teacher for compensation on more than 100 days in a school year or (2) does not accept gross compensation for the re-employment in a school year in excess of (i) $30,000 or (ii) in the case of a person who retires with at least 5 years of service as a principal, an amount that is equal to the daily rate normally paid to retired principals multiplied by 100. These limitations apply only to school years that begin on or after August 8, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-912) and before July 1, 2019. Such re-employment does not require contributions, result in service credit, or constitute active membership in the Fund.

Notwithstanding the 120-day limit set forth in item (1) of this subsection (c-5), the service retirement pension shall not be cancelled in the case of a service retirement pensioner who teaches only driver education courses after regular school hours and does not teach any other subject area, so long as the person does not work as a teacher for compensation for more than 900 hours in a school year. The $30,000 limit set forth in subitem (i) of item (2) of this subsection (c-5) shall apply to a service retirement pensioner who teaches only driver education courses after regular school hours and does not teach any other subject area.

To be eligible for such re-employment without cancellation of pension, the pensioner must notify the Fund and the Board of Education of his or her intention to accept re-employment under this subsection (c-5) before beginning that re-employment (or if the re-employment began before August 8, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-912) this amendatory Act, then within 30 days after that effective date).

An Employer must certify to the Fund the temporary and non-annual or hourly status and the compensation of each pensioner re-employed under this subsection at least quarterly, and when the pensioner is approaching the earnings limitation under this subsection.

If the pensioner works more than 100 days or accepts excess gross compensation for such re-employment in any school year that begins on or after August 8, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-912), the service retirement pension shall thereupon be cancelled.

If the pensioner who only teaches drivers education courses after regular school hours works more than 900 hours or accepts excess gross compensation for such re-employment in any school year that begins on or after August 12, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-786) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the service retirement pension shall thereupon be cancelled.

If the pensioner works more than 120 days or accepts excess gross compensation for such re-employment in any school year that begins on or after July 1, 2019, the service retirement pension shall thereupon be cancelled.

The Board of the Fund shall adopt rules for the implementation and administration of this subsection.

(c-6) For school years beginning on or after July 1, 2022 and before July 1, 2024, the service retirement pension shall not be cancelled in the case of a service retirement pensioner who is re-employed as a teacher or an administrator on a temporary and non-annual basis or on an hourly basis bases, so long as the person does not work as a teacher or an administrator for compensation on more than 140 days in a school year. Such re-employment does not require contributions, result in service credit, or constitute active membership in the Fund.

(c-7) For school years beginning on or after July 1, 2024, the service retirement pension shall not be cancelled in the case of a service retirement pensioner who is re-employed as a teacher or an administrator on a temporary and non-annual basis or on an hourly basis, so long as the person does not work as a teacher or an administrator for compensation on more than 120 days in a school year. Such re-employment does not require contributions, result in service credit, or constitute active membership in the Fund.

(c-10) Until June 30, 2024, the service retirement pension of a service retirement pensioner shall not be cancelled if the service retirement pensioner is employed in a subject shortage area and the Employer that is employing the service retirement pensioner meets the following requirements:

(1) If the Employer has honorably dismissed, within the calendar year preceding the beginning of the school term for which it seeks to employ a service retirement pensioner under this subsection, any teachers who are legally qualified to hold positions in the subject shortage area and have not yet begun to receive their service retirement pensions under this Article, the vacant positions must first be tendered to those teachers.

(2) For a period of at least 90 days during the 6 months preceding the beginning of either the fall or spring term for which it seeks to employ a service retirement pensioner under this subsection, the Employer must, on an ongoing basis, (i) advertise its vacancies in the subject shortage area in employment bulletins published by college and university placement offices located near the school; (ii) search for teachers legally qualified to fill those vacancies through the Illinois Education Job Bank; and (iii) post all vacancies on the Employer's website and list the vacancy in an online job portal or database.

An Employer of a teacher who is unable to continue employment with the Employer because of documented illness, injury, or disability that occurred after being hired by the Employer under this subsection is exempt from the provisions of paragraph (2) for 90 school days. However, the Employer must on an ongoing basis comply with items (i), (ii), and (iii) of paragraph (2).

The Employer must submit documentation of its compliance with this subsection to the regional superintendent. Upon receiving satisfactory documentation from the Employer, the regional superintendent shall certify the Employer's compliance with this subsection to the Fund.

(d) Notwithstanding Sections 1-103.1 and 17-157, the changes to this Section made by Public Act 90-32 apply without regard to whether termination of service occurred before the effective date of that Act and apply retroactively to August 23, 1989.

Notwithstanding Sections 1-103.1 and 17-157, the changes to this Section and Section 17-106 made by Public Act 92-599 apply without regard to whether termination of service occurred before June 28, 2002 (the effective date of Public Act 92-599) that Act.

Notwithstanding Sections 1-103.1 and 17-157, the changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-912 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly apply without regard to whether termination of service occurred before August 8, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-912) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-340, eff. 8-9-19; 102-1013, eff. 5-27-22; 102-1090, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-27-22.)

Section 230. The Public Building Commission Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(50 ILCS 20/3) (from Ch. 85, par. 1033)

Sec. 3. The following terms, wherever used, or referred to in this Act, mean unless the context clearly requires a different meaning:

(a) "Commission" means a Public Building Commission created pursuant to this Act.

(b) "Commissioner" or "Commissioners" means a Commissioner or Commissioners of a Public Building Commission.

(c) "County seat" means a city, village, or town which is the county seat of a county.

(d) "Municipality" means any city, village, or incorporated town of the State of Illinois.

(e) "Municipal corporation" includes a county, city, village, town, (including a county seat), park district, school district in a county of 3,000,000 or more population, board of education of a school district in a county of 3,000,000 or more population, sanitary district, airport authority contiguous with the County Seat as of July 1, 1969, and any other municipal body or governmental agency of the State, and, until July 1, 2011, a school district that (i) was organized prior to 1860, (ii) is located in part in a city originally incorporated prior to 1840, and (iii) entered into a lease with a Commission prior to 1993, and its board of education, but does not include a school district in a county of less than 3,000,000 population, a board of education of a school district in a county of less than 3,000,000 population, or a community college district in a county of less than 3,000,000 population, except that, until July 1, 2011, a school district that (i) was organized prior to 1860, (ii) is located in part in a city originally incorporated prior to 1840, and (iii) entered into a lease with a Commission prior to 1993, and its board of education, are included.

(f) "Governing body" includes a city council, county board, or any other body or board, by whatever name it may be known, charged with the governing of a municipal corporation.

(g) "Presiding officer" includes the mayor or president of a city, village, or town, the presiding officer of a county board, or the presiding officer of any other board or commission, as the case may be.

(h) "Oath" means oath or affirmation.

(i) "Building" means an improvement to real estate to be made available for use by a municipal corporation for the furnishing of governmental services to its citizens, together with any land or interest in land necessary or useful in connection with the improvement.

(j) "Delivery system" means the design and construction approach used to develop and construct a project.

(k) "Design-bid-build" means the traditional delivery system used on public projects that incorporates the Local Government Professional Services Selection Act (50 ILCS 510/) and the principles of competitive selection.

(l) "Design-build" means a delivery system that provides responsibility within a single contract for the furnishing of architecture, engineering, land surveying, and related services as required, and the labor, materials, equipment, and other construction services for the project.

(m) "Design-build contract" means a contract for a public project under this Act between the Commission and a design-build entity to furnish architecture, engineering, land surveying, and related services as required, and to furnish the labor, materials, equipment, and other construction services for the project. The design-build contract may be conditioned upon subsequent refinements in scope and price and may allow the Commission to make modifications in the project scope without invalidating the design-build contract.

(n) "Design-build entity" means any individual, sole proprietorship, firm, partnership, joint venture, corporation, professional corporation, or other entity that proposes to design and construct any public project under this Act. A design-build entity and associated design-build professionals shall conduct themselves in accordance with the laws of this State and the related provisions of the Illinois Administrative Code, as referenced by the licensed design professionals Acts of this State.

(o) "Design professional" means any individual, sole proprietorship, firm, partnership, joint venture, corporation, professional corporation, or other entity that offers services under the Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989 (225 ILCS 305/), the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989 (225 ILCS 325/), the Structural Engineering Practice Licensing Act of 1989 (225 ILCS 340/), or the Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989 (225 ILCS 330/).

(p) "Evaluation criteria" means the requirements for the separate phases of the selection process for design-build proposals as defined in this Act and may include the specialized experience, technical qualifications and competence, capacity to perform, past performance, experience with similar projects, assignment of personnel to the project, and other appropriate factors. Price may not be used as a factor in the evaluation of Phase I proposals.

(q) "Proposal" means the offer to enter into a design-build contract as submitted by a design-build entity in accordance with this Act.

(r) "Request for proposal" means the document used by the Commission to solicit proposals for a design-build contract.

(s) "Scope and performance criteria" means the requirements for the public project, including, but not limited to, the intended usage, capacity, size, scope, quality and performance standards, life-cycle costs, and other programmatic criteria that are expressed in performance-oriented and quantifiable specifications and drawings that can be reasonably inferred and are suited to allow a design-build entity to develop a proposal.

(t) "Guaranteed maximum price" means a form of contract in which compensation may vary according to the scope of work involved but in any case may not exceed an agreed total amount.

Definitions in this Section with respect to design-build shall have no effect beginning on June 1, 2023; provided that any design-build contracts entered into before such date or any procurement of a project under this Act commenced before such date, and the contracts resulting from those procurements, shall remain effective. The actions of any person or entity taken on or after June 1, 2013 and before January 7, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-619) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly in reliance on the provisions of this Section with respect to design-build continuing to be effective are hereby validated.

(Source: P.A. 100-736, eff. 1-1-19; revised 8-23-22.)

Section 235. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Sections 7, 8.1, 10.6, and 10.19 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/7)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary law enforcement officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include, but not be limited to, courses of procedural justice, arrest and use and control tactics, search and seizure, including temporary questioning, civil rights, human rights, human relations, cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, crisis intervention training, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic control devices, including the psychological and physiological effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions and crises, including, but not limited to, the disease of addiction, which require immediate assistance and response and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children, including cultural perceptions and common myths of sexual assault and sexual abuse as well as interview techniques that are age sensitive and are trauma informed, victim centered, and victim sensitive. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include training in effective recognition of and responses to stress, trauma, and post-traumatic stress experienced by law enforcement officers that is consistent with Section 25 of the Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act in a peer setting, including recognizing signs and symptoms of work-related cumulative stress, issues that may lead to suicide, and solutions for intervention with peer support resources. The curriculum shall include a block of instruction addressing the mandatory reporting requirements under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental or physical disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum shall include training in the detection and investigation of all forms of human trafficking. The curriculum shall also include instruction in trauma-informed responses designed to ensure the physical safety and well-being of a child of an arrested parent or immediate family member; this instruction must include, but is not limited to: (1) understanding the trauma experienced by the child while maintaining the integrity of the arrest and safety of officers, suspects, and other involved individuals; (2) de-escalation tactics that would include the use of force when reasonably necessary; and (3) inquiring whether a child will require supervision and care. The curriculum for probationary law enforcement officers shall include: (1) at least 12 hours of hands-on, scenario-based role-playing; (2) at least 6 hours of instruction on use of force techniques, including the use of de-escalation techniques to prevent or reduce the need for force whenever safe and feasible; (3) specific training on officer safety techniques, including cover, concealment, and time; and (4) at least 6 hours of training focused on high-risk traffic stops. The curriculum for permanent law enforcement officers shall include, but not be limited to: (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for probationary law enforcement officers, including University police officers. The curriculum shall also include training on the use of a firearms restraining order by providing instruction on the process used to file a firearms restraining order and how to identify situations in which a firearms restraining order is appropriate.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary law enforcement officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental or State governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to the officer's successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to the officer's satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685). Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685) shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

g. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a law enforcement officer must satisfactorily complete every 3 years. Those requirements shall include constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, procedural justice, civil rights, human rights, reporting child abuse and neglect, and cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity. These trainings shall consist of at least 30 hours of training every 3 years.

h. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a law enforcement officer must satisfactorily complete at least annually. Those requirements shall include law updates, emergency medical response training and certification, crisis intervention training, and officer wellness and mental health.

i. Minimum in-service training requirements as set forth in Section 10.6.

The amendatory changes to this Section made by Public Act 101-652 shall take effect January 1, 2022.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, Public Act 101-652, and Public Act 102-28, and Public Act 102-694 take effect July 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-18, eff. 1-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-215, eff. 1-1-20; 101-224, eff. 8-9-19; 101-375, eff. 8-16-19; 101-564, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, Article 10, Section 10-143, eff. 7-1-21; 101-652, Article 25, Section 25-40, eff. 1-1-22; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; 102-345, eff. 6-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; revised 8-11-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary law enforcement officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include, but not be limited to, courses of procedural justice, arrest and use and control tactics, search and seizure, including temporary questioning, civil rights, human rights, human relations, cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, crisis intervention training, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and crash investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic control devices, including the psychological and physiological effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions and crises, including, but not limited to, the disease of addiction, which require immediate assistance and response and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children, including cultural perceptions and common myths of sexual assault and sexual abuse as well as interview techniques that are age sensitive and are trauma informed, victim centered, and victim sensitive. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include training in effective recognition of and responses to stress, trauma, and post-traumatic stress experienced by law enforcement officers that is consistent with Section 25 of the Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act in a peer setting, including recognizing signs and symptoms of work-related cumulative stress, issues that may lead to suicide, and solutions for intervention with peer support resources. The curriculum shall include a block of instruction addressing the mandatory reporting requirements under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental or physical disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum shall include training in the detection and investigation of all forms of human trafficking. The curriculum shall also include instruction in trauma-informed responses designed to ensure the physical safety and well-being of a child of an arrested parent or immediate family member; this instruction must include, but is not limited to: (1) understanding the trauma experienced by the child while maintaining the integrity of the arrest and safety of officers, suspects, and other involved individuals; (2) de-escalation tactics that would include the use of force when reasonably necessary; and (3) inquiring whether a child will require supervision and care. The curriculum for probationary law enforcement officers shall include: (1) at least 12 hours of hands-on, scenario-based role-playing; (2) at least 6 hours of instruction on use of force techniques, including the use of de-escalation techniques to prevent or reduce the need for force whenever safe and feasible; (3) specific training on officer safety techniques, including cover, concealment, and time; and (4) at least 6 hours of training focused on high-risk traffic stops. The curriculum for permanent law enforcement officers shall include, but not be limited to: (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for probationary law enforcement officers, including University police officers. The curriculum shall also include training on the use of a firearms restraining order by providing instruction on the process used to file a firearms restraining order and how to identify situations in which a firearms restraining order is appropriate.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary law enforcement officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental or State governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to the officer's successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to the officer's satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685). Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685) shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

g. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a law enforcement officer must satisfactorily complete every 3 years. Those requirements shall include constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, procedural justice, civil rights, human rights, reporting child abuse and neglect, and cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity. These trainings shall consist of at least 30 hours of training every 3 years.

h. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a law enforcement officer must satisfactorily complete at least annually. Those requirements shall include law updates, emergency medical response training and certification, crisis intervention training, and officer wellness and mental health.

i. Minimum in-service training requirements as set forth in Section 10.6.

The amendatory changes to this Section made by Public Act 101-652 shall take effect January 1, 2022.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, Public Act 101-652, and Public Act 102-28, and Public Act 102-694 take effect July 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-18, eff. 1-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-215, eff. 1-1-20; 101-224, eff. 8-9-19; 101-375, eff. 8-16-19; 101-564, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, Article 10, Section 10-143, eff. 7-1-21; 101-652, Article 25, Section 25-40, eff. 1-1-22; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; 102-345, eff. 6-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; revised 8-11-22.)

(50 ILCS 705/8.1) (from Ch. 85, par. 508.1)

Sec. 8.1. Full-time law enforcement and county corrections officers.

(a) No person shall receive a permanent appointment as a law enforcement officer or a permanent appointment as a county corrections officer unless that person has been awarded, within 6 months of the officer's initial full-time employment, a certificate attesting to the officer's successful completion of the Minimum Standards Basic Law Enforcement or County Correctional Training Course as prescribed by the Board; or has been awarded a certificate attesting to the officer's satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours and which course has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or a training waiver by reason of extensive prior law enforcement or county corrections experience the basic training requirement is determined by the Board to be illogical and unreasonable.

If such training is required and not completed within the applicable 6 months, then the officer must forfeit the officer's position, or the employing agency must obtain a waiver from the Board extending the period for compliance. Such waiver shall be issued only for good and justifiable reasons, and in no case shall extend more than 90 days beyond the initial 6 months. Any hiring agency that fails to train a law enforcement officer within this period shall be prohibited from employing this individual in a law enforcement capacity for one year from the date training was to be completed. If an agency again fails to train the individual a second time, the agency shall be permanently barred from employing this individual in a law enforcement capacity.

An individual who is not certified by the Board or whose certified status is inactive shall not function as a law enforcement officer, be assigned the duties of a law enforcement officer by an employing agency, or be authorized to carry firearms under the authority of the employer, except as otherwise authorized to carry a firearm under State or federal law. Sheriffs who are elected as of January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, are exempt from the requirement of certified status. Failure to be certified in accordance with this Act shall cause the officer to forfeit the officer's position.

An employing agency may not grant a person status as a law enforcement officer unless the person has been granted an active law enforcement officer certification by the Board.

(b) Inactive status. A person who has an inactive law enforcement officer certification has no law enforcement authority.

(1) A law enforcement officer's certification becomes inactive upon termination, resignation, retirement, or separation from the officer's employing law enforcement agency for any reason. The Board shall re-activate a certification upon written application from the law enforcement officer's law enforcement agency that shows the law enforcement officer: (i) has accepted a full-time law enforcement position with that law enforcement agency, (ii) is not the subject of a decertification proceeding, and (iii) meets all other criteria for re-activation required by the Board. The Board may also establish special training requirements to be completed as a condition for re-activation.

The Board shall review a notice for reactivation from a law enforcement agency and provide a response within 30 days. The Board may extend this review. A law enforcement officer shall be allowed to be employed as a full-time law enforcement officer while the law enforcement officer reactivation waiver is under review.

A law enforcement officer who is refused reactivation or an employing agency of a law enforcement officer who is refused reactivation under this Section may request a hearing in accordance with the hearing procedures as outlined in subsection (h) of Section 6.3 of this Act.

The Board may refuse to re-activate the certification of a law enforcement officer who was involuntarily terminated for good cause by an employing agency for conduct subject to decertification under this Act or resigned or retired after receiving notice of a law enforcement agency's investigation.

(2) A law enforcement agency may place an officer who is currently certified on inactive status by sending a written request to the Board. A law enforcement officer whose certificate has been placed on inactive status shall not function as a law enforcement officer until the officer has completed any requirements for reactivating the certificate as required by the Board. A request for inactive status in this subsection shall be in writing, accompanied by verifying documentation, and shall be submitted to the Board with a copy to the chief administrator of the law enforcement officer's current or new employing agency.

(3) Certification that has become inactive under paragraph (2) of this subsection (b), shall be reactivated by written notice from the law enforcement officer's agency upon a showing that the law enforcement officer is: (i) is employed in a full-time law enforcement position with the same law enforcement agency, (ii) is not the subject of a decertification proceeding, and (iii) meets all other criteria for re-activation required by the Board.

(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (3) of this subsection (b), a law enforcement officer whose certification has become inactive under paragraph (2) may have the officer's employing agency submit a request for a waiver of training requirements to the Board in writing and accompanied by any verifying documentation.. A grant of a waiver is within the discretion of the Board. Within 7 days of receiving a request for a waiver under this Section section, the Board shall notify the law enforcement officer and the chief administrator of the law enforcement officer's employing agency, whether the request has been granted, denied, or if the Board will take additional time for information. A law enforcement agency, whose request for a waiver under this subsection is denied, is entitled to request a review of the denial by the Board. The law enforcement agency must request a review within 20 days of the waiver being denied. The burden of proof shall be on the law enforcement agency to show why the law enforcement officer is entitled to a waiver of the legislatively required training and eligibility requirements.

(c) No provision of this Section shall be construed to mean that a county corrections officer employed by a governmental agency at the time of the effective date of this amendatory Act, either as a probationary county corrections officer or as a permanent county corrections officer, shall require certification under the provisions of this Section. No provision of this Section shall be construed to apply to certification of elected county sheriffs.

(d) Within 14 days, a law enforcement officer shall report to the Board: (1) any name change; (2) any change in employment; or (3) the filing of any criminal indictment or charges against the officer alleging that the officer committed any offense as enumerated in Section 6.1 of this Act.

(e) All law enforcement officers must report the completion of the training requirements required in this Act in compliance with Section 8.4 of this Act.

(e-1) Each employing law enforcement agency shall allow and provide an opportunity for a law enforcement officer to complete the mandated requirements in this Act. All mandated training shall will be provided for at no cost to the employees. Employees shall be paid for all time spent attending mandated training.

(e-2) Each agency, academy, or training provider shall maintain proof of a law enforcement officer's completion of legislatively required training in a format designated by the Board. The report of training shall be submitted to the Board within 30 days following completion of the training. A copy of the report shall be submitted to the law enforcement officer. Upon receipt of a properly completed report of training, the Board will make the appropriate entry into the training records of the law enforcement officer.

(f) This Section does not apply to part-time law enforcement officers or probationary part-time law enforcement officers.

(g) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, Public Act 101-652, and Public Act 102-28, and Public Act 102-694 take effect July 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-187, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; revised 2-3-22.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.6)

Sec. 10.6. Mandatory training to be completed every 3 years.

(a) The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for in-service training requirements as set forth in this Section. The training shall provide officers with knowledge of policies and laws regulating the use of force; equip officers with tactics and skills, including de-escalation techniques, to prevent or reduce the need to use force or, when force must be used, to use force that is objectively reasonable, necessary, and proportional under the totality of the circumstances; and ensure appropriate supervision and accountability. The training shall include:

(1) At least 12 hours of hands-on, scenario-based role-playing.

(2) At least 6 hours of instruction on use of force techniques, including the use of de-escalation techniques to prevent or reduce the need for force whenever safe and feasible.

(3) Specific training on the law concerning stops, searches, and the use of force under the Fourth Amendment to the United States Constitution.

(4) Specific training on officer safety techniques, including cover, concealment, and time.

(5) At least 6 hours of training focused on high-risk traffic stops.

(b) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, Public Act 101-652, and Public Act 102-28, and Public Act 102-694 take effect July 1, 2022.

This Section takes effect January 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; revised 2-3-22.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.19)

Sec. 10.19. Training; administration of epinephrine.

(a) This Section, along with Section 40 of the Illinois State Police Act, may be referred to as the Annie LeGere Law.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of epinephrine into the human body prescribed in the name of a local law enforcement agency.

(c) The Board shall conduct or approve an optional advanced training program for law enforcement officers to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. The training must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction;

(2) how to respond to an emergency involving an allergic reaction;

(3) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector;

(4) how to respond to an individual with a known allergy as well as an individual with a previously unknown allergy;

(5) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine auto-injector; and

(6) other criteria as determined in rules adopted by the Board.

(d) A local law enforcement agency may authorize a law enforcement officer who has completed an optional advanced training program under subsection (c) to carry, administer, or assist with the administration of epinephrine auto-injectors provided by the local law enforcement agency whenever the officer is performing official duties.

(e) A local law enforcement agency that authorizes its officers to carry and administer epinephrine auto-injectors under subsection (d) must establish a policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, administration, and disposal of epinephrine auto-injectors and to provide continued training in the administration of epinephrine auto-injectors.

(f) A physician, physician physician's assistant with prescriptive authority, or advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority may provide a standing protocol or prescription for epinephrine auto-injectors in the name of a local law enforcement agency to be maintained for use when necessary.

(g) When a law enforcement officer administers an epinephrine auto-injector in good faith, the law enforcement officer and local law enforcement agency, and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician physician's assistant with prescriptive authority, or advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority who provides a standing order or prescription for an epinephrine auto-injector, incur no civil or professional liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, or as a result of any injury or death arising from the use of an epinephrine auto-injector.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; revised 2-3-22.)

Section 240. The Police and Community Relations Improvement Act is amended by changing Section 1-10 as follows:

(50 ILCS 727/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Investigation of officer-involved deaths; requirements.

(a) Each law enforcement agency shall have a written policy regarding the investigation of officer-involved deaths that involve a law enforcement officer employed by that law enforcement agency.

(b) Each officer-involved death investigation shall be conducted by at least 2 investigators, or an entity or agency comprised of at least 2 investigators, one of whom is the lead investigator. The lead investigator shall be a person certified by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board as a Lead Homicide Investigator, or similar training approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board or the Illinois State Police, or similar training provided at an Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board certified school. No investigator involved in the investigation may be employed by the law enforcement agency that employs the officer involved in the officer-involved death, unless the investigator is employed by the Illinois State Police and is not assigned to the same division or unit as the officer involved in the death.

(c) In addition to the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section, if the officer-involved death being investigated involves a motor vehicle crash, at least one investigator shall be certified by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board as a Crash Reconstruction Specialist, or similar training approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board or the Illinois State Police, or similar training provided at an Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board certified school. Notwithstanding the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section, the policy for a law enforcement agency, when the officer-involved death being investigated involves a motor vehicle collision, may allow the use of an investigator who is employed by that law enforcement agency and who is certified by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board as a Crash Reconstruction Specialist, or similar training approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or similar certified training approved by the Illinois State Police, or similar training provided at an Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board certified school.

(d) The investigators conducting the investigation shall, in an expeditious manner, provide a complete report to the State's Attorney of the county in which the officer-involved death occurred.

(e) If the State's Attorney, or a designated special prosecutor, determines there is no basis to prosecute the law enforcement officer involved in the officer-involved death, or if the law enforcement officer is not otherwise charged or indicted, the investigators shall publicly release a report.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 12-13-22.)

Section 245. The Emergency Telephone System Act is amended by changing Section 15.4a as follows:

(50 ILCS 750/15.4a)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 15.4a. Consolidation.

(a) By July 1, 2017, and except as otherwise provided in this Section, Emergency Telephone System Boards, Joint Emergency Telephone System Boards, and PSAPs shall be consolidated as follows, subject to subsections (b) and (c) of this Section:

(1) In any county with a population of at least 250,000 that has a single Emergency Telephone System Board and more than 2 PSAPs, the 9-1-1 Authority shall reduce the number of PSAPs by at least 50% or to 2 PSAPs, whichever is greater. Nothing in this paragraph shall preclude consolidation resulting in one PSAP in the county.

(2) In any county with a population of at least 250,000 that has more than one Emergency Telephone System Board or , Joint Emergency Telephone System Board, any 9-1-1 Authority serving a population of less than 25,000 shall be consolidated such that no 9-1-1 Authority in the county serves a population of less than 25,000.

(3) In any county with a population of at least 250,000 but less than 1,000,000 that has more than one Emergency Telephone System Board or , Joint Emergency Telephone System Board, each 9-1-1 Authority shall reduce the number of PSAPs by at least 50% or to 2 PSAPs, whichever is greater. Nothing in this paragraph shall preclude consolidation of a 9-1-1 Authority into a Joint Emergency Telephone System Board, and nothing in this paragraph shall preclude consolidation resulting in one PSAP in the county.

(4) In any county with a population of less than 250,000 that has a single Emergency Telephone System Board and more than 2 PSAPs, the 9-1-1 Authority shall reduce the number of PSAPs by at least 50% or to 2 PSAPs, whichever is greater. Nothing in this paragraph shall preclude consolidation resulting in one PSAP in the county.

(5) In any county with a population of less than 250,000 that has more than one Emergency Telephone System Board or Joint Emergency Telephone System Board and more than 2 PSAPS, the 9-1-1 Authorities shall be consolidated into a single joint board, and the number of PSAPs shall be reduced by at least 50% or to 2 PSAPs, whichever is greater. Nothing in this paragraph shall preclude consolidation resulting in one PSAP in the county.

(6) Any 9-1-1 Authority that does not have a PSAP within its jurisdiction shall be consolidated through an intergovernmental agreement with an existing 9-1-1 Authority that has a PSAP to create a Joint Emergency Telephone Board.

(7) The corporate authorities of each county that has no 9-1-1 service as of January 1, 2016 shall provide 9-1-1 wireline and wireless 9-1-1 service for that county by either (i) entering into an intergovernmental agreement with an existing Emergency Telephone System Board to create a new Joint Emergency Telephone System Board, or (ii) entering into an intergovernmental agreement with the corporate authorities that have created an existing Joint Emergency Telephone System Board.

(b) By July 1, 2016, each county required to consolidate pursuant to paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of this Section and each 9-1-1 Authority required to consolidate pursuant to paragraphs (1) through (6) of subsection (a) of this Section shall file a plan for consolidation or a request for a waiver pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section with the Office of the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator.

(1) No county or 9-1-1 Authority may avoid the requirements of this Section by converting primary PSAPs to secondary or virtual answering points; however, a PSAP may be decommissioned. Staff from decommissioned PSAPs may remain to perform nonemergency police, fire, or EMS responsibilities. Any county or 9-1-1 Authority not in compliance with this Section shall be ineligible to receive consolidation grant funds issued under Section 15.4b of this Act or monthly disbursements otherwise due under Section 30 of this Act, until the county or 9-1-1 Authority is in compliance.

(2) Within 60 calendar days of receiving a consolidation plan or waiver, the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board shall hold at least one public hearing on the plan and provide a recommendation to the Administrator. Notice of the hearing shall be provided to the respective entity to which the plan applies.

(3) Within 90 calendar days of receiving a consolidation plan, the Administrator shall approve the plan or waiver, approve the plan as modified, or grant a waiver pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section. In making his or her decision, the Administrator shall consider any recommendation from the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board regarding the plan. If the Administrator does not follow the recommendation of the Board, the Administrator shall provide a written explanation for the deviation in his or her decision.

(4) The deadlines provided in this subsection may be extended upon agreement between the Administrator and entity which submitted the plan.

(c) A waiver from a consolidation required under subsection (a) of this Section may be granted if the Administrator finds that the consolidation will result in a substantial threat to public safety, is economically unreasonable, or is technically infeasible.

(d) Any decision of the Administrator under this Section shall be deemed a final administrative decision and shall be subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; revised 2-28-22.)

Section 250. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-3013, 5-1006.7, 5-1182, 5-45025, and 6-30002 and the heading of Division 4-13 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-3013) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3013)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 3-3013. Preliminary investigations; blood and urine analysis; summoning jury; reports. Every coroner, whenever, as soon as he knows or is informed that the dead body of any person is found, or lying within his county, whose death is suspected of being:

(a) A sudden or violent death, whether apparently suicidal, homicidal, or accidental, including, but not limited to, deaths apparently caused or contributed to by thermal, traumatic, chemical, electrical, or radiational injury, or a complication of any of them, or by drowning or suffocation, or as a result of domestic violence as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(b) A death due to a sex crime;

(c) A death where the circumstances are suspicious, obscure, mysterious, or otherwise unexplained or where, in the written opinion of the attending physician, the cause of death is not determined;

(d) A death where addiction to alcohol or to any drug may have been a contributory cause; or

(e) A death where the decedent was not attended by a licensed physician;

shall go to the place where the dead body is, and take charge of the same and shall make a preliminary investigation into the circumstances of the death. In the case of death without attendance by a licensed physician, the body may be moved with the coroner's consent from the place of death to a mortuary in the same county. Coroners in their discretion shall notify such physician as is designated in accordance with Section 3-3014 to attempt to ascertain the cause of death, either by autopsy or otherwise.

In cases of accidental death involving a motor vehicle in which the decedent was (1) the operator or a suspected operator of a motor vehicle, or (2) a pedestrian 16 years of age or older, the coroner shall require that a blood specimen of at least 30 cc., and if medically possible a urine specimen of at least 30 cc. or as much as possible up to 30 cc., be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion after the accident causing his death, by such physician as has been designated in accordance with Section 3-3014, or by the coroner or deputy coroner or a qualified person designated by such physician, coroner, or deputy coroner. If the county does not maintain laboratory facilities for making such analysis, the blood and urine so drawn shall be sent to the Illinois State Police or any other accredited or State-certified laboratory for analysis of the alcohol, carbon monoxide, and dangerous or narcotic drug content of such blood and urine specimens. Each specimen submitted shall be accompanied by pertinent information concerning the decedent upon a form prescribed by such laboratory. Any person drawing blood and urine and any person making any examination of the blood and urine under the terms of this Division shall be immune from all liability, civil or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred or imposed.

In all other cases coming within the jurisdiction of the coroner and referred to in subparagraphs (a) through (e) above, blood, and, whenever possible, urine samples shall be analyzed for the presence of alcohol and other drugs. When the coroner suspects that drugs may have been involved in the death, either directly or indirectly, a toxicological examination shall be performed which may include analyses of blood, urine, bile, gastric contents, and other tissues. When the coroner suspects a death is due to toxic substances, other than drugs, the coroner shall consult with the toxicologist prior to collection of samples. Information submitted to the toxicologist shall include information as to height, weight, age, sex, and race of the decedent as well as medical history, medications used by, and the manner of death of the decedent.

When the coroner or medical examiner finds that the cause of death is due to homicidal means, the coroner or medical examiner shall cause blood and buccal specimens (tissue may be submitted if no uncontaminated blood or buccal specimen can be obtained), whenever possible, to be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion. For proper preservation of the specimens, collected blood and buccal specimens shall be dried and tissue specimens shall be frozen if available equipment exists. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the collection of the specimens, the coroner or medical examiner shall release those specimens to the police agency responsible for investigating the death. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the receipt from the coroner or medical examiner, the police agency shall submit the specimens using the agency case number to a National DNA Index System (NDIS) participating laboratory within this State, such as the Illinois State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings. The results of the analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings shall be provided to the Illinois State Police and shall be maintained by the Illinois State Police in the State central repository in the same manner, and subject to the same conditions, as provided in Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The requirements of this paragraph are in addition to any other findings, specimens, or information that the coroner or medical examiner is required to provide during the conduct of a criminal investigation.

In all counties, in cases of apparent suicide, homicide, or accidental death or in other cases, within the discretion of the coroner, the coroner may summon 8 persons of lawful age from those persons drawn for petit jurors in the county. The summons shall command these persons to present themselves personally at such a place and time as the coroner shall determine, and may be in any form which the coroner shall determine and may incorporate any reasonable form of request for acknowledgment which the coroner deems practical and provides a reliable proof of service. The summons may be served by first class mail. From the 8 persons so summoned, the coroner shall select 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time, as the coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors selected in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the original jurors shall be unable to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county. The coroner shall furnish to each juror without fee at the time of his discharge a certificate of the number of days in attendance at an inquest, and, upon being presented with such certificate, the county treasurer shall pay to the juror the sum provided for his services.

In counties which have a jury commission, in cases of apparent suicide or homicide or of accidental death, the coroner may conduct an inquest. The jury commission shall provide at least 8 jurors to the coroner, from whom the coroner shall select any 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time as the coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors originally chosen in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the 6 jurors originally chosen shall be unable to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. At the coroner's discretion, additional jurors to fill such vacancies shall be supplied by the jury commission. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph in such county shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county.

In every case in which a fire is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the death to the Office of the State Fire Marshal. The coroner shall provide a copy of the death certificate (i) within 30 days after filing the permanent death certificate and (ii) in a manner that is agreed upon by the coroner and the State Fire Marshal.

