HB6793 93RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB093 15492 EFG 41096 b

93RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2003 and 2004
HB6793

Introduced 2/9/2004, by Rep. George Scully, Jr.

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Creates the First 2004 General Revisory Act. Combines multiple versions of Sections amended by more than one Public Act. Renumbers Sections of various Acts to eliminate duplication. Corrects obsolete cross-references and technical errors. Makes stylistic changes. Effective immediately.

PENSION IMPACT NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2004 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It consists of (i) combining revisories, which reconcile conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments, and (ii) technical revisories, which make technical corrections and revisions in the law. Some combining revisories also include technical revisions.

(c) The Source reference at the end of each included Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to reconcile the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 92-520 through 93-658 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. In combining revisories, underscoring is used to indicate material not included in any of the multiple amendments; it is not usually used to indicate material added by one Public Act but absent from another. Similarly, striking indicates material not stricken by any of the multiple amendments; material stricken in one Public Act but not in another is simply deleted. Many combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Sections 4.22, 4.23, and 4.24 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.22)

Sec. 4.22. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2012. The following Acts are Act is repealed on January 1, 2012:

The Detection of Deception Examiners Act.

The Home Inspector License Act.

The Interior Design Title Act.

The Massage Licensing Act.

The Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act.

The Professional Boxing Act.

The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002.

The Water Well and Pump Installation Contractor's License Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-104, eff. 7-20-01; 92-180, eff. 7-1-02; 92-239, eff. 8-3-01; 92-453, eff. 8-21-01; 92-499, eff. 1-1-02; 92-500, eff. 12-18-01; 92-618, eff. 7-11-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-860, eff. 6-1-03; revised 1-18-03.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.23)

Sec. 4.23. Acts and Sections Act Section repealed on January 1, 2013. The following Acts and Sections of Acts are Act Section is repealed on January 1, 2013:

The Dietetic and Nutrition Services Practice Act.

The Elevator Safety and Regulation Act.

The Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code.

The Naprapathic Practice Act.

The Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing Act.

The Wholesale Drug Distribution Licensing Act.

Section 2.5 of the Illinois Plumbing License Law.

(Source: P.A. 92-586, eff. 6-26-02; 92-641, eff. 7-11-02; 92-642, eff. 7-11-02; 92-655, eff. 7-16-02; 92-719, eff. 7-25-02; 92-778, eff. 8-6-02; 92-873, eff. 6-1-03; revised 1-18-03.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.24)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 4.24. Acts repealed on January 1, 2014. The following Acts are repealed on January 1, 2014:

The Electrologist Licensing Act.

The Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of 1984.

The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act.

The Illinois Public Accounting Act.

The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act.

The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004.

(Source: P.A. 92-457, eff. 8-21-01; 92-750, eff. 1-1-03; 93-280, eff. 7-1-04; 93-281, eff. 12-31-03; 93-438, eff. 8-5-03; 93-460, eff. 8-8-03; 93-461, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-23-03.)

Section 10. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Sections 1-5 and 1-20 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/1-5) (from Ch. 127, par. 1001-5)

Sec. 1-5. Applicability.

(a) This Act applies to every agency as defined in this Act. Beginning January 1, 1978, in case of conflict between the provisions of this Act and the Act creating or conferring power on an agency, this Act shall control. If, however, an agency (or its predecessor in the case of an agency that has been consolidated or reorganized) has existing procedures on July 1, 1977, specifically for contested cases or licensing, those existing provisions control, except that this exception respecting contested cases and licensing does not apply if the Act creating or conferring power on the agency adopts by express reference the provisions of this Act. Where the Act creating or conferring power on an agency establishes administrative procedures not covered by this Act, those procedures shall remain in effect.

(b) The provisions of this Act do not apply to (i) preliminary hearings, investigations, or practices where no final determinations affecting State funding are made by the State Board of Education, (ii) legal opinions issued under Section 2-3.7 of the School Code, (iii) as to State colleges and universities, their disciplinary and grievance proceedings, academic irregularity and capricious grading proceedings, and admission standards and procedures, and (iv) the class specifications for positions and individual position descriptions prepared and maintained under the Personnel Code. Those class specifications shall, however, be made reasonably available to the public for inspection and copying. The provisions of this Act do not apply to hearings under Section 20 of the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(c) Section 5-35 of this Act relating to procedures for rulemaking does not apply to the following:

(1) Rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board that, in accordance with Section 7.2 of the Environmental Protection Act, are identical in substance to federal regulations or amendments to those regulations implementing the following: Sections 3001, 3002, 3003, 3004, 3005, and 9003 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act; Section 105 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980; Sections 307(b), 307(c), 307(d), 402(b)(8), and 402(b)(9) of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act; and Sections 1412(b), 1414(c), 1417(a), 1421, and 1445(a) of the Safe Drinking Water Act.

(2) Rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board that establish or amend standards for the emission of hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide from gasoline powered motor vehicles subject to inspection under Section 13A-105 of the Vehicle Emissions Inspection Law and rules adopted under Section 13B-20 of the Vehicle Emissions Inspection Law of 1995.

(3) Procedural rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board governing requests for exceptions under Section 14.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(4) The Pollution Control Board's grant, pursuant to an adjudicatory determination, of an adjusted standard for persons who can justify an adjustment consistent with subsection (a) of Section 27 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(5) Rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board that are identical in substance to the regulations adopted by the Office of the State Fire Marshal under clause (ii) of paragraph (b) of subsection (3) of Section 2 of the Gasoline Storage Act.

(d) Pay rates established under Section 8a of the Personnel Code shall be amended or repealed pursuant to the process set forth in Section 5-50 within 30 days after it becomes necessary to do so due to a conflict between the rates and the terms of a collective bargaining agreement covering the compensation of an employee subject to that Code.

(e) Section 10-45 of this Act shall not apply to any hearing, proceeding, or investigation conducted under Section 13-515 of the Public Utilities Act.

(f) Article 10 of this Act does not apply to any hearing, proceeding, or investigation conducted by the State Council for the State of Illinois created under Section 3-3-11.05 of the Unified Code of Corrections or by the Interstate Commission Commision for Adult Offender Supervision created under the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision.

(Source: P.A. 92-571, eff. 6-26-02; revised 7-25-02.)

(5 ILCS 100/1-20) (from Ch. 127, par. 1001-20)

Sec. 1-20. "Agency" means each officer, board, commission, and agency created by the Constitution, whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of State government, but other than the circuit court; each officer, department, board, commission, agency, institution, authority, university, and body politic and corporate of the State; each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of the State government that is created by or pursuant to statute, other than units of local government and their officers, school districts, and boards of election commissioners; and each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of the above and as may be created by executive order of the Governor. "Agency", however, does not include the following:

(1) The House of Representatives and Senate and their respective standing and service committees, including without limitation the Board of the Office of the Architect of the Capitol and the Architect of the Capitol established under the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(2) The Governor.

(3) The justices and judges of the Supreme and Appellate Courts.

(4) The Legislative Ethics Commission.

(Source: P.A. 93-617, eff. 12-9-03; 93-632, eff. 2-1-04; revised 1-9-04.)

Section 15. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation, discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific employees of the public body or legal counsel for the public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee of the public body or against legal counsel for the public body to determine its validity.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public body and its employees or their representatives, or deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office, as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public office, when the public body is given power to appoint under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public body is given power to remove the occupant under law or ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided that the body prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should be acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or investment contracts.

(8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees, students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special education programs and other matters relating to individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or when the public body finds that an action is probable or imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of claims as provided in the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the disposition of a claim or potential claim might be prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications from or with respect to any insurer of the public body or any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool of which the public body is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing practices and creating a commission or administrative agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of a statewide association of which the public body is a member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or formal peer review of physicians or other health care professionals for a hospital, or other institution providing medical care, that is operated by the public body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters classified as confidential or continued confidential by the State Employees Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Residential Health Care Facility Resident Sexual Assault and Death Review Teams Executive Council under the Residential Health Care Facility Resident Sexual Assault and Death Review Team Act.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose relationship with the public body constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign power of this State. The term "public office" shall include members of the public body, but it shall not include organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make determinations based thereon, but does not include local electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of the nature of the matter being considered and other information that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 93-57, eff. 7-1-03; 93-79, eff. 7-2-03; 93-422, eff. 8-5-03; 93-577, eff. 8-21-03; revised 9-8-03)

Section 20. The Illinois Public Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(5 ILCS 315/9) (from Ch. 48, par. 1609)

Sec. 9. Elections; recognition.

(a) Whenever in accordance with such regulations as may be prescribed by the Board a petition has been filed:

(1) by a public employee or group of public employees or any labor organization acting in their behalf demonstrating that 30% of the public employees in an appropriate unit (A) wish to be represented for the purposes of collective bargaining by a labor organization as exclusive representative, or (B) asserting that the labor organization which has been certified or is currently recognized by the public employer as bargaining representative is no longer the representative of the majority of public employees in the unit; or

(2) by a public employer alleging that one or more labor organizations have presented to it a claim that they be recognized as the representative of a majority of the public employees in an appropriate unit,

the Board shall investigate such petition, and if it has reasonable cause to believe that a question of representation exists, shall provide for an appropriate hearing upon due notice. Such hearing shall be held at the offices of the Board or such other location as the Board deems appropriate. If it finds upon the record of the hearing that a question of representation exists, it shall direct an election in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section, which election shall be held not later than 120 days after the date the petition was filed regardless of whether that petition was filed before or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1987; provided, however, the Board may extend the time for holding an election by an additional 60 days if, upon motion by a person who has filed a petition under this Section or is the subject of a petition filed under this Section and is a party to such hearing, or upon the Board's own motion, the Board finds that good cause has been shown for extending the election date; provided further, that nothing in this Section shall prohibit the Board, in its discretion, from extending the time for holding an election for so long as may be necessary under the circumstances, where the purpose for such extension is to permit resolution by the Board of an unfair labor practice charge filed by one of the parties to a representational proceeding against the other based upon conduct which may either affect the existence of a question concerning representation or have a tendency to interfere with a fair and free election, where the party filing the charge has not filed a request to proceed with the election; and provided further that prior to the expiration of the total time allotted for holding an election, a person who has filed a petition under this Section or is the subject of a petition filed under this Section and is a party to such hearing or the Board, may move for and obtain the entry of an order in the circuit court of the county in which the majority of the public employees sought to be represented by such person reside, such order extending the date upon which the election shall be held. Such order shall be issued by the circuit court only upon a judicial finding that there has been a sufficient showing that there is good cause to extend the election date beyond such period and shall require the Board to hold the election as soon as is feasible given the totality of the circumstances. Such 120 day period may be extended one or more times by the agreement of all parties to the hearing to a date certain without the necessity of obtaining a court order. Nothing in this Section prohibits the waiving of hearings by stipulation for the purpose of a consent election in conformity with the rules and regulations of the Board or an election in a unit agreed upon by the parties. Other interested employee organizations may intervene in the proceedings in the manner and within the time period specified by rules and regulations of the Board. Interested parties who are necessary to the proceedings may also intervene in the proceedings in the manner and within the time period specified by the rules and regulations of the Board.

(a-5) The Board shall designate an exclusive representative for purposes of collective bargaining when the representative demonstrates a showing of majority interest by employees in the unit. If the parties to a dispute are without agreement on the means to ascertain the choice, if any, of employee organization as their representative, the Board shall ascertain the employees' choice of employee organization, on the basis of dues deduction authorization and other evidence, or, if necessary, by conducting an election. If either party provides to the Board, before the designation of a representative, clear and convincing evidence that the dues deduction authorizations, and other evidence upon which the Board would otherwise rely to ascertain the employees' choice of representative, are fraudulent or were obtained through coercion, the Board shall promptly thereafter conduct an election. The Board shall also investigate and consider a party's allegations that the dues deduction authorizations and other evidence submitted in support of a designation of representative without an election were subsequently changed, altered, withdrawn, or withheld as a result of employer fraud, coercion, or any other unfair labor practice by the employer. If the Board determines that a labor organization would have had a majority interest but for an employer's fraud, coercion, or unfair labor practice, it shall designate the labor organization as an exclusive representative without conducting an election.

(b) The Board shall decide in each case, in order to assure public employees the fullest freedom in exercising the rights guaranteed by this Act, a unit appropriate for the purpose of collective bargaining, based upon but not limited to such factors as: historical pattern of recognition; community of interest including employee skills and functions; degree of functional integration; interchangeability and contact among employees; fragmentation of employee groups; common supervision, wages, hours and other working conditions of the employees involved; and the desires of the employees. For purposes of this subsection, fragmentation shall not be the sole or predominant factor used by the Board in determining an appropriate bargaining unit. Except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers and peace officers in the State Department of State Police, a single bargaining unit determined by the Board may not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, except for bargaining units in existence on the effective date of this Act. With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers and peace officers in the State Department of State Police, a single bargaining unit determined by the Board may not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, except for bargaining units in existence on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985.

In cases involving an historical pattern of recognition, and in cases where the employer has recognized the union as the sole and exclusive bargaining agent for a specified existing unit, the Board shall find the employees in the unit then represented by the union pursuant to the recognition to be the appropriate unit.

Notwithstanding the above factors, where the majority of public employees of a craft so decide, the Board shall designate such craft as a unit appropriate for the purposes of collective bargaining.

The Board shall not decide that any unit is appropriate if such unit includes both professional and nonprofessional employees, unless a majority of each group votes for inclusion in such unit.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall interfere with or negate the current representation rights or patterns and practices of labor organizations which have historically represented public employees for the purpose of collective bargaining, including but not limited to the negotiations of wages, hours and working conditions, discussions of employees' grievances, resolution of jurisdictional disputes, or the establishment and maintenance of prevailing wage rates, unless a majority of employees so represented express a contrary desire pursuant to the procedures set forth in this Act.

(d) In instances where the employer does not voluntarily recognize a labor organization as the exclusive bargaining representative for a unit of employees, the Board shall determine the majority representative of the public employees in an appropriate collective bargaining unit by conducting a secret ballot election, except as otherwise provided in subsection (a-5). Within 7 days after the Board issues its bargaining unit determination and direction of election or the execution of a stipulation for the purpose of a consent election, the public employer shall submit to the labor organization the complete names and addresses of those employees who are determined by the Board to be eligible to participate in the election. When the Board has determined that a labor organization has been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in an appropriate unit, it shall certify such organization as the exclusive representative. If the Board determines that a majority of employees in an appropriate unit has fairly and freely chosen not to be represented by a labor organization, it shall so certify. The Board may also revoke the certification of the public employee organizations as exclusive bargaining representatives which have been found by a secret ballot election to be no longer the majority representative.

(e) The Board shall not conduct an election in any bargaining unit or any subdivision thereof within which a valid election has been held in the preceding 12-month period. The Board shall determine who is eligible to vote in an election and shall establish rules governing the conduct of the election or conduct affecting the results of the election. The Board shall include on a ballot in a representation election a choice of "no representation". A labor organization currently representing the bargaining unit of employees shall be placed on the ballot in any representation election. In any election where none of the choices on the ballot receives a majority, a runoff election shall be conducted between the 2 choices receiving the largest number of valid votes cast in the election. A labor organization which receives a majority of the votes cast in an election shall be certified by the Board as exclusive representative of all public employees in the unit.

(f) A labor organization shall be designated as the exclusive representative by a public employer, provided that the labor organization represents a majority of the public employees in an appropriate unit. Any employee organization which is designated or selected by the majority of public employees, in a unit of the public employer having no other recognized or certified representative, as their representative for purposes of collective bargaining may request recognition by the public employer in writing. The public employer shall post such request for a period of at least 20 days following its receipt thereof on bulletin boards or other places used or reserved for employee notices.

(g) Within the 20-day period any other interested employee organization may petition the Board in the manner specified by rules and regulations of the Board, provided that such interested employee organization has been designated by at least 10% of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit which includes all or some of the employees in the unit recognized by the employer. In such event, the Board shall proceed with the petition in the same manner as provided by paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(h) No election shall be directed by the Board in any bargaining unit where there is in force a valid collective bargaining agreement. The Board, however, may process an election petition filed between 90 and 60 days prior to the expiration of the date of an agreement, and may further refine, by rule or decision, the implementation of this provision. Where more than 4 years have elapsed since the effective date of the agreement, the agreement shall continue to bar an election, except that the Board may process an election petition filed between 90 and 60 days prior to the end of the fifth year of such an agreement, and between 90 and 60 days prior to the end of each successive year of such agreement.

(i) An order of the Board dismissing a representation petition, determining and certifying that a labor organization has been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in an appropriate bargaining unit, determining and certifying that a labor organization has not been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in the bargaining unit or certifying a labor organization as the exclusive representative of employees in an appropriate bargaining unit because of a determination by the Board that the labor organization is the historical bargaining representative of employees in the bargaining unit, is a final order. Any person aggrieved by any such order issued on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1987 may apply for and obtain judicial review in accordance with provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, except that such review shall be afforded directly in the Appellate Court for the district in which the aggrieved party resides or transacts business. Any direct appeal to the Appellate Court shall be filed within 35 days from the date that a copy of the decision sought to be reviewed was served upon the party affected by the decision.

(Source: P.A. 93-427, eff. 8-5-03; 93-444, eff. 8-5-03; revised 9-10-03.)

Section 25. The Military Leave of Absence Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 1.1 as follows:

(5 ILCS 325/1) (from Ch. 129, par. 501)

Sec. 1. Leave of absence.

(a) Any full-time employee of the State of Illinois, a unit of local government, or a school district, other than an independent contractor, who is a member of any reserve component of the United States Armed Forces or of any reserve component of the Illinois State Militia, shall be granted leave from his or her public employment for any period actively spent in military service, including:

(1) basic training;

(2) special or advanced training, whether or not within the State, and whether or not voluntary; and

(3) annual training.

During these leaves, the employee's seniority and other benefits shall continue to accrue.

During leaves for annual training, the employee shall continue to receive his or her regular compensation as a public employee. During leaves for basic training and up to 60 days of special or advanced training, if the employee's compensation for military activities is less than his or her compensation as a public employee, he or she shall receive his or her regular compensation as a public employee minus the amount of his or her base pay for military activities.

(b) Any full-time employee of the State of Illinois, other than an independent contractor, who is a member of the Illinois National Guard or a reserve component of the United States Armed Forces or the Illinois State Militia and who is mobilized to active duty shall continue during the period of active duty to receive his or her benefits and regular compensation as a State employee, minus an amount equal to his or her military active duty base pay. The Department of Central Management Services and the State Comptroller shall coordinate in the development of procedures for the implementation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-409, eff. 8-4-03; 93-537, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-11-03.)

(5 ILCS 325/1.1)

Sec. 1.1. Home rule. A home rule unit may not regulate its employees in a manner that is inconsistent with this Act. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6, of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 93-409, eff. 8-4-03; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 30. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/6.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2004)

Sec. 6.5. Health benefits for TRS benefit recipients and TRS dependent beneficiaries.

(a) Purpose. It is the purpose of this amendatory Act of 1995 to transfer the administration of the program of health benefits established for benefit recipients and their dependent beneficiaries under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code to the Department of Central Management Services.

(b) Transition provisions. The Board of Trustees of the Teachers' Retirement System shall continue to administer the health benefit program established under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code through December 31, 1995. Beginning January 1, 1996, the Department of Central Management Services shall be responsible for administering a program of health benefits for TRS benefit recipients and TRS dependent beneficiaries under this Section. The Department of Central Management Services and the Teachers' Retirement System shall cooperate in this endeavor and shall coordinate their activities so as to ensure a smooth transition and uninterrupted health benefit coverage.

(c) Eligibility. All persons who were enrolled in the Article 16 program at the time of the transfer shall be eligible to participate in the program established under this Section without any interruption or delay in coverage or limitation as to pre-existing medical conditions. Eligibility to participate shall be determined by the Teachers' Retirement System. Eligibility information shall be communicated to the Department of Central Management Services in a format acceptable to the Department.

A TRS dependent beneficiary who is an unmarried child age 19 or over and mentally or physically handicapped does not become ineligible to participate by reason of (i) becoming ineligible to be claimed as a dependent for Illinois or federal income tax purposes or (ii) receiving earned income, so long as those earnings are insufficient for the child to be fully self-sufficient.

(d) Coverage. The level of health benefits provided under this Section shall be similar to the level of benefits provided by the program previously established under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

Group life insurance benefits are not included in the benefits to be provided to TRS benefit recipients and TRS dependent beneficiaries under this Act.

The program of health benefits under this Section may include any or all of the benefit limitations, including but not limited to a reduction in benefits based on eligibility for federal medicare benefits, that are provided under subsection (a) of Section 6 of this Act for other health benefit programs under this Act.

(e) Insurance rates and premiums. The Director shall determine the insurance rates and premiums for TRS benefit recipients and TRS dependent beneficiaries, and shall present to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, by April 15 of each calendar year, the rate-setting methodology (including but not limited to utilization levels and costs) used to determine the amount of the health care premiums.

For Fiscal Year 1996, the premium shall be equal to the premium actually charged in Fiscal Year 1995; in subsequent years, the premium shall never be lower than the premium charged in Fiscal Year 1995. For Fiscal Year 2003, the premium shall not exceed 110% of the premium actually charged in Fiscal Year 2002. For Fiscal Year 2004, the premium shall not exceed 112% of the premium actually charged in Fiscal Year 2003.

Rates and premiums may be based in part on age and eligibility for federal medicare coverage. However, the cost of participation for a TRS dependent beneficiary who is an unmarried child age 19 or over and mentally or physically handicapped shall not exceed the cost for a TRS dependent beneficiary who is an unmarried child under age 19 and participates in the same major medical or managed care program.

The cost of health benefits under the program shall be paid as follows:

(1) For a TRS benefit recipient selecting a managed care program, up to 75% of the total insurance rate shall be paid from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund.

(2) For a TRS benefit recipient selecting the major medical coverage program, up to 50% of the total insurance rate shall be paid from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund if a managed care program is accessible, as determined by the Teachers' Retirement System.

(3) For a TRS benefit recipient selecting the major medical coverage program, up to 75% of the total insurance rate shall be paid from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund if a managed care program is not accessible, as determined by the Teachers' Retirement System.

(4) The balance of the rate of insurance, including the entire premium of any coverage for TRS dependent beneficiaries that has been elected, shall be paid by deductions authorized by the TRS benefit recipient to be withheld from his or her monthly annuity or benefit payment from the Teachers' Retirement System; except that (i) if the balance of the cost of coverage exceeds the amount of the monthly annuity or benefit payment, the difference shall be paid directly to the Teachers' Retirement System by the TRS benefit recipient, and (ii) all or part of the balance of the cost of coverage may, at the school board's option, be paid to the Teachers' Retirement System by the school board of the school district from which the TRS benefit recipient retired, in accordance with Section 10-22.3b of the School Code. The Teachers' Retirement System shall promptly deposit all moneys withheld by or paid to it under this subdivision (e)(4) into the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund. These moneys shall not be considered assets of the Retirement System.

(f) Financing. Beginning July 1, 1995, all revenues arising from the administration of the health benefit programs established under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code or this Section shall be deposited into the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund, which is hereby created as a nonappropriated trust fund to be held outside the State Treasury, with the State Treasurer as custodian. Any interest earned on moneys in the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund shall be deposited into the Fund.

Moneys in the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund shall be used only to pay the costs of the health benefit program established under this Section, including associated administrative costs, and the costs associated with the health benefit program established under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code, as authorized in this Section. Beginning July 1, 1995, the Department of Central Management Services may make expenditures from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund for those costs.

After other funds authorized for the payment of the costs of the health benefit program established under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code are exhausted and until January 1, 1996 (or such later date as may be agreed upon by the Director of Central Management Services and the Secretary of the Teachers' Retirement System), the Secretary of the Teachers' Retirement System may make expenditures from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund as necessary to pay up to 75% of the cost of providing health coverage to eligible benefit recipients (as defined in Sections 16-153.1 and 16-153.3 of the Illinois Pension Code) who are enrolled in the Article 16 health benefit program and to facilitate the transfer of administration of the health benefit program to the Department of Central Management Services.

(g) Contract for benefits. The Director shall by contract, self-insurance, or otherwise make available the program of health benefits for TRS benefit recipients and their TRS dependent beneficiaries that is provided for in this Section. The contract or other arrangement for the provision of these health benefits shall be on terms deemed by the Director to be in the best interest of the State of Illinois and the TRS benefit recipients based on, but not limited to, such criteria as administrative cost, service capabilities of the carrier or other contractor, and the costs of the benefits.

(h) Continuation and termination of program. It is the intention of the General Assembly that the program of health benefits provided under this Section be maintained on an ongoing, affordable basis through June 30, 2004. The program of health benefits provided under this Section is terminated on July 1, 2004.

The program of health benefits provided under this Section may be amended by the State and is not intended to be a pension or retirement benefit subject to protection under Article XIII, Section 5 of the Illinois Constitution.

(i) Repeal. This Section is repealed on July 1, 2004.

(Source: P.A. 92-505, eff. 12-20-01; 92-862, eff. 1-3-03; revised 1-10-03.)

Section 35. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 7-7, 7-8, 9-1.14, 9-10, and 24B-9.1 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/7-7) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-7)

Sec. 7-7. For the purpose of making nominations in certain instances as provided in this Article and this Act, the following committees are authorized and shall constitute the central or managing committees of each political party, viz: A State central committee, a congressional committee for each congressional district, a county central committee for each county, a municipal central committee for each city, incorporated town or village, a ward committeeman for each ward in cities containing a population of 500,000 or more; a township committeeman for each township or part of a township that lies outside of cities having a population of 200,000 or more, in counties having a population of 2,000,000 or more; a precinct committeeman for each precinct in counties having a population of less than 2,000,000; a county board district committee for each county board district created under Division 2-3 of the Counties Code; a State's Attorney committee for each group of 2 or more counties which jointly elect a State's Attorney; a Superintendent of Multi-County Educational Service Region committee for each group of 2 or more counties which jointly elect a Superintendent of a Multi-County Educational Service Region; a judicial subcircuit committee in a judicial circuit divided into subcircuits for each judicial subcircuit in that circuit; and a board of review election district committee for each Cook County Board of Review election district.

(Source: P.A. 93-541, eff. 8-18-03; 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; revised 9-22-03.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-8) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-8)

Sec. 7-8. The State central committee shall be composed of one or two members from each congressional district in the State and shall be elected as follows:

State Central Committee

(a) Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1983 the State central committee of each political party shall certify to the State Board of Elections which of the following alternatives it wishes to apply to the State central committee of that party.

Alternative A. At the primary held on the third Tuesday in March 1970, and at the primary held every 4 years thereafter, each primary elector may vote for one candidate of his party for member of the State central committee for the congressional district in which he resides. The candidate receiving the highest number of votes shall be declared elected State central committeeman from the district. A political party may, in lieu of the foregoing, by a majority vote of delegates at any State convention of such party, determine to thereafter elect the State central committeemen in the manner following:

At the county convention held by such political party State central committeemen shall be elected in the same manner as provided in this Article for the election of officers of the county central committee, and such election shall follow the election of officers of the county central committee. Each elected ward, township or precinct committeeman shall cast as his vote one vote for each ballot voted in his ward, township, part of a township or precinct in the last preceding primary election of his political party. In the case of a county lying partially within one congressional district and partially within another congressional district, each ward, township or precinct committeeman shall vote only with respect to the congressional district in which his ward, township, part of a township or precinct is located. In the case of a congressional district which encompasses more than one county, each ward, township or precinct committeeman residing within the congressional district shall cast as his vote one vote for each ballot voted in his ward, township, part of a township or precinct in the last preceding primary election of his political party for one candidate of his party for member of the State central committee for the congressional district in which he resides and the Chairman of the county central committee shall report the results of the election to the State Board of Elections. The State Board of Elections shall certify the candidate receiving the highest number of votes elected State central committeeman for that congressional district.

The State central committee shall adopt rules to provide for and govern the procedures to be followed in the election of members of the State central committee.

After the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, whenever a vacancy occurs in the office of Chairman of a State central committee, or at the end of the term of office of Chairman, the State central committee of each political party that has selected Alternative A shall elect a Chairman who shall not be required to be a member of the State Central Committee. The Chairman shall be a registered voter in this State and of the same political party as the State central committee.

Alternative B. Each congressional committee shall, within 30 days after the adoption of this alternative, appoint a person of the sex opposite that of the incumbent member for that congressional district to serve as an additional member of the State central committee until his or her successor is elected at the general primary election in 1986. Each congressional committee shall make this appointment by voting on the basis set forth in paragraph (e) of this Section. In each congressional district at the general primary election held in 1986 and every 4 years thereafter, the male candidate receiving the highest number of votes of the party's male candidates for State central committeeman, and the female candidate receiving the highest number of votes of the party's female candidates for State central committeewoman, shall be declared elected State central committeeman and State central committeewoman from the district. At the general primary election held in 1986 and every 4 years thereafter, if all a party's candidates for State central committeemen or State central committeewomen from a congressional district are of the same sex, the candidate receiving the highest number of votes shall be declared elected a State central committeeman or State central committeewoman from the district, and, because of a failure to elect one male and one female to the committee, a vacancy shall be declared to exist in the office of the second member of the State central committee from the district. This vacancy shall be filled by appointment by the congressional committee of the political party, and the person appointed to fill the vacancy shall be a resident of the congressional district and of the sex opposite that of the committeeman or committeewoman elected at the general primary election. Each congressional committee shall make this appointment by voting on the basis set forth in paragraph (e) of this Section.

The Chairman of a State central committee composed as provided in this Alternative B must be selected from the committee's members.

Except as provided for in Alternative A with respect to the selection of the Chairman of the State central committee, under both of the foregoing alternatives, the State central committee of each political party shall be composed of members elected or appointed from the several congressional districts of the State, and of no other person or persons whomsoever. The members of the State central committee shall, within 30 days after each quadrennial election of the full committee, meet in the city of Springfield and organize by electing a chairman, and may at such time elect such officers from among their own number (or otherwise), as they may deem necessary or expedient. The outgoing chairman of the State central committee of the party shall, 10 days before the meeting, notify each member of the State central committee elected at the primary of the time and place of such meeting. In the organization and proceedings of the State central committee, each State central committeeman and State central committeewoman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his or her congressional district by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the State central committee. Whenever a vacancy occurs in the State central committee of any political party, the vacancy shall be filled by appointment of the chairmen of the county central committees of the political party of the counties located within the congressional district in which the vacancy occurs and, if applicable, the ward and township committeemen of the political party in counties of 2,000,000 or more inhabitants located within the congressional district. If the congressional district in which the vacancy occurs lies wholly within a county of 2,000,000 or more inhabitants, the ward and township committeemen of the political party in that congressional district shall vote to fill the vacancy. In voting to fill the vacancy, each chairman of a county central committee and each ward and township committeeman in counties of 2,000,000 or more inhabitants shall have one vote for each ballot voted in each precinct of the congressional district in which the vacancy exists of his or her county, township, or ward cast by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting to fill the vacancy in the State central committee. The person appointed to fill the vacancy shall be a resident of the congressional district in which the vacancy occurs, shall be a qualified voter, and, in a committee composed as provided in Alternative B, shall be of the same sex as his or her predecessor. A political party may, by a majority vote of the delegates of any State convention of such party, determine to return to the election of State central committeeman and State central committeewoman by the vote of primary electors. Any action taken by a political party at a State convention in accordance with this Section shall be reported to the State Board of Elections by the chairman and secretary of such convention within 10 days after such action.

Ward, Township and Precinct Committeemen

(b) At the primary held on the third Tuesday in March, 1972, and every 4 years thereafter, each primary elector in cities having a population of 200,000 or over may vote for one candidate of his party in his ward for ward committeeman. Each candidate for ward committeeman must be a resident of and in the ward where he seeks to be elected ward committeeman. The one having the highest number of votes shall be such ward committeeman of such party for such ward. At the primary election held on the third Tuesday in March, 1970, and every 4 years thereafter, each primary elector in counties containing a population of 2,000,000 or more, outside of cities containing a population of 200,000 or more, may vote for one candidate of his party for township committeeman. Each candidate for township committeeman must be a resident of and in the township or part of a township (which lies outside of a city having a population of 200,000 or more, in counties containing a population of 2,000,000 or more), and in which township or part of a township he seeks to be elected township committeeman. The one having the highest number of votes shall be such township committeeman of such party for such township or part of a township. At the primary held on the third Tuesday in March, 1970 and every 2 years thereafter, each primary elector, except in counties having a population of 2,000,000 or over, may vote for one candidate of his party in his precinct for precinct committeeman. Each candidate for precinct committeeman must be a bona fide resident of the precinct where he seeks to be elected precinct committeeman. The one having the highest number of votes shall be such precinct committeeman of such party for such precinct. The official returns of the primary shall show the name of the committeeman of each political party.

Terms of Committeemen. All precinct committeemen elected under the provisions of this Article shall continue as such committeemen until the date of the primary to be held in the second year after their election. Except as otherwise provided in this Section for certain State central committeemen who have 2 year terms, all State central committeemen, township committeemen and ward committeemen shall continue as such committeemen until the date of primary to be held in the fourth year after their election. However, a vacancy exists in the office of precinct committeeman when a precinct committeeman ceases to reside in the precinct in which he was elected and such precinct committeeman shall thereafter neither have nor exercise any rights, powers or duties as committeeman in that precinct, even if a successor has not been elected or appointed.

(c) The Multi-Township Central Committee shall consist of the precinct committeemen of such party, in the multi-township assessing district formed pursuant to Section 2-10 of the Property Tax Code and shall be organized for the purposes set forth in Section 45-25 of the Township Code. In the organization and proceedings of the Multi-Township Central Committee each precinct committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his precinct by the primary electors of his party at the primary at which he was elected.

County Central Committee

(d) The county central committee of each political party in each county shall consist of the various township committeemen, precinct committeemen and ward committeemen, if any, of such party in the county. In the organization and proceedings of the county central committee, each precinct committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his precinct by the primary electors of his party at the primary at which he was elected; each township committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his township or part of a township as the case may be by the primary electors of his party at the primary election for the nomination of candidates for election to the General Assembly immediately preceding the meeting of the county central committee; and in the organization and proceedings of the county central committee, each ward committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his ward by the primary electors of his party at the primary election for the nomination of candidates for election to the General Assembly immediately preceding the meeting of the county central committee.

Cook County Board of Review Election District Committee

(d-1) Each board of review election district committee of each political party in Cook County shall consist of the various township committeemen and ward committeemen, if any, of that party in the portions of the county composing the board of review election district. In the organization and proceedings of each of the 3 election district committees, each township committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his or her township or part of a township, as the case may be, by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the board of review election district committee; and in the organization and proceedings of each of the 3 election district committees, each ward committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his or her ward or part of that ward, as the case may be, by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the board of review election district committee.

Congressional Committee

(e) The congressional committee of each party in each congressional district shall be composed of the chairmen of the county central committees of the counties composing the congressional district, except that in congressional districts wholly within the territorial limits of one county, or partly within 2 or more counties, but not coterminous with the county lines of all of such counties, the precinct committeemen, township committeemen and ward committeemen, if any, of the party representing the precincts within the limits of the congressional district, shall compose the congressional committee. A State central committeeman in each district shall be a member and the chairman or, when a district has 2 State central committeemen, a co-chairman of the congressional committee, but shall not have the right to vote except in case of a tie.

In the organization and proceedings of congressional committees composed of precinct committeemen or township committeemen or ward committeemen, or any combination thereof, each precinct committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his precinct by the primary electors of his party at the primary at which he was elected, each township committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his township or part of a township as the case may be by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the congressional committee, and each ward committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in each precinct of his ward located in such congressional district by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the congressional committee; and in the organization and proceedings of congressional committees composed of the chairmen of the county central committees of the counties within such district, each chairman of such county central committee shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his county by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the congressional committee.

Judicial District Committee

(f) The judicial district committee of each political party in each judicial district shall be composed of the chairman of the county central committees of the counties composing the judicial district.

In the organization and proceedings of judicial district committees composed of the chairmen of the county central committees of the counties within such district, each chairman of such county central committee shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his county by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the judicial district committee.

Circuit Court Committee

(g) The circuit court committee of each political party in each judicial circuit outside Cook County shall be composed of the chairmen of the county central committees of the counties composing the judicial circuit.

In the organization and proceedings of circuit court committees, each chairman of a county central committee shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his county by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the circuit court committee.

Judicial Subcircuit Committee

(g-1) The judicial subcircuit committee of each political party in each judicial subcircuit in a judicial circuit divided into subcircuits shall be composed of (i) the ward and township committeemen of the townships and wards composing the judicial subcircuit in Cook County and (ii) the precinct committeemen of the precincts composing the judicial subcircuit in any county other than Cook County.

In the organization and proceedings of each judicial subcircuit committee, each township committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his township or part of a township, as the case may be, in the judicial subcircuit by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the judicial subcircuit committee; each precinct committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his precinct or part of a precinct, as the case may be, in the judicial subcircuit by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the judicial subcircuit committee; and each ward committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his ward or part of a ward, as the case may be, in the judicial subcircuit by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the judicial subcircuit committee.

Municipal Central Committee

(h) The municipal central committee of each political party shall be composed of the precinct, township or ward committeemen, as the case may be, of such party representing the precincts or wards, embraced in such city, incorporated town or village. The voting strength of each precinct, township or ward committeeman on the municipal central committee shall be the same as his voting strength on the county central committee.

For political parties, other than a statewide political party, established only within a municipality or township, the municipal or township managing committee shall be composed of the party officers of the local established party. The party officers of a local established party shall be as follows: the chairman and secretary of the caucus for those municipalities and townships authorized by statute to nominate candidates by caucus shall serve as party officers for the purpose of filling vacancies in nomination under Section 7-61; for municipalities and townships authorized by statute or ordinance to nominate candidates by petition and primary election, the party officers shall be the party's candidates who are nominated at the primary. If no party primary was held because of the provisions of Section 7-5, vacancies in nomination shall be filled by the party's remaining candidates who shall serve as the party's officers.

Powers

(i) Each committee and its officers shall have the powers usually exercised by such committees and by the officers thereof, not inconsistent with the provisions of this Article. The several committees herein provided for shall not have power to delegate any of their powers, or functions to any other person, officer or committee, but this shall not be construed to prevent a committee from appointing from its own membership proper and necessary subcommittees.

(j) The State central committee of a political party which elects it members by Alternative B under paragraph (a) of this Section shall adopt a plan to give effect to the delegate selection rules of the national political party and file a copy of such plan with the State Board of Elections when approved by a national political party.

(k) For the purpose of the designation of a proxy by a Congressional Committee to vote in place of an absent State central committeeman or committeewoman at meetings of the State central committee of a political party which elects its members by Alternative B under paragraph (a) of this Section, the proxy shall be appointed by the vote of the ward and township committeemen, if any, of the wards and townships which lie entirely or partially within the Congressional District from which the absent State central committeeman or committeewoman was elected and the vote of the chairmen of the county central committees of those counties which lie entirely or partially within that Congressional District and in which there are no ward or township committeemen. When voting for such proxy the county chairman, ward committeeman or township committeeman, as the case may be shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his county, ward or township, or portion thereof within the Congressional District, by the primary electors of his party at the primary at which he was elected. However, the absent State central committeeman or committeewoman may designate a proxy when permitted by the rules of a political party which elects its members by Alternative B under paragraph (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-541, eff. 8-18-03; 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; revised 9-22-03.)

(10 ILCS 5/9-1.14)

Sec. 9-1.14. Electioneering communication defined.

(a) "Electioneering communication" means, for the purposes of this Article, any form of communication, in whatever medium, including but not limited to a , newspaper, radio, television, or Internet communication and newspaper communications, that refers to a clearly identified candidate, candidates, or political party and is made within (i) 60 days before a general election for the office sought by the candidate or (ii) 30 days before a general primary election for the office sought by the candidate.

(b) "Electioneering communication" does not include:

(1) A communication, other than an advertisement advertisements, appearing in a news story, commentary, or editorial distributed through the facilities of any legitimate news organization, unless the facilities are owned or controlled by any political party, political committee, or candidate.

(2) A communication made solely to promote a candidate debate or forum that is made by or on behalf of the person sponsoring the debate or forum.

(3) A communication made as part of a non-partisan activity designed to encourage individuals to vote or to register to vote.

(4) A communication by an organization operating and remaining in good standing under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; 93-615, eff. 11-19-03; revised 1-5-04.)

(10 ILCS 5/9-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 9-10)

Sec. 9-10. Financial reports.

(a) The treasurer of every state political committee and the treasurer of every local political committee shall file with the Board, and the treasurer of every local political committee shall file with the county clerk, reports of campaign contributions, and semi-annual reports of campaign contributions and expenditures on forms to be prescribed or approved by the Board. The treasurer of every political committee that acts as both a state political committee and a local political committee shall file a copy of each report with the State Board of Elections and the county clerk. Entities subject to Section 9-7.5 shall file reports required by that Section at times provided in this Section and are subject to the penalties provided in this Section.

(b) Reports of campaign contributions shall be filed no later than the 15th day next preceding each election including a primary election in connection with which the political committee has accepted or is accepting contributions or has made or is making expenditures. Such reports shall be complete as of the 30th day next preceding each election including a primary election. The Board shall assess a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000 for a violation of this subsection, except that for State officers and candidates and political committees formed for statewide office, the civil penalty may not exceed $10,000. The fine, however, shall not exceed $500 for a first filing violation for filing less than 10 days after the deadline. There shall be no fine if the report is mailed and postmarked at least 72 hours prior to the filing deadline. For the purpose of this subsection, "statewide office" and "State officer" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, and Treasurer. However, a continuing political committee that neither accepts contributions nor makes expenditures on behalf of or in opposition to any candidate or public question on the ballot at an election shall not be required to file the reports heretofore prescribed but may file in lieu thereof a Statement of Nonparticipation in the Election with the Board or the Board and the county clerk.

(b-5) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b) and Section 1.25 of the Statute on Statutes, any contribution of more than $500 received in the interim between the last date of the period covered by the last report filed under subsection (b) prior to the election and the date of the election shall be filed with and must actually be received by the State Board of Elections within 2 business days after receipt of such contribution. The State Board shall allow filings of reports of contributions of more than $500 under this subsection (b-5) by political committees that are not required to file electronically to be made by facsimile transmission. For the purpose of this subsection, a contribution is considered received on the date the public official, candidate, or political committee (or equivalent person in the case of a reporting entity other than a political committee) actually receives it or, in the case of goods or services, 2 business days after the date the public official, candidate, committee, or other reporting entity receives the certification required under subsection (b) of Section 9-6. Failure to report each contribution is a separate violation of this subsection. In the final disposition of any matter by the Board on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Board may impose fines for violations of this subsection not to exceed 100% of the total amount of the contributions that were untimely reported, but in no case when a fine is imposed shall it be less than 10% of the total amount of the contributions that were untimely reported. When considering the amount of the fine to be imposed, the Board shall consider, but is not limited to, the following factors:

(1) whether in the Board's opinion the violation was committed inadvertently, negligently, knowingly, or intentionally;

(2) the number of days the contribution was reported late; and

(3) past violations of Sections 9-3 and 9-10 of this Article by the committee.

(c) In addition to such reports the treasurer of every political committee shall file semi-annual reports of campaign contributions and expenditures no later than July 31st, covering the period from January 1st through June 30th immediately preceding, and no later than January 31st, covering the period from July 1st through December 31st of the preceding calendar year. Reports of contributions and expenditures must be filed to cover the prescribed time periods even though no contributions or expenditures may have been received or made during the period. The Board shall assess a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000 for a violation of this subsection, except that for State officers and candidates and political committees formed for statewide office, the civil penalty may not exceed $10,000. The fine, however, shall not exceed $500 for a first filing violation for filing less than 10 days after the deadline. There shall be no fine if the report is mailed and postmarked at least 72 hours prior to the filing deadline. For the purpose of this subsection, "statewide office" and "State officer" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, and Treasurer.

(c-5) A political committee that acts as either (i) a State and local political committee or (ii) a local political committee and that files reports electronically under Section 9-28 is not required to file copies of the reports with the appropriate county clerk if the county clerk has a system that permits access to, and duplication of, reports that are filed with the State Board of Elections. A State and local political committee or a local political committee shall file with the county clerk a copy of its statement of organization pursuant to Section 9-3.

(d) A copy of each report or statement filed under this Article shall be preserved by the person filing it for a period of two years from the date of filing.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; 93-615, eff. 11-19-03; revised 12-17-03.)

(10 ILCS 5/24B-9.1)

Sec. 24B-9.1. Examination of Votes by Electronic Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology Scanning Process or other authorized electronic process; definition of a vote.

(a) Examination of Votes by Electronic Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology Scanning Process. Whenever a Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology process is used to automatically examine and count the votes on ballot sheets, the provisions of this Section shall apply. A voter shall cast a proper vote on a ballot sheet by making a mark, or causing a mark to be made, in the designated area for the casting of a vote for any party or candidate or for or against any proposition. For this purpose, a mark is an intentional darkening of the designated area on the ballot, and not an identifying mark.

(b) For any ballot sheet that does not register a vote for one or more ballot positions on the ballot sheet on a Electronic Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology Scanning Process, the following shall constitute a vote on the ballot sheet:

(1) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet is fully darkened or shaded in;

(2) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet is partially darkened or shaded in;

(3) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet contains a dot or ".", a check, or a plus or "+"; or

(4) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet contains some other type of mark that indicates the clearly ascertainable intent of the voter to vote based on the totality of the circumstances, including but not limited to any pattern or frequency of marks on other ballot positions from the same ballot sheet; or .

(5) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet is not marked, but the ballot sheet contains other markings associated with a particular ballot position, such as circling a candidate's name, that indicates the clearly ascertainable intent of the voter to vote, based on the totality of the circumstances, including but not limited to, any pattern or frequency of markings on other ballot positions from the same ballot sheet.

(c) For other electronic voting systems that use a computer as the marking device to mark a ballot sheet, the bar code found on the ballot sheet shall constitute the votes found on the ballot. If, however, the county clerk or board of election commissioners determines that the votes represented by the tally on the bar code for one or more ballot positions is inconsistent with the votes represented by numerical ballot positions identified on the ballot sheet produced using a computer as the marking device, then the numerical ballot positions identified on the ballot sheet shall constitute the votes for purposes of any official canvass or recount proceeding. An electronic voting system that uses a computer as the marking device to mark a ballot sheet shall be capable of producing a ballot sheet that contains all numerical ballot positions selected by the voter, and provides a place for the voter to cast a write-in vote for a candidate for a particular numerical ballot position.

(d) The election authority shall provide an envelope, sleeve or other device to each voter so the voter can deliver the voted ballot sheet to the counting equipment and ballot box without the votes indicated on the ballot sheet being visible to other persons in the polling place.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 40. The Secretary of State Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(15 ILCS 305/10) (from Ch. 124, par. 10)

Sec. 10. Whenever any bill which has passed both houses of the General Assembly, and is not approved, or vetoed and returned by the Governor, or filed with his objection in the office of the Secretary of State, as required by Section 9, of Article IV, of the Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Secretary of State to authenticate the same by a certificate thereon, to the following effect, as the case may be:

"This bill having remained with the Governor 60 calendar days after it was presented to him, the General Assembly being in session, (or the Governor having failed to return this bill to the General Assembly during its session, and having failed to file it in my office, with his objections, within such 60 calendar days, it has thereby become a law.

Dated .............. 19

Signature ..............., Secretary of State".

(Source: P.A. 84-550; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 45. The Secretary of State Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Section 10b.1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 310/10b.1) (from Ch. 124, par. 110b.1)

Sec. 10b.1. (a) Competitive examinations.

(a) For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions. Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into the Office of the Secretary of State and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education and experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical skill; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8 and sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which would give him the powers of a peace officer, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio or other media.

The Director may, at his discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by Federal law or by the law of any State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Personnel and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Personnel for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(b) The Director of Personnel may require that each person seeking employment with the Secretary of State, as part of the application process, authorize an investigation to determine if the applicant has ever been convicted of a crime and if so, the disposition of those convictions; this authorization shall indicate the scope of the inquiry and the agencies which may be contacted. Upon this authorization, the Director of Personnel may request and receive information and assistance from any federal, state or local governmental agency as part of the authorized investigation. The investigation shall be undertaken after the fingerprinting of an applicant in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The investigation shall consist of a criminal history records check performed by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or some other entity that has the ability to check the applicant's fingerprints against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. If the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation conduct an investigation directly for the Secretary of State's Office, then the Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Department of State Police shall provide information concerning any criminal convictions, and their disposition, brought against the applicant or prospective employee of the Secretary of State upon request of the Department of Personnel when the request is made in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police. The information derived from this investigation, including the source of this information, and any conclusions or recommendations derived from this information by the Director of Personnel shall be provided to the applicant or prospective employee, or his designee, upon request to the Director of Personnel prior to any final action by the Director of Personnel on the application. No information obtained from such investigation may be placed in any automated information system. Any criminal convictions and their disposition information obtained by the Director of Personnel shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Office of the Secretary of State, except as required herein, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Office of the Secretary of State except as needed for the purpose of evaluating the application. The only physical identity materials which the applicant or prospective employee can be required to provide the Director of Personnel are photographs or fingerprints; these shall be returned to the applicant or prospective employee upon request to the Director of Personnel, after the investigation has been completed and no copy of these materials may be kept by the Director of Personnel or any agency to which such identity materials were transmitted. Only information and standards which bear a reasonable and rational relation to the performance of an employee shall be used by the Director of Personnel. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules and regulations for the administration of this Section. Any employee of the Secretary of State who gives or causes to be given away any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions and their disposition of an applicant or prospective employee shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-418, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 50. The Deposit of State Moneys Act is amended by changing Section 22.5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 520/22.5) (from Ch. 130, par. 41a)

Sec. 22.5. Permitted investments. The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest and reinvest any State money in the treasury which is not needed for current expenditures due or about to become due, in obligations of the United States government or its agencies or of National Mortgage Associations established by or under the National Housing Act, 1201 U.S.C. 1701 et seq., or in mortgage participation certificates representing undivided interests in specified, first-lien conventional residential Illinois mortgages that are underwritten, insured, guaranteed, or purchased by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation or in Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes as defined in and issued pursuant to the Illinois Housing Development Act. All such obligations shall be considered as cash and may be delivered over as cash by a State Treasurer to his successor.

The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, purchase any state bonds with any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and interest on the bonds. The bonds shall be considered as cash and may be delivered over as cash by the State Treasurer to his successor.

The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest or reinvest any State money in the treasury that is not needed for current expenditure due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and the interest on any State bonds, in shares, withdrawable accounts, and investment certificates of savings and building and loan associations, incorporated under the laws of this State or any other state or under the laws of the United States; provided, however, that investments may be made only in those savings and loan or building and loan associations the shares and withdrawable accounts or other forms of investment securities of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

The State Treasurer may not invest State money in any savings and loan or building and loan association unless a commitment by the savings and loan (or building and loan) association, executed by the president or chief executive officer of that association, is submitted in the following form:

The .................. Savings and Loan (or Building and Loan) Association pledges not to reject arbitrarily mortgage loans for residential properties within any specific part of the community served by the savings and loan (or building and loan) association because of the location of the property. The savings and loan (or building and loan) association also pledges to make loans available on low and moderate income residential property throughout the community within the limits of its legal restrictions and prudent financial practices.

The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest or reinvest, at a price not to exceed par, any State money in the treasury that is not needed for current expenditures due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and interest on any State bonds, in bonds issued by counties or municipal corporations of the State of Illinois.

The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest or reinvest any State money in the Treasury which is not needed for current expenditure, due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury which has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and the interest on any State bonds, in participations in loans, the principal of which participation is fully guaranteed by an agency or instrumentality of the United States government; provided, however, that such loan participations are represented by certificates issued only by banks which are incorporated under the laws of this State or any other state or under the laws of the United States, and such banks, but not the loan participation certificates, are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest or reinvest any State money in the Treasury that is not needed for current expenditure, due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and the interest on any State bonds, in any of the following:

(1) Bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, Treasury bills, or other securities now or hereafter issued that are guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States of America as to principal and interest.

(2) Bonds, notes, debentures, or other similar obligations of the United States of America, its agencies, and instrumentalities.

(2.5) Bonds, notes, debentures, or other similar obligations of a foreign government that are guaranteed by the full faith and credit of that government as to principal and interest, but only if the foreign government has not defaulted and has met its payment obligations in a timely manner on all similar obligations for a period of at least 25 years immediately before the time of acquiring those obligations.

(3) Interest-bearing savings accounts, interest-bearing certificates of deposit, interest-bearing time deposits, or any other investments constituting direct obligations of any bank as defined by the Illinois Banking Act.

(4) Interest-bearing accounts, certificates of deposit, or any other investments constituting direct obligations of any savings and loan associations incorporated under the laws of this State or any other state or under the laws of the United States.

(5) Dividend-bearing share accounts, share certificate accounts, or class of share accounts of a credit union chartered under the laws of this State or the laws of the United States; provided, however, the principal office of the credit union must be located within the State of Illinois.

(6) Bankers' acceptances of banks whose senior obligations are rated in the top 2 rating categories by 2 national rating agencies and maintain that rating during the term of the investment.

(7) Short-term obligations of corporations organized in the United States with assets exceeding $500,000,000 if (i) the obligations are rated at the time of purchase at one of the 3 highest classifications established by at least 2 standard rating services and mature not later than 180 days from the date of purchase, (ii) the purchases do not exceed 10% of the corporation's outstanding obligations, and (iii) no more than one-third of the public agency's funds are invested in short-term obligations of corporations.

(8) Money market mutual funds registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, provided that the portfolio of the money market mutual fund is limited to obligations described in this Section and to agreements to repurchase such obligations.

(9) The Public Treasurers' Investment Pool created under Section 17 of the State Treasurer Act or in a fund managed, operated, and administered by a bank.

(10) Repurchase agreements of government securities having the meaning set out in the Government Securities Act of 1986 subject to the provisions of that Act and the regulations issued thereunder.

(11) Investments made in accordance with the Technology Development Act.

For purposes of this Section, "agencies" of the United States Government includes:

(i) the federal land banks, federal intermediate credit banks, banks for cooperatives, federal farm credit banks, or any other entity authorized to issue debt obligations under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 et seq.) and Acts amendatory thereto;

(ii) the federal home loan banks and the federal home loan mortgage corporation;

(iii) the Commodity Credit Corporation; and

(iv) any other agency created by Act of Congress.

The Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, lend any securities acquired under this Act. However, securities may be lent under this Section only in accordance with Federal Financial Institution Examination Council guidelines and only if the securities are collateralized at a level sufficient to assure the safety of the securities, taking into account market value fluctuation. The securities may be collateralized by cash or collateral acceptable under Sections 11 and 11.1.

(Source: P.A. 92-546, eff. 1-1-03; 92-851, eff. 8-26-02; revised 9-19-02.)

Section 55. The Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 405-292 as follows:

(20 ILCS 405/405-292)

Sec. 405-292. Business processing reengineering; planning for a more efficient government.

(a) The Department shall be responsible for recommending to the Governor efficiency initiatives to reorganize, restructure, and reengineer the business processes of the State. In performing this responsibility the Department shall have the power and duty to do the following:

(1) propose the transfer, consolidation, reorganization, restructuring, reengineering, or elimination of programs, processes, or functions in order to attain efficiency in operations and cost savings through the efficiency initiatives; .

(2) control the procurement of contracted services in connection with the efficiency initiatives to assist in the analysis, design, planning, and implementation of proposals approved by the Governor to attain efficiency in operations and cost savings; and

(3) establish the amount of cost savings to be realized by State agencies from implementing the efficiency initiatives, which shall be paid to the Department for deposit into the Efficiency Initiatives Revolving Fund.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "State agencies" means all departments, boards, commissions, and agencies of the State of Illinois subject to the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 60. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5007)

Sec. 7. Placement of children; considerations.

(a) In placing any child under this Act, the Department shall place such child, as far as possible, in the care and custody of some individual holding the same religious belief as the parents of the child, or with some child care facility which is operated by persons of like religious faith as the parents of such child.

(b) In placing a child under this Act, the Department may place a child with a relative if the Department has reason to believe that the relative will be able to adequately provide for the child's safety and welfare. The Department may not place a child with a relative, with the exception of certain circumstances which may be waived as defined by the Department in rules, if the results of a check of the Law Enforcement Agencies Agency Data System (LEADS) identifies a prior criminal conviction of the relative or any adult member of the relative's household for any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 1961:

(1) murder;

(1.1) solicitation of murder;

(1.2) solicitation of murder for hire;

(1.3) intentional homicide of an unborn child;

(1.4) voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.5) involuntary manslaughter;

(1.6) reckless homicide;

(1.7) concealment of a homicidal death;

(1.8) involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.9) reckless homicide of an unborn child;

(1.10) drug-induced homicide;

(2) a sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, and 11-13;

(3) kidnapping;

(3.1) aggravated unlawful restraint;

(3.2) forcible detention;

(3.3) aiding and abetting child abduction;

(4) aggravated kidnapping;

(5) child abduction;

(6) aggravated battery of a child;

(7) criminal sexual assault;

(8) aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(8.1) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(9) criminal sexual abuse;

(10) aggravated sexual abuse;

(11) heinous battery;

(12) aggravated battery with a firearm;

(13) tampering with food, drugs, or cosmetics;

(14) drug-induced infliction of great bodily harm;

(15) aggravated stalking;

(16) home invasion;

(17) vehicular invasion;

(18) criminal transmission of HIV;

(19) criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly or disabled person;

(20) child abandonment;

(21) endangering the life or health of a child;

(22) ritual mutilation;

(23) ritualized abuse of a child;

(24) an offense in any other state the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the foregoing offenses.

For the purpose of this subsection, "relative" shall include any person, 21 years of age or over, other than the parent, who (i) is currently related to the child in any of the following ways by blood or adoption: grandparent, sibling, great-grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, first cousin, second cousin, godparent, great-uncle, or great-aunt; or (ii) is the spouse of such a relative; or (iii) is the child's step-father, step-mother, or adult step-brother or step-sister; "relative" also includes a person related in any of the foregoing ways to a sibling of a child, even though the person is not related to the child, when the child and its sibling are placed together with that person. A relative with whom a child is placed pursuant to this subsection may, but is not required to, apply for licensure as a foster family home pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969; provided, however, that as of July 1, 1995, foster care payments shall be made only to licensed foster family homes pursuant to the terms of Section 5 of this Act.

(c) In placing a child under this Act, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met in making a family foster care placement. The Department shall consider the individual needs of the child and the capacity of the prospective foster or adoptive parents to meet the needs of the child. When a child must be placed outside his or her home and cannot be immediately returned to his or her parents or guardian, a comprehensive, individualized assessment shall be performed of that child at which time the needs of the child shall be determined. Only if race, color, or national origin is identified as a legitimate factor in advancing the child's best interests shall it be considered. Race, color, or national origin shall not be routinely considered in making a placement decision. The Department shall make special efforts for the diligent recruitment of potential foster and adoptive families that reflect the ethnic and racial diversity of the children for whom foster and adoptive homes are needed. "Special efforts" shall include contacting and working with community organizations and religious organizations and may include contracting with those organizations, utilizing local media and other local resources, and conducting outreach activities.

(c-1) At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of Section 5, so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

(d) The Department may accept gifts, grants, offers of services, and other contributions to use in making special recruitment efforts.

(e) The Department in placing children in adoptive or foster care homes may not, in any policy or practice relating to the placement of children for adoption or foster care, discriminate against any child or prospective adoptive or foster parent on the basis of race.

(Source: P.A. 92-192, eff. 1-1-02; 92-328, eff. 1-1-02; 92-334, eff. 8-10-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 2-17-03.)

Section 65. The Illinois Enterprise Zone Act is amended by changing Section 5.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 655/5.5) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 609.1)

Sec. 5.5. High Impact Business.

(a) In order to respond to unique opportunities to assist in the encouragement, development, growth and expansion of the private sector through large scale investment and development projects, the Department is authorized to receive and approve applications for the designation of "High Impact Businesses" in Illinois subject to the following conditions:

(1) such applications may be submitted at any time during the year;

(2) such business is not located, at the time of designation, in an enterprise zone designated pursuant to this Act;

(3) (A) the business intends to make a minimum investment of $12,000,000 which will be placed in service in qualified property and intends to create 500 full-time equivalent jobs at a designated location in Illinois or intends to make a minimum investment of $30,000,000 which will be placed in service in qualified property and intends to retain 1,500 full-time jobs at a designated location in Illinois. The business must certify in writing that the investments would not be placed in service in qualified property and the job creation or job retention would not occur without the tax credits and exemptions set forth in subsection (b) of this Section. The terms "placed in service" and "qualified property" have the same meanings as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(B) the business intends to establish a new electric generating facility at a designated location in Illinois. "New electric generating facility", for purposes of this Section, means a newly-constructed electric generation plant or a newly-constructed generation capacity expansion at an existing electric generation plant, including the transmission lines and associated equipment that transfers electricity from points of supply to points of delivery, and for which such new foundation construction commenced not sooner than July 1, 2001. Such facility shall be designed to provide baseload electric generation and shall operate on a continuous basis throughout the year; and shall have an aggregate rated generating capacity of at least 1,000 megawatts for all new units at one site if it uses natural gas as its primary fuel and foundation construction of the facility is commenced on or before December 31, 2004, or shall have an aggregate rated generating capacity of at least 400 megawatts for all new units at one site if it uses coal or gases derived from coal as its primary fuel and shall support the creation of at least 150 new Illinois coal mining jobs. The business must certify in writing that the investments necessary to establish a new electric generating facility would not be placed in service and the job creation in the case of a coal-fueled plant would not occur without the tax credits and exemptions set forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. The term "placed in service" has the same meaning as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(C) the business intends to establish production operations at a new coal mine, re-establish production operations at a closed coal mine, or expand production at an existing coal mine at a designated location in Illinois not sooner than July 1, 2001; provided that the production operations result in the creation of 150 new Illinois coal mining jobs as described in subdivision (a)(3)(B) of this Section, and further provided that the coal extracted from such mine is utilized as the predominant source for a new electric generating facility. The business must certify in writing that the investments necessary to establish a new, expanded, or reopened coal mine would not be placed in service and the job creation would not occur without the tax credits and exemptions set forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. The term "placed in service" has the same meaning as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(D) the business intends to construct new transmission facilities or upgrade existing transmission facilities at designated locations in Illinois, for which construction commenced not sooner than July 1, 2001. For the purposes of this Section, "transmission facilities" means transmission lines with a voltage rating of 115 kilovolts or above, including associated equipment, that transfer electricity from points of supply to points of delivery and that transmit a majority of the electricity generated by a new electric generating facility designated as a High Impact Business in accordance with this Section. The business must certify in writing that the investments necessary to construct new transmission facilities or upgrade existing transmission facilities would not be placed in service without the tax credits and exemptions set forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. The term "placed in service" has the same meaning as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; and

(4) no later than 90 days after an application is submitted, the Department shall notify the applicant of the Department's determination of the qualification of the proposed High Impact Business under this Section.

(b) Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses pursuant to subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section shall qualify for the credits and exemptions described in the following Acts: Section 9-222 and Section 9-222.1A of the Public Utilities Act, subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, ; and, Section 1d of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act; , provided that these credits and exemptions described in these Acts shall not be authorized until the minimum investments set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section have been placed in service in qualified properties and, in the case of the exemptions described in the Public Utilities Act and Section 1d of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the minimum full-time equivalent jobs or full-time jobs set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section have been created or retained. Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses under this Section shall also qualify for the exemption described in Section 5l of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The credit provided in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act shall be applicable to investments in qualified property as set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section.

(b-5) Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses pursuant to subdivisions (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(C), and (a)(3)(D) of this Section shall qualify for the credits and exemptions described in the following Acts: Section 51 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9-222 and Section 9-222.1A of the Public Utilities Act, and subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; however, the credits and exemptions authorized under Section 9-222 and Section 9-222.1A of the Public Utilities Act, and subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act shall not be authorized until the new electric generating facility, the new transmission facility, or the new, expanded, or reopened coal mine is operational, except that a new electric generating facility whose primary fuel source is natural gas is eligible only for the exemption under Section 5l of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(c) High Impact Businesses located in federally designated foreign trade zones or sub-zones are also eligible for additional credits, exemptions and deductions as described in the following Acts: Section 9-221 and Section 9-222.1 of the Public Utilities Act; and subsection (g) of Section 201, and Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(d) Existing Illinois businesses which apply for designation as a High Impact Business must provide the Department with the prospective plan for which 1,500 full-time jobs would be eliminated in the event that the business is not designated.

(e) New proposed facilities which apply for designation as High Impact Business must provide the Department with proof of alternative non-Illinois sites which would receive the proposed investment and job creation in the event that the business is not designated as a High Impact Business.

(f) In the event that a business is designated a High Impact Business and it is later determined after reasonable notice and an opportunity for a hearing as provided under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, that the business would have placed in service in qualified property the investments and created or retained the requisite number of jobs without the benefits of the High Impact Business designation, the Department shall be required to immediately revoke the designation and notify the Director of the Department of Revenue who shall begin proceedings to recover all wrongfully exempted State taxes with interest. The business shall also be ineligible for all State funded Department programs for a period of 10 years.

(g) The Department shall revoke a High Impact Business designation if the participating business fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the designation.

(h) Prior to designating a business, the Department shall provide the members of the General Assembly and Illinois Economic and Fiscal Commission with a report setting forth the terms and conditions of the designation and guarantees that have been received by the Department in relation to the proposed business being designated.

(Source: P.A. 91-914, eff. 7-7-00; 92-12, eff. 7-1-01; revised 3-7-02.)

Section 70. The Illinois Renewable Fuels Development Program Act is amended by renumbering Section 905 as follows:

(20 ILCS 689/95) (was 20 ILCS 689/905)

Sec. 95. 905. (Amendatory provisions; text omitted).

(Source: P.A. 93-15, eff. 6-11-03; text omitted; revised 8-1-03.)

Section 75. The Department of Natural Resources Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1-30 as follows:

(20 ILCS 801/1-30)

Sec. 1-30. Badges. The Director must authorize to each Conservation Police Officer and to any other employee of the Department exercising the powers of a peace officer a distinct badge that, on its face, (i) clearly states that the badge is authorized by the Department and (ii) contains a unique identifying number. No other badge shall be authorized by the Department. Nothing in this Section prohibits the Director from issuing shields or other distinctive identification to employees not exercising the powers of a peace officer if the Director determines that a shield or distinctive identification is needed by the employee to carry out his or her responsibilities.

(Source: P.A. 93-423, eff. 8-5-03.)

(20 ILCS 801/1-35)

Sec. 1-35. 1-30. Aquifer study. The Department shall conduct a study to (i) develop an understanding of the geology of each aquifer in the State; (ii) determine the groundwater flow through the geologic units and the interaction of the groundwater with surface waters; (iii) analyze current groundwater withdrawals; and (iv) determine the chemistry of the geologic units and the groundwater in those units. Based upon information obtained from the study, the Department shall develop geologic and groundwater flow models for each underground aquifer in the State showing the impact of adding future wells or of future groundwater withdrawals.

(Source: P.A. 93-608, eff. 11-20-03; revised 1-10-04.)

Section 80. The Energy Conservation and Coal Development Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1105/15) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 7415)

Sec. 15. (a) The Department, in cooperation with the Illinois Finance Authority, shall establish a program to assist units of local government, as defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act, to identify and arrange financing for energy conservation projects for buildings and facilities owned or leased by those units of local government.

(b) The Department, in cooperation with the Illinois Finance Authority, shall establish a program to assist health facilities to identify and arrange financing for energy conservation projects for buildings and facilities owned or leased by those health facilities.

(Source: P.A. 93-205 (Sections 890-4 and 890-39), eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-23-03.)

Section 85. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 10-35 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/10-35)

Sec. 10-35. Folic acid; public information campaign. The Department, in consultation with the Department of Public Health, shall conduct a public information campaign to (i) educate women about the benefits of consuming folic acid before and during pregnancy to improve their chances of having a healthy baby and (ii) increase the consumption of folic acid by women of child-bearing age. The campaign must include information about the sources of folic acid.

(Source: P.A. 93-84, eff. 1-1-04.)

(20 ILCS 1305/10-40)

Sec. 10-40 10-35. Recreational programs; handicapped; grants. The Department of Human Services, subject to appropriation, may make grants to special recreation associations for the operation of recreational programs for the handicapped, including both physically and mentally handicapped, and transportation to and from those programs. The grants should target unserved or underserved populations, such as persons with brain injuries, persons who are medically fragile, and adults who have acquired disabling conditions. The Department must adopt rules to implement the grant program.

(Source: P.A. 93-107, eff. 7-8-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(20 ILCS 1305/10-45)

Sec. 10-45 10-35. Hispanic/Latino Teen Pregnancy Prevention and Intervention Initiative.

(a) The Department is authorized to establish a Hispanic/Latino Teen Pregnancy Prevention and Intervention Initiative program.

(b) As a part of the program established under subsection (a), the Department is authorized to award a grant to a qualified entity for the purpose of conducting research, education, and prevention activities to reduce pregnancy among Hispanic teenagers.

(Source: P.A. 93-515, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 90. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 206-5)

Sec. 5. Arrest reports; expungement.

(a) All policing bodies of this State shall furnish to the Department, daily, in the form and detail the Department requires, fingerprints and descriptions of all persons who are arrested on charges of violating any penal statute of this State for offenses that are classified as felonies and Class A or B misdemeanors and of all minors of the age of 10 and over who have been arrested for an offense which would be a felony if committed by an adult, and may forward such fingerprints and descriptions for minors arrested for Class A or B misdemeanors. Moving or nonmoving traffic violations under the Illinois Vehicle Code shall not be reported except for violations of Chapter 4, Section 11-204.1, or Section 11-501 of that Code. In addition, conservation offenses, as defined in the Supreme Court Rule 501(c), that are classified as Class B misdemeanors shall not be reported.

Whenever an adult or minor prosecuted as an adult, not having previously been convicted of any criminal offense or municipal ordinance violation, charged with a violation of a municipal ordinance or a felony or misdemeanor, is acquitted or released without being convicted, whether the acquittal or release occurred before, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991, the Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial may upon verified petition of the defendant order the record of arrest expunged from the official records of the arresting authority and the Department and order that the records of the clerk of the circuit court be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the defendant obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal the records, and the fee shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The records of those arrests, however, that result in a disposition of supervision for any offense shall not be expunged from the records of the arresting authority or the Department nor impounded by the court until 2 years after discharge and dismissal of supervision. Those records that result from a supervision for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Section 12-3.2, 12-15 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act when the judgment of conviction has been vacated, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act when the judgment of conviction has been vacated, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act shall not be expunged from the records of the arresting authority nor impounded by the court until 5 years after termination of probation or supervision. Those records that result from a supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be expunged. All records set out above may be ordered by the court to be expunged from the records of the arresting authority and impounded by the court after 5 years, but shall not be expunged by the Department, but shall, on court order be sealed by the Department and may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual.

(a-5) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(b) Whenever a person has been convicted of a crime or of the violation of a municipal ordinance, in the name of a person whose identity he has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the chief judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the clerk of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used. For purposes of this Section, convictions for moving and nonmoving traffic violations other than convictions for violations of Chapter 4, Section 11-204.1 or Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall not be a bar to expunging the record of arrest and court records for violation of a misdemeanor or municipal ordinance.

(c) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, may have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the clerk of the circuit court and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the clerk of the circuit court shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(c-5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the clerk of the circuit court in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the clerk of the circuit court in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(c-6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant was factually innocent of the charge, the court shall enter an expungement order as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(d) Notice of the petition for subsections (a), (b), and (c) shall be served upon the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government affecting the arrest. Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency or such chief legal officer objects to the petition within 30 days from the date of the notice, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition. The clerk of the court shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person, the arresting agency, the prosecutor, the Department of State Police and such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the judge.

(e) Nothing herein shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 12-4.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(f) No court order issued pursuant to the expungement provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after notice is received by the Department. Any court order contrary to the provisions of this Section is void.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c-5) of this Section, the court shall not order the sealing or expungement of the arrest records and records of the circuit court clerk of any person granted supervision for or convicted of any sexual offense committed against a minor under 18 years of age. For the purposes of this Section, "sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(h) (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, whenever an adult or minor prosecuted as an adult charged with a violation of a municipal ordinance or a misdemeanor is acquitted or released without being convicted, or if the person is convicted but the conviction is reversed, or if the person has been placed on supervision for a misdemeanor and has not been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor or placed on supervision for a misdemeanor within 3 years after the acquittal or release or reversal of conviction, or the completion of the terms and conditions of the supervision, if the acquittal, release, finding of not guilty, or reversal of conviction occurred on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Chief Judge of the circuit in which the charge was brought may have the official records of the arresting authority, the Department, and the clerk of the circuit court sealed 3 years after the dismissal of the charge, the finding of not guilty, the reversal of conviction, or the completion of the terms and conditions of the supervision, except those records are subject to inspection and use by the court for the purposes of subsequent sentencing for misdemeanor and felony violations and inspection and use by law enforcement agencies and State's Attorneys or other prosecutors in carrying out the duties of their offices. This subsection (h) does not apply to persons placed on supervision for: (1) a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (2) a misdemeanor violation of Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (3) a misdemeanor violation of Section 12-15, 12-30, or 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (4) a misdemeanor violation that is a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (5) a Class A misdemeanor violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (6) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(2) Upon acquittal, release without conviction, or being placed on supervision, the person charged with the offense shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records. Three years after the dismissal of the charge, the finding of not guilty, the reversal of conviction, or the completion of the terms and conditions of the supervision, the defendant shall provide the clerk of the court with a notice of request for sealing of records and payment of the applicable fee and a current address and shall promptly notify the clerk of the court of any change of address. The clerk shall promptly serve notice that the person's records are to be sealed on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest. Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency or such chief legal officer objects to sealing of the records within 90 days of notice the court shall enter an order sealing the defendant's records 3 years after the dismissal of the charge, the finding of not guilty, the reversal of conviction, or the completion of the terms and conditions of the supervision. The clerk of the court shall promptly serve by mail or in person a copy of the order to the person, the arresting agency, the prosecutor, the Department of State Police and such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the judge. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for hearing. At the hearing the court shall hear evidence on whether the sealing of the records should or should not be granted.

(3) The clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing of records by the clerk and the Department of State Police. The clerk shall forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund.

(4) Whenever sealing of records is required under this subsection (h), the notification of the sealing must be given by the circuit court where the arrest occurred to the Department in a form and manner prescribed by the Department.

(5) An adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who was charged with a violation of a municipal ordinance or a misdemeanor who was acquitted, released without being convicted, convicted and the conviction was reversed, or placed on supervision for a misdemeanor before the date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and was not convicted of a felony or misdemeanor or placed on supervision for a misdemeanor for 3 years after the acquittal or release or reversal of conviction, or completion of the terms and conditions of the supervision may petition the Chief Judge of the circuit in which the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit in which the charge was brought, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or, in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at that defendant's trial, to seal the official records of the arresting authority, the Department, and the clerk of the court, except those records are subject to inspection and use by the court for the purposes of subsequent sentencing for misdemeanor and felony violations and inspection and use by law enforcement agencies, the Department of Corrections, and State's Attorneys and other prosecutors in carrying out the duties of their offices. This subsection (h) does not apply to persons placed on supervision for: (1) a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (2) a misdemeanor violation of Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (3) a misdemeanor violation of Section 12-15, 12-30, or 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (4) a misdemeanor violation that is a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (5) a Class A misdemeanor violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (6) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act. The State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest shall be served with a copy of the verified petition and shall have 90 days to object. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for hearing. At the hearing the court shall hear evidence on whether the sealing of the records should or should not be granted. The person whose records are sealed under the provisions of this Act shall pay to the clerk of the court and the Department of State Police a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing of records. The fees shall be paid to the clerk of the court who shall forward the appropriate portion to the Department at the time the court order to seal the defendant's record is forwarded to the Department for processing. The Department of State Police portion of the fee shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund.

(i) (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, whenever an adult or minor prosecuted as an adult charged with a violation of a municipal ordinance or a misdemeanor is convicted of a misdemeanor and has not been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor or placed on supervision for a misdemeanor within 4 years after the completion of the sentence, if the conviction occurred on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Chief Judge of the circuit in which the charge was brought may have the official records of the arresting authority, the Department, and the clerk of the circuit court sealed 4 years after the completion of the sentence, except those records are subject to inspection and use by the court for the purposes of subsequent sentencing for misdemeanor and felony violations and inspection and use by law enforcement agencies and State's Attorneys or other prosecutors in carrying out the duties of their offices. This subsection (i) does not apply to persons convicted of: (1) a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (2) a misdemeanor violation of Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (3) a misdemeanor violation of Section 12-15, 12-30, or 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (4) a misdemeanor violation that is a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (5) a Class A misdemeanor violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (6) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(2) Upon the conviction of such offense, the person charged with the offense shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records. Four years after the completion of the sentence, the defendant shall provide the clerk of the court with a notice of request for sealing of records and payment of the applicable fee and a current address and shall promptly notify the clerk of the court of any change of address. The clerk shall promptly serve notice that the person's records are to be sealed on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest. Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency or such chief legal officer objects to sealing of the records within 90 days of notice the court shall enter an order sealing the defendant's records 4 years after the completion of the sentence. The clerk of the court shall promptly serve by mail or in person a copy of the order to the person, the arresting agency, the prosecutor, the Department of State Police and such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the judge. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for hearing. At the hearing the court shall hear evidence on whether the sealing of the records should or should not be granted.

(3) The clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing of records by the clerk and the Department of State Police. The clerk shall forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund.

(4) Whenever sealing of records is required under this subsection (i), the notification of the sealing must be given by the circuit court where the arrest occurred to the Department in a form and manner prescribed by the Department.

(5) An adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who was charged with a violation of a municipal ordinance or a misdemeanor who was convicted of a misdemeanor before the date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and was not convicted of a felony or misdemeanor or placed on supervision for a misdemeanor for 4 years after the completion of the sentence may petition the Chief Judge of the circuit in which the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit in which the charge was brought, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or, in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at that defendant's trial, to seal the official records of the arresting authority, the Department, and the clerk of the court, except those records are subject to inspection and use by the court for the purposes of subsequent sentencing for misdemeanor and felony violations and inspection and use by law enforcement agencies, the Department of Corrections, and State's Attorneys and other prosecutors in carrying out the duties of their offices. This subsection (i) does not apply to persons convicted of: (1) a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (2) a misdemeanor violation of Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (3) a misdemeanor violation of Section 12-15, 12-30, or 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (4) a misdemeanor violation that is a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance; (5) a Class A misdemeanor violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (6) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act. The State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest shall be served with a copy of the verified petition and shall have 90 days to object. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for hearing. At the hearing the court shall hear evidence on whether the sealing of the records should or should not be granted. The person whose records are sealed under the provisions of this Act shall pay to the clerk of the court and the Department of State Police a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing of records. The fees shall be paid to the clerk of the court who shall forward the appropriate portion to the Department at the time the court order to seal the defendant's record is forwarded to the Department for processing. The Department of State Police portion of the fee shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-210, eff. 7-18-03; 93-211, eff. 1-1-04; revised 8-25-03.)

Section 95. The Department of Veterans Affairs Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2e as follows:

(20 ILCS 2805/2e)

Sec. 2e. The World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial Fund. There is created in the State treasury the World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial Fund. The Department must make grants from the Fund for the construction of a World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial in Springfield, Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 93-131, eff. 7-10-03.)

(20 ILCS 2805/2f)

Sec. 2f 2e. LaSalle Veterans Home capacity.

(a) The Department finds that the Illinois Veterans Home at LaSalle requires an increase in capacity to better serve the north central region of Illinois and to accommodate the increasing number of Illinois veterans eligible for care.

(b) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall increase by at least 80 beds the capacity of the Illinois Veterans Home at LaSalle and shall request and expend federal grants for this Veterans Home addition.

(Source: P.A. 93-142, eff. 7-10-03; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 100. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3305/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 1055)

Sec. 5. Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

(a) There is created within the executive branch of the State Government an Illinois Emergency Management Agency and a Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, herein called the "Director" who shall be the head thereof. The Director shall be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, and shall serve for a term of 2 years beginning on the third Monday in January of the odd-numbered year, and until a successor is appointed and has qualified; except that the term of the first Director appointed under this Act shall expire on the third Monday in January, 1989. The Director shall not hold any other remunerative public office. The Director shall receive an annual salary as set by the Governor from time to time or the amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is higher. If set by the Governor, the Director's annual salary may not exceed 85% of the Governor's annual salary.

(b) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall obtain, under the provisions of the Personnel Code, technical, clerical, stenographic and other administrative personnel, and may make expenditures within the appropriation therefor as may be necessary to carry out the purpose of this Act. The agency created by this Act is intended to be a successor to the agency created under the Illinois Emergency Services and Disaster Agency Act of 1975 and the personnel, equipment, records, and appropriations of that agency are transferred to the successor agency as of the effective date of this Act.

(c) The Director, subject to the direction and control of the Governor, shall be the executive head of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the State Emergency Response Commission and shall be responsible under the direction of the Governor, for carrying out the program for emergency management of this State. The Director shall also maintain liaison and cooperate with the emergency management organizations of this State and other states and of the federal government.

(d) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall take an integral part in the development and revision of political subdivision emergency operations plans prepared under paragraph (f) of Section 10. To this end it shall employ or otherwise secure the services of professional and technical personnel capable of providing expert assistance to the emergency services and disaster agencies. These personnel shall consult with emergency services and disaster agencies on a regular basis and shall make field examinations of the areas, circumstances, and conditions that particular political subdivision emergency operations plans are intended to apply.

(e) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency and political subdivisions shall be encouraged to form an emergency management advisory committee composed of private and public personnel representing the emergency management phases of mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery. The Local Emergency Planning Committee, as created under the Illinois Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act, shall serve as an advisory committee to the emergency services and disaster agency or agencies serving within the boundaries of that Local Emergency Planning Committee planning district for:

(1) the development of emergency operations plan provisions for hazardous chemical emergencies; and

(2) the assessment of emergency response capabilities related to hazardous chemical emergencies.

(f) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall:

(1) Coordinate the overall emergency management program of the State.

(2) Cooperate with local governments, the federal government and any public or private agency or entity in achieving any purpose of this Act and in implementing emergency management programs for mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

(2.5) Cooperate with the Department of Nuclear Safety in development of the comprehensive emergency preparedness and response plan for any nuclear accident in accordance with Section 2005-65 of the Department of Nuclear Safety Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois and in development of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness program in accordance with Section 8 of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness Act.

(2.6) Coordinate with the Department of Public Health with respect to planning for and responding to public health emergencies.

(3) Prepare, for issuance by the Governor, executive orders, proclamations, and regulations as necessary or appropriate in coping with disasters.

(4) Promulgate rules and requirements for political subdivision emergency operations plans that are not inconsistent with and are at least as stringent as applicable federal laws and regulations.

(5) Review and approve, in accordance with Illinois Emergency Management Agency rules, emergency operations plans for those political subdivisions required to have an emergency services and disaster agency pursuant to this Act.

(5.5) Promulgate rules and requirements for the political subdivision emergency management exercises, including, but not limited to, exercises of the emergency operations plans.

(5.10) Review, evaluate, and approve, in accordance with Illinois Emergency Management Agency rules, political subdivision emergency management exercises for those political subdivisions required to have an emergency services and disaster agency pursuant to this Act.

(6) Determine requirements of the State and its political subdivisions for food, clothing, and other necessities in event of a disaster.

(7) Establish a register of persons with types of emergency management training and skills in mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

(8) Establish a register of government and private response resources available for use in a disaster.

(9) Expand the Earthquake Awareness Program and its efforts to distribute earthquake preparedness materials to schools, political subdivisions, community groups, civic organizations, and the media. Emphasis will be placed on those areas of the State most at risk from an earthquake. Maintain the list of all school districts, hospitals, airports, power plants, including nuclear power plants, lakes, dams, emergency response facilities of all types, and all other major public or private structures which are at the greatest risk of damage from earthquakes under circumstances where the damage would cause subsequent harm to the surrounding communities and residents.

(10) Disseminate all information, completely and without delay, on water levels for rivers and streams and any other data pertaining to potential flooding supplied by the Division of Water Resources within the Department of Natural Resources to all political subdivisions to the maximum extent possible.

(11) Develop agreements, if feasible, with medical supply and equipment firms to supply resources as are necessary to respond to an earthquake or any other disaster as defined in this Act. These resources will be made available upon notifying the vendor of the disaster. Payment for the resources will be in accordance with Section 7 of this Act. The Illinois Department of Public Health shall determine which resources will be required and requested.

(11.5) In coordination with the Department of State Police, develop and implement a community outreach program to promote awareness among the State's parents and children of child abduction prevention and response.

(12) Out of funds appropriated for these purposes, award capital and non-capital grants to Illinois hospitals or health care facilities located outside of a city with a population in excess of 1,000,000 to be used for purposes that include, but are not limited to, preparing to respond to mass casualties and disasters, maintaining and improving patient safety and quality of care, and protecting the confidentiality of patient information. No single grant for a capital expenditure shall exceed $300,000. No single grant for a non-capital expenditure shall exceed $100,000. In awarding such grants, preference shall be given to hospitals that serve a significant number of Medicaid recipients, but do not qualify for disproportionate share hospital adjustment payments under the Illinois Public Aid Code. To receive such a grant, a hospital or health care facility must provide funding of at least 50% of the cost of the project for which the grant is being requested. In awarding such grants the Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall consider the recommendations of the Illinois Hospital Association.

(13) Do all other things necessary, incidental or appropriate for the implementation of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-73, eff. 1-1-02; 92-597, eff. 6-28-02; 93-249, eff. 7-22-03; 93-310, eff. 7-23-03; revised 9-11-03.)

Section 105. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended by changing Sections 801-1 and 815-10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3501/801-1)

Sec. 801-1. Short Title. Articles 801 80 through 845 of this Act may be cited as the Illinois Finance Authority Act. References to "this Act" in Articles 801 through 845 are references to the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-16-03.)

(20 ILCS 3501/815-10)

Sec. 815-10. Definitions. The following terms, whenever used or referred to in this Article, shall have the following meanings ascribed to them, except where the context clearly requires otherwise:

(a) "Property" means land, parcels or combination of parcels, structures, and all improvements, easements and franchises. ;

(b) "Redevelopment area" means any property which is a contiguous area of at least 2 acres but less than 160 acres in the aggregate located within one and one-half miles of the corporate limits of a municipality and not included within any municipality, where, (1) if improved, a substantial proportion of the industrial, commercial and residential buildings or improvements are detrimental to the public safety, health, morals or welfare because of a combination of any of the following factors: age; physical configuration; dilapidation; structural or economic obsolescence; deterioration; illegal use of individual structures; presence of structures below minimum code standards; excessive and sustained vacancies; overcrowding of structures and community facilities; inadequate ventilation, light, sewer, water, transportation and other infrastructure facilities; inadequate utilities; excessive land coverage; deleterious land use or layout; depreciation or lack of physical maintenance; and lack of community planning; or (2) if vacant, the sound utilization of land for industrial projects is impaired by a combination of 2 or more of the following factors: obsolete platting of the vacant land; diversity of ownership of such land; tax and special assessment delinquencies on such land; and deterioration of structures or site improvements in neighboring areas to the vacant land, or the area immediately prior to becoming vacant qualified as a redevelopment improved area; or (3) if an improved area within the boundaries of a development project is located within the corporate limits of the municipality in which 50% or more of the structures in the area have an age of 35 years or more, such area does not qualify under clause (1) but is detrimental to the public safety, health, morals or welfare and such area may become a redevelopment area pursuant to clause (1) because of a combination of 3 or more of the factors specified in clause (1).

(c) "Enterprise" means an individual, corporation, partnership, joint venture, trust, estate, or unincorporated association. ;

(d) "Development plan" means the comprehensive program of the Authority and the participating entity to reduce or eliminate those conditions the existence of which qualified the project area as a redevelopment area. Each development plan shall set forth in writing the program to be undertaken to accomplish such objectives and shall include, without limitation, estimated development project costs, the sources of funds to pay costs, the nature and term of any obligations to be issued, the most recent equalized assessed valuation of the project area, an estimate as to the equalized assessed valuation after development and the general land uses to apply in the project area.

(e) "Development project" means any project in furtherance of the objectives of a development plan, including any building or buildings or building addition or other structures to be newly constructed, renovated or improved and suitable for use by an enterprise as an industrial project, and includes the sites and other rights in the property on which such buildings or structures are located.

(f) "Participating entity" means a municipality, a local industrial development agency or an enterprise or any combination thereof.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 110. The Council on Responsible Fatherhood Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3927/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2005)

Sec. 10. Fatherhood initiative.

(a) The purpose of this Act shall be implemented through a fatherhood initiative to be directed by the Council on Responsible Fatherhood created by this Act.

(b) The goals of the fatherhood initiative are to increase the awareness of the problems created when a child grows up without the presence of a responsible father; to identify obstacles that impede or prevent the involvement of responsible fathers in the lives of their children; to identify strategies that are successful in overcoming identified obstacles and in encouraging responsible fatherhood; and to facilitate the transition from current policies, perceptions, and practices that adversely affect the participation of fathers in their children's lives to policies, perceptions, and practices that promote the contributions of responsible fathers. The fatherhood initiative must promote positive interaction between fathers and their children. While the emphasis of the program must be on the population of children whose families have received or are receiving public assistance, the program may not exclude other populations of children for which the program is appropriate.

(c) (b) The fatherhood initiative must include, but is not limited to, the following:

(1) The promotion of public education concerning the financial and emotional responsibilities of fatherhood.

(2) The provision of assistance to men in preparing for the legal, financial, and emotional responsibilities of fatherhood.

(3) The promotion of the establishment of paternity upon the birth of a child.

(4) The encouragement of fathers in fostering an emotional connection to children and providing financial support to children.

(5) The establishment of support mechanisms for fathers developing and maintaining relationships with their children.

(6) The identification and promotion of methods that reduce the negative outcomes experienced by children affected by divorce, separation, and disputes concerning custody and visitation.

(7) The integration of State and local services available to families.

(Source: P.A. 93-437, eff. 8-5-03; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 115. The Illinois State Auditing Act is amended by changing Section 3-1 as follows:

(30 ILCS 5/3-1) (from Ch. 15, par. 303-1)

Sec. 3-1. Jurisdiction of Auditor General. The Auditor General has jurisdiction over all State agencies to make post audits and investigations authorized by or under this Act or the Constitution.

The Auditor General has jurisdiction over local government agencies and private agencies only:

(a) to make such post audits authorized by or under this Act as are necessary and incidental to a post audit of a State agency or of a program administered by a State agency involving public funds of the State, but this jurisdiction does not include any authority to review local governmental agencies in the obligation, receipt, expenditure or use of public funds of the State that are granted without limitation or condition imposed by law, other than the general limitation that such funds be used for public purposes;

(b) to make investigations authorized by or under this Act or the Constitution; and

(c) to make audits of the records of local government agencies to verify actual costs of state-mandated programs when directed to do so by the Legislative Audit Commission at the request of the State Board of Appeals under the State Mandates Act.

In addition to the foregoing, the Auditor General may conduct an audit of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority, the Regional Transportation Authority, the Suburban Bus Division, the Commuter Rail Division and the Chicago Transit Authority and any other subsidized carrier when authorized by the Legislative Audit Commission. Such audit may be a financial, management or program audit, or any combination thereof.

The audit shall determine whether they are operating in accordance with all applicable laws and regulations. Subject to the limitations of this Act, the Legislative Audit Commission may by resolution specify additional determinations to be included in the scope of the audit.

In addition to the foregoing, the Auditor General must also conduct a financial audit of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority's expenditures of public funds in connection with the reconstruction, renovation, remodeling, extension, or improvement of all or substantially all of any existing "facility", as that term is defined in the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act.

The Auditor General may also conduct an audit, when authorized by the Legislative Audit Commission, of any hospital which receives 10% or more of its gross revenues from payments from the State of Illinois, Department of Public Aid, Medical Assistance Program.

The Auditor General is authorized to conduct financial and compliance audits of the Illinois Distance Learning Foundation and the Illinois Conservation Foundation.

As soon as practical after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995, the Auditor General shall conduct a compliance and management audit of the City of Chicago and any other entity with regard to the operation of Chicago O'Hare International Airport, Chicago Midway Airport and Merrill C. Meigs Field. The audit shall include, but not be limited to, an examination of revenues, expenses, and transfers of funds; purchasing and contracting policies and practices; staffing levels; and hiring practices and procedures. When completed, the audit required by this paragraph shall be distributed in accordance with Section 3-14.

The Auditor General shall conduct a financial and compliance and program audit of distributions from the Municipal Economic Development Fund during the immediately preceding calendar year pursuant to Section 8-403.1 of the Public Utilities Act at no cost to the city, village, or incorporated town that received the distributions.

The Auditor General must conduct an audit of the Health Facilities Planning Board pursuant to Section 19.5 of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act.

The Auditor General of the State of Illinois shall annually conduct or cause to be conducted a financial and compliance audit of the books and records of any county water commission organized pursuant to the Water Commission Act of 1985 and shall file a copy of the report of that audit with the Governor and the Legislative Audit Commission. The filed audit shall be open to the public for inspection. The cost of the audit shall be charged to the county water commission in accordance with Section 6z-27 of the State Finance Act. The county water commission shall make available to the Auditor General its books and records and any other documentation, whether in the possession of its trustees or other parties, necessary to conduct the audit required. These audit requirements apply only through July 1, 2007.

The Auditor General must conduct audits of the Rend Lake Conservancy District as provided in Section 25.5 of the River Conservancy Districts Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-226, eff. 7-22-03; 93-259, eff. 7-22-03; 93-275, eff. 7-22-03; revised 8-25-03.)

Section 120. The State Finance Act is amended by changing, setting forth, and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.545, 5.552, 5.567, 5.570, 5.571, 5.595, 5.596, and 8h and changing Sections 6z-43 and 8j as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.545)

Sec. 5.545. The Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-22, eff. 6-30-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.552)

Sec. 5.552. The ICCB Adult Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-49, eff. 7-9-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.567)

Sec. 5.567. The Secretary of State Police Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-501, eff. 12-19-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.569)

Sec. 5.569 5.570. The National Guard Grant Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-589, eff. 7-1-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.570)

Sec. 5.570. The Illinois Student Assistance Commission Contracts and Grants Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-597, eff. 6-28-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.571)

Sec. 5.571. The Career and Technical Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-597, eff. 6-28-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.572)

Sec. 5.572 5.570. The Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-600, eff. 6-28-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.573)

Sec. 5.573 5.571. The Family Care Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-600, eff. 6-28-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.574)

Sec. 5.574 5.570. The Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-619, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.575)

Sec. 5.575 5.570. The McKinley Bridge Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-679, eff. 7-16-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.576)

Sec. 5.576 5.570. The Illinois Century Network Special Purposes Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-691, eff. 7-18-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.577)

Sec. 5.577 5.545. The Hospice Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-693, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.578)

Sec. 5.578 5.552. Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-694, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.579)

Sec. 5.579 5.570. The Public Broadcasting Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-695, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.580)

Sec. 5.580 5.570. The Park District Youth Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-697, eff. 7-19-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.581)

Sec. 5.581 5.570. The Professional Sports Teams Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-699, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.582)

Sec. 5.582 5.570. The Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-702, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.583)

Sec. 5.583 5.567. The September 11th Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-704, eff. 7-19-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.584)

Sec. 5.584 5.570. The Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-706, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.585)

Sec. 5.585 5.570. The Stop Neuroblastoma Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-711, eff. 7-19-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.586)

Sec. 5.586 5.570. The Lawyers' Assistance Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-747, eff. 7-31-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.587)

Sec. 5.587 5.570. The Local Planning Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-768, eff. 8-6-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.588)

Sec. 5.588 5.570. The Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-772, eff. 8-6-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.589)

Sec. 5.589 5.570. The Innovations in Long-term Care Quality Demonstration Grants Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-784, eff. 8-6-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.590)

Sec. 5.590 5.570. The End Stage Renal Disease Facility Licensing Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-794, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-27-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.591)

Sec. 5.591 5.570. The Restricted Call Registry Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-795, eff. 8-9-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.592)

Sec. 5.592 5.570. The Illinois Military Family Relief Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-886, eff. 2-7-03; revised 2-17-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.593)

Sec. 5.593 5.595. The Illinois Medical District at Springfield Income Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-870, eff. 1-3-03; revised 4-14-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.594)

Sec. 5.594 5.595. The Pension Contribution Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-2, eff. 4-7-03; revised 4-14-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.595)

Sec. 5.595. The Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Prescription Drug Discount Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-18, eff. 7-1-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.596)

Sec. 5.596 5.595. The Emergency Public Health Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.597)

Sec. 5.597 5.596. The Illinois Clean Water Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 7-1-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.598)

Sec. 5.598 5.595. The Fire Truck Revolving Loan Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-35, eff. 6-24-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.599)

Sec. 5.599 5.595. The Lou Gehrig's Disease (ALS) Research Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-36, eff. 6-24-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.600)

Sec. 5.600 5.595. The Emergency Public Health Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-52, eff. 6-30-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.601)

Sec. 5.601 5.595. The Obesity Study and Prevention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-60, eff. 7-1-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.602)

Sec. 5.602 5.595. The World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-131, eff. 7-10-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.603)

Sec. 5.603 5.595. The Oil Spill Response Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-152, eff. 7-10-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.604)

Sec. 5.604 5.595. The Community Senior Services and Resources Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-246, eff. 7-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.605)

Sec. 5.605 5.595. The Good Samaritan Energy Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-285, eff. 7-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.606)

Sec. 5.606 5.595. The Leukemia Treatment and Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-324, eff. 7-23-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.607)

Sec. 5.607 5.595. The State Library Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-397, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.608)

Sec. 5.608 5.595. The Responsible Fatherhood Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-437, eff. 8-5-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.609)

Sec. 5.609 5.595. The Corporate Crime Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-496, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.610)

Sec. 5.610 5.595. The TOMA Consumer Protection Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-535, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.611)

Sec. 5.611 5.595. The Debt Collection Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-570, eff. 8-20-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.612)

Sec. 5.612 5.595. The Help Illinois Vote Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.613)

Sec. 5.613 5.595. The Secretary of State Police DUI Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-584, eff. 8-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.614)

Sec. 5.614 5.595. The I-FLY Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-585, eff. 8-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.615)

Sec. 5.615 5.596. The Efficiency Initiatives Revolving Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.616)

Sec. 5.616 5.596. ICCB Federal Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-153, eff. 7-10-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.617)

Sec. 5.617. 5.595. The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board Costs and Attorney Fees Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-605, eff. 11-19-03; revised 1-10-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.618)

Sec. 5.618 5.595. The Tax Recovery Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-658, eff. 1-22-04; revised 1-22-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-43)

Sec. 6z-43. Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, into which shall be deposited all monies paid to the State pursuant to (1) the Master Settlement Agreement entered in the case of People of the State of Illinois v. Philip Morris, et al. (Circuit Court of Cook County, No. 96-L13146) and (2) any settlement with or judgment against any tobacco product manufacturer other than one participating in the Master Settlement Agreement in satisfaction of any released claim as defined in the Master Settlement Agreement, as well as any other monies as provided by law. All earnings on Fund investments shall be deposited into the Fund. Upon the creation of the Fund, the State Comptroller shall order the State Treasurer to transfer into the Fund any monies paid to the State as described in item (1) or (2) of this Section before the creation of the Fund plus any interest earned on the investment of those monies. The Treasurer may invest the moneys in the Fund in the same manner, in the same types of investments, and subject to the same limitations provided in the Illinois Pension Code for the investment of pension funds other than those established under Article 3 or 4 of the Code.

(b) As soon as may be practical after June 30, 2001, upon notification from and at the direction of the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the unencumbered balance in the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund as of June 30, 2001, as determined by the Governor, into the Budget Stabilization Fund. The Treasurer may invest the moneys in the Budget Stabilization Fund in the same manner, in the same types of investments, and subject to the same limitations provided in the Illinois Pension Code for the investment of pension funds other than those established under Article 3 or 4 of the Code.

(c) In addition to any other deposits authorized by law, after any delivery of any bonds as authorized by Section 7.5 of the General Obligation Bond Act for deposits to the General Revenue Fund and the Budget Stabilization Fund (referred to as "tobacco securitization general obligation bonds"), the Governor shall certify, on or before June 30, 2003 and June 30 of each year thereafter, to the State Comptroller and State Treasurer the total amount of principal of, interest on, and premium, if any, due on those bonds in the next fiscal year beginning with amounts due in fiscal year 2004. As soon as practical after the annual payment of tobacco settlement moneys to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund as described in item (1) of subsection (a), the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund the amount certified by the Governor, plus any cumulative deficiency in those transfers for prior years.

(d) (c) All federal financial participation moneys received pursuant to expenditures from the Fund shall be deposited into the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 91-646, eff. 11-19-99; 91-704, eff. 7-1-00; 91-797, eff. 6-9-00; 92-11, eff. 6-11-01; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-596, eff. 6-28-02; 92-597, eff. 6-28-02; revised 9-3-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/8h)

Sec. 8h. Transfers to General Revenue Fund. Notwithstanding any other State law to the contrary, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Bureau of the Budget may from time to time direct the State Treasurer and Comptroller to transfer a specified sum from any fund held by the State Treasurer to the General Revenue Fund in order to help defray the State's operating costs for the fiscal year. The total transfer under this Section from any fund in any fiscal year shall not exceed the lesser of 8% of the revenues to be deposited into the fund during that year or 25% of the beginning balance in the fund. No transfer may be made from a fund under this Section that would have the effect of reducing the available balance in the fund to an amount less than the amount remaining unexpended and unreserved from the total appropriation from that fund for that fiscal year. This Section does not apply to any funds that are restricted by federal law to a specific use or to any funds in the Motor Fuel Tax Fund. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the total transfer under this Section from the Road Fund or the State Construction Account Fund shall not exceed 5% of the revenues to be deposited into the fund during that year.

In determining the available balance in a fund, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Bureau of the Budget may include receipts, transfers into the fund, and other resources anticipated to be available in the fund in that fiscal year.

The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts designated under this Section as soon as may be practicable after receiving the direction to transfer from the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Bureau of the Budget.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; revised 8-21-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/8i)

Sec. 8i 8h. Transfers between the Communications Revolving Fund and the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund. The State Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer, on March 31, 2003 or as soon as practicable thereafter, the amount of $300,000 from the Communications Revolving Fund to the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund. Beginning on July 1, 2004, the State Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer, on the last day of each month, an amount equal to 50% of that day's beginning balance in the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund from the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund to the Communications Revolving Fund. These transfers shall continue until the cumulative total of transfers executed from the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund to the Communications Revolving Fund equals $300,000.

(Source: P.A. 93-506, eff. 8-11-03; revised 8-21-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/8j)

Sec. 8j. Allocation and transfer of fee receipts to General Revenue Fund. If and only if any one or more of Senate Bills 774, 841, 842, and 1903 of the 93rd General Assembly become law, Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, additional amounts generated by the new and increased fees created or authorized by Public Acts 93-22, 93-23, 93-24, and 93-32 these amendatory Acts of the 93rd General Assembly this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and by Senate Bill 774, Senate Bill 841, and Senate Bill 842 of the 93rd General Assembly, if those bills become law, shall be allocated between the fund otherwise entitled to receive the fee and the General Revenue Fund by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Bureau of the Budget. In determining the amount of the allocation to the General Revenue Fund, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Bureau of the Budget shall calculate whether the available resources in the fund are sufficient to satisfy the unexpended and unreserved appropriations from the fund for the fiscal year.

In calculating the available resources in a fund, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Bureau of the Budget may include receipts, transfers into the fund, and other resources anticipated to be available in the fund in that fiscal year.

Upon determining the amount of an allocation to the General Revenue Fund under this Section, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Bureau of the Budget may direct the State Treasurer and Comptroller to transfer the amount of that allocation from the fund in which the fee amounts have been deposited to the General Revenue Fund; provided, however, that the Director shall not direct the transfer of any amount that would have the effect of reducing the available resources in the fund to an amount less than the amount remaining unexpended and unreserved from the total appropriation from that fund for that fiscal year.

The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts designated under this Section as soon as may be practicable after receiving the direction to transfer from the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Bureau of the Budget.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; revised 8-21-03.)

Section 125. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 50-12 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/50-12)

Sec. 50-12. Collection and remittance of Illinois Use Tax.

(a) No person shall enter into a contract with a State agency under this Code unless the person and all affiliates of the person collect and remit Illinois Use Tax on all sales of tangible personal property into the State of Illinois in accordance with the provisions of the Illinois Use Tax Act regardless of whether the person or affiliate is a "retailer maintaining a place of business within this State" as defined in Section 2 of the Use Tax Act. For purposes of this Section, the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (a), an entity controls another entity if it owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (a), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

(b) Every bid submitted and contract executed by the State shall contain a certification by the bidder or contractor that the bidder or contractor is not barred from bidding for or entering into a contract under subsection (a) of this Section and that the bidder or contractor acknowledges that the contracting State agency may declare the contract void if the certification completed pursuant to this subsection (b) is false.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03.)

(30 ILCS 500/50-14)

Sec. 50-14 50-12. Environmental Protection Act violations.

(a) Unless otherwise provided, no person or business found by a court or the Pollution Control Board to have committed a willful or knowing violation of Section 42 of the Environmental Protection Act shall do business with the State of Illinois or any State agency from the date of the order containing the finding of violation until 5 years after that date, unless the person or business can show that no person involved in the violation continues to have any involvement with the business.

(b) A person or business otherwise barred from doing business with the State of Illinois or any State agency under subsection (a) may be allowed to do business with the State of Illinois or any State agency if it is shown that there is no practicable alternative to the State to contracting with that person or business.

(c) Every bid submitted to and contract executed by the State shall contain a certification by the bidder or contractor that the bidder or contractor is not barred from being awarded a contract under this Section and that the contractor acknowledges that the contracting State agency may declare the contract void if the certification completed pursuant to this subsection (c) is false.

(Source: P.A. 93-575, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 130. The Build Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 8-3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 750/8-3) (from Ch. 127, par. 2708-3)

Sec. 8-3. Powers of the Department. The Department has the power to:

(a) provide business development public infrastructure loans or grants from appropriations from the Build Illinois Bond Fund, the Build Illinois Purposes Fund, the Fund for Illinois' Future, and the Public Infrastructure Construction Loan Fund to local governments to provide or improve a community's public infrastructure so as to create or retain private sector jobs pursuant to the provisions of this Article;

(b) provide affordable financing of public infrastructure loans and grants to, or on behalf of, local governments, local public entities, medical facilities, and public health clinics from appropriations from the Public Infrastructure Construction Loan Fund for the purpose of assisting with the financing, or application and access to financing, of a community's public infrastructure necessary to health, safety, and economic development;

(c) enter into agreements, accept funds or grants, and engage in cooperation with agencies of the federal government, or state or local governments to carry out the purposes of this Article, and to use funds appropriated pursuant to this Article to participate in federal infrastructure loan and grant programs upon such terms and conditions as may be established by the federal government;

(d) establish application, notification, contract, and other procedures, rules, or regulations deemed necessary and appropriate to carry out the provisions of this Article;

(e) coordinate assistance under this program with activities of the Illinois Finance Authority in order to maximize the effectiveness and efficiency of State development programs;

(f) coordinate assistance under the Affordable Financing of Public Infrastructure Loan and Grant Program with the activities of the Illinois Finance Authority, Illinois Finance Authority, Illinois Finance Authority, Illinois Housing Development Authority, Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, and other federal and State programs and entities providing financing assistance to communities for public health, safety, and economic development infrastructure;

(f-5) provide staff, administration, and related support required to manage the programs authorized under this Article and pay for the staffing, administration, and related support from the Public Infrastructure Construction Loan Revolving Fund;

(g) exercise such other powers as are necessary or incidental to the foregoing.

(Source: P.A. 93-205 (Sections 890-10, 890-34, and 890-43), eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-3-03.)

Section 135. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 507X and 507Y and changing Sections 509 and 510 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/507X)

Sec. 507X. The Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund checkoff. Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2002, the Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 92-772, eff. 8-6-02.)

(35 ILCS 5/507Y)

Sec. 507Y 507X. The Illinois Military Family Relief checkoff. Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2003, the Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 92-886, eff. 2-7-03; revised 3-11-03.)

(35 ILCS 5/507AA)

Sec. 507AA 507Y. The Lou Gehrig's Disease (ALS) Research Fund checkoff. Beginning with the taxable year ending on December 31, 2003, the Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Lou Gehrig's Disease (ALS) Research Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 93-36, eff. 6-24-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(35 ILCS 5/507BB)

Sec. 507BB 507Y. Asthma and Lung Research checkoff. The Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Asthma and Lung Research Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment reduces the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to an amended return.

(Source: P.A. 93-292, eff. 7-22-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(35 ILCS 5/507CC)

Sec. 507CC 507Y. The Leukemia Treatment and Education checkoff. The Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Leukemia Treatment and Education Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, he or she may do so be stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 93-324, eff. 7-23-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(35 ILCS 5/509) (from Ch. 120, par. 5-509)

Sec. 509. Tax checkoff explanations. All individual income tax return forms shall contain appropriate explanations and spaces to enable the taxpayers to designate contributions to the following funds: the Child Abuse Prevention Fund, the Illinois Wildlife Preservation Fund (as required by the Illinois Non-Game Wildlife Protection Act), the Alzheimer's Disease Research Fund (as required by the Alzheimer's Disease Research Act), the Assistance to the Homeless Fund (as required by this Act), the Penny Severns Breast and Cervical Cancer Research Fund, the National World War II Memorial Fund, the Prostate Cancer Research Fund, the Lou Gehrig's Disease (ALS) Research Fund, the Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund, the Leukemia Treatment and Education Fund, the World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial Fund, the Korean War Veterans National Museum and Library Fund, to the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund, and the Asthma and Lung Research Fund.

Each form shall contain a statement that the contributions will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly.

If, on October 1 of any year, the total contributions to any one of the funds made under this Section do not equal $100,000 or more, the explanations and spaces for designating contributions to the fund shall be removed from the individual income tax return forms for the following and all subsequent years and all subsequent contributions to the fund shall be refunded to the taxpayer.

(Source: P.A. 92-84, eff. 7-1-02; 92-198, eff. 8-1-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-772, eff. 8-6-02; 92-886, eff. 2-7-03; 93-36, eff. 6-24-03; 93-131, eff. 7-10-03; 93-292, eff. 7-22-03; 93-324, eff. 7-23-03; revised 9-8-03.)

(35 ILCS 5/510) (from Ch. 120, par. 5-510)

Sec. 510. Determination of amounts contributed. The Department shall determine the total amount contributed to each of the following: the Child Abuse Prevention Fund, the Illinois Wildlife Preservation Fund, the Assistance to the Homeless Fund, the Alzheimer's Disease Research Fund, the Penny Severns Breast and Cervical Cancer Research Fund, the National World War II Memorial Fund, the Prostate Cancer Research Fund, to the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund, the Lou Gehrig's Disease (ALS) Research Fund, the Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund, the Leukemia Treatment and Education Fund, the World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial Fund, the Korean War Veterans National Museum and Library Fund, and the Asthma and Lung Research Fund; and shall notify the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer of the amounts to be transferred from the General Revenue Fund to each fund, and upon receipt of such notification the State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts.

(Source: P.A. 92-84, eff. 7-1-02; 92-198, eff. 8-1-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-772, eff. 8-6-02; 92-886, eff. 2-7-03; 93-36, eff. 6-24-03; 93-131, eff. 7-10-03; 93-292, eff. 7-22-03; 93-324, eff. 7-23-03; revised 9-8-03.)

Section 140. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-5) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle of the first division, a motor vehicle of the second division that is a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through to the living quarters from the driver's seat, or a motor vehicle of the second division that is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article 5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act.

(31) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. This exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-35, eff. 7-1-01; 92-227, eff. 8-2-01; 92-337, eff. 8-10-01; 92-484, eff. 8-23-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-23, eff. 6-20-03; 93-24, eff. 6-20-03; revised 9-11-03.)

Section 145. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.32)

Sec. 2. "Use" means the exercise by any person of any right or power over tangible personal property incident to the ownership of that property, but does not include the sale or use for demonstration by him of that property in any form as tangible personal property in the regular course of business. "Use" does not mean the interim use of tangible personal property nor the physical incorporation of tangible personal property, as an ingredient or constituent, into other tangible personal property, (a) which is sold in the regular course of business or (b) which the person incorporating such ingredient or constituent therein has undertaken at the time of such purchase to cause to be transported in interstate commerce to destinations outside the State of Illinois.

"Purchased from a serviceman" means the acquisition of the ownership of, or title to, tangible personal property through a sale of service.

"Purchaser" means any person who, through a sale of service, acquires the ownership of, or title to, any tangible personal property.

"Cost price" means the consideration paid by the serviceman for a purchase valued in money, whether paid in money or otherwise, including cash, credits and services, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the supplier's cost of the property sold or on account of any other expense incurred by the supplier. When a serviceman contracts out part or all of the services required in his sale of service, it shall be presumed that the cost price to the serviceman of the property transferred to him or her by his or her subcontractor is equal to 50% of the subcontractor's charges to the serviceman in the absence of proof of the consideration paid by the subcontractor for the purchase of such property.

"Selling price" means the consideration for a sale valued in money whether received in money or otherwise, including cash, credits and service, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the serviceman's cost of the property sold, the cost of materials used, labor or service cost or any other expense whatsoever, but does not include interest or finance charges which appear as separate items on the bill of sale or sales contract nor charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax that is imposed by this Act.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint venture, public or private corporation, limited liability company, and any receiver, executor, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Sale of service" means any transaction except:

(1) a retail sale of tangible personal property taxable under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Use Tax Act.

(2) a sale of tangible personal property for the purpose of resale made in compliance with Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(3) except as hereinafter provided, a sale or transfer of tangible personal property as an incident to the rendering of service for or by any governmental body, or for or by any corporation, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes or any not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution or organization which has no compensated officers or employees and which is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes.

(4) a sale or transfer of tangible personal property as an incident to the rendering of service for interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce or by lessors under a lease of one year or longer, executed or in effect at the time of purchase of personal property, to interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce so long as so used by such interstate carriers for hire, and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(4a) a sale or transfer of tangible personal property as an incident to the rendering of service for owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property which is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce so long as so used by interstate carriers for hire, and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(4a-5) on and after July 1, 2003, a sale or transfer of a motor vehicle of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds as an incident to the rendering of service if that motor vehicle is subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. This exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act.

(5) a sale or transfer of machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of the manufacturing or assembling, either in an existing, an expanded or a new manufacturing facility, of tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether such sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether such sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in a service occupation and the applicable tax is a Service Use Tax or Service Occupation Tax, rather than Use Tax or Retailers' Occupation Tax.