In every case in which a drug overdose is determined to be the cause or a contributing factor in the death, the coroner or medical examiner shall report the death to the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules regarding specific information that must be reported in the event of such a death. If possible, the coroner shall report the cause of the overdose. As used in this Section, "overdose" has the same meaning as it does in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. The Department of Public Health shall issue a semiannual report to the General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report of overdose death figures organized by location, age, and any other factors, the Department deems appropriate.

In addition, in every case in which domestic violence is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the death to the Illinois State Police.

All deaths in State institutions and all deaths of wards of the State or youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act in private care facilities or in programs funded by the Department of Human Services under its powers relating to mental health and developmental disabilities or alcoholism and substance abuse or funded by the Department of Children and Family Services shall be reported to the coroner of the county in which the facility is located. If the coroner has reason to believe that an investigation is needed to determine whether the death was caused by maltreatment or negligent care of the ward of the State or youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act, the coroner may conduct a preliminary investigation of the circumstances of such death as in cases of death under circumstances set forth in subparagraphs paragraphs (a) through (e) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 8-23-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 3-3013. Preliminary investigations; blood and urine analysis; summoning jury; reports. Every coroner, whenever, as soon as he knows or is informed that the dead body of any person is found, or lying within his county, whose death is suspected of being:

(a) A sudden or violent death, whether apparently suicidal, homicidal, or accidental, including, but not limited to, deaths apparently caused or contributed to by thermal, traumatic, chemical, electrical, or radiational injury, or a complication of any of them, or by drowning or suffocation, or as a result of domestic violence as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(b) A death due to a sex crime;

(c) A death where the circumstances are suspicious, obscure, mysterious, or otherwise unexplained or where, in the written opinion of the attending physician, the cause of death is not determined;

(d) A death where addiction to alcohol or to any drug may have been a contributory cause; or

(e) A death where the decedent was not attended by a licensed physician;

shall go to the place where the dead body is, and take charge of the same and shall make a preliminary investigation into the circumstances of the death. In the case of death without attendance by a licensed physician, the body may be moved with the coroner's consent from the place of death to a mortuary in the same county. Coroners in their discretion shall notify such physician as is designated in accordance with Section 3-3014 to attempt to ascertain the cause of death, either by autopsy or otherwise.

In cases of accidental death involving a motor vehicle in which the decedent was (1) the operator or a suspected operator of a motor vehicle, or (2) a pedestrian 16 years of age or older, the coroner shall require that a blood specimen of at least 30 cc., and if medically possible a urine specimen of at least 30 cc. or as much as possible up to 30 cc., be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion after the crash causing his death, by such physician as has been designated in accordance with Section 3-3014, or by the coroner or deputy coroner or a qualified person designated by such physician, coroner, or deputy coroner. If the county does not maintain laboratory facilities for making such analysis, the blood and urine so drawn shall be sent to the Illinois State Police or any other accredited or State-certified laboratory for analysis of the alcohol, carbon monoxide, and dangerous or narcotic drug content of such blood and urine specimens. Each specimen submitted shall be accompanied by pertinent information concerning the decedent upon a form prescribed by such laboratory. Any person drawing blood and urine and any person making any examination of the blood and urine under the terms of this Division shall be immune from all liability, civil or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred or imposed.

In all other cases coming within the jurisdiction of the coroner and referred to in subparagraphs (a) through (e) above, blood, and, whenever possible, urine samples shall be analyzed for the presence of alcohol and other drugs. When the coroner suspects that drugs may have been involved in the death, either directly or indirectly, a toxicological examination shall be performed which may include analyses of blood, urine, bile, gastric contents, and other tissues. When the coroner suspects a death is due to toxic substances, other than drugs, the coroner shall consult with the toxicologist prior to collection of samples. Information submitted to the toxicologist shall include information as to height, weight, age, sex, and race of the decedent as well as medical history, medications used by, and the manner of death of the decedent.

When the coroner or medical examiner finds that the cause of death is due to homicidal means, the coroner or medical examiner shall cause blood and buccal specimens (tissue may be submitted if no uncontaminated blood or buccal specimen can be obtained), whenever possible, to be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion. For proper preservation of the specimens, collected blood and buccal specimens shall be dried and tissue specimens shall be frozen if available equipment exists. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the collection of the specimens, the coroner or medical examiner shall release those specimens to the police agency responsible for investigating the death. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the receipt from the coroner or medical examiner, the police agency shall submit the specimens using the agency case number to a National DNA Index System (NDIS) participating laboratory within this State, such as the Illinois State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings. The results of the analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings shall be provided to the Illinois State Police and shall be maintained by the Illinois State Police in the State central repository in the same manner, and subject to the same conditions, as provided in Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The requirements of this paragraph are in addition to any other findings, specimens, or information that the coroner or medical examiner is required to provide during the conduct of a criminal investigation.

In all counties, in cases of apparent suicide, homicide, or accidental death or in other cases, within the discretion of the coroner, the coroner may summon 8 persons of lawful age from those persons drawn for petit jurors in the county. The summons shall command these persons to present themselves personally at such a place and time as the coroner shall determine, and may be in any form which the coroner shall determine and may incorporate any reasonable form of request for acknowledgment which the coroner deems practical and provides a reliable proof of service. The summons may be served by first class mail. From the 8 persons so summoned, the coroner shall select 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time, as the coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors selected in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the original jurors shall be unable to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county. The coroner shall furnish to each juror without fee at the time of his discharge a certificate of the number of days in attendance at an inquest, and, upon being presented with such certificate, the county treasurer shall pay to the juror the sum provided for his services.

In counties which have a jury commission, in cases of apparent suicide or homicide or of accidental death, the coroner may conduct an inquest. The jury commission shall provide at least 8 jurors to the coroner, from whom the coroner shall select any 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time as the coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors originally chosen in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the 6 jurors originally chosen shall be unable to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. At the coroner's discretion, additional jurors to fill such vacancies shall be supplied by the jury commission. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph in such county shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county.

In every case in which a fire is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the death to the Office of the State Fire Marshal. The coroner shall provide a copy of the death certificate (i) within 30 days after filing the permanent death certificate and (ii) in a manner that is agreed upon by the coroner and the State Fire Marshal.

In every case in which a drug overdose is determined to be the cause or a contributing factor in the death, the coroner or medical examiner shall report the death to the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules regarding specific information that must be reported in the event of such a death. If possible, the coroner shall report the cause of the overdose. As used in this Section, "overdose" has the same meaning as it does in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. The Department of Public Health shall issue a semiannual report to the General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report of overdose death figures organized by location, age, and any other factors, the Department deems appropriate.

In addition, in every case in which domestic violence is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the death to the Illinois State Police.

All deaths in State institutions and all deaths of wards of the State or youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act in private care facilities or in programs funded by the Department of Human Services under its powers relating to mental health and developmental disabilities or alcoholism and substance abuse or funded by the Department of Children and Family Services shall be reported to the coroner of the county in which the facility is located. If the coroner has reason to believe that an investigation is needed to determine whether the death was caused by maltreatment or negligent care of the ward of the State or youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act, the coroner may conduct a preliminary investigation of the circumstances of such death as in cases of death under circumstances set forth in subparagraphs paragraphs (a) through (e) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; revised 8-23-22.)

(55 ILCS 5/Div. 4-13 heading)

Division 4-13. Penalty for Violations .

(55 ILCS 5/5-1006.7)

Sec. 5-1006.7. School facility and resources occupation taxes.

(a) In any county, a tax shall be imposed upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of business to provide revenue to be used exclusively for (i) school facility purposes (except as otherwise provided in this Section), (ii) school resource officers and mental health professionals, or (iii) school facility purposes, school resource officers, and mental health professionals if a proposition for the tax has been submitted to the electors of that county and approved by a majority of those voting on the question as provided in subsection (c). The tax under this Section shall be imposed only in one-quarter percent increments and may not exceed 1%.

This additional tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act (or at the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly). Beginning December 1, 2019 and through December 31, 2020, this tax is not imposed on sales of aviation fuel unless the tax revenue is expended for airport-related purposes. If the county does not have an airport-related purpose to which it dedicates aviation fuel tax revenue, then aviation fuel is excluded from the tax. The county must comply with the certification requirements for airport-related purposes under Section 2-22 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. For purposes of this Section, "airport-related purposes" has the meaning ascribed in Section 6z-20.2 of the State Finance Act. Beginning January 1, 2021, this tax is not imposed on sales of aviation fuel for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the county. The Department of Revenue has full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this subsection. The Department shall deposit all taxes and penalties collected under this subsection into a special fund created for that purpose.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) are subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) shall employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 1 through 1o, 2 through 2-70 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2a through 2h, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the retailer's discount is not allowed for taxes paid on aviation fuel that are subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this subsection.

The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act permits the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this subsection.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to any bracketed schedules set forth by the Department.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), then a service occupation tax must also be imposed at the same rate upon all persons engaged, in the county, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the county as an incident to a sale of service.

This tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Service Occupation Tax Act (or at the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly). Beginning December 1, 2019 and through December 31, 2020, this tax is not imposed on sales of aviation fuel unless the tax revenue is expended for airport-related purposes. If the county does not have an airport-related purpose to which it dedicates aviation fuel tax revenue, then aviation fuel is excluded from the tax. The county must comply with the certification requirements for airport-related purposes under Section 2-22 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. For purposes of this Section, "airport-related purposes" has the meaning ascribed in Section 6z-20.2 of the State Finance Act. Beginning January 1, 2021, this tax is not imposed on sales of aviation fuel for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the county.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department and deposited into a special fund created for that purpose. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this subsection.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definition of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 2 (except that that reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State means the county), 2a through 2d, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the county), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax is a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 is the county), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the retailer's discount is not allowed for taxes paid on aviation fuel that are subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State means the county), Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, pursuant to any bracketed schedules set forth by the Department.

(c) The tax under this Section may not be imposed until the question of imposing the tax has been submitted to the electors of the county at a regular election and approved by a majority of the electors voting on the question. For all regular elections held prior to August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542), upon a resolution by the county board or a resolution by school district boards that represent at least 51% of the student enrollment within the county, the county board must certify the question to the proper election authority in accordance with the Election Code.

For all regular elections held prior to August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542), the election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall (name of county) be authorized to impose a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a "sales tax") at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school facility purposes?

The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the county may, thereafter, impose the tax.

For all regular elections held on or after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542), the regional superintendent of schools for the county must, upon receipt of a resolution or resolutions of school district boards that represent more than 50% of the student enrollment within the county, certify the question to the proper election authority for submission to the electors of the county at the next regular election at which the question lawfully may be submitted to the electors, all in accordance with the Election Code.

For all regular elections held on or after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) and before August 23, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-455), the election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a "sales tax") be imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school facility purposes?

The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the tax shall be imposed at the rate set forth in the question.

For all regular elections held on or after August 23, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-455), the election authority must submit the question as follows:

(1) If the referendum is to expand the use of revenues from a currently imposed tax exclusively for school facility purposes to include school resource officers and mental health professionals, the question shall be in substantially the following form:

In addition to school facility purposes, shall (name of county) school districts be authorized to use revenues from the tax commonly referred to as the school facility sales tax that is currently imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) for school resource officers and mental health professionals?

(2) If the referendum is to increase the rate of a tax currently imposed exclusively for school facility purposes at less than 1% and dedicate the additional revenues for school resource officers and mental health professionals, the question shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall the tax commonly referred to as the school facility sales tax that is currently imposed in (name of county) at the rate of (insert rate) be increased to a rate of (insert rate) with the additional revenues used exclusively for school resource officers and mental health professionals?

(3) If the referendum is to impose a tax in a county that has not previously imposed a tax under this Section exclusively for school facility purposes, the question shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a sales tax) be imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school facility purposes?

(4) If the referendum is to impose a tax in a county that has not previously imposed a tax under this Section exclusively for school resource officers and mental health professionals, the question shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a sales tax) be imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school resource officers and mental health professionals?

(5) If the referendum is to impose a tax in a county that has not previously imposed a tax under this Section exclusively for school facility purposes, school resource officers, and mental health professionals, the question shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a sales tax) be imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school facility purposes, school resource officers, and mental health professionals?

The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the tax shall be imposed at the rate set forth in the question.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), "enrollment" means the head count of the students residing in the county on the last school day of September of each year, which must be reported on the Illinois State Board of Education Public School Fall Enrollment/Housing Report.

(d) Except as otherwise provided, the Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the School Facility Occupation Tax Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside the State treasury. Taxes and penalties collected on aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019 and through December 31, 2020, shall be immediately paid over by the Department to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, for deposit into the Local Government Aviation Trust Fund. The Department shall only pay moneys into the Local Government Aviation Trust Fund under this Section for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the county.

On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the regional superintendents of schools in counties from which retailers or servicemen have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each regional superintendent of schools and disbursed to him or her in accordance with Section 3-14.31 of the School Code, is equal to the amount (not including credit memoranda and not including taxes and penalties collected on aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019 and through December 31, 2020) collected from the county under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, (i) less 2% of that amount (except the amount collected on aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019 and through December 31, 2020), of which 50% shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this Section, on behalf of the county, and 50% shall be distributed to the regional superintendent of schools to cover the costs in administering and enforcing the provisions of this Section; , (ii) plus an amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body; (iii) less an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the county; and (iv) less any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county. When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a regional superintendent of schools under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any miscalculation of previous disbursements within the previous 6 months from the time a miscalculation is discovered.

Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller from the Department of the disbursement certification to the regional superintendents of the schools provided for in this Section, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

If the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, then the Department shall notify the Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the Treasurer out of the School Facility Occupation Tax Fund or the Local Government Aviation Trust Fund, as appropriate.

(e) For the purposes of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or another mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This subsection does not apply to coal or another mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

(f) Nothing in this Section may be construed to authorize a tax to be imposed upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(g) If a county board imposes a tax under this Section pursuant to a referendum held before August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) at a rate below the rate set forth in the question approved by a majority of electors of that county voting on the question as provided in subsection (c), then the county board may, by ordinance, increase the rate of the tax up to the rate set forth in the question approved by a majority of electors of that county voting on the question as provided in subsection (c). If a county board imposes a tax under this Section pursuant to a referendum held before August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542), then the board may, by ordinance, discontinue or reduce the rate of the tax. If a tax is imposed under this Section pursuant to a referendum held on or after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) and before August 23, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-455), then the county board may reduce or discontinue the tax, but only in accordance with subsection (h-5) of this Section. If a tax is imposed under this Section pursuant to a referendum held on or after August 23, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-455), then the county board may reduce or discontinue the tax, but only in accordance with subsection (h-10). If, however, a school board issues bonds that are secured by the proceeds of the tax under this Section, then the county board may not reduce the tax rate or discontinue the tax if that rate reduction or discontinuance would adversely affect the school board's ability to pay the principal and interest on those bonds as they become due or necessitate the extension of additional property taxes to pay the principal and interest on those bonds. If the county board reduces the tax rate or discontinues the tax, then a referendum must be held in accordance with subsection (c) of this Section in order to increase the rate of the tax or to reimpose the discontinued tax.

Until January 1, 2014, the results of any election that imposes, reduces, or discontinues a tax under this Section must be certified by the election authority, and any ordinance that increases or lowers the rate or discontinues the tax must be certified by the county clerk and, in each case, filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of January next following the filing.

Beginning January 1, 2014, the results of any election that imposes, reduces, or discontinues a tax under this Section must be certified by the election authority, and any ordinance that increases or lowers the rate or discontinues the tax must be certified by the county clerk and, in each case, filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of May, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of January next following the filing.

(h) For purposes of this Section, "school facility purposes" means (i) the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the capital facilities and (ii) the payment of bonds or other obligations heretofore or hereafter issued, including bonds or other obligations heretofore or hereafter issued to refund or to continue to refund bonds or other obligations issued, for school facility purposes, provided that the taxes levied to pay those bonds are abated by the amount of the taxes imposed under this Section that are used to pay those bonds. "School facility purposes" also includes fire prevention, safety, energy conservation, accessibility, school security, and specified repair purposes set forth under Section 17-2.11 of the School Code.

(h-5) A county board in a county where a tax has been imposed under this Section pursuant to a referendum held on or after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) and before August 23, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-455) may, by ordinance or resolution, submit to the voters of the county the question of reducing or discontinuing the tax. In the ordinance or resolution, the county board shall certify the question to the proper election authority in accordance with the Election Code. The election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall the school facility retailers' occupation tax and service occupation tax (commonly referred to as the "school facility sales tax") currently imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) be (reduced to (insert rate))(discontinued)? If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then, subject to the provisions of subsection (g) of this Section, the tax shall be reduced or discontinued as set forth in the question.

(h-10) A county board in a county where a tax has been imposed under this Section pursuant to a referendum held on or after August 23, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-455) may, by ordinance or resolution, submit to the voters of the county the question of reducing or discontinuing the tax. In the ordinance or resolution, the county board shall certify the question to the proper election authority in accordance with the Election Code. The election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall the school facility and resources retailers' occupation tax and service occupation tax (commonly referred to as the school facility and resources sales tax) currently imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) be (reduced to (insert rate)) (discontinued)?

The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then, subject to the provisions of subsection (g) of this Section, the tax shall be reduced or discontinued as set forth in the question.

(i) This Section does not apply to Cook County.

(j) This Section may be cited as the County School Facility and Resources Occupation Tax Law.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-455, eff. 8-23-19; 101-604, eff. 12-13-19; 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1062, eff. 7-1-22; revised 8-10-22.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1182)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 5-1182. Charitable organizations; solicitation.

(a) No county may prohibit a charitable organization, as defined in Section 2 of the Charitable Games Act, from soliciting for charitable purposes, including solicitations taking place on public roadways from passing motorists, if all of the following requirements are met: .

(1) The persons to be engaged in the solicitation are law enforcement personnel, firefighters, or other persons employed to protect the public safety of a local agency, and those persons are soliciting solely in an area that is within the service area of that local agency.

(2) The charitable organization files an application with the county having jurisdiction over the location or locations where the solicitation is to occur. The application applications shall be filed not later than 10 business days before the date that the solicitation is to begin and shall include all of the following:

(A) The date or dates and times of day when the solicitation is to occur.

(B) The location or locations where the solicitation is to occur along with a list of 3 alternate locations listed in order of preference.

(C) The manner and conditions under which the solicitation is to occur.

(D) Proof of a valid liability insurance policy in the amount of at least $1,000,000 insuring the charity or local agency against bodily injury and property damage arising out of or in connection with the solicitation.

The county shall approve the application within 5 business days after the filing date of the application, but may impose reasonable conditions in writing that are consistent with the intent of this Section and are based on articulated public safety concerns. If the county determines that the applicant's location cannot be permitted due to significant safety concerns, such as high traffic volumes, poor geometrics, construction, maintenance operations, or past accident history, then the county may deny the application for that location and must approve one of the 3 alternate locations following the order of preference submitted by the applicant on the alternate location list. By acting under this Section, a local agency does not waive or limit any immunity from liability provided by any other provision of law.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "local agency" means a county, special district, fire district, joint powers of authority, or other political subdivision of the State of Illinois.

(c) A home rule unit may not regulate a charitable organization in a manner that is inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 97-692, eff. 6-15-12; 98-134, eff. 8-2-13; revised 8-23-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-982)

Sec. 5-1182. Charitable organizations; solicitation.

(a) No county may prohibit a charitable organization, as defined in Section 2 of the Charitable Games Act, from soliciting for charitable purposes, including solicitations taking place on public roadways from passing motorists, if all of the following requirements are met: .

(1) The persons to be engaged in the solicitation are law enforcement personnel, firefighters, or other persons employed to protect the public safety of a local agency, and those persons are soliciting solely in an area that is within the service area of that local agency.

(2) The charitable organization files an application with the county having jurisdiction over the location or locations where the solicitation is to occur. The application applications shall be filed not later than 10 business days before the date that the solicitation is to begin and shall include all of the following:

(A) The date or dates and times of day when the solicitation is to occur.

(B) The location or locations where the solicitation is to occur along with a list of 3 alternate locations listed in order of preference.

(C) The manner and conditions under which the solicitation is to occur.

(D) Proof of a valid liability insurance policy in the amount of at least $1,000,000 insuring the charity or local agency against bodily injury and property damage arising out of or in connection with the solicitation.

The county shall approve the application within 5 business days after the filing date of the application, but may impose reasonable conditions in writing that are consistent with the intent of this Section and are based on articulated public safety concerns. If the county determines that the applicant's location cannot be permitted due to significant safety concerns, such as high traffic volumes, poor geometrics, construction, maintenance operations, or past crash history, then the county may deny the application for that location and must approve one of the 3 alternate locations following the order of preference submitted by the applicant on the alternate location list. By acting under this Section, a local agency does not waive or limit any immunity from liability provided by any other provision of law.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "local agency" means a county, special district, fire district, joint powers of authority, or other political subdivision of the State of Illinois.

(c) A home rule unit may not regulate a charitable organization in a manner that is inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; revised 8-23-22.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-45025)

Sec. 5-45025. Procedures for Selection.

(a) The county must use a two-phase procedure for the selection of the successful design-build entity. Phase I of the procedure will evaluate and shortlist the design-build entities based on qualifications, and Phase II will evaluate the technical and cost proposals.

(b) The county shall include in the request for proposal the evaluating factors to be used in Phase I. These factors are in addition to any prequalification requirements of design-build entities that the county has set forth. Each request for proposal shall establish the relative importance assigned to each evaluation factor and subfactor, including any weighting of criteria to be employed by the county. The county must maintain a record of the evaluation scoring to be disclosed in event of a protest regarding the solicitation.

The county shall include the following criteria in every Phase I evaluation of design-build entities: (i) experience of personnel; (ii) successful experience with similar project types; (iii) financial capability; (iv) timeliness of past performance; (v) experience with similarly sized projects; (vi) successful reference checks of the firm; (vii) commitment to assign personnel for the duration of the project and qualifications of the entity's consultants; and (viii) ability or past performance in meeting or exhausting good faith efforts to meet the utilization goals for business enterprises established in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act and with Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act. The county may include any additional relevant criteria in Phase I that it deems necessary for a proper qualification review.

The county may not consider any design-build entity for evaluation or award if the entity has any pecuniary interest in the project or has other relationships or circumstances, including, but not limited to, long-term leasehold, mutual performance, or development contracts with the county, that may give the design-build entity a financial or tangible advantage over other design-build entities in the preparation, evaluation, or performance of the design-build contract or that create the appearance of impropriety. No proposal shall be considered that does not include an entity's plan to comply with the requirements established in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, for both the design and construction areas of performance, and with Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

Upon completion of the qualifications evaluation, the county shall create a shortlist of the most highly qualified design-build entities. The county, in its discretion, is not required to shortlist the maximum number of entities as identified for Phase II evaluation, provided that no less than 2 design-build entities nor more than 6 are selected to submit Phase II proposals.

The county shall notify the entities selected for the shortlist in writing. This notification shall commence the period for the preparation of the Phase II technical and cost evaluations. The county must allow sufficient time for the shortlist entities to prepare their Phase II submittals considering the scope and detail requested by the county.

(c) The county shall include in the request for proposal the evaluating factors to be used in the technical and cost submission components of Phase II. Each request for proposal shall establish, for both the technical and cost submission components of Phase II, the relative importance assigned to each evaluation factor and subfactor, including any weighting of criteria to be employed by the county. The county must maintain a record of the evaluation scoring to be disclosed in event of a protest regarding the solicitation.

The county shall include the following criteria in every Phase II technical evaluation of design-build entities: (i) compliance with objectives of the project; (ii) compliance of proposed services to the request for proposal requirements; (iii) quality of products or materials proposed; (iv) quality of design parameters; (v) design concepts; (vi) innovation in meeting the scope and performance criteria; and (vii) constructability of the proposed project. The county may include any additional relevant technical evaluation factors it deems necessary for proper selection.

The county shall include the following criteria in every Phase II cost evaluation: the total project cost, the construction costs, and the time of completion. The county may include any additional relevant technical evaluation factors it deems necessary for proper selection. The total project cost criteria weighting weighing factor shall not exceed 30%.

The county shall directly employ or retain a licensed design professional or a public art designer to evaluate the technical and cost submissions to determine if the technical submissions are in accordance with generally accepted industry standards. Upon completion of the technical submissions and cost submissions evaluation, the county may award the design-build contract to the highest overall ranked entity.

(Source: P.A. 102-954, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-16-22.)

(55 ILCS 5/6-30002) (from Ch. 34, par. 6-30002)

Sec. 6-30002. Disbursement to county treasurer for distribution to appropriate recipient. Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, any State funds disbursed by the State, or federal funds authorized to be disbursed by the State, to any county official of a county with a population of less than 2,000,000, or to any county department, agency program or entity of a such county shall be disbursed only to the county treasurer of such county for distribution by the county treasurer to the appropriate county recipient. This Division shall not apply to funds disbursed by a regional superintendent of schools, a regional educational service center, or the Department of Human Services with respect to its functions pertaining to mental health and developmental disabilities.

(Source: P.A. 89-262, eff. 8-10-95; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 5-27-22.)

Section 255. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-4-27, 8-10-17, 8-10-18, 9-2-119, 9-2-127, 10-1-29, 10-1-31, 11-1.5-5, and 11-92-1 and the heading of Division 31 of Article 11 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-4-27)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 8-4-27. Municipal Water and Wastewater Funding Study Committee.

(a) The Municipal Water and Wastewater Funding Study Committee is established.

(b) The Committee shall be comprised of the following members, and the appointed members of the Committee shall be appointed to the Committee no later than 30 days after May 13, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-865) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly:

(1) 1) The Governor, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chairperson.

(2) The Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, or his or her designee.

(3) One member appointed by the President of the Senate.

(4) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(5) One member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(6) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(7) Members appointed by the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency as follows:

(A) one member who is a representative of a publicly owned publicly-owned drinking water or wastewater utility with a service population of 25,000 or less;

(B) one member who is a representative of a publicly owned publicly-owned drinking water or wastewater utility with a service population over 25,000 people to 125,000 people;

(C) one member who is a representative of a publicly owned publicly-owned drinking water or wastewater utility with a service population over 125,000 people;

(D) one member who is a representative of a statewide organization representing wastewater agencies; and

(E) one member who is a representative of a statewide organization representing drinking water agencies. The Committee shall meet at the call of the chair. Committee members shall serve without compensation. If a vacancy occurs in the Committee membership, the vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment for the remainder of the Committee.

(c) The Committee shall study and make recommendations concerning any needed modifications to Illinois Environmental Protection Agency and Illinois Pollution Control Board regulations and policies as they relate to municipal water and wastewater funding to ensure that the State's revolving loan fund programs account for and prioritize the following principles, to the fullest extent allowed by federal law:

(1) A community shall not be deemed ineligible for disadvantaged community status based on size or service area of any size, with regard to special rates, loan terms, and eligibility for loan or grant funds.

(2) In determining whether a community is disadvantaged, consideration should be given to impacts of funding on water and wastewater expenses for low-income populations.

(3) In determining whether a community is eligible for funds and special rates or loan terms, environmental justice concepts should be considered.

(4) In determining how funding is allocated, a community facing water supply shortages should be considered a high priority based on urgency of need.

(5) The funding programs should promote formation and implementation of regional water partnerships.

(6) Targeted funding should be provided for addressing emerging contaminants, including PFAS.

(7) In determining eligibility for assistance, the role that the State revolving fund programs play for small communities should be understood and fully considered.

(8) Any recommendations for changes to the programs must be fully consistent with federal law and must not adversely affect any community's eligibility for loans under federal law.

(d) The Committee shall prepare a report that summarizes its work and makes recommendations resulting from its study. The Committee shall submit the report of its findings and recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than January 31, 2023. Once the Committee has submitted the report to the General Assembly and Governor, the Committee is dissolved.

(e) (f) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 102-865, eff. 5-13-22; revised 8-23-22.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-10-17) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-10-17)

Sec. 8-10-17. The corporate authorities of any such municipality may establish a revolving fund in such amount as may be necessary to enable the purchasing agent to purchase items of common usage in advance of immediate need, the revolving fund to be reimbursed from the annual appropriation of the requisitioning agencies. Neither the purchasing agent, nor any officer or employee employe of his office, nor any member of the board of standardization hereinafter provided for, shall be financially interested, directly or indirectly, in any purchase order or contract coming under the purview of his official duties. The above named officials and employees employes are expressly prohibited from accepting, directly or indirectly, from any person, company, firm, or corporation to which any purchase order or contract may be awarded, any rebate, gift, money, or anything of value whatsoever. Any officer or employee employe, as above defined, convicted of violating this Section section, shall be guilty of a business offense and shall be fined not to exceed $10,000 and shall forfeit the right to his public office, trust, or employment and shall be removed therefrom.

(Source: P.A. 77-2500; revised 8-23-22.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-10-18) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-10-18)

Sec. 8-10-18. No department, office, institution, commission, board, agency, or instrumentality of any such municipality, or any officer or employee employe thereof, shall be empowered to execute any purchase order or contract as defined in Section 8-10-3 except as herein specifically authorized, but all such purchase orders or contracts shall be executed by the purchasing agent in conformity with the provisions of this Division 10.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 576; revised 8-23-22.)

(65 ILCS 5/9-2-119) (from Ch. 24, par. 9-2-119)

Sec. 9-2-119. For the purpose of anticipating the collection of the second and succeeding installments, provided for in this Division 2, a municipality may issue bonds, payable out of these installments, bearing interest at a rate specified in the ordinance referred to in Section 9-2-10 2-9-10 of this the Illinois Municipal Code and not more than the rate the installments of the assessment against which the bonds are issued bear, payable annually and signed by such officers as may be by ordinance prescribed. Bonds shall be issued in sums of $100, or some multiple thereof, and shall be dated and draw interest from the date of their issuance. Each bond shall state on its face out of which installment it is payable, and shall state, by number or other designation, the assessment to which that installment belongs. The principal of these bonds shall not exceed, in the aggregate, the amount of the deferred installments, and shall be divided into as many series as there are deferred installments.

However, if there is a surplus to the credit of any such installment which is not required for the payment of any vouchers or bonds issued against that installment, that surplus shall be applied toward the payment of any outstanding vouchers or bonds already issued or to be issued, as the case may be, against any other installment or installments.

Each series shall become due at some time in the year in which the corresponding installment will mature, the date to conform, as nearly as may be, to the time when that installment will be actually collected. This time shall be estimated and determined by the municipal officers issuing the bonds. But it is lawful to provide in the case of any one or more of the bonds in any series, that that bond or bonds shall not become due until some subsequent date, not later than December 31 next succeeding the January in which the installment against which that series is issued will mature.

The bonds may be in the following form:

State of Illinois) ) ss County of .......)

Improvement Bond

The .... of .... in .... County, Illinois, for value received, promises to pay to the bearer on (insert date) the sum of .... dollars, with interest thereon from date hereof, at the rate of ....%, payable annually on presentation of the coupons hereto annexed.

Both principal and interest of this bond are payable at the office of the treasurer of said .... of .....

This bond is issued to anticipate the collection of a part of the .... installment of special assessment No. .... levied for the purpose of .... which installment bears interest from (insert date), and this bond and the interest thereon are payable solely out of the installment when collected.

Dated (insert date).

The bond may have coupons attached to represent the interest to accrue thereon.

In lieu of the bonds described in this Section, a municipality may issue bonds of the type described in Section 9-2-127, but all bonds issued under any one special assessment proceeding must be of the same type.

Public Act 77-1185 This amendatory Act of 1971 is not a limit upon any municipality which is a home rule unit.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 2-28-22.)

(65 ILCS 5/9-2-127) (from Ch. 24, par. 9-2-127)

Sec. 9-2-127. In lieu of the bonds authorized in Section 9-2-119, the municipality upon the written request of the holders of all of the outstanding and unpaid vouchers issued in payment of the work, may issue and deliver to such voucher holders, in exchange for such vouchers, bonds provided for in this Section 9-2-127, provided that prior to the receipt of such request the municipality has not issued or has not made any commitment to issue any bonds the funds from which are to be used toward paying such outstanding and unpaid vouchers in full. The bonds shall be dated as of and shall draw interest from the date of their issuance, except when issued in exchange for vouchers theretofore issued in payment of the work. In such latter case the bonds shall be issued in the principal amount of the unpaid balance of the vouchers and shall bear the same date as the vouchers for which they are exchanged or the date to which interest was last paid on the vouchers, and the bonds shall draw interest from such date. The bonds shall be issued at not less than their par value. The bonds shall be executed by such officers as may be prescribed by ordinance of such municipality, with the corporate seal attached. The bonds shall bear interest at a rate specified in the ordinance referred to in Section 9-2-10 2-9-10 of this the Illinois Municipal Code and of not more than the rate the installments of the assessment against which the bonds are issued bear. The bonds shall recite specifically that they are payable solely and only from the assessment levied for the payment of the cost of the improvement, designating the improvement for which the assessment has been levied, and shall mature on or before December 31 next succeeding the January 2 on which the last installment shall mature. Interest coupons attached to the bonds shall bear the official or facsimile signatures of the same officers who signed the bonds and shall be made payable at the office of the treasurer of the municipality. The bonds shall be numbered consecutively beginning with number one upwards and shall be payable in their numerical order and redeemable prior to maturity in numerical order as hereinafter provided. Each of the bonds issued pursuant to this Section 9-2-127 shall bear a legend on the face of the bond printed in bold face type and in a paragraph by itself to the effect that the bond is one of a series of bonds which are to be paid and redeemed in numerical order and not on a pro-rata basis.

As used in this Section and in Sections 9-2-128 and 9-2-129, "treasurer" with respect to municipalities in which a comptroller is elected or appointed means treasurer or comptroller.

Public Act 77-1185 This amendatory Act of 1971 is not a limit upon any municipality which is a home rule unit.

(Source: P.A. 82-642; revised 2-28-22.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-29) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-1-29)

Sec. 10-1-29. No person shall, in any room or building occupied for the discharge of official duties by any officer or employee employe in any municipality which adopts this Division 1, solicit, orally or by written communication, delivered therein, or in any other manner, or receive any contribution of money or other thing of value, for any party or political purpose whatever. No officer, agent, clerk, or employee under the government of such municipality, who may have charge or control of any building, office, or room, occupied for any purpose of such government, shall permit any person to enter the same for the purpose of therein soliciting or delivering written solicitations for receiving or giving notice of any political assessments.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 3252; revised 8-23-22.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-31) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-1-31)

Sec. 10-1-31. No officer or employee of such municipality shall discharge or degrade or promote, or in any manner change the official rank or compensation of any other officer or employee employe, or promise or threaten to do so for giving or withholding or neglecting to make any contribution of any money or other valuable thing for any party or political purpose, or for refusal or neglect to render any party or political service.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 3252; revised 8-23-22.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-1.5-5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)

Sec. 11-1.5-5. Definitions. As used in this Division Section:

"Department" means the East St. Louis Police Department, the Peoria Police Department, the Springfield Police Department, or the Waukegan Police Department.

"Social Worker" means a licensed clinical social worker or licensed social worker, as those terms are defined in the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act.

"Station adjustment" has the meaning given to that term in Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

"Unit" means a co-responder unit created under this Division.

(Source: P.A. 102-756, eff. 5-10-22; revised 8-23-22.)

(65 ILCS 5/Art. 11 Div. 31 heading)

DIVISION 31. UNSAFE PROPERTY .

(65 ILCS 5/11-92-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-92-1)

Sec. 11-92-1. "Harbor", as used in this Division 92, includes harbors, marinas, slips, docks, piers, breakwaters, and all buildings, structures, facilities, connections, equipment, parking areas, and all other improvements for use in connection therewith.

"Public water" has the same meaning as ascribed to that term in Section 18 of the Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act "An Act in relation to the regulation of rivers, lakes and streams of the State of Illinois", approved June 10, 1911, as heretofore and hereafter amended.