(5a) the repairing, reconditioning or remodeling, for a common carrier by rail, of tangible personal property which belongs to such carrier for hire, and as to which such carrier receives the physical possession of the repaired, reconditioned or remodeled item of tangible personal property in Illinois, and which such carrier transports, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of such property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the person who repaired, reconditioned or remodeled the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(5b) a sale or transfer of tangible personal property which is produced by the seller thereof on special order in such a way as to have made the applicable tax the Service Occupation Tax or the Service Use Tax, rather than the Retailers' Occupation Tax or the Use Tax, for an interstate carrier by rail which receives the physical possession of such property in Illinois, and which transports such property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of such property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of such property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(6) until July 1, 2003, a sale or transfer of distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit and assembled or installed by the retailer, which machinery and equipment is certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of such user and not subject to sale or resale.

(7) at the election of any serviceman not required to be otherwise registered as a retailer under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, made for each fiscal year sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service. The purchase of such tangible personal property by the serviceman shall be subject to tax under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Use Tax Act. However, if a primary serviceman who has made the election described in this paragraph subcontracts service work to a secondary serviceman who has also made the election described in this paragraph, the primary serviceman does not incur a Use Tax liability if the secondary serviceman (i) has paid or will pay Use Tax on his or her cost price of any tangible personal property transferred to the primary serviceman and (ii) certifies that fact in writing to the primary serviceman.

Tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of a maintenance agreement is exempt from the tax imposed pursuant to this Act.

Exemption (5) also includes machinery and equipment used in the general maintenance or repair of such exempt machinery and equipment or for in-house manufacture of exempt machinery and equipment. For the purposes of exemption (5), each of these terms shall have the following meanings: (1) "manufacturing process" shall mean the production of any article of tangible personal property, whether such article is a finished product or an article for use in the process of manufacturing or assembling a different article of tangible personal property, by procedures commonly regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabricating, or refining which changes some existing material or materials into a material with a different form, use or name. In relation to a recognized integrated business composed of a series of operations which collectively constitute manufacturing, or individually constitute manufacturing operations, the manufacturing process shall be deemed to commence with the first operation or stage of production in the series, and shall not be deemed to end until the completion of the final product in the last operation or stage of production in the series; and further, for purposes of exemption (5), photoprocessing is deemed to be a manufacturing process of tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale; (2) "assembling process" shall mean the production of any article of tangible personal property, whether such article is a finished product or an article for use in the process of manufacturing or assembling a different article of tangible personal property, by the combination of existing materials in a manner commonly regarded as assembling which results in a material of a different form, use or name; (3) "machinery" shall mean major mechanical machines or major components of such machines contributing to a manufacturing or assembling process; and (4) "equipment" shall include any independent device or tool separate from any machinery but essential to an integrated manufacturing or assembly process; including computers used primarily in a manufacturer's computer assisted design, computer assisted manufacturing (CAD/CAM) system; or any subunit or assembly comprising a component of any machinery or auxiliary, adjunct or attachment parts of machinery, such as tools, dies, jigs, fixtures, patterns and molds; or any parts which require periodic replacement in the course of normal operation; but shall not include hand tools. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a product being manufactured or assembled for wholesale or retail sale or lease. The purchaser of such machinery and equipment who has an active resale registration number shall furnish such number to the seller at the time of purchase. The user of such machinery and equipment and tools without an active resale registration number shall prepare a certificate of exemption for each transaction stating facts establishing the exemption for that transaction, which certificate shall be available to the Department for inspection or audit. The Department shall prescribe the form of the certificate.

Any informal rulings, opinions or letters issued by the Department in response to an inquiry or request for any opinion from any person regarding the coverage and applicability of exemption (5) to specific devices shall be published, maintained as a public record, and made available for public inspection and copying. If the informal ruling, opinion or letter contains trade secrets or other confidential information, where possible the Department shall delete such information prior to publication. Whenever such informal rulings, opinions, or letters contain any policy of general applicability, the Department shall formulate and adopt such policy as a rule in accordance with the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

On and after July 1, 1987, no entity otherwise eligible under exemption (3) of this Section shall make tax free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

The purchase, employment and transfer of such tangible personal property as newsprint and ink for the primary purpose of conveying news (with or without other information) is not a purchase, use or sale of service or of tangible personal property within the meaning of this Act.

"Serviceman" means any person who is engaged in the occupation of making sales of service.

"Sale at retail" means "sale at retail" as defined in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

"Supplier" means any person who makes sales of tangible personal property to servicemen for the purpose of resale as an incident to a sale of service.

"Serviceman maintaining a place of business in this State", or any like term, means and includes any serviceman:

1. having or maintaining within this State, directly or by a subsidiary, an office, distribution house, sales house, warehouse or other place of business, or any agent or other representative operating within this State under the authority of the serviceman or its subsidiary, irrespective of whether such place of business or agent or other representative is located here permanently or temporarily, or whether such serviceman or subsidiary is licensed to do business in this State;

2. soliciting orders for tangible personal property by means of a telecommunication or television shopping system (which utilizes toll free numbers) which is intended by the retailer to be broadcast by cable television or other means of broadcasting, to consumers located in this State;

3. pursuant to a contract with a broadcaster or publisher located in this State, soliciting orders for tangible personal property by means of advertising which is disseminated primarily to consumers located in this State and only secondarily to bordering jurisdictions;

4. soliciting orders for tangible personal property by mail if the solicitations are substantial and recurring and if the retailer benefits from any banking, financing, debt collection, telecommunication, or marketing activities occurring in this State or benefits from the location in this State of authorized installation, servicing, or repair facilities;

5. being owned or controlled by the same interests which own or control any retailer engaging in business in the same or similar line of business in this State;

6. having a franchisee or licensee operating under its trade name if the franchisee or licensee is required to collect the tax under this Section;

7. pursuant to a contract with a cable television operator located in this State, soliciting orders for tangible personal property by means of advertising which is transmitted or distributed over a cable television system in this State; or

8. engaging in activities in Illinois, which activities in the state in which the supply business engaging in such activities is located would constitute maintaining a place of business in that state.

(Source: P.A. 92-484, eff. 8-23-01; 93-23, eff. 6-20-03; 93-24, eff. 6-20-03; revised 8-21-03.)

Section 150. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.102)

Sec. 2. "Transfer" means any transfer of the title to property or of the ownership of property whether or not the transferor retains title as security for the payment of amounts due him from the transferee.

"Cost Price" means the consideration paid by the serviceman for a purchase valued in money, whether paid in money or otherwise, including cash, credits and services, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the supplier's cost of the property sold or on account of any other expense incurred by the supplier. When a serviceman contracts out part or all of the services required in his sale of service, it shall be presumed that the cost price to the serviceman of the property transferred to him by his or her subcontractor is equal to 50% of the subcontractor's charges to the serviceman in the absence of proof of the consideration paid by the subcontractor for the purchase of such property.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint venture, public or private corporation, limited liability company, and any receiver, executor, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Sale of Service" means any transaction except:

(a) A retail sale of tangible personal property taxable under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Use Tax Act.

(b) A sale of tangible personal property for the purpose of resale made in compliance with Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(c) Except as hereinafter provided, a sale or transfer of tangible personal property as an incident to the rendering of service for or by any governmental body or for or by any corporation, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes or any not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution or organization which has no compensated officers or employees and which is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes.

(d) A sale or transfer of tangible personal property as an incident to the rendering of service for interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce or lessors under leases of one year or longer, executed or in effect at the time of purchase, to interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce, and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(d-1) A sale or transfer of tangible personal property as an incident to the rendering of service for owners, lessors or shippers of tangible personal property which is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce, and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(d-1.1) On and after July 1, 2003, a sale or transfer of a motor vehicle of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds as an incident to the rendering of service if that motor vehicle is subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. This exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act.

(d-2) The repairing, reconditioning or remodeling, for a common carrier by rail, of tangible personal property which belongs to such carrier for hire, and as to which such carrier receives the physical possession of the repaired, reconditioned or remodeled item of tangible personal property in Illinois, and which such carrier transports, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of such property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the person who repaired, reconditioned or remodeled the property as the shipper or consignor of such property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(d-3) A sale or transfer of tangible personal property which is produced by the seller thereof on special order in such a way as to have made the applicable tax the Service Occupation Tax or the Service Use Tax, rather than the Retailers' Occupation Tax or the Use Tax, for an interstate carrier by rail which receives the physical possession of such property in Illinois, and which transports such property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of such property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of such property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(d-4) Until January 1, 1997, a sale, by a registered serviceman paying tax under this Act to the Department, of special order printed materials delivered outside Illinois and which are not returned to this State, if delivery is made by the seller or agent of the seller, including an agent who causes the product to be delivered outside Illinois by a common carrier or the U.S. postal service.

(e) A sale or transfer of machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of the manufacturing or assembling, either in an existing, an expanded or a new manufacturing facility, of tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether such sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether such sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in a service occupation and the applicable tax is a Service Occupation Tax or Service Use Tax, rather than Retailers' Occupation Tax or Use Tax.

(f) Until July 1, 2003, the sale or transfer of distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit and assembled or installed by the retailer, which machinery and equipment is certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of such user and not subject to sale or resale.

(g) At the election of any serviceman not required to be otherwise registered as a retailer under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, made for each fiscal year sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35% (75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production) of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service. The purchase of such tangible personal property by the serviceman shall be subject to tax under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Use Tax Act. However, if a primary serviceman who has made the election described in this paragraph subcontracts service work to a secondary serviceman who has also made the election described in this paragraph, the primary serviceman does not incur a Use Tax liability if the secondary serviceman (i) has paid or will pay Use Tax on his or her cost price of any tangible personal property transferred to the primary serviceman and (ii) certifies that fact in writing to the primary serviceman.

Tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of a maintenance agreement is exempt from the tax imposed pursuant to this Act.

Exemption (e) also includes machinery and equipment used in the general maintenance or repair of such exempt machinery and equipment or for in-house manufacture of exempt machinery and equipment. For the purposes of exemption (e), each of these terms shall have the following meanings: (1) "manufacturing process" shall mean the production of any article of tangible personal property, whether such article is a finished product or an article for use in the process of manufacturing or assembling a different article of tangible personal property, by procedures commonly regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabricating, or refining which changes some existing material or materials into a material with a different form, use or name. In relation to a recognized integrated business composed of a series of operations which collectively constitute manufacturing, or individually constitute manufacturing operations, the manufacturing process shall be deemed to commence with the first operation or stage of production in the series, and shall not be deemed to end until the completion of the final product in the last operation or stage of production in the series; and further for purposes of exemption (e), photoprocessing is deemed to be a manufacturing process of tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale; (2) "assembling process" shall mean the production of any article of tangible personal property, whether such article is a finished product or an article for use in the process of manufacturing or assembling a different article of tangible personal property, by the combination of existing materials in a manner commonly regarded as assembling which results in a material of a different form, use or name; (3) "machinery" shall mean major mechanical machines or major components of such machines contributing to a manufacturing or assembling process; and (4) "equipment" shall include any independent device or tool separate from any machinery but essential to an integrated manufacturing or assembly process; including computers used primarily in a manufacturer's computer assisted design, computer assisted manufacturing (CAD/CAM) system; or any subunit or assembly comprising a component of any machinery or auxiliary, adjunct or attachment parts of machinery, such as tools, dies, jigs, fixtures, patterns and molds; or any parts which require periodic replacement in the course of normal operation; but shall not include hand tools. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a product being manufactured or assembled for wholesale or retail sale or lease. The purchaser of such machinery and equipment who has an active resale registration number shall furnish such number to the seller at the time of purchase. The purchaser of such machinery and equipment and tools without an active resale registration number shall furnish to the seller a certificate of exemption for each transaction stating facts establishing the exemption for that transaction, which certificate shall be available to the Department for inspection or audit.

Except as provided in Section 2d of this Act, the rolling stock exemption applies to rolling stock used by an interstate carrier for hire, even just between points in Illinois, if such rolling stock transports, for hire, persons whose journeys or property whose shipments originate or terminate outside Illinois.

Any informal rulings, opinions or letters issued by the Department in response to an inquiry or request for any opinion from any person regarding the coverage and applicability of exemption (e) to specific devices shall be published, maintained as a public record, and made available for public inspection and copying. If the informal ruling, opinion or letter contains trade secrets or other confidential information, where possible the Department shall delete such information prior to publication. Whenever such informal rulings, opinions, or letters contain any policy of general applicability, the Department shall formulate and adopt such policy as a rule in accordance with the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

On and after July 1, 1987, no entity otherwise eligible under exemption (c) of this Section shall make tax free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

"Serviceman" means any person who is engaged in the occupation of making sales of service.

"Sale at Retail" means "sale at retail" as defined in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

"Supplier" means any person who makes sales of tangible personal property to servicemen for the purpose of resale as an incident to a sale of service.

(Source: P.A. 92-484, eff. 8-23-01; 93-23, eff. 6-20-03; 93-24, eff. 6-20-03; revised 8-21-03.)

Section 155. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2-5 and 3 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-5) (from Ch. 120, par. 441-5)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(5) A motor vehicle of the first division, a motor vehicle of the second division that is a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through access to the living quarters from the driver's seat, or a motor vehicle of the second division that is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) Tangible personal property sold to interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce or to lessors under leases of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of purchase by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. This exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Petroleum products sold to a purchaser if the seller is prohibited by federal law from charging tax to the purchaser.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(22) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) A motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes.

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article 5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-35, eff. 7-1-01; 92-227, eff. 8-2-01; 92-337, eff. 8-10-01; 92-484, eff. 8-23-01; 92-488, eff. 8-23-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-680, eff. 7-16-02; 93-23, eff. 6-20-03; 93-24, eff. 6-20-03; revised 9-11-03.)

(35 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 120, par. 442)

Sec. 3. Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, every person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. His residence address and the address of his principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. Total amount of receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter, as the case may be, from sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him during such preceding calendar month or quarter;

4. Total amount received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter on charge and time sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him prior to the month or quarter for which the return is filed;

5. Deductions allowed by law;

6. Gross receipts which were received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

7. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

8. The amount of tax due;

9. The signature of the taxpayer; and

10. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Each return shall be accompanied by the statement of prepaid tax issued pursuant to Section 2e for which credit is claimed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, a retailer may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Use Tax as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted by a retailer prior to October 1, 2003 as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act, may be used by that retailer to satisfy Retailers' Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 shall be disallowed. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, any person who is not a licensed distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer, as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, but is engaged in the business of selling, at retail, alcoholic liquor shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, in a format and at a time prescribed by the Department, showing the total amount paid for alcoholic liquor purchased during the preceding month and such other information as is reasonably required by the Department. The Department may adopt rules to require that this statement be filed in an electronic or telephonic format. Such rules may provide for exceptions from the filing requirements of this paragraph. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term "alcoholic liquor" shall have the meaning prescribed in the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, every distributor, importing distributor, and manufacturer of alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which transactions occurred, by electronic means, showing the total amount of gross receipts from the sale of alcoholic liquor sold or distributed during the preceding month to purchasers; identifying the purchaser to whom it was sold or distributed; the purchaser's tax registration number; and such other information reasonably required by the Department. A copy of the monthly statement shall be sent to the retailer no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which transactions occurred.

If a total amount of less than $1 is payable, refundable or creditable, such amount shall be disregarded if it is less than 50 cents and shall be increased to $1 if it is 50 cents or more.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Any amount which is required to be shown or reported on any return or other document under this Act shall, if such amount is not a whole-dollar amount, be increased to the nearest whole-dollar amount in any case where the fractional part of a dollar is 50 cents or more, and decreased to the nearest whole-dollar amount where the fractional part of a dollar is less than 50 cents.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability with the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

Where the same person has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations under this Act, such person may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle retailer or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 2-5 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

Any retailer who sells only motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, so that all retailers' occupation tax liability is required to be reported, and is reported, on such transaction reporting returns and who is not otherwise required to file monthly or quarterly returns, need not file monthly or quarterly returns. However, those retailers shall be required to file returns on an annual basis.

The transaction reporting return, in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft or aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the day of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the Illinois use tax may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a use tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of the tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Refunds made by the seller during the preceding return period to purchasers, on account of tangible personal property returned to the seller, shall be allowed as a deduction under subdivision 5 of his monthly or quarterly return, as the case may be, in case the seller had theretofore included the receipts from the sale of such tangible personal property in a return filed by him and had paid the tax imposed by this Act with respect to such receipts.

Where the seller is a corporation, the return filed on behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president, vice-president, secretary or treasurer or by the properly accredited agent of such corporation.

Where the seller is a limited liability company, the return filed on behalf of the limited liability company shall be signed by a manager, member, or properly accredited agent of the limited liability company.

Except as provided in this Section, the retailer filing the return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. Any prepayment made pursuant to Section 2d of this Act shall be included in the amount on which such 2.1% or 1.75% discount is computed. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985 and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987 and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $10,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $20,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

The provisions of this paragraph apply before October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes which average in excess of $25,000 per month during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters, shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985, each payment shall be in an amount not less than 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability under Section 2d. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1986, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding calendar year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters is $25,000 or less. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

The provisions of this paragraph apply on and after October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes that average in excess of $20,000 per month during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which the liability is incurred. Each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of the quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until the taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarters is less than $20,000. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown on an original monthly return, the Department shall, if requested by the taxpayer, issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment. The credit evidenced by such credit memorandum may be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determined that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% and 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and that taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If a retailer of motor fuel is entitled to a credit under Section 2d of this Act which exceeds the taxpayer's liability to the Department under this Act for the month which the taxpayer is filing a return, the Department shall issue the taxpayer a credit memorandum for the excess.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as hereinafter defined), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; the "Annual Specified Amount" means the amounts specified below for fiscal years 1986 through 1993:

and means the Certified Annual Debt Service Requirement (as defined in Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act) or the Tax Act Amount, whichever is greater, for fiscal year 1994 and each fiscal year thereafter; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year. The amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under clause (b) of the first sentence in this paragraph shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the first sentence of this paragraph and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to that clause (b). The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Community Affairs Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the retailer's last Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the retailer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The retailer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the retailer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, costs of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the retailer during such year, payroll information of the retailer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such retailer as provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The provisions of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return do not apply to a retailer who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

Any person who promotes, organizes, provides retail selling space for concessionaires or other types of sellers at the Illinois State Fair, DuQuoin State Fair, county fairs, local fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, including any transient merchant as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, is required to file a report with the Department providing the name of the merchant's business, the name of the person or persons engaged in merchant's business, the permanent address and Illinois Retailers Occupation Tax Registration Number of the merchant, the dates and location of the event and other reasonable information that the Department may require. The report must be filed not later than the 20th day of the month next following the month during which the event with retail sales was held. Any person who fails to file a report required by this Section commits a business offense and is subject to a fine not to exceed $250.

Any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail as a concessionaire or other type of seller at the Illinois State Fair, county fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, or any transient merchants, as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, may be required to make a daily report of the amount of such sales to the Department and to make a daily payment of the full amount of tax due. The Department shall impose this requirement when it finds that there is a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State at such an exhibition or event. Such a finding shall be based on evidence that a substantial number of concessionaires or other sellers who are not residents of Illinois will be engaging in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail at the exhibition or event, or other evidence of a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State. The Department shall notify concessionaires and other sellers affected by the imposition of this requirement. In the absence of notification by the Department, the concessionaires and other sellers shall file their returns as otherwise required in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-12, eff. 7-1-01; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-208, eff. 8-2-01; 92-484, eff. 8-23-01; 92-492, eff. 1-1-02; 92-600, eff. 6-28-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-22, eff. 6-20-03; 93-24, eff. 6-20-03; revised 10-15-03.)

Section 160. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 15-25, 15-55, 16-190, 18-177, and 18-185 and setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 18-92 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/15-25)

Sec. 15-25. Removal of exemptions. If the Department determines that any property has been unlawfully exempted from taxation, or is no longer entitled to exemption, the Department shall, before January 1 of any year, direct the chief county assessment officer to assess the property and return it to the assessment rolls for the next assessment year. The Department shall give notice of its decision to the owner of the property by certified mail. The decision shall be subject to review and hearing under Section 8-35, upon application by the owner filed within 60 days after the notice of decision is mailed. However, the extension of taxes on the assessment shall not be delayed by any proceedings under this Section. If the property is determined to be exempt, any taxes extended upon the assessment shall be abated or, if already paid, be refunded.

(Source: P.A. 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-658, eff. 7-16-02; revised 7-26-02.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-55)

Sec. 15-55. State property.

(a) All property belonging to the State of Illinois is exempt. However, the State agency holding title shall file the certificate of ownership and use required by Section 15-10, together with a copy of any written lease or agreement, in effect on March 30 of the assessment year, concerning parcels of 1 acre or more, or an explanation of the terms of any oral agreement under which the property is leased, subleased or rented.

The leased property shall be assessed to the lessee and the taxes thereon extended and billed to the lessee, and collected in the same manner as for property which is not exempt. The lessee shall be liable for the taxes and no lien shall attach to the property of the State.

For the purposes of this Section, the word "leases" includes licenses, franchises, operating agreements and other arrangements under which private individuals, associations or corporations are granted the right to use property of the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority and includes all property of the Authority used by others without regard to the size of the leased parcel.

(b) However, all property of every kind belonging to the State of Illinois, which is or may hereafter be leased to the Illinois Prairie Path Corporation, shall be exempt from all assessments, taxation or collection, despite the making of any such lease, if it is used for:

(1) conservation, nature trail or any other charitable, scientific, educational or recreational purposes with public benefit, including the preserving and aiding in the preservation of natural areas, objects, flora, fauna or biotic communities;

(2) the establishment of footpaths, trails and other protected areas;

(3) the conservation of the proper use of natural resources or the promotion of the study of plant and animal communities and of other phases of ecology, natural history and conservation;

(4) the promotion of education in the fields of nature, preservation and conservation; or

(5) similar public recreational activities conducted by the Illinois Prairie Path Corporation.

No lien shall attach to the property of the State. No tax liability shall become the obligation of or be enforceable against Illinois Prairie Path Corporation.

(c) If the State sells the James R. Thompson Center or the Elgin Mental Health Center and surrounding land located at 750 S. State Street, Elgin, Illinois, as provided in subdivision (a)(2) of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, to another entity whose property is not exempt and immediately thereafter enters into a leaseback or other agreement that directly or indirectly gives the State a right to use, control, and possess the property, that portion of the property leased and occupied exclusively by the State shall remain exempt under this Section. For the property to remain exempt under this subsection (c), the State must retain an option to purchase the property at a future date or, within the limitations period for reverters, the property must revert back to the State.

If the property has been conveyed as described in this subsection (c), the property is no longer exempt pursuant to this Section as of the date when:

(1) the right of the State to use, control, and possess the property has been terminated; or

(2) the State no longer has an option to purchase or otherwise acquire the property and there is no provision for a reverter of the property to the State within the limitations period for reverters.

Pursuant to Sections 15-15 and 15-20 of this Code, the State shall notify the chief county assessment officer of any transaction under this subsection (c). The chief county assessment officer shall determine initial and continuing compliance with the requirements of this Section for tax exemption. Failure to notify the chief county assessment officer of a transaction under this subsection (c) or to otherwise comply with the requirements of Sections 15-15 and 15-20 of this Code shall, in the discretion of the chief county assessment officer, constitute cause to terminate the exemption, notwithstanding any other provision of this Code.

(c-1) If the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority sells the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority headquarters building and surrounding land, located at 2700 Ogden Avenue, Downers Grove, Illinois as provided in subdivision (a)(2) of Section 7.5 of the State Property Control Act, to another entity whose property is not exempt and immediately thereafter enters into a leaseback or other agreement that directly or indirectly gives the State or the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority a right to use, control, and possess the property, that portion of the property leased and occupied exclusively by the State or the Authority shall remain exempt under this Section. For the property to remain exempt under this subsection (c), the Authority must retain an option to purchase the property at a future date or, within the limitations period for reverters, the property must revert back to the Authority.

If the property has been conveyed as described in this subsection (c), the property is no longer exempt pursuant to this Section as of the date when:

(1) the right of the State or the Authority to use, control, and possess the property has been terminated; or

(2) the Authority no longer has an option to purchase or otherwise acquire the property and there is no provision for a reverter of the property to the Authority within the limitations period for reverters.

Pursuant to Sections 15-15 and 15-20 of this Code, the Authority shall notify the chief county assessment officer of any transaction under this subsection (c). The chief county assessment officer shall determine initial and continuing compliance with the requirements of this Section for tax exemption. Failure to notify the chief county assessment officer of a transaction under this subsection (c) or to otherwise comply with the requirements of Sections 15-15 and 15-20 of this Code shall, in the discretion of the chief county assessment officer, constitute cause to terminate the exemption, notwithstanding any other provision of this Code.

(d) However, The fair market rent of each parcel of real property in Will County owned by the State of Illinois for the purpose of developing an airport by the Department of Transportation shall include the assessed value of leasehold tax. The lessee of each parcel of real property in Will County owned by the State of Illinois for the purpose of developing an airport by the Department of Transportation shall not be liable for the taxes thereon. In order for the State to compensate taxing districts for the leasehold tax under this paragraph the Will County Supervisor of Assessments shall certify, in writing, to the Department of Transportation, the amount of leasehold taxes extended for the 2002 property tax year for each such exempt parcel. The Department of Transportation shall pay to the Will County Treasurer, from the Tax Recovery Fund, on or before July 1 of each year, the amount of leasehold taxes for each such exempt parcel as certified by the Will County Supervisor of Assessments. The tax compensation shall terminate on December 31, 2010. It is the duty of the Department of Transportation to file with the Office of the Will County Supervisor of Assessments an affidavit stating the termination date for rental of each such parcel due to airport construction. The affidavit shall include the property identification number for each such parcel. In no instance shall tax compensation for property owned by the State be deemed delinquent or bear interest. In no instance shall a lien attach to the property of the State. In no instance shall the State be required to pay leasehold tax compensation in excess of the Tax Recovery Fund's balance.

(e) (d) Public Act 81-1026 applies to all leases or agreements entered into or renewed on or after September 24, 1979.

(Source: P.A. 93-19, eff. 6-20-03; 93-658, eff. 1-22-04; revised 1-22-04.)

(35 ILCS 200/16-190)

Sec. 16-190. Record of proceedings and orders.

(a) The Property Tax Appeal Board shall keep a record of its proceedings and orders and the record shall be a public record. In all cases where the contesting party is seeking a change of $100,000 or more in assessed valuation, the contesting party must provide a court reporter at his or her own expense. The original certified transcript of such hearing shall be forwarded to the Springfield office of the Property Tax Appeal Board and shall become part of the Board's official record of the proceeding on appeal. Each year the Property Tax Appeal Board shall publish a volume containing a synopsis of representative cases decided by the Board during that year. The publication shall be organized by or cross-referenced by the issue presented before the Board in each case contained in the publication. The publication shall be available for inspection by the public at the Property Tax Appeal Board offices and copies shall be available for a reasonable cost, except as provided in Section 16-191.

(b) The Property Tax Appeal Board shall provide annually, no later than February 1, to the Governor and the General Assembly a report that contains for each county the following:

(1) the total number of cases for commercial and industrial property requesting a reduction in assessed value of $100,000 or more for each of the last 5 years;

(2) the total number of cases for commercial and industrial property decided by the Property Tax Appeal Board for each of the last 5 years; and

(3) the total change in assessed value based on the Property Tax Appeal Board decisions for commercial property and industrial property for each of the last 5 years.

(c) The requirement for providing a report to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the following:

(1) the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(2) the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(3) the Clerk of the House of Representatives;

(4) the President of the Senate;

(5) the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(6) the Secretary of the Senate;

(7) the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act; and

(8) the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly, as required by subsection (t) of Section 7 320 of the State Library Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-248, eff. 7-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-92)

Sec. 18-92. Downstate School Finance Authority for Elementary Districts Law. The provisions of the Truth in Taxation Law are subject to the Downstate School Finance Authority for Elementary Districts Law.

(Source: P.A. 92-855, eff. 12-6-02.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-93)

Sec. 18-93 18-92. Maywood Public Library District Tax Levy Validation (2002) Law. The provisions of the Truth in Taxation Law are subject to the Maywood Public Library District Tax Levy Validation (2002) Law.

(Source: P.A. 92-884, eff. 1-13-03; revised 1-18-03.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-177)

Sec. 18-177. Leased low-rent housing abatement. In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the county clerk shall abate property taxes levied by any taxing district under this Code on property that meets the following requirements:

(1) The property does not qualify as exempt property under Section 15-95 of this Code.

(2) The property is situated in a municipality with 1,000,000 or more inhabitants and improved with either a multifamily dwelling or a multi-building development that is subject to a leasing agreement, regulatory and operating agreement, or other similar instrument with a Housing Authority created under the Housing Authorities Act that sets forth the terms for leasing low-rent housing.

(3) For a period of not less than 20 years, the property and improvements are used solely for low-rent housing and related uses.

Property and portions of property used or intended to be used for commercial purposes are not eligible for the abatement provided in this Section.

A housing authority created under the Housing Authorities Act shall file annually with the county clerk for any property eligible for an abatement under this Section, on a form prescribed by the county clerk, a certificate of the property's use during the immediately preceding year. The certificate shall certify that the property or a portion of the property meets the requirements of this Section and that the eligible residential units have been inspected within the previous 90 days and meet or exceed all housing quality standards of the authority. If only a portion of the property meets these requirements, the certificate shall state the amount of that portion as a percentage of the total equalized and assessed value of the property. If the property is improved with an eligible multifamily dwelling or multi-building development containing residential units that are individually assessed, no more than 40% of those residential units may be certified. If the property is improved with an eligible multifamily dwelling or multi-building development containing residential units that are not individually assessed, the portion of the property certified shall represent no more than 40% of those residential units.

The county clerk shall abate the taxes only if a certificate of use has been timely filed for that year. If only a portion of the property has been certified as eligible, the county clerk shall abate the taxes in the percentage so certified.

Whenever property receives an abatement under this Section, the rental rate set under the lease, regulatory and operating agreement, or other similar instrument for that property shall not include property taxes.

No property shall be eligible for abatement under this Section if the owner of the property has any outstanding and overdue debts to the municipality in which the property is situated.

(Source: P.A. 92-621, eff. 7-11-02; revised 11-6-02.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-185)

Sec. 18-185. Short title; definitions. This Division 5 may be cited as the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law. As used in this Division 5:

"Consumer Price Index" means the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor.

"Extension limitation" means (a) the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year or (b) the rate of increase approved by voters under Section 18-205.

"Affected county" means a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants or a county contiguous to a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants.

"Taxing district" has the same meaning provided in Section 1-150, except as otherwise provided in this Section. For the 1991 through 1994 levy years only, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district having the majority of its 1990 equalized assessed value within any county or counties contiguous to a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants. Beginning with the 1995 levy year, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year and each non-home rule taxing district not subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year having the majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value in an affected county or counties. Beginning with the levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to a taxing district as provided in Section 18-213, "taxing district" also includes those taxing districts made subject to this Law as provided in Section 18-213.

"Aggregate extension" for taxing districts to which this Law applied before the 1995 levy year means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after October 1, 1991 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before October 1, 1991 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before October 1, 1991, to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before October 1, 1991; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), (e), and (h) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made by a school district that participates in the Special Education District of Lake County, created by special education joint agreement under Section 10-22.31 of the School Code, for payment of the school district's share of the amounts required to be contributed by the Special Education District of Lake County to the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under Article 7 of the Illinois Pension Code; the amount of any extension under this item (k) shall be certified by the school district to the county clerk; and (l) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

"Aggregate extension" for the taxing districts to which this Law did not apply before the 1995 levy year (except taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213) means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after March 1, 1995 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before March 1, 1995 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before March 1, 1995 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before March 1, 1995; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum and bonds described in subsection (h) of this definition; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium or museum projects; (l) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 87-1191 or 93-601 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and (i) issued pursuant to Section 21.2 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act, (ii) issued under Section 42 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for zoological park projects, or (iii) issued under Section 44.1 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for botanical gardens projects; (m) made pursuant to Section 34-53.5 of the School Code, whether levied annually or not; (n) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; and (o) made by the Chicago Park District for recreational programs for the handicapped under subsection (c) of Section 7.06 of the Chicago Park District Act.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those taxing districts subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held if the bonds were approved by referendum after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); and (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 if the bonds were approved by referendum after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); and (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

"Debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for a taxing district for the 1994 levy year, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, for the levy year in which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 for the 1996 levy year, constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the taxing district without referendum, but not including excluded non-referendum bonds. For park districts (i) that were first subject to this Law in 1991 or 1995 and (ii) whose extension for the 1994 levy year for the payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds) was less than 51% of the amount for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds), "debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds). The debt service extension base may be established or increased as provided under Section 18-212. "Excluded non-referendum bonds" means (i) bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium and museum projects; (ii) bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; or (iii) refunding obligations issued to refund or to continue to refund obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum.

"Special purpose extensions" include, but are not limited to, extensions for levies made on an annual basis for unemployment and workers' compensation, self-insurance, contributions to pension plans, and extensions made pursuant to Section 6-601 of the Illinois Highway Code for a road district's permanent road fund whether levied annually or not. The extension for a special service area is not included in the aggregate extension.

"Aggregate extension base" means the taxing district's last preceding aggregate extension as adjusted under Sections 18-215 through 18-230.

"Levy year" has the same meaning as "year" under Section 1-155.

"New property" means (i) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of new improvements or additions to existing improvements on any parcel of real property that increase the assessed value of that real property during the levy year multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, (ii) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of real property not exempt from real estate taxation, which real property was exempt from real estate taxation for any portion of the immediately preceding levy year, multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, and (iii) in counties that classify in accordance with Section 4 of Article IX of the Illinois Constitution, an incentive property's additional assessed value resulting from a scheduled increase in the level of assessment as applied to the first year final board of review market value. In addition, the county clerk in a county containing a population of 3,000,000 or more shall include in the 1997 recovered tax increment value for any school district, any recovered tax increment value that was applicable to the 1995 tax year calculations.

"Qualified airport authority" means an airport authority organized under the Airport Authorities Act and located in a county bordering on the State of Wisconsin and having a population in excess of 200,000 and not greater than 500,000.

"Recovered tax increment value" means, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value, in the first year after a municipality terminates the designation of an area as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. For the taxes which are extended for the 1997 levy year, the recovered tax increment value for a non-home rule taxing district that first became subject to this Law for the 1995 levy year because a majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value was in an affected county or counties shall be increased if a municipality terminated the designation of an area in 1993 as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, by an amount equal to the 1994 equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. In the first year after a municipality removes a taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property from a redevelopment project area established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, "recovered tax increment value" means the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property removed from the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of that real property before removal from the redevelopment project area.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, "limiting rate" means a fraction the numerator of which is the last preceding aggregate extension base times an amount equal to one plus the extension limitation defined in this Section and the denominator of which is the current year's equalized assessed value of all real property in the territory under the jurisdiction of the taxing district during the prior levy year. For those taxing districts that reduced their aggregate extension for the last preceding levy year, the highest aggregate extension in any of the last 3 preceding levy years shall be used for the purpose of computing the limiting rate. The denominator shall not include new property. The denominator shall not include the recovered tax increment value.

(Source: P.A. 92-547, eff. 6-13-02; 93-601, eff. 1-1-04; 93-606, eff. 11-18-03; 93-612, eff. 11-18-03; revised 12-10-03.)

Section 165. The Simplified Municipal Telecommunications Tax Act is amended by changing Section 5-50 as follows:

(35 ILCS 636/5-50)

Sec. 5-50. Returns to the Department.

(a) Commencing on February 1, 2003, for the tax imposed under subsection (a) of Section 5-20 of this Act, every retailer maintaining a place of business in this State shall, on or before the last day of each month make a return to the Department for the preceding calendar month, stating:

(1) Its name;

(2) The address of its principal place of business or the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which it engages in the business of transmitting telecommunications;

(3) Total amount of gross charges billed by it during the preceding calendar month for providing telecommunications during the calendar month;

(4) Total amount received by it during the preceding calendar month on credit extended;

(5) Deductions allowed by law;

(6) Gross charges that were billed by it during the preceding calendar month and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

(7) Amount of tax (computed upon Item 6);

(8) The municipalities to which the Department shall remit the taxes and the amount of such remittances;

(9) Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

(b) Any retailer required to make payments under this Section may make the payments by electronic funds transfer. The Department shall adopt rules necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer. Any retailer who has average monthly tax billings due to the Department under this Act and the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act that exceed $1,000 shall make all payments by electronic funds transfer as required by rules of the Department.

(c) If the retailer's average monthly tax billings due to the Department under this Act and the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act do not exceed $1,000, the Department may authorize such retailer's returns to be filed on a quarter-annual basis, with the return for January, February, and March of a given year being due by April 30th of that year; with the return for April, May, and June of a given year being due by July 31st of that year; with the return for July, August, and September of a given year being due by October 31st of that year; and with the return for October, November, and December of a given year being due by January 31st of the following year.

(d) If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax billings due to the Department under this Act and the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act do not exceed $400, the Department may authorize such retailer's return to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 31st of the following year.

(e) Each retailer whose average monthly remittance to the Department under this Act and the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act was $25,000 or more during the preceding calendar year, excluding the month of highest remittance and the month of lowest remittance in such calendar year, and who is not operated by a unit of local government, shall make estimated payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd, and last day of the month during which the tax remittance is owed to the Department in an amount not less than the lower of either 22.5% of the retailer's actual tax collections for the month or 25% of the retailer's actual tax collections for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of such quarter-monthly payments shall be credited against the final remittance of the retailer's return for that month. Any outstanding credit, approved by the Department, arising from the retailer's overpayment of its final remittance for any month may be applied to reduce the amount of any subsequent quarter-monthly payment or credited against the final remittance of the retailer's return for any subsequent month. If any quarter-monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, the retailer shall be liable for penalty and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of such payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the retailer has previously made payments for that month to the Department or received credits in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section containing the time within which a retailer may file his or her return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business that makes him or her responsible for filing returns under this Section, the retailer shall file a final return under this Section with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

(g) In making such return, the retailer shall determine the value of any consideration other than money received by it and such retailer shall include the value in its return. Such determination shall be subject to review and revision by the Department in the manner hereinafter provided for the correction of returns.

(h) Any retailer who has average monthly tax billings due to the Department under this Act and the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act that exceed $1,000 shall file the return required by this Section by electronic means as required by rules of the Department.

(i) The retailer filing the return herein provided for shall, at the time of filing the return, pay to the Department the amounts due pursuant to this Act. The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, 99.5% of all taxes, penalties, and interest collected hereunder for deposit into the Municipal Telecommunications Fund, which is hereby created. The remaining 0.5% received by the Department pursuant to this Act shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department.

On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to be paid to named municipalities from the Municipal Telecommunications Fund for amounts collected during the second preceding calendar month. The named municipalities shall be those municipalities identified by a retailer in such retailer's return as having imposed the tax authorized by the Act. The amount of money to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously erronenously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amount that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification from the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification. When certifying to the Comptroller the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

(j) For municipalities with populations of less than 500,000, whenever the Department determines that a refund shall be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Municipal Telecommunications Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-526, eff. 7-1-02; revised 2-17-03.)

Section 170. The Uniform Penalty and Interest Act is amended by changing Sections 3-2 and 3-3 as follows:

(35 ILCS 735/3-2) (from Ch. 120, par. 2603-2)

Sec. 3-2. Interest.

(a) Interest paid by the Department to taxpayers and interest charged to taxpayers by the Department shall be paid at the annual rate determined by the Department. For periods prior to January 1, 2004, that rate shall be the underpayment rate established under Section 6621 of the Internal Revenue Code. For periods after December 31, 2003, that rate shall be:

(1) for the one-year period beginning with the date of underpayment or overpayment, the short-term federal rate established under Section 6621 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) for any period beginning the day after the one-year period described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a), the underpayment rate established under Section 6621 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(b) The interest rate shall be adjusted on a semiannual basis, on January 1 and July 1, based upon the underpayment rate or short-term federal rate going into effect on that January 1 or July 1 under Section 6621 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) This subsection (c) is applicable to returns due on and before December 31, 2000. Interest shall be simple interest calculated on a daily basis. Interest shall accrue upon tax and penalty due. If notice and demand is made for the payment of any amount of tax due and if the amount due is paid within 30 days after the date of such notice and demand, interest under this Section on the amount so paid shall not be imposed for the period after the date of the notice and demand.

(c-5) This subsection (c-5) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2001. Interest shall be simple interest calculated on a daily basis. Interest shall accrue upon tax due. If notice and demand is made for the payment of any amount of tax due and if the amount due is paid within 30 days after the date of the notice and demand, interest under this Section on the amount so paid shall not be imposed for the period after the date of the notice and demand.

(d) No interest shall be paid upon any overpayment of tax if the overpayment is refunded or a credit approved within 90 days after the last date prescribed for filing the original return, or within 90 days of the receipt of the processable return, or within 90 days after the date of overpayment, whichever date is latest, as determined without regard to processing time by the Comptroller or without regard to the date on which the credit is applied to the taxpayer's account. In order for an original return to be processable for purposes of this Section, it must be in the form prescribed or approved by the Department, signed by the person authorized by law, and contain all information, schedules, and support documents necessary to determine the tax due and to make allocations of tax as prescribed by law. For the purposes of computing interest, a return shall be deemed to be processable unless the Department notifies the taxpayer that the return is not processable within 90 days after the receipt of the return; however, interest shall not accumulate for the period following this date of notice. Interest on amounts refunded or credited pursuant to the filing of an amended return or claim for refund shall be determined from the due date of the original return or the date of overpayment, whichever is later, to the date of payment by the Department without regard to processing time by the Comptroller or the date of credit by the Department or without regard to the date on which the credit is applied to the taxpayer's account. If a claim for refund relates to an overpayment attributable to a net loss carryback as provided by Section 207 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, the date of overpayment shall be the last day of the taxable year in which the loss was incurred.

(e) Interest on erroneous refunds. Any portion of the tax imposed by an Act to which this Act is applicable or any interest or penalty which has been erroneously refunded and which is recoverable by the Department shall bear interest from the date of payment of the refund. However, no interest will be charged if the erroneous refund is for an amount less than $500 and is due to a mistake of the Department.

(f) If a taxpayer has a tax liability that is eligible for amnesty under the Tax Delinquency Amnesty Act and the taxpayer fails to satisfy the tax liability during the amnesty period provided for in that Act, then the interest charged by the Department under this Section shall be imposed at a rate that is 200% of the rate that would otherwise be imposed under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-26, eff. 6-20-03; 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; revised 8-1-03.)

(35 ILCS 735/3-3) (from Ch. 120, par. 2603-3)

Sec. 3-3. Penalty for failure to file or pay.

(a) This subsection (a) is applicable before January 1, 1996. A penalty of 5% of the tax required to be shown due on a return shall be imposed for failure to file the tax return on or before the due date prescribed for filing determined with regard for any extension of time for filing (penalty for late filing or nonfiling). If any unprocessable return is corrected and filed within 21 days after notice by the Department, the late filing or nonfiling penalty shall not apply. If a penalty for late filing or nonfiling is imposed in addition to a penalty for late payment, the total penalty due shall be the sum of the late filing penalty and the applicable late payment penalty. Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995, in the case of any type of tax return required to be filed more frequently than annually, when the failure to file the tax return on or before the date prescribed for filing (including any extensions) is shown to be nonfraudulent and has not occurred in the 2 years immediately preceding the failure to file on the prescribed due date, the penalty imposed by Section 3-3(a) shall be abated.

(a-5) This subsection (a-5) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 1996 and on or before December 31, 2000. A penalty equal to 2% of the tax required to be shown due on a return, up to a maximum amount of $250, determined without regard to any part of the tax that is paid on time or by any credit that was properly allowable on the date the return was required to be filed, shall be imposed for failure to file the tax return on or before the due date prescribed for filing determined with regard for any extension of time for filing. However, if any return is not filed within 30 days after notice of nonfiling mailed by the Department to the last known address of the taxpayer contained in Department records, an additional penalty amount shall be imposed equal to the greater of $250 or 2% of the tax shown on the return. However, the additional penalty amount may not exceed $5,000 and is determined without regard to any part of the tax that is paid on time or by any credit that was properly allowable on the date the return was required to be filed (penalty for late filing or nonfiling). If any unprocessable return is corrected and filed within 30 days after notice by the Department, the late filing or nonfiling penalty shall not apply. If a penalty for late filing or nonfiling is imposed in addition to a penalty for late payment, the total penalty due shall be the sum of the late filing penalty and the applicable late payment penalty. In the case of any type of tax return required to be filed more frequently than annually, when the failure to file the tax return on or before the date prescribed for filing (including any extensions) is shown to be nonfraudulent and has not occurred in the 2 years immediately preceding the failure to file on the prescribed due date, the penalty imposed by Section 3-3(a-5) shall be abated.

(a-10) This subsection (a-10) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2001. A penalty equal to 2% of the tax required to be shown due on a return, up to a maximum amount of $250, reduced by any tax that is paid on time or by any credit that was properly allowable on the date the return was required to be filed, shall be imposed for failure to file the tax return on or before the due date prescribed for filing determined with regard for any extension of time for filing. However, if any return is not filed within 30 days after notice of nonfiling mailed by the Department to the last known address of the taxpayer contained in Department records, an additional penalty amount shall be imposed equal to the greater of $250 or 2% of the tax shown on the return. However, the additional penalty amount may not exceed $5,000 and is determined without regard to any part of the tax that is paid on time or by any credit that was properly allowable on the date the return was required to be filed (penalty for late filing or nonfiling). If any unprocessable return is corrected and filed within 30 days after notice by the Department, the late filing or nonfiling penalty shall not apply. If a penalty for late filing or nonfiling is imposed in addition to a penalty for late payment, the total penalty due shall be the sum of the late filing penalty and the applicable late payment penalty. In the case of any type of tax return required to be filed more frequently than annually, when the failure to file the tax return on or before the date prescribed for filing (including any extensions) is shown to be nonfraudulent and has not occurred in the 2 years immediately preceding the failure to file on the prescribed due date, the penalty imposed by Section 3-3(a-10) shall be abated.

(b) This subsection is applicable before January 1, 1998. A penalty of 15% of the tax shown on the return or the tax required to be shown due on the return shall be imposed for failure to pay:

(1) the tax shown due on the return on or before the due date prescribed for payment of that tax, an amount of underpayment of estimated tax, or an amount that is reported in an amended return other than an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability); or

(2) the full amount of any tax required to be shown due on a return and which is not shown (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of additional liability), within 30 days after a notice of arithmetic error, notice and demand, or a final assessment is issued by the Department. In the case of a final assessment arising following a protest and hearing, the 30-day period shall not begin until all proceedings in court for review of the final assessment have terminated or the period for obtaining a review has expired without proceedings for a review having been instituted. In the case of a notice of tax liability that becomes a final assessment without a protest and hearing, the penalty provided in this paragraph (2) shall be imposed at the expiration of the period provided for the filing of a protest.

(b-5) This subsection is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 1998 and on or before December 31, 2000. A penalty of 20% of the tax shown on the return or the tax required to be shown due on the return shall be imposed for failure to pay:

(1) the tax shown due on the return on or before the due date prescribed for payment of that tax, an amount of underpayment of estimated tax, or an amount that is reported in an amended return other than an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability); or

(2) the full amount of any tax required to be shown due on a return and which is not shown (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of additional liability), within 30 days after a notice of arithmetic error, notice and demand, or a final assessment is issued by the Department. In the case of a final assessment arising following a protest and hearing, the 30-day period shall not begin until all proceedings in court for review of the final assessment have terminated or the period for obtaining a review has expired without proceedings for a review having been instituted. In the case of a notice of tax liability that becomes a final assessment without a protest and hearing, the penalty provided in this paragraph (2) shall be imposed at the expiration of the period provided for the filing of a protest.

(b-10) This subsection (b-10) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2001 and on or before December 31, 2003. A penalty shall be imposed for failure to pay:

(1) the tax shown due on a return on or before the due date prescribed for payment of that tax, an amount of underpayment of estimated tax, or an amount that is reported in an amended return other than an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability). The amount of penalty imposed under this subsection (b-10)(1) shall be 2% of any amount that is paid no later than 30 days after the due date, 5% of any amount that is paid later than 30 days after the due date and not later than 90 days after the due date, 10% of any amount that is paid later than 90 days after the due date and not later than 180 days after the due date, and 15% of any amount that is paid later than 180 days after the due date. If notice and demand is made for the payment of any amount of tax due and if the amount due is paid within 30 days after the date of the notice and demand, then the penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability under this subsection (b-10)(1) on the amount so paid shall not accrue for the period after the date of the notice and demand.

(2) the full amount of any tax required to be shown due on a return and that is not shown (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of additional liability), within 30 days after a notice of arithmetic error, notice and demand, or a final assessment is issued by the Department. In the case of a final assessment arising following a protest and hearing, the 30-day period shall not begin until all proceedings in court for review of the final assessment have terminated or the period for obtaining a review has expired without proceedings for a review having been instituted. The amount of penalty imposed under this subsection (b-10)(2) shall be 20% of any amount that is not paid within the 30-day period. In the case of a notice of tax liability that becomes a final assessment without a protest and hearing, the penalty provided in this subsection (b-10)(2) shall be imposed at the expiration of the period provided for the filing of a protest.

(b-15) This subsection (b-15) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2004.

(1) A penalty shall be imposed for failure to pay the tax shown due or required to be shown due on a return on or before the due date prescribed for payment of that tax, an amount of underpayment of estimated tax, or an amount that is reported in an amended return other than an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act (penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability). The amount of penalty imposed under this subsection (b-15)(1) shall be 2% of any amount that is paid no later than 30 days after the due date, 10% of any amount that is paid later than 30 days after the due date and not later than 90 days after the due date, 15% of any amount that is paid later than 90 days after the due date and not later than 180 days after the due date, and 20% of any amount that is paid later than 180 days after the due date. If notice and demand is made for the payment of any amount of tax due and if the amount due is paid within 30 days after the date of this notice and demand, then the penalty for late payment or nonpayment of admitted liability under this subsection (b-15)(1) on the amount so paid shall not accrue for the period after the date of the notice and demand.

(2) A penalty shall be imposed for failure to file a return or to show on a timely return the full amount of any tax required to be shown due. The amount of penalty imposed under this subsection (b-15)(2) shall be:

(A) 5% of any amount of tax (other than an amount properly reported on an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act) that is shown on a return or amended return filed prior to the date the Department has initiated an audit or investigation of the taxpayer;

(B) 10% of any amount of tax (other than an amount properly reported on an amended return timely filed as required by subsection (b) of Section 506 of the Illinois Income Tax Act) that is shown on a return or amended return filed on or after the date the Department has initiated an audit or investigation of the taxpayer, but prior to the date any notice of deficiency, notice of tax liability, notice of assessment or notice of final assessment is issued by the Department with respect to any portion of such underreported amount; or

(C) 20% of any amount that is not reported on a return or amended return filed prior to the date any notice of deficiency, notice of tax liability, notice of assessment or notice of final assessment is issued by the Department with respect to any portion of such underreported amount.

(c) For purposes of the late payment penalties, the basis of the penalty shall be the tax shown or required to be shown on a return, whichever is applicable, reduced by any part of the tax which is paid on time and by any credit which was properly allowable on the date the return was required to be filed.

(d) A penalty shall be applied to the tax required to be shown even if that amount is less than the tax shown on the return.

(e) This subsection (e) is applicable to returns due before January 1, 2001. If both a subsection (b)(1) or (b-5)(1) penalty and a subsection (b)(2) or (b-5)(2) penalty are assessed against the same return, the subsection (b)(2) or (b-5)(2) penalty shall be assessed against only the additional tax found to be due.

(e-5) This subsection (e-5) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2001. If both a subsection (b-10)(1) penalty and a subsection (b-10)(2) penalty are assessed against the same return, the subsection (b-10)(2) penalty shall be assessed against only the additional tax found to be due.

(f) If the taxpayer has failed to file the return, the Department shall determine the correct tax according to its best judgment and information, which amount shall be prima facie evidence of the correctness of the tax due.

(g) The time within which to file a return or pay an amount of tax due without imposition of a penalty does not extend the time within which to file a protest to a notice of tax liability or a notice of deficiency.

(h) No return shall be determined to be unprocessable because of the omission of any information requested on the return pursuant to Section 2505-575 of the Department of Revenue Law (20 ILCS 2505/2505-575).

(i) If a taxpayer has a tax liability that is eligible for amnesty under the Tax Delinquency Amnesty Act and the taxpayer fails to satisfy the tax liability during the amnesty period provided for in that Act, then the penalty imposed by the Department under this Section shall be imposed in an amount that is 200% of the amount that would otherwise be imposed under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-742, eff. 7-25-02; 93-26, eff. 6-20-03; 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; revised 8-1-03.)

Section 175. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 8-138, 11-134, 14-103.04, 16-150, and 16-182 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/8-138) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 8-138)

Sec. 8-138. Minimum annuities - Additional provisions.

(a) An employee who withdraws after age 65 or more with at least 20 years of service, for whom the amount of age and service and prior service annuity combined is less than the amount stated in this Section, shall from the date of withdrawal, instead of all annuities otherwise provided, be entitled to receive an annuity for life of $150 a year, plus 1 1/2% for each year of service, to and including 20 years, and 1 2/3% for each year of service over 20 years, of his highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.

An employee who withdraws after 20 or more years of service, before age 65, shall be entitled to such annuity, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years if under such age at withdrawal, reduced by 2% for each full year or fractional part thereof that his attained age is less than 65, plus an additional 2% reduction for each full year or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60 so that the total reduction at age 55 shall be 30%.

(b) An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957, at age 60 or over, with 20 or more years of service, for whom the age and service and prior service annuity combined, is less than the amount stated in this paragraph, shall, from the date of withdrawal, instead of such annuities, be entitled to receive an annuity for life equal to 1 2/3% for each year of service, of the highest average annual salary for any 5 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal; provided, that in the case of any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1971, such employee age 60 or over with 20 or more years of service, shall receive an annuity for life equal to 1.67% for each of the first 10 years of service; 1.90% for each of the next 10 years of service; 2.10% for each year of service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30; and 2.30% for each year of service in excess of 30, based on the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.

An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957 and before January 1, 1988, with 20 or more years of service, before age 60 years is entitled to annuity, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, as computed in the last preceding paragraph, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60 if the employee was born before January 1, 1936, or 0.5% for each such month if the employee was born on or after January 1, 1936.

Any employee born before January 1, 1936, who withdraws with 20 or more years of service, and any employee with 20 or more years of service who withdraws on or after January 1, 1988, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 1.80% for each of the first 10 years of service, 2.00% for each of the next 10 years of service, 2.20% for each year of service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30, and 2.40% for each year of service in excess of 30, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring on or after January 1, 1988, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 35 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after July 1, 1990, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 25 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

However, in the case of an employee who retired on or after January 1, 1985 but before January 1, 1988, at age 55 or older and with at least 35 years of service, and who was subject under this subsection (b) to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60, that reduction shall cease to be effective January 1, 1991, and the retirement annuity shall be recalculated accordingly.

Any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1990, with 20 or more years of service, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

Any employee who withdraws on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 with 20 or more years of service may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service, if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attainment of age 55 (age 50 if the employee has at least 30 years of service), reduced 0.25% for each full month or remaining fractional part thereof that the employee's attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 50 or over with at least 30 years of service or at age 55 or over with at least 25 years of service shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

The maximum annuity payable under part (a) and (b) of this Section shall not exceed 70% of highest average annual salary in the case of an employee who withdraws prior to July 1, 1971, 75% if withdrawal takes place on or after July 1, 1971 and prior to January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 80% if withdrawal takes place on or after January 1, 2002 is 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later. For the purpose of the minimum annuity provided in this Section $1,500 is considered the minimum annual salary for any year; and the maximum annual salary for the computation of such annuity is $4,800 for any year before 1953, $6000 for the years 1953 to 1956, inclusive, and the actual annual salary, as salary is defined in this Article, for any year thereafter.

To preserve rights existing on December 31, 1959, for participants and contributors on that date to the fund created by the Court and Law Department Employees' Annuity Act, who became participants in the fund provided for on January 1, 1960, the maximum annual salary to be considered for such persons for the years 1955 and 1956 is $7,500.

(c) For an employee receiving disability benefit, his salary for annuity purposes under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Section, for all periods of disability benefit subsequent to the year 1956, is the amount on which his disability benefit was based.

(d) An employee with 20 or more years of service, whose entire disability benefit credit period expires before attainment of age 55 while still disabled for service, is entitled upon withdrawal to the larger of (1) the minimum annuity provided above, assuming he is then age 55, and reducing such annuity to its actuarial equivalent as of his attained age on such date or (2) the annuity provided from his age and service and prior service annuity credits.

(e) The minimum annuity provisions do not apply to any former municipal employee receiving an annuity from the fund who re-enters service as a municipal employee, unless he renders at least 3 years of additional service after the date of re-entry.

(f) An employee in service on July 1, 1947, or who became a contributor after July 1, 1947 and before attainment of age 70, who withdraws after age 65, with less than 20 years of service for whom the annuity has been fixed under this Article shall, instead of the annuity so fixed, receive an annuity as follows:

Such amount as he could have received had the accumulated amounts for annuity been improved with interest at the effective rate to the date of his withdrawal, or to attainment of age 70, whichever is earlier, and had the city contributed to such earlier date for age and service annuity the amount that it would have contributed had he been under age 65, after the date his annuity was fixed in accordance with this Article, and assuming his annuity were computed from such accumulations as of his age on such earlier date. The annuity so computed shall not exceed the annuity which would be payable under the other provisions of this Section if the employee was credited with 20 years of service and would qualify for annuity thereunder.

(g) Instead of the annuity provided in this Article, an employee having attained age 65 with at least 15 years of service who withdraws from service on or after July 1, 1971 and whose annuity computed under other provisions of this Article is less than the amount provided under this paragraph, is entitled to a minimum annuity for life equal to 1% of the highest average annual salary, as salary is defined and limited in this Section for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service for each year of service, plus the sum of $25 for each year of service. The annuity shall not exceed 60% of such highest average annual salary.

(g-1) Instead of any other retirement annuity provided in this Article, an employee who has at least 10 years of service and withdraws from service on or after January 1, 1999 may elect to receive a retirement annuity for life, beginning no earlier than upon attainment of age 60, equal to 2.2% if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or 2.4% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of final average salary for each year of service, subject to a maximum of 75% of final average salary if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 80% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002. For the purpose of calculating this annuity, "final average salary" means the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years in the last 10 years of service.

(h) The minimum annuities provided under this Section shall be paid in equal monthly installments.

(i) The amendatory provisions of part (b) and (g) of this Section shall be effective July 1, 1971 and apply in the case of every qualifying employee withdrawing on or after July 1, 1971.

(j) The amendatory provisions of this amendatory Act of 1985 (P.A. 84-23) relating to the discount of annuity because of retirement prior to attainment of age 60, and to the retirement formula, for those born before January 1, 1936, shall apply only to qualifying employees withdrawing on or after July 18, 1985.

(j-1) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 92-609 this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly (increasing the retirement formula to 2.4% per year of service and increasing the maximum to 80%) apply to persons who withdraw from service on or after January 1, 2002, regardless of whether that withdrawal takes place before the effective date of that this amendatory Act. In the case of a person who withdraws from service on or after January 1, 2002 but begins to receive a retirement annuity before July 1, 2002 the effective date of this amendatory Act, the annuity shall be recalculated, with the increase resulting from Public this amendatory Act 92-609 accruing from the date the retirement annuity began. The changes made by Public Act 92-609 control over the changes made by Public Act 92-599, as provided in Section 95 of P.A. 92-609.

(k) Beginning on January 1, 1999, the minimum amount of employee's annuity shall be $850 per month for life for the following classes of employees, without regard to the fact that withdrawal occurred prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998:

(1) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a life annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(2) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a term annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(3) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a reciprocal annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, whose service in this fund is at least 5 years;

(4) any employee annuitant withdrawing after age 60 on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, with at least 10 years of service in this fund.

The increases granted under items (1), (2) and (3) of this subsection (k) shall not be limited by any other Section of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-599, eff. 6-28-02; 92-609, eff. 7-1-02; revised 9-11-02.)

(40 ILCS 5/11-134) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 11-134)

Sec. 11-134. Minimum annuities.

(a) An employee whose withdrawal occurs after July 1, 1957 at age 60 or over, with 20 or more years of service, (as service is defined or computed in Section 11-216), for whom the age and service and prior service annuity combined is less than the amount stated in this Section, shall, from and after the date of withdrawal, in lieu of all annuities otherwise provided in this Article, be entitled to receive an annuity for life of an amount equal to 1 2/3% for each year of service, of the highest average annual salary for any 5 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal; provided, that in the case of any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1971, such employee age 60 or over with 20 or more years of service, shall be entitled to instead receive an annuity for life equal to 1.67% for each of the first 10 years of service; 1.90% for each of the next 10 years of service; 2.10% for each year of service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30; and 2.30% for each year of service in excess of 30, based on the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.

An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957 and before January 1, 1988, with 20 or more years of service, before age 60, shall be entitled to an annuity, to begin not earlier than age 55, if under such age at withdrawal, as computed in the last preceding paragraph, reduced 0.25% if the employee was born before January 1, 1936, or 0.5% if the employee was born on or after January 1, 1936, for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when such annuity is to begin is less than 60.

Any employee born before January 1, 1936 who withdraws with 20 or more years of service, and any employee with 20 or more years of service who withdraws on or after January 1, 1988, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 1.80% for each of the first 10 years of service, 2.00% for each of the next 10 years of service, 2.20% for each year of service in excess of 20, but not exceeding 30, and 2.40% for each year of service in excess of 30, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring on or after January 1, 1988, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 35 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after July 1, 1990, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 25 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

However, in the case of an employee who retired on or after January 1, 1985 but before January 1, 1988, at age 55 or older and with at least 35 years of service, and who was subject under this subsection (a) to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60, that reduction shall cease to be effective January 1, 1991, and the retirement annuity shall be recalculated accordingly.

Any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1990, with 20 or more years of service, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

Any employee who withdraws on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 with 20 or more years of service may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attainment of age 55 (age 50 if the employee has at least 30 years of service), reduced 0.25% for each full month or remaining fractional part thereof that the employee's attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 50 or over with at least 30 years of service or at age 55 or over with at least 25 years of service shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

The maximum annuity payable under this paragraph (a) of this Section shall not exceed 70% of highest average annual salary in the case of an employee who withdraws prior to July 1, 1971, 75% if withdrawal takes place on or after July 1, 1971 and prior to January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 80% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later. For the purpose of the minimum annuity provided in said paragraphs $1,500 shall be considered the minimum annual salary for any year; and the maximum annual salary to be considered for the computation of such annuity shall be $4,800 for any year prior to 1953, $6,000 for the years 1953 to 1956, inclusive, and the actual annual salary, as salary is defined in this Article, for any year thereafter.

(b) For an employee receiving disability benefit, his salary for annuity purposes under this Section shall, for all periods of disability benefit subsequent to the year 1956, be the amount on which his disability benefit was based.

(c) An employee with 20 or more years of service, whose entire disability benefit credit period expires prior to attainment of age 55 while still disabled for service, shall be entitled upon withdrawal to the larger of (1) the minimum annuity provided above assuming that he is then age 55, and reducing such annuity to its actuarial equivalent at his attained age on such date, or (2) the annuity provided from his age and service and prior service annuity credits.

(d) The minimum annuity provisions as aforesaid shall not apply to any former employee receiving an annuity from the fund, and who re-enters service as an employee, unless he renders at least 3 years of additional service after the date of re-entry.

(e) An employee in service on July 1, 1947, or who became a contributor after July 1, 1947 and prior to July 1, 1950, or who shall become a contributor to the fund after July 1, 1950 prior to attainment of age 70, who withdraws after age 65 with less than 20 years of service, for whom the annuity has been fixed under the foregoing Sections of this Article shall, in lieu of the annuity so fixed, receive an annuity as follows:

Such amount as he could have received had the accumulated amounts for annuity been improved with interest at the effective rate to the date of his withdrawal, or to attainment of age 70, whichever is earlier, and had the city contributed to such earlier date for age and service annuity the amount that would have been contributed had he been under age 65, after the date his annuity was fixed in accordance with this Article, and assuming his annuity were computed from such accumulations as of his age on such earlier date. The annuity so computed shall not exceed the annuity which would be payable under the other provisions of this Section if the employee was credited with 20 years of service and would qualify for annuity thereunder.

(f) In lieu of the annuity provided in this or in any other Section of this Article, an employee having attained age 65 with at least 15 years of service who withdraws from service on or after July 1, 1971 and whose annuity computed under other provisions of this Article is less than the amount provided under this paragraph shall be entitled to receive a minimum annual annuity for life equal to 1% of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding retirement for each year of his service plus the sum of $25 for each year of service. Such annual annuity shall not exceed the maximum percentages stated under paragraph (a) of this Section of such highest average annual salary.

(f-1) Instead of any other retirement annuity provided in this Article, an employee who has at least 10 years of service and withdraws from service on or after January 1, 1999 may elect to receive a retirement annuity for life, beginning no earlier than upon attainment of age 60, equal to 2.2% if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or 2.4% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of final average salary for each year of service, subject to a maximum of 75% of final average salary if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 80% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later. For the purpose of calculating this annuity, "final average salary" means the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years in the last 10 years of service.

(g) Any annuity payable under the preceding subsections of this Section 11-134 shall be paid in equal monthly installments.

(h) The amendatory provisions of part (a) and (f) of this Section shall be effective July 1, 1971 and apply in the case of every qualifying employee withdrawing on or after July 1, 1971.

(h-1) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 92-609 this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly (increasing the retirement formula to 2.4% per year of service and increasing the maximum to 80%) apply to persons who withdraw from service on or after January 1, 2002, regardless of whether that withdrawal takes place before the effective date of that this amendatory Act. In the case of a person who withdraws from service on or after January 1, 2002 but begins to receive a retirement annuity before July 1, 2002 the effective date of this amendatory Act, the annuity shall be recalculated, with the increase resulting from Public this amendatory Act 92-609 accruing from the date the retirement annuity began. The changes made by Public Act 92-609 control over the changes made by Public Act 92-599, as provided in Section 95 of P.A. 92-609.

(i) The amendatory provisions of this amendatory Act of 1985 relating to the discount of annuity because of retirement prior to attainment of age 60 and increasing the retirement formula for those born before January 1, 1936, shall apply only to qualifying employees withdrawing on or after August 16, 1985.

(j) Beginning on January 1, 1999, the minimum amount of employee's annuity shall be $850 per month for life for the following classes of employees, without regard to the fact that withdrawal occurred prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998:

(1) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a life annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(2) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a term annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(3) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a reciprocal annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, whose service in this fund is at least 5 years;

(4) any employee annuitant withdrawing after age 60 on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, with at least 10 years of service in this fund.

The increases granted under items (1), (2) and (3) of this subsection (j) shall not be limited by any other Section of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-599, eff. 6-28-02; 92-609, eff. 7-1-02; revised 9-11-02.)

(40 ILCS 5/14-103.04) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 14-103.04)

Sec. 14-103.04. Department. "Department": Any department, institution, board, commission, officer, court, or any agency of the State having power to certify payrolls to the State Comptroller authorizing payments of salary or wages against State appropriations, or against trust funds held by the State Treasurer, except those departments included under the term "employer" in the State Universities Retirement System. "Department" includes the Illinois Finance Authority. "Department" also includes the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Board and the Illinois Finance Authority.

(Source: P.A. 93-205 (Sections 890-11 and 890-44), eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-23-03.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-150) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-150)

Sec. 16-150. Re-entry.

(a) This Section does not apply to an annuitant who returns to teaching under the program established in Section 16-150.1, for the duration of his or her participation in that program.

(b) If an annuitant under this System is again employed as a teacher for an aggregate period exceeding that permitted by Section 16-118, his or her retirement annuity shall be terminated and the annuitant shall thereupon be regarded as an active member.

Such annuitant is not entitled to a recomputation of his or her retirement annuity unless at least one full year of creditable service is rendered after the latest re-entry into service and the annuitant must have rendered at least 3 years of creditable service after last re-entry into service to qualify for a recomputation of the retirement annuity based on amendments enacted while in receipt of a retirement annuity, except when retirement was due to disability.

However, regardless of age, an annuitant in receipt of a retirement annuity may be given temporary employment by a school board not exceeding that permitted under Section 16-118 and continue to receive the retirement annuity.

(c) Unless retirement was necessitated by disability, a retirement shall be considered cancelled and the retirement allowance must be repaid in full if the annuitant is employed as a teacher within the school year during which service was terminated.

(d) An annuitant's retirement which does not include a period of at least one full and complete school year shall be considered cancelled and the retirement annuity must be repaid in full unless such retirement was necessitated by disability.

(Source: P.A. 93-320, eff. 7-23-03; 93-469, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-11-03.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-182) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-182)

Sec. 16-182. Members' Contribution Reserve. (a) On July 1, 2003, the Members' Contribution Reserve is abolished and the remaining balance shall be transferred from that Reserve to the Benefit Trust Reserve.

(Source: P.A. 93-469, eff. 8-8-03; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 180. The Bi-State Development Agency Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(45 ILCS 105/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 63s-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 93-432)

Sec. 3. Vacancies occurring in the office of any commissioner shall be filled by appointment by the Governor, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, for the unexpired term. In any case of vacancy, while the Senate is not in session, the Governor shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when he shall nominate some person to fill such office.

(Source: Laws 1949, p. 448.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 93-432)

Sec. 3. Vacancies occurring in the office of any commissioner shall be filled by appointment by the Chairman of the County Board that made the original appointment of that commissioner, with the advice and consent of the respective county board, for the unexpired term. Any vacancies occurring during the transition for the implementation of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly that were appointed by the Governor, and not by the respective County Board Chairmen, shall be filled by the appointment by the County Board Chairman of Madison County if occurring in the years 2004, 2006, or 2008 or by the County Board Chairman of St. Clair County if occurring in the years 2005 or 2007, each with the advice and consent of the respective county board..

(Source: P.A. 93-432, eff. 6-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 185. The Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 110 as follows:

(45 ILCS 170/110)

Sec. 110. (Amendatory provisions; text omitted.)

(Source: P.A. 92-571, eff. 6-26-02; text omitted.)

(45 ILCS 170/115)

Sec. 115. 110. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by repealing Section 3-3-11.

(Source: P.A. 92-571, eff. 6-26-02; revised 7-15-02.)

Section 188. The Public Works Contract Change Order Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(50 ILCS 525/5)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5. Change orders; bidding. If a change order for any public works contract (i) is entered into by a unit of local government or school district, (ii) is not procured in accordance with the Illinois Procurement Code and the State Finance Act, and (iii) authorizes or necessitates any increase in the contract price that is 50% or more of the original contract price, then the portion of the contract that is covered by the change order must be resubmitted for bidding in the same manner for which the original contract was bid. Bidding for the portion of the contract covered by the change order is subject to any requirements to employ females and minorities on the public works project that existed at the bidding for the original contract, together with any later requirements imposed by law.

(Source: P.A. 93-656, eff. 6-1-04; revised 1-22-04.)

Section 190. The Emergency Telephone System Act is amended by changing Section 15.3 as follows:

(50 ILCS 750/15.3) (from Ch. 134, par. 45.3)

Sec. 15.3. Surcharge.

(a) The corporate authorities of any municipality or any county may, subject to the limitations of subsections (c), (d), and (h), and in addition to any tax levied pursuant to the Simplified Municipal Telecommunications Tax Act, impose a monthly surcharge on billed subscribers of network connection provided by telecommunication carriers engaged in the business of transmitting messages by means of electricity originating within the corporate limits of the municipality or county imposing the surcharge at a rate per network connection determined in accordance with subsection (c). Provided, however, that where multiple voice grade communications channels are connected between the subscriber's premises and a public switched network through private branch exchange (PBX) or centrex type service, a municipality imposing a surcharge at a rate per network connection, as determined in accordance with this Act, shall impose 5 such surcharges per network connection, as determined in accordance with subsections (a) and (d) of Section 2.12 of this Act. For mobile telecommunications services, if a surcharge is imposed it shall be imposed based upon the municipality or county that encompasses the customer's place of primary use as defined in the Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Conformity Act. A municipality may enter into an intergovernmental agreement with any county in which it is partially located, when the county has adopted an ordinance to impose a surcharge as provided in subsection (c), to include that portion of the municipality lying outside the county in that county's surcharge referendum. If the county's surcharge referendum is approved, the portion of the municipality identified in the intergovernmental agreement shall automatically be disconnected from the county in which it lies and connected to the county which approved the referendum for purposes of a surcharge on telecommunications carriers.

(b) For purposes of computing the surcharge imposed by subsection (a), the network connections to which the surcharge shall apply shall be those in-service network connections, other than those network connections assigned to the municipality or county, where the service address for each such network connection or connections is located within the corporate limits of the municipality or county levying the surcharge. Except for mobile telecommunication services, the "service address" shall mean the location of the primary use of the network connection or connections. For mobile telecommunication services, "service address" means the customer's place of primary use as defined in the Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Conformity Act. With respect to network connections provided for use with pay telephone services for which there is no billed subscriber, the telecommunications carrier providing the network connection shall be deemed to be its own billed subscriber for purposes of applying the surcharge.

(c) Upon the passage of an ordinance to impose a surcharge under this Section the clerk of the municipality or county shall certify the question of whether the surcharge may be imposed to the proper election authority who shall submit the public question to the electors of the municipality or county in accordance with the general election law; provided that such question shall not be submitted at a consolidated primary election. The public question shall be in substantially the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

Shall the county (or city, village or incorporated town) of ..... impose YES a surcharge of up to ...¢ per month per network connection, which surcharge will be added to the monthly bill you receive ------------------

for telephone or telecommunications charges, for the purpose of installing (or improving) a 9-1-1 Emergency NO Telephone System?

-------------------------------------------------------------

If a majority of the votes cast upon the public question are in favor thereof, the surcharge shall be imposed.

However, if a Joint Emergency Telephone System Board is to be created pursuant to an intergovernmental agreement under Section 15.4, the ordinance to impose the surcharge shall be subject to the approval of a majority of the total number of votes cast upon the public question by the electors of all of the municipalities or counties, or combination thereof, that are parties to the intergovernmental agreement.

The referendum requirement of this subsection (c) shall not apply to any municipality with a population over 500,000 or to any county in which a proposition as to whether a sophisticated 9-1-1 Emergency Telephone System should be installed in the county, at a cost not to exceed a specified monthly amount per network connection, has previously been approved by a majority of the electors of the county voting on the proposition at an election conducted before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1987.

(d) A county may not impose a surcharge, unless requested by a municipality, in any incorporated area which has previously approved a surcharge as provided in subsection (c) or in any incorporated area where the corporate authorities of the municipality have previously entered into a binding contract or letter of intent with a telecommunications carrier to provide sophisticated 9-1-1 service through municipal funds.

(e) A municipality or county may at any time by ordinance change the rate of the surcharge imposed under this Section if the new rate does not exceed the rate specified in the referendum held pursuant to subsection (c).

(f) The surcharge authorized by this Section shall be collected from the subscriber by the telecommunications carrier providing the subscriber the network connection as a separately stated item on the subscriber's bill.

(g) The amount of surcharge collected by the telecommunications carrier shall be paid to the particular municipality or county or Joint Emergency Telephone System Board not later than 30 days after the surcharge is collected, net of any network or other 9-1-1 or sophisticated 9-1-1 system charges then due the particular telecommunications carrier, as shown on an itemized bill. The telecommunications carrier collecting the surcharge shall also be entitled to deduct 3% of the gross amount of surcharge collected to reimburse the telecommunications carrier for the expense of accounting and collecting the surcharge.

(h) Except as expressly provided in subsection (a) of this Section, a municipality with a population over 500,000 may not impose a monthly surcharge in excess of $1.25 per network connection.

(i) Any municipality or county or joint emergency telephone system board that has imposed a surcharge pursuant to this Section prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 shall hereafter impose the surcharge in accordance with subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) The corporate authorities of any municipality or county may issue, in accordance with Illinois law, bonds, notes or other obligations secured in whole or in part by the proceeds of the surcharge described in this Section. Notwithstanding any change in law subsequent to the issuance of any bonds, notes or other obligations secured by the surcharge, every municipality or county issuing such bonds, notes or other obligations shall be authorized to impose the surcharge as though the laws relating to the imposition of the surcharge in effect at the time of issuance of the bonds, notes or other obligations were in full force and effect until the bonds, notes or other obligations are paid in full. The State of Illinois pledges and agrees that it will not limit or alter the rights and powers vested in municipalities and counties by this Section to impose the surcharge so as to impair the terms of or affect the security for bonds, notes or other obligations secured in whole or in part with the proceeds of the surcharge described in this Section.

(k) Any surcharge collected by or imposed on a telecommunications carrier pursuant to this Section shall be held to be a special fund in trust for the municipality, county or Joint Emergency Telephone Board imposing the surcharge. Except for the 3% deduction provided in subsection (g) above, the special fund shall not be subject to the claims of creditors of the telecommunication carrier.

(Source: P.A. 92-474, eff. 8-1-02; 92-526, eff. 1-1-03; 92-557, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-2-02.)

Section 195. The Counties Code is amended by changing Section 5-1022 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/5-1022) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1022)

Sec. 5-1022. Competitive bids.

(a) Any purchase by a county with fewer than 2,000,000 inhabitants of services, materials, equipment or supplies in excess of $20,000, other than professional services, shall be contracted for in one of the following ways:

(1) by a contract let to the lowest responsible bidder after advertising for bids in a newspaper published within the county or, if no newspaper is published within the county, then a newspaper having general circulation within the county; or

(2) by a contract let without advertising for bids in the case of an emergency if authorized by the county board.

(b) In determining the lowest responsible bidder, the county board shall take into consideration the qualities of the articles supplied; their conformity with the specifications; their suitability to the requirements of the county, availability of support services; uniqueness of the service, materials, equipment, or supplies as it applies to networked, integrated computer systems; compatibility to existing equipment; and the delivery terms. The county board also may take into consideration whether a bidder is a private enterprise or a State-controlled enterprise and, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section or a lower bid by a State-controlled enterprise, may let a contract to the lowest responsible bidder that is a private enterprise.

(c) This Section does not apply to contracts by a county with the federal government or to purchases of used equipment, purchases at auction or similar transactions which by their very nature are not suitable to competitive bids, pursuant to an ordinance adopted by the county board.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, a county may let without advertising for bids in the case of purchases and contracts, when individual orders do not exceed $25,000, for the use, purchase, delivery, movement, or installation of data processing equipment, software, or services and telecommunications and inter-connect equipment, software, and services.

(e) A county may require, as a condition of any contract for goods and services, that persons awarded a contract with the county and all affiliates of the person collect and remit Illinois Use Tax on all sales of tangible personal property into the State of Illinois in accordance with the provisions of the Illinois Use Tax Act regardless of whether the person or affiliate is a "retailer maintaining a place of business within this State" as defined in Section 2 of the Use Tax Act. For purposes of this subsection (e), the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (e), an entity controls another entity if it owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (e), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

(f) Bids submitted to, and contracts executed by, the county may require a certification by the bidder or contractor that the bidder or contractor is not barred from bidding for or entering into a contract under this Section and that the bidder or contractor acknowledges that the county may declare the contract void if the certification completed pursuant to this subsection (f) is false.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; 93-157, eff. 1-1-04; revised 8-12-03.)

Section 200. The Township Code is amended by changing Section 235-20 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 30-166 and 85-50 as follows:

(60 ILCS 1/30-166)

Sec. 30-166. Civil penalties for false fire alarms. The township board of any township providing fire protection services may impose reasonable civil penalties on individuals who repeatedly cause false fire alarms.

(Source: P.A. 93-302, eff. 1-1-04.)

(60 ILCS 1/30-167)

Sec. 30-167 30-166. Charge against non-residents.

(a) The township board of each township may fix, charge, and collect fees not exceeding the reasonable cost of the service for all services rendered by the township against persons, businesses, and other entities who are not residents of the township.

(b) The charge may not be assessed against residents of the township or persons who request fire protection coverage for an unprotected area and who pay to the township an amount equal to the township's fire protection tax under Article 200 of this Code.

(c) The charge for such services shall be computed at a rate not to exceed $125 per hour per vehicle and not to exceed $35 per hour per firefighter responding to a call for assistance. An additional charge may be levied to reimburse the township for extraordinary expenses of materials used in rendering such services. No charge shall be made for services for which the total charge would be less than $50.

(d) All revenue from the charges assessed pursuant to this Section shall be deposited into the general fund of the township.

(Source: P.A. 93-304, eff. 7-23-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(60 ILCS 1/85-50)

Sec. 85-50. Demolition, repair, or enclosure of buildings.

(a) The township board of any township may formally request the county board to commence specified proceedings with respect to property located within the township but outside the territory of any municipality as provided in Section 5-1121 of the Counties Code. If the county board declines the request as provided in Section 5-1121 of the Counties Code, the township may exercise its powers under this Section.

(b) The township board of each township may demolish, repair, or enclose or cause the demolition, repair, or enclosure of dangerous and unsafe buildings or uncompleted and abandoned buildings within the territory of the township and may remove or cause the removal of garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials from those buildings.

The township board shall apply to the circuit court of the county in which the building is located (i) for an order authorizing action to be taken with respect to a building if the owner or owners of the building, including the lien holders of record, after at least 15 days' written notice by mail to do so, have failed to commence proceedings to put the building in a safe condition or to demolish it or (ii) for an order requiring the owner or owners of record to demolish, repair, or enclose the building or to remove garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials from the building. It is not a defense to the cause of action that the building is boarded up or otherwise enclosed, although the court may order the defendant to have the building boarded up or otherwise enclosed. Where, upon diligent search, the identity or whereabouts of the owner or owners of the building, including the lien holders of record, is not ascertainable, notice mailed to the person or persons in whose name the real estate was last assessed and the posting of the notice upon the premises sought to be demolished or repaired is sufficient notice under this Section.

The hearing upon the application to the circuit court shall be expedited by the court and shall be given precedence over all other suits.

The cost of the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal incurred by the township, by an intervenor, or by a lien holder of record, including court costs, attorney's fees, and other costs related to the enforcement of this Section, is recoverable from the owner or owners of the real estate or the previous owner or both if the property was transferred during the 15-day notice period and is a lien on the real estate if, within 180 days after the repair, demolition, enclosure, or removal, the township, the lien holder of record, or the intervenor who incurred the cost and expense shall file a notice of lien for the cost and expense incurred in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of titles of the county if the real estate affected is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act. The lien becomes effective at the time of filing.

The notice must consist of a sworn statement setting out (1) a description of the real estate sufficient for its identification, (2) the amount of money representing the cost and expense incurred, and (3) the date or dates when the cost and expense was incurred by the township, the lien holder of record, or the intervenor. Upon payment of the cost and expense by the owner of or persons interested in the property after the notice of lien has been filed, the lien shall be released by the township, the person in whose name the lien has been filed, or the assignee of the lien, and the release may be filed of record as in the case of filing notice of lien. Unless the lien is enforced under subsection (c), the lien may be enforced by foreclosure proceedings as in the case of mortgage foreclosures under Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure or mechanics' lien foreclosures. An action to foreclose this lien may be commenced at any time after the date of filing of the notice of lien. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the township, including court costs, reasonable attorney's fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate and are recoverable by the township from the owner or owners of the real estate.

All liens arising under this subsection (b) shall be assignable. The assignee of the lien shall have the same power to enforce the lien as the assigning party, except that the lien may not be enforced under subsection (c).

(c) In any case where a township has obtained a lien under subsection (b), the township may enforce the lien under this subsection (c) in the same proceeding in which the lien is authorized.

A township desiring to enforce a lien under this subsection (c) shall petition the court to retain jurisdiction for foreclosure proceedings under this subsection. Notice of the petition shall be served, by certified or registered mail, on all persons who were served notice under subsection (b). The court shall conduct a hearing on the petition not less than 15 days after the notice is served. If the court determines that the requirements of this subsection (c) have been satisfied, it shall grant the petition and retain jurisdiction over the matter until the foreclosure proceeding is completed. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the township, including court costs, reasonable attorneys' fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate and are recoverable by the township from the owner or owners of the real estate. If the court denies the petition, the township may enforce the lien in a separate action as provided in subsection (b).

All persons designated in Section 15-1501 of the Code of Civil Procedure as necessary parties in a mortgage foreclosure action shall be joined as parties before issuance of an order of foreclosure. Persons designated in Section 15-1501 of the Code of Civil Procedure as permissible parties may also be joined as parties in the action.

The provisions of Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure applicable to mortgage foreclosures shall apply to the foreclosure of a lien under this subsection (c), except to the extent that those provisions are inconsistent with this subsection. For purposes of foreclosures of liens under this subsection, however, the redemption period described in subsection (c) of Section 15-1603 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall end 60 days after the date of entry of the order of foreclosure.

(d) In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the township board of any township may petition the circuit court to have property declared abandoned under this subsection (d) if:

(1) the property has been tax delinquent for 2 or more years or bills for water service for the property have been outstanding for 2 or more years;

(2) the property is unoccupied by persons legally in possession; and

(3) the property contains a dangerous or unsafe building.

All persons having an interest of record in the property, including tax purchasers and beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, shall be named as defendants in the petition and shall be served with process. In addition, service shall be had under Section 2-206 of the Code of Civil Procedure as in other cases affecting property.

The township, however, may proceed under this subsection in a proceeding brought under subsection (b). Notice of the petition shall be served by certified or registered mail on all persons who were served notice under subsection (b).

If the township proves that the conditions described in this subsection exist and the owner of record of the property does not enter an appearance in the action, or, if title to the property is held by an Illinois land trust, if neither the owner of record nor the owner of the beneficial interest of the trust enters an appearance, the court shall declare the property abandoned.

If that determination is made, notice shall be sent by certified or registered mail to all persons having an interest of record in the property, including tax purchasers and beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, stating that title to the property will be transferred to the township unless, within 30 days of the notice, the owner of record enters an appearance in the action, or unless any other person having an interest in the property files with the court a request to demolish the dangerous or unsafe building or to put the building in safe condition.

If the owner of record enters an appearance in the action within the 30-day period, the court shall vacate its order declaring the property abandoned. In that case, the township may amend its complaint in order to initiate proceedings under subsection (b).

If a request to demolish or repair the building is filed within the 30-day period, the court shall grant permission to the requesting party to demolish the building within 30 days or to restore the building to safe condition within 60 days after the request is granted. An extension of that period for up to 60 additional days may be given for good cause. If more than one person with an interest in the property files a timely request, preference shall be given to the person with the lien or other interest of the highest priority.

If the requesting party proves to the court that the building has been demolished or put in a safe condition within the period of time granted by the court, the court shall issue a quitclaim judicial deed for the property to the requesting party, conveying only the interest of the owner of record, upon proof of payment to the township of all costs incurred by the township in connection with the action, including but not limited to court costs, attorney's fees, administrative costs, the costs, if any, associated with building enclosure or removal, and receiver's certificates. The interest in the property so conveyed shall be subject to all liens and encumbrances on the property. In addition, if the interest is conveyed to a person holding a certificate of purchase for the property under the Property Tax Code, the conveyance shall be subject to the rights of redemption of all persons entitled to redeem under that Act, including the original owner of record.

If no person with an interest in the property files a timely request or if the requesting party fails to demolish the building or put the building in safe condition within the time specified by the court, the township may petition the court to issue a judicial deed for the property to the county. A conveyance by judicial deed shall operate to extinguish all existing ownership interests in, liens on, and other interest in the property, including tax liens.

(e) This Section applies only to requests made by townships under subsection (a) before January 1, 2006 and proceedings to implement or enforce this Section with respect to matters related to or arising from those requests.

(Source: P.A. 92-347, eff. 8-15-01.)

(60 ILCS 1/85-55)

Sec. 85-55 85-50. Horse-drawn vehicles. The township board may, by ordinance, license and regulate horse-drawn vehicles operating within the township. The ordinance may also (i) prescribe regulations for the safe operation of horse-drawn vehicles and (ii) require the examination of persons operating a horse-drawn vehicle. Any annual fee charged for a license to operate a horse-drawn vehicle may not exceed $50. Any fees charged for a license to operate a horse-drawn vehicle within the township must be used for the improvement of township roads.

For the purposes of this Section, "horse-drawn vehicle" means any vehicle powered by any animal of the equine family.

(Source: P.A. 92-613, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-26-02.)

(60 ILCS 1/235-20)

Sec. 235-20. General assistance tax.

(a) The township board may raise money by taxation deemed necessary to be expended to provide general assistance in the township to persons needing that assistance as provided in the Illinois Public Aid Code, including persons eligible for assistance under the Military Veterans Assistance Act, where that duty is provided by law. The tax for each fiscal year shall not be more than 0.10% of value, or more than an amount approved at a referendum held under this Section, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, and shall in no case exceed the amount needed in the township for general assistance. The board may decrease the maximum tax rate by ordinance.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, if the board desires to increase the maximum tax rate, it shall order a referendum on that proposition to be held at an election in accordance with the general election law. The board shall certify the proposition to the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition to the voters at an election in accordance with the general election law. If a majority of the votes cast on the proposition is in favor of the proposition, the board may annually levy the tax at a rate not exceeding the higher rate approved by the voters at the election. If, however, the board has decreased the maximum tax rate under subsection (a), then it may, at any time after the decrease, increase the maximum tax rate, by ordinance, to a rate less than or equal to the maximum tax rate immediately prior to the board's ordinance to decrease the rate.

(c) If a city, village, or incorporated town having a population of more than 500,000 is located within or partially within a township, then the entire amount of the tax levied by the township for the purpose of providing general assistance under this Section on property lying within that city, village, or incorporated town, less the amount allowed for collecting the tax, shall be paid over by the treasurer of the township to the treasurer of the city, village, or incorporated town to be appropriated and used by the city, village, or incorporated town for the relief and support of persons needing general assistance residing in that portion of the city, village, or incorporated town located within the township in accordance with the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(d) Any taxes levied for general assistance before or after this Section takes effect may also be used for the payment of warrants issued against and in anticipation of those taxes and accrued interest on those warrants and may also be used to pay the cost of administering that assistance.

(e) In any township with a population of less than 500,000 that receives no State funding for the general assistance program and that has not issued anticipation warrants or otherwise borrowed monies for the administration of the general assistance program during the township's previous 3 fiscal years of operation, a one time transfer of monies from the township's general assistance fund may be made to the general township fund pursuant to action by the township board. This transfer may occur only to the extent that the amount of monies remaining in the general assistance fund after the transfer is equal to the greater of (i) the amount of the township's expenditures in the previous fiscal year for general assistance or (ii) an amount equal to either 0.10% of the last known total equalized value of all taxable property in the township, or 100% of the highest amount levied for general assistance purposes in any of the three previous fiscal years. The transfer shall be completed no later than one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly. No township that has certified a new levy or an increase in the levy under this Section during calendar year 2002 may transfer monies under this subsection. No action on the transfer of monies under this subsection shall be taken by the township board except at a township board meeting. No monies transferred under this subsection shall be considered in determining whether the township qualifies for State funds to supplement local funds for public aid purposes under Section 12-21.13 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-558, eff. 6-24-02; 92-718, eff. 7-25-02; revised 9-9-02.)

Section 205. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-11-1.2, 11-31-1, and 11-124-1 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.2) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-11-1.2)

Sec. 8-11-1.2. Definition. As used in Sections 8-11-1.3, 8-11-1.4 and 8-11-1.5 of this Act:

(a) "Public infrastructure" means municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, and sidewalks; waste disposal systems; and water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities. For purposes of referenda authorizing the imposition of taxes by the City of DuQuoin under Sections 8-11-1.3, 8-11-1.4, and 8-11-1.5 of this Act that are approved in November, 2002, "public infrastructure" shall also include public schools.

(b) "Property tax relief" means the action of a municipality to reduce the levy for real estate taxes or avoid an increase in the levy for real estate taxes that would otherwise have been required. Property tax relief or the avoidance of property tax must uniformly apply to all classes of property.

(Source: P.A. 91-51, eff. 6-30-99; 92-739, eff. 1-1-03; 92-815, eff. 8-21-02; revised 9-10-02.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-31-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-31-1)

Sec. 11-31-1. Demolition, repair, enclosure, or remediation.

(a) The corporate authorities of each municipality may demolish, repair, or enclose or cause the demolition, repair, or enclosure of dangerous and unsafe buildings or uncompleted and abandoned buildings within the territory of the municipality and may remove or cause the removal of garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials from those buildings. In any county having adopted by referendum or otherwise a county health department as provided by Division 5-25 of the Counties Code or its predecessor, the county board of that county may exercise those powers with regard to dangerous and unsafe buildings or uncompleted and abandoned buildings within the territory of any city, village, or incorporated town having less than 50,000 population.

The corporate authorities shall apply to the circuit court of the county in which the building is located (i) for an order authorizing action to be taken with respect to a building if the owner or owners of the building, including the lien holders of record, after at least 15 days' written notice by mail so to do, have failed to put the building in a safe condition or to demolish it or (ii) for an order requiring the owner or owners of record to demolish, repair, or enclose the building or to remove garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials from the building. It is not a defense to the cause of action that the building is boarded up or otherwise enclosed, although the court may order the defendant to have the building boarded up or otherwise enclosed. Where, upon diligent search, the identity or whereabouts of the owner or owners of the building, including the lien holders of record, is not ascertainable, notice mailed to the person or persons in whose name the real estate was last assessed is sufficient notice under this Section.

The hearing upon the application to the circuit court shall be expedited by the court and shall be given precedence over all other suits. Any person entitled to bring an action under subsection (b) shall have the right to intervene in an action brought under this Section.

The cost of the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal incurred by the municipality, by an intervenor, or by a lien holder of record, including court costs, attorney's fees, and other costs related to the enforcement of this Section, is recoverable from the owner or owners of the real estate or the previous owner or both if the property was transferred during the 15 day notice period and is a lien on the real estate; the lien is superior to all prior existing liens and encumbrances, except taxes, if, within 180 days after the repair, demolition, enclosure, or removal, the municipality, the lien holder of record, or the intervenor who incurred the cost and expense shall file a notice of lien for the cost and expense incurred in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of titles of the county if the real estate affected is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act.

The notice must consist of a sworn statement setting out (1) a description of the real estate sufficient for its identification, (2) the amount of money representing the cost and expense incurred, and (3) the date or dates when the cost and expense was incurred by the municipality, the lien holder of record, or the intervenor. Upon payment of the cost and expense by the owner of or persons interested in the property after the notice of lien has been filed, the lien shall be released by the municipality, the person in whose name the lien has been filed, or the assignee of the lien, and the release may be filed of record as in the case of filing notice of lien. Unless the lien is enforced under subsection (c), the lien may be enforced by foreclosure proceedings as in the case of mortgage foreclosures under Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure or mechanics' lien foreclosures. An action to foreclose this lien may be commenced at any time after the date of filing of the notice of lien. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the municipality, including court costs, reasonable attorney's fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate and are recoverable by the municipality from the owner or owners of the real estate.

All liens arising under this subsection (a) shall be assignable. The assignee of the lien shall have the same power to enforce the lien as the assigning party, except that the lien may not be enforced under subsection (c).

If the appropriate official of any municipality determines that any dangerous and unsafe building or uncompleted and abandoned building within its territory fulfills the requirements for an action by the municipality under the Abandoned Housing Rehabilitation Act, the municipality may petition under that Act in a proceeding brought under this subsection.

(b) Any owner or tenant of real property within 1200 feet in any direction of any dangerous or unsafe building located within the territory of a municipality with a population of 500,000 or more may file with the appropriate municipal authority a request that the municipality apply to the circuit court of the county in which the building is located for an order permitting the demolition, removal of garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials from, or repair or enclosure of the building in the manner prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section. If the municipality fails to institute an action in circuit court within 90 days after the filing of the request, the owner or tenant of real property within 1200 feet in any direction of the building may institute an action in circuit court seeking an order compelling the owner or owners of record to demolish, remove garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials from, repair or enclose or to cause to be demolished, have garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials removed from, repaired, or enclosed the building in question. A private owner or tenant who institutes an action under the preceding sentence shall not be required to pay any fee to the clerk of the circuit court. The cost of repair, removal, demolition, or enclosure shall be borne by the owner or owners of record of the building. In the event the owner or owners of record fail to demolish, remove garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials from, repair, or enclose the building within 90 days of the date the court entered its order, the owner or tenant who instituted the action may request that the court join the municipality as a party to the action. The court may order the municipality to demolish, remove materials from, repair, or enclose the building, or cause that action to be taken upon the request of any owner or tenant who instituted the action or upon the municipality's request. The municipality may file, and the court may approve, a plan for rehabilitating the building in question. A court order authorizing the municipality to demolish, remove materials from, repair, or enclose a building, or cause that action to be taken, shall not preclude the court from adjudging the owner or owners of record of the building in contempt of court due to the failure to comply with the order to demolish, remove garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials from, repair, or enclose the building.

If a municipality or a person or persons other than the owner or owners of record pay the cost of demolition, removal of garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials, repair, or enclosure pursuant to a court order, the cost, including court costs, attorney's fees, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, is recoverable from the owner or owners of the real estate and is a lien on the real estate; the lien is superior to all prior existing liens and encumbrances, except taxes, if, within 180 days after the repair, removal, demolition, or enclosure, the municipality or the person or persons who paid the costs of demolition, removal, repair, or enclosure shall file a notice of lien of the cost and expense incurred in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of the county if the real estate affected is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act. The notice shall be in a form as is provided in subsection (a). An owner or tenant who institutes an action in circuit court seeking an order to compel the owner or owners of record to demolish, remove materials from, repair, or enclose any dangerous or unsafe building, or to cause that action to be taken under this subsection may recover court costs and reasonable attorney's fees for instituting the action from the owner or owners of record of the building. Upon payment of the costs and expenses by the owner of or a person interested in the property after the notice of lien has been filed, the lien shall be released by the municipality or the person in whose name the lien has been filed or his or her assignee, and the release may be filed of record as in the case of filing a notice of lien. Unless the lien is enforced under subsection (c), the lien may be enforced by foreclosure proceedings as in the case of mortgage foreclosures under Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure or mechanics' lien foreclosures. An action to foreclose this lien may be commenced at any time after the date of filing of the notice of lien. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the municipality, including court costs, reasonable attorneys' fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate and are recoverable by the municipality from the owner or owners of the real estate.

All liens arising under the terms of this subsection (b) shall be assignable. The assignee of the lien shall have the same power to enforce the lien as the assigning party, except that the lien may not be enforced under subsection (c).

(c) In any case where a municipality has obtained a lien under subsection (a), (b), or (f), the municipality may enforce the lien under this subsection (c) in the same proceeding in which the lien is authorized.

A municipality desiring to enforce a lien under this subsection (c) shall petition the court to retain jurisdiction for foreclosure proceedings under this subsection. Notice of the petition shall be served, by certified or registered mail, on all persons who were served notice under subsection (a), (b), or (f). The court shall conduct a hearing on the petition not less than 15 days after the notice is served. If the court determines that the requirements of this subsection (c) have been satisfied, it shall grant the petition and retain jurisdiction over the matter until the foreclosure proceeding is completed. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the municipality, including court costs, reasonable attorneys' fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate and are recoverable by the municipality from the owner or owners of the real estate. If the court denies the petition, the municipality may enforce the lien in a separate action as provided in subsection (a), (b), or (f).

All persons designated in Section 15-1501 of the Code of Civil Procedure as necessary parties in a mortgage foreclosure action shall be joined as parties before issuance of an order of foreclosure. Persons designated in Section 15-1501 of the Code of Civil Procedure as permissible parties may also be joined as parties in the action.

The provisions of Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure applicable to mortgage foreclosures shall apply to the foreclosure of a lien under this subsection (c), except to the extent that those provisions are inconsistent with this subsection. For purposes of foreclosures of liens under this subsection, however, the redemption period described in subsection (b) of Section 15-1603 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall end 60 days after the date of entry of the order of foreclosure.

(d) In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the corporate authorities of any municipality may petition the circuit court to have property declared abandoned under this subsection (d) if:

(1) the property has been tax delinquent for 2 or more years or bills for water service for the property have been outstanding for 2 or more years;

(2) the property is unoccupied by persons legally in possession; and

(3) the property contains a dangerous or unsafe building.

All persons having an interest of record in the property, including tax purchasers and beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, shall be named as defendants in the petition and shall be served with process. In addition, service shall be had under Section 2-206 of the Code of Civil Procedure as in other cases affecting property.

The municipality, however, may proceed under this subsection in a proceeding brought under subsection (a) or (b). Notice of the petition shall be served by certified or registered mail on all persons who were served notice under subsection (a) or (b).

If the municipality proves that the conditions described in this subsection exist and the owner of record of the property does not enter an appearance in the action, or, if title to the property is held by an Illinois land trust, if neither the owner of record nor the owner of the beneficial interest of the trust enters an appearance, the court shall declare the property abandoned.

If that determination is made, notice shall be sent by certified or registered mail to all persons having an interest of record in the property, including tax purchasers and beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, stating that title to the property will be transferred to the municipality unless, within 30 days of the notice, the owner of record enters an appearance in the action, or unless any other person having an interest in the property files with the court a request to demolish the dangerous or unsafe building or to put the building in safe condition.

If the owner of record enters an appearance in the action within the 30 day period, the court shall vacate its order declaring the property abandoned. In that case, the municipality may amend its complaint in order to initiate proceedings under subsection (a).

If a request to demolish or repair the building is filed within the 30 day period, the court shall grant permission to the requesting party to demolish the building within 30 days or to restore the building to safe condition within 60 days after the request is granted. An extension of that period for up to 60 additional days may be given for good cause. If more than one person with an interest in the property files a timely request, preference shall be given to the person with the lien or other interest of the highest priority.

If the requesting party proves to the court that the building has been demolished or put in a safe condition within the period of time granted by the court, the court shall issue a quitclaim judicial deed for the property to the requesting party, conveying only the interest of the owner of record, upon proof of payment to the municipality of all costs incurred by the municipality in connection with the action, including but not limited to court costs, attorney's fees, administrative costs, the costs, if any, associated with building enclosure or removal, and receiver's certificates. The interest in the property so conveyed shall be subject to all liens and encumbrances on the property. In addition, if the interest is conveyed to a person holding a certificate of purchase for the property under the Property Tax Code, the conveyance shall be subject to the rights of redemption of all persons entitled to redeem under that Act, including the original owner of record.

If no person with an interest in the property files a timely request or if the requesting party fails to demolish the building or put the building in safe condition within the time specified by the court, the municipality may petition the court to issue a judicial deed for the property to the municipality. A conveyance by judicial deed shall operate to extinguish all existing ownership interests in, liens on, and other interest in the property, including tax liens, and shall extinguish the rights and interests of any and all holders of a bona fide certificate of purchase of the property for delinquent taxes. Any such bona fide certificate of purchase holder shall be entitled to a sale in error as prescribed under Section 21-310 of the Property Tax Code.

(e) Each municipality may use the provisions of this subsection to expedite the removal of certain buildings that are a continuing hazard to the community in which they are located.

If a residential or commercial building is 3 stories or less in height as defined by the municipality's building code, and the corporate official designated to be in charge of enforcing the municipality's building code determines that the building is open and vacant and an immediate and continuing hazard to the community in which the building is located, then the official shall be authorized to post a notice not less than 2 feet by 2 feet in size on the front of the building. The notice shall be dated as of the date of the posting and shall state that unless the building is demolished, repaired, or enclosed, and unless any garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials are removed so that an immediate and continuing hazard to the community no longer exists, then the building may be demolished, repaired, or enclosed, or any garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials may be removed, by the municipality.

Not later than 30 days following the posting of the notice, the municipality shall do all of the following:

(1) Cause to be sent, by certified mail, return receipt requested, a Notice to Remediate to all owners of record of the property, the beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, and all lienholders of record in the property, stating the intent of the municipality to demolish, repair, or enclose the building or remove any garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials if that action is not taken by the owner or owners.

(2) Cause to be published, in a newspaper published or circulated in the municipality where the building is located, a notice setting forth (i) the permanent tax index number and the address of the building, (ii) a statement that the property is open and vacant and constitutes an immediate and continuing hazard to the community, and (iii) a statement that the municipality intends to demolish, repair, or enclose the building or remove any garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials if the owner or owners or lienholders of record fail to do so. This notice shall be published for 3 consecutive days.

(3) Cause to be recorded the Notice to Remediate mailed under paragraph (1) in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of titles of the county if the real estate is registered under the Registered Title (Torrens) Act.

Any person or persons with a current legal or equitable interest in the property objecting to the proposed actions of the corporate authorities may file his or her objection in an appropriate form in a court of competent jurisdiction.

If the building is not demolished, repaired, or enclosed, or the garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials are not removed, within 30 days of mailing the notice to the owners of record, the beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, and all lienholders of record in the property, or within 30 days of the last day of publication of the notice, whichever is later, the corporate authorities shall have the power to demolish, repair, or enclose the building or to remove any garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials.

The municipality may proceed to demolish, repair, or enclose a building or remove any garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials under this subsection within a 120-day period following the date of the mailing of the notice if the appropriate official determines that the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal of any garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials is necessary to remedy the immediate and continuing hazard. If, however, before the municipality proceeds with any of the actions authorized by this subsection, any person with a legal or equitable interest in the property has sought a hearing under this subsection before a court and has served a copy of the complaint on the chief executive officer of the municipality, then the municipality shall not proceed with the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal of garbage, debris, or other substances until the court determines that that action is necessary to remedy the hazard and issues an order authorizing the municipality to do so. If the court dismisses the action for want of prosecution, the municipality must send the objector a copy of the dismissal order and a letter stating that the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal of garbage, debris, or other substances will proceed unless, within 30 days after the copy of the order and the letter are mailed, the objector moves to vacate the dismissal and serves a copy of the motion on the chief executive officer of the municipality. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, if the objector does not file a motion and give the required notice, if the motion is denied by the court, or if the action is again dismissed for want of prosecution, then the dismissal is with prejudice and the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal may proceed forthwith.

Following the demolition, repair, or enclosure of a building, or the removal of garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials under this subsection, the municipality may file a notice of lien against the real estate for the cost of the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal within 180 days after the repair, demolition, enclosure, or removal occurred, for the cost and expense incurred, in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of titles of the county if the real estate affected is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act; this lien has priority over the interests of those parties named in the Notice to Remediate mailed under paragraph (1), but not over the interests of third party purchasers or encumbrancers for value who obtained their interests in the property before obtaining actual or constructive notice of the lien. The notice of lien shall consist of a sworn statement setting forth (i) a description of the real estate, such as the address or other description of the property, sufficient for its identification; (ii) the expenses incurred by the municipality in undertaking the remedial actions authorized under this subsection; (iii) the date or dates the expenses were incurred by the municipality; (iv) a statement by the corporate official responsible for enforcing the building code that the building was open and vacant and constituted an immediate and continuing hazard to the community; (v) a statement by the corporate official that the required sign was posted on the building, that notice was sent by certified mail to the owners of record, and that notice was published in accordance with this subsection; and (vi) a statement as to when and where the notice was published. The lien authorized by this subsection may thereafter be released or enforced by the municipality as provided in subsection (a).

(f) The corporate authorities of each municipality may remove or cause the removal of, or otherwise environmentally remediate hazardous substances and petroleum products on, in, or under any abandoned and unsafe property within the territory of a municipality. In addition, where preliminary evidence indicates the presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or a petroleum product or a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or a petroleum product on, in, or under the property, the corporate authorities of the municipality may inspect the property and test for the presence or release of hazardous substances and petroleum products. In any county having adopted by referendum or otherwise a county health department as provided by Division 5-25 of the Counties Code or its predecessor, the county board of that county may exercise the above-described powers with regard to property within the territory of any city, village, or incorporated town having less than 50,000 population.

For purposes of this subsection (f):

(1) "property" or "real estate" means all real property, whether or not improved by a structure;

(2) "abandoned" means;

(A) the property has been tax delinquent for 2 or more years;

(B) the property is unoccupied by persons legally in possession; and

(3) "unsafe" means property that presents an actual or imminent threat to public health and safety caused by the release of hazardous substances; and

(4) "hazardous substances" means the same as in Section 3.215 of the Environmental Protection Act.

The corporate authorities shall apply to the circuit court of the county in which the property is located (i) for an order allowing the municipality to enter the property and inspect and test substances on, in, or under the property; or (ii) for an order authorizing the corporate authorities to take action with respect to remediation of the property if conditions on the property, based on the inspection and testing authorized in paragraph (i), indicate the presence of hazardous substances or petroleum products. Remediation shall be deemed complete for purposes of paragraph (ii) above when the property satisfies Tier I, II, or III remediation objectives for the property's most recent usage, as established by the Environmental Protection Act, and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder. Where, upon diligent search, the identity or whereabouts of the owner or owners of the property, including the lien holders of record, is not ascertainable, notice mailed to the person or persons in whose name the real estate was last assessed is sufficient notice under this Section.

The court shall grant an order authorizing testing under paragraph (i) above upon a showing of preliminary evidence indicating the presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or a petroleum product or a release of or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or a petroleum product on, in, or under abandoned property. The preliminary evidence may include, but is not limited to, evidence of prior use, visual site inspection, or records of prior environmental investigations. The testing authorized by paragraph (i) above shall include any type of investigation which is necessary for an environmental professional to determine the environmental condition of the property, including but not limited to performance of soil borings and groundwater monitoring. The court shall grant a remediation order under paragraph (ii) above where testing of the property indicates that it fails to meet the applicable remediation objectives. The hearing upon the application to the circuit court shall be expedited by the court and shall be given precedence over all other suits.

The cost of the inspection, testing, or remediation incurred by the municipality or by a lien holder of record, including court costs, attorney's fees, and other costs related to the enforcement of this Section, is a lien on the real estate; except that in any instances where a municipality incurs costs of inspection and testing but finds no hazardous substances or petroleum products on the property that present an actual or imminent threat to public health and safety, such costs are not recoverable from the owners nor are such costs a lien on the real estate. The lien is superior to all prior existing liens and encumbrances, except taxes and any lien obtained under subsection (a) or (e), if, within 180 days after the completion of the inspection, testing, or remediation, the municipality or the lien holder of record who incurred the cost and expense shall file a notice of lien for the cost and expense incurred in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of titles of the county if the real estate affected is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act.

The notice must consist of a sworn statement setting out (i) a description of the real estate sufficient for its identification, (ii) the amount of money representing the cost and expense incurred, and (iii) the date or dates when the cost and expense was incurred by the municipality or the lien holder of record. Upon payment of the lien amount by the owner of or persons interested in the property after the notice of lien has been filed, a release of lien shall be issued by the municipality, the person in whose name the lien has been filed, or the assignee of the lien, and the release may be filed of record as in the case of filing notice of lien.

The lien may be enforced under subsection (c) or by foreclosure proceedings as in the case of mortgage foreclosures under Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure or mechanics' lien foreclosures; provided that where the lien is enforced by foreclosure under subsection (c) or under either statute, the municipality may not proceed against the other assets of the owner or owners of the real estate for any costs that otherwise would be recoverable under this Section but that remain unsatisfied after foreclosure except where such additional recovery is authorized by separate environmental laws. An action to foreclose this lien may be commenced at any time after the date of filing of the notice of lien. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the municipality, including court costs, reasonable attorney's fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate.

All liens arising under this subsection (f) shall be assignable. The assignee of the lien shall have the same power to enforce the lien as the assigning party, except that the lien may not be enforced under subsection (c).

(g) In any case where a municipality has obtained a lien under subsection (a), the municipality may also bring an action for a money judgment against the owner or owners of the real estate in the amount of the lien in the same manner as provided for bringing causes of action in Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure and, upon obtaining a judgment, file a judgment lien against all of the real estate of the owner or owners and enforce that lien as provided for in Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 91-162, eff. 7-16-99; 91-177, eff. 1-1-00; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 91-542, eff. 1-1-00; 91-561, eff. 1-1-00; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; 92-681, eff. 1-1-03; revised 2-18-03.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-124-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-124-1)

Sec. 11-124-1. Contracts for supply of water.

(a) The corporate authorities of each municipality may contract with any person, corporation, municipal corporation, political subdivision, public water district or any other agency for a supply of water. Any such contract entered into by a municipality shall provide that payments to be made thereunder shall be solely from the revenues to be derived from the operation of the waterworks system of the municipality, and the contract shall be a continuing valid and binding obligation of the municipality payable from the revenues derived from the operation of the waterworks system of the municipality for the period of years, not to exceed 40, as may be provided in such contract. Any such contract shall not be a debt within the meaning of any constitutional or statutory limitation. No prior appropriation shall be required before entering into such a contract and no appropriation shall be required to authorize payments to be made under the terms of any such contract notwithstanding any provision in this Code to the contrary.

(b) (a) Payments to be made under any such contract shall be an operation and maintenance expense of the waterworks system of the municipality. Any such contract made by a municipality for a supply of water may contain provisions whereby the municipality is obligated to pay for such supply of water without setoff or counterclaim and irrespective of whether such supply of water is ever furnished, made available or delivered to the municipality or whether any project for the supply of water contemplated by any such contract is completed, operable or operating and notwithstanding any suspension, interruption, interference, reduction or curtailment of the supply of water from such project. Any such contract may provide that if one or more of the other purchasers of water defaults in the payment of its obligations under such contract or a similar contract made with the supplier of the water, one or more of the remaining purchasers party to such contract or such similar contract shall be required to pay for all or a portion of the obligations of the defaulting purchasers.

(c) (b) Payments to be made under any such contract with a municipal joint action water agency under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act shall be an operation and maintenance expense of the waterworks system of the municipality. Any such contract made by a municipality for a supply of water with a municipal joint action water agency under the provisions of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act may contain provisions whereby the municipality is obligated to pay for such supply of water without setoff or counterclaim and irrespective of whether such supply of water is ever furnished, made available or delivered to the municipality or whether any project for the supply of water contemplated by any such contract is completed, operable or operating and notwithstanding any suspension, interruption, interference, reduction or curtailment of the supply of water from such project. Any such contract with a municipal joint action water agency may provide that if one or more of the other purchasers of water defaults in the payment of its obligations under such contract or a similar contract made with the supplier of the water, one or more of the remaining purchasers party to such contract or such similar contract shall be required to pay for all or a portion of the obligations of the defaulting purchasers.