"Artificially made or reclaimed land" includes all land which formerly was submerged under the public waters of the State state, the title to which is in the State state, and which has been artificially made or reclaimed in whole or in part.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 576; revised 2-28-22.)

Section 260. The Forest Preserve District and Conservation District Design-Build Authorization Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(70 ILCS 860/25)

Sec. 25. Procedures for selection.

(a) The forest preserve district or conservation district must use a two-phase procedure for the selection of the successful design-build entity. Phase I of the procedure will evaluate and shortlist the design-build entities based on qualifications, and Phase II will evaluate the technical and cost proposals.

(b) The forest preserve district or conservation district shall include in the request for proposal the evaluating factors to be used in Phase I. These factors are in addition to any prequalification requirements of design-build entities that the forest preserve district or conservation district has set forth. Each request for proposal shall establish the relative importance assigned to each evaluation factor and subfactor, including any weighting of criteria to be employed by the forest preserve district or conservation district. The forest preserve district or conservation district must maintain a record of the evaluation scoring to be disclosed in the event of a protest regarding the solicitation.

The forest preserve district or conservation district shall include the following criteria in every Phase I evaluation of design-build entities: (i) experience of personnel; (ii) successful experience with similar project types; (iii) financial capability; (iv) timeliness of past performance; (v) experience with similarly sized projects; (vi) successful reference checks of the firm; (vii) commitment to assign personnel for the duration of the project and qualifications of the entity's consultants; and (viii) ability or past performance in meeting or exhausting good faith efforts to meet the utilization goals for business enterprises established in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act and with Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act. The forest preserve district or conservation district may include any additional relevant criteria in Phase I that it deems necessary for a proper qualification review.

The forest preserve district or conservation district may not consider any design-build entity for evaluation or award if the entity has any pecuniary interest in the project or has other relationships or circumstances, including, but not limited to, long-term leasehold, mutual performance, or development contracts with the forest preserve district or conservation district, that may give the design-build entity a financial or tangible advantage over other design-build entities in the preparation, evaluation, or performance of the design-build contract or that create the appearance of impropriety. No proposal shall be considered that does not include an entity's plan to comply with the requirements established in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, for both the design and construction areas of performance, and with Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

Upon completion of the qualifications evaluation, the forest preserve district or conservation district shall create a shortlist of the most highly qualified design-build entities. The forest preserve district or conservation district, in its discretion, is not required to shortlist the maximum number of entities as identified for Phase II evaluation, provided that no less than 2 design-build entities nor more than 6 are selected to submit Phase II proposals.

The forest preserve district or conservation district shall notify the entities selected for the shortlist in writing. This notification shall commence the period for the preparation of the Phase II technical and cost evaluations. The forest preserve district or conservation district must allow sufficient time for the shortlist entities to prepare their Phase II submittals considering the scope and detail requested by the forest preserve district or conservation district.

(c) The forest preserve district or conservation district shall include in the request for proposal the evaluating factors to be used in the technical and cost submission components of Phase II. Each request for proposal shall establish, for both the technical and cost submission components of Phase II, the relative importance assigned to each evaluation factor and subfactor, including any weighting of criteria to be employed by the forest preserve district or conservation district. The forest preserve district or conservation district must maintain a record of the evaluation scoring to be disclosed in the event of a protest regarding the solicitation.

The forest preserve district or conservation district shall include the following criteria in every Phase II technical evaluation of design-build entities: (i) compliance with objectives of the project; (ii) compliance of proposed services to the request for proposal requirements; (iii) quality of products or materials proposed; (iv) quality of design parameters; (v) design concepts; (vi) innovation in meeting the scope and performance criteria; and (vii) constructability of the proposed project. The forest preserve district or conservation district may include any additional relevant technical evaluation factors it deems necessary for proper selection.

The forest preserve district or conservation district shall include the following criteria in every Phase II cost evaluation: the total project cost, the construction costs, and the time of completion. The forest preserve or conservation district may include any additional relevant technical evaluation factors it deems necessary for proper selection. The total project cost criteria weighting weighing factor shall not exceed 30%.

The forest preserve or conservation district shall directly employ or retain a licensed design professional or a public art designer to evaluate the technical and cost submissions to determine if the technical submissions are in accordance with generally accepted industry standards.

Upon completion of the technical submissions and cost submissions evaluation, the forest preserve or conservation district may award the design-build contract to the highest overall ranked entity.

(Source: P.A. 102-460, eff. 6-1-22; revised 2-28-22.)

Section 265. The Park Annuity and Benefit Fund Civil Service Act is amended by changing Section 23 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1215/23) (from Ch. 24 1/2, par. 136)

Sec. 23. No person shall solicit, orally or in writing, or be in any manner concerned in soliciting any assessment, contribution, or payment for any party or political purpose whatever from any officer or employee employe in the classified civil service.

(Source: Laws 1939, p. 418; revised 9-2-22.)

Section 270. The Chicago Park District Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1505/14) (from Ch. 105, par. 333.14)

Sec. 14. Civil service. The Park System Civil Service Act shall apply to the Chicago Park District, and upon the coming into effect of this Act act there shall be appointed but one Director of Human Resources and but one civil service board for such district.

Every officer and employee employe in the classified civil service at the time this Act takes effect shall be assigned to a position having, so far as possible, duties equivalent to his former office or employment, and such officers and employees employes shall have the same standing, grade, and privilege which they respectively had in the districts from which they were transferred, subject, however, to existing and future civil service laws. This Section shall not be construed to require the retention of more officers and employees employes than are necessary to the proper performance of the functions of the Chicago Park District and the rules of the civil service board made in pursuance of the civil service law shall control in the making of layoffs and reinstatements of such officers and employees employes as are not necessary to be retained. This Act act shall in no way be construed to affect the operation of Article 5 or Article 12 of the Illinois Pension Code nor to affect the rights of employees to pensions or annuities nor any taxes authorized to be levied therefor. In the case of employees employes and policemen of superseded park districts not having annuity benefit funds retained as employees employes or policemen of the Chicago Park District such employees employes and policemen shall have the right to enter as new employees employes and policemen.

(Source: P.A. 91-918, eff. 7-7-00; revised 2-5-23.)

Section 275. The Joliet Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1825/7) (from Ch. 19, par. 257)

Sec. 7. The District has power to procure and enter into contracts for any type of insurance or indemnity against loss or damage to property from any cause, including loss of use and occupancy, against death or injury of any person, against employers' liability, against any act of any member, officer, or employee employe of the District in the performance of the duties of his office or employment or any other insurable risk.

(Source: Laws 1957, p. 1302; revised 9-2-22.)

Section 280. The Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act is amended by changing Section 11.19 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2605/11.19) (from Ch. 42, par. 331.19)

Sec. 11.19. No department, office, agency or instrumentality, officer or employee employe of the sanitary district, shall be empowered to execute any purchase order or contract except as expressly authorized by this Act.

(Source: Laws 1963, p. 2498; revised 9-2-22.)

Section 285. The Illinois Local Library Act is amended by changing Section 5-2 as follows:

(75 ILCS 5/5-2) (from Ch. 81, par. 5-2)

Sec. 5-2. If the corporate authorities approve the action of the library board under Section 5-1, they may, by ordinance, or by resolution in the case of a township, provide that the bonds of the city, village, incorporated town or township be issued for the payment of the cost (so estimated as aforesaid) of constructing a building, or remodeling, repairing, improving an existing library building or the erection of an addition thereto, or purchasing a building, site or equipment, or the acquisition of library materials such as books, periodicals, recordings and electronic data storage and retrieval facilities in connection with either the purchase or construction of a new library building or the expansion of an existing library building, or any or all of these things in which event the ordinance or resolution shall also state the time or times when such bonds, and the interest thereon shall become payable. However, the whole of the principal of such bonds and the interest thereon shall be payable within 20 years, and the interest on such bonds shall not exceed the rate permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. The interest may be made payable at such times (annually or semi-annually) as the ordinance or resolution may prescribe. In case the corporate authorities provide for such payment by the issuance of bonds, they shall make provision at or before the issuance thereof, by ordinance or by resolution in the case of a township, which shall be irrepealable, for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property within such city, village, incorporated town or township sufficient to meet the principal and interest of the bonds as they mature, which tax shall be in addition to that otherwise authorized to be levied and collected for corporate purposes.

If, however, the corporate authorities do not provide that the bonds of the city, village, incorporated town or township be issued, but otherwise approve the action of the library board, then the library board shall divide the total cost of constructing and financing a building, or remodeling, repairing, improving an existing library building or the erection of an addition thereto, or purchasing and financing a building, site or equipment, or the acquisition of library materials such as books, periodicals, recordings and electronic data storage and retrieval facilities in connection with either the purchase or construction of a new library building or the expansion of an existing library building, or any or all of these things, into as many parts as the trustees determine to spread the collection thereof, and shall certify the amount of one of these parts to the corporate authorities each year during the term over which the trustees have determined to spread the collection. This action by the library board Board shall be irrepealable. The library board shall specify in its certificate the portion, if any, of the amount to be included in the annual appropriation and library tax levy, and the amount of the special tax required to pay the same as has been approved by the voters.

(Source: P.A. 84-770; revised 5-27-22.)

Section 290. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.195, 10-20.13, 10-21.9, 10-22.24b, 13-40, 13B-20.5, 18-8.15, 21B-20, 21B-45, 24-6, 26-2, 27-22, 27A-5, 34-18.5, and 34-21.6 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 10-20.83 and 34-18.78 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.195)

Sec. 2-3.195. Direct support professional training program. Beginning with the 2025-2026 school year and continuing for not less than 2 years, the State Board of Education shall make available a model program of study that incorporates the training and experience necessary to serve as a direct support professional. By July 1, 2023, the State Board shall submit recommendations developed in consultation with stakeholders, including, but not limited to, organizations representing community-based providers serving children and adults with intellectual or developmental disabilities, and education practitioners, including, but not limited to, teachers, administrators, special education directors, and regional superintendents of schools, to the Department of Human Services for the training that would be required in order to be complete the model program of study.

(Source: P.A. 102-874, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-16-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.13)

Sec. 10-20.13. Textbooks for children of parents unable to buy them; waiver of and other fees and fines.

(a) To purchase, at the expense of the district, a sufficient number of textbooks for children whose parents are unable to buy them, including, but not limited to, children living in households that meet the free lunch or breakfast eligibility guidelines established by the federal government pursuant to Section 1758 of the federal Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1758; 7 CFR C.F.R. 245 et seq.) and homeless children and youth as defined in Section 11434a of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11434a), subject to verification as set forth in subsection (c) of this Section. Such textbooks shall be loaned only, and the directors shall require the teacher to see that they are properly cared for and returned at the end of each term of school.

(b) To waive all fees and any fines for the loss of school property assessed by the district on children whose parents are unable to afford them, including, but not limited to:

(1) children living in households that meet the free lunch or breakfast eligibility guidelines established by the federal government pursuant to Section 1758 of the federal Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1758; 7 CFR C.F.R. 245 et seq.) and students whose parents are veterans or active duty military personnel with income at or below 200% of the federal poverty line, subject to verification as set forth in subsection (c) of this Section, and

(2) homeless children and youth as defined in Section 11434a of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11434a).

Notice of waiver availability shall be given to parents or guardians with every bill for fees or fines. The school board shall adopt written policies and procedures for such waiver of fees in accordance with regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education.

(c) Any school board that participates in a federally funded, school-based child nutrition program and uses a student's application for, eligibility for, or participation in the federally funded, school-based child nutrition program (42 U.S.C. 1758; 7 CFR C.F.R. 245 et seq.) as the basis for waiving fees assessed by the school district must follow the verification requirements of the federally funded, school-based child nutrition program (42 U.S.C. 1758; 7 CFR C.F.R. 245.6a).

A school board that establishes a process for the determination of eligibility for waiver of fees assessed by the school district that is completely independent of a student's application for, eligibility for, or participation in a federally funded, school-based child nutrition program may provide for fee waiver verification no more often than once per academic year. Information obtained during the independent, fee waiver verification process indicating that the student does not meet free lunch or breakfast eligibility guidelines may be used to deny the waiver of the student's fees or fines for the loss of school property, provided that any information obtained through this independent process for determining or verifying eligibility for fee waivers shall not be used to determine or verify eligibility for any federally funded, school-based child nutrition program. This subsection shall not preclude children from obtaining waivers at any point during the academic year.

(Source: P.A. 102-805, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1032, eff. 5-27-22; revised 12-13-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.83)

Sec. 10-20.83. COVID-19 paid administrative leave.

(a) In this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a school district on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

"Fully vaccinated against COVID-19" means:

(1) 2 weeks after receiving the second dose in a 2-dose series of a COVID-19 vaccine authorized for emergency use, licensed, or otherwise approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration; or

(2) 2 weeks after receiving a single dose of a COVID-19 vaccine authorized for emergency use, licensed, or otherwise approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

"Fully vaccinated against COVID-19" also includes any recommended booster doses for which the individual is eligible upon the adoption by the Department of Public Health of any changes made by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" to include any such booster doses. For purposes of this Section, individuals who are eligible for a booster dose but have not received a booster dose by 5 weeks after the Department of Public Health adopts a revised definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" are not considered fully vaccinated for determining eligibility for future paid administrative leave pursuant to this Section.

"School district" includes charter schools established under Article 27A of this Code, but does not include the Department of Juvenile Justice School District.

(b) During any time when the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act and a school district, the State or any of its agencies, or a local public health department has issued guidance, mandates, or rules related to COVID-19 that restrict an employee of the school district from being on school district property because the employee (i) has a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19, (ii) has a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test, (iii) has been in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and is required to be excluded from the school, or (iv) is required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms, the employee of the school district shall receive as many days of administrative leave as required to abide by the public health guidance, mandates, and requirements issued by the Department of Public Health, unless a longer period of paid administrative leave has been negotiated with the exclusive bargaining representative if any. Such leave shall be provided to an employee for any days for which the employee was required to be excluded from school property prior to April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, provided that the employee receives all doses required to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under this Section no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(c) An employee of a school district shall receive paid administrative leave pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section, unless a longer period of paid administrative leave has been negotiated with the exclusive bargaining representative if any, to care for a child of the employee if the child is unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child has:

(1) a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(2) a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(3) been in close contact with a person who has a confirmed case of COVID-19 and is required to be excluded from school; or

(4) been required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms. Such leave shall be provided to an employee for any days needed to care for a child of the employee prior to April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, provided that the employee receives the doses required to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under this Section no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(d) An employee of a school district who is on paid administrative leave pursuant to this Section must provide all documentation requested by the school board.

(e) An employee of a school district who is on paid administrative leave pursuant to this Section shall receive the employee's regular rate of pay. The use of a paid administrative leave day or days by an employee pursuant to this Section may not diminish any other leave or benefits of the employee.

(f) An employee of a school district may not accrue paid administrative leave pursuant to this Section.

(g) For an employee of a school district to be eligible to receive paid administrative leave pursuant to this Section, the employee must:

(1) have received all required doses to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in this Section; and

(2) participate in the COVID-19 testing program adopted by the school district to the extent such a testing program requires participation by individuals who are fully vaccinated against COVID-19.

(h) Nothing in this Section is intended to affect any right or remedy under federal law.

(i) No paid administrative leave awarded to or used by a fully vaccinated employee prior to the Department of Public Health's adoption of a revised definition of the term "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" may be rescinded on the basis that the employee no longer meets the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" based on the revised definition.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-3-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.84)

Sec. 10-20.84 10-20.83. College and career readiness systems.

(a) Subject to subsection (d) of this Section, by July 1, 2025, a school district that enrolls students in any of grades 6 through 12 shall adopt and commence implementation of career exploration and career development activities in accordance with a postsecondary and career expectations framework for each of grades 6 through 12 served by the district that substantially aligns to the model framework adopted by State agencies pursuant to Section 15 of the Postsecondary and Workforce Readiness Act. The local postsecondary and career expectations framework shall be available on a prominent location on the school district's website.

The career exploration and career development activities offered in alignment with the postsecondary and career expectations framework shall prepare students enrolled in grades 6 through 12 to make informed plans and decisions about their future education and career goals, including possible participation in a career and technical education pathway, by providing students with opportunities to explore a wide variety of high-skill, high-wage, and in-demand career fields.

(b) By no later than July 1, 2025, a school district that enrolls students in any of grades 9 through 12 shall either elect to implement College and Career Pathway Endorsements in accordance with subsection (c) of this Section or opt out of implementation in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section.

(c) A school district that enrolls students in any of grades 9 through 12 electing to implement College and Career Pathway Endorsements shall become an eligible school district and either (i) independently, (ii) through an area career center, or (iii) through an inter-district cooperative, award College and Career Pathway Endorsements pursuant to the Postsecondary and Workforce Readiness Act and pursuant to the following schedule:

(1) for the high school graduating class of 2027, a school district shall offer College and Career Pathway Endorsements in at least one endorsement area;

(2) for the high school graduating class of 2029, a school district shall offer College and Career Pathway Endorsements in at least 2 endorsement areas; and

(3) for the high school graduating class of 2031, a school district with a grade 9 through 12 enrollment of more than 350 students, as calculated by the State Board of Education for the 2022-2023 school year, shall offer College and Career Pathway Endorsements in at least 3 endorsement areas.

A school district may elect to implement College and Career Pathway Endorsements by July 1, 2025, either by submitting the necessary application materials to the State Board of Education to award the number of endorsements required by this subsection or by the school board of the district adopting a timeline for implementation consistent with the requirements of this subsection.

(d) The school board of any school district may, by action of the board, opt out of implementation of all or any part of this Section through adoption of a set of findings that considers the following:

(1) the school district's current systems for college and career readiness;

(2) the school district's cost of implementation balanced against the potential benefits to students and families through improved postsecondary education and career outcomes;

(3) the willingness and capacity of local businesses to partner with the school district for successful implementation of pathways other than education;

(4) the willingness of institutions of higher education to partner with the school district for successful implementation of the pathway and whether the district has sought and established a partnership agreement with a community college district incorporating the provisions of the Model Partnership Agreement under the Dual Credit Quality Act;

(5) the availability of a statewide database of participating local business partners, as provided under the Postsecondary and Workforce Readiness Act, for the purpose of career readiness and the accessibility of those work experiences and apprenticeships listed in the database to the students of the school district; and

(6) the availability of properly licensed teachers or teachers meeting faculty credential standards for dual credit courses to instruct in the program required for the endorsement areas.

A school district must report its board findings and decision on implementation to the State Board of Education. A school district electing to opt out of implementation may reverse its decision in whole or in part at any time.

(e) The State Board of Education may adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-917, eff. 1-1-23; revised 1-10-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-21.9) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-21.9)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-702)

Sec. 10-21.9. Criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) Licensed and nonlicensed applicants for employment with a school district, except school bus driver applicants, are required as a condition of employment to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any disqualifying, enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school district, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one school district, a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one school district (as a reading specialist, special education teacher or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one district, any such district may require the applicant to furnish authorization for the check to the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which are located the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee. Upon receipt of this authorization, the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent, as the case may be, shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The regional superintendent submitting the requisite information to the Illinois State Police shall promptly notify the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee that the check of the applicant has been requested. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check, or to the regional superintendent who requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent a fee for conducting such check, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such check by the school district or by the regional superintendent, except that those applicants seeking employment as a substitute teacher with a school district may be charged a fee not to exceed the cost of the inquiry. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse school districts and regional superintendents for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

(a-5) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(a-6) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(b) Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the school board or the regional superintendent shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to the superintendent of the school district or his designee, the appropriate regional superintendent if the check was requested by the school district, the presidents of the appropriate school boards if the check was requested from the Illinois State Police by the regional superintendent, the State Board of Education and a school district as authorized under subsection (b-5), the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment, or for clarification purposes the Illinois State Police or Statewide Sex Offender Database, or both. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon the check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the school district or regional superintendent shall notify an applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Database. If a check of an applicant for employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee in more than one school district was requested by the regional superintendent, and the Illinois State Police upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and so notifies the regional superintendent and if the regional superintendent upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been identified in the Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, then the regional superintendent shall issue to the applicant a certificate evidencing that as of the date specified by the Illinois State Police the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and evidencing that as of the date that the regional superintendent conducted a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the applicant has not been identified in the Database. The school board of any school district may rely on the certificate issued by any regional superintendent to that substitute teacher, concurrent part-time teacher, or concurrent educational support personnel employee or may initiate its own criminal history records check of the applicant through the Illinois State Police and its own check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database as provided in this Section. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(b-5) If a criminal history records check or check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database is performed by a regional superintendent for an applicant seeking employment as a substitute teacher with a school district, the regional superintendent may disclose to the State Board of Education whether the applicant has been issued a certificate under subsection (b) based on those checks. If the State Board receives information on an applicant under this subsection, then it must indicate in the Educator Licensure Information System for a 90-day period that the applicant has been issued or has not been issued a certificate.

(c) No school board shall knowingly employ a person who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of Section 21B-80. Further, no school board shall knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. As a condition of employment, each school board must consider the status of a person who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(d) No school board shall knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check have not been initiated.

(e) Within 10 days after a superintendent, regional office of education, or entity that provides background checks of license holders to public schools receives information of a pending criminal charge against a license holder for an offense set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code, the superintendent, regional office of education, or entity must notify the State Superintendent of Education of the pending criminal charge.

If permissible by federal or State law, no later than 15 business days after receipt of a record of conviction or of checking the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database or the Statewide Sex Offender Database and finding a registration, the superintendent of the employing school board or the applicable regional superintendent shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education of any license holder who has been convicted of a crime set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code. Upon receipt of the record of a conviction of or a finding of child abuse by a holder of any license issued pursuant to Article 21B or Section 34-8.1 of this Code, the State Superintendent of Education may initiate licensure suspension and revocation proceedings as authorized by law. If the receipt of the record of conviction or finding of child abuse is received within 6 months after the initial grant of or renewal of a license, the State Superintendent of Education may rescind the license holder's license.

(e-5) The superintendent of the employing school board shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education and the applicable regional superintendent of schools of any license holder whom he or she has reasonable cause to believe has committed an intentional act of abuse or neglect with the result of making a child an abused child or a neglected child, as defined in Section 3 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and that act resulted in the license holder's dismissal or resignation from the school district. This notification must be submitted within 30 days after the dismissal or resignation and must include the Illinois Educator Identification Number (IEIN) of the license holder and a brief description of the misconduct alleged. The license holder must also be contemporaneously sent a copy of the notice by the superintendent. All correspondence, documentation, and other information so received by the regional superintendent of schools, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Board of Education, or the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board under this subsection (e-5) is confidential and must not be disclosed to third parties, except (i) as necessary for the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee to investigate and prosecute pursuant to Article 21B of this Code, (ii) pursuant to a court order, (iii) for disclosure to the license holder or his or her representative, or (iv) as otherwise provided in this Article and provided that any such information admitted into evidence in a hearing is exempt from this confidentiality and non-disclosure requirement. Except for an act of willful or wanton misconduct, any superintendent who provides notification as required in this subsection (e-5) shall have immunity from any liability, whether civil or criminal or that otherwise might result by reason of such action.

(f) After January 1, 1990 the provisions of this Section shall apply to all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with any school district including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with the pupils of any school in such district. For purposes of criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database on employees of persons or firms holding contracts with more than one school district and assigned to more than one school district, the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which the contracting school districts are located may, at the request of any such school district, be responsible for receiving the authorization for a criminal history records check prepared by each such employee and submitting the same to the Illinois State Police and for conducting a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database for each employee. Any information concerning the record of conviction and identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the regional superintendent shall be promptly reported to the president of the appropriate school board or school boards.

(f-5) Upon request of a school or school district, any information obtained by a school district pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section within the last year must be made available to the requesting school or school district.

(g) Prior to the commencement of any student teaching experience or required internship (which is referred to as student teaching in this Section) in the public schools, a student teacher is required to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check. Authorization for and payment of the costs of the check must be furnished by the student teacher to the school district where the student teaching is to be completed. Upon receipt of this authorization and payment, the school district shall submit the student teacher's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district a fee for conducting the check, which fee must not exceed the cost of the inquiry and must be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The school district shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, and of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, for each student teacher. No school board may knowingly allow a person to student teach for whom a criminal history records check, a Statewide Sex Offender Database check, and a Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database check have not been completed and reviewed by the district.

A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police must be provided to the student teacher. Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the school board is confidential and may only be transmitted to the superintendent of the school district or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, or, for clarification purposes, the Illinois State Police or the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

No school board shall knowingly allow a person to student teach who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of Section 21B-80. Further, no school board shall allow a person to student teach if he or she has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of a minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Each school board must consider the status of a person to student teach who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-72, eff. 7-12-19; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-552, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-702)

Sec. 10-21.9. Criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) Licensed and nonlicensed applicants for employment with a school district, except school bus driver applicants, are required as a condition of employment to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any disqualifying, enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school district, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one school district, a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one school district (as a reading specialist, special education teacher or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one district, any such district may require the applicant to furnish authorization for the check to the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which are located the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee. Upon receipt of this authorization, the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent, as the case may be, shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The regional superintendent submitting the requisite information to the Illinois State Police shall promptly notify the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee that the check of the applicant has been requested. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check, or to the regional superintendent who requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent a fee for conducting such check, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such check by the school district or by the regional superintendent, except that those applicants seeking employment as a substitute teacher with a school district may be charged a fee not to exceed the cost of the inquiry. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse school districts and regional superintendents for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

(a-5) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(a-6) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(b) Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the school board or the regional superintendent shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to the superintendent of the school district or his designee, the appropriate regional superintendent if the check was requested by the school district, the presidents of the appropriate school boards if the check was requested from the Illinois State Police by the regional superintendent, the State Board of Education and a school district as authorized under subsection (b-5), the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment, or for clarification purposes the Illinois State Police or Statewide Sex Offender Database, or both. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon the check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the school district or regional superintendent shall notify an applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Database. If a check of an applicant for employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee in more than one school district was requested by the regional superintendent, and the Illinois State Police upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and so notifies the regional superintendent and if the regional superintendent upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been identified in the Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, then the regional superintendent shall issue to the applicant a certificate evidencing that as of the date specified by the Illinois State Police the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and evidencing that as of the date that the regional superintendent conducted a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the applicant has not been identified in the Database. The school board of any school district may rely on the certificate issued by any regional superintendent to that substitute teacher, concurrent part-time teacher, or concurrent educational support personnel employee or may initiate its own criminal history records check of the applicant through the Illinois State Police and its own check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database as provided in this Section. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(b-5) If a criminal history records check or check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database is performed by a regional superintendent for an applicant seeking employment as a substitute teacher with a school district, the regional superintendent may disclose to the State Board of Education whether the applicant has been issued a certificate under subsection (b) based on those checks. If the State Board receives information on an applicant under this subsection, then it must indicate in the Educator Licensure Information System for a 90-day period that the applicant has been issued or has not been issued a certificate.

(c) No school board shall knowingly employ a person who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of Section 21B-80. Further, no school board shall knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. As a condition of employment, each school board must consider the status of a person who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(d) No school board shall knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check have not been initiated.

(e) Within 10 days after a superintendent, regional office of education, or entity that provides background checks of license holders to public schools receives information of a pending criminal charge against a license holder for an offense set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code, the superintendent, regional office of education, or entity must notify the State Superintendent of Education of the pending criminal charge.

If permissible by federal or State law, no later than 15 business days after receipt of a record of conviction or of checking the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database or the Statewide Sex Offender Database and finding a registration, the superintendent of the employing school board or the applicable regional superintendent shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education of any license holder who has been convicted of a crime set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code. Upon receipt of the record of a conviction of or a finding of child abuse by a holder of any license issued pursuant to Article 21B or Section 34-8.1 of this Code, the State Superintendent of Education may initiate licensure suspension and revocation proceedings as authorized by law. If the receipt of the record of conviction or finding of child abuse is received within 6 months after the initial grant of or renewal of a license, the State Superintendent of Education may rescind the license holder's license.

(e-5) The superintendent of the employing school board shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education and the applicable regional superintendent of schools of any license holder whom he or she has reasonable cause to believe has committed (i) an intentional act of abuse or neglect with the result of making a child an abused child or a neglected child, as defined in Section 3 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, or (ii) an act of sexual misconduct, as defined in Section 22-85.5 of this Code, and that act resulted in the license holder's dismissal or resignation from the school district. This notification must be submitted within 30 days after the dismissal or resignation and must include the Illinois Educator Identification Number (IEIN) of the license holder and a brief description of the misconduct alleged. The license holder must also be contemporaneously sent a copy of the notice by the superintendent. All correspondence, documentation, and other information so received by the regional superintendent of schools, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Board of Education, or the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board under this subsection (e-5) is confidential and must not be disclosed to third parties, except (i) as necessary for the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee to investigate and prosecute pursuant to Article 21B of this Code, (ii) pursuant to a court order, (iii) for disclosure to the license holder or his or her representative, or (iv) as otherwise provided in this Article and provided that any such information admitted into evidence in a hearing is exempt from this confidentiality and non-disclosure requirement. Except for an act of willful or wanton misconduct, any superintendent who provides notification as required in this subsection (e-5) shall have immunity from any liability, whether civil or criminal or that otherwise might result by reason of such action.

(f) After January 1, 1990 the provisions of this Section shall apply to all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with any school district including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with the pupils of any school in such district. For purposes of criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database on employees of persons or firms holding contracts with more than one school district and assigned to more than one school district, the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which the contracting school districts are located may, at the request of any such school district, be responsible for receiving the authorization for a criminal history records check prepared by each such employee and submitting the same to the Illinois State Police and for conducting a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database for each employee. Any information concerning the record of conviction and identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the regional superintendent shall be promptly reported to the president of the appropriate school board or school boards.

(f-5) Upon request of a school or school district, any information obtained by a school district pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section within the last year must be made available to the requesting school or school district.

(g) Prior to the commencement of any student teaching experience or required internship (which is referred to as student teaching in this Section) in the public schools, a student teacher is required to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check. Authorization for and payment of the costs of the check must be furnished by the student teacher to the school district where the student teaching is to be completed. Upon receipt of this authorization and payment, the school district shall submit the student teacher's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district a fee for conducting the check, which fee must not exceed the cost of the inquiry and must be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The school district shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, and of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, for each student teacher. No school board may knowingly allow a person to student teach for whom a criminal history records check, a Statewide Sex Offender Database check, and a Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database check have not been completed and reviewed by the district.

A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police must be provided to the student teacher. Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the school board is confidential and may only be transmitted to the superintendent of the school district or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, or, for clarification purposes, the Illinois State Police or the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

No school board shall knowingly allow a person to student teach who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of Section 21B-80. Further, no school board shall allow a person to student teach if he or she has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of a minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Each school board must consider the status of a person to student teach who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-72, eff. 7-12-19; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-552, eff. 1-1-22; 102-702, eff. 7-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 8-24-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.24b)

Sec. 10-22.24b. School counseling services. School counseling services in public schools may be provided by school counselors as defined in Section 10-22.24a of this Code or by individuals who hold a Professional Educator License with a school support personnel endorsement in the area of school counseling under Section 21B-25 of this Code.

School counseling services may include, but are not limited to:

(1) designing and delivering a comprehensive school counseling program that promotes student achievement and wellness;

(2) incorporating the common core language into the school counselor's work and role;

(3) school counselors working as culturally skilled professionals who act sensitively to promote social justice and equity in a pluralistic society;

(4) providing individual and group counseling;

(5) providing a core counseling curriculum that serves all students and addresses the knowledge and skills appropriate to their developmental level through a collaborative model of delivery involving the school counselor, classroom teachers, and other appropriate education professionals, and including prevention and pre-referral activities;

(6) making referrals when necessary to appropriate offices or outside agencies;

(7) providing college and career development activities and counseling;

(8) developing individual career plans with students, which includes planning for post-secondary education, as appropriate, and engaging in related and relevant career and technical education coursework in high school as described in paragraph (55);

(9) assisting all students with a college or post-secondary education plan, which must include a discussion on all post-secondary education options, including 4-year colleges or universities, community colleges, and vocational schools, and includes planning for post-secondary education, as appropriate, and engaging in related and relevant career and technical education coursework in high school as described in paragraph (55);

(10) intentionally addressing the career and college needs of first generation students;

(11) educating all students on scholarships, financial aid, and preparation of the Federal Application for Federal Student Aid;

(12) collaborating with institutions of higher education and local community colleges so that students understand post-secondary education options and are ready to transition successfully;

(13) providing crisis intervention and contributing to the development of a specific crisis plan within the school setting in collaboration with multiple stakeholders;

(14) educating students, teachers, and parents on anxiety, depression, cutting, and suicide issues and intervening with students who present with these issues;

(15) providing counseling and other resources to students who are in crisis;

(16) providing resources for those students who do not have access to mental health services;

(17) addressing bullying and conflict resolution with all students;

(18) teaching communication skills and helping students develop positive relationships;

(19) using culturally sensitive culturally-sensitive skills in working with all students to promote wellness;

(20) addressing the needs of undocumented students in the school, as well as students who are legally in the United States, but whose parents are undocumented;

(21) contributing to a student's functional behavioral assessment, as well as assisting in the development of non-aversive behavioral intervention strategies;

(22) (i) assisting students in need of special education services by implementing the academic supports and social-emotional and college or career development counseling services or interventions per a student's individualized education program (IEP); (ii) participating in or contributing to a student's IEP and completing a social-developmental history; or (iii) providing services to a student with a disability under the student's IEP or federal Section 504 plan, as recommended by the student's IEP team or Section 504 plan team and in compliance with federal and State laws and rules governing the provision of educational and related services and school-based accommodations to students with disabilities and the qualifications of school personnel to provide such services and accommodations;

(23) assisting in the development of a personal educational plan with each student;

(24) educating students on dual credit and learning opportunities on the Internet;

(25) providing information for all students in the selection of courses that will lead to post-secondary education opportunities toward a successful career;

(26) interpreting achievement test results and guiding students in appropriate directions;

(27) counseling with students, families, and teachers, in compliance with federal and State laws;

(28) providing families with opportunities for education and counseling as appropriate in relation to the student's educational assessment;

(29) consulting and collaborating with teachers and other school personnel regarding behavior management and intervention plans and inclusion in support of students;

(30) teaming and partnering with staff, parents, businesses, and community organizations to support student achievement and social-emotional learning standards for all students;

(31) developing and implementing school-based prevention programs, including, but not limited to, mediation and violence prevention, implementing social and emotional education programs and services, and establishing and implementing bullying prevention and intervention programs;

(32) developing culturally sensitive culturally-sensitive assessment instruments for measuring school counseling prevention and intervention effectiveness and collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data;

(33) participating on school and district committees to advocate for student programs and resources, as well as establishing a school counseling advisory council that includes representatives of key stakeholders selected to review and advise on the implementation of the school counseling program;

(34) acting as a liaison between the public schools and community resources and building relationships with important stakeholders, such as families, administrators, teachers, and board members;

(35) maintaining organized, clear, and useful records in a confidential manner consistent with Section 5 of the Illinois School Student Records Act, the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act;

(36) presenting an annual agreement to the administration, including a formal discussion of the alignment of school and school counseling program missions and goals and detailing specific school counselor responsibilities;

(37) identifying and implementing culturally sensitive culturally-sensitive measures of success for student competencies in each of the 3 domains of academic, social and emotional, and college and career learning based on planned and periodic assessment of the comprehensive developmental school counseling program;

(38) collaborating as a team member in Response to Intervention (RtI) and other school initiatives;

(39) conducting observations and participating in recommendations or interventions regarding the placement of children in educational programs or special education classes;

(40) analyzing data and results of school counseling program assessments, including curriculum, small-group, and closing-the-gap results reports, and designing strategies to continue to improve program effectiveness;

(41) analyzing data and results of school counselor competency assessments;

(42) following American School Counselor Association Ethical Standards for School Counselors to demonstrate high standards of integrity, leadership, and professionalism;

(43) knowing and embracing common core standards by using common core language;

(44) practicing as a culturally skilled culturally-skilled school counselor by infusing the multicultural competencies within the role of the school counselor, including the practice of culturally sensitive culturally-sensitive attitudes and beliefs, knowledge, and skills;

(45) infusing the Social-Emotional Standards, as presented in the State Board of Education standards, across the curriculum and in the counselor's role in ways that empower and enable students to achieve academic success across all grade levels;

(46) providing services only in areas in which the school counselor has appropriate training or expertise, as well as only providing counseling or consulting services within his or her employment to any student in the district or districts which employ such school counselor, in accordance with professional ethics;

(47) having adequate training in supervision knowledge and skills in order to supervise school counseling interns enrolled in graduate school counselor preparation programs that meet the standards established by the State Board of Education;

(48) being involved with State and national professional associations;

(49) participating, at least once every 2 years, in an in-service training program for school counselors conducted by persons with expertise in domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth, which shall include training concerning (i) communicating with and listening to youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth, (ii) connecting youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth to appropriate in-school services and other agencies, programs, and services as needed, and (iii) implementing the school district's policies, procedures, and protocols with regard to such youth, including confidentiality; at a minimum, school personnel must be trained to understand, provide information and referrals, and address issues pertaining to youth who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence;

(50) participating, at least every 2 years, in an in-service training program for school counselors conducted by persons with expertise in anaphylactic reactions and management;

(51) participating, at least once every 2 years, in an in-service training on educator ethics, teacher-student conduct, and school employee-student conduct for all personnel;

(52) participating, in addition to other topics at in-service training programs, in training to identify the warning signs of mental illness and suicidal behavior in adolescents and teenagers and learning appropriate intervention and referral techniques;

(53) obtaining training to have a basic knowledge of matters relating to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), including the nature of the disease, its causes and effects, the means of detecting it and preventing its transmission, and the availability of appropriate sources of counseling and referral and any other information that may be appropriate considering the age and grade level of the pupils; the school board shall supervise such training and the State Board of Education and the Department of Public Health shall jointly develop standards for such training;

(54) participating in mandates from the State Board of Education for bullying education and social-emotional literacy literary; and

(55) promoting career and technical education by assisting each student to determine an appropriate postsecondary plan based upon the student's skills, strengths, and goals and assisting the student to implement the best practices that improve career or workforce readiness after high school.

School districts may employ a sufficient number of school counselors to maintain the national and State recommended student-counselor ratio of 250 to 1. School districts may have school counselors spend at least 80% of his or her work time in direct contact with students.

Nothing in this Section prohibits other qualified professionals, including other endorsed school support personnel, from providing the services listed in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-290, eff. 8-9-19; 102-876, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-9-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/13-40) (from Ch. 122, par. 13-40)

Sec. 13-40. To increase the effectiveness of the Department of Juvenile Justice and thereby to better serve the interests of the people of Illinois the following bill is presented.

Its purpose is to enhance the quality and scope of education for inmates and wards within the Department of Juvenile Justice so that they will be better motivated and better equipped to restore themselves to constructive and law-abiding law abiding lives in the community. The specific measure sought is the creation of a school district within the Department so that its educational programs can meet the needs of persons committed and so the resources of public education at the state and federal levels are best used, all of the same being contemplated within the provisions of the Illinois State Constitution of 1970 which provides that "A fundamental goal of the People of the State is the educational development of all persons to the limits of their capacities." Therefore, on July 1, 2006, the Department of Corrections school district shall be transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice. It shall be responsible for the education of youth within the Department of Juvenile Justice and inmates age 21 or under within the Department of Corrections who have not yet earned a high school diploma or a State of Illinois High School Diploma, and the district may establish primary, secondary, vocational, adult, special, and advanced educational schools as provided in this Act. The Department of Corrections retains authority as provided for in subsection (d) of Section 3-6-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The Board of Education for this district shall with the aid and advice of professional educational personnel of the Department of Juvenile Justice and the State Board of Education determine the needs and type of schools and the curriculum for each school within the school district and may proceed to establish the same through existing means within present and future appropriations, federal and state school funds, vocational rehabilitation grants and funds and all other funds, gifts and grants, private or public, including federal funds, but not exclusive to the said sources but inclusive of all funds which might be available for school purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-1100, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-9-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/13B-20.5)

Sec. 13B-20.5. Eligible activities and services. Alternative learning opportunities programs may include, without limitation, evening high school, in-school tutoring and mentoring programs, in-school suspension programs, high school completion programs to assist high school dropouts in completing their education, high school completion programs to allow students eligible for remote learning under Section 34-18.81 34-18.78 to complete their education while incarcerated in an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, support services, parental involvement programs, and programs to develop, enhance, or extend the transition for students transferring back to the regular school program, an adult education program, or a post-secondary education program.

(Source: P.A. 102-966, eff. 5-27-22; revised 8-3-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/18-8.15)

Sec. 18-8.15. Evidence-Based Funding for student success for the 2017-2018 and subsequent school years.

(a) General provisions.

(1) The purpose of this Section is to ensure that, by June 30, 2027 and beyond, this State has a kindergarten through grade 12 public education system with the capacity to ensure the educational development of all persons to the limits of their capacities in accordance with Section 1 of Article X of the Constitution of the State of Illinois. To accomplish that objective, this Section creates a method of funding public education that is evidence-based; is sufficient to ensure every student receives a meaningful opportunity to learn irrespective of race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, gender, or community-income level; and is sustainable and predictable. When fully funded under this Section, every school shall have the resources, based on what the evidence indicates is needed, to:

(A) provide all students with a high quality education that offers the academic, enrichment, social and emotional support, technical, and career-focused programs that will allow them to become competitive workers, responsible parents, productive citizens of this State, and active members of our national democracy;

(B) ensure all students receive the education they need to graduate from high school with the skills required to pursue post-secondary education and training for a rewarding career;

(C) reduce, with a goal of eliminating, the achievement gap between at-risk and non-at-risk students by raising the performance of at-risk students and not by reducing standards; and

(D) ensure this State satisfies its obligation to assume the primary responsibility to fund public education and simultaneously relieve the disproportionate burden placed on local property taxes to fund schools.

(2) The Evidence-Based Funding formula under this Section shall be applied to all Organizational Units in this State. The Evidence-Based Funding formula outlined in this Act is based on the formula outlined in Senate Bill 1 of the 100th General Assembly, as passed by both legislative chambers. As further defined and described in this Section, there are 4 major components of the Evidence-Based Funding model:

(A) First, the model calculates a unique Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit in this State that considers the costs to implement research-based activities, the unit's student demographics, and regional wage differences.

(B) Second, the model calculates each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity, or the amount each Organizational Unit is assumed to contribute toward its Adequacy Target from local resources.

(C) Third, the model calculates how much funding the State currently contributes to the Organizational Unit and adds that to the unit's Local Capacity to determine the unit's overall current adequacy of funding.

(D) Finally, the model's distribution method allocates new State funding to those Organizational Units that are least well-funded, considering both Local Capacity and State funding, in relation to their Adequacy Target.

(3) An Organizational Unit receiving any funding under this Section may apply those funds to any fund so received for which that Organizational Unit is authorized to make expenditures by law.

(4) As used in this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings ascribed in this paragraph (4):

"Adequacy Target" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section.

"Adjusted EAV" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Adjusted Local Capacity Target" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Adjusted Operating Tax Rate" means a tax rate for all Organizational Units, for which the State Superintendent shall calculate and subtract for the Operating Tax Rate a transportation rate based on total expenses for transportation services under this Code, as reported on the most recent Annual Financial Report in Pupil Transportation Services, function 2550 in both the Education and Transportation funds and functions 4110 and 4120 in the Transportation fund, less any corresponding fiscal year State of Illinois scheduled payments excluding net adjustments for prior years for regular, vocational, or special education transportation reimbursement pursuant to Section 29-5 or subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 of this Code divided by the Adjusted EAV. If an Organizational Unit's corresponding fiscal year State of Illinois scheduled payments excluding net adjustments for prior years for regular, vocational, or special education transportation reimbursement pursuant to Section 29-5 or subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 of this Code exceed the total transportation expenses, as defined in this paragraph, no transportation rate shall be subtracted from the Operating Tax Rate.

"Allocation Rate" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"Alternative School" means a public school that is created and operated by a regional superintendent of schools and approved by the State Board.

"Applicable Tax Rate" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Assessment" means any of those benchmark, progress monitoring, formative, diagnostic, and other assessments, in addition to the State accountability assessment, that assist teachers' needs in understanding the skills and meeting the needs of the students they serve.

"Assistant principal" means a school administrator duly endorsed to be employed as an assistant principal in this State.

"At-risk student" means a student who is at risk of not meeting the Illinois Learning Standards or not graduating from elementary or high school and who demonstrates a need for vocational support or social services beyond that provided by the regular school program. All students included in an Organizational Unit's Low-Income Count, as well as all English learner and disabled students attending the Organizational Unit, shall be considered at-risk students under this Section.

"Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" for fiscal year 2018 means, for an Organizational Unit, the greater of the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 in the immediately preceding school year, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services of 2 or more hours a day as reported to the State Board on December 1 in the immediately preceding school year, or the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services of 2 or more hours a day as reported to the State Board on December 1, for each of the immediately preceding 3 school years. For fiscal year 2019 and each subsequent fiscal year, "Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" means, for an Organizational Unit, the greater of the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 and March 1 in the immediately preceding school year, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services as reported to the State Board on October 1 and March 1 in the immediately preceding school year, or the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 and March 1, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services as reported to the State Board on October 1 and March 1, for each of the immediately preceding 3 school years. For the purposes of this definition, "enrolled in the Organizational Unit" means the number of students reported to the State Board who are enrolled in schools within the Organizational Unit that the student attends or would attend if not placed or transferred to another school or program to receive needed services. For the purposes of calculating "ASE", all students, grades K through 12, excluding those attending kindergarten for a half day and students attending an alternative education program operated by a regional office of education or intermediate service center, shall be counted as 1.0. All students attending kindergarten for a half day shall be counted as 0.5, unless in 2017 by June 15 or by March 1 in subsequent years, the school district reports to the State Board of Education the intent to implement full-day kindergarten district-wide for all students, then all students attending kindergarten shall be counted as 1.0. Special education pre-kindergarten students shall be counted as 0.5 each. If the State Board does not collect or has not collected both an October 1 and March 1 enrollment count by grade or a December 1 collection of special education pre-kindergarten students as of August 31, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-465), it shall establish such collection for all future years. For any year in which a count by grade level was collected only once, that count shall be used as the single count available for computing a 3-year average ASE. Funding for programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be calculated using the Evidence-Based Funding formula under this Section for the 2019-2020 school year and each subsequent school year until separate adequacy formulas are developed and adopted for each type of program. ASE for a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be determined by the March 1 enrollment for the program. For the 2019-2020 school year, the ASE used in the calculation must be the first-year ASE and, in that year only, the assignment of students served by a regional office of education or intermediate service center shall not result in a reduction of the March enrollment for any school district. For the 2020-2021 school year, the ASE must be the greater of the current-year ASE or the 2-year average ASE. Beginning with the 2021-2022 school year, the ASE must be the greater of the current-year ASE or the 3-year average ASE. School districts shall submit the data for the ASE calculation to the State Board within 45 days of the dates required in this Section for submission of enrollment data in order for it to be included in the ASE calculation. For fiscal year 2018 only, the ASE calculation shall include only enrollment taken on October 1. In recognition of the impact of COVID-19, the definition of "Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" shall be adjusted for calculations under this Section for fiscal years 2022 through 2024. For fiscal years 2022 through 2024, the enrollment used in the calculation of ASE representing the 2020-2021 school year shall be the greater of the enrollment for the 2020-2021 school year or the 2019-2020 school year.

"Base Funding Guarantee" is defined in paragraph (10) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"Base Funding Minimum" is defined in subsection (e) of this Section.

"Base Tax Year" means the property tax levy year used to calculate the Budget Year allocation of primary State aid.

"Base Tax Year's Extension" means the product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the county clerk in the Base Tax Year multiplied by the limiting rate as calculated by the county clerk and defined in PTELL.

"Bilingual Education Allocation" means the amount of an Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to bilingual education divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the product of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to bilingual education shall include all additional investments in English learner students' adequacy elements.

"Budget Year" means the school year for which primary State aid is calculated and awarded under this Section.

"Central office" means individual administrators and support service personnel charged with managing the instructional programs, business and operations, and security of the Organizational Unit.

"Comparable Wage Index" or "CWI" means a regional cost differentiation metric that measures systemic, regional variations in the salaries of college graduates who are not educators. The CWI utilized for this Section shall, for the first 3 years of Evidence-Based Funding implementation, be the CWI initially developed by the National Center for Education Statistics, as most recently updated by Texas A & M University. In the fourth and subsequent years of Evidence-Based Funding implementation, the State Superintendent shall re-determine the CWI using a similar methodology to that identified in the Texas A & M University study, with adjustments made no less frequently than once every 5 years.

"Computer technology and equipment" means computers servers, notebooks, network equipment, copiers, printers, instructional software, security software, curriculum management courseware, and other similar materials and equipment.

"Computer technology and equipment investment allocation" means the final Adequacy Target amount of an Organizational Unit assigned to Tier 1 or Tier 2 in the prior school year attributable to the additional $285.50 per student computer technology and equipment investment grant divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the result of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit assigned to a Tier 1 or Tier 2 final Adequacy Target attributable to the received computer technology and equipment investment grant shall include all additional investments in computer technology and equipment adequacy elements.

"Core subject" means mathematics; science; reading, English, writing, and language arts; history and social studies; world languages; and subjects taught as Advanced Placement in high schools.

"Core teacher" means a regular classroom teacher in elementary schools and teachers of a core subject in middle and high schools.

"Core Intervention teacher (tutor)" means a licensed teacher providing one-on-one or small group tutoring to students struggling to meet proficiency in core subjects.

"CPPRT" means corporate personal property replacement tax funds paid to an Organizational Unit during the calendar year one year before the calendar year in which a school year begins, pursuant to "An Act in relation to the abolition of ad valorem personal property tax and the replacement of revenues lost thereby, and amending and repealing certain Acts and parts of Acts in connection therewith", certified August 14, 1979, as amended (Public Act 81-1st S.S.-1).

"EAV" means equalized assessed valuation as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section and calculated in accordance with paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"ECI" means the Bureau of Labor Statistics' national employment cost index for civilian workers in educational services in elementary and secondary schools on a cumulative basis for the 12-month calendar year preceding the fiscal year of the Evidence-Based Funding calculation.

"EIS Data" means the employment information system data maintained by the State Board on educators within Organizational Units.

"Employee benefits" means health, dental, and vision insurance offered to employees of an Organizational Unit, the costs associated with the statutorily required payment of the normal cost of the Organizational Unit's teacher pensions, Social Security employer contributions, and Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund employer contributions.

"English learner" or "EL" means a child included in the definition of "English learners" under Section 14C-2 of this Code participating in a program of transitional bilingual education or a transitional program of instruction meeting the requirements and program application procedures of Article 14C of this Code. For the purposes of collecting the number of EL students enrolled, the same collection and calculation methodology as defined above for "ASE" shall apply to English learners, with the exception that EL student enrollment shall include students in grades pre-kindergarten through 12.

"Essential Elements" means those elements, resources, and educational programs that have been identified through academic research as necessary to improve student success, improve academic performance, close achievement gaps, and provide for other per student costs related to the delivery and leadership of the Organizational Unit, as well as the maintenance and operations of the unit, and which are specified in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section.

"Evidence-Based Funding" means State funding provided to an Organizational Unit pursuant to this Section.

"Extended day" means academic and enrichment programs provided to students outside the regular school day before and after school or during non-instructional times during the school day.

"Extension Limitation Ratio" means a numerical ratio in which the numerator is the Base Tax Year's Extension and the denominator is the Preceding Tax Year's Extension.

"Final Percent of Adequacy" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Final Resources" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Full-time equivalent" or "FTE" means the full-time equivalency compensation for staffing the relevant position at an Organizational Unit.

"Funding Gap" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (g).

"Hybrid District" means a partial elementary unit district created pursuant to Article 11E of this Code.

"Instructional assistant" means a core or special education, non-licensed employee who assists a teacher in the classroom and provides academic support to students.

"Instructional facilitator" means a qualified teacher or licensed teacher leader who facilitates and coaches continuous improvement in classroom instruction; provides instructional support to teachers in the elements of research-based instruction or demonstrates the alignment of instruction with curriculum standards and assessment tools; develops or coordinates instructional programs or strategies; develops and implements training; chooses standards-based instructional materials; provides teachers with an understanding of current research; serves as a mentor, site coach, curriculum specialist, or lead teacher; or otherwise works with fellow teachers, in collaboration, to use data to improve instructional practice or develop model lessons.

"Instructional materials" means relevant instructional materials for student instruction, including, but not limited to, textbooks, consumable workbooks, laboratory equipment, library books, and other similar materials.

"Laboratory School" means a public school that is created and operated by a public university and approved by the State Board.

"Librarian" means a teacher with an endorsement as a library information specialist or another individual whose primary responsibility is overseeing library resources within an Organizational Unit.

"Limiting rate for Hybrid Districts" means the combined elementary school and high school limiting rates.

"Local Capacity" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Percentage" is defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Ratio" is defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Target" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Low-Income Count" means, for an Organizational Unit in a fiscal year, the higher of the average number of students for the prior school year or the immediately preceding 3 school years who, as of July 1 of the immediately preceding fiscal year (as determined by the Department of Human Services), are eligible for at least one of the following low-income programs: Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program, Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF), or the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, excluding pupils who are eligible for services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services. Until such time that grade level low-income populations become available, grade level low-income populations shall be determined by applying the low-income percentage to total student enrollments by grade level. The low-income percentage is determined by dividing the Low-Income Count by the Average Student Enrollment. The low-income percentage for programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be set to the weighted average of the low-income percentages of all of the school districts in the service region. The weighted low-income percentage is the result of multiplying the low-income percentage of each school district served by the regional office of education or intermediate service center by each school district's Average Student Enrollment, summarizing those products and dividing the total by the total Average Student Enrollment for the service region.

"Maintenance and operations" means custodial services, facility and ground maintenance, facility operations, facility security, routine facility repairs, and other similar services and functions.

"Minimum Funding Level" is defined in paragraph (9) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds" means, for any given fiscal year, all State funds appropriated under Section 2-3.170 of this Code.

"New State Funds" means, for a given school year, all State funds appropriated for Evidence-Based Funding in excess of the amount needed to fund the Base Funding Minimum for all Organizational Units in that school year.

"Nurse" means an individual licensed as a certified school nurse, in accordance with the rules established for nursing services by the State Board, who is an employee of and is available to provide health care-related services for students of an Organizational Unit.

"Operating Tax Rate" means the rate utilized in the previous year to extend property taxes for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes. For Hybrid Districts, the Operating Tax Rate shall be the combined elementary and high school rates utilized in the previous year to extend property taxes for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes.

"Organizational Unit" means a Laboratory School or any public school district that is recognized as such by the State Board and that contains elementary schools typically serving kindergarten through 5th grades, middle schools typically serving 6th through 8th grades, high schools typically serving 9th through 12th grades, a program established under Section 2-3.66 or 2-3.41, or a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center under Article 13A or 13B. The General Assembly acknowledges that the actual grade levels served by a particular Organizational Unit may vary slightly from what is typical.

"Organizational Unit CWI" is determined by calculating the CWI in the region and original county in which an Organizational Unit's primary administrative office is located as set forth in this paragraph, provided that if the Organizational Unit CWI as calculated in accordance with this paragraph is less than 0.9, the Organizational Unit CWI shall be increased to 0.9. Each county's current CWI value shall be adjusted based on the CWI value of that county's neighboring Illinois counties, to create a "weighted adjusted index value". This shall be calculated by summing the CWI values of all of a county's adjacent Illinois counties and dividing by the number of adjacent Illinois counties, then taking the weighted value of the original county's CWI value and the adjacent Illinois county average. To calculate this weighted value, if the number of adjacent Illinois counties is greater than 2, the original county's CWI value will be weighted at 0.25 and the adjacent Illinois county average will be weighted at 0.75. If the number of adjacent Illinois counties is 2, the original county's CWI value will be weighted at 0.33 and the adjacent Illinois county average will be weighted at 0.66. The greater of the county's current CWI value and its weighted adjusted index value shall be used as the Organizational Unit CWI.

"Preceding Tax Year" means the property tax levy year immediately preceding the Base Tax Year.

"Preceding Tax Year's Extension" means the product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the county clerk in the Preceding Tax Year multiplied by the Operating Tax Rate.

"Preliminary Percent of Adequacy" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Preliminary Resources" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Principal" means a school administrator duly endorsed to be employed as a principal in this State.

"Professional development" means training programs for licensed staff in schools, including, but not limited to, programs that assist in implementing new curriculum programs, provide data focused or academic assessment data training to help staff identify a student's weaknesses and strengths, target interventions, improve instruction, encompass instructional strategies for English learner, gifted, or at-risk students, address inclusivity, cultural sensitivity, or implicit bias, or otherwise provide professional support for licensed staff.

"Prototypical" means 450 special education pre-kindergarten and kindergarten through grade 5 students for an elementary school, 450 grade 6 through 8 students for a middle school, and 600 grade 9 through 12 students for a high school.

"PTELL" means the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

"PTELL EAV" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Pupil support staff" means a nurse, psychologist, social worker, family liaison personnel, or other staff member who provides support to at-risk or struggling students.

"Real Receipts" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Regionalization Factor" means, for a particular Organizational Unit, the figure derived by dividing the Organizational Unit CWI by the Statewide Weighted CWI.

"School counselor" means a licensed school counselor who provides guidance and counseling support for students within an Organizational Unit.

"School site staff" means the primary school secretary and any additional clerical personnel assigned to a school.

"Special education" means special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code.

"Special Education Allocation" means the amount of an Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to special education divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the product of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to special education shall include all special education investment adequacy elements.

"Specialist teacher" means a teacher who provides instruction in subject areas not included in core subjects, including, but not limited to, art, music, physical education, health, driver education, career-technical education, and such other subject areas as may be mandated by State law or provided by an Organizational Unit.

"Specially Funded Unit" means an Alternative School, safe school, Department of Juvenile Justice school, special education cooperative or entity recognized by the State Board as a special education cooperative, State-approved charter school, or alternative learning opportunities program that received direct funding from the State Board during the 2016-2017 school year through any of the funding sources included within the calculation of the Base Funding Minimum or Glenwood Academy.

"Supplemental Grant Funding" means supplemental general State aid funding received by an Organizational Unit during the 2016-2017 school year pursuant to subsection (H) of Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed).

"State Adequacy Level" is the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Organizational Units.

"State Board" means the State Board of Education.

"State Superintendent" means the State Superintendent of Education.

"Statewide Weighted CWI" means a figure determined by multiplying each Organizational Unit CWI times the ASE for that Organizational Unit creating a weighted value, summing all Organizational Units' weighted values, and dividing by the total ASE of all Organizational Units, thereby creating an average weighted index.

"Student activities" means non-credit producing after-school programs, including, but not limited to, clubs, bands, sports, and other activities authorized by the school board of the Organizational Unit.

"Substitute teacher" means an individual teacher or teaching assistant who is employed by an Organizational Unit and is temporarily serving the Organizational Unit on a per diem or per period-assignment basis to replace another staff member.

"Summer school" means academic and enrichment programs provided to students during the summer months outside of the regular school year.

"Supervisory aide" means a non-licensed staff member who helps in supervising students of an Organizational Unit, but does so outside of the classroom, in situations such as, but not limited to, monitoring hallways and playgrounds, supervising lunchrooms, or supervising students when being transported in buses serving the Organizational Unit.

"Target Ratio" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (g).

"Tier 1", "Tier 2", "Tier 3", and "Tier 4" are defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (g).

"Tier 1 Aggregate Funding", "Tier 2 Aggregate Funding", "Tier 3 Aggregate Funding", and "Tier 4 Aggregate Funding" are defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (g).

(b) Adequacy Target calculation.

(1) Each Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target is the sum of the Organizational Unit's cost of providing Essential Elements, as calculated in accordance with this subsection (b), with the salary amounts in the Essential Elements multiplied by a Regionalization Factor calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (b).

(2) The Essential Elements are attributable on a pro rata basis related to defined subgroups of the ASE of each Organizational Unit as specified in this paragraph (2), with investments and FTE positions pro rata funded based on ASE counts in excess of or less than the thresholds set forth in this paragraph (2). The method for calculating attributable pro rata costs and the defined subgroups thereto are as follows:

(A) Core class size investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding required to support that number of FTE core teacher positions as is needed to keep the respective class sizes of the Organizational Unit to the following maximum numbers:

(i) For grades kindergarten through 3, the Organizational Unit shall receive funding required to support one FTE core teacher position for every 15 Low-Income Count students in those grades and one FTE core teacher position for every 20 non-Low-Income Count students in those grades.

(ii) For grades 4 through 12, the Organizational Unit shall receive funding required to support one FTE core teacher position for every 20 Low-Income Count students in those grades and one FTE core teacher position for every 25 non-Low-Income Count students in those grades.

The number of non-Low-Income Count students in a grade shall be determined by subtracting the Low-Income students in that grade from the ASE of the Organizational Unit for that grade.

(B) Specialist teacher investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover that number of FTE specialist teacher positions that correspond to the following percentages:

(i) if the Organizational Unit operates an elementary or middle school, then 20.00% of the number of the Organizational Unit's core teachers, as determined under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (2); and

(ii) if such Organizational Unit operates a high school, then 33.33% of the number of the Organizational Unit's core teachers.

(C) Instructional facilitator investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE instructional facilitator position for every 200 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students of the Organizational Unit.

(D) Core intervention teacher (tutor) investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE teacher position for each prototypical elementary, middle, and high school.

(E) Substitute teacher investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover substitute teacher costs that is equal to 5.70% of the minimum pupil attendance days required under Section 10-19 of this Code for all full-time equivalent core, specialist, and intervention teachers, school nurses, special education teachers and instructional assistants, instructional facilitators, and summer school and extended day teacher positions, as determined under this paragraph (2), at a salary rate of 33.33% of the average salary for grade K through 12 teachers and 33.33% of the average salary of each instructional assistant position.

(F) Core school counselor investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE school counselor for each 450 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE school counselor for each 250 grades 6 through 8 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE school counselor for each 250 grades 9 through 12 ASE high school students.

(G) Nurse investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE nurse for each 750 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students across all grade levels it serves.

(H) Supervisory aide investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE for each 225 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE for each 225 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE for each 200 ASE high school students.

(I) Librarian investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE librarian for each prototypical elementary school, middle school, and high school and one FTE aide or media technician for every 300 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students.

(J) Principal investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE principal position for each prototypical elementary school, plus one FTE principal position for each prototypical middle school, plus one FTE principal position for each prototypical high school.

(K) Assistant principal investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical elementary school, plus one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical middle school, plus one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical high school.

(L) School site staff investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed for one FTE position for each 225 ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE position for each 225 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE position for each 200 ASE high school students.

(M) Gifted investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $40 per kindergarten through grade 12 ASE.

(N) Professional development investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $125 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students for trainers and other professional development-related expenses for supplies and materials.

(O) Instructional material investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $190 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover instructional material costs.

(P) Assessment investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $25 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover assessment costs.

(Q) Computer technology and equipment investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $285.50 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover computer technology and equipment costs. For the 2018-2019 school year and subsequent school years, Organizational Units assigned to Tier 1 and Tier 2 in the prior school year shall receive an additional $285.50 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover computer technology and equipment costs in the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target. The State Board may establish additional requirements for Organizational Unit expenditures of funds received pursuant to this subparagraph (Q), including a requirement that funds received pursuant to this subparagraph (Q) may be used only for serving the technology needs of the district. It is the intent of Public Act 100-465 that all Tier 1 and Tier 2 districts receive the addition to their Adequacy Target in the following year, subject to compliance with the requirements of the State Board.

(R) Student activities investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the following funding amounts to cover student activities: $100 per kindergarten through grade 5 ASE student in elementary school, plus $200 per ASE student in middle school, plus $675 per ASE student in high school.

(S) Maintenance and operations investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $1,038 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students for day-to-day maintenance and operations expenditures, including salary, supplies, and materials, as well as purchased services, but excluding employee benefits. The proportion of salary for the application of a Regionalization Factor and the calculation of benefits is equal to $352.92.

(T) Central office investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $742 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover central office operations, including administrators and classified personnel charged with managing the instructional programs, business and operations of the school district, and security personnel. The proportion of salary for the application of a Regionalization Factor and the calculation of benefits is equal to $368.48.

(U) Employee benefit investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive 30% of the total of all salary-calculated elements of the Adequacy Target, excluding substitute teachers and student activities investments, to cover benefit costs. For central office and maintenance and operations investments, the benefit calculation shall be based upon the salary proportion of each investment. If at any time the responsibility for funding the employer normal cost of teacher pensions is assigned to school districts, then that amount certified by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois to be paid by the Organizational Unit for the preceding school year shall be added to the benefit investment. For any fiscal year in which a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code is responsible for paying the employer normal cost of teacher pensions, then that amount of its employer normal cost plus the amount for retiree health insurance as certified by the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago to be paid by the school district for the preceding school year that is statutorily required to cover employer normal costs and the amount for retiree health insurance shall be added to the 30% specified in this subparagraph (U). The Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois and the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago shall submit such information as the State Superintendent may require for the calculations set forth in this subparagraph (U).

(V) Additional investments in low-income students. In addition to and not in lieu of all other funding under this paragraph (2), each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover the costs of:

(i) one FTE intervention teacher (tutor) position for every 125 Low-Income Count students;

(ii) one FTE pupil support staff position for every 125 Low-Income Count students;

(iii) one FTE extended day teacher position for every 120 Low-Income Count students; and

(iv) one FTE summer school teacher position for every 120 Low-Income Count students.

(W) Additional investments in English learner students. In addition to and not in lieu of all other funding under this paragraph (2), each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover the costs of:

(i) one FTE intervention teacher (tutor) position for every 125 English learner students;

(ii) one FTE pupil support staff position for every 125 English learner students;

(iii) one FTE extended day teacher position for every 120 English learner students;

(iv) one FTE summer school teacher position for every 120 English learner students; and

(v) one FTE core teacher position for every 100 English learner students.

(X) Special education investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover special education as follows:

(i) one FTE teacher position for every 141 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students;

(ii) one FTE instructional assistant for every 141 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students; and

(iii) one FTE psychologist position for every 1,000 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students.

(3) For calculating the salaries included within the Essential Elements, the State Superintendent shall annually calculate average salaries to the nearest dollar using the employment information system data maintained by the State Board, limited to public schools only and excluding special education and vocational cooperatives, schools operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice, and charter schools, for the following positions:

(A) Teacher for grades K through 8.

(B) Teacher for grades 9 through 12.

(C) Teacher for grades K through 12.

(D) School counselor for grades K through 8.

(E) School counselor for grades 9 through 12.

(F) School counselor for grades K through 12.

(G) Social worker.

(H) Psychologist.

(I) Librarian.

(J) Nurse.

(K) Principal.

(L) Assistant principal.

For the purposes of this paragraph (3), "teacher" includes core teachers, specialist and elective teachers, instructional facilitators, tutors, special education teachers, pupil support staff teachers, English learner teachers, extended day teachers, and summer school teachers. Where specific grade data is not required for the Essential Elements, the average salary for corresponding positions shall apply. For substitute teachers, the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 shall apply.

For calculating the salaries included within the Essential Elements for positions not included within EIS Data, the following salaries shall be used in the first year of implementation of Evidence-Based Funding:

(i) school site staff, $30,000; and

(ii) non-instructional assistant, instructional assistant, library aide, library media tech, or supervisory aide: $25,000.

In the second and subsequent years of implementation of Evidence-Based Funding, the amounts in items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph (3) shall annually increase by the ECI.

The salary amounts for the Essential Elements determined pursuant to subparagraphs (A) through (L), (S) and (T), and (V) through (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section shall be multiplied by a Regionalization Factor.

(c) Local Capacity calculation.

(1) Each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity represents an amount of funding it is assumed to contribute toward its Adequacy Target for purposes of the Evidence-Based Funding formula calculation. "Local Capacity" means either (i) the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target as calculated in accordance with paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) if its Real Receipts are equal to or less than its Local Capacity Target or (ii) the Organizational Unit's Adjusted Local Capacity, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) if Real Receipts are more than its Local Capacity Target.

(2) "Local Capacity Target" means, for an Organizational Unit, that dollar amount that is obtained by multiplying its Adequacy Target by its Local Capacity Ratio.

(A) An Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Percentage is the conversion of the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio, as such ratio is determined in accordance with subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (2), into a cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking to determine each Organizational Unit's relative position to all other Organizational Units in this State. The calculation of Local Capacity Percentage is described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (2).

(B) An Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio in a given year is the percentage obtained by dividing its Adjusted EAV or PTELL EAV, whichever is less, by its Adequacy Target, with the resulting ratio further adjusted as follows:

(i) for Organizational Units serving grades kindergarten through 12 and Hybrid Districts, no further adjustments shall be made;

(ii) for Organizational Units serving grades kindergarten through 8, the ratio shall be multiplied by 9/13;

(iii) for Organizational Units serving grades 9 through 12, the Local Capacity Ratio shall be multiplied by 4/13; and

(iv) for an Organizational Unit with a different grade configuration than those specified in items (i) through (iii) of this subparagraph (B), the State Superintendent shall determine a comparable adjustment based on the grades served.

(C) The Local Capacity Percentage is equal to the percentile ranking of the district. Local Capacity Percentage converts each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio to a cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking to determine each Organizational Unit's relative position to all other Organizational Units in this State. The Local Capacity Percentage cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking for each Organizational Unit shall be calculated using the standard normal distribution of the score in relation to the weighted mean and weighted standard deviation and Local Capacity Ratios of all Organizational Units. If the value assigned to any Organizational Unit is in excess of 90%, the value shall be adjusted to 90%. For Laboratory Schools, the Local Capacity Percentage shall be set at 10% in recognition of the absence of EAV and resources from the public university that are allocated to the Laboratory School. For programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center, the Local Capacity Percentage must be set at 10% in recognition of the absence of EAV and resources from school districts that are allocated to the regional office of education or intermediate service center. The weighted mean for the Local Capacity Percentage shall be determined by multiplying each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio times the ASE for the unit creating a weighted value, summing the weighted values of all Organizational Units, and dividing by the total ASE of all Organizational Units. The weighted standard deviation shall be determined by taking the square root of the weighted variance of all Organizational Units' Local Capacity Ratio, where the variance is calculated by squaring the difference between each unit's Local Capacity Ratio and the weighted mean, then multiplying the variance for each unit times the ASE for the unit to create a weighted variance for each unit, then summing all units' weighted variance and dividing by the total ASE of all units.

(D) For any Organizational Unit, the Organizational Unit's Adjusted Local Capacity Target shall be reduced by either (i) the school board's remaining contribution pursuant to paragraph (ii) of subsection (b-4) of Section 16-158 of the Illinois Pension Code in a given year or (ii) the board of education's remaining contribution pursuant to paragraph (iv) of subsection (b) of Section 17-129 of the Illinois Pension Code absent the employer normal cost portion of the required contribution and amount allowed pursuant to subdivision (3) of Section 17-142.1 of the Illinois Pension Code in a given year. In the preceding sentence, item (i) shall be certified to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois and item (ii) shall be certified to the State Board of Education by the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of the City of Chicago.