The changes in this Section made by these amendatory Acts of 1984 are intended to be declarative of existing law.

(d) (b) A municipality with a water supply contract with a county water commission organized pursuant to the Water Commission Act of 1985 shall provide water to unincorporated areas of that home county in accordance with the terms of this subsection. The provision of water by the municipality shall be in accordance with a mandate of the home county as provided in Section 0.01 of the Water Commission Act of 1985. A home rule unit may not provide water in a manner that is inconsistent with the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. This subsection is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 93-226, eff. 7-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 210. The Joliet Arsenal Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(70 ILCS 508/40)

Sec. 40. Acquisition.

(a) The Authority may, but need not, acquire title to any project with respect to which it exercises its authority.

(b) The Authority shall have power to acquire by purchase, lease, gift, or otherwise any property or rights therein from any person, the State of Illinois, any municipal corporation, any local unit of government, the government of the United States, any agency or instrumentality of the United States, any body politic, or any county useful for its purposes, whether improved for the purposes of any prospective project or unimproved. The Authority may also accept any donation of funds for its purposes from any of those sources.

(c) The Authority shall have power to develop, construct, and improve, either under its own direction or through collaboration with any approved applicant, or to acquire through purchase or otherwise any project, using for that purpose the proceeds derived from its sale of revenue bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness or governmental loans or grants, and to hold title in the name of the Authority to those projects.

(d) The Authority shall have the power to enter into intergovernmental agreements with the State of Illinois, the county of Will, the Illinois Finance Authority, the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority, the United States government, any agency or instrumentality of the United States, any unit of local government located within the territory of the Authority, or any other unit of government to the extent allowed by Article VII, Section 10 of the Illinois Constitution and the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act.

(e) The Authority shall have the power to share employees with other units of government, including agencies of the United States, agencies of the State of Illinois, and agencies or personnel of any unit of local government.

(f) Subject to subsection (i) of Section 35 of this Act, the Authority shall have the power to exercise powers and issue revenue bonds as if it were a municipality so authorized in Divisions 12.1, 74, 74.1, 74.3, and 74.5 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(g) All property owned by the Joliet Arsenal Development Authority is exempt from property taxes. Any property owned by the Joliet Arsenal Development Authority and leased to an entity that is not exempt shall remain exempt. The leasehold interest of the lessee shall be assessed under Section 9-195 of the Property Tax Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; 93-421, eff. 8-5-03; revised 9-11-03.)

Section 215. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/6) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 26)

Sec. 6. Board of trustees; powers.

(a) The trustees shall constitute a board of trustees for the district for which they are appointed, which board of trustees is declared to be the corporate authority of the fire protection district, and shall exercise all of the powers and control all the affairs and property of such district.

The board of trustees at their initial meeting and at their first meeting following the commencement of the term of any trustee shall elect one of their number as president and one of their number as secretary and shall elect a treasurer for the district, who may be one of the trustees or may be any other citizen of the district and who shall hold office during the pleasure of the board and who shall give such bond as may be required by the board.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in Sections 16.01 through 16.18, the board may appoint and enter into a multi-year contract not exceeding 3 years with a fire chief and may appoint any firemen that may be necessary for the district, who shall hold office during the pleasure of the board and who shall give any bond that the board may require. The board may prescribe the duties and fix the compensation of all the officers and employees of the fire protection district.

(c) A member of the board of trustees of a fire protection district may be compensated as follows: in a district having fewer than 4 full time paid firemen, a sum not to exceed $1,000 per annum; in a district having more than 3 but less than 10 full time paid firemen, a sum not to exceed $1,500 per annum; in a district having either 10 or more full time paid firemen, a sum not to exceed $2,000 per annum. In addition, fire districts that operate an ambulance service pursuant to authorization by referendum, as provided in Section 22, may pay trustees an additional annual compensation not to exceed 50% of the amount otherwise authorized herein. The additional compensation shall be an administrative expense of the ambulance service and shall be paid from revenues raised by the ambulance tax levy.

(d) The trustees also have the express power to execute a note or notes and to execute a mortgage or trust deed to secure the payment of such note or notes; such trust deed or mortgage shall cover real estate, or some part thereof, or personal property owned by the district and the lien of the mortgage shall apply to the real estate or personal property so mortgaged by the district, and the proceeds of the note or notes may be used in the acquisition of personal property or of real estate or in the erection of improvements on such real estate.

The trustees have express power to purchase either real estate or personal property to be used for the purposes of the fire protection district through contracts which provide for the consideration for such purchase to be paid through installments to be made at stated intervals during a certain period of time, but, in no case, shall such contracts provide for the consideration to be paid during a period of time in excess of 25 years.

(e) The trustees have express power to provide for the benefit of its employees, volunteer firemen and paid firemen, group life, health, accident, hospital and medical insurance, or any combination thereof; and to pay for all or any portion of the premiums on such insurance. Such insurance may include provisions for employees who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing in accord with the tenets and practice of a well recognized religious denomination.

(f) To encourage continued service with the district, the board of trustees has the express power to award monetary incentives, not to exceed $240 per year, to volunteer firefighters of the district based on the length of service. To be eligible for the incentives, the volunteer firefighters must have at least 5 years of service with the district. The amount of the incentives may not be greater than 2% of the annual levy amount when all incentive awards are combined.

(g) The board of trustees has express power to change the corporate name of the fire protection district by ordinance, provided that notification of any change is given to the circuit clerk and the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

(h) The board of trustees may impose reasonable civil penalties on individuals who repeatedly cause false fire alarms.

(i) The board of trustees has full power to pass all necessary ordinances, and rules and regulations for the proper management and conduct of the business of the board of trustees of the fire protection district for carrying into effect the objects for which the district was formed.

(Source: P.A. 93-302, eff. 1-1-04; 93-589, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-3-03.)

Section 220. The Park District Code is amended by changing Section 5-1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1205/5-1) (from Ch. 105, par. 5-1)

Sec. 5-1. Each Park District has the power to levy and collect taxes on all the taxable property in the district for all corporate purposes. The commissioners may accumulate funds for the purposes of building repairs and improvements and may annually levy taxes for such purposes in excess of current requirements for its other purposes but subject to the tax rate limitation as herein provided.

All general taxes proposed by the board to be levied upon the taxable property within the district shall be levied by ordinance. A certified copy of such levy ordinance shall be filed with the county clerk of the county in which the same is to be collected not later than the last Tuesday in December in each year. The county clerk shall extend such tax; provided, the aggregate amount of taxes levied for any one year, exclusive of the amount levied for the payment of the principal and interest on bonded indebtedness of the district and taxes authorized by special referenda, shall not exceed, except as otherwise provided in this Section, the rate of .10%, or the rate limitation in effect on July 1, 1967, whichever is greater, of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a park district board of a park district lying wholly within one county is authorized to increase property taxes under this Section for corporate purposes for any one year so long as the increase is offset by a like property tax levy reduction in one or more of the park district's funds. At the time that such park district files its levy with the county clerk, it shall also certify to the county clerk that the park district has complied with and is authorized to act under this Section 5-1 of the Park District Code. In no instance shall the increase either exceed or result in a reduction to the extension limitation to which any park district is subject under Section 18-195 of the Property Tax Code.

Any funds on hand at the end of the fiscal year that are not pledged for or allocated to a particular purpose may, by action of the board of commissioners, be transferred to a capital improvement fund and accumulated therein, but the total amount accumulated in the fund may not exceed 1.5% of the aggregate assessed valuation of all taxable property in the park district.

The foregoing limitations upon tax rates may be decreased under the referendum provisions of the General Revenue Law of the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 93-434, eff. 8-5-03; 93-625, eff. 12-19-03; revised 1-13-04.)

Section 225. The Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act is amended by setting forth, changing, and renumbering multiple versions of Section 288 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2605/288)

Sec. 288. District enlarged. On March 7, 2002 Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the corporate limits of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act are extended to include within those limits the following described tracts of land, and those tracts are annexed to the District.

(1) Parcel 1 (Canter Parcel)

THAT PART OF SECTION 21 TOWNSHIP 41 NORTH, RANGE 9, EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT NORTHWEST CORNER OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SAID SECTION 21; THENCE SOUTH 00 DEGREES 12 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST (DEED BEING SOUTH), ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4, A DISTANCE OF 574.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 69 DEGREES 48 MINUTES 00 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 181.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 28 DEGREES 49 MINUTES 00 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 720.45 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 38 DEGREES 25 MINUTES 33 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 222.79 FEET (DEED BEING SOUTH 33 DEGREES 37 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, 238.50 FEET) TO AN IRON STAKE; THENCE SOUTH 60 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST (DEED BEING SOUTH 59 DEGREES 41 MINUTES 00 SECONDS EAST), ALONG A LINE THAT WOULD INTERSECT THE EAST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SECTION 21 AT A POINT THAT IS 669.25 FEET NORTHERLY OF (AS MEASURED ALONG SAID EAST LINE) THE CENTER OF SAID SECTION 21, A DISTANCE OF 24.03 FEET FOR THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 60 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST, ALONG SAID LINE, A DISTANCE OF 629.56 FEET TO THE INTERSECTION WITH THE NORTHEASTERLY EXTENSION OF A LINE PREVIOUSLY SURVEYED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTH 38 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 02 SECONDS WEST, ALONG SAID LINE, A DISTANCE OF 1100.29 FEET (DEED BEING SOUTH 39 DEGREES 55 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, 1098.70 FEET) TO THE CENTER LINE OF THE CHICAGO-ELGIN ROAD, (NOW KNOWN AS IRVING PARK BOULEVARD AND STATE ROUTE NO. 19) AS SHOWN ON THE PLAT OF DEDICATION RECORDED JUNE 9, 1933 AS DOCUMENT NO. 11245764 AND AS SHOWN ON A PLAT OF SURVEY DATED SEPTEMBER 22, 1932 APPROVED BY THE SUPERINTENDENT OF HIGHWAYS OF COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS ON DECEMBER 17, 1933; THENCE SOUTH 51 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 19 SECONDS EAST, ALONG SAID CENTER LINE, A DISTANCE OF 597.60 FEET (DEED BEING SOUTHEASTERLY ALONG CENTER LINE, 620.50 FEET) TO A POINT OF CURVE IN SAID CENTER LINE, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT OF DEDICATION RECORDED FEBRUARY 16, 1933 AS DOCUMENT NO. 11200330 AND AFORESAID PLAT OF SURVEY; THENCE SOUTHEASTERLY, ALONG THE SAID CENTER LINE, BEING ALONG A CURVE TO THE LEFT, HAVING A RADIUS OF 4645.69 FEET AND BEING TANGENT TO THE LAST DESCRIBED COURSE AT THE LAST DESCRIBED POINT, A DISTANCE OF 341.66 FEET (DEED BEING ALONG SAID CURVE, 338.30 FEET) TO THE INTERSECTION WITH A PREVIOUSLY SURVEYED AND MONUMENTED LINE; THENCE SOUTH 42 DEGREES 46 MINUTES 09 SECONDS WEST, ALONG SAID LINE, A DISTANCE OF 65.95 FEET (DEED BEING SOUTH 44 DEGREES 41 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, 65 FEET) TO THE CENTER LINE OF THE OLD CHICAGO-ELGIN ROAD, ACCORDING TO THE AFORESAID PLAT OF SURVEY; THENCE NORTH 56 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST, ALONG THE CENTER LINE OF THE SAID OLD CHICAGO-ELGIN ROAD, A DISTANCE OF 685.80 FEET (DEED BEING NORTH 54 DEGREES 52 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, 635.0 FEET) TO AN ANGLE IN SAID CENTER LINE; THENCE NORTH 44 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 58 SECONDS WEST, ALONG SAID CENTER LINE, A DISTANCE OF 878.23 FEET (DEED BEING NORTH 44 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST) TO A LINE THAT IS DRAWN SOUTH 38 DEGREES 35 MINUTES 41 SECONDS WEST FROM THE POINT OF BEGINNING AND BEING PERPENDICULAR TO THE NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF THE CHICAGO-ELGIN ROAD, AS DESCRIBED ON THE AFORESAID PLAT OF DEDICATION PER DOCUMENT NO. 11245764 AND SHOWN ON THE AFORESAID PLAT OF SURVEY; THENCE NORTH 38 DEGREES 35 MINUTES 41 SECONDS EAST, ALONG SAID PERPENDICULAR LINE, A DISTANCE OF 1011.41 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, (EXCEPTING THEREFROM SUCH PORTIONS THEREOF AS MAY HAVE BEEN HERETOFORE CONVEYED OR DEDICATED FOR HIGHWAY PURPOSES) IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

P.I.N.: 06-21-101-024-0000

(2) Parcel 2 (T Bar J Ranch Parcel)

PARCEL 1:

THAT PART OF SECTION 21, TOWNSHIP 41 NORTH; RANGE 9 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:

COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SAID SECTION 21; THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE WEST LINE OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SAID SECTION, 574.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 69 DEGREES 48 MINUTES EAST, 181.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 28 DEGREES 49 MINUTES EAST, 720.45 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 33 DEGREES 37 MINUTES WEST, 238.50 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 75 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST, ALONG A FENCE LINE 510.8 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 29 DEGREES 48 MINUTES WEST, ALONG A FENCE LINE, 275.05 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE NORTH 67 DEGREES 40 MINUTES WEST, 277.64 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 19 DEGREES 47 MINUTES WEST, ALONG A FENCE LINE, 175.5 FEET TO THE NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF A PUBLIC HIGHWAY KNOWN AS IRVING PARK BOULEVARD; THENCE SOUTH 50 DEGREES 21 MINUTES EAST ALONG SAID NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF PUBLIC HIGHWAY, A DISTANCE OF 248.3 FEET TO A POINT THAT IS SOUTH 29 DEGREES 48 MINUTES WEST, 251.15 FEET FROM THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE NORTH 29 DEGREES 48 MINUTES, EAST ALONG A FENCE LINE 251.15 FEET TO A POINT OF BEGINNING, IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

P.I.N.: 06-21-101-018-0000

PARCEL 2:

THAT PART OF SECTION 21, TOWNSHIP 41 NORTH, RANGE 9 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SECTION 21 AFORESAID; THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE WEST LINE OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SAID SECTION, 574.2 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 69 DEGREES 48 MINUTES EAST, 181.2 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 28 DEGREES 49 MINUTES EAST, 720.45 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 33 DEGREES 37 MINUTES WEST, 238.5 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 75 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST, 203.4 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 75 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST, 307.4 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 29 DEGREES 48 MINUTES WEST, 275.05 FEET; THENCE NORTH 67 DEGREES 40 MINUTES WEST, 277.64 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 19 DEGREES 47 MINUTES WEST ALONG A FENCE LINE, 175.5 FEET TO NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF PUBLIC HIGHWAY KNOWN AS IRVING PARK BOULEVARD; THENCE NORTH 50 DEGREES 21 MINUTES WEST ALONG SAID NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF HIGHWAY 566.2 FEET; THENCE NORTH 17 DEGREES 17 MINUTES EAST ALONG A FENCE LINE 193.07 FEET; THENCE NORTH 84 DEGREES 47 MINUTES EAST 988.44 FEET TO A FENCE LINE; THENCE SOUTH 31 DEGREES 51 MINUTES EAST ALONG SAID FENCE LINE, A DISTANCE OF 282.19 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING IN HANOVER TOWNSHIP IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

P.I.N.: 06-21-101-022-0000

(3) Parcel 3 (Gibas parcel)

A PARCEL OF LAND IN SECTION 21, TOWNSHIP 41 NORTH, RANGE 9 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:

COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SAID SECTION 21, THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4, 574.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 69 DEGREES 48 MINUTES EAST, 181.20 FEET FOR A POINT OF BEGINNING, THENCE SOUTH 28 DEGREES 49 MINUTES EAST, 720.45 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 33 DEGREES 37 MINUTES WEST, 238.5 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 75 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST, 203.4 FEET TO A FENCE CORNER; THENCE NORTH 31 DEGREES 51 MINUTES WEST ALONG A FENCE LINE, 512.8 FEET; THENCE NORTH 3 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST ALONG SAID FENCE LINE 263.6 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF NEW SCHAUMBURG ROAD THAT IS 311.0 FEET MORE OR LESS SOUTHWESTERLY OF THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE NORTHEASTERLY ALONG THE SAID SOUTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF ROAD 311.0 FEET MORE OR LESS TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, (EXCEPTING SUCH PORTIONS THEREOF AS MAY FALL WITHIN LOTS 10 OR 26 OF COUNTY CLERK'S DIVISION OF SECTION 21 ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED, MAY 31, 1895 IN BOOK 65 OF PLATS PAGE 35) IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

P.I.N.: 06-21-101-015-0000

(4) Parcel 4 (Blake parcel)

THAT PART OF SECTIONS 20 AND 21 IN TOWNSHIP 41 NORTH, RANGE 9 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:

COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 21 AFORESAID; THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE WEST LINE OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION, 574.2 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 69 DEGREES 48 MINUTES EAST, 181.2 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 28 DEGREES 49 MINUTES EAST, 720.45 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 33 DEGREES 37 MINUTES WEST, 238.5 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 75 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST, 203.4 FEET; THENCE NORTH 31 DEGREES 51 MINUTES WEST ALONG A FENCE LINE, 282.19 FEET TO A POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 84 DEGREES 47 MINUTES WEST, 988.44 FEET TO A POINT ON A FENCE LINE THAT LIES NORTH 17 DEGREES 17 MINUTES EAST, 193.07 FEET FROM A POINT ON THE NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF IRVING PARK BOULEVARD; THENCE NORTH 17 DEGREES 17 MINUTES EAST ALONG SAID FENCE LINE, 276.03 FEET TO THE SOUTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF SCHAUMBURG ROAD (AS NOW DEDICATED); THENCE EASTERLY AND NORTHEASTERLY ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE ON A CURVE TO LEFT HAVING A RADIUS OF 1425.4 FEET A DISTANCE OF 829.0 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 3 DEGREES 29 MINUTES EAST ALONG A FENCE LINE 263.6 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 31 DEGREES 51 MINUTES EAST ALONG A FENCE LINE A DISTANCE OF 230.61 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN HANOVER TOWNSHIP, COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

P.I.N. PI.N.: 06-21-101-021-0000.

(Source: P.A. 92-532, eff. 3-7-02; revised 1-27-03.)

(70 ILCS 2605/289)

Sec. 289 288. District enlarged. On August 22, 2002 Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the corporate limits of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District are extended to include within those limits the following described tract of land, and that tract is annexed to the District.

LEGAL DESCRIPTION

5.425 ACRES

THAT PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, TOWNSHIP 42 NORTH, RANGE 9, EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:

COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 25; THENCE NORTH 00°00'00" EAST ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 1314.40 FEET TO THE NORTH LINE OF THE SOUTH HALF OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25; THENCE SOUTH 89°15'17" WEST ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 170.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 44°22'03" WEST, 410.93 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 89°15'17" WEST PARALLEL WITH THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 420.04 FEET TO A LINE 1755.25 FEET EAST OF, MEASURED AT RIGHT ANGLES, AND PARALLEL WITH THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25; THENCE NORTH 00°02'28" WEST ALONG SAID PARALLEL LINE, 105.23 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89°15'17" WEST PARALLEL WITH THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 300.13 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 00°02'28" EAST, 150.68 FEET; THENCE NORTH 89°57'32" EAST 120.37 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 00°02'28" EAST PARALLEL WITH THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 353.10 FEET; THENCE NORTH 89°15'17" EAST PARALLEL WITH THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 479.77 FEET; THENCE NORTH 00°02'28" WEST, 278.99 FEET; THENCE NORTH 44°22'03" EAST, 171.50 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING, IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

(Source: P.A. 92-843, eff. 8-22-02; revised 2-18-03.)

Section 230. The Local Mass Transit District Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3610/2) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 352)

Sec. 2. For the purposes of this Act:

(a) "Mass transit facility" means any local public transportation facility, whether buses, trolley-buses, or railway systems, utilized by a substantial number of persons for their daily transportation, and includes not only the local public transportation facility itself but ancillary and supporting facilities such as, for example, motor vehicle parking facilities, as well.

(b) "Participating municipality and county" means the municipality or municipalities, county or counties creating the local Mass Transit District pursuant to Section 3 of this Act.

(c) "Municipality" means a city, village, township, or incorporated town.

(d) "Corporate authorities" means (1) the city council or similar body of a city, (2) the board of trustees or similar body of a village or incorporated town, (3) the council of a municipality under the commission form of municipal government, and (4) the board of trustees in a township.

(e) "County board" means the governing board of a county.

(f) "District" means a local Mass Transit District created pursuant to Section 3 of this Act.

(g) "Board" means the Board of Trustees of a local Mass Transit District created pursuant to Section 3 of this Act.

(h) "Interstate transportation authority" shall mean any political subdivision created by compact between this State and another state, which is a body corporate and politic and a political subdivision of both contracting states, and which operates a public mass transportation system. ;

(i) "Metro East Mass Transit District" means one or more local mass transit districts created pursuant to this Act, composed only of Madison, St. Clair or Monroe Counties, or any combination thereof or any territory annexed to such district.

(j) "Public mass transportation system" shall mean a transportation system or systems owned and operated by an interstate transportation authority, a municipality, District, or other public or private authority, employing motor busses, rails or any other means of conveyance, by whatsoever type or power, operated for public use in the conveyance of persons, mainly providing local transportation service within an interstate transportation district, municipality, or county.

(Source: P.A. 93-590, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 235. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 1D-1, 2-3.25g, 10-17a, 27-8.1, and 34-8.1 and setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 2-3.131, 10-20.35, 10-20.37, 34-18.23, and 34-18.26 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/1D-1)

Sec. 1D-1. Block grant funding.

(a) For fiscal year 1996 and each fiscal year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall award to a school district having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants a general education block grant and an educational services block grant, determined as provided in this Section, in lieu of distributing to the district separate State funding for the programs described in subsections (b) and (c). The provisions of this Section, however, do not apply to any federal funds that the district is entitled to receive. In accordance with Section 2-3.32, all block grants are subject to an audit. Therefore, block grant receipts and block grant expenditures shall be recorded to the appropriate fund code for the designated block grant.

(b) The general education block grant shall include the following programs: REI Initiative, Summer Bridges, Preschool At Risk, K-6 Comprehensive Arts, School Improvement Support, Urban Education, Scientific Literacy, Substance Abuse Prevention, Second Language Planning, Staff Development, Outcomes and Assessment, K-6 Reading Improvement, 7-12 Continued Reading Improvement, Truants' Optional Education, Hispanic Programs, Agriculture Education, Parental Education, Prevention Initiative, Report Cards, and Criminal Background Investigations. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all amounts paid under the general education block grant from State appropriations to a school district in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants shall be appropriated and expended by the board of that district for any of the programs included in the block grant or any of the board's lawful purposes.

(c) The educational services block grant shall include the following programs: Bilingual, Regular and Vocational Transportation, State Lunch and Free Breakfast Program, Special Education (Personnel, Extraordinary, Transportation, Orphanage, Private Tuition), Summer School, Educational Service Centers, and Administrator's Academy. This subsection (c) does not relieve the district of its obligation to provide the services required under a program that is included within the educational services block grant. It is the intention of the General Assembly in enacting the provisions of this subsection (c) to relieve the district of the administrative burdens that impede efficiency and accompany single-program funding. The General Assembly encourages the board to pursue mandate waivers pursuant to Section 2-3.25g.

(d) For fiscal year 1996 and each fiscal year thereafter, the amount of the district's block grants shall be determined as follows: (i) with respect to each program that is included within each block grant, the district shall receive an amount equal to the same percentage of the current fiscal year appropriation made for that program as the percentage of the appropriation received by the district from the 1995 fiscal year appropriation made for that program, and (ii) the total amount that is due the district under the block grant shall be the aggregate of the amounts that the district is entitled to receive for the fiscal year with respect to each program that is included within the block grant that the State Board of Education shall award the district under this Section for that fiscal year. In the case of the Summer Bridges program, the amount of the district's block grant shall be equal to 44% of the amount of the current fiscal year appropriation made for that program.

(e) The district is not required to file any application or other claim in order to receive the block grants to which it is entitled under this Section. The State Board of Education shall make payments to the district of amounts due under the district's block grants on a schedule determined by the State Board of Education.

(f) A school district to which this Section applies shall report to the State Board of Education on its use of the block grants in such form and detail as the State Board of Education may specify.

(g) This paragraph provides for the treatment of block grants under Article 1C for purposes of calculating the amount of block grants for a district under this Section. Those block grants under Article 1C are, for this purpose, treated as included in the amount of appropriation for the various programs set forth in paragraph (b) above. The appropriation in each current fiscal year for each block grant under Article 1C shall be treated for these purposes as appropriations for the individual program included in that block grant. The proportion of each block grant so allocated to each such program included in it shall be the proportion which the appropriation for that program was of all appropriations for such purposes now in that block grant, in fiscal 1995.

Payments to the school district under this Section with respect to each program for which payments to school districts generally, as of the date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, are on a reimbursement basis shall continue to be made to the district on a reimbursement basis, pursuant to the provisions of this Code governing those programs.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district receiving a block grant under this Section may classify all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular fiscal year from any block grant authorized under this Code or from general State aid pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code (other than supplemental general State aid) as funds received in connection with any funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation, any funding program referred to in subsection (c) of this Section), regardless of the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not classify more funds as funds received in connection with the funding program than the district is entitled to receive in that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a district must be made by a resolution of its board of education. The resolution must identify the amount of any block grant or general State aid to be classified under this subsection (h) and must specify the funding program to which the funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith. This resolution is controlling as to the classification of funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of Education in a timely manner. No classification under this subsection (h) by a district shall affect the total amount or timing of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code. No classification under this subsection (h) by a district shall in any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements that otherwise would apply with respect to the block grant as provided in this Section, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting requirements, or requirements of provision of services.

(Source: P.A. 92-568, eff. 6-26-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-21, eff. 7-1-03; 93-53, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-11-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.25g) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.25g)

Sec. 2-3.25g. Waiver or modification of mandates within the School Code and administrative rules and regulations. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this School Code or any other law of this State to the contrary, school districts may petition the State Board of Education for the waiver or modification of the mandates of this School Code or of the administrative rules and regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education. Waivers or modifications of administrative rules and regulations and modifications of mandates of this School Code may be requested when a school district demonstrates that it can address the intent of the rule or mandate in a more effective, efficient, or economical manner or when necessary to stimulate innovation or improve student performance. Waivers of mandates of the School Code may be requested when the waivers are necessary to stimulate innovation or improve student performance. Waivers may not be requested from laws, rules, and regulations pertaining to special education, teacher certification, or teacher tenure and seniority or from compliance with the No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (Public Law 107-110).

School districts, as a matter of inherent managerial policy, and any Independent Authority established under Section 2-3.25f may submit an application for a waiver or modification authorized under this Section. Each application must include a written request by the school district or Independent Authority and must demonstrate that the intent of the mandate can be addressed in a more effective, efficient, or economical manner or be based upon a specific plan for improved student performance and school improvement. Any district requesting a waiver or modification for the reason that intent of the mandate can be addressed in a more economical manner shall include in the application a fiscal analysis showing current expenditures on the mandate and projected savings resulting from the waiver or modification. Applications and plans developed by school districts must be approved by each board of education following a public hearing on the application and plan and the opportunity for the board to hear testimony from educators directly involved in its implementation, parents, and students. Such public hearing shall be held on a day other than the day on which a regular meeting of the board is held. The public hearing must be preceded by at least one published notice occurring at least 7 days prior to the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation within the school district that sets forth the time, date, place, and general subject matter of the hearing. The school district must notify in writing the affected exclusive collective bargaining agent and those State legislators representing the district holding the public hearing of the district's intent to seek approval of a waiver or modification and of the hearing to be held to take testimony from educators. The affected exclusive collective bargaining agents shall be notified of such public hearing at least 7 days prior to the date of the hearing and shall be allowed to attend such public hearing. The district shall attest to compliance with all of the notification and procedural requirements set forth in this Section.

A request for a waiver or modification of administrative rules and regulations or for a modification of mandates contained in this School Code shall be submitted to the State Board of Education within 15 days after approval by the board of education. The application as submitted to the State Board of Education shall include a description of the public hearing. Following receipt of the request, the State Board shall have 45 days to review the application and request. If the State Board fails to disapprove the application within that 45 day period, the waiver or modification shall be deemed granted. The State Board may disapprove any request if it is not based upon sound educational practices, endangers the health or safety of students or staff, compromises equal opportunities for learning, or fails to demonstrate that the intent of the rule or mandate can be addressed in a more effective, efficient, or economical manner or have improved student performance as a primary goal. Any request disapproved by the State Board may be appealed to the General Assembly by the requesting school district as outlined in this Section.

A request for a waiver from mandates contained in this School Code shall be submitted to the State Board within 15 days after approval by the board of education. The application as submitted to the State Board of Education shall include a description of the public hearing. The description shall include, but need not be limited to, the means of notice, the number of people in attendance, the number of people who spoke as proponents or opponents of the waiver, a brief description of their comments, and whether there were any written statements submitted. The State Board shall review the applications and requests for completeness and shall compile the requests in reports to be filed with the General Assembly. The State Board shall file reports outlining the waivers requested by school districts and appeals by school districts of requests disapproved by the State Board with the Senate and the House of Representatives before each May 1 and October 1. The General Assembly may disapprove the report of the State Board in whole or in part within 30 calendar days after each house of the General Assembly next convenes after the report is filed by adoption of a resolution by a record vote of the majority of members elected in each house. If the General Assembly fails to disapprove any waiver request or appealed request within such 30 day period, the waiver or modification shall be deemed granted. Any resolution adopted by the General Assembly disapproving a report of the State Board in whole or in part shall be binding on the State Board.

An approved waiver or modification may remain in effect for a period not to exceed 5 school years and may be renewed upon application by the school district. However, such waiver or modification may be changed within that 5-year period by a local school district board following the procedure as set forth in this Section for the initial waiver or modification request. If neither the State Board of Education nor the General Assembly disapproves, the change is deemed granted.

On or before February 1, 1998, and each year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a cumulative report summarizing all types of waiver mandates and modifications of mandates granted by the State Board or the General Assembly. The report shall identify the topic of the waiver along with the number and percentage of school districts for which the waiver has been granted. The report shall also include any recommendations from the State Board regarding the repeal or modification of waived mandates.

(Source: P.A. 93-470, eff. 8-8-03; 93-557, eff. 8-20-03; revised 9-11-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.131)

Sec. 2-3.131. FY2004 transitional assistance payments. If the amount that the State Board of Education will pay to a school district from fiscal year 2004 appropriations, as estimated by the State Board of Education on April 1, 2004, is less than the amount that the State Board of Education paid to the school district from fiscal year 2003 appropriations, then, subject to appropriation, the State Board of Education shall make a fiscal year 2004 transitional assistance payment to the school district in an amount equal to the difference between the estimated amount to be paid from fiscal year 2004 appropriations and the amount paid from fiscal year 2003 appropriations.

(Source: P.A. 93-21, eff. 7-1-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.132)

Sec. 2-3.132 2-3.131. Sharing information on school lunch applicants. The State Board of Education shall, whenever requested by the Department of Public Aid, agree in writing with the Department of Public Aid (as the State agency that administers the State Medical Assistance Program as provided in Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act and the State Children's Health Insurance Program as provided in Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act) to share with the Department of Public Aid information on applicants for free or reduced-price lunches. This sharing of information shall be for the sole purpose of helping the Department of Public Aid identify and enroll children in the State Medical Assistance Program or the State Children's Health Insurance Program or both as allowed under 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(iii)(IV) and under the restrictions set forth in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(vi) and (vii). The State Board of Education may not adopt any rule that would prohibit a child from receiving any form of subsidy or benefit due to his or her parent or guardian withholding consent under Section 22-35 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-404, eff. 8-1-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.133)

Sec. 2-3.133 2-3.131. Homework assistance information for parents. The State Board of Education shall provide information on its Internet web site regarding strategies that parents can use to assist their children in successfully completing homework assignments. The State Board of Education shall notify all school districts about this information's availability on the State Board of Education's Internet web site.

(Source: P.A. 93-471, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-24-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.134)

Sec. 2-3.134. 2-3.131. Persistently dangerous schools. The State Board of Education shall maintain data and publish a list of persistently dangerous schools on an annual basis.

(Source: P.A. 93-633, eff. 12-23-03; revised 1-12-04.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-17a) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-17a)

Sec. 10-17a. Better schools accountability.

(1) Policy and Purpose. It shall be the policy of the State of Illinois that each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall submit to parents, taxpayers of such district, the Governor, the General Assembly, and the State Board of Education a school report card assessing the performance of its schools and students. The report card shall be an index of school performance measured against statewide and local standards and will provide information to make prior year comparisons and to set future year targets through the school improvement plan.

(2) Reporting Requirements. Each school district shall prepare a report card in accordance with the guidelines set forth in this Section which describes the performance of its students by school attendance centers and by district and the district's financial resources and use of financial resources. Such report card shall be presented at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, posted on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, made available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, sent home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card. In addition, each school district shall submit the completed report card to the office of the district's Regional Superintendent which shall make copies available to any individuals requesting them.

The report card shall be completed and disseminated prior to October 31 in each school year. The report card shall contain, but not be limited to, actual local school attendance center, school district and statewide data indicating the present performance of the school, the State norms and the areas for planned improvement for the school and school district.

(3) (a) The report card shall include the following applicable indicators of attendance center, district, and statewide student performance: percent of students who exceed, meet, or do not meet standards established by the State Board of Education pursuant to Section 2-3.25a; composite and subtest means on nationally normed achievement tests for college bound students; student attendance rates; chronic truancy rate; dropout rate; graduation rate; and student mobility, turnover shown as a percent of transfers out and a percent of transfers in.

(b) The report card shall include the following descriptions for the school, district, and State: average class size; amount of time per day devoted to mathematics, science, English and social science at primary, middle and junior high school grade levels; number of students taking the Prairie State Achievement Examination under subsection (c) of Section 2-3.64, the number of those students who received a score of excellent, and the average score by school of students taking the examination; pupil-teacher ratio; pupil-administrator ratio; operating expenditure per pupil; district expenditure by fund; average administrator salary; and average teacher salary. The report card shall also specify the amount of money that the district receives from all sources, including without limitation subcategories specifying the amount from local property taxes, the amount from general State aid, the amount from other State funding, and the amount from other income.

(c) The report card shall include applicable indicators of parental involvement in each attendance center. The parental involvement component of the report card shall include the percentage of students whose parents or guardians have had one or more personal contacts with the students' teachers during the school year concerning the students' education, and such other information, commentary, and suggestions as the school district desires. For the purposes of this paragraph, "personal contact" includes, but is not limited to, parent-teacher conferences, parental visits to school, school visits to home, telephone conversations, and written correspondence. The parental involvement component shall not single out or identify individual students, parents, or guardians by name.

(d) The report card form shall be prepared by the State Board of Education and provided to school districts by the most efficient, economic, and appropriate means.

(Source: P.A. 92-604, eff. 7-1-02; 92-631, eff. 7-11-02; revised 7-26-02.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.35)

Sec. 10-20.35. Medical information form for bus drivers and emergency medical technicians. School districts are encouraged to create and use an emergency medical information form for bus drivers and emergency medical technicians for those students with special needs or medical conditions. The form may include without limitation information to be provided by the student's parent or legal guardian concerning the student's relevant medical conditions, medications that the student is taking, the student's communication skills, and how a bus driver or an emergency medical technician is to respond to certain behaviors of the student. If the form is used, the school district is encouraged to notify parents and legal guardians of the availability of the form. The parent or legal guardian of the student may fill out the form and submit it to the school that the student is attending. The school district is encouraged to keep one copy of the form on file at the school and another copy on the student's school bus in a secure location.

(Source: P.A. 92-580, eff. 7-1-02.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.36)

Sec. 10-20.36 10-20.35. Psychotropic or psychostimulant medication; disciplinary action.

(a) In this Section:

"Psychostimulant medication" means medication that produces increased levels of mental and physical energy and alertness and an elevated mood by stimulating the central nervous system.

"Psychotropic medication" means psychotropic medication as defined in Section 1-121.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(b) Each school board must adopt and implement a policy that prohibits any disciplinary action that is based totally or in part on the refusal of a student's parent or guardian to administer or consent to the administration of psychotropic or psychostimulant medication to the student.

The policy must require that, at least once every 2 years, the in-service training of certified school personnel and administrators include training on current best practices regarding the identification and treatment of attention deficit disorder and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, the application of non-aversive behavioral interventions in the school environment, and the use of psychotropic or psychostimulant medication for school-age children.

(c) This Section does not prohibit school medical staff, an individualized educational program team, or a professional worker (as defined in Section 14-1.10 of this Code) from recommending that a student be evaluated by an appropriate medical practitioner or prohibit school personnel from consulting with the practitioner with the consent of the student's parents or guardian.

(Source: P.A. 92-663, eff. 1-1-03; revised 9-3-02.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.37)

Sec. 10-20.37. Summer kindergarten. A school board may establish, maintain, and operate, in connection with the kindergarten program of the school district, a summer kindergarten program that begins 2 months before the beginning of the regular school year and a summer kindergarten program for grade one readiness for those pupils making unsatisfactory progress during the regular kindergarten session that will continue for 2 months after the regular school year. The summer kindergarten program may be held within the school district or, pursuant to a contract that must be approved by the State Board of Education, may be operated by 2 or more adjacent school districts or by a public or private university or college. Transportation for students attending the summer kindergarten program shall be the responsibility of the school district. The expense of establishing, maintaining, and operating the summer kindergarten program may be paid from funds contributed or otherwise made available to the school district for that purpose by federal or State appropriation.

(Source: P.A. 93-472, eff. 8-8-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.38)

Sec. 10-20.38 10-20.37. Provision of student information prohibited. A school district may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-28-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)

Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.

(1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a health examination as follows: within one year prior to entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the fifth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private, or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder.

A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, including dental and vision examinations, may be required when deemed necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have their children undergo dental and vision examinations at the same points in time required for health examinations.

(2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures that constitute a health examination and may recommend by rule that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. The Department of Public Health shall specify that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing is not required.

Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice nurses who have a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes them to perform health examinations, or physician assistants who have been delegated the performance of health examinations by their supervising physician shall be responsible for the performance of the health examinations, other than dental examinations and vision and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions of the health examination for which the physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant is responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a health examination, then a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or licensed optometrists, shall perform all vision exams required by school authorities and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the vision exam. Vision and hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's parent or guardian written notification, before the vision screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed and signed a report form indicating that an examination has been administered within the previous 12 months."

(3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of this Section, present to the local school proof of having received such immunizations against preventable communicable diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.

(4) The individuals conducting the health examination shall record the fact of having conducted the examination, and such additional information as required, on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special services. The individuals confirming the administration of required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form that the immunizations were administered.

(5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either the health examination or the immunization as required, then the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year established by a school district. To establish a date before October 15 of the current school year for the health examination or immunization as required, a school district must give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or more of the required immunizations must be given after October 15 of the current school year, or after an earlier established date of the current school year, then the child shall present, by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health department that will be responsible for administration of the remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the local school authority shall exclude that child from school until such time as the child presents proof of having had the health examination as required and presents proof of having received those required immunizations which are medically possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section 26-10.

(6) Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall require, the number of children who have received the necessary immunizations and the health examination as required, indicating, of those who have not received the immunizations and examination as required, the number of children who are exempt from health examination and immunization requirements on religious or medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). This reported information shall be provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board of Education.

(7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to Section 18-8 to the school district for such year shall be withheld by the regional superintendent until the number of students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable specified percentage or higher.

(8) Parents or legal guardians who object to health examinations or any part thereof, or to immunizations, on religious grounds shall not be required to submit their children or wards to the examinations or immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a signed statement of objection, detailing the grounds for the objection. If the physical condition of the child is such that any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be administered, the examining physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health examination form. Exempting a child from the health examination does not exempt the child from participation in the program of physical education training provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.

(9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" means those nursery schools operated by elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning.

(Source: P.A. 92-703, eff. 7-19-02; 93-504, eff. 1-1-04; 93-530, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-11-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-8.1)

Sec. 34-8.1. Principals. Principals shall be employed to supervise the operation of each attendance center. Their powers and duties shall include but not be limited to the authority (i) to direct, supervise, evaluate, and suspend with or without pay or otherwise discipline all teachers, assistant principals, and other employees assigned to the attendance center in accordance with board rules and policies and (ii) to direct all other persons assigned to the attendance center pursuant to a contract with a third party to provide services to the school system. The right to employ, discharge, and layoff shall be vested solely with the board, provided that decisions to discharge or suspend non-certified employees, including disciplinary layoffs, and the termination of certified employees from employment pursuant to a layoff or reassignment policy are subject to review under the grievance resolution procedure adopted pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 10 of the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act. The grievance resolution procedure adopted by the board shall provide for final and binding arbitration, and, notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the arbitrator's decision may include all make-whole relief, including without limitation reinstatement. The principal shall fill positions by appointment as provided in this Section and may make recommendations to the board regarding the employment, discharge, or layoff of any individual. The authority of the principal shall include the authority to direct the hours during which the attendance center shall be open and available for use provided the use complies with board rules and policies, to determine when and what operations shall be conducted within those hours, and to schedule staff within those hours. Under the direction of, and subject to the authority of the principal, the Engineer In Charge shall be accountable for the safe, economical operation of the plant and grounds and shall also be responsible for orientation, training, and supervising the work of Engineers, Trainees, school maintenance assistants, custodial workers and other plant operation employees under his or her direction.

There shall be established by the board a system of semi-annual evaluations conducted by the principal as to performance of the engineer in charge. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the principal from conducting additional evaluations. An overall numerical rating shall be given by the principal based on the evaluation conducted by the principal. An unsatisfactory numerical rating shall result in disciplinary action, which may include, without limitation and in the judgment of the principal, loss of promotion or bidding procedure, reprimand, suspension with or without pay, or recommended dismissal. The board shall establish procedures for conducting the evaluation and reporting the results to the engineer in charge.

Under the direction of, and subject to the authority of, the principal, the Food Service Manager is responsible at all times for the proper operation and maintenance of the lunch room to which he is assigned and shall also be responsible for the orientation, training, and supervising the work of cooks, bakers, porters, and lunchroom attendants under his or her direction.

There shall be established by the Board a system of semi-annual evaluations conducted by the principal as to the performance of the food service manager. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the principal from conducting additional evaluations. An overall numerical rating shall be given by the principal based on the evaluation conducted by the principal. An unsatisfactory numerical rating shall result in disciplinary action which may include, without limitation and in the judgment of the principal, loss of promotion or bidding procedure, reprimand, suspension with or without pay, or recommended dismissal. The board shall establish rules for conducting the evaluation and reporting the results to the food service manager.

Nothing in this Section shall be interpreted to require the employment or assignment of an Engineer-In-Charge or a Food Service Manager for each attendance center.

Principals shall be employed to supervise the educational operation of each attendance center. If a principal is absent due to extended illness or leave or absence, an assistant principal may be assigned as acting principal for a period not to exceed 100 school days. Each principal shall assume administrative responsibility and instructional leadership, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations of the board, for the planning, operation and evaluation of the educational program of the attendance center to which he is assigned. The principal shall submit recommendations to the general superintendent concerning the appointment, dismissal, retention, promotion, and assignment of all personnel assigned to the attendance center; provided, that from and after September 1, 1989: (i) if any vacancy occurs in a position at the attendance center or if an additional or new position is created at the attendance center, that position shall be filled by appointment made by the principal in accordance with procedures established and provided by the Board whenever the majority of the duties included in that position are to be performed at the attendance center which is under the principal's supervision, and each such appointment so made by the principal shall be made and based upon merit and ability to perform in that position without regard to seniority or length of service, provided, that such appointments shall be subject to the Board's desegregation obligations, including but not limited to the Consent Decree and Desegregation Plan in U.S. v. Chicago Board of Education; (ii) the principal shall submit recommendations based upon merit and ability to perform in the particular position, without regard to seniority or length of service, to the general superintendent concerning the appointment of any teacher, teacher aide, counselor, clerk, hall guard, security guard and any other personnel which is to be made by the general superintendent whenever less than a majority of the duties of that teacher, teacher aide, counselor, clerk, hall guard, and security guard and any other personnel are to be performed at the attendance center which is under the principal's supervision; and (iii) subject to law and the applicable collective bargaining agreements, the authority and responsibilities of a principal with respect to the evaluation of all teachers and other personnel assigned to an attendance center shall commence immediately upon his or her appointment as principal of the attendance center, without regard to the length of time that he or she has been the principal of that attendance center.

Notwithstanding the existence of any other law of this State, nothing in this Act shall prevent the board from entering into a contract with a third party for services currently performed by any employee or bargaining unit member.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, each principal may approve contracts, binding on the board, in the amount of no more than $10,000, if the contract is endorsed by the Local School Council.

Unless otherwise prohibited by law or by rule of the board, the principal shall provide to local school council members copies of all internal audits and any other pertinent information generated by any audits or reviews of the programs and operation of the attendance center.

Each principal shall hold a valid administrative certificate issued or exchanged in accordance with Article 21 and endorsed as required by that Article for the position of principal. The board may establish or impose academic, educational, examination, and experience requirements and criteria that are in addition to those established and required by Article 21 for issuance of a valid certificate endorsed for the position of principal as a condition of the nomination, selection, appointment, employment, or continued employment of a person as principal of any attendance center, or as a condition of the renewal of any principal's performance contract.

The board shall specify in its formal job description for principals, and from and after July 1, 1990 shall specify in the 4 year performance contracts for use with respect to all principals, that his or her primary responsibility is in the improvement of instruction. A majority of the time spent by a principal shall be spent on curriculum and staff development through both formal and informal activities, establishing clear lines of communication regarding school goals, accomplishments, practices and policies with parents and teachers. The principal, with the assistance of the local school council, shall develop a school improvement plan as provided in Section 34-2.4 and, upon approval of the plan by the local school council, shall be responsible for directing implementation of the plan. The principal, with the assistance of the professional personnel leadership committee, shall develop the specific methods and contents of the school's curriculum within the board's system-wide curriculum standards and objectives and the requirements of the school improvement plan. The board shall ensure that all principals are evaluated on their instructional leadership ability and their ability to maintain a positive education and learning climate. It shall also be the responsibility of the principal to utilize resources of proper law enforcement agencies when the safety and welfare of students and teachers are threatened by illegal use of drugs and alcohol, by illegal use or possession of weapons, or by illegal gang activity.

On or before October 1, 1989, the Board of Education, in consultation with any professional organization representing principals in the district, shall promulgate rules and implement a lottery for the purpose of determining whether a principal's existing performance contract (including the performance contract applicable to any principal's position in which a vacancy then exists) expires on June 30, 1990 or on June 30, 1991, and whether the ensuing 4 year performance contract begins on July 1, 1990 or July 1, 1991. The Board of Education shall establish and conduct the lottery in such manner that of all the performance contracts of principals (including the performance contracts applicable to all principal positions in which a vacancy then exists), 50% of such contracts shall expire on June 30, 1990, and 50% shall expire on June 30, 1991. All persons serving as principal on May 1, 1989, and all persons appointed as principal after May 1, 1989 and prior to July 1, 1990 or July 1, 1991, in a manner other than as provided by Section 34-2.3, shall be deemed by operation of law to be serving under a performance contract which expires on June 30, 1990 or June 30, 1991; and unless such performance contract of any such principal is renewed (or such person is again appointed to serve as principal) in the manner provided by Section 34-2.2 or 34-2.3, the employment of such person as principal shall terminate on June 30, 1990 or June 30, 1991.

Commencing on July 1, 1990, or on July 1, 1991, and thereafter, the principal of each attendance center shall be the person selected in the manner provided by Section 34-2.3 to serve as principal of that attendance center under a 4 year performance contract. All performance contracts of principals expiring after July 1, 1990, or July 1, 1991, shall commence on the date specified in the contract, and the renewal of their performance contracts and the appointment of principals when their performance contracts are not renewed shall be governed by Sections 34-2.2 and 34-2.3. Whenever a vacancy in the office of a principal occurs for any reason, the vacancy shall be filled by the selection of a new principal to serve under a 4 year performance contract in the manner provided by Section 34-2.3.

The board of education shall develop and prepare, in consultation with the organization representing principals, a performance contract for use at all attendance centers, and shall furnish the same to each local school council. The term of the performance contract shall be 4 years, unless the principal is retained by the decision of a hearing officer pursuant to subdivision 1.5 of Section 34-2.3, in which case the contract shall be extended for 2 years. The performance contract of each principal shall consist of the uniform performance contract, as developed or from time to time modified by the board, and such additional criteria as are established by a local school council pursuant to Section 34-2.3 for the performance contract of its principal.

During the term of his or her performance contract, a principal may be removed only as provided for in the performance contract except for cause. He or she shall also be obliged to follow the rules of the board of education concerning conduct and efficiency.

In the event the performance contract of a principal is not renewed or a principal is not reappointed as principal under a new performance contract, or in the event a principal is appointed to any position of superintendent or higher position, or voluntarily resigns his position of principal, his or her employment as a principal shall terminate and such former principal shall not be reinstated to the position from which he or she was promoted to principal, except that he or she, if otherwise qualified and certified in accordance with Article 21, shall be placed by the board on appropriate eligibility lists which it prepares for use in the filling of vacant or additional or newly created positions for teachers. The principal's total years of service to the board as both a teacher and a principal, or in other professional capacities, shall be used in calculating years of experience for purposes of being selected as a teacher into new, additional or vacant positions.

In the event the performance contract of a principal is not renewed or a principal is not reappointed as principal under a new performance contract, such principal shall be eligible to continue to receive his or her previously provided level of health insurance benefits for a period of 90 days following the non-renewal of the contract at no expense to the principal, provided that such principal has not retired.

(Source: P.A. 93-3, eff. 4-16-03; 93-48, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-11-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.23)

Sec. 34-18.23. Medical information form for bus drivers and emergency medical technicians. The school district is encouraged to create and use an emergency medical information form for bus drivers and emergency medical technicians for those students with special needs or medical conditions. The form may include without limitation information to be provided by the student's parent or legal guardian concerning the student's relevant medical conditions, medications that the student is taking, the student's communication skills, and how a bus driver or an emergency medical technician is to respond to certain behaviors of the student. If the form is used, the school district is encouraged to notify parents and legal guardians of the availability of the form. The parent or legal guardian of the student may fill out the form and submit it to the school that the student is attending. The school district is encouraged to keep one copy of the form on file at the school and another copy on the student's school bus in a secure location.

(Source: P.A. 92-580, eff. 7-1-02.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.25)

Sec. 34-18.25 34-18.23. Psychotropic or psychostimulant medication; disciplinary action.

(a) In this Section:

"Psychostimulant medication" means medication that produces increased levels of mental and physical energy and alertness and an elevated mood by stimulating the central nervous system.

"Psychotropic medication" means psychotropic medication as defined in Section 1-121.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(b) The board must adopt and implement a policy that prohibits any disciplinary action that is based totally or in part on the refusal of a student's parent or guardian to administer or consent to the administration of psychotropic or psychostimulant medication to the student.

The policy must require that, at least once every 2 years, the in-service training of certified school personnel and administrators include training on current best practices regarding the identification and treatment of attention deficit disorder and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, the application of non-aversive behavioral interventions in the school environment, and the use of psychotropic or psychostimulant medication for school-age children.

(c) This Section does not prohibit school medical staff, an individualized educational program team, or a professional worker (as defined in Section 14-1.10 of this Code) from recommending that a student be evaluated by an appropriate medical practitioner or prohibit school personnel from consulting with the practitioner with the consent of the student's parents or guardian.

(Source: P.A. 92-663, eff. 1-1-03; revised 9-3-02.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.26)

Sec. 34-18.26. Sharing information on school lunch applicants. The board shall, whenever requested by the Department of Public Aid, agree in writing with the Department of Public Aid (as the State agency that administers the State Medical Assistance Program as provided in Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act and the State Children's Health Insurance Program as provided in Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act) to share with the Department of Public Aid information on applicants for free or reduced-price lunches. The board shall, whenever requested by the Department of Public Aid, require each of its schools to agree in writing with the Department of Public Aid to share with the Department of Public Aid information on applicants for free or reduced-price lunches. This sharing of information shall be for the sole purpose of helping the Department of Public Aid identify and enroll children in the State Medical Assistance Program or the State Children's Health Insurance Program or both as allowed under 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(iii)(IV) and under the restrictions set forth in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(vi) and (vii).

(Source: P.A. 93-404, eff. 8-1-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.27)

Sec. 34-18.27 34-18.26. Summer kindergarten. The board may establish, maintain, and operate, in connection with the kindergarten program of the school district, a summer kindergarten program that begins 2 months before the beginning of the regular school year and a summer kindergarten program for grade one readiness for those pupils making unsatisfactory progress during the regular kindergarten session that will continue for 2 months after the regular school year. The summer kindergarten program may be held within the school district or, pursuant to a contract that must be approved by the State Board of Education, may be operated by 2 or more adjacent school districts or by a public or private university or college. Transportation for students attending the summer kindergarten program shall be the responsibility of the school district. The expense of establishing, maintaining, and operating the summer kindergarten program may be paid from funds contributed or otherwise made available to the school district for that purpose by federal or State appropriation.

(Source: P.A. 93-472, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.28)

Sec. 34-18.28 34-18.26. Prison tour pilot program. The board shall establish a pilot program to prevent crime by developing guidelines to identify students at risk of committing crimes. "Students at risk of committing crimes" shall be limited to those students who have engaged in serious acts of misconduct in violation of the board's policy on discipline. This program, in cooperation with the Department of Corrections, shall include a guided tour of a prison for each student so identified in order to discourage criminal behavior. The touring of a prison under this Section shall be subject to approval, in writing, of a student's parent or guardian.

(Source: P.A. 93-538, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-24-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.29)

Sec. 34-18.29 34-18.26. Provision of student information prohibited. The school district may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 265. The Southern Illinois University Management Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 15 as follows:

(110 ILCS 520/15)

Sec. 15. Limitation on tuition increase. This Section applies only to those students who first enroll after the 2003-2004 academic year. For 4 continuous academic years following initial enrollment (or for undergraduate programs that require more than 4 years to complete, for the normal time to complete the program, as determined by the University), the tuition charged an undergraduate student who is an Illinois resident shall not exceed the amount that the student was charged at the time he or she first enrolled in the University. However, if the student changes majors during this time period, the tuition charged the student shall equal the amount the student would have been charged had he or she been admitted to the changed major when he or she first enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 93-228, eff. 1-1-04.)

(110 ILCS 520/16)

Sec. 16 15. Provision of student information prohibited. The University may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards, unless the student is 21 years of age or older.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 270. The Chicago State University Law is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5-120 as follows:

(110 ILCS 660/5-120)

Sec. 5-120. Limitation on tuition increase. This Section applies only to those students who first enroll after the 2003-2004 academic year. For 4 continuous academic years following initial enrollment (or for undergraduate programs that require more than 4 years to complete, for the normal time to complete the program, as determined by the University), the tuition charged an undergraduate student who is an Illinois resident shall not exceed the amount that the student was charged at the time he or she first enrolled in the University. However, if the student changes majors during this time period, the tuition charged the student shall equal the amount the student would have been charged had he or she been admitted to the changed major when he or she first enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 93-228; eff. 1-1-04.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-125)

Sec. 5-125 5-120. Provision of student information prohibited. The University may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards, unless the student is 21 years of age or older.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 275. The Eastern Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 10-120 as follows:

(110 ILCS 665/10-120)

Sec. 10-120. Limitation on tuition increase. This Section applies only to those students who first enroll after the 2003-2004 academic year. For 4 continuous academic years following initial enrollment (or for undergraduate programs that require more than 4 years to complete, for the normal time to complete the program, as determined by the University), the tuition charged an undergraduate student who is an Illinois resident shall not exceed the amount that the student was charged at the time he or she first enrolled in the University. However, if the student changes majors during this time period, the tuition charged the student shall equal the amount the student would have been charged had he or she been admitted to the changed major when he or she first enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 93-228, eff. 1-1-04.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-125)

Sec. 10-125 10-120. Provision of student information prohibited. The University may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards, unless the student is 21 years of age or older.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 280. The Governors State University Law is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 15-120 as follows:

(110 ILCS 670/15-120)

Sec. 15-120. Limitation on tuition increase. This Section applies only to those students who first enroll after the 2003-2004 academic year. For 4 continuous academic years following initial enrollment (or for undergraduate programs that require more than 4 years to complete, for the normal time to complete the program, as determined by the University), the tuition charged an undergraduate student who is an Illinois resident shall not exceed the amount that the student was charged at the time he or she first enrolled in the University. However, if the student changes majors during this time period, the tuition charged the student shall equal the amount the student would have been charged had he or she been admitted to the changed major when he or she first enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 93-228, eff. 1-1-04.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-125)

Sec. 15-125 15-120. Provision of student information prohibited. The University may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards, unless the student is 21 years of age or older.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 285. The Illinois State University Law is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 20-125 as follows:

(110 ILCS 675/20-125)

Sec. 20-125. Limitation on tuition increase. This Section applies only to those students who first enroll after the 2003-2004 academic year. For 4 continuous academic years following initial enrollment (or for undergraduate programs that require more than 4 years to complete, for the normal time to complete the program, as determined by the University), the tuition charged an undergraduate student who is an Illinois resident shall not exceed the amount that the student was charged at the time he or she first enrolled in the University. However, if the student changes majors during this time period, the tuition charged the student shall equal the amount the student would have been charged had he or she been admitted to the changed major when he or she first enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 93-228, eff. 1-1-04.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-130)

Sec. 20-130 20-125. Provision of student information prohibited. The University may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards, unless the student is 21 years of age or older.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 290. The Northeastern Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 25-120 as follows:

(110 ILCS 680/25-120)

Sec. 25-120. Limitation on tuition increase. This Section applies only to those students who first enroll after the 2003-2004 academic year. For 4 continuous academic years following initial enrollment (or for undergraduate programs that require more than 4 years to complete, for the normal time to complete the program, as determined by the University), the tuition charged an undergraduate student who is an Illinois resident shall not exceed the amount that the student was charged at the time he or she first enrolled in the University. However, if the student changes majors during this time period, the tuition charged the student shall equal the amount the student would have been charged had he or she been admitted to the changed major when he or she first enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 93-228, eff. 1-1-04.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-125)

Sec. 25-125 25-120. Provision of student information prohibited. The University may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards, unless the student is 21 years of age or older.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 295. The Northern Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 30-130 as follows:

(110 ILCS 685/30-130)

Sec. 30-130. Limitation on tuition increase. This Section applies only to those students who first enroll after the 2003-2004 academic year. For 4 continuous academic years following initial enrollment (or for undergraduate programs that require more than 4 years to complete, for the normal time to complete the program, as determined by the University), the tuition charged an undergraduate student who is an Illinois resident shall not exceed the amount that the student was charged at the time he or she first enrolled in the University. However, if the student changes majors during this time period, the tuition charged the student shall equal the amount the student would have been charged had he or she been admitted to the changed major when he or she first enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 93-228, eff. 1-1-04.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-135)

Sec. 30-135 30-130. Provision of student information prohibited. The University may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards, unless the student is 21 years of age or older.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 300. The Western Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 35-125 as follows:

(110 ILCS 690/35-125)

Sec. 35-125. Limitation on tuition increase. This Section applies only to those students who first enroll after the 2003-2004 academic year. The tuition charged an undergraduate student who is an Illinois resident shall not exceed the amount that the student was charged at the time he or she first enrolled at the University as an Illinois resident if that student first enrolled not more than 3 and one-half academic years before. However, if the student changes majors during this time period, the tuition charged the student shall equal the amount the student would have been charged had he or she been admitted to the changed major when he or she first enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 93-228, eff. 1-1-04.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-130)

Sec. 35-130 35-125. Provision of student information prohibited. The University may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards, unless the student is 21 years of age or older.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 305. The Public Community College Act is amended by changing Section 2-16.08 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/2-16.08)

Sec. 2-16.08. ICCB Federal Trust Fund. The ICCB Federal Trust Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Money recovered from federal programs for general administration that is are received by the State Board shall be deposited into the ICCB Federal Trust Fund. All money in the ICCB Federal Trust Fund shall be used, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, by the State Board for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the State Board.

(Source: P.A. 93-153, eff. 7-10-03; revised 1-14-04.)

Section 310. The Higher Education Loan Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 3.01, and 5 as follows:

(110 ILCS 945/3) (from Ch. 144, par. 1603)

Sec. 3. Definitions. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the terms specified in Sections 3.01 through 3.13 of this Act and the Illinois Finance Facilities Authority Act have the meanings ascribed to them in those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(110 ILCS 945/3.01) (from Ch. 144, par. 1603.01)

Sec. 3.01. Authority. "Authority" means the Illinois State Finance Authority created by the Illinois State Finance Authority Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(110 ILCS 945/5) (from Ch. 144, par. 1605)

Sec. 5. Transfer of functions from the Illinois Educational Facilities Authority to the Illinois Finance Authority. The Illinois Finance Authority created by the Illinois Finance Authority Act shall succeed to, assume and exercise all rights, powers, duties and responsibilities formerly exercised by the Illinois Educational Facilities Authority prior to the abolition of that Authority by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. All books, records, papers, documents and pending business in any way pertaining to the former Illinois Educational Facilities Authority are transferred to the Illinois State Finance Authority, but any rights or obligations of any person under any contract made by, or under any rules, regulations, uniform standards, criteria and guidelines established or approved by, such former Illinois Educational Facilities Authority shall be unaffected thereby. All bonds, notes or other evidences of indebtedness outstanding on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly shall be unaffected by the transfer of functions to the Illinois Finance Authority. No rule, regulation, standard, criteria or guideline promulgated, established or approved by the former Illinois Educational Facilities Authority pursuant to an exercise of any right, power, duty or responsibility assumed by and transferred to the Illinois Finance Authority shall be affected by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, and all such rules, regulations, standards, criteria and guidelines shall become those of the Illinois Finance Authority until such time as they are amended or repealed by the Authority.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 315. The Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 7 as follows:

(115 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 48, par. 1702)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Educational employer" or "employer" means the governing body of a public school district, combination of public school districts, including the governing body of joint agreements of any type formed by 2 or more school districts, public community college district or State college or university, and any State agency whose major function is providing educational services. "Educational employer" or "employer" does not include a Financial Oversight Panel created pursuant to Section 1A-8 of the School Code due to a district violating a financial plan but does include a School Finance Authority created under Article 1E or 1F of the School Code.

(b) "Educational employee" or "employee" means any individual, excluding supervisors, managerial, confidential, short term employees, student, and part-time academic employees of community colleges employed full or part time by an educational employer, but shall not include elected officials and appointees of the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate, firefighters as defined by subsection (g-1) of Section 3 of the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, and peace officers employed by a State university. For the purposes of this Act, part-time academic employees of community colleges shall be defined as those employees who provide less than 3 credit hours of instruction per academic semester.

(c) "Employee organization" or "labor organization" means an organization of any kind in which membership includes educational employees, and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, employee-employer disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work, but shall not include any organization which practices discrimination in membership because of race, color, creed, age, gender, national origin or political affiliation.

(d) "Exclusive representative" means the labor organization which has been designated by the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board as the representative of the majority of educational employees in an appropriate unit, or recognized by an educational employer prior to January 1, 1984 as the exclusive representative of the employees in an appropriate unit or, after January 1, 1984, recognized by an employer upon evidence that the employee organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the employees in an appropriate unit.

(e) "Board" means the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board.

(f) "Regional Superintendent" means the regional superintendent of schools provided for in Articles 3 and 3A of The School Code.

(g) "Supervisor" means any individual having authority in the interests of the employer to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, reward or discipline other employees within the appropriate bargaining unit and adjust their grievances, or to effectively recommend such action if the exercise of such authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature but requires the use of independent judgment. The term "supervisor" includes only those individuals who devote a preponderance of their employment time to such exercising authority.

(h) "Unfair labor practice" or "unfair practice" means any practice prohibited by Section 14 of this Act.

(i) "Person" includes an individual, educational employee, educational employer, legal representative, or employee organization.

(j) "Wages" means salaries or other forms of compensation for services rendered.

(k) "Professional employee" means, in the case of a public community college, State college or university, State agency whose major function is providing educational services, the Illinois School for the Deaf, and the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, (1) any employee engaged in work (i) predominantly intellectual and varied in character as opposed to routine mental, manual, mechanical, or physical work; (ii) involving the consistent exercise of discretion and judgment in its performance; (iii) of such character that the output produced or the result accomplished cannot be standardized in relation to a given period of time; and (iv) requiring knowledge of an advanced type in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction and study in an institution of higher learning or a hospital, as distinguished from a general academic education or from an apprenticeship or from training in the performance of routine mental, manual, or physical processes; or (2) any employee, who (i) has completed the courses of specialized intellectual instruction and study described in clause (iv) of paragraph (1) of this subsection, and (ii) is performing related work under the supervision of a professional person to qualify himself or herself to become a professional as defined in paragraph (l).

(l) "Professional employee" means, in the case of any public school district, or combination of school districts pursuant to joint agreement, any employee who has a certificate issued under Article 21 or Section 34-83 of the School Code, as now or hereafter amended.

(m) "Unit" or "bargaining unit" means any group of employees for which an exclusive representative is selected.

(n) "Confidential employee" means an employee, who (i) in the regular course of his or her duties, assists and acts in a confidential capacity to persons who formulate, determine and effectuate management policies with regard to labor relations or who (ii) in the regular course of his or her duties has access to information relating to the effectuation or review of the employer's collective bargaining policies.

(o) "Managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged predominantly in executive and management functions and is charged with the responsibility of directing the effectuation of such management policies and practices.

(p) "Craft employee" means a skilled journeyman, craft person, and his or her apprentice or helper.

(q) "Short-term employee" is an employee who is employed for less than 2 consecutive calendar quarters during a calendar year and who does not have a reasonable expectation that he or she will be rehired by the same employer for the same service in a subsequent calendar year. Nothing in this subsection shall affect the employee status of individuals who were covered by a collective bargaining agreement on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991.

(Source: P.A. 92-547, eff. 6-13-02; 92-748, eff. 1-1-03; 93-314, eff. 1-1-04; 93-501, eff. 8-11-03; revised 9-11-03.)

(115 ILCS 5/7) (from Ch. 48, par. 1707)

Sec. 7. Recognition of exclusive bargaining representatives - unit determination. The Board is empowered to administer the recognition of bargaining representatives of employees of public school districts, including employees of districts which have entered into joint agreements, or employees of public community college districts, or any State college or university, and any State agency whose major function is providing educational services, making certain that each bargaining unit contains employees with an identifiable community of interest and that no unit includes both professional employees and nonprofessional employees unless a majority of employees in each group vote for inclusion in the unit.

(a) In determining the appropriateness of a unit, the Board shall decide in each case, in order to ensure employees the fullest freedom in exercising the rights guaranteed by this Act, the unit appropriate for the purpose of collective bargaining, based upon but not limited to such factors as historical pattern of recognition, community of interest, including employee skills and functions, degree of functional integration, interchangeability and contact among employees, common supervision, wages, hours and other working conditions of the employees involved, and the desires of the employees. Nothing in this Act, except as herein provided, shall interfere with or negate the current representation rights or patterns and practices of employee organizations which have historically represented employees for the purposes of collective bargaining, including but not limited to the negotiations of wages, hours and working conditions, resolutions of employees' grievances, or resolution of jurisdictional disputes, or the establishment and maintenance of prevailing wage rates, unless a majority of the employees so represented expresses a contrary desire under the procedures set forth in this Act. This Section, however, does not prohibit multi-unit bargaining. Notwithstanding the above factors, where the majority of public employees of a craft so decide, the Board shall designate such craft as a unit appropriate for the purposes of collective bargaining.

The sole appropriate bargaining unit for tenured and tenure-track academic faculty at each campus of the University of Illinois shall be a unit that is comprised of non-supervisory academic faculty employed more than half-time and that includes all tenured and tenure-track faculty of that University campus employed by the board of trustees in all of the campus's undergraduate, graduate, and professional schools and degree and non-degree programs (with the exception of the college of medicine, the college of pharmacy, the college of dentistry, the college of law, and the college of veterinary medicine, each of which shall have its own separate unit), regardless of current or historical representation rights or patterns or the application of any other factors. Any decision, rule, or regulation promulgated by the Board to the contrary shall be null and void.

(b) An educational employer shall voluntarily recognize a labor organization for collective bargaining purposes if that organization appears to represent a majority of employees in the unit. The employer shall post notice of its intent to so recognize for a period of at least 20 school days on bulletin boards or other places used or reserved for employee notices. Thereafter, the employer, if satisfied as to the majority status of the employee organization, shall send written notification of such recognition to the Board for certification. Any dispute regarding the majority status of a labor organization shall be resolved by the Board which shall make the determination of majority status.

Within the 20 day notice period, however, any other interested employee organization may petition the Board to seek recognition as the exclusive representative of the unit in the manner specified by rules and regulations prescribed by the Board, if such interested employee organization has been designated by at least 15% of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit which includes all or some of the employees in the unit intended to be recognized by the employer. In such event, the Board shall proceed with the petition in the same manner as provided in paragraph (c) of this Section.

(c) A labor organization may also gain recognition as the exclusive representative by an election of the employees in the unit. Petitions requesting an election may be filed with the Board:

(1) by an employee or group of employees or any labor organizations acting on their behalf alleging and presenting evidence that 30% or more of the employees in a bargaining unit wish to be represented for collective bargaining or that the labor organization which has been acting as the exclusive bargaining representative is no longer representative of a majority of the employees in the unit; or

(2) by an employer alleging that one or more labor organizations have presented a claim to be recognized as an exclusive bargaining representative of a majority of the employees in an appropriate unit and that it doubts the majority status of any of the organizations or that it doubts the majority status of an exclusive bargaining representative.

The Board shall investigate the petition and if it has reasonable cause to suspect that a question of representation exists, it shall give notice and conduct a hearing. If it finds upon the record of the hearing that a question of representation exists, it shall direct an election, which shall be held no later than 90 days after the date the petition was filed. Nothing prohibits the waiving of hearings by the parties and the conduct of consent elections.

(c-5) The Board shall designate an exclusive representative for purposes of collective bargaining when the representative demonstrates a showing of majority interest by employees in the unit. If the parties to a dispute are without agreement on the means to ascertain the choice, if any, of employee organization as their representative, the Board shall ascertain the employees' choice of employee organization, on the basis of dues deduction authorization and other evidence, or, if necessary, by conducting an election. If either party provides to the Board, before the designation of a representative, clear and convincing evidence that the dues deduction authorizations, and other evidence upon which the Board would otherwise rely to ascertain the employees' choice of representative, are fraudulent or were obtained through coercion, the Board shall promptly thereafter conduct an election. The Board shall also investigate and consider a party's allegations that the dues deduction authorizations and other evidence submitted in support of a designation of representative without an election were subsequently changed, altered, withdrawn, or withheld as a result of employer fraud, coercion, or any other unfair labor practice by the employer. If the Board determines that a labor organization would have had a majority interest but for an employer's fraud, coercion, or unfair labor practice, it shall designate the labor organization as an exclusive representative without conducting an election.

(d) An order of the Board dismissing a representation petition, determining and certifying that a labor organization has been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in an appropriate bargaining unit, determining and certifying that a labor organization has not been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in the bargaining unit or certifying a labor organization as the exclusive representative of employees in an appropriate bargaining unit because of a determination by the Board that the labor organization is the historical bargaining representative of employees in the bargaining unit, is a final order. Any person aggrieved by any such order issued on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1987 may apply for and obtain judicial review in accordance with provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, except that such review shall be afforded directly in the Appellate Court of a judicial district in which the Board maintains an office. Any direct appeal to the Appellate Court shall be filed within 35 days from the date that a copy of the decision sought to be reviewed was served upon the party affected by the decision.

No election may be conducted in any bargaining unit during the term of a collective bargaining agreement covering such unit or subdivision thereof, except the Board may direct an election after the filing of a petition between January 15 and March 1 of the final year of a collective bargaining agreement. Nothing in this Section prohibits the negotiation of a collective bargaining agreement covering a period not exceeding 3 years. A collective bargaining agreement of less than 3 years may be extended up to 3 years by the parties if the extension is agreed to in writing before the filing of a petition under this Section. In such case, the final year of the extension is the final year of the collective bargaining agreement. No election may be conducted in a bargaining unit, or subdivision thereof, in which a valid election has been held within the preceding 12 month period.

(Source: P.A. 93-444, eff. 8-5-03; 93-445, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-11-03.)

Section 320. The Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1-6e as follows:

(205 ILCS 105/1-6e)

Sec. 1-6e. Reverse mortgage; disclosure. At the time a reverse mortgage loan is made, the lender must provide to the mortgagor a separate document that informs the mortgagor that by obtaining the reverse mortgage the mortgagor's eligibility to obtain a tax deferral under the Senior Citizens Real Estate Tax Deferral Act may be adversely affected. The mortgagor must sign the disclosure document as part of the reverse mortgage transaction.

(Source: P.A. 92-577, eff. 6-26-02.)

(205 ILCS 105/1-6f)

Sec. 1-6f 1-6e. Non-English language transactions. An association may conduct transactions in a language other than English through an employee or agent acting as interpreter or through an interpreter provided by the customer.

(Source: P.A. 92-578, eff. 6-26-02; revised 9-3-02.)

Section 325. The Illinois Credit Union Act is amended by changing Sections 13 and 30 as follows:

(205 ILCS 305/13) (from Ch. 17, par. 4414)

Sec. 13. General powers. A credit union may:

(1) Make contracts; sue and be sued; and adopt and use a common seal and alter the same;

(2) Acquire, lease (either as lessee or lessor), hold, pledge, mortgage, sell and dispose of real property, either in whole or in part, or any interest therein, as may be necessary or incidental to its present or future operations and needs, subject to such limitations as may be imposed thereon in rules and regulations promulgated by the Director; acquire, lease (either as lessee or lessor), hold, pledge, mortgage, sell and dispose of personal property, either in whole or in part, or any interest therein, as may be necessary or incidental to its present or future operations and needs;

(3) At the discretion of the Board of Directors, require the payment of an entrance fee or annual membership fee, or both, of any person admitted to membership;

(4) Receive savings from its members in the form of shares of various classes, or special purpose share accounts; act as custodian of its members' accounts; issue shares in trust as provided in this Act;

(5) Lend its funds to its members and otherwise as hereinafter provided;

(6) Borrow from any source in accordance with policy established by the Board of Directors to a maximum of 50% of capital, surplus and reserves;

(7) Discount and sell any obligations owed to the credit union;

(8) Honor requests for withdrawals or transfers of all or any part of member share accounts, and any classes thereof, in any manner approved by the credit union Board of Directors;

(9) Sell all or substantially all of its assets or purchase all or substantially all of the assets of another credit union, subject to the prior approval of the Director;

(10) Invest surplus funds as provided in this Act;

(11) Make deposits in banks, savings banks, savings and loan associations, trust companies; and invest in shares, classes of shares or share certificates of other credit unions;

(12) Assess charges and fees to members in accordance with board resolution;

(13) Hold membership in and pay dues to associations and organizations; to invest in shares, stocks or obligations of any credit union organization;

(14) Declare dividends and pay interest refunds to borrowers as provided in this Act;

(15) Collect, receive and disburse monies in connection with providing negotiable checks, money orders and other money-type instruments, and for such other purposes as may provide benefit or convenience to its members, and charge a reasonable fee for such services;

(16) Act as fiscal agent for and receive deposits from the federal government, this state or any agency or political subdivision thereof;

(17) Receive savings from nonmembers in the form of shares or share accounts in the case of credit unions serving predominantly low-income members. The term "low income members" shall mean those members who make less than 80% of the average for all wage earners as established by the Bureau of Labor Statistics or those members whose annual household income falls at or below 80% of the median household income for the nation as established by the Census Bureau. The term "predominantly" is defined as a simple majority;

(18) To Establish, maintain, and operate terminals as authorized by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act; and

(19) Subject to Article XLIV of the Illinois Insurance Code, to act as the agent for any fire, life, or other insurance company authorized by the State of Illinois, by soliciting and selling insurance and collecting premiums on policies issued by such company; and may receive for services so rendered such fees or commissions as may be agreed upon between the said credit union and the insurance company for which it may act as agent; provided, however, that no such credit union shall in any case assume or guarantee the payment of any premium on insurance policies issued through its agency by its principal; and provided further, that the credit union shall not guarantee the truth of any statement made by an assured in filing his application for insurance.

(Source: P.A. 92-608, eff. 7-1-02; revised 1-20-03.)

(205 ILCS 305/30) (from Ch. 17, par. 4431)

Sec. 30. Duties of directors. It shall be the duty of the directors to:

(1) Review actions on applications for membership. A record of the Membership Committee's approval or denial of membership or management's approval or denial of membership if no Membership Committee has been appointed shall be available to the Board of Directors for inspection. A person denied membership by the Membership Committee or credit union management may appeal the denial to the Board;

(2) Provide adequate fidelity bond coverage for officers, employees, directors and committee members, and for losses caused by persons outside of the credit union, subject to rules and regulations promulgated by the Director;

(3) Determine from time to time the interest rates, not in excess of that allowed under this Act, which shall be charged on loans to members and to authorize interest refunds, if any, to members from income earned and received in proportion to the interest paid by them on such classes of loans and under such conditions as the Board prescribes. The Directors may establish different interest rates to be charged on different classes of loans;

(4) Within any limitations set forth in the credit union's bylaws, fix the maximum amount which may be loaned with and without security to a member;

(5) Declare dividends on various classes of shares in the manner and form as provided in the bylaws;

(6) Limit the number of shares which may be owned by a member; such limitations to apply alike to all members;

(7) Have charge of the investment of funds, except that the Board of Directors may designate an Investment Committee or any qualified individual or entity to have charge of making investments under policies established by the Board of Directors;

(8) Authorize the employment of or contracting with such persons or organizations as may be necessary to carry on the operations of the credit union, provided that prior approval is received from the Department before delegating substantially all managerial duties and responsibilities to a credit union organization, and fix the compensation, if any, of the officers and provide for compensation for other employees within policies established by the Board of Directors;

(9) Authorize the conveyance of property;

(10) Borrow or lend money consistent with the provisions of this Act;

(11) Designate a depository or depositories for the funds of the credit union and supervise the investment of funds;

(12) Suspend or remove, or both, for cause, any or all officers or any or all members of the Membership, Credit, Supervisory or other committees for failure to perform their duties;

(13) Appoint any special committees deemed necessary; and;

(14) Perform such other duties as the members may direct, and perform or authorize any action not inconsistent with this Act and not specifically reserved by the bylaws to the members.

(Source: P.A. 92-608, eff. 7-1-02; revised 1-20-03.)

Section 330. The Electronic Fund Transfer Act is amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

(205 ILCS 616/50)

Sec. 50. Terminal requirements.

(a) To assure maximum safety and security against malfunction, fraud, theft, and other accidents or abuses and to assure that all access devices will have the capability of activating all terminals established in this State, no terminal shall accept an access device that does not conform to specifications that are generally accepted. In the case of a dispute concerning the specifications, the Commissioner, in accordance with the provisions of Section 20 of this Act, shall have the authority to determine the specifications.

(b) No terminal that does not accept an access device that conforms with those specifications shall be established or operated.

(c) A terminal shall bear a logotype or other identification symbol designed to advise customers which access devices may activate the terminal.

(d) When used to perform an interchange transaction, a terminal shall not bear any form of proprietary advertising of products and services not offered at the terminal; provided, however, that a terminal screen may bear proprietary advertising of products or services offered by a financial institution when a person uses an access device issued by that financial institution.

(e) No person operating a terminal in this State shall impose any surcharge on a consumer for the usage of that terminal, whether or not the consumer is using an access device issued by that person, unless that surcharge is clearly disclosed to the consumer both (i) by a sign that is clearly visible to the consumer on or at the terminal being used and (ii) electronically on the terminal screen. Following presentation of the electronic disclosure on the terminal screen, the consumer shall be provided an opportunity to cancel that transaction without incurring any surcharge or other obligation. If a surcharge is imposed on a consumer using an access device not issued by the person operating the terminal, that person shall disclose on the sign and on the terminal screen that the surcharge is in addition to any fee that may be assessed by the consumer's own institution. As used in this subsection, "surcharge" means any charge imposed by the person operating the terminal solely for the use of the terminal.

(f) A receipt given at a terminal to a person who initiates an electronic fund transfer shall include a number or code that identifies the consumer initiating the transfer, the consumer's account or accounts, or the access device used to initiate the transfer. If the number or code shown on the receipt is a number that identifies the access device, the number must be truncated as printed on the receipt so that fewer than all of the digits of the number or code are printed on the receipt. The Commissioner may, however, modify or waive the requirements imposed by this subsection (f) if the Commissioner determines that the modifications or waivers are necessary to alleviate any undue compliance burden.

(g) No terminal shall operate in this State unless, with respect to each interchange transaction initiated at the terminal, the access code entered by the consumer to authorize the transaction is encrypted by the device into which the access code is manually entered by the consumer and is transmitted from the terminal only in encrypted form. Any terminal that cannot meet the foregoing encryption requirements shall immediately cease forwarding information with respect to any interchange transaction or attempted interchange transaction.

(h) No person that directly or indirectly provides data processing support to any terminal in this State shall authorize or forward for authorization any interchange transaction unless the access code intended to authorize the interchange transaction is encrypted when received by that person and is encrypted when forwarded to any other person.

(i) A terminal operated in this State may be designed and programmed so that when a consumer enters his or her personal identification number in reverse order, the terminal automatically sends an alarm to the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the terminal location. The Commissioner shall promulgate rules necessary for the implementation of this subsection.

(j) (i) A person operating a terminal in this State may not impose a fee upon a consumer for usage of the terminal if the consumer is using a Link Card or other access device issued by a government agency for use in obtaining financial aid under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

For the purpose of this subsection (j) (i), the term "person operating a terminal" means the person who has control over and is responsible for a terminal. The term "person operating a terminal" does not mean the person who owns or controls the property or building in which a terminal is located, unless he or she also has control over and is responsible for the terminal.

(Source: P.A. 93-136, eff. 1-1-04; 93-273, eff. 1-1-04; 93-583, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-11-03.)

Section 335. The Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 2-4 and 2-6 as follows:

(205 ILCS 635/2-4) (from Ch. 17, par. 2322-4)

Sec. 2-4. Averments of Licensee. Each application for license or for the renewal of a license shall be accompanied by the following averments stating that the applicant:

(a) Will maintain at least one full service office within the State of Illinois pursuant to Section 3-4 of this Act;

(b) Will maintain staff reasonably adequate to meet the requirements of Section 3-4 of this Act;

(c) Will keep and maintain for 36 months the same written records as required by the federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act, and any other information required by regulations of the Commissioner regarding any home mortgage in the course of the conduct of its residential mortgage business;

(d) Will file with the Commissioner, when due, any report or reports which it is required to file under any of the provisions of this Act;

(e) Will not engage, whether as principal or agent, in the practice of rejecting residential mortgage applications without reasonable cause, or varying terms or application procedures without reasonable cause, for home mortgages on real estate within any specific geographic area from the terms or procedures generally provided by the licensee within other geographic areas of the State;

(f) Will not engage in fraudulent home mortgage underwriting practices;

(g) Will not make payment, whether directly or indirectly, of any kind to any in house or fee appraiser of any government or private money lending agency with which an application for a home mortgage has been filed for the purpose of influencing the independent judgment of the appraiser with respect to the value of any real estate which is to be covered by such home mortgage;

(h) Has filed tax returns (State and Federal) for the past 3 years or filed with the Commissioner an accountant's or attorney's statement as to why no return was filed;

(i) Will not engage in any discrimination or redlining activities prohibited by Section 3-8 of this Act;

(j) Will not knowingly make any false promises likely to influence or persuade, or pursue a course of misrepresentation and false promises through agents, solicitors, advertising or otherwise;

(k) Will not knowingly misrepresent, circumvent or conceal, through whatever subterfuge or device, any of the material particulars or the nature thereof, regarding a transaction to which it is a party to the injury of another party thereto;

(l) Will disburse funds in accordance with its agreements;

(m) Has not committed a crime against the law of this State, any other state or of the United States, involving moral turpitude, fraudulent or dishonest dealing, and that no final judgment has been entered against it in a civil action upon grounds of fraud, misrepresentation or deceit which has not been previously reported to the Commissioner;

(n) Will account or deliver to any person any personal property such as money, fund, deposit, check, draft, mortgage, other document or thing of value, which has come into its possession, and which is not its property, or which it is not in law or equity entitled to retain under the circumstances, at the time which has been agreed upon or is required by law, or, in the absence of a fixed time, upon demand of the person entitled to such accounting and delivery;

(o) Has not engaged in any conduct which would be cause for denial of a license;

(p) Has not become insolvent;

(q) Has not submitted an application for a license under this Act which contains a material misstatement;

(r) Has not demonstrated by course of conduct, negligence or incompetence in performing any act for which it is required to hold a license under this Act;

(s) Will advise the Commissioner in writing of any changes to the information submitted on the most recent application for license within 30 days of said change. The written notice must be signed in the same form as the application for license being amended;

(t) Will comply with the provisions of this Act, or with any lawful order, rule or regulation made or issued under the provisions of this Act;

(u) Will submit to periodic examination by the Commissioner as required by this Act;

(v) Will advise the Commissioner in writing of judgments entered against, and bankruptcy petitions by, the license applicant within 5 days of occurrence;

(w) Will advise the Commissioner in writing within 30 days when the license applicant requests a licensee under this Act to repurchase a loan, and the circumstances therefor; and

(x) Will advise the Commissioner in writing within 30 days when the license applicant is requested by another entity to repurchase a loan, and the circumstances therefor; .

(y) Will at all times act in a manner consistent with subsections (a) and (b) of Section 1-2 of this Act; and .

(z) (x) Will not knowingly hire or employ a loan originator who is not registered with the Commissioner as required under Section 7-1 of this Act.

A licensee who fails to fulfill obligations of an averment, to comply with averments made, or otherwise violates any of the averments made under this Section shall be subject to the penalties in Section 4-5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-561, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(205 ILCS 635/2-6) (from Ch. 17, par. 2322-6)

Sec. 2-6. License issuance and renewal; fee.

(a) Beginning July 1, 2003, licenses shall be renewed every year on the anniversary of the date of issuance of the original license. Properly completed renewal application forms and filing fees must be received by the Commissioner 60 days prior to the renewal date.

(b) It shall be the responsibility of each licensee to accomplish renewal of its license; failure of the licensee to receive renewal forms absent a request sent by certified mail for such forms will not waive said responsibility. Failure by a licensee to submit a properly completed renewal application form and fees in a timely fashion, absent a written extension from the Commissioner, will result in the assessment of additional fees, as follows:

(1) A fee of $750 will be assessed to the licensee 30 days after the proper renewal date and $1,500 each month thereafter, until the license is either renewed or expires pursuant to Section 2-6, subsections (c) and (d), of this Act.

(2) Such fee will be assessed without prior notice to the licensee, but will be assessed only in cases wherein the Commissioner has in his or her possession documentation of the licensee's continuing activity for which the unrenewed license was issued.

(c) A license which is not renewed by the date required in this Section shall automatically become inactive. No activity regulated by this Act shall be conducted by the licensee when a license becomes inactive. An inactive license may be reactivated by filing a completed reactivation application with the Commissioner, payment of the renewal fee, and payment of a reactivation fee equal to the renewal fee.

(d) A license which is not renewed within one year of becoming inactive shall expire.

(e) A licensee ceasing an activity or activities regulated by this Act and desiring to no longer be licensed shall so inform the Commissioner in writing and, at the same time, convey the license and all other symbols or indicia of licensure. The licensee shall include a plan for the withdrawal from regulated business, including a timetable for the disposition of the business. Upon receipt of such written notice, the Commissioner shall issue a certified statement canceling the license.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 7-1-03; 93-561, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-23-03.)

Section 340. The Mobile Home Park Act is amended by changing Section 2.2 as follows:

(210 ILCS 115/2.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 712.2)

Sec. 2.2. Permanent habitation. "Permanent habitation" means habitation for a period of 2 or more months.

(Source: P.A. 77-1472; revised 1-20-03.)

Section 345. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 155.39, 356z.2, and 356z.4 and changing Section 500-135 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/155.39)

Sec. 155.39. Vehicle protection products.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Administrator" means a third party other than the warrantor who is designated by the warrantor to be responsible for the administration of vehicle protection product warranties.

"Incidental costs" means expenses specified in the vehicle protection product warranty incurred by the warranty holder related to the failure of the vehicle protection product to perform as provided in the warranty. Incidental costs may include, without limitation, insurance policy deductibles, rental vehicle charges, the difference between the actual value of the stolen vehicle at the time of theft and the cost of a replacement vehicle, sales taxes, registration fees, transaction fees, and mechanical inspection fees.

"Vehicle protection product" means a vehicle protection device, system, or service that is (i) installed on or applied to a vehicle, (ii) is designed to prevent loss or damage to a vehicle from a specific cause, (iii) includes a written warranty by a warrantor that provides if the vehicle protection product fails to prevent loss or damage to a vehicle from a specific cause, that the warranty holder shall be paid specified incidental costs by the warrantor as a result of the failure of the vehicle protection product to perform pursuant to the terms of the warranty, and (iv) the warrantor's liability is covered by a warranty reimbursement insurance policy. The term "vehicle protection product" shall include, without limitation, alarm systems, body part marking products, steering locks, window etch products, pedal and ignition locks, fuel and ignition kill switches, and electronic, radio, and satellite tracking devices.

"Vehicle protection product warrantor" or "warrantor" means a person who is contractually obligated to the warranty holder under the terms of the vehicle protection product. Warrantor does not include an authorized insurer.

"Warranty reimbursement insurance policy" means a policy of insurance issued to the vehicle protection product warrantor to pay on behalf of the warrantor all covered contractual obligations incurred by the warrantor under the terms and conditions of the insured vehicle protection product warranties sold by the warrantor. The warranty reimbursement insurance policy shall be issued by an insurer authorized to do business in this State that has filed its policy form with the Department.

(b) No vehicle protection product sold or offered for sale in this State shall be subject to the provisions of this Code. Vehicle protection product warrantors and related vehicle protection product sellers and warranty administrators complying with this Section are not required to comply with and are not subject to any other provision of this Code. The vehicle protection products' written warranties are express warranties and not insurance.

(c) This Section applies to all vehicle protection products sold or offered for sale prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. The enactment of this Section does not imply that vehicle protection products should have been subject to regulation under this Code prior to the enactment of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-218, eff. 7-18-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/155.40)

Sec. 155.40 155.39. Auto insurance; application; false address.

(a) An applicant for a policy of insurance that insures against any loss or liability resulting from or incident to the ownership, maintenance, or use of a motor vehicle shall not provide to the insurer to which the application for coverage is made any address for the applicant other than the address at which the applicant resides.

(b) A person who knowingly violates this Section is guilty of a business offense. The penalty is a fine of not less than $1,001 and not more than $1,200.

(Source: P.A. 93-269, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-19-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/155.41)

Sec. 155.41 155.39. Slave era policies.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares all of the following:

(1) Insurance policies from the slavery era have been discovered in the archives of several insurance companies, documenting insurance coverage for slaveholders for damage to or death of their slaves, issued by a predecessor insurance firm. These documents provide the first evidence of ill-gotten profits from slavery, which profits in part capitalized insurers whose successors remain in existence today.

(2) Legislation has been introduced in Congress for the past 10 years demanding an inquiry into slavery and its continuing legacies.

(3) The Director of Insurance and the Department of Insurance are entitled to seek information from the files of insurers licensed and doing business in this State, including licensed Illinois subsidiaries of international insurance corporations, regarding insurance policies issued to slaveholders by predecessor corporations. The people of Illinois are entitled to significant historical information of this nature.

(b) The Department shall request and obtain information from insurers licensed and doing business in this State regarding any records of slaveholder insurance policies issued by any predecessor corporation during the slavery era.

(c) The Department shall obtain the names of any slaveholders or slaves described in those insurance records, and shall make the information available to the public and the General Assembly.

(d) Any insurer licensed and doing business in this State shall research and report to the Department with respect to any records within the insurer's possession or knowledge relating to insurance policies issued to slaveholders that provided coverage for damage to or death of their slaves.

(e) Descendants of slaves, whose ancestors were defined as private property, dehumanized, divided from their families, forced to perform labor without appropriate compensation or benefits, and whose ancestors' owners were compensated for damages by insurers, are entitled to full disclosure.

(Source: P.A. 93-333, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-19-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.2)

Sec. 356z.2. Coverage for adjunctive services in dental care.

(a) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly shall cover charges incurred, and anesthetics provided, in conjunction with dental care that is provided to a covered individual in a hospital or an ambulatory surgical treatment center if any of the following applies:

(1) the individual is a child age 6 or under;

(2) the individual has a medical condition that requires hospitalization or general anesthesia for dental care; or

(3) the individual is disabled.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "ambulatory surgical treatment center" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

For purposes of this Section, "disabled" means a person, regardless of age, with a chronic disability if the chronic disability meets all of the following conditions:

(1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or combination of mental and physical impairments.

(2) It is likely to continue.

(3) It results in substantial functional limitations in one or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(A) self-care;

(B) receptive and expressive language;

(C) learning;

(D) mobility;

(E) capacity for independent living; or

(F) economic self-sufficiency.

(c) The coverage required under this Section may be subject to any limitations, exclusions, or cost-sharing provisions that apply generally under the insurance policy.

(d) This Section does not apply to a policy that covers only dental care.

(e) Nothing in this Section requires that the dental services be covered.

(f) The provisions of this Section do not apply to short-term travel, accident-only, limited, or specified disease policies, nor to policies or contracts designed for issuance to persons eligible for coverage under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, known as Medicare, or any other similar coverage under State or federal governmental plans.

(Source: P.A. 92-764 eff. 1-1-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.3)

Sec. 356z.3 356z.2. Disclosure of limited benefit. An insurer that issues, delivers, amends, or renews an individual or group policy of accident and health insurance in this State after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly and arranges, contracts with, or administers contracts with a provider whereby beneficiaries are provided an incentive to use the services of such provider must include the following disclosure on its contracts and evidences of coverage: "WARNING, LIMITED BENEFITS WILL BE PAID WHEN NON-PARTICIPATING PROVIDERS ARE USED. You should be aware that when you elect to utilize the services of a non-participating provider for a covered service in non-emergency situations, benefit payments to such non-participating provider are not based upon the amount billed. The basis of your benefit payment will be determined according to your policy's fee schedule, usual and customary charge (which is determined by comparing charges for similar services adjusted to the geographical area where the services are performed), or other method as defined by the policy. YOU CAN EXPECT TO PAY MORE THAN THE COINSURANCE AMOUNT DEFINED IN THE POLICY AFTER THE PLAN HAS PAID ITS REQUIRED PORTION. Non-participating providers may bill members for any amount up to the billed charge after the plan has paid its portion of the bill. Participating providers have agreed to accept discounted payments for services with no additional billing to the member other than co-insurance and deductible amounts. You may obtain further information about the participating status of professional providers and information on out-of-pocket expenses by calling the toll free telephone number on your identification card.".

(Source: P.A. 92-579, eff. 1-1-03; revised 9-3-02.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.4)

Sec. 356z.4. Coverage for contraceptives.

(a) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly that provides coverage for outpatient services and outpatient prescription drugs or devices must provide coverage for the insured and any dependent of the insured covered by the policy for all outpatient contraceptive services and all outpatient contraceptive drugs and devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration. Coverage required under this Section may not impose any deductible, coinsurance, waiting period, or other cost-sharing or limitation that is greater than that required for any outpatient service or outpatient prescription drug or device otherwise covered by the policy.

(b) As used in this Section, "outpatient contraceptive service" means consultations, examinations, procedures, and medical services, provided on an outpatient basis and related to the use of contraceptive methods (including natural family planning) to prevent an unintended pregnancy.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require an insurance company to cover services related to an abortion as the term "abortion" is defined in the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require an insurance company to cover services related to permanent sterilization that requires a surgical procedure.

(Source: P.A. 93-102, eff. 1-1-04.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.5)

Sec. 356z.5 356z.4. Prescription inhalants. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly that provides coverage for prescription drugs may not deny or limit coverage for prescription inhalants to enable persons to breathe when suffering from asthma or other life-threatening bronchial ailments based upon any restriction on the number of days before an inhaler refill may be obtained if, contrary to those restrictions, the inhalants have been ordered or prescribed by the treating physician and are medically appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 93-529, eff. 8-14-03; revised 9-25-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/500-135)

Sec. 500-135. Fees.

(a) The fees required by this Article are as follows:

(1) a fee of $180 for a person who is a resident of Illinois, and $250 for a person who is not a resident of Illinois, payable once every 2 years for an insurance producer license;

(2) a fee of $50 for the issuance of a temporary insurance producer license;

(3) a fee of $150 payable once every 2 years for a business entity;

(4) an annual $50 fee for a limited line producer license issued under items (1) through (7) of subsection (a) of Section 500-100;

(5) a $50 application fee for the processing of a request to take the written examination for an insurance producer license;

(6) an annual registration fee of $1,000 for registration of an education provider;

(7) a certification fee of $50 for each certified pre-licensing or continuing education course and an annual fee of $20 for renewing the certification of each such course;

(8) a fee of $180 for a person who is a resident of Illinois, and $250 for a person who is not a resident of Illinois, payable once every 2 years for a car rental limited line license;

(9) a fee of $200 payable once every 2 years for a limited lines license other than the licenses issued under items (1) through (7) of subsection (a) of Section 500-100, a car rental limited line license, or a self-service storage facility limited line license;

(10) a fee of $50 payable once every 2 years for a self-service storage facility limited line license.

(b) Except as otherwise provided, all fees paid to and collected by the Director under this Section shall be paid promptly after receipt thereof, together with a detailed statement of such fees, into a special fund in the State Treasury to be known as the Insurance Producer Administration Fund. The moneys deposited into the Insurance Producer Administration Fund may be used only for payment of the expenses of the Department in the execution, administration, and enforcement of the insurance laws of this State, and shall be appropriated as otherwise provided by law for the payment of those expenses with first priority being any expenses incident to or associated with the administration and enforcement of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 92-386, eff. 1-1-02; 93-32, eff. 7-1-03; 93-288, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-12-03.)

Section 350. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 137, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 355.2, 356m, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including without limitation the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-764, eff. 1-1-03; 93-102, eff. 1-1-04; 93-261, eff. 1-1-04; 93-477, eff. 8-8-03; 93-529, eff. 8-14-03; revised 9-25-03.)

Section 355. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-130, eff. 7-20-01; 92-440, eff. 8-17-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-764, eff. 1-1-03; 93-102, eff. 1-1-04; 93-529, eff. 8-14-03; revised 9-25-03.)

Section 360. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Sections 5-109 and 16-111 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/5-109) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 5-109)

Sec. 5-109. Reports; false reports; penalty. Each public utility in the State, other than a commercial mobile radio service provider, shall each year furnish to the Commission, in such form as the Commission shall require, annual reports as to all the items mentioned in the preceding Sections of this Article, and in addition such other items, whether of a nature similar to those therein enumerated or otherwise, as the Commission may prescribe. Such annual reports shall contain all the required information for the period of 12 months ending on June 30 in each year, or ending on December 31 in each year, as the Commission may by order prescribe for each class of public utilities, except commercial mobile radio service providers, and shall be filed with the Commission at its office in Springfield within 3 months after the close of the year for which the report is made. The Commission shall have authority to require any public utility to file monthly reports of earnings and expenses of such utility, and to file other periodical or special, or both periodical and special reports concerning any matter about which the Commission is authorized by law to keep itself informed. All reports shall be under oath.

When any report is erroneous or defective or appears to the Commission to be erroneous or defective, the Commission may notify the public utility to amend such report within 30 days, and before or after the termination of such period the Commission may examine the officers, agents, or employees, and books, records, accounts, vouchers, plant, equipment and property of such public utility, and correct such items in the report as upon such examination the Commission may find defective or erroneous.

All reports made to the Commission by any public utility and the contents thereof shall be open to public inspection, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission. Such reports shall be preserved in the office of the Commission.

Any public utility which fails to make and file any report called for by the Commission within the time specified; or to make specific answer to any question propounded by the Commission within 30 days from the time it is lawfully required to do so, or within such further time, not to exceed 90 days, as may in its discretion be allowed by the Commission, shall forfeit up to $100 for each and every day it may so be in default if the utility collects less than $100,000 annually in gross revenue; and if the utility collects $100,000 or more annually in gross revenue, it shall forfeit $1,000 per day for each and every day it is in default.

Any person who willfully makes any false return or report to the Commission or to any member, officer, or employee thereof, any person who willfully, in a return or report, withholds or fails to provide material information to which the Commission is entitled under this Act and which information is either required to be filed by statute, rule, regulation, order, or decision of the Commission or has been requested by the Commission, and any person who willfully aids or abets such person shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 93-132, eff. 7-10-03; 93-457, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-12-03.)

(220 ILCS 5/16-111)

Sec. 16-111. Rates and restructuring transactions during mandatory transition period.

(a) During the mandatory transition period, notwithstanding any provision of Article IX of this Act, and except as provided in subsections (b), (d), (e), and (f) of this Section, the Commission shall not (i) initiate, authorize or order any change by way of increase (other than in connection with a request for rate increase which was filed after September 1, 1997 but prior to October 15, 1997, by an electric utility serving less than 12,500 customers in this State), (ii) initiate or, unless requested by the electric utility, authorize or order any change by way of decrease, restructuring or unbundling (except as provided in Section 16-109A), in the rates of any electric utility that were in effect on October 1, 1996, or (iii) in any order approving any application for a merger pursuant to Section 7-204 that was pending as of May 16, 1997, impose any condition requiring any filing for an increase, decrease, or change in, or other review of, an electric utility's rates or enforce any such condition of any such order; provided, however, that this subsection shall not prohibit the Commission from:

(1) approving the application of an electric utility to implement an alternative to rate of return regulation or a regulatory mechanism that rewards or penalizes the electric utility through adjustment of rates based on utility performance, pursuant to Section 9-244;

(2) authorizing an electric utility to eliminate its fuel adjustment clause and adjust its base rate tariffs in accordance with subsection (b), (d), or (f) of Section 9-220 of this Act, to fix its fuel adjustment factor in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 9-220 of this Act, or to eliminate its fuel adjustment clause in accordance with subsection (e) of Section 9-220 of this Act;

(3) ordering into effect tariffs for delivery services and transition charges in accordance with Sections 16-104 and 16-108, for real-time pricing in accordance with Section 16-107, or the options required by Section 16-110 and subsection (n) of 16-112, allowing a billing experiment in accordance with Section 16-106, or modifying delivery services tariffs in accordance with Section 16-109; or

(4) ordering or allowing into effect any tariff to recover charges pursuant to Sections 9-201.5, 9-220.1, 9-221, 9-222 (except as provided in Section 9-222.1), 16-108, and 16-114 of this Act, Section 5-5 of the Electricity Infrastructure Maintenance Fee Law, Section 6-5 of the Renewable Energy, Energy Efficiency, and Coal Resources Development Law of 1997, and Section 13 of the Energy Assistance Act.

After December 31, 2004, the provisions of this subsection (a) shall not apply to an electric utility whose average residential retail rate was less than or equal to 90% of the average residential retail rate for the "Midwest Utilities", as that term is defined in subsection (b) of this Section, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995, and which served between 150,000 and 250,000 retail customers in this State on January 1, 1995 unless the electric utility or its holding company has been acquired by or merged with an affiliate of another electric utility subsequent to January 1, 2002. This exemption shall be limited to this subsection (a) and shall not extend to any other provisions of this Act.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), each Illinois electric utility serving more than 12,500 customers in Illinois shall file tariffs (i) reducing, effective August 1, 1998, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by 15% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998 and (ii) if the public utility provides electric service to (A) more than 500,000 customers but less than 1,000,000 customers in this State on January 1, 1999, reducing, effective May 1, 2002, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by an additional 5% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998, or (B) at least 1,000,000 customers in this State on January 1, 1999, reducing, effective October 1, 2001, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by an additional 5% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998. Provided, however, that (A) if an electric utility's average residential retail rate is less than or equal to the average residential retail rate for a group of Midwest Utilities (consisting of all investor-owned electric utilities with annual system peaks in excess of 1000 megawatts in the States of Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Michigan, Missouri, Ohio, and Wisconsin), based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995, then it shall only be required to file tariffs (i) reducing, effective August 1, 1998, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by 5% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998, (ii) reducing, effective October 1, 2000, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by the lesser of 5% of the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998 or the percentage by which the electric utility's average residential retail rate exceeds the average residential retail rate of the Midwest Utilities, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1999, and (iii) reducing, effective October 1, 2002, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by an additional amount equal to the lesser of 5% of the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998 or the percentage by which the electric utility's average residential retail rate exceeds the average residential retail rate of the Midwest Utilities, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 2001; and (B) if the average residential retail rate of an electric utility serving between 150,000 and 250,000 retail customers in this State on January 1, 1995 is less than or equal to 90% of the average residential retail rate for the Midwest Utilities, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995, then it shall only be required to file tariffs (i) reducing, effective August 1, 1998, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by 2% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998; (ii) reducing, effective October 1, 2000, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by 2% from the base rate in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998; and (iii) reducing, effective October 1, 2002, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by 1% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998. Provided, further, that any electric utility for which a decrease in base rates has been or is placed into effect between October 1, 1996 and the dates specified in the preceding sentences of this subsection, other than pursuant to the requirements of this subsection, shall be entitled to reduce the amount of any reduction or reductions in its base rates required by this subsection by the amount of such other decrease. The tariffs required under this subsection shall be filed 45 days in advance of the effective date. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in Section 9-220 of this Act, no restatement of base rates in conjunction with the elimination of a fuel adjustment clause under that Section shall result in a lesser decrease in base rates than customers would otherwise receive under this subsection had the electric utility's fuel adjustment clause not been eliminated.

(c) Any utility reducing its base rates by 15% on August 1, 1998 pursuant to subsection (b) shall include the following statement on its bills for residential customers from August 1 through December 31, 1998: "Effective August 1, 1998, your rates have been reduced by 15% by the Electric Service Customer Choice and Rate Relief Law of 1997 passed by the Illinois General Assembly.". Any utility reducing its base rates by 5% on August 1, 1998, pursuant to subsection (b) shall include the following statement on its bills for residential customers from August 1 through December 31, 1998: "Effective August 1, 1998, your rates have been reduced by 5% by the Electric Service Customer Choice and Rate Relief Law of 1997 passed by the Illinois General Assembly.".

Any utility reducing its base rates by 2% on August 1, 1998 pursuant to subsection (b) shall include the following statement on its bills for residential customers from August 1 through December 31, 1998: "Effective August 1, 1998, your rates have been reduced by 2% by the Electric Service Customer Choice and Rate Relief Law of 1997 passed by the Illinois General Assembly.".

(d) During the mandatory transition period, but not before January 1, 2000, and notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), an electric utility may request an increase in its base rates if the electric utility demonstrates that the 2-year average of its earned rate of return on common equity, calculated as its net income applicable to common stock divided by the average of its beginning and ending balances of common equity using data reported in the electric utility's Form 1 report to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission but adjusted to remove the effects of accelerated depreciation or amortization or other transition or mitigation measures implemented by the electric utility pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section and the effect of any refund paid pursuant to subsection (e) of this Section, is below the 2-year average for the same 2 years of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication. The Commission shall review the electric utility's request, and may review the justness and reasonableness of all rates for tariffed services, in accordance with the provisions of Article IX of this Act, provided that the Commission shall consider any special or negotiated adjustments to the revenue requirement agreed to between the electric utility and the other parties to the proceeding. In setting rates under this Section, the Commission shall exclude the costs and revenues that are associated with competitive services and any billing or pricing experiments conducted under Section 16-106.

(e) For the purposes of this subsection (e) all calculations and comparisons shall be performed for the Illinois operations of multijurisdictional utilities. During the mandatory transition period, notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), if the 2-year average of an electric utility's earned rate of return on common equity, calculated as its net income applicable to common stock divided by the average of its beginning and ending balances of common equity using data reported in the electric utility's Form 1 report to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission but adjusted to remove the effect of any refund paid under this subsection (e), and further adjusted to include the annual amortization of any difference between the consideration received by an affiliated interest of the electric utility in the sale of an asset which had been sold or transferred by the electric utility to the affiliated interest subsequent to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 and the consideration for which such asset had been sold or transferred to the affiliated interest, with such difference to be amortized ratably from the date of the sale by the affiliated interest to December 31, 2006, exceeds the 2-year average of the Index for the same 2 years by 1.5 or more percentage points, the electric utility shall make refunds to customers beginning the first billing day of April in the following year in the manner described in paragraph (3) of this subsection. For purposes of this subsection (e), the "Index" shall be the sum of (A) the average for the 12 months ended September 30 of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication for each year 1998 through 2006, and (B) (i) 4.00 percentage points for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 1998 through September 30, 1999 or 8.00 percentage points if the electric utility's average residential retail rate is less than or equal to 90% of the average residential retail rate for the "Midwest Utilities", as that term is defined in subsection (b) of this Section, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995, and the electric utility served between 150,000 and 250,000 retail customers on January 1, 1995, (ii) 7.00 percentage points for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 2000 through September 30, 2006 if the electric utility was providing service to at least 1,000,000 customers in this State on January 1, 1999, or 9.00 percentage points if the electric utility's average residential retail rate is less than or equal to 90% of the average residential retail rate for the "Midwest Utilities", as that term is defined in subsection (b) of this Section, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995 and the electric utility served between 150,000 and 250,000 retail customers in this State on January 1, 1995, (iii) 11.00 percentage points for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 2000 through September 30, 2006, but only if the electric utility's average residential retail rate is less than or equal to 90% of the average residential retail rate for the "Midwest Utilities", as that term is defined in subsection (b) of this Section, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995, the electric utility served between 150,000 and 250,000 retail customers in this State on January 1, 1995, and the electric utility offers delivery services on or before June 1, 2000 to retail customers whose annual electric energy use comprises 33% of the kilowatt hour sales to that group of retail customers that are classified under Division D, Groups 20 through 39 of the Standard Industrial Classifications set forth in the Standard Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States Office of Management and Budget, excluding the kilowatt hour sales to those customers that are eligible for delivery services pursuant to Section 16-104(a)(1)(i), and offers delivery services to its remaining retail customers classified under Division D, Groups 20 through 39 on or before October 1, 2000, and, provided further, that the electric utility commits not to petition pursuant to Section 16-108(f) for entry of an order by the Commission authorizing the electric utility to implement transition charges for an additional period after December 31, 2006, or (iv) 5.00 percentage points for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 2000 through September 30, 2006 for all other electric utilities or 7.00 percentage points for such utilities for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 2000 through September 30, 2006 for any such utility that commits not to petition pursuant to Section 16-108(f) for entry of an order by the Commission authorizing the electric utility to implement transition charges for an additional period after December 31, 2006 or 11.00 percentage points for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 2005 and September 30, 2006 for each electric utility providing service to fewer than 6,500, or between 75,000 and 150,000, electric retail customers in this State on January 1, 1995 if such utility commits not to petition pursuant to Section 16-108(f) for entry of an order by the Commission authorizing the electric utility to implement transition charges for an additional period after December 31, 2006.

(1) For purposes of this subsection (e), "excess earnings" means the difference between (A) the 2-year average of the electric utility's earned rate of return on common equity, less (B) the 2-year average of the sum of (i) the Index applicable to each of the 2 years and (ii) 1.5 percentage points; provided, that "excess earnings" shall never be less than zero.

(2) On or before March 31 of each year 2000 through 2007 each electric utility shall file a report with the Commission showing its earned rate of return on common equity, calculated in accordance with this subsection, for the preceding calendar year and the average for the preceding 2 calendar years.

(3) If an electric utility has excess earnings, determined in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection, the refunds which the electric utility shall pay to its customers beginning the first billing day of April in the following year shall be calculated and applied as follows:

(i) The electric utility's excess earnings shall be multiplied by the average of the beginning and ending balances of the electric utility's common equity for the 2-year period in which excess earnings occurred.

(ii) The result of the calculation in (i) shall be multiplied by 0.50 and then divided by a number equal to 1 minus the electric utility's composite federal and State income tax rate.

(iii) The result of the calculation in (ii) shall be divided by the sum of the electric utility's projected total kilowatt-hour sales to retail customers plus projected kilowatt-hours to be delivered to delivery services customers over a one year period beginning with the first billing date in April in the succeeding year to determine a cents per kilowatt-hour refund factor.

(iv) The cents per kilowatt-hour refund factor calculated in (iii) shall be credited to the electric utility's customers by applying the factor on the customer's monthly bills to each kilowatt-hour sold or delivered until the total amount calculated in (ii) has been paid to customers.

(f) During the mandatory transition period, an electric utility may file revised tariffs reducing the price of any tariffed service offered by the electric utility for all customers taking that tariffed service, which shall be effective 7 days after filing.

(g) During the mandatory transition period, an electric utility may, without obtaining any approval of the Commission other than that provided for in this subsection and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any rule or regulation of the Commission that would require such approval:

(1) implement a reorganization, other than a merger of 2 or more public utilities as defined in Section 3-105 or their holding companies;

(2) retire generating plants from service;

(3) sell, assign, lease or otherwise transfer assets to an affiliated or unaffiliated entity and as part of such transaction enter into service agreements, power purchase agreements, or other agreements with the transferee; provided, however, that the prices, terms and conditions of any power purchase agreement must be approved or allowed into effect by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission; or

(4) use any accelerated cost recovery method including accelerated depreciation, accelerated amortization or other capital recovery methods, or record reductions to the original cost of its assets.