(3) If an Organizational Unit's Real Receipts are more than its Local Capacity Target, then its Local Capacity shall equal an Adjusted Local Capacity Target as calculated in accordance with this paragraph (3). The Adjusted Local Capacity Target is calculated as the sum of the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target and its Real Receipts Adjustment. The Real Receipts Adjustment equals the Organizational Unit's Real Receipts less its Local Capacity Target, with the resulting figure multiplied by the Local Capacity Percentage.

As used in this paragraph (3), "Real Percent of Adequacy" means the sum of an Organizational Unit's Real Receipts, CPPRT, and Base Funding Minimum, with the resulting figure divided by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target.

(d) Calculation of Real Receipts, EAV, and Adjusted EAV for purposes of the Local Capacity calculation.

(1) An Organizational Unit's Real Receipts are the product of its Applicable Tax Rate and its Adjusted EAV. An Organizational Unit's Applicable Tax Rate is its Adjusted Operating Tax Rate for property within the Organizational Unit.

(2) The State Superintendent shall calculate the equalized assessed valuation, or EAV, of all taxable property of each Organizational Unit as of September 30 of the previous year in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (d). The State Superintendent shall then determine the Adjusted EAV of each Organizational Unit in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), which Adjusted EAV figure shall be used for the purposes of calculating Local Capacity.

(3) To calculate Real Receipts and EAV, the Department of Revenue shall supply to the State Superintendent the value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue of all taxable property of every Organizational Unit, together with (i) the applicable tax rate used in extending taxes for the funds of the Organizational Unit as of September 30 of the previous year and (ii) the limiting rate for all Organizational Units subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under PTELL.

(A) The Department of Revenue shall add to the equalized assessed value of all taxable property of each Organizational Unit situated entirely or partially within a county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code (i) an amount equal to the total amount by which the homestead exemption allowed under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code for real property situated in that Organizational Unit exceeds the total amount that would have been allowed in that Organizational Unit if the maximum reduction under Section 15-176 was (I) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003 or (II) $5,000 in all counties in tax year 2004 and thereafter and (ii) an amount equal to the aggregate amount for the taxable year of all additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. The county clerk of any county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code shall annually calculate and certify to the Department of Revenue for each Organizational Unit all homestead exemption amounts under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and all amounts of additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. It is the intent of this subparagraph (A) that if the general homestead exemption for a parcel of property is determined under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code rather than Section 15-175, then the calculation of EAV shall not be affected by the difference, if any, between the amount of the general homestead exemption allowed for that parcel of property under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and the amount that would have been allowed had the general homestead exemption for that parcel of property been determined under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code. It is further the intent of this subparagraph (A) that if additional exemptions are allowed under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of less than $30,000, then the calculation of EAV shall not be affected by the difference, if any, because of those additional exemptions.

(B) With respect to any part of an Organizational Unit within a redevelopment project area in respect to which a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, Division 74.4 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law, Division 74.6 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code, no part of the current EAV of real property located in any such project area that is attributable to an increase above the total initial EAV of such property shall be used as part of the EAV of the Organizational Unit, until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid, as provided in Section 11-74.4-8 of the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act or in Section 11-74.6-35 of the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law. For the purpose of the EAV of the Organizational Unit, the total initial EAV or the current EAV, whichever is lower, shall be used until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid.

(B-5) The real property equalized assessed valuation for a school district shall be adjusted by subtracting from the real property value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, for the district an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under Section 18-170 of the Property Tax Code by 3.00% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, by 2.30% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, or by 1.05% for a district maintaining grades 9 through 12 and adjusted by an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under subsection (a) of Section 18-165 of the Property Tax Code by the same percentage rates for district type as specified in this subparagraph (B-5).

(C) For Organizational Units that are Hybrid Districts, the State Superintendent shall use the lesser of the adjusted equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for elementary purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, or the adjusted equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for high school purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code.

(D) If a school district's boundaries span multiple counties, then the Department of Revenue shall send to the State Board, for the purposes of calculating Evidence-Based Funding, the limiting rate and individual rates by purpose for the county that contains the majority of the school district's equalized assessed valuation.

(4) An Organizational Unit's Adjusted EAV shall be the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 3 years or the lesser of its EAV in the immediately preceding year or the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 3 years if the EAV in the immediately preceding year has declined by 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years. In the event of Organizational Unit reorganization, consolidation, or annexation, the Organizational Unit's Adjusted EAV for the first 3 years after such change shall be as follows: the most current EAV shall be used in the first year, the average of a 2-year EAV or its EAV in the immediately preceding year if the EAV declines by 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years for the second year, and the lesser of a 3-year average EAV or its EAV in the immediately preceding year if the Adjusted EAV declines by 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years for the third year. For any school district whose EAV in the immediately preceding year is used in calculations, in the following year, the Adjusted EAV shall be the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 2 years or the immediately preceding year if that year represents a decline of 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years.

"PTELL EAV" means a figure calculated by the State Board for Organizational Units subject to PTELL as described in this paragraph (4) for the purposes of calculating an Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (4), the PTELL EAV of an Organizational Unit shall be equal to the product of the equalized assessed valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) or Evidence-Based Funding under this Section and the Organizational Unit's Extension Limitation Ratio. If an Organizational Unit has approved or does approve an increase in its limiting rate, pursuant to Section 18-190 of the Property Tax Code, affecting the Base Tax Year, the PTELL EAV shall be equal to the product of the equalized assessed valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) or Evidence-Based Funding under this Section multiplied by an amount equal to one plus the percentage increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor for the 12-month calendar year preceding the Base Tax Year, plus the equalized assessed valuation of new property, annexed property, and recovered tax increment value and minus the equalized assessed valuation of disconnected property.

As used in this paragraph (4), "new property" and "recovered tax increment value" shall have the meanings set forth in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

(e) Base Funding Minimum calculation.

(1) For the 2017-2018 school year, the Base Funding Minimum of an Organizational Unit or a Specially Funded Unit shall be the amount of State funds distributed to the Organizational Unit or Specially Funded Unit during the 2016-2017 school year prior to any adjustments and specified appropriation amounts described in this paragraph (1) from the following Sections, as calculated by the State Superintendent: Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed); Section 5 of Article 224 of Public Act 99-524 (equity grants); Section 14-7.02b of this Code (funding for children requiring special education services); Section 14-13.01 of this Code (special education facilities and staffing), except for reimbursement of the cost of transportation pursuant to Section 14-13.01; Section 14C-12 of this Code (English learners); and Section 18-4.3 of this Code (summer school), based on an appropriation level of $13,121,600. For a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code, the Base Funding Minimum also includes (i) the funds allocated to the school district pursuant to Section 1D-1 of this Code attributable to funding programs authorized by the Sections of this Code listed in the preceding sentence and (ii) the difference between (I) the funds allocated to the school district pursuant to Section 1D-1 of this Code attributable to the funding programs authorized by Section 14-7.02 (non-public special education reimbursement), subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 (special education transportation), Section 29-5 (transportation), Section 2-3.80 (agricultural education), Section 2-3.66 (truants' alternative education), Section 2-3.62 (educational service centers), and Section 14-7.03 (special education - orphanage) of this Code and Section 15 of the Childhood Hunger Relief Act (free breakfast program) and (II) the school district's actual expenditures for its non-public special education, special education transportation, transportation programs, agricultural education, truants' alternative education, services that would otherwise be performed by a regional office of education, special education orphanage expenditures, and free breakfast, as most recently calculated and reported pursuant to subsection (f) of Section 1D-1 of this Code. The Base Funding Minimum for Glenwood Academy shall be $625,500. For programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center, the Base Funding Minimum must be the total amount of State funds allocated to those programs in the 2018-2019 school year and amounts provided pursuant to Article 34 of Public Act 100-586 and Section 3-16 of this Code. All programs established after June 5, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-10) and administered by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must have an initial Base Funding Minimum set to an amount equal to the first-year ASE multiplied by the amount of per pupil funding received in the previous school year by the lowest funded similar existing program type. If the enrollment for a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center is zero, then it may not receive Base Funding Minimum funds for that program in the next fiscal year, and those funds must be distributed to Organizational Units under subsection (g).

(2) For the 2018-2019 and subsequent school years, the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units and Specially Funded Units shall be the sum of (i) the amount of Evidence-Based Funding for the prior school year, (ii) the Base Funding Minimum for the prior school year, and (iii) any amount received by a school district pursuant to Section 7 of Article 97 of Public Act 100-21.

For the 2022-2023 school year, the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units shall be the amounts recalculated by the State Board of Education for Fiscal Year 2019 through Fiscal Year 2022 that were necessary due to average student enrollment errors for districts organized under Article 34 of this Code, plus the Fiscal Year 2022 property tax relief grants provided under Section 2-3.170 of this Code, ensuring each Organizational Unit has the correct amount of resources for Fiscal Year 2023 Evidence-Based Funding calculations and that Fiscal Year 2023 Evidence-Based Funding Distributions are made in accordance with this Section.

(3) Subject to approval by the General Assembly as provided in this paragraph (3), an Organizational Unit that meets all of the following criteria, as determined by the State Board, shall have District Intervention Money added to its Base Funding Minimum at the time the Base Funding Minimum is calculated by the State Board:

(A) The Organizational Unit is operating under an Independent Authority under Section 2-3.25f-5 of this Code for a minimum of 4 school years or is subject to the control of the State Board pursuant to a court order for a minimum of 4 school years.

(B) The Organizational Unit was designated as a Tier 1 or Tier 2 Organizational Unit in the previous school year under paragraph (3) of subsection (g) of this Section.

(C) The Organizational Unit demonstrates sustainability through a 5-year financial and strategic plan.

(D) The Organizational Unit has made sufficient progress and achieved sufficient stability in the areas of governance, academic growth, and finances.

As part of its determination under this paragraph (3), the State Board may consider the Organizational Unit's summative designation, any accreditations of the Organizational Unit, or the Organizational Unit's financial profile, as calculated by the State Board.

If the State Board determines that an Organizational Unit has met the criteria set forth in this paragraph (3), it must submit a report to the General Assembly, no later than January 2 of the fiscal year in which the State Board makes it determination, on the amount of District Intervention Money to add to the Organizational Unit's Base Funding Minimum. The General Assembly must review the State Board's report and may approve or disapprove, by joint resolution, the addition of District Intervention Money. If the General Assembly fails to act on the report within 40 calendar days from the receipt of the report, the addition of District Intervention Money is deemed approved. If the General Assembly approves the amount of District Intervention Money to be added to the Organizational Unit's Base Funding Minimum, the District Intervention Money must be added to the Base Funding Minimum annually thereafter.

For the first 4 years following the initial year that the State Board determines that an Organizational Unit has met the criteria set forth in this paragraph (3) and has received funding under this Section, the Organizational Unit must annually submit to the State Board, on or before November 30, a progress report regarding its financial and strategic plan under subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (3). The plan shall include the financial data from the past 4 annual financial reports or financial audits that must be presented to the State Board by November 15 of each year and the approved budget financial data for the current year. The plan shall be developed according to the guidelines presented to the Organizational Unit by the State Board. The plan shall further include financial projections for the next 3 fiscal years and include a discussion and financial summary of the Organizational Unit's facility needs. If the Organizational Unit does not demonstrate sufficient progress toward its 5-year plan or if it has failed to file an annual financial report, an annual budget, a financial plan, a deficit reduction plan, or other financial information as required by law, the State Board may establish a Financial Oversight Panel under Article 1H of this Code. However, if the Organizational Unit already has a Financial Oversight Panel, the State Board may extend the duration of the Panel.

(f) Percent of Adequacy and Final Resources calculation.

(1) The Evidence-Based Funding formula establishes a Percent of Adequacy for each Organizational Unit in order to place such units into tiers for the purposes of the funding distribution system described in subsection (g) of this Section. Initially, an Organizational Unit's Preliminary Resources and Preliminary Percent of Adequacy are calculated pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection (f). Then, an Organizational Unit's Final Resources and Final Percent of Adequacy are calculated to account for the Organizational Unit's poverty concentration levels pursuant to paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (f).

(2) An Organizational Unit's Preliminary Resources are equal to the sum of its Local Capacity Target, CPPRT, and Base Funding Minimum. An Organizational Unit's Preliminary Percent of Adequacy is the lesser of (i) its Preliminary Resources divided by its Adequacy Target or (ii) 100%.

(3) Except for Specially Funded Units, an Organizational Unit's Final Resources are equal to the sum of its Local Capacity, CPPRT, and Adjusted Base Funding Minimum. The Base Funding Minimum of each Specially Funded Unit shall serve as its Final Resources, except that the Base Funding Minimum for State-approved charter schools shall not include any portion of general State aid allocated in the prior year based on the per capita tuition charge times the charter school enrollment.

(4) An Organizational Unit's Final Percent of Adequacy is its Final Resources divided by its Adequacy Target. An Organizational Unit's Adjusted Base Funding Minimum is equal to its Base Funding Minimum less its Supplemental Grant Funding, with the resulting figure added to the product of its Supplemental Grant Funding and Preliminary Percent of Adequacy.

(g) Evidence-Based Funding formula distribution system.

(1) In each school year under the Evidence-Based Funding formula, each Organizational Unit receives funding equal to the sum of its Base Funding Minimum and the unit's allocation of New State Funds determined pursuant to this subsection (g). To allocate New State Funds, the Evidence-Based Funding formula distribution system first places all Organizational Units into one of 4 tiers in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), based on the Organizational Unit's Final Percent of Adequacy. New State Funds are allocated to each of the 4 tiers as follows: Tier 1 Aggregate Funding equals 50% of all New State Funds, Tier 2 Aggregate Funding equals 49% of all New State Funds, Tier 3 Aggregate Funding equals 0.9% of all New State Funds, and Tier 4 Aggregate Funding equals 0.1% of all New State Funds. Each Organizational Unit within Tier 1 or Tier 2 receives an allocation of New State Funds equal to its tier Funding Gap, as defined in the following sentence, multiplied by the tier's Allocation Rate determined pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (g). For Tier 1, an Organizational Unit's Funding Gap equals the tier's Target Ratio, as specified in paragraph (5) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target, with the resulting amount reduced by the Organizational Unit's Final Resources. For Tier 2, an Organizational Unit's Funding Gap equals the tier's Target Ratio, as described in paragraph (5) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target, with the resulting amount reduced by the Organizational Unit's Final Resources and its Tier 1 funding allocation. To determine the Organizational Unit's Funding Gap, the resulting amount is then multiplied by a factor equal to one minus the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target percentage. Each Organizational Unit within Tier 3 or Tier 4 receives an allocation of New State Funds equal to the product of its Adequacy Target and the tier's Allocation Rate, as specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection (g).

(2) To ensure equitable distribution of dollars for all Tier 2 Organizational Units, no Tier 2 Organizational Unit shall receive fewer dollars per ASE than any Tier 3 Organizational Unit. Each Tier 2 and Tier 3 Organizational Unit shall have its funding allocation divided by its ASE. Any Tier 2 Organizational Unit with a funding allocation per ASE below the greatest Tier 3 allocation per ASE shall get a funding allocation equal to the greatest Tier 3 funding allocation per ASE multiplied by the Organizational Unit's ASE. Each Tier 2 Organizational Unit's Tier 2 funding allocation shall be multiplied by the percentage calculated by dividing the original Tier 2 Aggregate Funding by the sum of all Tier 2 Organizational Units' Tier 2 funding allocation after adjusting districts' funding below Tier 3 levels.

(3) Organizational Units are placed into one of 4 tiers as follows:

(A) Tier 1 consists of all Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy less than the Tier 1 Target Ratio. The Tier 1 Target Ratio is the ratio level that allows for Tier 1 Aggregate Funding to be distributed, with the Tier 1 Allocation Rate determined pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (g).

(B) Tier 2 consists of all Tier 1 Units and all other Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy of less than 0.90.

(C) Tier 3 consists of all Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy of at least 0.90 and less than 1.0.

(D) Tier 4 consists of all Organizational Units with a Percent of Adequacy of at least 1.0.

(4) The Allocation Rates for Tiers 1 through 4 are determined as follows:

(A) The Tier 1 Allocation Rate is 30%.

(B) The Tier 2 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 2 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Funding Gaps for all Tier 2 Organizational Units, unless the result of such equation is higher than 1.0. If the result of such equation is higher than 1.0, then the Tier 2 Allocation Rate is 1.0.

(C) The Tier 3 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 3 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Tier 3 Organizational Units.

(D) The Tier 4 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 4 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Tier 4 Organizational Units.

(5) A tier's Target Ratio is determined as follows:

(A) The Tier 1 Target Ratio is the ratio level that allows for Tier 1 Aggregate Funding to be distributed with the Tier 1 Allocation Rate.

(B) The Tier 2 Target Ratio is 0.90.

(C) The Tier 3 Target Ratio is 1.0.

(6) If, at any point, the Tier 1 Target Ratio is greater than 90%, then all Tier 1 funding shall be allocated to Tier 2 and no Tier 1 Organizational Unit's funding may be identified.

(7) In the event that all Tier 2 Organizational Units receive funding at the Tier 2 Target Ratio level, any remaining New State Funds shall be allocated to Tier 3 and Tier 4 Organizational Units.

(8) If any Specially Funded Units, excluding Glenwood Academy, recognized by the State Board do not qualify for direct funding following the implementation of Public Act 100-465 from any of the funding sources included within the definition of Base Funding Minimum, the unqualified portion of the Base Funding Minimum shall be transferred to one or more appropriate Organizational Units as determined by the State Superintendent based on the prior year ASE of the Organizational Units.

(8.5) If a school district withdraws from a special education cooperative, the portion of the Base Funding Minimum that is attributable to the school district may be redistributed to the school district upon withdrawal. The school district and the cooperative must include the amount of the Base Funding Minimum that is to be reapportioned in their withdrawal agreement and notify the State Board of the change with a copy of the agreement upon withdrawal.

(9) The Minimum Funding Level is intended to establish a target for State funding that will keep pace with inflation and continue to advance equity through the Evidence-Based Funding formula. The target for State funding of New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds is $50,000,000 for State fiscal year 2019 and subsequent State fiscal years. The Minimum Funding Level is equal to $350,000,000. In addition to any New State Funds, no more than $50,000,000 New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds may be counted toward the Minimum Funding Level. If the sum of New State Funds and applicable New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds are less than the Minimum Funding Level, than funding for tiers shall be reduced in the following manner:

(A) First, Tier 4 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds until such time as Tier 4 funding is exhausted.

(B) Next, Tier 3 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 4 funding until such time as Tier 3 funding is exhausted.

(C) Next, Tier 2 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 4 and Tier 3.

(D) Finally, Tier 1 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 2, 3, and 4 funding. In addition, the Allocation Rate for Tier 1 shall be reduced to a percentage equal to the Tier 1 Allocation Rate set by paragraph (4) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the result of New State Funds divided by the Minimum Funding Level.

(9.5) For State fiscal year 2019 and subsequent State fiscal years, if New State Funds exceed $300,000,000, then any amount in excess of $300,000,000 shall be dedicated for purposes of Section 2-3.170 of this Code up to a maximum of $50,000,000.

(10) In the event of a decrease in the amount of the appropriation for this Section in any fiscal year after implementation of this Section, the Organizational Units receiving Tier 1 and Tier 2 funding, as determined under paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), shall be held harmless by establishing a Base Funding Guarantee equal to the per pupil kindergarten through grade 12 funding received in accordance with this Section in the prior fiscal year. Reductions shall be made to the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units in Tier 3 and Tier 4 on a per pupil basis equivalent to the total number of the ASE in Tier 3-funded and Tier 4-funded Organizational Units divided by the total reduction in State funding. The Base Funding Minimum as reduced shall continue to be applied to Tier 3 and Tier 4 Organizational Units and adjusted by the relative formula when increases in appropriations for this Section resume. In no event may State funding reductions to Organizational Units in Tier 3 or Tier 4 exceed an amount that would be less than the Base Funding Minimum established in the first year of implementation of this Section. If additional reductions are required, all school districts shall receive a reduction by a per pupil amount equal to the aggregate additional appropriation reduction divided by the total ASE of all Organizational Units.

(11) The State Superintendent shall make minor adjustments to the distribution formula set forth in this subsection (g) to account for the rounding of percentages to the nearest tenth of a percentage and dollar amounts to the nearest whole dollar.

(h) State Superintendent administration of funding and district submission requirements.

(1) The State Superintendent shall, in accordance with appropriations made by the General Assembly, meet the funding obligations created under this Section.

(2) The State Superintendent shall calculate the Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit under this Section. No Evidence-Based Funding shall be distributed within an Organizational Unit without the approval of the unit's school board.

(3) Annually, the State Superintendent shall calculate and report to each Organizational Unit the unit's aggregate financial adequacy amount, which shall be the sum of the Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit. The State Superintendent shall calculate and report separately for each Organizational Unit the unit's total State funds allocated for its students with disabilities. The State Superintendent shall calculate and report separately for each Organizational Unit the amount of funding and applicable FTE calculated for each Essential Element of the unit's Adequacy Target.

(4) Annually, the State Superintendent shall calculate and report to each Organizational Unit the amount the unit must expend on special education and bilingual education and computer technology and equipment for Organizational Units assigned to Tier 1 or Tier 2 that received an additional $285.50 per student computer technology and equipment investment grant to their Adequacy Target pursuant to the unit's Base Funding Minimum, Special Education Allocation, Bilingual Education Allocation, and computer technology and equipment investment allocation.

(5) Moneys distributed under this Section shall be calculated on a school year basis, but paid on a fiscal year basis, with payments beginning in August and extending through June. Unless otherwise provided, the moneys appropriated for each fiscal year shall be distributed in 22 equal payments at least 2 times monthly to each Organizational Unit. If moneys appropriated for any fiscal year are distributed other than monthly, the distribution shall be on the same basis for each Organizational Unit.

(6) Any school district that fails, for any given school year, to maintain school as required by law or to maintain a recognized school is not eligible to receive Evidence-Based Funding. In case of non-recognition of one or more attendance centers in a school district otherwise operating recognized schools, the claim of the district shall be reduced in the proportion that the enrollment in the attendance center or centers bears to the enrollment of the school district. "Recognized school" means any public school that meets the standards for recognition by the State Board. A school district or attendance center not having recognition status at the end of a school term is entitled to receive State aid payments due upon a legal claim that was filed while it was recognized.

(7) School district claims filed under this Section are subject to Sections 18-9 and 18-12 of this Code, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(8) Each fiscal year, the State Superintendent shall calculate for each Organizational Unit an amount of its Base Funding Minimum and Evidence-Based Funding that shall be deemed attributable to the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, in a manner that ensures compliance with maintenance of State financial support requirements under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. An Organizational Unit must use such funds only for the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, and must comply with any expenditure verification procedures adopted by the State Board.

(9) All Organizational Units in this State must submit annual spending plans by the end of September of each year to the State Board as part of the annual budget process, which shall describe how each Organizational Unit will utilize the Base Funding Minimum and Evidence-Based Funding it receives from this State under this Section with specific identification of the intended utilization of Low-Income, English learner, and special education resources. Additionally, the annual spending plans of each Organizational Unit shall describe how the Organizational Unit expects to achieve student growth and how the Organizational Unit will achieve State education goals, as defined by the State Board. The State Superintendent may, from time to time, identify additional requisites for Organizational Units to satisfy when compiling the annual spending plans required under this subsection (h). The format and scope of annual spending plans shall be developed by the State Superintendent and the State Board of Education. School districts that serve students under Article 14C of this Code shall continue to submit information as required under Section 14C-12 of this Code.

(10) No later than January 1, 2018, the State Superintendent shall develop a 5-year strategic plan for all Organizational Units to help in planning for adequacy funding under this Section. The State Superintendent shall submit the plan to the Governor and the General Assembly, as provided in Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act. The plan shall include recommendations for:

(A) a framework for collaborative, professional, innovative, and 21st century learning environments using the Evidence-Based Funding model;

(B) ways to prepare and support this State's educators for successful instructional careers;

(C) application and enhancement of the current financial accountability measures, the approved State plan to comply with the federal Every Student Succeeds Act, and the Illinois Balanced Accountability Measures in relation to student growth and elements of the Evidence-Based Funding model; and

(D) implementation of an effective school adequacy funding system based on projected and recommended funding levels from the General Assembly.

(11) On an annual basis, the State Superintendent must recalibrate all of the following per pupil elements of the Adequacy Target and applied to the formulas, based on the study of average expenses and as reported in the most recent annual financial report:

(A) Gifted under subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(B) Instructional materials under subparagraph (O) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(C) Assessment under subparagraph (P) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(D) Student activities under subparagraph (R) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(E) Maintenance and operations under subparagraph (S) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(F) Central office under subparagraph (T) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(i) Professional Review Panel.

(1) A Professional Review Panel is created to study and review topics related to the implementation and effect of Evidence-Based Funding, as assigned by a joint resolution or Public Act of the General Assembly or a motion passed by the State Board of Education. The Panel must provide recommendations to and serve the Governor, the General Assembly, and the State Board. The State Superintendent or his or her designee must serve as a voting member and chairperson of the Panel. The State Superintendent must appoint a vice chairperson from the membership of the Panel. The Panel must advance recommendations based on a three-fifths majority vote of Panel members present and voting. A minority opinion may also accompany any recommendation of the Panel. The Panel shall be appointed by the State Superintendent, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (i) and include the following members:

(A) Two appointees that represent district superintendents, recommended by a statewide organization that represents district superintendents.

(B) Two appointees that represent school boards, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school boards.

(C) Two appointees from districts that represent school business officials, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school business officials.

(D) Two appointees that represent school principals, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school principals.

(E) Two appointees that represent teachers, recommended by a statewide organization that represents teachers.

(F) Two appointees that represent teachers, recommended by another statewide organization that represents teachers.

(G) Two appointees that represent regional superintendents of schools, recommended by organizations that represent regional superintendents.

(H) Two independent experts selected solely by the State Superintendent.

(I) Two independent experts recommended by public universities in this State.

(J) One member recommended by a statewide organization that represents parents.

(K) Two representatives recommended by collective impact organizations that represent major metropolitan areas or geographic areas in Illinois.

(L) One member from a statewide organization focused on research-based education policy to support a school system that prepares all students for college, a career, and democratic citizenship.

(M) One representative from a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code.

The State Superintendent shall ensure that the membership of the Panel includes representatives from school districts and communities reflecting the geographic, socio-economic, racial, and ethnic diversity of this State. The State Superintendent shall additionally ensure that the membership of the Panel includes representatives with expertise in bilingual education and special education. Staff from the State Board shall staff the Panel.

(2) In addition to those Panel members appointed by the State Superintendent, 4 members of the General Assembly shall be appointed as follows: one member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, one member of the Senate appointed by the President of the Senate, one member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and one member of the Senate appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate. There shall be one additional member appointed by the Governor. All members appointed by legislative leaders or the Governor shall be non-voting, ex officio members.

(3) The Panel must study topics at the direction of the General Assembly or State Board of Education, as provided under paragraph (1). The Panel may also study the following topics at the direction of the chairperson:

(A) The format and scope of annual spending plans referenced in paragraph (9) of subsection (h) of this Section.

(B) The Comparable Wage Index under this Section.

(C) Maintenance and operations, including capital maintenance and construction costs.

(D) "At-risk student" definition.

(E) Benefits.

(F) Technology.

(G) Local Capacity Target.

(H) Funding for Alternative Schools, Laboratory Schools, safe schools, and alternative learning opportunities programs.

(I) Funding for college and career acceleration strategies.

(J) Special education investments.

(K) Early childhood investments, in collaboration with the Illinois Early Learning Council.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Within 5 years after the implementation of this Section, and every 5 years thereafter, the Panel shall complete an evaluative study of the entire Evidence-Based Funding model, including an assessment of whether or not the formula is achieving State goals. The Panel shall report to the State Board, the General Assembly, and the Governor on the findings of the study.

(6) (Blank).

(7) To ensure that (i) the Adequacy Target calculation under subsection (b) accurately reflects the needs of students living in poverty or attending schools located in areas of high poverty, (ii) racial equity within the Evidence-Based Funding formula is explicitly explored and advanced, and (iii) the funding goals of the formula distribution system established under this Section are sufficient to provide adequate funding for every student and to fully fund every school in this State, the Panel shall review the Essential Elements under paragraph (2) of subsection (b). The Panel shall consider all of the following in its review:

(A) The financial ability of school districts to provide instruction in a foreign language to every student and whether an additional Essential Element should be added to the formula to ensure that every student has access to instruction in a foreign language.

(B) The adult-to-student ratio for each Essential Element in which a ratio is identified. The Panel shall consider whether the ratio accurately reflects the staffing needed to support students living in poverty or who have traumatic backgrounds.

(C) Changes to the Essential Elements that may be required to better promote racial equity and eliminate structural racism within schools.

(D) The impact of investing $350,000,000 in additional funds each year under this Section and an estimate of when the school system will become fully funded under this level of appropriation.

(E) Provide an overview of alternative funding structures that would enable the State to become fully funded at an earlier date.

(F) The potential to increase efficiency and to find cost savings within the school system to expedite the journey to a fully funded system.

(G) The appropriate levels for reenrolling and graduating high-risk high school students who have been previously out of school. These outcomes shall include enrollment, attendance, skill gains, credit gains, graduation or promotion to the next grade level, and the transition to college, training, or employment, with an emphasis on progressively increasing the overall attendance.

(H) The evidence-based or research-based practices that are shown to reduce the gaps and disparities experienced by African American students in academic achievement and educational performance, including practices that have been shown to reduce disparities in disciplinary rates, drop-out rates, graduation rates, college matriculation rates, and college completion rates.

On or before December 31, 2021, the Panel shall report to the State Board, the General Assembly, and the Governor on the findings of its review. This paragraph (7) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2022.

(j) References. Beginning July 1, 2017, references in other laws to general State aid funds or calculations under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) shall be deemed to be references to evidence-based model formula funds or calculations under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-17, eff. 6-14-19; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-33, eff. 6-25-21; 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-782, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; revised 12-13-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-20)

Sec. 21B-20. Types of licenses. The State Board of Education shall implement a system of educator licensure, whereby individuals employed in school districts who are required to be licensed must have one of the following licenses: (i) a professional educator license; (ii) an educator license with stipulations; (iii) a substitute teaching license; or (iv) until June 30, 2023, a short-term substitute teaching license. References in law regarding individuals certified or certificated or required to be certified or certificated under Article 21 of this Code shall also include individuals licensed or required to be licensed under this Article. The first year of all licenses ends on June 30 following one full year of the license being issued.

The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may adopt such rules as may be necessary to govern the requirements for licenses and endorsements under this Section.

(1) Professional Educator License. Persons who (i) have successfully completed an approved educator preparation program and are recommended for licensure by the Illinois institution offering the educator preparation program, (ii) have successfully completed the required testing under Section 21B-30 of this Code, (iii) have successfully completed coursework on the psychology of, the identification of, and the methods of instruction for the exceptional child, including without limitation children with learning disabilities, (iv) have successfully completed coursework in methods of reading and reading in the content area, and (v) have met all other criteria established by rule of the State Board of Education shall be issued a Professional Educator License. All Professional Educator Licenses are valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the license being issued. The Professional Educator License shall be endorsed with specific areas and grade levels in which the individual is eligible to practice. For an early childhood education endorsement, an individual may satisfy the student teaching requirement of his or her early childhood teacher preparation program through placement in a setting with children from birth through grade 2, and the individual may be paid and receive credit while student teaching. The student teaching experience must meet the requirements of and be approved by the individual's early childhood teacher preparation program.

Individuals can receive subsequent endorsements on the Professional Educator License. Subsequent endorsements shall require a minimum of 24 semester hours of coursework in the endorsement area and passage of the applicable content area test, unless otherwise specified by rule.

(2) Educator License with Stipulations. An Educator License with Stipulations shall be issued an endorsement that limits the license holder to one particular position or does not require completion of an approved educator program or both.

An individual with an Educator License with Stipulations must not be employed by a school district or any other entity to replace any presently employed teacher who otherwise would not be replaced for any reason.

An Educator License with Stipulations may be issued with the following endorsements:

(A) (Blank).

(B) Alternative provisional educator. An alternative provisional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Successfully completed the first phase of the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers, as described in Section 21B-50 of this Code.

(iii) Passed a content area test, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The alternative provisional educator endorsement is valid for 2 years of teaching and may be renewed for a third year by an individual meeting the requirements set forth in Section 21B-50 of this Code.

(C) Alternative provisional superintendent. An alternative provisional superintendent endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations entitles the holder to serve only as a superintendent or assistant superintendent in a school district's central office. This endorsement may only be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a master's degree in a management field other than education.

(ii) Been employed for a period of at least 5 years in a management level position in a field other than education.

(iii) Successfully completed the first phase of an alternative route to superintendent endorsement program, as provided in Section 21B-55 of this Code.

(iv) Passed a content area test required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The endorsement is valid for 2 fiscal years in order to complete one full year of serving as a superintendent or assistant superintendent.

(D) (Blank).

(E) Career and technical educator. A career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who has a minimum of 60 semester hours of coursework from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or an accredited trade and technical institution and has a minimum of 2,000 hours of experience outside of education in each area to be taught.

The career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed.

An individual who holds a valid career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations but does not hold a bachelor's degree may substitute teach in career and technical education classrooms.

(F) (Blank).

(G) Transitional bilingual educator. A transitional bilingual educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued for the purpose of providing instruction in accordance with Article 14C of this Code to an applicant who provides satisfactory evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Possesses adequate speaking, reading, and writing ability in the language other than English in which transitional bilingual education is offered.

(ii) Has the ability to successfully communicate in English.

(iii) Either possessed, within 5 years previous to his or her applying for a transitional bilingual educator endorsement, a valid and comparable teaching certificate or comparable authorization issued by a foreign country or holds a degree from an institution of higher learning in a foreign country that the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board determines to be the equivalent of a bachelor's degree from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning in the United States.

A transitional bilingual educator endorsement shall be valid for prekindergarten through grade 12, is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued, and shall not be renewed.

Persons holding a transitional bilingual educator endorsement shall not be employed to replace any presently employed teacher who otherwise would not be replaced for any reason.

(H) Language endorsement. In an effort to alleviate the shortage of teachers speaking a language other than English in the public schools, an individual who holds an Educator License with Stipulations may also apply for a language endorsement, provided that the applicant provides satisfactory evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds a transitional bilingual endorsement.

(ii) Has demonstrated proficiency in the language for which the endorsement is to be issued by passing the applicable language content test required by the State Board of Education.

(iii) Holds a bachelor's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or, for individuals educated in a country other than the United States, holds a degree from an institution of higher learning in a foreign country that the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board determines to be the equivalent of a bachelor's degree from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning in the United States.

(iv) (Blank).

A language endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for prekindergarten through grade 12 for the same validity period as the individual's transitional bilingual educator endorsement on the Educator License with Stipulations and shall not be renewed.

(I) Visiting international educator. A visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an individual who is being recruited by a particular school district that conducts formal recruitment programs outside of the United States to secure the services of qualified teachers and who meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree issued in the United States.

(ii) Has been prepared as a teacher at the grade level for which he or she will be employed.

(iii) Has adequate content knowledge in the subject to be taught.

(iv) Has an adequate command of the English language.

A holder of a visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations shall be permitted to teach in bilingual education programs in the language that was the medium of instruction in his or her teacher preparation program, provided that he or she passes the English Language Proficiency Examination or another test of writing skills in English identified by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

A visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for 5 years and shall not be renewed.

(J) Paraprofessional educator. A paraprofessional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who holds a high school diploma or its recognized equivalent and (i) holds an associate's degree or a minimum of 60 semester hours of credit from a regionally accredited institution of higher education; (ii) has passed a paraprofessional competency test under subsection (c-5) of Section 21B-30; or (iii) is at least 18 years of age and will be using the Educator License with Stipulations exclusively for grades prekindergarten through grade 8, until the individual reaches the age of 19 years and otherwise meets the criteria for a paraprofessional educator endorsement pursuant to this subparagraph (J). The paraprofessional educator endorsement is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed through application and payment of the appropriate fee, as required under Section 21B-40 of this Code. An individual who holds only a paraprofessional educator endorsement is not subject to additional requirements in order to renew the endorsement.

(K) Chief school business official. A chief school business official endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who qualifies by having a master's degree or higher, 2 years of full-time administrative experience in school business management or 2 years of university-approved practical experience, and a minimum of 24 semester hours of graduate credit in a program approved by the State Board of Education for the preparation of school business administrators and by passage of the applicable State tests, including an applicable content area test.

The chief school business official endorsement may also be affixed to the Educator License with Stipulations of any holder who qualifies by having a master's degree in business administration, finance, accounting, or public administration and who completes an additional 6 semester hours of internship in school business management from a regionally accredited institution of higher education and passes the applicable State tests, including an applicable content area test. This endorsement shall be required for any individual employed as a chief school business official.

The chief school business official endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed if the license holder completes renewal requirements as required for individuals who hold a Professional Educator License endorsed for chief school business official under Section 21B-45 of this Code and such rules as may be adopted by the State Board of Education.

The State Board of Education shall adopt any rules necessary to implement Public Act 100-288.

(L) Provisional in-state educator. A provisional in-state educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to a candidate who has completed an Illinois-approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution of higher education and who has not successfully completed an evidence-based assessment of teacher effectiveness but who meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds at least a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Has completed an approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution.

(iii) Has passed an applicable content area test, as required by Section 21B-30 of this Code.

(iv) Has attempted an evidence-based assessment of teacher effectiveness and received a minimum score on that assessment, as established by the State Board of Education in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

A provisional in-state educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for one full fiscal year after the date of issuance and may not be renewed.

(M) (Blank).

(N) Specialized services. A specialized services endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued as defined and specified by rule.

(3) Substitute Teaching License. A Substitute Teaching License may be issued to qualified applicants for substitute teaching in all grades of the public schools, prekindergarten through grade 12. Substitute Teaching Licenses are not eligible for endorsements. Applicants for a Substitute Teaching License must hold a bachelor's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or must be enrolled in an approved educator preparation program in this State and have earned at least 90 credit hours.

Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for 5 years.

Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for substitute teaching in every county of this State. If an individual has had his or her Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations suspended or revoked, then that individual is not eligible to obtain a Substitute Teaching License.

A substitute teacher may only teach in the place of a licensed teacher who is under contract with the employing board. If, however, there is no licensed teacher under contract because of an emergency situation, then a district may employ a substitute teacher for no longer than 30 calendar days per each vacant position in the district if the district notifies the appropriate regional office of education within 5 business days after the employment of the substitute teacher in the emergency situation. An emergency situation is one in which an unforeseen vacancy has occurred and (i) a teacher is unable to fulfill his or her contractual duties or (ii) teacher capacity needs of the district exceed previous indications, and the district is actively engaged in advertising to hire a fully licensed teacher for the vacant position.

There is no limit on the number of days that a substitute teacher may teach in a single school district, provided that no substitute teacher may teach for longer than 120 days beginning with the 2021-2022 school year through the 2022-2023 school year, otherwise 90 school days for any one licensed teacher under contract in the same school year. A substitute teacher who holds a Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations shall not teach for more than 120 school days for any one licensed teacher under contract in the same school year. The limitations in this paragraph (3) on the number of days a substitute teacher may be employed do not apply to any school district operating under Article 34 of this Code.

A school district may not require an individual who holds a valid Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations to seek or hold a Substitute Teaching License to teach as a substitute teacher.

(4) Short-Term Substitute Teaching License. Beginning on July 1, 2018 and until June 30, 2023, the State Board of Education may issue a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License. A Short-Term Substitute Teaching License may be issued to a qualified applicant for substitute teaching in all grades of the public schools, prekindergarten through grade 12. Short-Term Substitute Teaching Licenses are not eligible for endorsements. Applicants for a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License must hold an associate's degree or have completed at least 60 credit hours from a regionally accredited institution of higher education.

Short-Term Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for substitute teaching in every county of this State. If an individual has had his or her Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations suspended or revoked, then that individual is not eligible to obtain a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License.

The provisions of Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code apply to short-term substitute teachers.

An individual holding a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License may teach no more than 15 consecutive days per licensed teacher who is under contract. For teacher absences lasting 6 or more days per licensed teacher who is under contract, a school district may not hire an individual holding a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License, unless the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act. An individual holding a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License must complete the training program under Section 10-20.67 or 34-18.60 of this Code to be eligible to teach at a public school. This paragraph (4) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-220, eff. 8-7-19; 101-594, eff. 12-5-19; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 102-711, eff. 1-1-23; 102-712, eff. 4-27-22; 102-713, eff. 1-1-23; 102-717, eff. 4-29-22; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; revised 12-13-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-45)

Sec. 21B-45. Professional Educator License renewal.

(a) Individuals holding a Professional Educator License are required to complete the licensure renewal requirements as specified in this Section, unless otherwise provided in this Code.

Individuals holding a Professional Educator License shall meet the renewal requirements set forth in this Section, unless otherwise provided in this Code. If an individual holds a license endorsed in more than one area that has different renewal requirements, that individual shall follow the renewal requirements for the position for which he or she spends the majority of his or her time working.

(b) All Professional Educator Licenses not renewed as provided in this Section shall lapse on September 1 of that year. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, if a license holder's electronic mail address is available, the State Board of Education shall send him or her notification electronically that his or her license will lapse if not renewed, to be sent no more than 6 months prior to the license lapsing. Lapsed licenses may be immediately reinstated upon (i) payment to the State Board of Education by the applicant of a $50 penalty or (ii) the demonstration of proficiency by completing 9 semester hours of coursework from a regionally accredited institution of higher education in the content area that most aligns with one or more of the educator's endorsement areas. Any and all back fees, including without limitation registration fees owed from the time of expiration of the license until the date of reinstatement, shall be paid and kept in accordance with the provisions in Article 3 of this Code concerning an institute fund and the provisions in Article 21B of this Code concerning fees and requirements for registration. Licenses not registered in accordance with Section 21B-40 of this Code shall lapse after a period of 6 months from the expiration of the last year of registration or on January 1 of the fiscal year following initial issuance of the license. An unregistered license is invalid after September 1 for employment and performance of services in an Illinois public or State-operated school or cooperative and in a charter school. Any license or endorsement may be voluntarily surrendered by the license holder. A voluntarily surrendered license shall be treated as a revoked license. An Educator License with Stipulations with only a paraprofessional endorsement does not lapse.

(c) From July 1, 2013 through June 30, 2014, in order to satisfy the requirements for licensure renewal provided for in this Section, each professional educator licensee with an administrative endorsement who is working in a position requiring such endorsement shall complete one Illinois Administrators' Academy course, as described in Article 2 of this Code, per fiscal year.

(c-5) All licenses issued by the State Board of Education under this Article that expire on June 30, 2020 and have not been renewed by the end of the 2020 renewal period shall be extended for one year and shall expire on June 30, 2021.

(d) Beginning July 1, 2014, in order to satisfy the requirements for licensure renewal provided for in this Section, each professional educator licensee may create a professional development plan each year. The plan shall address one or more of the endorsements that are required of his or her educator position if the licensee is employed and performing services in an Illinois public or State-operated school or cooperative. If the licensee is employed in a charter school, the plan shall address that endorsement or those endorsements most closely related to his or her educator position. Licensees employed and performing services in any other Illinois schools may participate in the renewal requirements by adhering to the same process.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the licensee's professional development activities shall align with one or more of the following criteria:

(1) activities are of a type that engages engage participants over a sustained period of time allowing for analysis, discovery, and application as they relate to student learning, social or emotional achievement, or well-being;

(2) professional development aligns to the licensee's performance;

(3) outcomes for the activities must relate to student growth or district improvement;

(4) activities align to State-approved standards; and

(5) higher education coursework.

(e) For each renewal cycle, each professional educator licensee shall engage in professional development activities. Prior to renewal, the licensee shall enter electronically into the Educator Licensure Information System (ELIS) the name, date, and location of the activity, the number of professional development hours, and the provider's name. The following provisions shall apply concerning professional development activities:

(1) Each licensee shall complete a total of 120 hours of professional development per 5-year renewal cycle in order to renew the license, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(2) Beginning with his or her first full 5-year cycle, any licensee with an administrative endorsement who is not working in a position requiring such endorsement is not required to complete Illinois Administrators' Academy courses, as described in Article 2 of this Code. Such licensees must complete one Illinois Administrators' Academy course within one year after returning to a position that requires the administrative endorsement.

(3) Any licensee with an administrative endorsement who is working in a position requiring such endorsement or an individual with a Teacher Leader endorsement serving in an administrative capacity at least 50% of the day shall complete one Illinois Administrators' Academy course, as described in Article 2 of this Code, each fiscal year in addition to 100 hours of professional development per 5-year renewal cycle in accordance with this Code. However, for the 2021-2022 school year only, a licensee under this paragraph (3) is not required to complete an Illinois Administrators' Academy course.

(4) Any licensee holding a current National Board for Professional Teaching Standards (NBPTS) master teacher designation shall complete a total of 60 hours of professional development per 5-year renewal cycle in order to renew the license.

(5) Licensees working in a position that does not require educator licensure or working in a position for less than 50% for any particular year are considered to be exempt and shall be required to pay only the registration fee in order to renew and maintain the validity of the license.

(6) Licensees who are retired and qualify for benefits from a State of Illinois retirement system shall be listed as retired, and the license shall be maintained in retired status. For any renewal cycle in which a licensee retires during the renewal cycle, the licensee must complete professional development activities on a prorated basis depending on the number of years during the renewal cycle the educator held an active license. If a licensee retires during a renewal cycle, the license status must be updated using ELIS indicating that the licensee wishes to maintain the license in retired status and the licensee must show proof of completion of professional development activities on a prorated basis for all years of that renewal cycle for which the license was active. An individual with a license in retired status shall not be required to complete professional development activities until returning to a position that requires educator licensure. Upon returning to work in a position that requires the Professional Educator License, the license status shall immediately be updated using ELIS and the licensee shall complete renewal requirements for that year. A retired teacher, even if returning to a position that requires educator licensure, shall not be required to pay registration fees. A license in retired status cannot lapse. Beginning on January 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-920) through December 31, 2017, any licensee who has retired and whose license has lapsed for failure to renew as provided in this Section may reinstate that license and maintain it in retired status upon providing proof to the State Board of Education using ELIS that the licensee is retired and is not working in a position that requires a Professional Educator License.

(7) For any renewal cycle in which professional development hours were required, but not fulfilled, the licensee shall complete any missed hours to total the minimum professional development hours required in this Section prior to September 1 of that year. Professional development hours used to fulfill the minimum required hours for a renewal cycle may be used for only one renewal cycle. For any fiscal year or renewal cycle in which an Illinois Administrators' Academy course was required but not completed, the licensee shall complete any missed Illinois Administrators' Academy courses prior to September 1 of that year. The licensee may complete all deficient hours and Illinois Administrators' Academy courses while continuing to work in a position that requires that license until September 1 of that year.

(8) Any licensee who has not fulfilled the professional development renewal requirements set forth in this Section at the end of any 5-year renewal cycle is ineligible to register his or her license and may submit an appeal to the State Superintendent of Education for reinstatement of the license.

(9) If professional development opportunities were unavailable to a licensee, proof that opportunities were unavailable and request for an extension of time beyond August 31 to complete the renewal requirements may be submitted from April 1 through June 30 of that year to the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. If an extension is approved, the license shall remain valid during the extension period.

(10) Individuals who hold exempt licenses prior to December 27, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-610) shall commence the annual renewal process with the first scheduled registration due after December 27, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-610).

(11) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (e), if a licensee earns more than the required number of professional development hours during a renewal cycle, then the licensee may carry over any hours earned from April 1 through June 30 of the last year of the renewal cycle. Any hours carried over in this manner must be applied to the next renewal cycle. Illinois Administrators' Academy courses or hours earned in those courses may not be carried over.

(e-5) The number of professional development hours required under subsection (e) is reduced by 20% for any renewal cycle that includes the 2021-2022 school year.

(f) At the time of renewal, each licensee shall respond to the required questions under penalty of perjury.

(f-5) The State Board of Education shall conduct random audits of licensees to verify a licensee's fulfillment of the professional development hours required under this Section. Upon completion of a random audit, if it is determined by the State Board of Education that the licensee did not complete the required number of professional development hours or did not provide sufficient proof of completion, the licensee shall be notified that his or her license has lapsed. A license that has lapsed under this subsection may be reinstated as provided in subsection (b).

(g) The following entities shall be designated as approved to provide professional development activities for the renewal of Professional Educator Licenses:

(1) The State Board of Education.

(2) Regional offices of education and intermediate service centers.

(3) Illinois professional associations representing the following groups that are approved by the State Superintendent of Education:

(A) school administrators;

(B) principals;

(C) school business officials;

(D) teachers, including special education teachers;

(E) school boards;

(F) school districts;

(G) parents; and

(H) school service personnel.

(4) Regionally accredited institutions of higher education that offer Illinois-approved educator preparation programs and public community colleges subject to the Public Community College Act.

(5) Illinois public school districts, charter schools authorized under Article 27A of this Code, and joint educational programs authorized under Article 10 of this Code for the purposes of providing career and technical education or special education services.

(6) A not-for-profit organization that, as of December 31, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1147), has had or has a grant from or a contract with the State Board of Education to provide professional development services in the area of English Learning to Illinois school districts, teachers, or administrators.

(7) State agencies, State boards, and State commissions.

(8) Museums as defined in Section 10 of the Museum Disposition of Property Act.

(h) Approved providers under subsection (g) of this Section shall make available professional development opportunities that satisfy at least one of the following:

(1) increase the knowledge and skills of school and district leaders who guide continuous professional development;

(2) improve the learning of students;

(3) organize adults into learning communities whose goals are aligned with those of the school and district;

(4) deepen educator's content knowledge;

(5) provide educators with research-based instructional strategies to assist students in meeting rigorous academic standards;

(6) prepare educators to appropriately use various types of classroom assessments;

(7) use learning strategies appropriate to the intended goals;

(8) provide educators with the knowledge and skills to collaborate;

(9) prepare educators to apply research to decision making;

(10) provide educators with training on inclusive practices in the classroom that examines instructional and behavioral strategies that improve academic and social-emotional outcomes for all students, with or without disabilities, in a general education setting; or

(11) beginning on July 1, 2022, provide educators with training on the physical and mental health needs of students, student safety, educator ethics, professional conduct, and other topics that address the well-being of students and improve the academic and social-emotional outcomes of students.

(i) Approved providers under subsection (g) of this Section shall do the following:

(1) align professional development activities to the State-approved national standards for professional learning;

(2) meet the professional development criteria for Illinois licensure renewal;

(3) produce a rationale for the activity that explains how it aligns to State standards and identify the assessment for determining the expected impact on student learning or school improvement;

(4) maintain original documentation for completion of activities;

(5) provide license holders with evidence of completion of activities;

(6) request an Illinois Educator Identification Number (IEIN) for each educator during each professional development activity; and

(7) beginning on July 1, 2019, register annually with the State Board of Education prior to offering any professional development opportunities in the current fiscal year.

(j) The State Board of Education shall conduct annual audits of a subset of approved providers, except for school districts, which shall be audited by regional offices of education and intermediate service centers. The State Board of Education shall ensure that each approved provider, except for a school district, is audited at least once every 5 years. The State Board of Education may conduct more frequent audits of providers if evidence suggests the requirements of this Section or administrative rules are not being met.

(1) (Blank).

(2) Approved providers shall comply with the requirements in subsections (h) and (i) of this Section by annually submitting data to the State Board of Education demonstrating how the professional development activities impacted one or more of the following:

(A) educator and student growth in regards to content knowledge or skills, or both;

(B) educator and student social and emotional growth; or

(C) alignment to district or school improvement plans.

(3) The State Superintendent of Education shall review the annual data collected by the State Board of Education, regional offices of education, and intermediate service centers in audits to determine if the approved provider has met the criteria and should continue to be an approved provider or if further action should be taken as provided in rules.

(k) Registration fees shall be paid for the next renewal cycle between April 1 and June 30 in the last year of each 5-year renewal cycle using ELIS. If all required professional development hours for the renewal cycle have been completed and entered by the licensee, the licensee shall pay the registration fees for the next cycle using a form of credit or debit card.

(l) Any professional educator licensee endorsed for school support personnel who is employed and performing services in Illinois public schools and who holds an active and current professional license issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or a national certification board, as approved by the State Board of Education, related to the endorsement areas on the Professional Educator License shall be deemed to have satisfied the continuing professional development requirements provided for in this Section. Such individuals shall be required to pay only registration fees to renew the Professional Educator License. An individual who does not hold a license issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall complete professional development requirements for the renewal of a Professional Educator License provided for in this Section.

(m) Appeals to the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board must be made within 30 days after receipt of notice from the State Superintendent of Education that a license will not be renewed based upon failure to complete the requirements of this Section. A licensee may appeal that decision to the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board in a manner prescribed by rule.

(1) Each appeal shall state the reasons why the State Superintendent's decision should be reversed and shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the State Board of Education.

(2) The State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board shall review each appeal regarding renewal of a license within 90 days after receiving the appeal in order to determine whether the licensee has met the requirements of this Section. The State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board may hold an appeal hearing or may make its determination based upon the record of review, which shall consist of the following:

(A) the regional superintendent of education's rationale for recommending nonrenewal of the license, if applicable;

(B) any evidence submitted to the State Superintendent along with the individual's electronic statement of assurance for renewal; and

(C) the State Superintendent's rationale for nonrenewal of the license.

(3) The State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board shall notify the licensee of its decision regarding license renewal by certified mail, return receipt requested, no later than 30 days after reaching a decision. Upon receipt of notification of renewal, the licensee, using ELIS, shall pay the applicable registration fee for the next cycle using a form of credit or debit card.

(n) The State Board of Education may adopt rules as may be necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-85, eff. 1-1-20; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; 102-710, eff. 4-27-22; 102-730, eff. 5-6-22; 102-852, eff. 5-13-22; revised 8-25-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-6)

Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school districts, including special charter districts, but not including school districts in municipalities of 500,000 or more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall grant such of their other employees as are eligible to participate in the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the "600-Hour Standard" established, or under such other eligibility participation standard as may from time to time be established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick leave provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in each school year. If any such teacher or employee does not use the full amount of annual leave thus allowed, the unused amount shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum available leave of 180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current year. Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness, mental or behavioral health complications, quarantine at home, or serious illness or death in the immediate family or household. The school board may require a certificate from a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a mental health professional licensed in Illinois providing ongoing care or treatment to the teacher or employee, a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, or, if the treatment is by prayer or spiritual means, a spiritual adviser or practitioner of the teacher's or employee's faith as a basis for pay during leave after an absence of 3 days for personal illness or as the school board may deem necessary in other cases. If the school board does require a certificate as a basis for pay during leave of less than 3 days for personal illness, the school board shall pay, from school funds, the expenses incurred by the teachers or other employees in obtaining the certificate.

Sick leave shall also be interpreted to mean birth, adoption, placement for adoption, and the acceptance of a child in need of foster care. Teachers and other employees to which this Section applies are entitled to use up to 30 days of paid sick leave because of the birth of a child that is not dependent on the need to recover from childbirth. Paid sick leave because of the birth of a child may be used absent medical certification for up to 30 working school days, which days may be used at any time within the 12-month period following the birth of the child. The use of up to 30 working school days of paid sick leave because of the birth of a child may not be diminished as a result of any intervening period of nonworking days or school not being in session, such as for summer, winter, or spring break or holidays, that may occur during the use of the paid sick leave. For paid sick leave for adoption, placement for adoption, or the acceptance of a child in need of foster care, the school board may require that the teacher or other employee to which this Section applies provide evidence that the formal adoption process or the formal foster care process is underway, and such sick leave is limited to 30 days unless a longer leave has been negotiated with the exclusive bargaining representative. Paid sick leave for adoption, placement for adoption, or the acceptance of a child in need of foster care need not be used consecutively once the formal adoption process or the formal foster care process is underway, and such sick leave may be used for reasons related to the formal adoption process or the formal foster care process prior to taking custody of the child or accepting the child in need of foster care, in addition to using such sick leave upon taking custody of the child or accepting the child in need of foster care.

If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school districts, or by reason of the creation of a new school district, the employment of a teacher is transferred to a new or different board, the accumulated sick leave of such teacher is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new or different district.

Any sick leave used by a teacher or employee during the 2021-2022 school year shall be returned to a teacher or employee who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 10-20.83 of this Code, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the teacher or employee was restricted from being on school district property because the teacher or employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the teacher or employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

For purposes of return of sick leave used in the 2021-2022 school year pursuant this Section, an "employee" is a teacher or employee employed by the school district on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Leave shall be returned to a teacher or employee pursuant to this Section provided that the teacher or employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 10-20.83 of this Code no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

No school may rescind any sick leave returned to a teacher or employee on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the teacher or employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 10-20.83 of this Code, at the time the sick leave was returned to the teacher or employee.

For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall include parents, spouse, brothers, sisters, children, grandparents, grandchildren, parents-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.

(Source: P.A. 102-275, eff. 8-6-21; 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; 102-866, eff. 5-13-22; revised 8-25-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/26-2) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-2)

Sec. 26-2. Enrolled pupils not of compulsory school age.

(a) Any person having custody or control of a child who is below the age of 6 years or is 17 years of age or above and who is enrolled in any of grades kindergarten through 12 in the public school shall cause the child to attend the public school in the district wherein he or she resides when it is in session during the regular school term, unless the child is excused under Section 26-1 of this Code.

(b) A school district shall deny reenrollment in its secondary schools to any child 19 years of age or above who has dropped out of school and who could not, because of age and lack of credits, attend classes during the normal school year and graduate before his or her twenty-first birthday. A district may, however, enroll the child in a graduation incentives program under Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program established under Article 13B. No child shall be denied reenrollment for the above reasons unless the school district first offers the child due process as required in cases of expulsion under Section 10-22.6. If a child is denied reenrollment after being provided with due process, the school district must provide counseling to that child and must direct that child to alternative educational programs, including adult education programs, that lead to graduation or receipt of a State of Illinois High School Diploma.

(c) A school or school district may deny enrollment to a student 17 years of age or older for one semester for failure to meet minimum attendance standards if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The student was absent without valid cause for 20% or more of the attendance days in the semester immediately prior to the current semester.

(2) The student and the student's parent or guardian are given written notice warning that the student is subject to denial from enrollment for one semester unless the student is absent without valid cause less than 20% of the attendance days in the current semester.

(3) The student's parent or guardian is provided with the right to appeal the notice, as determined by the State Board of Education in accordance with due process.

(4) The student is provided with attendance remediation services, including without limitation assessment, counseling, and support services.

(5) The student is absent without valid cause for 20% or more of the attendance days in the current semester.

A school or school district may not deny enrollment to a student (or reenrollment to a dropout) who is at least 17 years of age or older but below 19 years for more than one consecutive semester for failure to meet attendance standards.

(d) No child may be denied reenrollment under this Section in violation of the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act or the Americans with Disabilities Act.

(e) In this subsection (e), "reenrolled student" means a dropout who has reenrolled full-time in a public school. Each school district shall identify, track, and report on the educational progress and outcomes of reenrolled students as a subset of the district's required reporting on all enrollments. A reenrolled student who again drops out must not be counted again against a district's dropout rate performance measure. The State Board of Education shall set performance standards for programs serving reenrolled students.

(f) The State Board of Education shall adopt any rules necessary to implement the changes to this Section made by Public Act 93-803.

(Source: P.A. 102-981, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1100, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-13-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-22) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-22)

Sec. 27-22. Required high school courses.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) Through the 2023-2024 school year, as a prerequisite to receiving a high school diploma, each pupil entering the 9th grade must, in addition to other course requirements, successfully complete all of the following courses:

(1) Four years of language arts.

(2) Two years of writing intensive courses, one of which must be English and the other of which may be English or any other subject. When applicable, writing-intensive courses may be counted towards the fulfillment of other graduation requirements.

(3) Three years of mathematics, one of which must be Algebra I, one of which must include geometry content, and one of which may be an Advanced Placement computer science course. A mathematics course that includes geometry content may be offered as an integrated, applied, interdisciplinary, or career and technical education course that prepares a student for a career readiness path.

(3.5) For pupils entering the 9th grade in the 2022-2023 school year and 2023-2024 school year, one year of a course that includes intensive instruction in computer literacy, which may be English, social studies, or any other subject and which may be counted toward the fulfillment of other graduation requirements.

(4) Two years of science.

(5) Two years of social studies, of which at least one year must be history of the United States or a combination of history of the United States and American government and, beginning with pupils entering the 9th grade in the 2016-2017 school year and each school year thereafter, at least one semester must be civics, which shall help young people acquire and learn to use the skills, knowledge, and attitudes that will prepare them to be competent and responsible citizens throughout their lives. Civics course content shall focus on government institutions, the discussion of current and controversial issues, service learning, and simulations of the democratic process. School districts may utilize private funding available for the purposes of offering civics education. Beginning with pupils entering the 9th grade in the 2021-2022 school year, one semester, or part of one semester, may include a financial literacy course.

(6) One year chosen from (A) music, (B) art, (C) foreign language, which shall be deemed to include American Sign Language, (D) vocational education, or (E) forensic speech (speech and debate). A forensic speech course used to satisfy the course requirement under subdivision (1) may not be used to satisfy the course requirement under this subdivision (6).

(e-5) Beginning with the 2024-2025 school year, as a prerequisite to receiving a high school diploma, each pupil entering the 9th grade must, in addition to other course requirements, successfully complete all of the following courses:

(1) Four years of language arts.

(2) Two years of writing intensive courses, one of which must be English and the other of which may be English or any other subject. If applicable, writing-intensive courses may be counted toward the fulfillment of other graduation requirements.

(3) Three years of mathematics, one of which must be Algebra I, one of which must include geometry content, and one of which may be an Advanced Placement computer science course. A mathematics course that includes geometry content may be offered as an integrated, applied, interdisciplinary, or career and technical education course that prepares a student for a career readiness path.

(3.5) One year of a course that includes intensive instruction in computer literacy, which may be English, social studies, or any other subject and which may be counted toward the fulfillment of other graduation requirements.

(4) Two years of laboratory science.

(5) Two years of social studies, of which at least one year must be history of the United States or a combination of history of the United States and American government and at least one semester must be civics, which shall help young people acquire and learn to use the skills, knowledge, and attitudes that will prepare them to be competent and responsible citizens throughout their lives. Civics course content shall focus on government institutions, the discussion of current and controversial issues, service learning, and simulations of the democratic process. School districts may utilize private funding available for the purposes of offering civics education. One semester, or part of one semester, may include a financial literacy course.

(6) One year chosen from (A) music, (B) art, (C) foreign language, which shall be deemed to include American Sign Language, (D) vocational education, or (E) forensic speech (speech and debate). A forensic speech course used to satisfy the course requirement under subdivision (1) may not be used to satisfy the course requirement under this subdivision (6).

(e-10) Beginning with the 2028-2029 school year, as a prerequisite to receiving a high school diploma, each pupil entering the 9th grade must, in addition to other course requirements, successfully complete 2 years of foreign language courses, which may include American Sign Language. A pupil may choose a third year of foreign language to satisfy the requirement under subdivision paragraph (6) of subsection (e-5).

(f) The State Board of Education shall develop and inform school districts of standards for writing-intensive coursework.

(f-5) If a school district offers an Advanced Placement computer science course to high school students, then the school board must designate that course as equivalent to a high school mathematics course and must denote on the student's transcript that the Advanced Placement computer science course qualifies as a mathematics-based, quantitative course for students in accordance with subdivision (3) of subsection (e) of this Section.

(g) Public Act 83-1082 This amendatory Act of 1983 does not apply to pupils entering the 9th grade in 1983-1984 school year and prior school years or to students with disabilities whose course of study is determined by an individualized education program.

Public Act 94-676 This amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly does not apply to pupils entering the 9th grade in the 2004-2005 school year or a prior school year or to students with disabilities whose course of study is determined by an individualized education program.

Subdivision (3.5) of subsection (e) does not apply to pupils entering the 9th grade in the 2021-2022 school year or a prior school year or to students with disabilities whose course of study is determined by an individualized education program.

Subsection (e-5) does not apply to pupils entering the 9th grade in the 2023-2024 school year or a prior school year or to students with disabilities whose course of study is determined by an individualized education program. Subsection (e-10) does not apply to pupils entering the 9th grade in the 2027-2028 school year or a prior school year or to students with disabilities whose course of study is determined by an individualized education program.

(h) The provisions of this Section are subject to the provisions of Section 27-22.05 of this Code and the Postsecondary and Workforce Readiness Act.

(i) The State Board of Education may adopt rules to modify the requirements of this Section for any students enrolled in grades 9 through 12 if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-464, eff. 1-1-20; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 101-654, Article 50, Section 50-5, eff. 3-8-21; 101-654, Article 60, Section 60-5, eff. 3-8-21; 102-366, eff. 8-13-21; 102-551, eff. 1-1-22; 102-864, eff. 5-13-22; revised 9-2-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-466 and 102-702)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3), in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-3 do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3).

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291), a charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291) or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board of Education.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. On or before September 1, 2015, the State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Sections 22-90 and 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code;

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code;

(19) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code;

(20) Section 10-22.25b of this Code;

(21) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) Section 27-9.1b of this Code;

(23) Section 34-18.8 of this Code;

(25) Section 2-3.188 of this Code;

(26) Section 22-85.5 of this Code;

(27) subsections Subsections (d-10), (d-15), and (d-20) of Section 10-20.56 of this Code; and

(28) Sections 10-20.83 and 34-18.78 of this Code; .

(29) (27) Section 10-20.13 of this Code;

(30) (28) Section 28-19.2 of this Code; and

(31) (29) Section 34-21.6 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the State Board or Commission, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 101-50, eff. 7-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-291, eff. 1-1-20; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-543, eff. 8-23-19; 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; 102-805, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 12-13-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-702 but before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3), in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-3 do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3).

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291), a charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291) or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board of Education.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. On or before September 1, 2015, the State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Sections 22-90 and 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code;

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code;

(19) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code;

(20) Section 10-22.25b of this Code;

(21) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) Section 27-9.1b of this Code;

(23) Section 34-18.8 of this Code; and

(25) Section 2-3.188 of this Code;

(26) Section 22-85.5 of this Code;

(27) subsections Subsections (d-10), (d-15), and (d-20) of Section 10-20.56 of this Code; and

(28) Sections 10-20.83 and 34-18.78 of this Code; .

(29) (27) Section 10-20.13 of this Code;

(30) (28) Section 28-19.2 of this Code; and

(31) (29) Section 34-21.6 of this Code; and .

(32) (25) Section 22-85.10 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the State Board or Commission, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 101-50, eff. 7-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-291, eff. 1-1-20; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-543, eff. 8-23-19; 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; 102-702, eff. 7-1-23; 102-805, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 12-13-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3), in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-3 do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3).

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291), a charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291) or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board of Education.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. On or before September 1, 2015, the State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Sections 22-90 and 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code;

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code;

(19) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code;

(20) Section 10-22.25b of this Code;

(21) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) Section 27-9.1b of this Code;

(23) Section 34-18.8 of this Code;

(24) Article 26A of this Code; and

(25) Section 2-3.188 of this Code;

(26) Section 22-85.5 of this Code;

(27) subsections Subsections (d-10), (d-15), and (d-20) of Section 10-20.56 of this Code; and

(28) Sections 10-20.83 and 34-18.78 of this Code; .

(29) (27) Section 10-20.13 of this Code;

(30) (28) Section 28-19.2 of this Code; and

(31) (29) Section 34-21.6 of this Code; and .

(32) (25) Section 22-85.10 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the State Board or Commission, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 101-50, eff. 7-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-291, eff. 1-1-20; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-543, eff. 8-23-19; 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; 102-702, eff. 7-1-23; 102-805, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 12-13-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.5) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-18.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-702)

Sec. 34-18.5. Criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) Licensed and nonlicensed applicants for employment with the school district are required as a condition of employment to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any disqualifying, enumerated criminal or drug offense in subsection (c) of this Section or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school district, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one school district, or a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one school district (as a reading specialist, special education teacher or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one district, any such district may require the applicant to furnish authorization for the check to the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which are located the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee. Upon receipt of this authorization, the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent, as the case may be, shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The regional superintendent submitting the requisite information to the Illinois State Police shall promptly notify the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee that the check of the applicant has been requested. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check, or to the regional superintendent who requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent a fee for conducting such check, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such check by the school district or by the regional superintendent. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse the school district and regional superintendent for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

(a-5) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(a-6) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(b) Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the board of education or the regional superintendent shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to the general superintendent of the school district or his designee, the appropriate regional superintendent if the check was requested by the board of education for the school district, the presidents of the appropriate board of education or school boards if the check was requested from the Illinois State Police by the regional superintendent, the State Board of Education and the school district as authorized under subsection (b-5), the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board or any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon the check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the school district or regional superintendent shall notify an applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Database. If a check of an applicant for employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee in more than one school district was requested by the regional superintendent, and the Illinois State Police upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and so notifies the regional superintendent and if the regional superintendent upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been identified in the Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, then the regional superintendent shall issue to the applicant a certificate evidencing that as of the date specified by the Illinois State Police the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and evidencing that as of the date that the regional superintendent conducted a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the applicant has not been identified in the Database. The school board of any school district may rely on the certificate issued by any regional superintendent to that substitute teacher, concurrent part-time teacher, or concurrent educational support personnel employee or may initiate its own criminal history records check of the applicant through the Illinois State Police and its own check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database as provided in this Section. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(b-5) If a criminal history records check or check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database is performed by a regional superintendent for an applicant seeking employment as a substitute teacher with the school district, the regional superintendent may disclose to the State Board of Education whether the applicant has been issued a certificate under subsection (b) based on those checks. If the State Board receives information on an applicant under this subsection, then it must indicate in the Educator Licensure Information System for a 90-day period that the applicant has been issued or has not been issued a certificate.

(c) The board of education shall not knowingly employ a person who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of 21B-80. Further, the board of education shall not knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. As a condition of employment, the board of education must consider the status of a person who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(d) The board of education shall not knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check have not been initiated.

(e) Within 10 days after the general superintendent of schools, a regional office of education, or an entity that provides background checks of license holders to public schools receives information of a pending criminal charge against a license holder for an offense set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code, the superintendent, regional office of education, or entity must notify the State Superintendent of Education of the pending criminal charge.