In order to implement a reorganization, retire generating plants from service, or sell, assign, lease or otherwise transfer assets pursuant to this Section, the electric utility shall comply with subsections (c) and (d) of Section 16-128, if applicable, and subsection (k) of this Section, if applicable, and provide the Commission with at least 30 days notice of the proposed reorganization or transaction, which notice shall include the following information:

(i) a complete statement of the entries that the electric utility will make on its books and records of account to implement the proposed reorganization or transaction together with a certification from an independent certified public accountant that such entries are in accord with generally accepted accounting principles and, if the Commission has previously approved guidelines for cost allocations between the utility and its affiliates, a certification from the chief accounting officer of the utility that such entries are in accord with those cost allocation guidelines;

(ii) a description of how the electric utility will use proceeds of any sale, assignment, lease or transfer to retire debt or otherwise reduce or recover the costs of services provided by such electric utility;

(iii) a list of all federal approvals or approvals required from departments and agencies of this State, other than the Commission, that the electric utility has or will obtain before implementing the reorganization or transaction;

(iv) an irrevocable commitment by the electric utility that it will not, as a result of the transaction, impose any stranded cost charges that it might otherwise be allowed to charge retail customers under federal law or increase the transition charges that it is otherwise entitled to collect under this Article XVI; and

(v) if the electric utility proposes to sell, assign, lease or otherwise transfer a generating plant that brings the amount of net dependable generating capacity transferred pursuant to this subsection to an amount equal to or greater than 15% of the electric utility's net dependable capacity as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, and enters into a power purchase agreement with the entity to which such generating plant is sold, assigned, leased, or otherwise transferred, the electric utility also agrees, if its fuel adjustment clause has not already been eliminated, to eliminate its fuel adjustment clause in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 9-220 for a period of time equal to the length of any such power purchase agreement or successor agreement, or until January 1, 2005, whichever is longer; if the capacity of the generating plant so transferred and related power purchase agreement does not result in the elimination of the fuel adjustment clause under this subsection, and the fuel adjustment clause has not already been eliminated, the electric utility shall agree that the costs associated with the transferred plant that are included in the calculation of the rate per kilowatt-hour to be applied pursuant to the electric utility's fuel adjustment clause during such period shall not exceed the per kilowatt-hour cost associated with such generating plant included in the electric utility's fuel adjustment clause during the full calendar year preceding the transfer, with such limit to be adjusted each year thereafter by the Gross Domestic Product Implicit Price Deflator.

(vi) In addition, if the electric utility proposes to sell, assign, or lease, (A) either (1) an amount of generating plant that brings the amount of net dependable generating capacity transferred pursuant to this subsection to an amount equal to or greater than 15% of its net dependable capacity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, or (2) one or more generating plants with a total net dependable capacity of 1100 megawatts, or (B) transmission and distribution facilities that either (1) bring the amount of transmission and distribution facilities transferred pursuant to this subsection to an amount equal to or greater than 15% of the electric utility's total depreciated original cost investment in such facilities, or (2) represent an investment of $25,000,000 in terms of total depreciated original cost, the electric utility shall provide, in addition to the information listed in subparagraphs (i) through (v), the following information: (A) a description of how the electric utility will meet its service obligations under this Act in a safe and reliable manner and (B) the electric utility's projected earned rate of return on common equity, calculated in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section, for each year from the date of the notice through December 31, 2006 both with and without the proposed transaction. If the Commission has not issued an order initiating a hearing on the proposed transaction within 30 days after the date the electric utility's notice is filed, the transaction shall be deemed approved. The Commission may, after notice and hearing, prohibit the proposed transaction if it makes either or both of the following findings: (1) that the proposed transaction will render the electric utility unable to provide its tariffed services in a safe and reliable manner, or (2) that there is a strong likelihood that consummation of the proposed transaction will result in the electric utility being entitled to request an increase in its base rates during the mandatory transition period pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. Any hearing initiated by the Commission into the proposed transaction shall be completed, and the Commission's final order approving or prohibiting the proposed transaction shall be entered, within 90 days after the date the electric utility's notice was filed. Provided, however, that a sale, assignment, or lease of transmission facilities to an independent system operator that meets the requirements of Section 16-126 shall not be subject to Commission approval under this Section.

In any proceeding conducted by the Commission pursuant to this subparagraph (vi), intervention shall be limited to parties with a direct interest in the transaction which is the subject of the hearing and any statutory consumer protection agency as defined in subsection (d) of Section 9-102.1. Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 10-113 of this Act, any application seeking rehearing of an order issued under this subparagraph (vi), whether filed by the electric utility or by an intervening party, shall be filed within 10 days after service of the order.

The Commission shall not in any subsequent proceeding or otherwise, review such a reorganization or other transaction authorized by this Section, but shall retain the authority to allocate costs as stated in Section 16-111(i). An entity to which an electric utility sells, assigns, leases or transfers assets pursuant to this subsection (g) shall not, as a result of the transactions specified in this subsection (g), be deemed a public utility as defined in Section 3-105. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall change any requirement under the jurisdiction of the Illinois Department of Nuclear Safety including, but not limited to, the payment of fees. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall exempt a utility from obtaining a certificate pursuant to Section 8-406 of this Act for the construction of a new electric generating facility. Nothing in this subsection (g) is intended to exempt the transactions hereunder from the operation of the federal or State antitrust laws. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall require an electric utility to use the procedures specified in this subsection for any of the transactions specified herein. Any other procedure available under this Act may, at the electric utility's election, be used for any such transaction.

(h) During the mandatory transition period, the Commission shall not establish or use any rates of depreciation, which for purposes of this subsection shall include amortization, for any electric utility other than those established pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 5-104 of this Act or utilized pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section. Provided, however, that in any proceeding to review an electric utility's rates for tariffed services pursuant to Section 9-201, 9-202, 9-250 or 16-111(d) of this Act, the Commission may establish new rates of depreciation for the electric utility in the same manner provided in subsection (d) of Section 5-104 of this Act. An electric utility implementing an accelerated cost recovery method including accelerated depreciation, accelerated amortization or other capital recovery methods, or recording reductions to the original cost of its assets, pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section, shall file a statement with the Commission describing the accelerated cost recovery method to be implemented or the reduction in the original cost of its assets to be recorded. Upon the filing of such statement, the accelerated cost recovery method or the reduction in the original cost of assets shall be deemed to be approved by the Commission as though an order had been entered by the Commission.

(i) Subsequent to the mandatory transition period, the Commission, in any proceeding to establish rates and charges for tariffed services offered by an electric utility, shall consider only (1) the then current or projected revenues, costs, investments and cost of capital directly or indirectly associated with the provision of such tariffed services; (2) collection of transition charges in accordance with Sections 16-102 and 16-108 of this Act; (3) recovery of any employee transition costs as described in Section 16-128 which the electric utility is continuing to incur, including recovery of any unamortized portion of such costs previously incurred or committed, with such costs to be equitably allocated among bundled services, delivery services, and contracts with alternative retail electric suppliers; and (4) recovery of the costs associated with the electric utility's compliance with decommissioning funding requirements; and shall not consider any other revenues, costs, investments or cost of capital of either the electric utility or of any affiliate of the electric utility that are not associated with the provision of tariffed services. In setting rates for tariffed services, the Commission shall equitably allocate joint and common costs and investments between the electric utility's competitive and tariffed services. In determining the justness and reasonableness of the electric power and energy component of an electric utility's rates for tariffed services subsequent to the mandatory transition period and prior to the time that the provision of such electric power and energy is declared competitive, the Commission shall consider the extent to which the electric utility's tariffed rates for such component for each customer class exceed the market value determined pursuant to Section 16-112, and, if the electric power and energy component of such tariffed rate exceeds the market value by more than 10% for any customer class, may establish such electric power and energy component at a rate equal to the market value plus 10%. In any such case, the Commission may also elect to extend the provisions of Section 16-111(e) for any period in which the electric utility is collecting transition charges, using information applicable to such period.

(j) During the mandatory transition period, an electric utility may elect to transfer to a non-operating income account under the Commission's Uniform System of Accounts either or both of (i) an amount of unamortized investment tax credit that is in addition to the ratable amount which is credited to the electric utility's operating income account for the year in accordance with Section 46(f)(2) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as in effect prior to P.L. 101-508, or (ii) "excess tax reserves", as that term is defined in Section 203(e)(2)(A) of the federal Tax Reform Act of 1986, provided that (A) the amount transferred may not exceed the amount of the electric utility's assets that were created pursuant to Statement of Financial Accounting Standards No. 71 which the electric utility has written off during the mandatory transition period, and (B) the transfer shall not be effective until approved by the Internal Revenue Service. An electric utility electing to make such a transfer shall file a statement with the Commission stating the amount and timing of the transfer for which it intends to request approval of the Internal Revenue Service, along with a copy of its proposed request to the Internal Revenue Service for a ruling. The Commission shall issue an order within 14 days after the electric utility's filing approving, subject to receipt of approval from the Internal Revenue Service, the proposed transfer.

(k) If an electric utility is selling or transferring to a single buyer 5 or more generating plants located in this State with a total net dependable capacity of 5000 megawatts or more pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section and has obtained a sale price or consideration that exceeds 200% of the book value of such plants, the electric utility must provide to the Governor, the President of the Illinois Senate, the Minority Leader of the Illinois Senate, the Speaker of the Illinois House of Representatives, and the Minority Leader of the Illinois House of Representatives no later than 15 days after filing its notice under subsection (g) of this Section or 5 days after the date on which this subsection (k) becomes law, whichever is later, a written commitment in which such electric utility agrees to expend $2 billion outside the corporate limits of any municipality with 1,000,000 or more inhabitants within such electric utility's service area, over a 6-year period beginning with the calendar year in which the notice is filed, on projects, programs, and improvements within its service area relating to transmission and distribution including, without limitation, infrastructure expansion, repair and replacement, capital investments, operations and maintenance, and vegetation management.

(Source: P.A. 91-50, eff. 6-30-99; 92-537, eff. 6-6-02; 92-690, eff. 7-18-02; revised 9-10-02)

Section 365. The Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act is amended by changing Section 10-30 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/10-30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2008)

Sec. 10-30. Qualifications for licensure.

(a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements of this Section shall be entitled to licensure as a Registered Nurse or Licensed Practical Nurse, whichever is applicable.

(b) An applicant for licensure by examination to practice as a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse shall:

(1) submit a completed written application, on forms provided by the Department and fees as established by the Department;

(2) for registered nurse licensure, have graduated from a professional nursing education program approved by the Department;

(2.5) for licensed practical nurse licensure, have graduated graduate from a practical nursing education program approved by the Department;

(3) have not violated the provisions of Section 10-45 of this Act. The Department may take into consideration any felony conviction of the applicant, but such a conviction shall not operate as an absolute bar to licensure;

(4) meet all other requirements as established by rule;

(5) pay, either to the Department or its designated testing service, a fee covering the cost of providing the examination. Failure to appear for the examination on the scheduled date at the time and place specified after the applicant's application for examination has been received and acknowledged by the Department or the designated testing service shall result in the forfeiture of the examination fee.

If an applicant neglects, fails, or refuses to take an examination or fails to pass an examination for a license under this Act within 3 years after filing the application, the application shall be denied. However, the applicant may make a new application accompanied by the required fee and provide evidence of meeting the requirements in force at the time of the new application.

An applicant may take and successfully complete a Department-approved examination in another jurisdiction. However, an applicant who has never been licensed previously in any jurisdiction that utilizes a Department-approved examination and who has taken and failed to pass the examination within 3 years after filing the application must submit proof of successful completion of a Department-authorized nursing education program or recompletion of an approved registered nursing program or licensed practical nursing program, as appropriate, prior to re-application.

An applicant shall have one year from the date of notification of successful completion of the examination to apply to the Department for a license. If an applicant fails to apply within one year, the applicant shall be required to again take and pass the examination unless licensed in another jurisdiction of the United States within one year of passing the examination.

(c) An applicant for licensure by endorsement who is a registered professional nurse or a licensed practical nurse licensed by examination under the laws of another state or territory of the United States or a foreign country, jurisdiction, territory, or province shall:

(1) submit a completed written application, on forms supplied by the Department, and fees as established by the Department;

(2) for registered nurse licensure, have graduated from a professional nursing education program approved by the Department;

(2.5) for licensed practical nurse licensure, have graduated from a practical nursing education program approved by the Department;

(3) submit verification of licensure status directly from the United States jurisdiction of licensure, if applicable, as defined by rule;

(4) have passed the examination authorized by the Department;

(5) meet all other requirements as established by rule.

(d) All applicants for registered nurse licensure pursuant to item (2) of subsection (b) and item (2) of subsection (c) of this Section who are graduates of nursing educational programs in a country other than the United States or its territories must submit to the Department certification of successful completion of the Commission of Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools (CGFNS) examination. An applicant who is unable to provide appropriate documentation to satisfy CGFNS of her or his educational qualifications for the CGFNS examination shall be required to pass an examination to test competency in the English language, which shall be prescribed by the Department, if the applicant is determined by the Board to be educationally prepared in nursing. The Board shall make appropriate inquiry into the reasons for any adverse determination by CGFNS before making its own decision.

An applicant licensed in another state or territory who is applying for licensure and has received her or his education in a country other than the United States or its territories shall be exempt from the completion of the Commission of Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools (CGFNS) examination if the applicant meets all of the following requirements:

(1) successful passage of the licensure examination authorized by the Department;

(2) holds an active, unencumbered license in another state; and

(3) has been actively practicing for a minimum of 2 years in another state.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Pending the issuance of a license under subsection (c) of this Section, the Department may grant an applicant a temporary license to practice nursing as a registered nurse or as a licensed practical nurse if the Department is satisfied that the applicant holds an active, unencumbered license in good standing in another jurisdiction. If the applicant holds more than one current active license, or one or more active temporary licenses from other jurisdictions, the Department shall not issue a temporary license until it is satisfied that each current active license held by the applicant is unencumbered. The temporary license, which shall be issued no later than 14 working days following receipt by the Department of an application for the temporary license, shall be granted upon the submission of the following to the Department:

(1) a signed and completed application for licensure under subsection (a) of this Section as a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse;

(2) proof of a current, active license in at least one other jurisdiction and proof that each current active license or temporary license held by the applicant within the last 5 years is unencumbered;

(3) a signed and completed application for a temporary license; and

(4) the required temporary license fee.

(g) The Department may refuse to issue an applicant a temporary license authorized pursuant to this Section if, within 14 working days following its receipt of an application for a temporary license, the Department determines that:

(1) the applicant has been convicted of a crime under the laws of a jurisdiction of the United States: (i) which is a felony; or (ii) which is a misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the profession, within the last 5 years;

(2) within the last 5 years the applicant has had a license or permit related to the practice of nursing revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or placing on probation is the same or substantially equivalent to grounds in Illinois; or

(3) it intends to deny licensure by endorsement.

For purposes of this Section, an "unencumbered license" means a license against which no disciplinary action has been taken or is pending and for which all fees and charges are paid and current.

(h) The Department may revoke a temporary license issued pursuant to this Section if:

(1) it determines that the applicant has been convicted of a crime under the law of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the profession, within the last 5 years;

(2) it determines that within the last 5 years the applicant has had a license or permit related to the practice of nursing revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or placing on probation is the same or substantially equivalent to grounds in Illinois; or

(3) it determines that it intends to deny licensure by endorsement.

A temporary license shall expire 6 months from the date of issuance. Further renewal may be granted by the Department in hardship cases, as defined by rule and upon approval of the Director. However, a temporary license shall automatically expire upon issuance of the Illinois license or upon notification that the Department intends to deny licensure, whichever occurs first.

(i) Applicants have 3 years from the date of application to complete the application process. If the process has not been completed within 3 years from the date of application, the application shall be denied, the fee forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and meet the requirements in effect at the time of reapplication.

(Source: P.A. 92-39, eff. 6-29-01; 92-744, eff. 7-25-02; revised 2-17-03.)

Section 370. The Pyrotechnic Operator Licensing Act is amended by renumbering Section 99 as follows:

(225 ILCS 227/999)

Sec. 999 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.

(Source: P.A. 93-263, eff. 7-22-03; revised 9-19-03.)

Section 375. The Elevator Safety and Regulation Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 312/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2013)

Sec. 15. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act:

"Administrator" means the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

"ANSI A10.4" means the safety requirements for personnel hoists, an American National Standard.

"ASCE 21" means the American Society of Civil Engineers Automated People Mover Standards.

"ASME A17.1" means the Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators, an American National Standard.

"ASME A17.3" means the Safety Code for Existing Elevators and Escalators, an American National Standard.

"ASME A18.1" means the Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chairlifts, an American National Standard.

"Automated people mover" means an installation as defined as an "automated people mover" in ASCE 21.

"Board" means the Elevator Safety Review Board.

"Certificate of operation" means a certificate issued by the Administrator that indicates that the conveyance has passed the required safety inspection and tests and fees have been paid as set forth in this Act. The Administrator may issue a temporary certificate of operation that permits the temporary use of a non-compliant conveyance by the general public for a limited time of 30 days while minor repairs are being completed.

"Conveyance" means any elevator, dumbwaiter, escalator, moving sidewalk, platform lifts, stairway chairlifts and automated people movers.

"Elevator" means an installation defined as an "elevator" in ASME A17.1.

"Elevator contractor" means any person, firm, or corporation who possesses an elevator contractor's license in accordance with the provisions of Sections 40 and 55 of this Act and who is engaged in the business of erecting, constructing, installing, altering, servicing, repairing, or maintaining elevators or related conveyance covered by this Act.

"Elevator contractor's license" means a license issued to an elevator contractor who has proven his or her qualifications and ability and has been authorized by the Elevator Safety Review Board to possess this type of license. It shall entitle the holder thereof to engage in the business of erecting, constructing, installing, altering, servicing, testing, repairing, or maintaining elevators or related conveyance covered by this Act. The Administrator may issue a limited elevator contractor's license authorizing a firm or company that employs individuals to carry on a business of erecting, constructing, installing, altering, servicing, repairing, or maintaining platform lifts and stairway chairlifts within any building or structure, including but not limited to private residences.

"Elevator inspector" means any person who possesses an elevator inspector's license in accordance with the provisions of this Act or any person who performs the duties and functions of an elevator inspector for any unit of local government with a population greater than 500,000 prior to or on the effective date of this Act.

"Elevator mechanic" means any person who possesses an elevator mechanic's license in accordance with the provisions of Sections 40 and 45 of this Act and who is engaged in erecting, constructing, installing, altering, servicing, repairing, or maintaining elevators or related conveyance covered by this Act.

"Elevator mechanic's license" means a license issued to a person who has proven his or her qualifications and ability and has been authorized by the Elevator Safety Review Board to work on conveyance equipment. It shall entitle the holder thereof to install, construct, alter, service, repair, test, maintain, and perform electrical work on elevators or related conveyance covered by this Act.

"Escalator" means an installation defined as an "escalator" in ASME A17.1.

"Existing installation" means an installation defined as an "installation, existing" in ASME A17.1.

"Inspector's license" means a license issued to a person who has proven his or her qualifications and ability and has been authorized by the Elevator Safety Review Board to possess this type of license. It shall entitle the holder thereof to engage in the business of inspecting elevators or related conveyance covered by this Act.

"License" means a written license, duly issued by the Administrator, authorizing a person, firm, or company to carry on the business of erecting, constructing, installing, altering, servicing, repairing, maintaining, or performing inspections of elevators or related conveyance covered by this Act.

"Material alteration" means an "alteration" as defined by the Board.

"Moving walk" means an installation as defined as a "moving walk" in ASME A17.1.

"Private residence" means a separate dwelling or a separate apartment in a multiple dwelling that is occupied by members of a single-family unit.

"Repair" has the meaning defined by the Board, which does not require a permit.

"Temporarily dormant" means an elevator, dumbwaiter, or escalator:

(1) with a power supply that has been disconnected by removing fuses and placing a padlock on the mainline disconnect switch in the "off" position;

(2) with a car that is parked and hoistway doors that are in the closed and latched position;

(3) with a wire seal on the mainline disconnect switch installed by a licensed elevator inspector;

(4) that shall not be used again until it has been put in safe running order and is in condition for use;

(5) requiring annual inspections for the duration of the temporarily dormant status by a licensed elevator inspector;

(6) that has a "temporarily dormant" status that is renewable on an annual basis, not to exceed a one-year period;

(7) requiring the inspector to file a report with the chief elevator inspector describing the current conditions; and

(8) with a wire seal and padlock that shall not be removed for any purpose without permission from the elevator inspector.

(Source: P.A. 92-873, eff. 6-1-03; revised 1-20-03.)

(225 ILCS 312/25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2013)

Sec. 25. Elevator Safety Review Board.

(a) There is hereby created within the Office of the State Fire Marshal the Elevator Safety Review Board, consisting of 13 members. The Administrator shall appoint 3 members who shall be representatives of of a fire service communities. The Governor shall appoint the remaining 10 members of the Board as follows: one representative from a major elevator manufacturing company or its authorized representative; one representative from an elevator servicing company; one representative of the architectural design profession; one representative of the general public; one representative of a municipality in this State with a population over 500,000; one representative of a municipality in this State with a population under 25,000; one representative of a municipality in this State with a population of 25,000 or over but under 50,000; one representative of a municipality in this State with a population of 50,000 or over but under 500,000; one representative of a building owner or manager; and one representative of labor involved in the installation, maintenance, and repair of elevators.

(b) The members constituting the Board shall be appointed for initial terms as follows:

(1) Of the members appointed by the Administrator, 2 shall serve for a term of 2 years, and one for a term of 4 years.

(2) Of the members appointed by the Governor, 2 shall serve for a term of one year, 2 for terms of 2 years, 2 for terms of 3 years, and 4 for terms of 4 years.

At the expiration of their initial terms of office, the members or their successors shall be appointed for terms of 4 years each. Upon the expiration of a member's term of office, the officer who appointed that member shall reappoint that member or appoint a successor who is a representative of the same interests with which his or her predecessor was identified. The Administrator and the Governor may at any time remove any of their respective appointees for inefficiency or neglect of duty in office. Upon the death or incapacity of a member, the officer who appointed that member shall fill the vacancy for the remainder of the vacated term by appointing a member who is a representative of the same interests with which his or her predecessor was identified. The members shall serve without salary, but shall receive from the State expenses necessarily incurred by them in performance of their duties. The Governor shall appoint one of the members to serve as chairperson. The chairperson shall be the deciding vote in the event of a tie vote.

(Source: P.A. 92-873, eff. 6-1-03; revised 1-20-03.)

Section 380. The Illinois Petroleum Education and Marketing Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 728/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2008)

Sec. 10. Illinois Petroleum Resources Board.

(a) There is hereby created until January 1, 2008, the Illinois Petroleum Resources Board which shall be subject to the provisions of the Regulatory Sunset Act. The purpose of the Board is to coordinate a program designed to demonstrate to the general public the importance of the Illinois oil exploration and production industry, to encourage the wise and efficient use of energy, to promote environmentally sound production methods and technologies, to develop existing supplies of State oil resources, and to support research and educational activities concerning the oil exploration and production industry.

(b) The Board shall be composed of 12 members to be appointed by the Governor. The Governor shall make appointments from a list of names submitted by qualified producer associations, of which 10 shall be oil and gas producers.

(c) A member of the Board shall:

(1) be at least 25 years of age;

(2) be a resident of the State of Illinois; and

(3) have at least 5 years of active experience in the oil industry.

(d) Members shall serve for a term of 3 years, except that of the initial appointments, 4 members shall serve for one year, 4 members for 2 years, and 4 members for 3 years.

(e) Vacancies shall be filled for the unexpired term of office in the same manner as the original appointment.

(f) The Board shall, at its first meeting, elect one of its members as chairperson, who shall preside over meetings of the Board and perform other duties that may be required by the Board. The first meeting of the Board shall be called by the Governor.

(g) No member of the Board shall receive a salary or reimbursement for duties performed as a member of the Board, except that members are eligible to receive reimbursement for travel expenses incurred in the performance of Board duties.

(Source: P.A. 92-610, eff. 7-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 8-12-02.)

Section 385. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Sections 6-11, 6-15, and 6-16.2 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/6-11) (from Ch. 43, par. 127)

Sec. 6-11. Sale near churches, schools, and hospitals.

(a) No license shall be issued for the sale at retail of any alcoholic liquor within 100 feet of any church, school other than an institution of higher learning, hospital, home for aged or indigent persons or for veterans, their spouses or children or any military or naval station, provided, that this prohibition shall not apply to hotels offering restaurant service, regularly organized clubs, or to restaurants, food shops or other places where sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on if the place of business so exempted is not located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, unless required by local ordinance; nor to the renewal of a license for the sale at retail of alcoholic liquor on premises within 100 feet of any church or school where the church or school has been established within such 100 feet since the issuance of the original license. In the case of a church, the distance of 100 feet shall be measured to the nearest part of any building used for worship services or educational programs and not to property boundaries.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor to a restaurant, the primary business of which is the sale of goods baked on the premises if (i) the restaurant is newly constructed and located on a lot of not less than 10,000 square feet, (ii) the restaurant costs at least $1,000,000 to construct, (iii) the licensee is the titleholder to the premises and resides on the premises, and (iv) the construction of the restaurant is completed within 18 months of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to a restaurant if (1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food and the applicant is a completely new owner of the restaurant, (2) the immediately prior owner or operator of the premises where the restaurant is located operated the premises as a restaurant and held a valid retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at the restaurant for at least part of the 24 months before the change of ownership, and (3) the restaurant is located 75 or more feet from a school.

(d) In the interest of further developing Illinois' economy in the area of commerce, tourism, convention, and banquet business, nothing in this Section shall prohibit issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic beverages to a restaurant, banquet facility, grocery store, or hotel having not fewer than 150 guest room accommodations located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, notwithstanding the proximity of such hotel, restaurant, banquet facility, or grocery store to any church or school, if the licensed premises described on the license are located within an enclosed mall or building of a height of at least 6 stories, or 60 feet in the case of a building that has been registered as a national landmark, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 56,010 square feet of floor space in a single story building in an open mall of at least 3.96 acres that is adjacent to a public school that opened as a boys technical high school in 1934, and in each of these cases if the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on by the licensee.

For purposes of this Section, a "banquet facility" is any part of a building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a license to a church or private school to sell at retail alcoholic liquor if any such sales are limited to periods when groups are assembled on the premises solely for the promotion of some common object other than the sale or consumption of alcoholic liquors.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a church or church affiliated school located in a home rule municipality or in a municipality with 75,000 or more inhabitants from locating within 100 feet of a property for which there is a preexisting license to sell alcoholic liquor at retail. In these instances, the local zoning authority may, by ordinance adopted simultaneously with the granting of an initial special use zoning permit for the church or church affiliated school, provide that the 100-foot restriction in this Section shall not apply to that church or church affiliated school and future retail liquor licenses.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises within 100 feet, but not less than 90 feet, of a public school if (1) the premises have been continuously licensed to sell alcoholic liquor for a period of at least 50 years, (2) the premises are located in a municipality having a population of over 500,000 inhabitants, (3) the licensee is an individual who is a member of a family that has held the previous 3 licenses for that location for more than 25 years, (4) the principal of the school and the alderman of the ward in which the school is located have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that they do not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (g), and (5) the local liquor control commissioner has received the written consent of a majority of the registered voters who live within 200 feet of the premises.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 91-623, eff. 1-1-00; 92-720, eff. 7-25-02; 92-813, eff. 8-21-02; revised 9-18-02.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-15) (from Ch. 43, par. 130)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 93-627)

Sec. 6-15. No alcoholic liquors shall be sold or delivered in any building belonging to or under the control of the State or any political subdivision thereof except as provided in this Act. The corporate authorities of any city, village, incorporated town or township may provide by ordinance, however, that alcoholic liquor may be sold or delivered in any specifically designated building belonging to or under the control of the municipality or township, or in any building located on land under the control of the municipality; provided that such township complies with all applicable local ordinances in any incorporated area of the township. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at any airport belonging to or under the control of a municipality of more than 25,000 inhabitants, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a park district organized under the Park District Code, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or on the grounds within 500 feet of any building owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act during times when food is dispensed for consumption within 500 feet of the building from which the food is dispensed, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in a building owned by a Local Mass Transit District organized under the Local Mass Transit District Act, subject to the approval of the governing Board of the District, or in Bicentennial Park, or on the premises of the City of Mendota Lake Park located adjacent to Route 51 in Mendota, Illinois, or on the premises of Camden Park in Milan, Illinois, or in the community center owned by the City of Loves Park that is located at 1000 River Park Drive in Loves Park, Illinois, or, in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption on the premises, and at the following aquarium and museums located in public parks: Art Institute of Chicago, Chicago Academy of Sciences, Chicago Historical Society, Field Museum of Natural History, Museum of Science and Industry, DuSable Museum of African American History, John G. Shedd Aquarium and Adler Planetarium, or at Lakeview Museum of Arts and Sciences in Peoria, or in connection with the operation of the facilities of the Chicago Zoological Society or the Chicago Horticultural Society on land owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, subject to the control of the Forest Preserve District Board of Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage, and harm, or in any building located on land owned by the Chicago Park District if approved by the Park District Commissioners, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes and owned by the Illinois International Port District if approved by the District's governing board, or at any airport, golf course, faculty center, or facility in which conference and convention type activities take place belonging to or under control of any State university or public community college district, provided that with respect to a facility for conference and convention type activities alcoholic liquors shall be limited to the use of the convention or conference participants or participants in cultural, political or educational activities held in such facilities, and provided further that the faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district, or members of an organization of students, alumni, faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district are active participants in the conference or convention, or in Memorial Stadium on the campus of the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign during games in which the Chicago Bears professional football team is playing in that stadium during the renovation of Soldier Field, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or by a catering establishment which has rented facilities from a board of trustees of a public community college district, or, if approved by the District board, on land owned by the Metropolitan Sanitary District of Greater Chicago and leased to others for a term of at least 20 years. Nothing in this Section precludes the sale or delivery of alcoholic liquor in the form of original packaged goods in premises located at 500 S. Racine in Chicago belonging to the University of Illinois and used primarily as a grocery store by a commercial tenant during the term of a lease that predates the University's acquisition of the premises; but the University shall have no power or authority to renew, transfer, or extend the lease with terms allowing the sale of alcoholic liquor; and the sale of alcoholic liquor shall be subject to all local laws and regulations. After the acquisition by Winnebago County of the property located at 404 Elm Street in Rockford, a commercial tenant who sold alcoholic liquor at retail on a portion of the property under a valid license at the time of the acquisition may continue to do so for so long as the tenant and the County may agree under existing or future leases, subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Each facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the State, municipality, State university, airport, golf course, faculty center, facility in which conference and convention type activities take place, park district, Forest Preserve District, public community college district, aquarium, museum, or sanitary district from all financial loss, damage or harm. Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings of golf courses owned by municipalities in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption upon the premises. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a fire protection district organized under the Fire Protection District Act, provided that such delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of the district, and provided further that such delivery and sale is limited to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year.

Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Dorchester Senior Business Center owned by the Village of Dolton if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons, and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Village of Dolton and the State from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building used as an Illinois State Armory provided:

(i) the Adjutant General's written consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such building is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons; and

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to save harmless the facility and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Chicago Civic Center, provided that:

(i) the written consent of the Public Building Commission which administers the Chicago Civic Center is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons;

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Civic Center, the City of Chicago and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm; and

(v) all applicable local ordinances are complied with.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered or sold in any building belonging to or under the control of any city, village or incorporated town where more than 75% of the physical properties of the building is used for commercial or recreational purposes, and the building is located upon a pier extending into or over the waters of a navigable lake or stream or on the shore of a navigable lake or stream. Alcoholic liquor may be sold in buildings under the control of the Department of Natural Resources when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department of Natural Resources. Alcoholic liquor may be served or delivered in buildings and facilities under the control of the Department of Natural Resources upon the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources acting as the controlling government authority. The Director of Natural Resources may specify conditions on that approval, including but not limited to requirements for insurance and hours of operation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by a United States Army Corps of Engineers or Department of Natural Resources concessionaire who was operating on June 1, 1991 for on-premises consumption only is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX. Beer and wine may be sold on the premises of the Joliet Park District Stadium owned by the Joliet Park District when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such premises is filed with the local liquor commissioner by the Joliet Park District. Beer and wine may be sold in buildings on the grounds of State veterans' homes when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, and the facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save the facility harmless from all financial loss, damage or harm. Such liquors may be delivered to and sold at any property owned or held under lease by a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority or Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority.

Beer and wine may be sold and dispensed at professional sporting events and at professional concerts and other entertainment events conducted on premises owned by the Forest Preserve District of Kane County, subject to the control of the District Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Nothing in this Section shall preclude the sale or delivery of beer and wine at a State or county fair or the sale or delivery of beer or wine at a city fair in any otherwise lawful manner.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in State parks under the control of the Department of Natural Resources, provided:

a. the State park has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Department of Natural Resources, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the State park lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by the State park or restaurant concessionaire is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings on properties under the control of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum provided:

a. the property has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.

The sale of alcoholic liquors pursuant to this Section does not authorize the establishment and operation of facilities commonly called taverns, saloons, bars, cocktail lounges, and the like except as a part of lodge and restaurant facilities in State parks or golf courses owned by Forest Preserve Districts with a population of less than 3,000,000 or municipalities or park districts.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in the Springfield Administration Building of the Department of Transportation and the Illinois State Armory in Springfield; provided, that the controlling government authority may consent to such sales only if

a. the request is from a not-for-profit organization;

b. such sales would not impede normal operations of the departments involved;

c. the not-for-profit organization provides dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits and agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm;

d. no such sale shall be made during normal working hours of the State of Illinois; and

e. the consent is in writing.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in recreational areas of river conservancy districts under the control of, or leased from, the river conservancy districts. Such sales are subject to reasonable local regulations as provided in Article IV; however, no such regulations may prohibit or substantially impair the sale of alcoholic liquors on Sundays or Holidays.

Alcoholic liquors may be provided in long term care facilities owned or operated by a county under Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, when approved by the facility operator and not in conflict with the regulations of the Illinois Department of Public Health, to residents of the facility who have had their consumption of the alcoholic liquors provided approved in writing by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and dispensed in State housing assigned to employees of the Department of Corrections. No person shall furnish or allow to be furnished any alcoholic liquors to any prisoner confined in any jail, reformatory, prison or house of correction except upon a physician's prescription for medicinal purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Willard Ice Building in Springfield, at the State Library in Springfield, and at Illinois State Museum facilities by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at authorized functions.

The controlling government authority for the Willard Ice Building in Springfield shall be the Director of the Department of Revenue. The controlling government authority for Illinois State Museum facilities shall be the Director of the Illinois State Museum. The controlling government authority for the State Library in Springfield shall be the Secretary of State.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed at any facility, property or building under the jurisdiction of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum where the delivery, sale or dispensing is by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from a controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal workings of State offices or operations located at the facility, property or building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity of the not-for-profit organization in the facility, property or building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

The controlling government authority for the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency shall be the Director of the Historic Sites and Preservation, and the controlling government authority for the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum shall be the Director of the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, subject to the provisions of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, and 222 South College Street in Springfield, Illinois by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease or sublease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered at any facility owned by the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority provided that dram shop liability insurance has been made available in a form, with such coverage and in such amounts as the Authority reasonably determines is necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Rockford State Office Building by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Department of Central Management Services, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Department of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county in the City of Bloomington, and used by the McLean County Historical Society if the sale or delivery is approved by an ordinance adopted by the county board, and the municipality in which the building is located may not prohibit that sale or delivery, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section. The regulation of the sale and delivery of alcoholic liquor in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county, and used by the McLean County Historical Society as provided in this paragraph is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of the power of a home rule municipality to regulate that sale and delivery.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in any building situated on land held in trust for any school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, if the building is not used for school purposes and if the sale or delivery is approved by the board of education.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in buildings owned by the Community Building Complex Committee of Boone County, Illinois if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance with coverage and in amounts that the Committee reasonably determines are necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in the building located at 1200 Centerville Avenue in Belleville, Illinois and occupied by either the Belleville Area Special Education District or the Belleville Area Special Services Cooperative.

(Source: P.A. 92-512, eff. 1-1-02; 92-583, eff. 6-26-02; 92-600, eff. 7-1-02; 93-19, eff. 6-20-03; 93-103, eff. 1-1-04; revised 8-1-03.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 93-627)

Sec. 6-15. No alcoholic liquors shall be sold or delivered in any building belonging to or under the control of the State or any political subdivision thereof except as provided in this Act. The corporate authorities of any city, village, incorporated town or township may provide by ordinance, however, that alcoholic liquor may be sold or delivered in any specifically designated building belonging to or under the control of the municipality or township, or in any building located on land under the control of the municipality; provided that such township complies with all applicable local ordinances in any incorporated area of the township. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at any airport belonging to or under the control of a municipality of more than 25,000 inhabitants, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a park district organized under the Park District Code, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or on the grounds within 500 feet of any building owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act during times when food is dispensed for consumption within 500 feet of the building from which the food is dispensed, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in a building owned by a Local Mass Transit District organized under the Local Mass Transit District Act, subject to the approval of the governing Board of the District, or in Bicentennial Park, or on the premises of the City of Mendota Lake Park located adjacent to Route 51 in Mendota, Illinois, or on the premises of Camden Park in Milan, Illinois, or in the community center owned by the City of Loves Park that is located at 1000 River Park Drive in Loves Park, Illinois, or, in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption on the premises, and at the following aquarium and museums located in public parks: Art Institute of Chicago, Chicago Academy of Sciences, Chicago Historical Society, Field Museum of Natural History, Museum of Science and Industry, DuSable Museum of African American History, John G. Shedd Aquarium and Adler Planetarium, or at Lakeview Museum of Arts and Sciences in Peoria, or in connection with the operation of the facilities of the Chicago Zoological Society or the Chicago Horticultural Society on land owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, subject to the control of the Forest Preserve District Board of Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage, and harm, or in any building located on land owned by the Chicago Park District if approved by the Park District Commissioners, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes and owned by the Illinois International Port District if approved by the District's governing board, or at any airport, golf course, faculty center, or facility in which conference and convention type activities take place belonging to or under control of any State university or public community college district, provided that with respect to a facility for conference and convention type activities alcoholic liquors shall be limited to the use of the convention or conference participants or participants in cultural, political or educational activities held in such facilities, and provided further that the faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district, or members of an organization of students, alumni, faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district are active participants in the conference or convention, or in Memorial Stadium on the campus of the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign during games in which the Chicago Bears professional football team is playing in that stadium during the renovation of Soldier Field, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or by a catering establishment which has rented facilities from a board of trustees of a public community college district, or, if approved by the District board, on land owned by the Metropolitan Sanitary District of Greater Chicago and leased to others for a term of at least 20 years. Nothing in this Section precludes the sale or delivery of alcoholic liquor in the form of original packaged goods in premises located at 500 S. Racine in Chicago belonging to the University of Illinois and used primarily as a grocery store by a commercial tenant during the term of a lease that predates the University's acquisition of the premises; but the University shall have no power or authority to renew, transfer, or extend the lease with terms allowing the sale of alcoholic liquor; and the sale of alcoholic liquor shall be subject to all local laws and regulations. After the acquisition by Winnebago County of the property located at 404 Elm Street in Rockford, a commercial tenant who sold alcoholic liquor at retail on a portion of the property under a valid license at the time of the acquisition may continue to do so for so long as the tenant and the County may agree under existing or future leases, subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Each facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the State, municipality, State university, airport, golf course, faculty center, facility in which conference and convention type activities take place, park district, Forest Preserve District, public community college district, aquarium, museum, or sanitary district from all financial loss, damage or harm. Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings of golf courses owned by municipalities in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption upon the premises. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a fire protection district organized under the Fire Protection District Act, provided that such delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of the district, and provided further that such delivery and sale is limited to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year.

Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Dorchester Senior Business Center owned by the Village of Dolton if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons, and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Village of Dolton and the State from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building used as an Illinois State Armory provided:

(i) the Adjutant General's written consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such building is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons; and

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to save harmless the facility and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Chicago Civic Center, provided that:

(i) the written consent of the Public Building Commission which administers the Chicago Civic Center is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons;

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Civic Center, the City of Chicago and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm; and

(v) all applicable local ordinances are complied with.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered or sold in any building belonging to or under the control of any city, village or incorporated town where more than 75% of the physical properties of the building is used for commercial or recreational purposes, and the building is located upon a pier extending into or over the waters of a navigable lake or stream or on the shore of a navigable lake or stream. Alcoholic liquor may be sold in buildings under the control of the Department of Natural Resources when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department of Natural Resources. Alcoholic liquor may be served or delivered in buildings and facilities under the control of the Department of Natural Resources upon the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources acting as the controlling government authority. The Director of Natural Resources may specify conditions on that approval, including but not limited to requirements for insurance and hours of operation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by a United States Army Corps of Engineers or Department of Natural Resources concessionaire who was operating on June 1, 1991 for on-premises consumption only is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX. Beer and wine may be sold on the premises of the Joliet Park District Stadium owned by the Joliet Park District when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such premises is filed with the local liquor commissioner by the Joliet Park District. Beer and wine may be sold in buildings on the grounds of State veterans' homes when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, and the facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save the facility harmless from all financial loss, damage or harm. Such liquors may be delivered to and sold at any property owned or held under lease by a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority or Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority.

Beer and wine may be sold and dispensed at professional sporting events and at professional concerts and other entertainment events conducted on premises owned by the Forest Preserve District of Kane County, subject to the control of the District Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Nothing in this Section shall preclude the sale or delivery of beer and wine at a State or county fair or the sale or delivery of beer or wine at a city fair in any otherwise lawful manner.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in State parks under the control of the Department of Natural Resources, provided:

a. the State park has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Department of Natural Resources, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the State park lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by the State park or restaurant concessionaire is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings on properties under the control of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum provided:

a. the property has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.

The sale of alcoholic liquors pursuant to this Section does not authorize the establishment and operation of facilities commonly called taverns, saloons, bars, cocktail lounges, and the like except as a part of lodge and restaurant facilities in State parks or golf courses owned by Forest Preserve Districts with a population of less than 3,000,000 or municipalities or park districts.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in the Springfield Administration Building of the Department of Transportation and the Illinois State Armory in Springfield; provided, that the controlling government authority may consent to such sales only if

a. the request is from a not-for-profit organization;

b. such sales would not impede normal operations of the departments involved;

c. the not-for-profit organization provides dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits and agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm;

d. no such sale shall be made during normal working hours of the State of Illinois; and

e. the consent is in writing.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in recreational areas of river conservancy districts under the control of, or leased from, the river conservancy districts. Such sales are subject to reasonable local regulations as provided in Article IV; however, no such regulations may prohibit or substantially impair the sale of alcoholic liquors on Sundays or Holidays.

Alcoholic liquors may be provided in long term care facilities owned or operated by a county under Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, when approved by the facility operator and not in conflict with the regulations of the Illinois Department of Public Health, to residents of the facility who have had their consumption of the alcoholic liquors provided approved in writing by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and dispensed in State housing assigned to employees of the Department of Corrections. No person shall furnish or allow to be furnished any alcoholic liquors to any prisoner confined in any jail, reformatory, prison or house of correction except upon a physician's prescription for medicinal purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Willard Ice Building in Springfield, at the State Library in Springfield, and at Illinois State Museum facilities by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at authorized functions.

The controlling government authority for the Willard Ice Building in Springfield shall be the Director of the Department of Revenue. The controlling government authority for Illinois State Museum facilities shall be the Director of the Illinois State Museum. The controlling government authority for the State Library in Springfield shall be the Secretary of State.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed at any facility, property or building under the jurisdiction of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum where the delivery, sale or dispensing is by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from a controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal workings of State offices or operations located at the facility, property or building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity of the not-for-profit organization in the facility, property or building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

The controlling government authority for the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency shall be the Director of the Historic Sites and Preservation, and the controlling government authority for the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum shall be the Director of the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed for consumption at the Michael Bilandic Building at 160 North LaSalle Street, Chicago IL 60601, after the normal business hours of any day care or child care facility located in the building, by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who accepts delivery of, sells, or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify, and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the delivery, sale, or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial, or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to accept delivery of and sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building; and

d. provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless, and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, subject to the provisions of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, and 222 South College Street in Springfield, Illinois by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease or sublease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered at any facility owned by the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority provided that dram shop liability insurance has been made available in a form, with such coverage and in such amounts as the Authority reasonably determines is necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Rockford State Office Building by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Department of Central Management Services, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Department of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county in the City of Bloomington, and used by the McLean County Historical Society if the sale or delivery is approved by an ordinance adopted by the county board, and the municipality in which the building is located may not prohibit that sale or delivery, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section. The regulation of the sale and delivery of alcoholic liquor in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county, and used by the McLean County Historical Society as provided in this paragraph is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of the power of a home rule municipality to regulate that sale and delivery.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in any building situated on land held in trust for any school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, if the building is not used for school purposes and if the sale or delivery is approved by the board of education.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in buildings owned by the Community Building Complex Committee of Boone County, Illinois if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance with coverage and in amounts that the Committee reasonably determines are necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in the building located at 1200 Centerville Avenue in Belleville, Illinois and occupied by either the Belleville Area Special Education District or the Belleville Area Special Services Cooperative.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Louis Joliet Renaissance Center, City Center Campus, located at 214 N. Ottawa Street, Joliet, and the Food Services/Culinary Arts Department facilities, Main Campus, located at 1215 Houbolt Road, Joliet, owned by or under the control of Joliet Junior College, Illinois Community College District No. 525.

(Source: P.A. 92-512, eff. 1-1-02; 92-583, eff. 6-26-02; 92-600, eff. 7-1-02; 93-19, eff. 6-20-03; 93-103, eff. 1-1-04; 93-627, eff. 6-1-04; revised 1-12-04.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-16.2)

Sec. 6-16.2. Prohibited entry to a licensed premises. A municipality or county may prohibit a licensee or any officer, associate, member, representative, agent, or employee of a licensee from permitting a person under the age of 21 years to enter and remain in that portion of a licensed premises that sells, gives, or delivers alcoholic liquor for consumption on the premises. No prohibition under this Section, however, shall apply to any licensed premises, such as without limitation a restaurant or food shop, where selling, giving, or delivering alcoholic liquor is not the principal business of the licensee at those premises.

In those instances where a person under the age of 21 years is prohibited from entering and remaining on the premises, proof that the defendant-licensee, or his employee or agent, demanded, was shown, and reasonably relied upon adequate written evidence for purposes of entering and remaining on the licensed premises is an affirmative defense in any criminal prosecution therefor or to any proceedings for the suspension or revocation of any license based thereon. It shall not, however, be an affirmative defense if the defendant-licensee defendant-license, or his agent or employee, accepted the written evidence knowing it to be false or fraudulent.

Adequate written evidence of age and identity of the person is a document issued by a federal, state, county, or municipal government, or subdivision or agency thereof, including, but not limited to, a motor vehicle operator's license, a registration certificate issued under the Federal Selective Service Act, or an identification card issued to a member of the armed forces.

If a false or fraudulent Illinois driver's license or Illinois identification card is presented by a person less than 21 years of age to a licensee or the licensee's agent or employee for the purpose of obtaining entry and remaining on a licensed premises, the law enforcement officer or agency investigating the incident shall, upon the conviction of the person who presented the fraudulent license or identification, make a report of the matter to the Secretary of State on a form provided by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 90-617, eff. 7-10-98; revised 1-14-04.)

Section 390. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 9A-7, 10-8.1, 10-10, 10-11, 11-3, 11-3.3, and 12-13.05 and setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5-5.23 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.23)

Sec. 5-5.23. Children's mental health services.

(a) The Department of Public Aid, by rule, shall require the screening and assessment of a child prior to any Medicaid-funded admission to an inpatient hospital for psychiatric services to be funded by Medicaid. The screening and assessment shall include a determination of the appropriateness and availability of out-patient support services for necessary treatment. The Department, by rule, shall establish methods and standards of payment for the screening, assessment, and necessary alternative support services.

(b) The Department of Public Aid, to the extent allowable under federal law, shall secure federal financial participation for Individual Care Grant expenditures made by the Department of Human Services for the Medicaid optional service authorized under Section 1905(h) of the federal Social Security Act, pursuant to the provisions of Section 7.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act.

(c) The Department of Public Aid shall work jointly with the Department of Human Services to implement subsections (a) and (b).

(Source: P.A. 93-495, eff. 8-8-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.24)

Sec. 5-5.24 5-5.23. Prenatal and perinatal care. The Department of Public Aid may provide reimbursement under this Article for all prenatal and perinatal health care services that are provided for the purpose of preventing low-birthweight infants, reducing the need for neonatal intensive care hospital services, and promoting perinatal health. These services may include comprehensive risk assessments for pregnant women, women with infants, and infants, lactation counseling, nutrition counseling, childbirth support, psychosocial counseling, treatment and prevention of periodontal disease, and other support services that have been proven to improve birth outcomes. The Department shall maximize the use of preventive prenatal and perinatal health care services consistent with federal statutes, rules, and regulations. The Department shall develop a plan for prenatal and perinatal preventive health care and shall present the plan to the General Assembly by January 1, 2004. On or before January 1, 2006 and every 2 years thereafter, the Department shall report to the General Assembly concerning the effectiveness of prenatal and perinatal health care services reimbursed under this Section in preventing low-birthweight infants and reducing the need for neonatal intensive care hospital services. Each such report shall include an evaluation of how the ratio of expenditures for treating low-birthweight infants compared with the investment in promoting healthy births and infants in local community areas throughout Illinois relates to healthy infant development in those areas.

(Source: P.A. 93-536, eff. 8-18-03; revised 9-25-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/9A-7) (from Ch. 23, par. 9A-7)

Sec. 9A-7. Good Cause and Pre-Sanction Process.

(a) The Department shall establish by rule what constitutes good cause for failure to participate in education, training and employment programs, failure to accept suitable employment or terminating employment or reducing earnings.

The Department shall establish, by rule, a pre-sanction process to assist in resolving disputes over proposed sanctions and in determining if good cause exists. Good cause shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) temporary illness for its duration;

(2) court required appearance or temporary incarceration;

(3) (blank);

(4) death in the family;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) (blank);

(8) (blank);

(9) extreme inclement weather;

(10) (blank);

(11) lack of any support service even though the necessary service is not specifically provided under the Department program, to the extent the lack of the needed service presents a significant barrier to participation;

(12) if an individual is engaged in employment or training or both that is consistent with the employment related goals of the program, if such employment and training is later approved by Department staff;

(13) (blank);

(14) failure of Department staff to correctly forward the information to other Department staff;

(15) failure of the participant to cooperate because of attendance at a test or a mandatory class or function at an educational program (including college), when an education or training program is officially approved by the Department;

(16) failure of the participant due to his or her illiteracy;

(17) failure of the participant because it is determined that he or she should be in a different activity;

(18) non-receipt by the participant of a notice advising him or her of a participation requirement. If the non-receipt of mail occurs frequently, the Department shall explore an alternative means of providing notices of participation requests to participants;

(19) (blank);

(20) non-comprehension of English, either written or oral or both;

(21) (blank);

(22) (blank);

(23) child care (or day care for an incapacitated individual living in the same home as a dependent child) is necessary for the participation or employment and such care is not available for a child under age 13;

(24) failure to participate in an activity due to a scheduled job interview, medical appointment for the participant or a household member, or school appointment;

(25) the individual is homeless. Homeless individuals (including the family) have no current residence and no expectation of acquiring one in the next 30 days. This includes individuals residing in overnight and transitional (temporary) shelters. This does not include individuals who are sharing a residence with friends or relatives on a continuing basis;

(26) circumstances beyond the control of the participant which prevent the participant from completing program requirements; or

(27) (blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (1) The Department shall establish a reconciliation procedure to assist in resolving disputes related to any aspect of participation, including exemptions, good cause, sanctions or proposed sanctions, supportive services, assessments, responsibility and service plans, assignment to activities, suitability of employment, or refusals of offers of employment. Through the reconciliation process the Department shall have a mechanism to identify good cause, ensure that the client is aware of the issue, and enable the client to perform required activities without facing sanction.

(2) A participant may request reconciliation and receive notice in writing of a meeting. At least one face-to-face meeting may be scheduled to resolve misunderstandings or disagreements related to program participation and situations which may lead to a potential sanction. The meeting will address the underlying reason for the dispute and plan a resolution to enable the individual to participate in TANF employment and work activity requirements.

(2.5) If the individual fails to appear at the reconciliation meeting without good cause, the reconciliation is unsuccessful and a sanction shall be imposed.

(3) The reconciliation process shall continue after it is determined that the individual did not have good cause for non-cooperation. Any necessary demonstration of cooperation on the part of the participant will be part of the reconciliation process. Failure to demonstrate cooperation will result in immediate sanction.

(4) For the first instance of non-cooperation, if the client reaches agreement to cooperate, the client shall be allowed 30 days to demonstrate cooperation before any sanction activity may be imposed. In any subsequent instances of non-cooperation, the client shall be provided the opportunity to show good cause or remedy the situation by immediately complying with the requirement.

(5) The Department shall document in the case record the proceedings of the reconciliation and provide the client in writing with a reconciliation agreement.

(6) If reconciliation resolves the dispute, no sanction shall be imposed. If the client fails to comply with the reconciliation agreement, the Department shall then immediately impose the original sanction. If the dispute cannot be resolved during reconciliation, a sanction shall not be imposed until the reconciliation process is complete.

(Source: P.A. 93-598, eff. 8-26-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-8.1)

Sec. 10-8.1. Temporary order for child support. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, pending the outcome of an administrative determination of parentage, the Illinois Department shall issue a temporary order for child support, upon motion by a party and a showing of clear and convincing evidence of paternity. In determining the amount of the temporary child support award, the Illinois Department shall use the guidelines and standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 505 and in Section 505.2 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

Any new or existing support order entered by the Illinois Department under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each such judgment shall have the full force, effect, and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Any such judgment is subject to modification or termination only in accordance with Section 510 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. A lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

All orders for support entered or modified in a case in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X shall include a provision requiring the non-custodial parent to notify the Illinois Department, within 7 days, (i) of the name, address, and telephone number of any new employer of the non-custodial parent, (ii) whether the non-custodial parent has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage, and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy, and (iii) of any new residential or mailing address or telephone number of the non-custodial parent.

In any subsequent action to enforce a support order, upon sufficient showing that diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the non-custodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in that action may be made at the last known address of the non-custodial parent, in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or this Act, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prevent the Illinois Department from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

(Source: P.A. 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; 92-876, eff. 6-1-03; revised 9-27-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-10) (from Ch. 23, par. 10-10)

Sec. 10-10. Court enforcement; applicability also to persons who are not applicants or recipients. Except where the Illinois Department, by agreement, acts for the local governmental unit, as provided in Section 10-3.1, local governmental units shall refer to the State's Attorney or to the proper legal representative of the governmental unit, for judicial enforcement as herein provided, instances of non-support or insufficient support when the dependents are applicants or recipients under Article VI. The Child and Spouse Support Unit established by Section 10-3.1 may institute in behalf of the Illinois Department any actions under this Section for judicial enforcement of the support liability when the dependents are (a) applicants or recipients under Articles III, IV, V or VII; (b) applicants or recipients in a local governmental unit when the Illinois Department, by agreement, acts for the unit; or (c) non-applicants or non-recipients who are receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X, as provided in Section 10-1. Where the Child and Spouse Support Unit has exercised its option and discretion not to apply the provisions of Sections 10-3 through 10-8, the failure by the Unit to apply such provisions shall not be a bar to bringing an action under this Section.

Action shall be brought in the circuit court to obtain support, or for the recovery of aid granted during the period such support was not provided, or both for the obtainment of support and the recovery of the aid provided. Actions for the recovery of aid may be taken separately or they may be consolidated with actions to obtain support. Such actions may be brought in the name of the person or persons requiring support, or may be brought in the name of the Illinois Department or the local governmental unit, as the case requires, in behalf of such persons.

The court may enter such orders for the payment of moneys for the support of the person as may be just and equitable and may direct payment thereof for such period or periods of time as the circumstances require, including support for a period before the date the order for support is entered. The order may be entered against any or all of the defendant responsible relatives and may be based upon the proportionate ability of each to contribute to the person's support.

The Court shall determine the amount of child support (including child support for a period before the date the order for child support is entered) by using the guidelines and standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 505 and in Section 505.2 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. For purposes of determining the amount of child support to be paid for a period before the date the order for child support is entered, there is a rebuttable presumption that the responsible relative's net income for that period was the same as his or her net income at the time the order is entered.

If (i) the responsible relative was properly served with a request for discovery of financial information relating to the responsible relative's ability to provide child support, (ii) the responsible relative failed to comply with the request, despite having been ordered to do so by the court, and (iii) the responsible relative is not present at the hearing to determine support despite having received proper notice, then any relevant financial information concerning the responsible relative's ability to provide child support that was obtained pursuant to subpoena and proper notice shall be admitted into evidence without the need to establish any further foundation for its admission.

An order entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring the obligor to report to the obligee and to the clerk of court within 10 days each time the obligor obtains new employment, and each time the obligor's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer. Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For any obligor arrested for failure to report new employment bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment. An order entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring the obligor and obligee parents to advise each other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or that of a minor child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

The Court shall determine the amount of maintenance using the standards set forth in Section 504 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

Any new or existing support order entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each such judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each such judgment shall have the full force, effect and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Any such judgment is subject to modification or termination only in accordance with Section 510 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. A lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

When an order is entered for the support of a minor, the court may provide therein for reasonable visitation of the minor by the person or persons who provided support pursuant to the order. Whoever willfully refuses to comply with such visitation order or willfully interferes with its enforcement may be declared in contempt of court and punished therefor.

Except where the local governmental unit has entered into an agreement with the Illinois Department for the Child and Spouse Support Unit to act for it, as provided in Section 10-3.1, support orders entered by the court in cases involving applicants or recipients under Article VI shall provide that payments thereunder be made directly to the local governmental unit. Orders for the support of all other applicants or recipients shall provide that payments thereunder be made directly to the Illinois Department. In accordance with federal law and regulations, the Illinois Department may continue to collect current maintenance payments or child support payments, or both, after those persons cease to receive public assistance and until termination of services under Article X. The Illinois Department shall pay the net amount collected to those persons after deducting any costs incurred in making the collection or any collection fee from the amount of any recovery made. In both cases the order shall permit the local governmental unit or the Illinois Department, as the case may be, to direct the responsible relative or relatives to make support payments directly to the needy person, or to some person or agency in his behalf, upon removal of the person from the public aid rolls or upon termination of services under Article X.