No later than 15 business days after receipt of a record of conviction or of checking the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database or the Statewide Sex Offender Database and finding a registration, the general superintendent of schools or the applicable regional superintendent shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education of any license holder who has been convicted of a crime set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code. Upon receipt of the record of a conviction of or a finding of child abuse by a holder of any license issued pursuant to Article 21B or Section 34-8.1 of this Code, the State Superintendent of Education may initiate licensure suspension and revocation proceedings as authorized by law. If the receipt of the record of conviction or finding of child abuse is received within 6 months after the initial grant of or renewal of a license, the State Superintendent of Education may rescind the license holder's license.

(e-5) The general superintendent of schools shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education of any license holder whom he or she has reasonable cause to believe has committed an intentional act of abuse or neglect with the result of making a child an abused child or a neglected child, as defined in Section 3 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and that act resulted in the license holder's dismissal or resignation from the school district and must include the Illinois Educator Identification Number (IEIN) of the license holder and a brief description of the misconduct alleged. This notification must be submitted within 30 days after the dismissal or resignation. The license holder must also be contemporaneously sent a copy of the notice by the superintendent. All correspondence, documentation, and other information so received by the State Superintendent of Education, the State Board of Education, or the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board under this subsection (e-5) is confidential and must not be disclosed to third parties, except (i) as necessary for the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee to investigate and prosecute pursuant to Article 21B of this Code, (ii) pursuant to a court order, (iii) for disclosure to the license holder or his or her representative, or (iv) as otherwise provided in this Article and provided that any such information admitted into evidence in a hearing is exempt from this confidentiality and non-disclosure requirement. Except for an act of willful or wanton misconduct, any superintendent who provides notification as required in this subsection (e-5) shall have immunity from any liability, whether civil or criminal or that otherwise might result by reason of such action.

(f) After March 19, 1990, the provisions of this Section shall apply to all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with any school district including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with the pupils of any school in such district. For purposes of criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database on employees of persons or firms holding contracts with more than one school district and assigned to more than one school district, the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which the contracting school districts are located may, at the request of any such school district, be responsible for receiving the authorization for a criminal history records check prepared by each such employee and submitting the same to the Illinois State Police and for conducting a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database for each employee. Any information concerning the record of conviction and identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the regional superintendent shall be promptly reported to the president of the appropriate school board or school boards.

(f-5) Upon request of a school or school district, any information obtained by the school district pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section within the last year must be made available to the requesting school or school district.

(g) Prior to the commencement of any student teaching experience or required internship (which is referred to as student teaching in this Section) in the public schools, a student teacher is required to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check. Authorization for and payment of the costs of the check must be furnished by the student teacher to the school district. Upon receipt of this authorization and payment, the school district shall submit the student teacher's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the board. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district a fee for conducting the check, which fee must not exceed the cost of the inquiry and must be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The school district shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, and of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, for each student teacher. The board may not knowingly allow a person to student teach for whom a criminal history records check, a Statewide Sex Offender Database check, and a Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database check have not been completed and reviewed by the district.

A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police must be provided to the student teacher. Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the board is confidential and may only be transmitted to the general superintendent of schools or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, or, for clarification purposes, the Illinois State Police or the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

The board may not knowingly allow a person to student teach who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of Section 21B-80. Further, the board may not allow a person to student teach if he or she has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of a minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The board must consider the status of a person to student teach who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-72, eff. 7-12-19; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-552, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-702)

Sec. 34-18.5. Criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) Licensed and nonlicensed applicants for employment with the school district are required as a condition of employment to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any disqualifying, enumerated criminal or drug offense in subsection (c) of this Section or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school district, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one school district, or a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one school district (as a reading specialist, special education teacher or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one district, any such district may require the applicant to furnish authorization for the check to the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which are located the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee. Upon receipt of this authorization, the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent, as the case may be, shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The regional superintendent submitting the requisite information to the Illinois State Police shall promptly notify the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee that the check of the applicant has been requested. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check, or to the regional superintendent who requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent a fee for conducting such check, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such check by the school district or by the regional superintendent. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse the school district and regional superintendent for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

(a-5) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(a-6) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(b) Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the board of education or the regional superintendent shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to the general superintendent of the school district or his designee, the appropriate regional superintendent if the check was requested by the board of education for the school district, the presidents of the appropriate board of education or school boards if the check was requested from the Illinois State Police by the regional superintendent, the State Board of Education and the school district as authorized under subsection (b-5), the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board or any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon the check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the school district or regional superintendent shall notify an applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Database. If a check of an applicant for employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee in more than one school district was requested by the regional superintendent, and the Illinois State Police upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and so notifies the regional superintendent and if the regional superintendent upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been identified in the Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, then the regional superintendent shall issue to the applicant a certificate evidencing that as of the date specified by the Illinois State Police the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and evidencing that as of the date that the regional superintendent conducted a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the applicant has not been identified in the Database. The school board of any school district may rely on the certificate issued by any regional superintendent to that substitute teacher, concurrent part-time teacher, or concurrent educational support personnel employee or may initiate its own criminal history records check of the applicant through the Illinois State Police and its own check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database as provided in this Section. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(b-5) If a criminal history records check or check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database is performed by a regional superintendent for an applicant seeking employment as a substitute teacher with the school district, the regional superintendent may disclose to the State Board of Education whether the applicant has been issued a certificate under subsection (b) based on those checks. If the State Board receives information on an applicant under this subsection, then it must indicate in the Educator Licensure Information System for a 90-day period that the applicant has been issued or has not been issued a certificate.

(c) The board of education shall not knowingly employ a person who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of 21B-80. Further, the board of education shall not knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. As a condition of employment, the board of education must consider the status of a person who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(d) The board of education shall not knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check have not been initiated.

(e) Within 10 days after the general superintendent of schools, a regional office of education, or an entity that provides background checks of license holders to public schools receives information of a pending criminal charge against a license holder for an offense set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code, the superintendent, regional office of education, or entity must notify the State Superintendent of Education of the pending criminal charge.

No later than 15 business days after receipt of a record of conviction or of checking the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database or the Statewide Sex Offender Database and finding a registration, the general superintendent of schools or the applicable regional superintendent shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education of any license holder who has been convicted of a crime set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code. Upon receipt of the record of a conviction of or a finding of child abuse by a holder of any license issued pursuant to Article 21B or Section 34-8.1 of this Code, the State Superintendent of Education may initiate licensure suspension and revocation proceedings as authorized by law. If the receipt of the record of conviction or finding of child abuse is received within 6 months after the initial grant of or renewal of a license, the State Superintendent of Education may rescind the license holder's license.

(e-5) The general superintendent of schools shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education of any license holder whom he or she has reasonable cause to believe has committed (i) an intentional act of abuse or neglect with the result of making a child an abused child or a neglected child, as defined in Section 3 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or (ii) an act of sexual misconduct, as defined in Section 22-85.5 of this Code, and that act resulted in the license holder's dismissal or resignation from the school district and must include the Illinois Educator Identification Number (IEIN) of the license holder and a brief description of the misconduct alleged. This notification must be submitted within 30 days after the dismissal or resignation. The license holder must also be contemporaneously sent a copy of the notice by the superintendent. All correspondence, documentation, and other information so received by the State Superintendent of Education, the State Board of Education, or the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board under this subsection (e-5) is confidential and must not be disclosed to third parties, except (i) as necessary for the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee to investigate and prosecute pursuant to Article 21B of this Code, (ii) pursuant to a court order, (iii) for disclosure to the license holder or his or her representative, or (iv) as otherwise provided in this Article and provided that any such information admitted into evidence in a hearing is exempt from this confidentiality and non-disclosure requirement. Except for an act of willful or wanton misconduct, any superintendent who provides notification as required in this subsection (e-5) shall have immunity from any liability, whether civil or criminal or that otherwise might result by reason of such action.

(f) After March 19, 1990, the provisions of this Section shall apply to all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with any school district including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with the pupils of any school in such district. For purposes of criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database on employees of persons or firms holding contracts with more than one school district and assigned to more than one school district, the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which the contracting school districts are located may, at the request of any such school district, be responsible for receiving the authorization for a criminal history records check prepared by each such employee and submitting the same to the Illinois State Police and for conducting a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database for each employee. Any information concerning the record of conviction and identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the regional superintendent shall be promptly reported to the president of the appropriate school board or school boards.

(f-5) Upon request of a school or school district, any information obtained by the school district pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section within the last year must be made available to the requesting school or school district.

(g) Prior to the commencement of any student teaching experience or required internship (which is referred to as student teaching in this Section) in the public schools, a student teacher is required to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check. Authorization for and payment of the costs of the check must be furnished by the student teacher to the school district. Upon receipt of this authorization and payment, the school district shall submit the student teacher's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the board. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district a fee for conducting the check, which fee must not exceed the cost of the inquiry and must be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The school district shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, and of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, for each student teacher. The board may not knowingly allow a person to student teach for whom a criminal history records check, a Statewide Sex Offender Database check, and a Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database check have not been completed and reviewed by the district.

A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police must be provided to the student teacher. Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the board is confidential and may only be transmitted to the general superintendent of schools or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, or, for clarification purposes, the Illinois State Police or the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

The board may not knowingly allow a person to student teach who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of Section 21B-80. Further, the board may not allow a person to student teach if he or she has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of a minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The board must consider the status of a person to student teach who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-72, eff. 7-12-19; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-552, eff. 1-1-22; 102-702, eff. 7-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 8-17-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.78)

Sec. 34-18.78. COVID-19 paid administrative leave.

(a) In this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by the school district on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

"Fully vaccinated against COVID-19" means:

(1) 2 weeks after receiving the second dose in a 2-dose series of a COVID-19 vaccine authorized for emergency use, licensed, or otherwise approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration; or

(2) 2 weeks after receiving a single dose of a COVID-19 vaccine authorized for emergency use, licensed, or otherwise approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

"Fully vaccinated against COVID-19" also includes any recommended booster doses for which the individual is eligible upon the adoption by the Department of Public Health of any changes made by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" to include any such booster doses. For purposes of this Section, individuals who are eligible for a booster dose but have not received a booster dose by 5 weeks after the Department of Public Health adopts a revised definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" are not considered fully vaccinated for determining eligibility for future paid administrative leave pursuant to this Section.

"School district" includes charter schools established under Article 27A of this Code.

(b) During any time when the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act and the school district, the State or any of its agencies, or a local public health department has issued guidance, mandates, or rules related to COVID-19 that restrict an employee of the school district from being on school district property because the employee (i) has a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19, (ii) has a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test, (iii) has been in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and is required to be excluded from the school, or (iv) is required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms, the employee of the school district shall receive as many days of administrative leave as required to abide by the public health guidance, mandates, and requirements issued by the Department of Public Health, unless a longer period of paid administrative leave has been negotiated with the exclusive bargaining representative. Such leave shall be provided to an employee for any days for which the employee was required to be excluded from school property prior to April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, provided that the employee receives all doses required to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under this Section no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(c) An employee of the school district shall receive paid administrative leave pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section, unless a longer period of paid administrative leave has been negotiated with the exclusive bargaining representative, to care for a child of the employee if the child is unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child has:

(1) a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(2) a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(3) been in close contact with a person who has a confirmed case of COVID-19 and is required to be excluded from school; or

(4) been required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms. Such leave shall be provided to an employee for any days needed to care for a child of the employee prior to April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, provided that the employee receives the doses required to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under this Section no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(d) An employee of the school district who is on paid administrative leave pursuant to this Section must provide all documentation requested by the board.

(e) An employee of the school district who is on paid administrative leave pursuant to this Section shall receive the employee's regular rate of pay. The use of a paid administrative leave day or days by an employee pursuant to this Section may not diminish any other leave or benefits of the employee.

(f) An employee of the school district may not accrue paid administrative leave pursuant to this Section.

(g) For an employee of the school district to be eligible to receive paid administrative leave pursuant to this Section, the employee must:

(1) have received all required doses to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in this Section; and

(2) participate in the COVID-19 testing program adopted by the school district to the extent such a testing program requires participation by individuals who are fully vaccinated against COVID-19.

(h) Nothing in this Section is intended to affect any right or remedy under federal law.

(i) No paid administrative leave awarded to or used by a fully vaccinated employee prior to the Department of Public Health's adoption of a revised definition of the term "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" may be rescinded on the basis that the employee no longer meets the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" based on the revised definition.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-3-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.79)

Sec. 34-18.79 34-18.78. Sick leave; mental or behavioral health complications. In addition to any interpretation or definition included in a collective bargaining agreement or board of education or district policy, sick leave, or its equivalent, to which a teacher or other eligible employee is entitled shall be interpreted to include mental or behavioral health complications. Unless contrary to a collective bargaining agreement or board of education or district policy, the board may require a certificate from a mental health professional licensed in Illinois providing ongoing care or treatment to the teacher or employee as a basis for pay during leave after an absence of 3 days for mental or behavioral health complications.

(Source: P.A. 102-866, eff. 5-13-22; revised 8-3-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.80)

Sec. 34-18.80 34-18.78. College and career readiness systems.

(a) Subject to subsection (c) of this Section, by July 1, 2024, the school district shall adopt and commence implementation of a postsecondary and career expectations framework for each of grades 6 through 12 that substantially aligns to the model framework adopted by State agencies pursuant to Section 15 of the Postsecondary and Workforce Readiness Act. The local postsecondary and career expectations framework shall be available on a prominent location on the school district's website.

The career exploration and career development activities offered in alignment with the postsecondary and career expectations framework shall prepare students enrolled in grades 6 through 12 to make informed plans and decisions about their future education and career goals, including possible participation in a career and technical education pathway, by providing students with opportunities to explore a wide variety of high-skill, high-wage, and in-demand career fields.

(b) Subject to subsection (c) of this Section, the school district shall become an eligible school district and award College and Career Pathway Endorsements pursuant to the Postsecondary and Workforce Readiness Act and pursuant to the following schedule:

(1) for the high school graduating class of 2026, the school district shall offer College and Career Pathway Endorsements in at least one endorsement area;

(2) for the high school graduating class of 2028, the school district shall offer College and Career Pathway Endorsements in at least 2 endorsement areas; and

(3) for the high school graduating class of 2030, the school district shall offer College and Career Pathway Endorsements in at least 3 endorsement areas.

(c) The board may, by action of the board, opt out of implementation of all or any part of this Section through adoption of a set of findings that considers the following:

(1) the school district's current systems for college and career readiness;

(2) the school district's cost of implementation balanced against the potential benefits to students and families through improved postsecondary education and career outcomes;

(3) the willingness and capacity of local businesses to partner with the school district for successful implementation of pathways other than education;

(4) the availability of a statewide database of participating local business partners, as provided under the Postsecondary and Workforce Readiness Act, for the purpose of career readiness and the accessibility of those work experiences and apprenticeships listed in the database to the students of the school district; and

(5) the availability of properly licensed teachers or teachers meeting faculty credential standards for dual credit courses to instruct in the program required for the endorsement areas.

The school district must report its board findings and decision on implementation to the State Board of Education. If the school district elects to opt out of implementation, the district may reverse its decision in whole or in part at any time.

(d) The State Board of Education may adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-917, eff. 1-1-23; revised 1-10-23.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.81)

Sec. 34-18.81 34-18.78. Pilot program for remote learning for students in the custody of the Department of Corrections. The board may offer the option of remote learning to allow a student who is in the custody of the Department of Corrections to successfully complete the course requirements necessary to graduate from high school and receive a high school diploma. The school district may offer a remote learning option to a student if the student:

(1) is enrolled at Consuella B. York Alternative High School at the time the student is transferred to a Department of Corrections facility or institution or had been enrolled at Consuella B. York Alternative High School within the 6 months prior to being transferred to a Department of Corrections facility or institution; and

(2) is within 2 school years of completing all of the course requirements necessary to graduate from high school and receive a high school diploma.

The Department of Corrections educators and security staff shall be involved in assisting and supervising students participating in the pilot program. The Department of Corrections shall negotiate with all bargaining units involved to ensure that the implementation of the pilot program is consistent with collective bargaining agreements.

The school district may continue to offer the option of remote learning to the student for up to one school year following the student's release from the custody of the Department of Corrections to allow the student to complete any remaining course requirements necessary to graduate from high school and receive a high school diploma.

The establishment of the pilot program described in this Section is contingent upon there being provided to the Department of Corrections sufficient appropriations to implement and administer the program.

(Source: P.A. 102-966, eff. 5-27-22; revised 8-3-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-21.6) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-21.6)

Sec. 34-21.6. Waiver of fees and fines.

(a) The board shall waive all fees and any fines for the loss of school property assessed by the district on children whose parents are unable to afford them, including but not limited to:

(1) children living in households that meet the free lunch or breakfast eligibility guidelines established by the federal government pursuant to Section 1758 of the federal Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1758; 7 CFR C.F.R. 245 et seq.) and students whose parents are veterans or active duty military personnel with income at or below 200% of the federal poverty level, subject to verification as set forth in subsection (b) of this Section; , and

(2) homeless children and youths youth as defined in Section 11434a of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11434a).

Notice of waiver availability shall be given to parents or guardians with every bill for fees or fines. The board shall develop written policies and procedures implementing this Section in accordance with regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education.

(b) If the board participates in a federally funded, school-based child nutrition program and uses a student's application for, eligibility for, or participation in the federally funded, school-based child nutrition program (42 U.S.C. 1758; 7 C.F.R. 245 et seq.) as the basis for waiving fees assessed by the district, then the board must follow the verification requirements of the federally funded, school-based child nutrition program (42 U.S.C. 1758; 7 CFR C.F.R. 245.6a).

If the board establishes a process for the determination of eligibility for waiver of all fees assessed by the district that is completely independent of the criteria listed in subsection (b), the board may provide for waiver verification no more often than once every academic year. Information obtained during the independent waiver verification process indicating that the student does not meet free lunch or breakfast eligibility guidelines may be used to deny the waiver of the student's fees or fines for the loss of school property, provided that any information obtained through this independent process for determining or verifying eligibility for fee waivers shall not be used to determine or verify eligibility for any federally funded, school-based child nutrition program.

This subsection shall not preclude children from obtaining waivers at any point during the academic year.

(Source: P.A. 102-805, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1032, eff. 5-27-22; revised 12-13-22.)

Section 295. The School Safety Drill Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 45 as follows:

(105 ILCS 128/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"First responder" means and includes all fire departments and districts, law enforcement agencies and officials, emergency medical responders, emergency medical dispatchers, and emergency management officials involved in the execution and documentation of the drills administered under this Act.

"School" means a public or private facility that offers elementary or secondary education to students under the age of 21, a charter school authorized by the State Board of Education, or a special education cooperative. As used in this definition, "public facility" means a facility operated by the State or by a unit of local government. As used in this definition, "private facility" means any non-profit, non-home-based, non-public elementary or secondary school that is in compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and attendance at which satisfies the requirements of Section 26-1 of the School Code. While more than one school may be housed in a facility, for purposes of this Act, the facility shall be considered a school. When a school has more than one location, for purposes of this Act, each different location shall be considered its own school.

"School safety drill" means a pre-planned exercise conducted by a school in accordance with the drills and requirements set forth in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; 102-1006, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-13-22.)

(105 ILCS 128/45)

Sec. 45. Threat assessment procedure.

(a) Each school district must implement a threat assessment procedure that may be part of a school board policy on targeted school violence prevention. The procedure must include the creation of a threat assessment team. The team must include all of the following members:

(1) An administrator employed by the school district or a special education cooperative that serves the school district and is available to serve.

(2) A teacher employed by the school district or a special education cooperative that serves the school district and is available to serve.

(3) A school counselor employed by the school district or a special education cooperative that serves the school district and is available to serve.

(4) A school psychologist employed by the school district or a special education cooperative that serves the school district and is available to serve.

(5) A school social worker employed by the school district or a special education cooperative that serves the school district and is available to serve.

(6) At least one law enforcement official.

If a school district is unable to establish a threat assessment team with school district staff and resources, it may utilize a regional behavioral threat assessment and intervention team that includes mental health professionals and representatives from the State, county, and local law enforcement agencies.

(b) A school district shall establish the threat assessment team under this Section no later than 180 days after August 23, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-455) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly and must implement an initial threat assessment procedure no later than 120 days after August 23, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-455) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. Each year prior to the start of the school year, the school board shall file the threat assessment procedure and a list identifying the members of the school district's threat assessment team or regional behavior threat assessment and intervention team with (i) a local law enforcement agency and (ii) the regional office of education or, with respect to a school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, the State Board of Education.

(c) Any sharing of student information under this Section must comply with the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974 and the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(d) A charter school must follow the threat assessment procedures implemented by its authorizing school district or must implement its own threat assessment procedure that complies with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-455, eff. 8-23-19; 102-791, eff. 5-13-22; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; revised 8-25-22.)

Section 300. The School Construction Law is amended by changing Section 5-15 as follows:

(105 ILCS 230/5-15)

Sec. 5-15. Grant award amounts and required local match.

(a) After June 30, 2022, any time there is an appropriation of funds by the General Assembly from the School Infrastructure Fund or School Construction Fund and a release of the appropriated funds to the Capital Development Board for expenditure on grant awards pursuant to the provisions of this Article, the State Board of Education is authorized to open an application cycle to receive grant applications from school districts for school construction projects. No grant application filed before the start of the first application cycle after June 30, 2022 may be considered. After the close of each application cycle, the State Board of Education shall determine the approval of applications, the required local match percentage for each approved application, and the priority order for school construction project grants to be made by the Capital Development Board and shall then notify all applicants regarding their eligibility for a grant. Such notification shall include an estimate of the required local match. The State Board of Education shall publish a list of applicants eligible for grants and forward it to the Capital Development Board..

(b) The Capital Development Board, to the extent that appropriated funds have been released and proceeding through the list of eligible applicants in the order of priority determined by the State Board of Education, shall issue conditional grant awards to eligible school districts. An applicant that does not receive a conditional grant award notification must submit a new application during another application cycle in order to receive future consideration for a grant award.

(c) The conditional grant award certifies to a school district the recognized project costs for its school construction project determined by the Capital Development Board, the applicable required local match percentage and grant award percentage, the required local match and grant award amount calculated by multiplying the required local match percentage and the grant award percentage by the recognized project cost, and the required local match and grant award amount as those amounts may be adjusted as required in subsection (d).

(d) The required local match and grant award amount are calculated by multiplying the required local match percentage and the grant award percentage by the recognized project cost, provided that, only during the first application cycle after June 30, 2022, these amounts may be adjusted if the applicant had previously expended funds on a school construction project on the 2004, 2005, or 2006 School Construction Grant List. In that case, the required local match shall be reduced (but not below zero) and the grant award amount shall be increased (to an amount no greater than the recognized project cost) by an amount determined by the Capital Development Board to be equal to the amount of the grant the applicant would have received pursuant to Section 5-35 had it been awarded a grant in 2004, 2005, or 2006 based on the 2004, 2005, or 2006 School Construction Grant List and the year in which the school district applied for the grant.

(e) A school district shall have 2 years from the date the school district was issued a conditional grant award from the Capital Development Board to obtain the school district's required local match and receive a final grant award from the Capital Development Board. If the required local match is not obtained within the 2-year time frame, the school district shall be required to reapply in another application cycle, after the 2-year time frame, to be considered for a grant award. The State share of the grant amount in a conditional grant award that is not claimed by a school district within the 2-year time frame shall be reallocated to future application cycles after the 2-year time frame expires.

(Source: P.A. 102-723, eff. 5-6-22; revised 9-2-22.)

Section 305. The Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 37, 70, and 75 as follows:

(105 ILCS 426/37)

Sec. 37. Disclosures. All schools shall make, at a minimum, the disclosures required under this Section clearly and conspicuously on their Internet websites. The disclosure shall consist of a statement containing the following information for the most recent 12-month reporting period of July 1 through June 30:

(1) The number of students who were admitted in the course of instruction as of July 1 of that reporting period.

(2) Additions during the year due to:

(A) new starts;

(B) re-enrollments; and

(C) transfers into the course of instruction from other courses of instruction at the school.

(3) The total number of students admitted during the reporting period (the number of students reported under paragraph (1) of this Section plus the additions reported under subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (2) of this Section).

(4) Of the total course of instruction enrollment, the number of students who:

(A) transferred out of the course of instruction to another course of instruction;

(B) completed or graduated from a course of instruction;

(C) withdrew from the school;

(D) are still enrolled.

(5) The number of students listed in paragraph (4) of this Section who:

(A) were placed in their field of study;

(B) were placed in a related field;

(C) placed out of the field;

(D) were not available for placement due to personal reasons;

(E) were not employed.

(6) The number of students who took a State licensing examination or professional certification examination, if any, during the reporting period, as well as the number who passed.

(7) The number of graduates who obtained employment in the field who did not use the school's placement assistance during the reporting period; such information may be compiled by reasonable efforts of the school to contact graduates by written correspondence.

(8) The average starting salary for all school graduates employed during the reporting period; such information may be compiled by reasonable efforts of the school to contact graduates by written correspondence.

(9) The following clear and conspicuous caption, set forth with the address and telephone number of the Board's office:

"COMPLAINTS AGAINST THIS SCHOOL MAY BE REGISTERED WITH THE BOARD OF HIGHER EDUCATION.".

(10) If the United States Department of Education places the school on either the Heightened Cash Monitoring 2 payment method or the reimbursement payment method, as authorized under 34 CFR 668.162, a clear and conspicuous disclosure that the United States Department of Education has heightened monitoring of the school's finances and the reason for such monitoring. Such disclosure shall be made within 14 days of the action of the United States Department of Education both on the school's website and to all students and prospective students on a form prescribed by the Board.

An alphabetical list of names, addresses, and dates of admission by course or course of instruction and a sample copy of the enrollment agreement employed to enroll the students listed shall be filed with the Board's Executive Director on an annual basis. The list shall be signed and verified by the school's chief managing employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-1046, eff. 6-7-22; revised 9-2-22.)

(105 ILCS 426/70)

Sec. 70. Closing of a school.

(a) In the event a school proposes to discontinue its operations, the chief administrative officer of the school shall cause to be filed with the Board the original or legible true copies of all such academic records of the institution as may be specified by the Board.

(b) These records shall include, at a minimum, the academic records of each former student that is traditionally provided on an academic transcript, such as, but not limited to, courses taken, terms, grades, and other such information.

(c) In the event it appears to the Board that any such records of an institution discontinuing its operations is in danger of being lost, hidden, destroyed, or otherwise made unavailable to the Board, the Board may seize and take possession of the records, on its own motion and without order of court.

(d) The Board shall maintain or cause to be maintained a permanent file of such records coming into its possession.

(e) As an alternative to the deposit of such records with the Board, the institution may propose to the Board a plan for permanent retention of the records. The plan must be put into effect only with the approval of the Board.

(f) When a postsecondary educational institution now or hereafter operating in this State proposes to discontinue its operation, such institution shall cause to be created a teach-out plan acceptable to the Board, which shall fulfill the school's educational obligations to its students. Should the school fail to deliver or act on the teach-out plan, the Board is in no way responsible for providing the teach-out.

(f-5) The school shall release any institutional holds placed on any student students record, regardless of the type of hold placed on the student record.

(g) The school and its designated surety bonding company are responsible for the return to students of all prepaid, unearned tuition. As identified in Section 55 of this Act, the surety bond must be a written agreement that provides for monetary compensation in the event that the school fails to fulfill its obligations. The surety bonding company shall guarantee the return to the school's students and their parents, guardians, or sponsors of all prepaid, unearned tuition in the event of school closure. Should the school or its surety bonding company fail to deliver or act to fulfill the obligation, the Board is in no way responsible for the repayment or any related damages or claims.

(Source: P.A. 102-1046, eff. 6-7-22; revised 9-2-22.)

(105 ILCS 426/75)

Sec. 75. Application and renewal fees. The Board may not approve any application for a permit of approval or program of study that has been plagiarized in part or whole and may return any such application for a permit of approval or program of study. Additionally, the Board may not approve any application for a permit of approval or program of study that has not been completed in its entirety. Fees for application and renewal may be set by the Board by rule. Fees shall be collected for all of the following:

(1) An original school application for a permit of approval.

(2) An initial school application for a permit of approval upon occurrence of a change of ownership.

(3) An annual school application for renewal of a certificate of approval.

(4) A school application for a change of location.

(5) A school application for a classroom extension.

(6) If an applicant school that has not remedied all deficiencies cited by the Board within 12 months after the date of its original application for a permit of approval, an additional original application fee for the continued cost of investigation of its application.

(7) Transcript processing.

(Source: P.A. 102-1046, eff. 6-7-22; revised 9-2-22.)

Section 310. The Dual Credit Quality Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(110 ILCS 27/20)

Sec. 20. Standards. All institutions offering dual credit courses shall meet the following standards:

(1) High school instructors teaching credit-bearing college-level courses for dual credit must meet any of the academic credential requirements set forth in this paragraph or paragraph (2) or (3) of this Section and need not meet higher certification requirements or those set out in Article 21B of the School Code:

(A) Approved instructors of dual credit courses shall meet any of the faculty credential standards allowed by the Higher Learning Commission to determine minimally qualified faculty. At the request of an instructor, an instructor who meets these credential standards shall be provided by the State Board of Education with a Dual Credit Endorsement, to be placed on the professional educator license, as established by the State Board of Education and as authorized under Article 21B of the School Code and promulgated through administrative rule in cooperation with the Illinois Community College Board and the Board of Higher Education.

(B) An instructor who does not meet the faculty credential standards allowed by the Higher Learning Commission to determine minimally qualified faculty may teach dual credit courses if the instructor has a professional development plan, approved by the institution and shared with the State Board of Education no later than January 1, 2025, to raise his or her credentials to be in line with the credentials under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1). The institution shall have 30 days to review the plan and approve an instructor professional development plan that is in line with the credentials set forth in paragraph (2) of this Section. The institution shall not unreasonably withhold approval of a professional development plan. These approvals shall be good for as long as satisfactory progress toward the completion of the credential is demonstrated, but in no event shall a professional development plan be in effect for more than 3 years from the date of its approval or after January 1, 2028, whichever is sooner. A high school instructor whose professional development plan is not approved by the institution may appeal to the Illinois Community College Board or the Board of Higher Education, as appropriate.

(C) The Illinois Community College Board and Board of Higher Education shall report yearly on their its Internet websites website the following:

(i) the number of teachers presently enrolled in an approved professional development plan under this Section;

(ii) the number of instructors who successfully completed an approved professional development plan;

(iii) the number of instructors who did not successfully complete an approved professional development plan after 3 years;

(iv) a breakdown of the information in subdivisions (i), (ii), and (iii) of this subparagraph (C) by subject area; and

(v) a summary, by community college district, of professional development plans that are in progress, that were successfully completed, or that have expired.

(2) For a high school instructor entering into a professional development plan prior to January 1, 2023, the high school instructor shall qualify for a professional development plan if the instructor:

(A) has a master's degree in any discipline and has earned 9 graduate hours in a discipline in which he or she is currently teaching or expects to teach; or

(B) has a bachelor's degree with a minimum of 18 graduate hours in a discipline that he or she is currently teaching or expects to teach and is enrolled in a discipline-specific master's degree program; and

(C) agrees to demonstrate his or her progress toward completion to the supervising institution, as outlined in the professional development plan.

(2.5) For a high school instructor entering into a professional development plan on or after January 1, 2023, the high school instructor shall qualify for a professional development plan if the instructor:

(A) has a master's degree in any discipline, has earned 9 graduate hours in a discipline in which he or she currently teaches or expects to teach, and agrees to demonstrate his or her progress toward completion to the supervising institution, as outlined in the professional development plan; or

(B) is a fully licensed instructor in career and technical education who is halfway toward meeting the institution's requirements for faculty in the discipline to be taught and agrees to demonstrate his or her progress toward completion to the supervising institution, as outlined in the professional development plan.

(3) An instructor in career and technical education courses must possess the credentials and demonstrated teaching competencies appropriate to the field of instruction.

(4) Course content must be equivalent to credit-bearing college-level courses offered at the community college.

(5) Learning outcomes must be the same as credit-bearing college-level courses and be appropriately measured.

(6) A high school instructor is expected to participate in any orientation developed by the institution for dual credit instructors in course curriculum, assessment methods, and administrative requirements.

(7) Dual credit instructors must be given the opportunity to participate in all activities available to other adjunct faculty, including professional development, seminars, site visits, and internal communication, provided that such opportunities do not interfere with an instructor's regular teaching duties.

(8) Every dual credit course must be reviewed annually by faculty through the appropriate department to ensure consistency with campus courses.

(9) Dual credit students must be assessed using methods consistent with students in traditional credit-bearing college courses.

(10) Within 15 days after entering into or renewing a partnership agreement, the institution shall notify its faculty of the agreement, including access to copies of the agreement if requested.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1077, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-9-22.)

Section 315. The Board of Higher Education Act is amended by changing Section 9.16 as follows:

(110 ILCS 205/9.16) (from Ch. 144, par. 189.16)

Sec. 9.16. Underrepresentation of certain groups in higher education. To require public institutions of higher education to develop and implement an equity plan and practices that include methods and strategies to increase the access, retention, completion, and student loan repayment rates of minorities, rural students, adult students, women, and individuals with disabilities who are traditionally underrepresented in education programs and activities. To encourage private institutions of higher education to develop and implement an equity plan and practices. For the purpose of this Section, minorities shall mean persons residents who are any of the following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa).

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

The Board shall adopt any rules necessary to administer this Section. The Board, in collaboration with the Illinois Community College Board, shall also do the following:

(a) require all public institutions of higher education to develop and submit an equity plan and implement practices that, at a minimum, close gaps in enrollment, retention, completion, and student loan repayment rates for underrepresented groups and encourage all private institutions of higher education to develop and submit such equity plans and implement such practices;

(b) conduct periodic review of public institutions of higher education and private institutions of higher education to determine compliance with this Section; and if the Board finds that a public institution of higher education is not in compliance with this Section, it shall notify the institution of steps to take to attain compliance;

(c) provide advice and counsel pursuant to this Section;

(d) conduct studies of the effectiveness and outcomes of the methods and strategies outlined in an institution's equity plan, as well as others designed to increase participation and success of students in education programs and activities in which minorities, rural students, adult students, women, and individuals with disabilities are traditionally underrepresented, and monitor and report the outcomes for students as a result of the implementation of equity plans;

(e) require components of an institution's equity plan to include strategies to increase minority student recruitment, retention, and student loan repayment rates in colleges and universities. In implementing this paragraph, the Board shall undertake, but need not be limited to, the following: the establishment of guidelines and plans for public institutions of higher education and private institutions of higher education for minority student recruitment, retention, and student loan repayment rates, including requirements to establish campus climate and culture surveys, the review and monitoring of minority student services, programs, and supports implemented at public institutions of higher education and private institutions of higher education to determine their compliance with any guidelines and plans so established, the determination of the effectiveness and funding requirements of minority student services, programs, and supports at public institutions of higher education and private institutions of higher education, the dissemination of successful programs as models, and the encouragement of cooperative partnerships between community colleges, local school attendance centers, and 4-year colleges and universities to support enrollment of minority students;

(f) mandate all public institutions of higher education and encourage all private institutions of higher education to submit data and information essential to determine compliance with this Section. The Board shall prescribe the format and the date for submission of this data and any other education equity data; and

(g) report to the General Assembly and the Governor annually with a description of the plans submitted by each public institution of higher education and each private institution of higher education for implementation of this Section, including financial data relating to the most recent fiscal year, the effectiveness of such plans and programs and the effectiveness of the methods and strategies developed by the Board in meeting the purposes of this Section, the degree of compliance with this Section by each public institution of higher education and each private institution of higher education as determined by the Board pursuant to its periodic review responsibilities, and the findings made by the Board in conducting its studies and monitoring student outcomes and institutional success as required by paragraph (d) of this Section. With respect to each public institution of higher education and each private institution of higher education, such report also shall include, but need not be limited to, information with respect to each institution's minority program budget allocations; minority student admission, retention and graduation and student loan repayment rate statistics; admission, retention, graduation, and student loan repayment rate statistics of all students who are the first in their immediate family to attend an institution of higher education; number of financial assistance awards, not including student loans, to undergraduate and graduate minority students; and minority faculty representation. This paragraph shall not be construed to prohibit the Board from making, preparing, or issuing additional surveys or studies with respect to minority education in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 102-465, eff. 1-1-22; 102-1030, eff. 5-27-22; 102-1046, eff. 6-7-22; revised 7-26-22.)

Section 320. The Higher Education Cooperation Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(110 ILCS 220/4) (from Ch. 144, par. 284)

Sec. 4. A program of financial assistance to programs of interinstitutional cooperation, in higher education is established to implement the policy of encouraging such cooperation in order to achieve an efficient use of educational resources, an equitable distribution of educational services, the development of innovative concepts and applications, and other public purposes.

The Board of Higher Education shall administer this program of financial assistance and shall distribute the funds appropriated by the General Assembly for this purpose in the form of grants to not-for-profit corporations organized to administer programs of interinstitutional cooperation in higher education or to public or nonpublic institutions of higher education participating in such programs.

In awarding grants to interinstitutional programs under this Act, the Board shall consider in relation to each such program whether it serves the public purposes expressed in this Act, whether the local community is substantially involved, whether its function could be performed better by a single existing institution, whether the program is consistent with the Illinois strategic plan for higher education, and such other criteria as it determines to be appropriate.

No grant may be awarded under this Section for any program of sectarian instruction or for any program designed to serve a sectarian purpose.

As a part of its administration of this Act, the Board may require audits or reports in relation to the administrative, fiscal and academic aspects of any interinstitutional program for which a grant is awarded under this Act. The Board shall annually submit to the Governor and the General Assembly a budgetary recommendation for grants under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-1046, eff. 6-7-22; revised 9-2-22.)

Section 325. The University of Illinois Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 160 as follows:

(110 ILCS 305/160)

Sec. 160. Benefits navigator.

(a) In this Section:

"Benefits navigator" means an individual who is designated by the University for the purpose of helping students at the University determine eligibility for benefit programs and identify campuswide and community resource support.

"Benefit program" means any federal, State, or local program that provides assistance or benefits to individuals on the basis of need.

(b) The University shall:

(1) designate a benefits navigator who has a detailed understanding of eligibility requirements for benefit programs and campuswide and community resource support;

(2) provide training for the benefits navigator; and

(3) participate in a statewide consortium with other public institutions of higher education, facilitated by the Board of Higher Education, for the purpose of facilitating communication between benefits navigators at different institutions and developing best practices for benefits navigators.

(c) The benefits navigator designated under this Section shall:

(1) assist students at the University in determining eligibility for benefit programs and identifying campuswide and community resource support;

(2) use the consortium under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section to coordinate with benefits navigators at other public institutions of higher education for the purpose of collecting data and developing best practices for helping students apply for and receive assistance from benefit programs; and

(3) coordinate and provide culturally specific resources, including resources for non-English speakers, to support students at the University.

(d) The University, in consultation with the benefits navigator designated under this Section, shall develop an internal process to enable students at the University to provide feedback and recommendations on how the University can better assist students in determining eligibility for benefit programs and applying for assistance under benefit programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-1045, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

(110 ILCS 305/170)

Sec. 170 160. COVID-19 sick leave. For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person employed by the University on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Any sick leave used by an employee of the University during the 2021-2022 academic year shall be returned to an employee of the University who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 175 of this Act, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the employee was restricted from being on University property because the employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from the University; or

(D) was required by the University to be excluded from University property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

Leave shall be returned to an employee pursuant to this Section provided that the employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 175 of this Act no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The University may not rescind any sick leave returned to an employee of the University on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 175 of this Act, at the time the sick leave was returned to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-19-22.)

Section 330. The Southern Illinois University Management Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 135 as follows:

(110 ILCS 520/135)

Sec. 135. Benefits navigator.

(a) In this Section:

"Benefits navigator" means an individual who is designated by the University for the purpose of helping students at the University determine eligibility for benefit programs and identify campuswide and community resource support.

"Benefit program" means any federal, State, or local program that provides assistance or benefits to individuals on the basis of need.

(b) The University shall:

(1) designate a benefits navigator who has a detailed understanding of eligibility requirements for benefit programs and campuswide and community resource support;

(2) provide training for the benefits navigator; and

(3) participate in a statewide consortium with other public institutions of higher education, facilitated by the Board of Higher Education, for the purpose of facilitating communication between benefits navigators at different institutions and developing best practices for benefits navigators.

(c) The benefits navigator designated under this Section shall:

(1) assist students at the University in determining eligibility for benefit programs and identifying campuswide and community resource support;

(2) use the consortium under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section to coordinate with benefits navigators at other public institutions of higher education for the purpose of collecting data and developing best practices for helping students apply for and receive assistance from benefit programs; and

(3) coordinate and provide culturally specific resources, including resources for non-English speakers, to support students at the University.

(d) The University, in consultation with the benefits navigator designated under this Section, shall develop an internal process to enable students at the University to provide feedback and recommendations on how the University can better assist students in determining eligibility for benefit programs and applying for assistance under benefit programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-1045, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

(110 ILCS 520/145)

Sec. 145 135. COVID-19 sick leave. For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person employed by the University on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Any sick leave used by an employee of the University during the 2021-2022 academic year shall be returned to an employee of the University who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 150 of this Act, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the employee was restricted from being on University property because the employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from the University; or

(D) was required by the University to be excluded from University property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

Leave shall be returned to an employee pursuant to this Section provided that the employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 150 of this Act no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The University may not rescind any sick leave returned to an employee of the University on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 150 of this Act, at the time the sick leave was returned to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-22-22.)

Section 335. The Chicago State University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 5-245 as follows:

(110 ILCS 660/5-245)

Sec. 5-245. Benefits navigator.

(a) In this Section:

"Benefits navigator" means an individual who is designated by the University for the purpose of helping students at the University determine eligibility for benefit programs and identify campuswide and community resource support.

"Benefit program" means any federal, State, or local program that provides assistance or benefits to individuals on the basis of need.

(b) The University shall:

(1) designate a benefits navigator who has a detailed understanding of eligibility requirements for benefit programs and campuswide and community resource support;

(2) provide training for the benefits navigator; and

(3) participate in a statewide consortium with other public institutions of higher education, facilitated by the Board of Higher Education, for the purpose of facilitating communication between benefits navigators at different institutions and developing best practices for benefits navigators.

(c) The benefits navigator designated under this Section shall:

(1) assist students at the University in determining eligibility for benefit programs and identifying campuswide and community resource support;

(2) use the consortium under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section to coordinate with benefits navigators at other public institutions of higher education for the purpose of collecting data and developing best practices for helping students apply for and receive assistance from benefit programs; and

(3) coordinate and provide culturally specific resources, including resources for non-English speakers, to support students at the University.

(d) The University, in consultation with the benefits navigator designated under this Section, shall develop an internal process to enable students at the University to provide feedback and recommendations on how the University can better assist students in determining eligibility for benefit programs and applying for assistance under benefit programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-1045, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-255)

Sec. 5-255 5-245. COVID-19 sick leave. For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person employed by the University on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Any sick leave used by an employee of the University during the 2021-2022 academic year shall be returned to an employee of the University who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 5-260 of this Law Act, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the employee was restricted from being on University property because the employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from the University; or

(D) was required by the University to be excluded from University property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

Leave shall be returned to an employee pursuant to this Section provided that the employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 5-260 of this Law Act no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The University may not rescind any sick leave returned to an employee of the University on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 5-260 of this Law Act, at the time the sick leave was returned to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-23-22.)

Section 340. The Eastern Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 10-245 as follows:

(110 ILCS 665/10-245)

Sec. 10-245. Benefits navigator.

(a) In this Section:

"Benefits navigator" means an individual who is designated by the University for the purpose of helping students at the University determine eligibility for benefit programs and identify campuswide and community resource support.

"Benefit program" means any federal, State, or local program that provides assistance or benefits to individuals on the basis of need.

(b) The University shall:

(1) designate a benefits navigator who has a detailed understanding of eligibility requirements for benefit programs and campuswide and community resource support;

(2) provide training for the benefits navigator; and

(3) participate in a statewide consortium with other public institutions of higher education, facilitated by the Board of Higher Education, for the purpose of facilitating communication between benefits navigators at different institutions and developing best practices for benefits navigators.

(c) The benefits navigator designated under this Section shall:

(1) assist students at the University in determining eligibility for benefit programs and identifying campuswide and community resource support;

(2) use the consortium under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section to coordinate with benefits navigators at other public institutions of higher education for the purpose of collecting data and developing best practices for helping students apply for and receive assistance from benefit programs; and

(3) coordinate and provide culturally specific resources, including resources for non-English speakers, to support students at the University.

(d) The University, in consultation with the benefits navigator designated under this Section, shall develop an internal process to enable students at the University to provide feedback and recommendations on how the University can better assist students in determining eligibility for benefit programs and applying for assistance under benefit programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-1045, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-260)

Sec. 10-260 10-245. COVID-19 sick leave. For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person employed by the University on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Any sick leave used by an employee of the University during the 2021-2022 academic year shall be returned to an employee of the University who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 10-265 of this Law Act, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the employee was restricted from being on University property because the employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from the University; or

(D) was required by the University to be excluded from University property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

Leave shall be returned to an employee pursuant to this Section provided that the employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 10-265 of this Law Act no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The University may not rescind any sick leave returned to an employee of the University on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 10-265 of this Law Act, at the time the sick leave was returned to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-23-22.)

Section 345. The Governors State University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 15-245 as follows:

(110 ILCS 670/15-245)

Sec. 15-245. Benefits navigator.

(a) In this Section:

"Benefits navigator" means an individual who is designated by the University for the purpose of helping students at the University determine eligibility for benefit programs and identify campuswide and community resource support.

"Benefit program" means any federal, State, or local program that provides assistance or benefits to individuals on the basis of need.

(b) The University shall:

(1) designate a benefits navigator who has a detailed understanding of eligibility requirements for benefit programs and campuswide and community resource support;

(2) provide training for the benefits navigator; and

(3) participate in a statewide consortium with other public institutions of higher education, facilitated by the Board of Higher Education, for the purpose of facilitating communication between benefits navigators at different institutions and developing best practices for benefits navigators.

(c) The benefits navigator designated under this Section shall:

(1) assist students at the University in determining eligibility for benefit programs and identifying campuswide and community resource support;

(2) use the consortium under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section to coordinate with benefits navigators at other public institutions of higher education for the purpose of collecting data and developing best practices for helping students apply for and receive assistance from benefit programs; and

(3) coordinate and provide culturally specific resources, including resources for non-English speakers, to support students at the University.

(d) The University, in consultation with the benefits navigator designated under this Section, shall develop an internal process to enable students at the University to provide feedback and recommendations on how the University can better assist students in determining eligibility for benefit programs and applying for assistance under benefit programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-1045, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-255)

Sec. 15-255 15-245. COVID-19 sick leave. For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person employed by the University on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Any sick leave used by an employee of the University during the 2021-2022 academic year shall be returned to an employee of the University who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 15-260 of this Law Act, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the employee was restricted from being on University property because the employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from the University; or

(D) was required by the University to be excluded from University property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

Leave shall be returned to an employee pursuant to this Section provided that the employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 15-260 of this Law Act no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The University may not rescind any sick leave returned to an employee of the University on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 15-260 of this Law Act, at the time the sick leave was returned to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-24-22.)

Section 350. The Illinois State University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 20-250 as follows:

(110 ILCS 675/20-250)

Sec. 20-250. Benefits navigator.

(a) In this Section:

"Benefits navigator" means an individual who is designated by the University for the purpose of helping students at the University determine eligibility for benefit programs and identify campuswide and community resource support.

"Benefit program" means any federal, State, or local program that provides assistance or benefits to individuals on the basis of need.

(b) The University shall:

(1) designate a benefits navigator who has a detailed understanding of eligibility requirements for benefit programs and campuswide and community resource support;

(2) provide training for the benefits navigator; and

(3) participate in a statewide consortium with other public institutions of higher education, facilitated by the Board of Higher Education, for the purpose of facilitating communication between benefits navigators at different institutions and developing best practices for benefits navigators.

(c) The benefits navigator designated under this Section shall:

(1) assist students at the University in determining eligibility for benefit programs and identifying campuswide and community resource support;

(2) use the consortium under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section to coordinate with benefits navigators at other public institutions of higher education for the purpose of collecting data and developing best practices for helping students apply for and receive assistance from benefit programs; and

(3) coordinate and provide culturally specific resources, including resources for non-English speakers, to support students at the University.

(d) The University, in consultation with the benefits navigator designated under this Section, shall develop an internal process to enable students at the University to provide feedback and recommendations on how the University can better assist students in determining eligibility for benefit programs and applying for assistance under benefit programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-1045, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-265)

Sec. 20-265 20-250. COVID-19 sick leave. For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person employed by the University on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Any sick leave used by an employee of the University during the 2021-2022 academic year shall be returned to an employee of the University who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 20-270 of this Law Act, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the employee was restricted from being on University property because the employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from the University; or

(D) was required by the University to be excluded from University property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

Leave shall be returned to an employee pursuant to this Section provided that the employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 20-270 of this Law Act no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The University may not rescind any sick leave returned to an employee of the University on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 20-270 of this Law Act, at the time the sick leave was returned to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-24-22.)

Section 355. The Northeastern Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 25-245 as follows:

(110 ILCS 680/25-245)

Sec. 25-245. Benefits navigator.

(a) In this Section:

"Benefits navigator" means an individual who is designated by the University for the purpose of helping students at the University determine eligibility for benefit programs and identify campuswide and community resource support.

"Benefit program" means any federal, State, or local program that provides assistance or benefits to individuals on the basis of need.

(b) The University shall:

(1) designate a benefits navigator who has a detailed understanding of eligibility requirements for benefit programs and campuswide and community resource support;

(2) provide training for the benefits navigator; and

(3) participate in a statewide consortium with other public institutions of higher education, facilitated by the Board of Higher Education, for the purpose of facilitating communication between benefits navigators at different institutions and developing best practices for benefits navigators.

(c) The benefits navigator designated under this Section shall:

(1) assist students at the University in determining eligibility for benefit programs and identifying campuswide and community resource support;

(2) use the consortium under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section to coordinate with benefits navigators at other public institutions of higher education for the purpose of collecting data and developing best practices for helping students apply for and receive assistance from benefit programs; and

(3) coordinate and provide culturally specific resources, including resources for non-English speakers, to support students at the University.

(d) The University, in consultation with the benefits navigator designated under this Section, shall develop an internal process to enable students at the University to provide feedback and recommendations on how the University can better assist students in determining eligibility for benefit programs and applying for assistance under benefit programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-1045, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-260)

Sec. 25-260 25-245. COVID-19 sick leave. For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person employed by the University on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Any sick leave used by an employee of the University during the 2021-2022 academic year shall be returned to an employee of the University who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 25-265 of this Law Act, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the employee was restricted from being on University property because the employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from the University; or

(D) was required by the University to be excluded from University property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

Leave shall be returned to an employee pursuant to this Section provided that the employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 25-265 of this Law Act no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The University may not rescind any sick leave returned to an employee of the University on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 25-265 of this Law Act, at the time the sick leave was returned to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-25-22.)

Section 360. The Northern Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 30-255 as follows:

(110 ILCS 685/30-255)

Sec. 30-255. Benefits navigator.

(a) In this Section:

"Benefits navigator" means an individual who is designated by the University for the purpose of helping students at the University determine eligibility for benefit programs and identify campuswide and community resource support.

"Benefit program" means any federal, State, or local program that provides assistance or benefits to individuals on the basis of need.

(b) The University shall:

(1) designate a benefits navigator who has a detailed understanding of eligibility requirements for benefit programs and campuswide and community resource support;

(2) provide training for the benefits navigator; and

(3) participate in a statewide consortium with other public institutions of higher education, facilitated by the Board of Higher Education, for the purpose of facilitating communication between benefits navigators at different institutions and developing best practices for benefits navigators.

(c) The benefits navigator designated under this Section shall:

(1) assist students at the University in determining eligibility for benefit programs and identifying campuswide and community resource support;

(2) use the consortium under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section to coordinate with benefits navigators at other public institutions of higher education for the purpose of collecting data and developing best practices for helping students apply for and receive assistance from benefit programs; and

(3) coordinate and provide culturally specific resources, including resources for non-English speakers, to support students at the University.

(d) The University, in consultation with the benefits navigator designated under this Section, shall develop an internal process to enable students at the University to provide feedback and recommendations on how the University can better assist students in determining eligibility for benefit programs and applying for assistance under benefit programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-1045, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-270)

Sec. 30-270 30-255. COVID-19 sick leave. For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person employed by the University on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Any sick leave used by an employee of the University during the 2021-2022 academic year shall be returned to an employee of the University who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 30-275 of this Law Act, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the employee was restricted from being on University property because the employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from the University; or

(D) was required by the University to be excluded from University property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

Leave shall be returned to an employee pursuant to this Section provided that the employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 30-275 of this Law Act no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The University may not rescind any sick leave returned to an employee of the University on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 30-275 of this Law Act, at the time the sick leave was returned to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-25-22.)

Section 365. The Western Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 35-250 as follows:

(110 ILCS 690/35-250)

Sec. 35-250. Benefits navigator.

(a) In this Section:

"Benefits navigator" means an individual who is designated by the University for the purpose of helping students at the University determine eligibility for benefit programs and identify campuswide and community resource support.

"Benefit program" means any federal, State, or local program that provides assistance or benefits to individuals on the basis of need.

(b) The University shall:

(1) designate a benefits navigator who has a detailed understanding of eligibility requirements for benefit programs and campuswide and community resource support;

(2) provide training for the benefits navigator; and

(3) participate in a statewide consortium with other public institutions of higher education, facilitated by the Board of Higher Education, for the purpose of facilitating communication between benefits navigators at different institutions and developing best practices for benefits navigators.

(c) The benefits navigator designated under this Section shall:

(1) assist students at the University in determining eligibility for benefit programs and identifying campuswide and community resource support;

(2) use the consortium under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section to coordinate with benefits navigators at other public institutions of higher education for the purpose of collecting data and developing best practices for helping students apply for and receive assistance from benefit programs; and

(3) coordinate and provide culturally specific resources, including resources for non-English speakers, to support students at the University.

(d) The University, in consultation with the benefits navigator designated under this Section, shall develop an internal process to enable students at the University to provide feedback and recommendations on how the University can better assist students in determining eligibility for benefit programs and applying for assistance under benefit programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-1045, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-265)

Sec. 35-265 35-250. COVID-19 sick leave. For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person employed by the University on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Any sick leave used by an employee of the University during the 2021-2022 academic year shall be returned to an employee of the University who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 35-270 of this Law Act, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the employee was restricted from being on University property because the employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from the University; or

(D) was required by the University to be excluded from University property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

Leave shall be returned to an employee pursuant to this Section provided that the employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 35-270 of this Law Act no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The University may not rescind any sick leave returned to an employee of the University on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 35-270 of this Law Act, at the time the sick leave was returned to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-25-22.)

Section 370. The Public Community College Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 3-29.20 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.20)

Sec. 3-29.20. Benefits navigator.

(a) In this Section:

"Benefits navigator" means an individual who is designated by a community college for the purpose of helping students at the community college determine eligibility for benefit programs and identify campuswide and community resource support.

"Benefit program" means any federal, State, or local program that provides assistance or benefits to individuals on the basis of need.

(b) A community college shall:

(1) designate a benefits navigator who has a detailed understanding of eligibility requirements for benefit programs and campuswide and community resource support;

(2) provide training for the benefits navigator; and

(3) participate in a statewide community college consortium, facilitated by the State Board, for the purpose of facilitating communication between benefits navigators at different institutions and developing best practices for benefits navigators.

(c) The benefits navigator designated under this Section shall:

(1) assist students at the community college in determining eligibility for benefit programs and identifying campuswide and community resource support;

(2) use the consortium under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section to coordinate with benefits navigators at other public institutions of higher education for the purpose of collecting data and developing best practices for helping students apply for and receive assistance from benefit programs; and

(3) coordinate and provide culturally specific resources, including resources for non-English speakers, to support students at the community college.

(d) The community college, in consultation with the benefits navigator designated under this Section, shall develop an internal process to enable students at the community college to provide feedback and recommendations on how the community college can better assist students in determining eligibility for benefit programs and applying for assistance under benefit programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-1045, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-29-22.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.23)

Sec. 3-29.23 3-29.20. COVID-19 sick leave. For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person employed by a community college or community college district on or after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Any sick leave used by an employee of a community college or community college district during the 2021-2022 academic year shall be returned to an employee of the community college or community college district who receives all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 3-29.25 of this Act, if:

(1) the sick leave was taken because the employee was restricted from being on community college district property because the employee:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from community college district property; or

(D) was required by the community college or community college district policy to be excluded from community college district property due to COVID-19 symptoms; or

(2) the sick leave was taken to care for a child of the employee who was unable to attend elementary or secondary school because the child:

(A) had a confirmed positive COVID-19 diagnosis via a molecular amplification diagnostic test, such as a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for COVID-19;

(B) had a probable COVID-19 diagnosis via an antigen diagnostic test;

(C) was in close contact with a person who had a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was required to be excluded from school; or

(D) was required by the school or school district policy to be excluded from school district property due to COVID-19 symptoms.

Leave shall be returned to an employee pursuant to this Section provided that the employee has received all required doses to meet the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" under Section 3-29.25 of this Act no later than 5 weeks after April 5, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-697) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The community college district may not rescind any sick leave returned to an employee of the community college or community college district on the basis of a revision to the definition of "fully vaccinated against COVID-19" by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Department of Public Health, provided that the employee received all doses required to be fully vaccinated against COVID-19, as defined in Section 3-29.25 of this Act, at the time the sick leave was returned to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; revised 8-25-22.)

Section 375. The Equity and Representation in Health Care Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(110 ILCS 932/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Accredited school" means a college or university in which a degree in allopathic medicine, osteopathic medicine, dentistry, physical therapy, or an equivalent credential for a health program is earned and for which the Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its affiliates has determined that the school meets specific standards for its programs, faculty, and curriculum.

"Advanced practice registered nurse" or "APRN" means an advanced practice registered nurse as defined under Section 50-10 of the Nurse Practice Act.

"Allopathic medicine" means the use of pharmacological agents or physical interventions to treat or suppress symptoms or processes of diseases or conditions.

"Applicant" means a health care professional or medical facility who applies for loan repayment assistance or scholarship funds under this Act.

"Approved graduate training" means training in medicine, dentistry, or any other health profession that leads to eligibility for board certification, provides evidence of completion, and is approved by the appropriate health care professional's body.

"Behavioral health provider" means a provider of a commonly recognized discipline in the behavioral health industry, including, but not limited to, licensed clinical social workers, behavioral health therapists, certified marriage and family counselors, licensed social workers, and addiction counselors.

"Breach of service obligation" means failure for any reason to begin or complete a contractual service commitment.

"Commercial loan" means a loan made by a bank, credit union, savings and loan association, insurance company, school, or other financial institution.

"Community health center" means a migrant health center, community health center, health care program for the homeless or for residents of public housing supported under Section 330 of the federal Public Health Service Act, or FQHC, including an FQHC Look-Alike, as designated by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, that operates at least one federally designated primary health care delivery site in Illinois.

"Default" means failure to meet a legal obligation or condition of a loan.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Dental assistant" means a person who serves as a member of a dental care team, working directly with a dentist to perform duties that include, but are not limited to, assisting with dental procedures, preparing patients for procedures, preparing examinations, and sterilizing equipment.

"Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Equity and Representation in Health Care Workforce Repayment Program" or "Repayment Program" means the Equity and Representation in Health Care Workforce Repayment Program created under subsection (a) of Section 15.

"Equity and Representation in Health Care Workforce Scholarship Program" or "Scholarship Program" means the Equity and Representation in Health Care Workforce Scholarship Program created under subsection (b) of Section 15.

"Federally Qualified Health Center" or "FQHC" means a health center funded under Section 330 of the federal Public Health Service Act.

"Federally Qualified Health Center Look-Alike" or "FQHC Look-Alike" means a health center that meets the requirements for receiving a grant under Section 330 of the federal Public Health Service Act but does not receive funding under that authority.

"Government loan" means a loan made by a federal, State, county, or city agency authorized to make the loan.

"Health care professional" means a physician, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, nurse, chiropractic physician, podiatric physician podiatrist, physical therapist, physical therapist assistant, occupational therapist, speech therapist, behavioral health provider, psychiatrist, psychologist, pharmacist, dentist, medical assistant, dental assistant, or dental hygienist.

"Health professional shortage area" or "HPSA" means a designation from the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services that indicates the shortage of primary medical care or dental or mental health providers. The designation may be geographic, such as a county or service area; demographic, such as low-income population; or institutional, such as a comprehensive health center, FQHC, or other public facility.

"Lender" means the commercial or government entity that makes a qualifying loan.

"Loan repayment award" or "award" means the amount of funding awarded to a recipient based upon his or her reasonable educational expenses, up to a maximum established by the program.

"Loan repayment agreement" or "agreement" means the written instrument defining a legal relationship entered into between the Department and a recipient.

"Medical assistant" means a person who serves as a member of a medical care team working directly with other providers to perform duties that include, but are not limited to, gathering patient information, taking vital signs, preparing patients for examinations, and assisting physicians during examinations.

"Medical facility" means a facility in which the delivery of health services is provided. A medical facility must be a nonprofit or public facility located in Illinois and includes the following:

(1) A Federally Qualified Health Center.

(2) An FQHC Look-Alike.

(3) A hospital system operated by a county with more than 3,000,000 residents.

"Medically underserved area" or "MUA" means an area designated by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services' Health Resources and Services Administration as having too few primary care providers, high infant mortality, high poverty, or a high elderly population.

"Nurse" means a person who is licensed as a licensed practical nurse or as a registered nurse under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Osteopathic medicine" means medical practice based upon the theory that diseases are due to loss of structural integrity, which can be restored by manipulation of the parts and supplemented by therapeutic measures.

"Physical therapist" means an individual licensed as a physical therapist under the Illinois Physical Therapy Act.

"Physical therapist assistant" means an individual licensed as a physical therapist assistant under the Illinois Physical Therapy Act.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Physician assistant" means an individual licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

"Primary care" means health care that encompasses prevention services, basic diagnostic and treatment services, and support services, including laboratory, radiology, transportation, and pharmacy services.

"Psychiatrist" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in Illinois under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 who has successfully completed an accredited residency program in psychiatry.

"Qualifying loan" means a government loan or commercial loan used for tuition and reasonable educational and living expenses related to undergraduate or graduate education that was obtained by the recipient prior to his or her application for loan repayment and that is contemporaneous with the education received.

"Reasonable educational expenses" means costs for education, exclusive of tuition. These costs include, but are not limited to, fees, books, supplies, clinical travel, educational equipment, materials, board certification, or licensing examinations. "Reasonable educational expenses" do not exceed the estimated standard budget for expenses for the degree program and for the years of enrollment.

"Reasonable living expenses" means room and board, transportation, and commuting costs associated with the applicant's attendance and participation in an educational and workforce training program. "Reasonable living expenses" do not exceed the estimated standard budget for the recipient's degree program and for the years of enrollment.

"Recognized training entity" means an entity approved by the Department to provide training and education for medical assistants and dental assistants.

"Recipient" means a health care professional or medical facility that may use loan repayment funds.

"Rural" has the same meaning that is used by the federal Health Resources and Services Administration to determine eligibility for Rural Health Grants.

"State" means the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 102-942, eff. 1-1-23; revised 2-5-23.)

Section 380. The Higher Education Student Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 52 as follows:

(110 ILCS 947/52)

Sec. 52. Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program; Golden Apple Foundation for Excellence in Teaching.

(a) In this Section, "Foundation" means the Golden Apple Foundation for Excellence in Teaching, a registered 501(c)(3) not-for-profit corporation.

(a-2) In order to encourage academically talented Illinois students, especially minority students, to pursue teaching careers, especially in teacher shortage disciplines (which shall be defined to include early childhood education) or at hard-to-staff schools (as defined by the Commission in consultation with the State Board of Education), to provide those students with the crucial mentoring, guidance, and in-service support that will significantly increase the likelihood that they will complete their full teaching commitments and elect to continue teaching in targeted disciplines and hard-to-staff schools, and to ensure that students in this State will continue to have access to a pool of highly-qualified teachers, each qualified student shall be awarded a Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program scholarship to any Illinois institution of higher learning. The Commission shall administer the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program, which shall be managed by the Foundation pursuant to the terms of a grant agreement meeting the requirements of Section 4 of the Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act.

(a-3) For purposes of this Section, a qualified student shall be a student who meets the following qualifications:

(1) is a resident of this State and a citizen or eligible noncitizen of the United States;

(2) is a high school graduate or a person who has received a State of Illinois High School Diploma;

(3) is enrolled or accepted, on at least a half-time basis, at an institution of higher learning;

(4) is pursuing a postsecondary course of study leading to initial certification or pursuing additional course work needed to gain State Board of Education approval to teach, including alternative teacher licensure; and

(5) is a participant in programs managed by and is approved to receive a scholarship from the Foundation.

(a-5) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) Funds designated for the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program shall be used by the Commission for the payment of scholarship assistance under this Section or for the award of grant funds, subject to the Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act, to the Foundation. Subject to appropriation, awards of grant funds to the Foundation shall be made on an annual basis and following an application for grant funds by the Foundation.

(b-10) Each year, the Foundation shall include in its application to the Commission for grant funds an estimate of the amount of scholarship assistance to be provided to qualified students during the grant period. Any amount of appropriated funds exceeding the estimated amount of scholarship assistance may be awarded by the Commission to the Foundation for management expenses expected to be incurred by the Foundation in providing the mentoring, guidance, and in-service supports that will increase the likelihood that qualified students will complete their teaching commitments and elect to continue teaching in hard-to-staff schools. If the estimate of the amount of scholarship assistance described in the Foundation's application is less than the actual amount required for the award of scholarship assistance to qualified students, the Foundation shall be responsible for using awarded grant funds to ensure all qualified students receive scholarship assistance under this Section.

(b-15) All grant funds not expended or legally obligated within the time specified in a grant agreement between the Foundation and the Commission shall be returned to the Commission within 45 days. Any funds legally obligated by the end of a grant agreement shall be liquidated within 45 days or otherwise returned to the Commission within 90 days after the end of the grant agreement that resulted in the award of grant funds.

(c) Each scholarship awarded under this Section shall be in an amount sufficient to pay the tuition and fees and room and board costs of the Illinois institution of higher learning at which the recipient is enrolled, up to an annual maximum of $5,000; except that, in the case of a recipient who does not reside on campus on-campus at the institution of higher learning at which he or she is enrolled, the amount of the scholarship shall be sufficient to pay tuition and fee expenses and a commuter allowance, up to an annual maximum of $5,000. All scholarship funds distributed in accordance with this Section shall be paid to the institution on behalf of recipients.

(d) The total amount of scholarship assistance awarded by the Commission under this Section to an individual in any given fiscal year, when added to other financial assistance awarded to that individual for that year, shall not exceed the cost of attendance at the institution of higher learning at which the student is enrolled. In any academic year for which a qualified student under this Section accepts financial assistance through any other teacher scholarship program administered by the Commission, a qualified student shall not be eligible for scholarship assistance awarded under this Section.

(e) A recipient may receive up to 8 semesters or 12 quarters of scholarship assistance under this Section. Scholarship funds are applicable toward 2 semesters or 3 quarters of enrollment each academic year.

(f) All applications for scholarship assistance to be awarded under this Section shall be made to the Foundation in a form determined by the Foundation. Each year, the Foundation shall notify the Commission of the individuals awarded scholarship assistance under this Section. Each year, at least 30% of the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program scholarships shall be awarded to students residing in counties having a population of less than 500,000.

(g) (Blank).

(h) The Commission shall administer the payment of scholarship assistance provided through the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program and shall make all necessary and proper rules not inconsistent with this Section for the effective implementation of this Section.

(i) Prior to receiving scholarship assistance for any academic year, each recipient of a scholarship awarded under this Section shall be required by the Foundation to sign an agreement under which the recipient pledges that, within the 2-year period following the termination of the academic program for which the recipient was awarded a scholarship, the recipient: (i) shall begin teaching for a period of not less than 5 years, (ii) shall fulfill this teaching obligation at a nonprofit Illinois public, private, or parochial preschool or an Illinois public elementary or secondary school that qualifies for teacher loan cancellation under Section 465(a)(2)(A) of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087ee(a)(2)(A)) or other Illinois schools deemed eligible for fulfilling the teaching commitment as designated by the Foundation, and (iii) shall, upon request of the Foundation, provide the Foundation with evidence that he or she is fulfilling or has fulfilled the terms of the teaching agreement provided for in this subsection. Upon request, the Foundation shall provide evidence of teacher fulfillment to the Commission.

(j) If a recipient of a scholarship awarded under this Section fails to fulfill the teaching obligation set forth in subsection (i) of this Section, the Commission shall require the recipient to repay the amount of the scholarships received, prorated according to the fraction of the teaching obligation not completed, plus interest at a rate of 5% and, if applicable, reasonable collection fees. Payments received by the Commission under this subsection (j) shall be remitted to the State Comptroller for deposit into the General Revenue Fund, except that that portion of a recipient's repayment that equals the amount in expenses that the Commission has reasonably incurred in attempting collection from that recipient shall be remitted to the State Comptroller for deposit into the ISAC Accounts Receivable Fund, a special fund in the State treasury.

(k) A recipient of a scholarship awarded by the Foundation under this Section shall not be considered to have failed to fulfill the teaching obligations of the agreement entered into pursuant to subsection (i) if the recipient (i) enrolls on a full-time basis as a graduate student in a course of study related to the field of teaching at an institution of higher learning; (ii) is serving as a member of the armed services of the United States; (iii) is a person with a temporary total disability, as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (iv) is seeking and unable to find full-time employment as a teacher at a school that satisfies the criteria set forth in subsection (i) and is able to provide evidence of that fact; (v) is taking additional courses, on at least a half-time basis, needed to obtain certification as a teacher in Illinois; (vi) is fulfilling teaching requirements associated with other programs administered by the Commission and cannot concurrently fulfill them under this Section in a period of time equal to the length of the teaching obligation; or (vii) is participating in a program established under Executive Order 10924 of the President of the United States or the federal National Community Service Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12501 et seq.). Any such extension of the period during which the teaching requirement must be fulfilled shall be subject to limitations of duration as established by the Commission.

(l) A recipient who fails to fulfill the teaching obligations of the agreement entered into pursuant to subsection (i) of this Section shall repay the amount of scholarship assistance awarded to them under this Section within 10 years.

(m) Annually, at a time determined by the Commission in consultation with the Foundation, the Foundation shall submit a report to assist the Commission in monitoring the Foundation's performance of grant activities. The report shall describe the following:

(1) the Foundation's anticipated expenditures for the next fiscal year;

(2) the number of qualified students receiving scholarship assistance at each institution of higher learning where a qualified student was enrolled under this Section during the previous fiscal year;

(3) the total monetary value of scholarship funds paid to each institution of higher learning at which a qualified student was enrolled during the previous fiscal year;

(4) the number of scholarship recipients who completed a baccalaureate degree during the previous fiscal year;

(5) the number of scholarship recipients who fulfilled their teaching obligation during the previous fiscal year;<