If the notice of support due issued pursuant to Section 10-7 directs that support payments be made directly to the needy person, or to some person or agency in his behalf, and the recipient is removed from the public aid rolls, court action may be taken against the responsible relative hereunder if he fails to furnish support in accordance with the terms of such notice.

Actions may also be brought under this Section in behalf of any person who is in need of support from responsible relatives, as defined in Section 2-11 of Article II who is not an applicant for or recipient of financial aid under this Code. In such instances, the State's Attorney of the county in which such person resides shall bring action against the responsible relatives hereunder. If the Illinois Department, as authorized by Section 10-1, extends the child support enforcement services provided by this Article to spouses and dependent children who are not applicants or recipients under this Code, the Child and Spouse Support Unit established by Section 10-3.1 shall bring action against the responsible relatives hereunder and any support orders entered by the court in such cases shall provide that payments thereunder be made directly to the Illinois Department.

Whenever it is determined in a proceeding to establish or enforce a child support or maintenance obligation that the person owing a duty of support is unemployed, the court may order the person to seek employment and report periodically to the court with a diary, listing or other memorandum of his or her efforts in accordance with such order. Additionally, the court may order the unemployed person to report to the Department of Employment Security for job search services or to make application with the local Job Training Partnership Act provider for participation in job search, training or work programs and where the duty of support is owed to a child receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X, the court may order the unemployed person to report to the Illinois Department for participation in job search, training or work programs established under Section 9-6 and Article IXA of this Code.

Whenever it is determined that a person owes past-due support for a child receiving assistance under this Code, the court shall order at the request of the Illinois Department:

(1) that the person pay the past-due support in accordance with a plan approved by the court; or

(2) if the person owing past-due support is unemployed, is subject to such a plan, and is not incapacitated, that the person participate in such job search, training, or work programs established under Section 9-6 and Article IXA of this Code as the court deems appropriate.

A determination under this Section shall not be administratively reviewable by the procedures specified in Sections 10-12, and 10-13 to 10-13.10. Any determination under these Sections, if made the basis of court action under this Section, shall not affect the de novo judicial determination required under this Section.

A one-time charge of 20% is imposable upon the amount of past-due child support owed on July 1, 1988 which has accrued under a support order entered by the court. The charge shall be imposed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-21 of this Code and shall be enforced by the court upon petition.

All orders for support, when entered or modified, shall include a provision requiring the non-custodial parent to notify the court and, in cases in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X, the Illinois Department, within 7 days, (i) of the name, address, and telephone number of any new employer of the non-custodial parent, (ii) whether the non-custodial parent has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy, and (iii) of any new residential or mailing address or telephone number of the non-custodial parent. In any subsequent action to enforce a support order, upon a sufficient showing that a diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the non-custodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in the case may be made at the last known address of the non-custodial parent in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or this Code, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

Upon notification in writing or by electronic transmission from the Illinois Department to the clerk of the court that a person who is receiving support payments under this Section is receiving services under the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act, any support payments subsequently received by the clerk of the court shall be transmitted in accordance with the instructions of the Illinois Department until the Illinois Department gives notice to the clerk of the court to cease the transmittal. After providing the notification authorized under this paragraph, the Illinois Department shall be entitled as a party to notice of any further proceedings in the case. The clerk of the court shall file a copy of the Illinois Department's notification in the court file. The clerk's failure to file a copy of the notification in the court file shall not, however, affect the Illinois Department's right to receive notice of further proceedings.

Payments under this Section to the Illinois Department pursuant to the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund. All payments under this Section to the Illinois Department of Human Services shall be deposited in the DHS Recoveries Trust Fund. Disbursements from these funds shall be as provided in Sections 12-9.1 and 12-10.2 of this Code. Payments received by a local governmental unit shall be deposited in that unit's General Assistance Fund.

To the extent the provisions of this Section are inconsistent with the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit under Sections 10-10.4 and 10-26 of this Code, the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; 92-876, eff. 6-1-03; revised 9-27-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-11) (from Ch. 23, par. 10-11)

Sec. 10-11. Administrative Orders. In lieu of actions for court enforcement of support under Section 10-10, the Child and Spouse Support Unit of the Illinois Department, in accordance with the rules of the Illinois Department, may issue an administrative order requiring the responsible relative to comply with the terms of the determination and notice of support due, determined and issued under Sections 10-6 and 10-7. The Unit may also enter an administrative order under subsection (b) of Section 10-7. The administrative order shall be served upon the responsible relative by United States registered or certified mail. In cases in which the responsible relative appeared at the office of the Child and Spouse Support Unit in response to the notice of support obligation issued under Section 10-4, however, or in cases of default in which the notice was served on the responsible relative by certified mail, return receipt requested, or by any method provided by law for service of summons, the administrative determination of paternity or administrative support order may be sent to the responsible relative by ordinary mail addressed to the responsible relative's last known address.

If a responsible relative or a person receiving child support enforcement services under this Article fails to petition the Illinois Department for release from or modification of the administrative order, as provided in Section 10-12 or Section 10-12.1, the order shall become final and there shall be no further administrative or judicial remedy. Likewise a decision by the Illinois Department as a result of an administrative hearing, as provided in Sections 10-13 to 10-13.10, shall become final and enforceable if not judicially reviewed under the Administrative Review Law, as provided in Section 10-14.

Any new or existing support order entered by the Illinois Department under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each such judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each such judgment shall have the full force, effect and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Any such judgment is subject to modification or termination only in accordance with Section 510 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. A lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

An order entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring the obligor to report to the obligee and to the clerk of court within 10 days each time the obligor obtains new employment, and each time the obligor's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer. Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For any obligor arrested for failure to report new employment bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment. An order entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring the obligor and obligee parents to advise each other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or that of a minor child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

A one-time charge of 20% is imposable upon the amount of past-due child support owed on July 1, 1988, which has accrued under a support order entered by the Illinois Department under this Section. The charge shall be imposed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-21 and shall be enforced by the court in a suit filed under Section 10-15.

An order for support shall include a date on which the support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date that the child's graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prevent the Illinois Department from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

(Source: P.A. 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; 92-876, eff. 6-1-03; revised 9-27-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-3) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-3)

Sec. 11-3. Assignment and attachment of aid prohibited. Except as provided below in this Section and in Section 11-3.3, all financial aid given under Articles III, IV, V, and VI and money payments for child care services provided by a child care provider under Articles IX and IXA shall not be subject to assignment, sale, attachment, garnishment, or otherwise. Provided, however, that a medical vendor may use his right to receive vendor payments as collateral for loans from financial institutions so long as such arrangements do not constitute any activity prohibited under Section 1902(a)(32) of the Social Security Act and regulations promulgated thereunder, or any other applicable laws or regulations. Provided further, however, that a medical or other vendor or a service provider may assign, reassign, sell, pledge or grant a security interest in any such financial aid, vendor payments or money payments or grants which he has a right to receive to the Illinois Finance Authority, in connection with any financing program undertaken by the Illinois Finance Authority, or to the Illinois Finance Authority, in connection with any financing program undertaken by the Illinois Finance Authority. Each Authority may utilize a trustee or agent to accept, accomplish, effectuate or realize upon any such assignment, reassignment, sale, pledge or grant on that Authority's behalf. Provided further, however, that nothing herein shall prevent the Illinois Department from collecting any assessment, fee, interest or penalty due under Article V-A, V-B, V-C, or V-E by withholding financial aid as payment of such assessment, fee, interest, or penalty. Any alienation in contravention of this statute does not diminish and does not affect the validity, legality or enforceability of any underlying obligations for which such alienation may have been made as collateral between the parties to the alienation. This amendatory Act shall be retroactive in application and shall pertain to obligations existing prior to its enactment.

(Source: P.A. 92-111, eff. 1-1-02; 93-205 (Sections 890-25 and 890-40), eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-23-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-3.3) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-3.3)

Sec. 11-3.3. Payment to provider or governmental agency or entity. Payments under this Code shall be made to the provider, except that the Department may issue or may agree to issue the payment directly to the Illinois Finance Authority, the Illinois Finance Authority, or any other governmental agency or entity, including any bond trustee for that agency or entity, to whom the provider has assigned, reassigned, sold, pledged or granted a security interest in the payments that the provider has a right to receive, provided that the issuance or agreement to issue is not prohibited under Section 1902(a)(32) of the Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-205 (Sections 890-25 and 890-40), eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-23-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-13.05)

Sec. 12-13.05. Rules for Temporary Assistance for Needy Families. All rules regulating the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families program and all other rules regulating the amendatory changes to this Code made by this amendatory Act of 1997 shall be promulgated pursuant to this Section. All rules regulating the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families program and all other rules regulating the amendatory changes to this Code made by this amendatory Act of 1997 are repealed on July 1, 2006. On and after July 1, 2006, the Illinois Department may not promulgate any rules regulating the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families program or regulating the amendatory changes to this Code made by this amendatory Act of 1997.

(Source: P.A. 91-5, eff. 5-27-99; 92-111, eff. 1-1-02; 92-597, eff. 6-28-02; revised 11-06-02.)

Section 395. The Elder Abuse and Neglect Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 7 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 6602)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Abuse" means causing any physical, mental or sexual injury to an eligible adult, including exploitation of such adult's financial resources.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse or neglect for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(a-5) "Abuser" means a person who abuses, neglects, or financially exploits an eligible adult.

(a-7) "Caregiver" means a person who either as a result of a family relationship, voluntarily, or in exchange for compensation has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an eligible adult who needs assistance with activities of daily living.

(b) "Department" means the Department on Aging of the State of Illinois.

(c) "Director" means the Director of the Department.

(d) "Domestic living situation" means a residence where the eligible adult lives alone or with his or her family or a caregiver, or others, or a board and care home or other community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:

(1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(2) A "life care facility" as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof or by the State of Illinois;

(4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation of organized facilities therefor, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(5) A "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(6) A "community residential alternative" as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act; and

(7) A "community-integrated living arrangement" as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(e) "Eligible adult" means a person 60 years of age or older who resides in a domestic living situation and is, or is alleged to be, abused, neglected, or financially exploited by another individual.

(f) "Emergency" means a situation in which an eligible adult is living in conditions presenting a risk of death or physical, mental or sexual injury and the provider agency has reason to believe the eligible adult is unable to consent to services which would alleviate that risk.

(f-5) "Mandated reporter" means any of the following persons while engaged in carrying out their professional duties:

(1) a professional or professional's delegate while engaged in: (i) social services, (ii) law enforcement, (iii) education, (iv) the care of an eligible adult or eligible adults, or (v) any of the occupations required to be licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Dietetic and Nutrition Services Practice Act, the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Naprapathic Practice Act, the Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act, the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Pharmacy Practice Act of 1987, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004, and the Illinois Public Accounting Act;

(2) an employee of a vocational rehabilitation facility prescribed or supervised by the Department of Human Services;

(3) an administrator, employee, or person providing services in or through an unlicensed community based facility;

(4) a Christian Science Practitioner;

(5) field personnel of the Department of Public Aid, Department of Public Health, and Department of Human Services, and any county or municipal health department;

(6) personnel of the Department of Human Services, the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the State Fire Marshal, local fire departments, the Department on Aging and its subsidiary Area Agencies on Aging and provider agencies, and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman;

(7) any employee of the State of Illinois not otherwise specified herein who is involved in providing services to eligible adults, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with eligible adults;

(8) a person who performs the duties of a coroner or medical examiner; or

(9) a person who performs the duties of a paramedic or an emergency medical technician.

(g) "Neglect" means another individual's failure to provide an eligible adult with or willful withholding from an eligible adult the necessities of life including, but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter or medical care. This subsection does not create any new affirmative duty to provide support to eligible adults. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of neglect because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(h) "Provider agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area appointed by the regional administrative agency with prior approval by the Department on Aging to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

(i) "Regional administrative agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area so designated by the Department, provided that the designated Area Agency on Aging shall be designated the regional administrative agency if it so requests. The Department shall assume the functions of the regional administrative agency for any planning and service area where another agency is not so designated.

(j) "Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation in which a provider agency, after assessment, determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 93-281 eff. 12-31-03; 93-300, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-22-03.)

(320 ILCS 20/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 6607)

Sec. 7. Review. All services provided to an eligible adult shall be reviewed by the provider agency on at least a quarterly basis for up to one year to determine whether the service care plan should be continued or modified, except that, upon review, the Department on Aging, upon review, may grant a waiver to extend the service care plan for up to one an additional one year period.

(Source: P.A. 93-300, eff. 1-1-04; 93-301, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-22-03.)

Section 400. The Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Prescription Drug Discount Program Act is amended by renumbering Section 990 as follows:

(320 ILCS 55/90) (was 320 ILCS 55/990)

Sec. 90 990. (Amendatory provisions; text omitted).

(Source: P.A. 93-18, eff. 7-1-03; text omitted; revised 9-28-03.)

Section 405. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 2054)

Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged communications; transmitting false report. Any physician, resident, intern, hospital, hospital administrator and personnel engaged in examination, care and treatment of persons, surgeon, dentist, dentist hygienist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatrist, physician assistant, substance abuse treatment personnel, funeral home director or employee, coroner, medical examiner, emergency medical technician, acupuncturist, crisis line or hotline personnel, school personnel, educational advocate assigned to a child pursuant to the School Code, truant officers, social worker, social services administrator, domestic violence program personnel, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, respiratory care practitioner, advanced practice nurse, home health aide, director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day care center, recreational program or facility personnel, law enforcement officer, licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical professional counselor, registered psychologist and assistants working under the direct supervision of a psychologist, psychiatrist, or field personnel of the Illinois Department of Public Aid, Public Health, Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, Rehabilitation Services, or Public Aid), Corrections, Human Rights, or Children and Family Services, supervisor and administrator of general assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, probation officer, or any other foster parent, homemaker or child care worker having reasonable cause to believe a child known to them in their professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any member of the clergy having reasonable cause to believe that a child known to that member of the clergy in his or her professional capacity may be an abused child as defined in item (c) of the definition of "abused child" in Section 3 of this Act shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Whenever such person is required to report under this Act in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act and may also notify the person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of such report to the Department.

The privileged quality of communication between any professional person required to report and his patient or client shall not apply to situations involving abused or neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure to report as required by this Act.

A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

In addition to the above persons required to report suspected cases of abused or neglected children, any other person may make a report if such person has reasonable cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected child.

Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1, 1986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act. The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the statement shall be borne by the employer.

The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon request, to all employers employing persons who shall be required under the provisions of this Section to report under this Act.

Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the "Criminal Code of 1961". Any person who violates this provision a second or subsequent time shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent violation of transmitting a false report as described in the preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other prior offense).

A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices such beliefs.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-801, eff. 8-16-02; 93-137, eff. 7-10-03; 93-356, eff. 7-24-03; 93-431, eff. 8-5-03; revised 9-12-03.)

Section 410. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(410 ILCS 45/14) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1314)

Sec. 14. Departmental regulations and activities. The Department shall establish and publish regulations and guidelines governing permissible limits of lead in and about residential buildings and dwellings.

The Department shall also initiate activities that:

(a) Will either provide for or support the monitoring and validation of all medical laboratories and , private and public hospitals that perform lead determination tests on human blood or other tissues. ;

(b) Will, subject to Section 7.2 of this Act, provide laboratory testing of blood specimens for lead content, to any physician, hospital, clinic, free clinic, municipality, or private organization organizations that cannot secure or provide the services through other sources. The Department shall not assume responsibility for blood lead analysis required in programs currently in operation. ;

(c) Will develop or encourage the development of appropriate programs and studies to identify sources of lead intoxication and assist other entities in the identification of lead in children's blood and the sources of that intoxication. ;

(d) May provide technical assistance and consultation to local, county, or regional governmental or private agencies for the promotion and development of lead poisoning prevention programs.

(e) Will provide recommendations by the Department on the subject of identification and treatment of for lead poisoning.

(f) Will maintain a clearinghouse of information, and will develop additional educational materials, on (i) lead hazards to children, (ii) lead poisoning prevention, (iii) lead poisoning screening, (iv) lead mitigation, abatement, and disposal, and (v) on health hazards during abatement. The Department shall make this information available to the general public.

(Source: P.A. 87-175; 87-1144; revised 1-20-03.)

Section 415. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 305/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)

Sec. 3. When used in this Act:

(a) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(b) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

(c) "HIV" means the Human Immunodeficiency Virus or any other identified causative agent of AIDS.

(d) "Written informed consent" means an agreement in writing executed by the subject of a test or the subject's legally authorized representative without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud, deceit, duress or other form of constraint or coercion, which entails at least the following:

(1) a fair explanation of the test, including its purpose, potential uses, limitations and the meaning of its results; and

(2) a fair explanation of the procedures to be followed, including the voluntary nature of the test, the right to withdraw consent to the testing process at any time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of test results, and the right to confidential treatment of information identifying the subject of the test and the results of the test, to the extent provided by law.

(e) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(f) "Health care provider" means any health care professional, nurse, paramedic, psychologist or other person providing medical, nursing, psychological, or other health care services of any kind.

(f-5) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a physician assistant to whom the physician assistant's supervising physician has delegated the provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes the provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iv) a licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatrist, or (vi) an individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling by a state or local public health department.

(g) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the presence of the antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV infection.

(h) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public or private corporation, health facility or other legal entity.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; 93-482, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-12-03.)

Section 420. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 42, 55.8, 57.2, 57.8, 57.10, and 58.7 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1005)

Sec. 5. Pollution Control Board.

(a) There is hereby created an independent board to be known as the Pollution Control Board.

Until July 1, 2003 or when all of the new members to be initially appointed under this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later, the Board shall consist of 7 technically qualified members, no more than 4 of whom may be of the same political party, to be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate.

The term of each appointed member of the Board who is in office on June 30, 2003 shall terminate at the close of business on that date or when all of the new members to be initially appointed under this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later.

Beginning on July 1, 2003 or when all of the new members to be initially appointed under this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later, the Board shall consist of 5 technically qualified members, no more than 3 of whom may be of the same political party, to be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. Members shall have verifiable technical, academic, or actual experience in the field of pollution control or environmental law and regulation.

Of the members initially appointed pursuant to this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, one shall be appointed for a term ending July 1, 2004, 2 shall be appointed for terms ending July 1, 2005, and 2 shall be appointed for terms ending July 1, 2006. Thereafter, all members shall hold office for 3 years from the first day of July in the year in which they were appointed, except in case of an appointment to fill a vacancy. In case of a vacancy in the office when the Senate is not in session, the Governor may make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when he or she shall nominate some person to fill such office; and any person so nominated, who is confirmed by the Senate, shall hold the office during the remainder of the term.

Members of the Board shall hold office until their respective successors have been appointed and qualified. Any member may resign from office, such resignation to take effect when a successor has been appointed and has qualified.

Board members shall be paid $37,000 per year or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater, and the Chairman shall be paid $43,000 per year or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater. Each member shall devote his or her entire time to the duties of the office, and shall hold no other office or position of profit, nor engage in any other business, employment, or vocation. Each member shall be reimbursed for expenses necessarily incurred and shall make a financial disclosure upon appointment.

Each Board member may employ one secretary and one assistant, and the Chairman one secretary and 2 assistants. The Board also may employ and compensate hearing officers to preside at hearings under this Act, and such other personnel as may be necessary. Hearing officers shall be attorneys licensed to practice law in Illinois.

The Board may have an Executive Director; if so, the Executive Director shall be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. The salary and duties of the Executive Director shall be fixed by the Board.

The Governor shall designate one Board member to be Chairman, who shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor.

The Board shall hold at least one meeting each month and such additional meetings as may be prescribed by Board rules. In addition, special meetings may be called by the Chairman or by any 2 Board members, upon delivery of 24 hours written notice to the office of each member. All Board meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of all meetings shall be given at least 24 hours in advance of each meeting. In emergency situations in which a majority of the Board certifies that exigencies of time require the requirements of public notice and of 24 hour written notice to members may be dispensed with, and Board members shall receive such notice as is reasonable under the circumstances.

If there is no vacancy on the Board, 4 members of the Board shall constitute a quorum to transact business; otherwise, a majority of the Board shall constitute a quorum to transact business, and no vacancy shall impair the right of the remaining members to exercise all of the powers of the Board. Every action approved by a majority of the members of the Board shall be deemed to be the action of the Board. The Board shall keep a complete and accurate record of all its meetings.

(b) The Board shall determine, define and implement the environmental control standards applicable in the State of Illinois and may adopt rules and regulations in accordance with Title VII of this Act.

(c) The Board shall have authority to act for the State in regard to the adoption of standards for submission to the United States under any federal law respecting environmental protection. Such standards shall be adopted in accordance with Title VII of the Act and upon adoption shall be forwarded to the Environmental Protection Agency for submission to the United States pursuant to subsections (l) and (m) of Section 4 of this Act. Nothing in this paragraph shall limit the discretion of the Governor to delegate authority granted to the Governor under any federal law.

(d) The Board shall have authority to conduct proceedings upon complaints charging violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order; upon administrative citations; upon petitions for variances or adjusted standards; upon petitions for review of the Agency's final determinations on permit applications in accordance with Title X of this Act; upon petitions to remove seals under Section 34 of this Act; and upon other petitions for review of final determinations which are made pursuant to this Act or Board rule and which involve a subject which the Board is authorized to regulate. The Board may also conduct other proceedings as may be provided by this Act or any other statute or rule.

(e) In connection with any proceeding pursuant to subsection (b) or (d) of this Section, the Board may subpoena and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of evidence reasonably necessary to resolution of the matter under consideration. The Board shall issue such subpoenas upon the request of any party to a proceeding under subsection (d) of this Section or upon its own motion.

(f) The Board may prescribe reasonable fees for permits required pursuant to this Act. Such fees in the aggregate may not exceed the total cost to the Agency for its inspection and permit systems. The Board may not prescribe any permit fees which are different in amount from those established by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; 93-152, eff. 7-10-03; 93-509, eff. 8-11-03; revised 9-11-03.)

(415 ILCS 5/42) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1042)

Sec. 42. Civil penalties.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, any person that violates any provision of this Act or any regulation adopted by the Board, or any permit or term or condition thereof, or that violates any order of the Board pursuant to this Act, shall be liable for a civil penalty of not to exceed $50,000 for the violation and an additional civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 for each day during which the violation continues; such penalties may, upon order of the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction, be made payable to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section:

(1) Any person that violates Section 12(f) of this Act or any NPDES permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the NPDES permit program, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 per day of violation.

(2) Any person that violates Section 12(g) of this Act or any UIC permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the State UIC program for all wells, except Class II wells as defined by the Board under this Act, shall be liable to a civil penalty not to exceed $2,500 per day of violation; provided, however, that any person who commits such violations relating to the State UIC program for Class II wells, as defined by the Board under this Act, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 for the violation and an additional civil penalty of not to exceed $1,000 for each day during which the violation continues.

(3) Any person that violates Sections 21(f), 21(g), 21(h) or 21(i) of this Act, or any RCRA permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the State RCRA program, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $25,000 per day of violation.

(4) In an administrative citation action under Section 31.1 of this Act, any person found to have violated any provision of subsection (o) of Section 21 of this Act shall pay a civil penalty of $500 for each violation of each such provision, plus any hearing costs incurred by the Board and the Agency. Such penalties shall be made payable to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act; except that if a unit of local government issued the administrative citation, 50% of the civil penalty shall be payable to the unit of local government.

(4-5) In an administrative citation action under Section 31.1 of this Act, any person found to have violated any provision of subsection (p) of Section 21 of this Act shall pay a civil penalty of $1,500 for each violation of each such provision, plus any hearing costs incurred by the Board and the Agency, except that the civil penalty amount shall be be a $3,000 for each violation of any provision of subsection (p) of Section 21 that is the person's second a second or subsequent adjudication violation of that provision. The penalties shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act; except that if a unit of local government issued the administrative citation, 50% of the civil penalty shall be payable to the unit of local government.

(5) Any person who violates subsection 6 of Section 39.5 of this Act or any CAAPP permit, or term or condition thereof, or any fee or filing requirement, or any duty to allow or carry out inspection, entry or monitoring activities, or any regulation or order relating to the CAAPP shall be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $10,000 per day of violation.

(b.5) In lieu of the penalties set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, any person who fails to file, in a timely manner, toxic chemical release forms with the Agency pursuant to Section 25b-2 of this Act shall be liable for a civil penalty of $100 per day for each day the forms are late, not to exceed a maximum total penalty of $6,000. This daily penalty shall begin accruing on the thirty-first day after the date that the person receives the warning notice issued by the Agency pursuant to Section 25b-6 of this Act; and the penalty shall be paid to the Agency. The daily accrual of penalties shall cease as of January 1 of the following year. All penalties collected by the Agency pursuant to this subsection shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund.

(c) Any person that violates this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order and causes the death of fish or aquatic life shall, in addition to the other penalties provided by this Act, be liable to pay to the State an additional sum for the reasonable value of the fish or aquatic life destroyed. Any money so recovered shall be placed in the Wildlife and Fish Fund in the State Treasury.

(d) The penalties provided for in this Section may be recovered in a civil action.

(e) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, may, at the request of the Agency or on his own motion, institute a civil action for an injunction to restrain violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order.

(f) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, shall bring such actions in the name of the people of the State of Illinois. Without limiting any other authority which may exist for the awarding of attorney's fees and costs, the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction may award costs and reasonable attorney's fees, including the reasonable costs of expert witnesses and consultants, to the State's Attorney or the Attorney General in a case where he has prevailed against a person who has committed a wilful, knowing or repeated violation of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order.

Any funds collected under this subsection (f) in which the Attorney General has prevailed shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund created in Section 22.2 of this Act. Any funds collected under this subsection (f) in which a State's Attorney has prevailed shall be retained by the county in which he serves.

(g) All final orders imposing civil penalties pursuant to this Section shall prescribe the time for payment of such penalties. If any such penalty is not paid within the time prescribed, interest on such penalty at the rate set forth in subsection (a) of Section 1003 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, shall be paid for the period from the date payment is due until the date payment is received. However, if the time for payment is stayed during the pendency of an appeal, interest shall not accrue during such stay.

(h) In determining the appropriate civil penalty to be imposed under subdivisions (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), or (b)(5) of this Section, the Board is authorized to consider any matters of record in mitigation or aggravation of penalty, including but not limited to the following factors:

(1) the duration and gravity of the violation;

(2) the presence or absence of due diligence on the part of the respondent in attempting to comply with requirements of this Act and regulations thereunder or to secure relief therefrom as provided by this Act;

(3) any economic benefits accrued by the respondent because of delay in compliance with requirements, in which case the economic benefits shall be determined by the lowest cost alternative for achieving compliance;

(4) the amount of monetary penalty which will serve to deter further violations by the respondent and to otherwise aid in enhancing voluntary compliance with this Act by the respondent and other persons similarly subject to the Act;

(5) the number, proximity in time, and gravity of previously adjudicated violations of this Act by the respondent;

(6) whether the respondent voluntarily self-disclosed, in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section, the non-compliance to the Agency; and

(7) whether the respondent has agreed to undertake a "supplemental environmental project," which means an environmentally beneficial project that a respondent agrees to undertake in settlement of an enforcement action brought under this Act, but which the respondent is not otherwise legally required to perform.

In determining the appropriate civil penalty to be imposed under subsection (a) or paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (5) of subsection (b) of this Section, the Board shall ensure, in all cases, that the penalty is at least as great as the economic benefits, if any, accrued by the respondent as a result of the violation, unless the Board finds that imposition of such penalty would result in an arbitrary or unreasonable financial hardship. However, such civil penalty may be off-set in whole or in part pursuant to a supplemental environmental project agreed to by the complainant and the respondent.

(i) A person who voluntarily self-discloses non-compliance to the Agency, of which the Agency had been unaware, is entitled to a 100% reduction in the portion of the penalty that is not based on the economic benefit of non-compliance if the person can establish the following:

(1) that the non-compliance was discovered through an environmental audit, as defined in Section 52.2 of this Act, and the person waives the environmental audit privileges as provided in that Section with respect to that non-compliance;

(2) that the non-compliance was disclosed in writing within 30 days of the date on which the person discovered it;

(3) that the non-compliance was discovered and disclosed prior to:

(i) the commencement of an Agency inspection, investigation, or request for information;

(ii) notice of a citizen suit;

(iii) the filing of a complaint by a citizen, the Illinois Attorney General, or the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred;

(iv) the reporting of the non-compliance by an employee of the person without that person's knowledge; or

(v) imminent discovery of the non-compliance by the Agency;

(4) that the non-compliance is being corrected and any environmental harm is being remediated in a timely fashion;

(5) that the person agrees to prevent a recurrence of the non-compliance;

(6) that no related non-compliance events have occurred in the past 3 years at the same facility or in the past 5 years as part of a pattern at multiple facilities owned or operated by the person;

(7) that the non-compliance did not result in serious actual harm or present an imminent and substantial endangerment to human health or the environment or violate the specific terms of any judicial or administrative order or consent agreement;

(8) that the person cooperates as reasonably requested by the Agency after the disclosure; and

(9) that the non-compliance was identified voluntarily and not through a monitoring, sampling, or auditing procedure that is required by statute, rule, permit, judicial or administrative order, or consent agreement.

If a person can establish all of the elements under this subsection except the element set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection, the person is entitled to a 75% reduction in the portion of the penalty that is not based upon the economic benefit of non-compliance.

(Source: P.A. 93-152, eff. 7-10-03; 93-575, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-11-03.)

(415 ILCS 5/55.8) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1055.8)

Sec. 55.8. Tire retailers.

(a) Beginning July 1, 1992, Any person selling new or used tires at retail or offering new or used tires for retail sale in this State shall:

(1) beginning on June 20, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-32), collect from retail customers a fee of $2 per new or and used tire sold and delivered in this State, to be paid to the Department of Revenue and deposited into the Used Tire Management Fund, less a collection allowance of 10 cents per tire to be retained by the retail seller and a collection allowance of 10 cents per tire to be retained by the Department of Revenue and paid into the General Revenue Fund;

(1.5) beginning on July 1, 2003, collect from retail customers an additional 50 cents per new or used tire sold and delivered in this State. The money collected from this fee shall be deposited into the Emergency Public Health Fund. This fee shall no longer be collected beginning on January 1, 2008; .

(2) accept for recycling used tires from customers, at the point of transfer, in a quantity equal to the number of new tires purchased; and

(3) post in a conspicuous place a written notice at least 8.5 by 11 inches in size that includes the universal recycling symbol and the following statements: "DO NOT put used tires in the trash."; "Recycle your used tires."; and "State law requires us to accept used tires for recycling, in exchange for new tires purchased.".

(b) A person who accepts used tires for recycling under subsection (a) shall not allow the tires to accumulate for periods of more than 90 days.

(c) The requirements of subsection (a) of this Section do not apply to mail order sales nor shall the retail sale of a motor vehicle be considered to be the sale of tires at retail or offering of tires for retail sale. Instead of filing returns, retailers of tires may remit the tire user fee of $1.00 per tire to their suppliers of tires if the supplier of tires is a registered retailer of tires and agrees or otherwise arranges to collect and remit the tire fee to the Department of Revenue, notwithstanding the fact that the sale of the tire is a sale for resale and not a sale at retail. A tire supplier who enters into such an arrangement with a tire retailer shall be liable for the tax on all tires sold to the tire retailer and must (i) provide the tire retailer with a receipt that separately reflects the tire tax collected from the retailer on each transaction and (ii) accept used tires for recycling from the retailer's customers. The tire supplier shall be entitled to the collection allowance of 10 cents per tire.

The retailer of the tires must maintain in its books and records evidence that the appropriate fee was paid to the tire supplier and that the tire supplier has agreed to remit the fee to the Department of Revenue for each tire sold by the retailer. Otherwise, the tire retailer shall be directly liable for the fee on all tires sold at retail. Tire retailers paying the fee to their suppliers are not entitled to the collection allowance of 10 cents per tire.

(d) The requirements of subsection (a) of this Section shall apply exclusively to tires to be used for vehicles defined in Section 1-217 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, aircraft tires, special mobile equipment, and implements of husbandry.

(e) The requirements of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) do not apply to the sale of reprocessed tires. For purposes of this Section, "reprocessed tire" means a used tire that has been recapped, retreaded, or regrooved and that has not been placed on a vehicle wheel rim.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; 93-52, eff. 6-30-03; revised 10-13-03.)

(415 ILCS 5/57.2)

Sec. 57.2. Definitions. As used in this Title:

"Audit" means a systematic inspection or examination of plans, reports, records, or documents to determine the completeness and accuracy of the data and conclusions contained therein.

"Bodily injury" means bodily injury, sickness, or disease sustained by a person, including death at any time, resulting from a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank.

"Release" means any spilling, leaking, emitting, discharging, escaping, leaching or disposing of petroleum from an underground storage tank into groundwater, surface water or subsurface soils.

"Fill material" means non-native or disturbed materials used to bed and backfill around an underground storage tank.

"Fund" means the Underground Storage Tank Fund.

"Heating Oil" means petroleum that is No. 1, No. 2, No. 4 - light, No. 4 - heavy, No. 5 - light, No. 5 - heavy or No. 6 technical grades of fuel oil; and other residual fuel oils including Navy Special Fuel Oil and Bunker C.

"Indemnification" means indemnification of an owner or operator for the amount of any judgment entered against the owner or operator in a court of law, for the amount of any final order or determination made against the owner or operator by an agency of State government or any subdivision thereof, or for the amount of any settlement entered into by the owner or operator, if the judgment, order, determination, or settlement arises out of bodily injury or property damage suffered as a result of a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank owned or operated by the owner or operator.

"Corrective action" means activities associated with compliance with the provisions of Sections 57.6 and 57.7 of this Title.

"Occurrence" means an accident, including continuous or repeated exposure to conditions, that results in a sudden or nonsudden release from an underground storage tank.

When used in connection with, or when otherwise relating to, underground storage tanks, the terms "facility", "owner", "operator", "underground storage tank", "(UST)", "petroleum" and "regulated substance" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Subtitle I of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (P.L. 98-616), of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580); provided however that the term "underground storage tank" shall also mean an underground storage tank used exclusively to store heating oil for consumptive use on the premises where stored and which serves other than a farm or residential unit.

"Licensed Professional Engineer" means a person, corporation, or partnership licensed under the laws of the State of Illinois to practice professional engineering.

"Licensed Professional Geologist" means a person licensed under the laws of the State of Illinois to practice as a professional geologist.

"Site" means any single location, place, tract of land or parcel of property including contiguous property not separated by a public right-of-way.

"Site investigation" means activities associated with compliance with the provisions of subsection (a) of Section 57.7.

"Property damage" means physical injury to, destruction of, or contamination of tangible property, including all resulting loss of use of that property; or loss of use of tangible property that is not physically injured, destroyed, or contaminated, but has been evacuated, withdrawn from use, or rendered inaccessible because of a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank.

"Class I Groundwater" means groundwater that meets the Class I: Potable Resource Groundwater criteria set forth in the Board regulations adopted pursuant to the Illinois Groundwater Protection Act.

"Class III Groundwater" means groundwater that meets the Class III: Special Resource Groundwater criteria set forth in the Board regulations adopted pursuant to the Illinois Groundwater Protection Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-554, eff. 6-24-02; 92-735, eff. 7-25-02; revised 9-9-02.)

(415 ILCS 5/57.8)

Sec. 57.8. Underground Storage Tank Fund; payment; options for State payment; deferred correction election to commence corrective action upon availability of funds. If an owner or operator is eligible to access the Underground Storage Tank Fund pursuant to an Office of State Fire Marshal eligibility/deductible final determination letter issued in accordance with Section 57.9, the owner or operator may submit a complete application for final or partial payment to the Agency for activities taken in response to a confirmed release. An owner or operator may submit a request for partial or final payment regarding a site no more frequently than once every 90 days.

(a) Payment after completion of corrective action measures. The owner or operator may submit an application for payment for activities performed at a site after completion of the requirements of Sections 57.6 and 57.7, or after completion of any other required activities at the underground storage tank site.

(1) In the case of any approved plan and budget for which payment is being sought, the Agency shall make a payment determination within 120 days of receipt of the application. Such determination shall be considered a final decision. The Agency's review shall be limited to generally accepted auditing and accounting practices. In no case shall the Agency conduct additional review of any plan which was completed within the budget, beyond auditing for adherence to the corrective action measures in the proposal. If the Agency fails to approve the payment application within 120 days, such application shall be deemed approved by operation of law and the Agency shall proceed to reimburse the owner or operator the amount requested in the payment application. However, in no event shall the Agency reimburse the owner or operator an amount greater than the amount approved in the plan.

(2) If sufficient funds are available in the Underground Storage Tank Fund, the Agency shall, within 60 days, forward to the Office of the State Comptroller a voucher in the amount approved under the payment application.

(3) In the case of insufficient funds, the Agency shall form a priority list for payment and shall notify persons in such priority list monthly of the availability of funds and when payment shall be made. Payment shall be made to the owner or operator at such time as sufficient funds become available for the costs associated with site investigation and corrective action and costs expended for activities performed where no proposal is required, if applicable. Such priority list shall be available to any owner or operator upon request. Priority for payment shall be determined by the date the Agency receives a complete request for partial or final payment. Upon receipt of notification from the Agency that the requirements of this Title have been met, the Comptroller shall make payment to the owner or operator of the amount approved by the Agency, if sufficient money exists in the Fund. If there is insufficient money in the Fund, then payment shall not be made. If the owner or operator appeals a final Agency payment determination and it is determined that the owner or operator is eligible for payment or additional payment, the priority date for the payment or additional payment shall be the same as the priority date assigned to the original request for partial or final payment.

(4) Any deductible, as determined pursuant to the Office of the State Fire Marshal's eligibility and deductibility final determination in accordance with Section 57.9, shall be subtracted from any payment invoice paid to an eligible owner or operator. Only one deductible shall apply per underground storage tank site.

(5) In the event that costs are or will be incurred in addition to those approved by the Agency, or after payment, the owner or operator may submit successive plans containing amended budgets. The requirements of Section 57.7 shall apply to any amended plans.

(6) For purposes of this Section, a complete application shall consist of:

(A) A certification from a Licensed Professional Engineer or Licensed Professional Geologist as required under this Title and acknowledged by the owner or operator.

(B) A statement of the amounts approved in the budget and the amounts actually sought for payment along with a certified statement by the owner or operator that the amounts so sought were expended in conformance with the approved budget.

(C) A copy of the Office of the State Fire Marshal's eligibility and deductibility determination.

(D) Proof that approval of the payment requested will not result in the limitations set forth in subsection (g) of this Section being exceeded.

(E) A federal taxpayer identification number and legal status disclosure certification on a form prescribed and provided by the Agency.

(b) Commencement of site investigation or corrective action upon availability of funds. The Board shall adopt regulations setting forth procedures based on risk to human health or the environment under which the owner or operator who has received approval for any budget plan submitted pursuant to Section 57.7, and who is eligible for payment from the Underground Storage Tank Fund pursuant to an Office of the State Fire Marshal eligibility and deductibility determination, may elect to defer site investigation or corrective action activities until funds are available in an amount equal to the amount approved in the budget. The regulations shall establish criteria based on risk to human health or the environment to be used for determining on a site-by-site basis whether deferral is appropriate. The regulations also shall establish the minimum investigatory requirements for determining whether the risk based criteria are present at a site considering deferral and procedures for the notification of owners or operators of insufficient funds, Agency review of request for deferral, notification of Agency final decisions, returning deferred sites to active status, and earmarking of funds for payment.

(c) When the owner or operator requests indemnification for payment of costs incurred as a result of a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank, if the owner or operator has satisfied the requirements of subsection (a) of this Section, the Agency shall forward a copy of the request to the Attorney General. The Attorney General shall review and approve the request for indemnification if:

(1) there is a legally enforceable judgment entered against the owner or operator and such judgment was entered due to harm caused by a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank and such judgment was not entered as a result of fraud; or

(2) a settlement with a third party due to a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank is reasonable.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Title, the Agency shall not approve payment to an owner or operator from the Fund for costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred during a calendar year in excess of the following aggregate amounts based on the number of petroleum underground storage tanks owned or operated by such owner or operator in Illinois.

Amount Number of Tanks

$2,000,000............................fewer than 101

$3,000,000....................................101 or more

(1) Costs incurred in excess of the aggregate amounts set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not be eligible for payment in subsequent years.

(2) For purposes of this subsection, requests submitted by any of the agencies, departments, boards, committees or commissions of the State of Illinois shall be acted upon as claims from a single owner or operator.

(3) For purposes of this subsection, owner or operator includes (i) any subsidiary, parent, or joint stock company of the owner or operator and (ii) any company owned by any parent, subsidiary, or joint stock company of the owner or operator.

(e) Costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred by an owner or operator which have been paid to an owner or operator under a policy of insurance, another written agreement, or a court order are not eligible for payment under this Section. An owner or operator who receives payment under a policy of insurance, another written agreement, or a court order shall reimburse the State to the extent such payment covers costs for which payment was received from the Fund. Any monies received by the State under this subsection (e) shall be deposited into the Fund.

(f) (Blank.)

(g) The Agency shall not approve any payment from the Fund to pay an owner or operator:

(1) for costs of corrective action incurred by such owner or operator in an amount in excess of $1,500,000 per occurrence; and

(2) for costs of indemnification of such owner or operator in an amount in excess of $1,500,000 per occurrence.

(h) Payment of any amount from the Fund for corrective action or indemnification shall be subject to the State acquiring by subrogation the rights of any owner, operator, or other person to recover the costs of corrective action or indemnification for which the Fund has compensated such owner, operator, or person from the person responsible or liable for the release.

(i) If the Agency refuses to pay or authorizes only a partial payment, the affected owner or operator may petition the Board for a hearing in the manner provided for the review of permit decisions in Section 40 of this Act.

(j) Costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred by an owner or operator prior to July 28, 1989, shall not be eligible for payment or reimbursement under this Section.

(k) The Agency shall not pay costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred before providing notification of the release of petroleum in accordance with the provisions of this Title.

(l) Corrective action does not include legal defense costs. Legal defense costs include legal costs for seeking payment under this Title unless the owner or operator prevails before the Board in which case the Board may authorize payment of legal fees.

(m) The Agency may apportion payment of costs for plans submitted under Section 57.7 if:

(1) the owner or operator was deemed eligible to access the Fund for payment of corrective action costs for some, but not all, of the underground storage tanks at the site; and

(2) the owner or operator failed to justify all costs attributable to each underground storage tank at the site.

(n) The Agency shall not pay costs associated with a corrective action plan incurred after the Agency provides notification to the owner or operator pursuant to item (7) of subsection (b) of Section 57.7 that a revised corrective action plan is required. Costs associated with any subsequently approved corrective action plan shall be eligible for reimbursement if they meet the requirements of this Title.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 92-554, eff. 6-24-02; 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; 92-735, eff. 7-25-02; revised 10-3-02.)

(415 ILCS 5/57.10)

Sec. 57.10. Professional Engineer or Professional Geologist certification; presumptions against liability.

(a) Within 120 days of the Agency's receipt of a corrective action completion report, the Agency shall issue to the owner or operator a "no further remediation letter" unless the Agency has requested a modification, issued a rejection under subsection (d) of this Section, or the report has been rejected by operation of law.

(b) By certifying such a statement, a Licensed Professional Engineer or Licensed Professional Geologist shall in no way be liable thereon, unless the engineer or geologist gave such certification despite his or her actual knowledge that the performed measures were not in compliance with applicable statutory or regulatory requirements or any plan submitted to the Agency.

(c) The Agency's issuance of a no further remediation letter shall signify, based on the certification of the Licensed Professional Engineer, that:

(1) all statutory and regulatory corrective action requirements applicable to the occurrence have been complied with;

(2) all corrective action concerning the remediation of the occurrence has been completed; and

(3) no further corrective action concerning the occurrence is necessary for the protection of human health, safety and the environment.

(d) The no further remediation letter issued under this Section shall apply in favor of the following parties:

(1) The owner or operator to whom the letter was issued.

(2) Any parent corporation or subsidiary of such owner or operator.

(3) Any co-owner or co-operator, either by joint tenancy, right-of-survivorship, or any other party sharing a legal relationship with the owner or operator to whom the letter is issued.

(4) Any holder of a beneficial interest of a land trust or inter vivos trust whether revocable or irrevocable.

(5) Any mortgagee or trustee of a deed of trust of such owner or operator.

(6) Any successor-in-interest of such owner or operator.

(7) Any transferee of such owner or operator whether the transfer was by sale, bankruptcy proceeding, partition, dissolution of marriage, settlement or adjudication of any civil action, charitable gift, or bequest.

(8) Any heir or devisee or such owner or operator.

(e) If the Agency notifies the owner or operator that the "no further remediation" letter has been rejected, the grounds for such rejection shall be described in the notice. Such a decision shall be a final determination which may be appealed by the owner or operator.

(f) The Board shall adopt rules setting forth the criteria under which the Agency may require an owner or operator to conduct further investigation or remediation related to a release for which a no further remediation letter has been issued.

(g) Holders of security interests in sites subject to the requirements of this Title XVI shall be entitled to the same protections and subject to the same responsibilities provided under general regulations promulgated under Subtitle I of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (P.L. 98-616) of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580).

(Source: P.A. 92-554, eff. 6-24-02; 92-735, eff. 7-25-02; revised 9-25-03.)

(415 ILCS 5/58.7)

Sec. 58.7. Review and approvals.

(a) Requirements. All plans and reports that are submitted pursuant to this Title shall be submitted for review or approval in accordance with this Section.

(b) Review and evaluation by the Agency.

(1) Except for sites excluded under subdivision (a) (2) of Section 58.1, the Agency shall, subject to available resources, agree to provide review and evaluation services for activities carried out pursuant to this Title for which the RA requested the services in writing. As a condition for providing such services, the Agency may require that the RA for a site:

(A) Conform with the procedures of this Title;

(B) Allow for or otherwise arrange site visits or other site evaluation by the Agency when so requested;

(C) Agree to perform the Remedial Action Plan as approved under this Title;

(D) Agree to pay any reasonable costs incurred and documented by the Agency in providing such services;

(E) Make an advance partial payment to the Agency for such anticipated services in an amount, acceptable to the Agency, but not to exceed $5,000 or one-half of the total anticipated costs of the Agency, whichever sum is less; and

(F) Demonstrate, if necessary, authority to act on behalf of or in lieu of the owner or operator.

(2) Any moneys received by the State for costs incurred by the Agency in performing review or evaluation services for actions conducted pursuant to this Title shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund.

(3) An RA requesting services under subdivision (b) (1) of this Section may, at any time, notify the Agency, in writing, that Agency services previously requested are no longer wanted. Within 180 days after receipt of the notice, the Agency shall provide the RA with a final invoice for services provided until the date of such notifications.

(4) The Agency may invoice or otherwise request or demand payment from a RA for costs incurred by the Agency in performing review or evaluation services for actions by the RA at sites only if:

(A) The Agency has incurred costs in performing response actions, other than review or evaluation services, due to the failure of the RA to take response action in accordance with a notice issued pursuant to this Act;

(B) The RA has agreed in writing to the payment of such costs;

(C) The RA has been ordered to pay such costs by the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction pursuant to this Act; or

(D) The RA has requested or has consented to Agency review or evaluation services under subdivision (b)

(1) of this Section.

(5) The Agency may, subject to available resources, agree to provide review and evaluation services for response actions if there is a written agreement among parties to a legal action or if a notice to perform a response action has been issued by the Agency.

(c) Review and evaluation by a Licensed Professional Engineer or Licensed Professional Geologist. A RA may elect to contract with a Licensed Professional Engineer or, in the case of a site investigation report only, a Licensed Professional Geologist, who will perform review and evaluation services on behalf of and under the direction of the Agency relative to the site activities.

(1) Prior to entering into the contract with the RELPEG, the RA shall notify the Agency of the RELPEG to be selected. The Agency and the RA shall discuss the potential terms of the contract.

(2) At a minimum, the contract with the RELPEG shall provide that the RELPEG will submit any reports directly to the Agency, will take his or her directions for work assignments from the Agency, and will perform the assigned work on behalf of the Agency.

(3) Reasonable costs incurred by the Agency shall be paid by the RA directly to the Agency in accordance with the terms of the review and evaluation services agreement entered into under subdivision (b) (1) of Section 58.7.

(4) In no event shall the RELPEG acting on behalf of the Agency be an employee of the RA or the owner or operator of the site or be an employee of any other person the RA has contracted to provide services relative to the site.

(d) Review and approval. All reviews required under this Title shall be carried out by the Agency or a RELPEG, both under the direction of a Licensed Professional Engineer or, in the case of the review of a site investigation only, a Licensed Professional Geologist.

(1) All review activities conducted by the Agency or a RELPEG shall be carried out in conformance with this Title and rules promulgated under Section 58.11.

(2) Subject to the limitations in subsection (c) and this subsection (d), the specific plans, reports, and activities that the Agency or a RELPEG may review include:

(A) Site Investigation Reports and related activities;

(B) Remediation Objectives Reports;

(C) Remedial Action Plans and related activities; and

(D) Remedial Action Completion Reports and related activities.

(3) Only the Agency shall have the authority to approve, disapprove, or approve with conditions a plan or report as a result of the review process including those plans and reports reviewed by a RELPEG. If the Agency disapproves a plan or report or approves a plan or report with conditions, the written notification required by subdivision (d) (4) of this Section shall contain the following information, as applicable:

(A) An explanation of the Sections of this Title that may be violated if the plan or report was approved;

(B) An explanation of the provisions of the rules promulgated under this Title that may be violated if the plan or report was approved;

(C) An explanation of the specific type of information, if any, that the Agency deems the applicant did not provide the Agency;

(D) A statement of specific reasons why the Title and regulations might not be met if the plan or report were approved; and

(E) An explanation of the reasons for conditions if conditions are required.

(4) Upon approving, disapproving, or approving with conditions a plan or report, the Agency shall notify the RA in writing of its decision. In the case of approval or approval with conditions of a Remedial Action Completion Report, the Agency shall prepare a No Further Remediation Letter that meets the requirements of Section 58.10 and send a copy of the letter to the RA.

(5) All reviews undertaken by the Agency or a RELPEG shall be completed and the decisions communicated to the RA within 60 days of the request for review or approval. The RA may waive the deadline upon a request from the Agency. If the Agency disapproves or approves with conditions a plan or report or fails to issue a final decision within the 60 day period and the RA has not agreed to a waiver of the deadline, the RA may, within 35 days, file an appeal to the Board. Appeals to the Board shall be in the manner provided for the review of permit decisions in Section 40 of this Act.

(e) Standard of review. In making determinations, the following factors, and additional factors as may be adopted by the Board in accordance with Section 58.11, shall be considered by the Agency when reviewing or approving plans, reports, and related activities, or the RELPEG, when reviewing plans, reports, and related activities:

(1) Site Investigation Reports and related activities: Whether investigations have been conducted and the results compiled in accordance with the appropriate procedures and whether the interpretations and conclusions reached are supported by the information gathered. In making the determination, the following factors shall be considered:

(A) The adequacy of the description of the site and site characteristics that were used to evaluate the site;

(B) The adequacy of the investigation of potential pathways and risks to receptors identified at the site; and

(C) The appropriateness of the sampling and analysis used.

(2) Remediation Objectives Reports: Whether the remediation objectives are consistent with the requirements of the applicable method for selecting or determining remediation objectives under Section 58.5. In making the determination, the following factors shall be considered:

(A) If the objectives were based on the determination of area background levels under subsection (b) of Section 58.5, whether the review of current and historic conditions at or in the immediate vicinity of the site has been thorough and whether the site sampling and analysis has been performed in a manner resulting in accurate determinations;

(B) If the objectives were calculated on the basis of predetermined equations using site specific data, whether the calculations were accurately performed and whether the site specific data reflect actual site conditions; and

(C) If the objectives were determined using a site specific risk assessment procedure, whether the procedure used is nationally recognized and accepted, whether the calculations were accurately performed, and whether the site specific data reflect actual site conditions.

(3) Remedial Action Plans and related activities: Whether the plan will result in compliance with this Title, and rules adopted under it and attainment of the applicable remediation objectives. In making the determination, the following factors shall be considered:

(A) The likelihood that the plan will result in the attainment of the applicable remediation objectives;

(B) Whether the activities proposed are consistent with generally accepted engineering practices; and

(C) The management of risk relative to any remaining contamination, including but not limited to, provisions for the long-term enforcement, operation, and maintenance of institutional and engineering controls, if relied on.

(4) Remedial Action Completion Reports and related activities: Whether the remedial activities have been completed in accordance with the approved Remedial Action Plan and whether the applicable remediation objectives have been attained.

(f) All plans and reports submitted for review shall include a Licensed Professional Engineer's certification that all investigations and remedial activities were carried out under his or her direction and, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, the work described in the plan or report has been completed in accordance with generally accepted engineering practices, and the information presented is accurate and complete. In the case of a site investigation report prepared or supervised by a Licensed Professional Geologist, the required certification may be made by the Licensed Professional Geologist (rather than a Licensed Professional Engineer) and based upon generally accepted principles of professional geology.

(g) In accordance with Section 58.11, the Agency shall propose and the Board shall adopt rules to carry out the purposes of this Section. At a minimum, the rules shall detail the types of services the Agency may provide in response to requests under subdivision (b) (1) of this Section and the recordkeeping it will utilize in documenting to the RA the costs incurred by the Agency in providing such services.

(h) Public participation.

(1) The Agency shall develop guidance to assist RA's in the implementation of a community relations plan to address activity at sites undergoing remedial action pursuant to this Title.

(2) The RA may elect to enter into a services agreement with the Agency for Agency assistance in community outreach efforts.

(3) The Agency shall maintain a registry listing those sites undergoing remedial action pursuant to this Title.

(4) Notwithstanding any provisions of this Section, the RA of a site undergoing remedial activity pursuant to this Title may elect to initiate a community outreach effort for the site.

(Source: P.A. 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; 92-735, eff. 7-25-02; revised 9-9-02.)

Section 425. The Gasoline Storage Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(430 ILCS 15/2) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 154)

Sec. 2. Jurisdiction; regulation of tanks.

(1) (a) Except as otherwise provided in this Act, the jurisdiction of the Office of the State Fire Marshal under this Act shall be concurrent with that of municipalities and other political subdivisions. The Office of the State Fire Marshal has power to promulgate, pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, reasonable rules and regulations governing the keeping, storage, transportation, sale or use of gasoline and volatile oils. Nothing in this Act shall relieve any person, corporation, or other entity from complying with any zoning ordinance of a municipality or home rule unit enacted pursuant to Section 11-13-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code or any ordinance enacted pursuant to Section 11-8-4 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(b) The rulemaking power shall include the power to promulgate rules providing for the issuance and revocation of permits allowing the self service dispensing of motor fuels as such term is defined in the Motor Fuel Tax Law in retail service stations or any other place of business where motor fuels are dispensed into the fuel tanks of motor vehicles, internal combustion engines or portable containers. Such rules shall specify the requirements that must be met both prior and subsequent to the issuance of such permits in order to insure the safety and welfare of the general public. The operation of such service stations without a permit shall be unlawful. The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall revoke such permit if the self service operation of such a service station is found to pose a significant risk to the safety and welfare of the general public.

(c) However, except in any county with a population of 1,000,000 or more, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall not have the authority to prohibit the operation of a service station solely on the basis that it is an unattended self-service station which utilizes key or card operated self-service motor fuel dispensing devices. Nothing in this paragraph shall prohibit the Office of the State Fire Marshal from adopting reasonable rules and regulations governing the safety of self-service motor fuel dispensing devices.

(d) The State Fire Marshal shall not prohibit the dispensing or delivery of flammable or combustible motor vehicle fuels directly into the fuel tanks of vehicles from tank trucks, tank wagons, or other portable tanks. The State Fire Marshal shall adopt rules (i) for the issuance of permits for the dispensing of motor vehicle fuels in the manner described in this paragraph (d), (ii) that establish fees for permits and inspections, and provide for those fees to be deposited into the Fire Prevention Fund, (iii) that require the dispensing of motor fuel in the manner described in this paragraph (d) to meet conditions consistent with nationally recognized standards such as those of the National Fire Protection Association, and (iv) that restrict the dispensing of motor vehicle fuels in the manner described in this paragraph (d) to the following:

(A) agriculture sites for agricultural purposes,

(B) construction sites for refueling construction equipment used at the construction site,

(C) sites used for the parking, operation, or maintenance of a commercial vehicle fleet, but only if the site is located in a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants or a county contiguous to a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and the site is not normally accessible to the public, and

(D) sites used for the refueling of police, fire, or emergency medical services vehicles or other vehicles that are owned, leased, or operated by (or operated under contract with) the State, a unit of local government, or a school district, or any agency of the State and that are not normally accessible to the public.

(2) (a) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall adopt rules and regulations regarding underground storage tanks and associated piping and no municipality or other political subdivision shall adopt or enforce any ordinances or regulations regarding such underground tanks and piping other than those which are identical to the rules and regulations of the Office of the State Fire Marshal. It is declared to be the law of this State, pursuant to paragraphs (h) and (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, that the establishment and enforcement of standards regarding underground storage tanks and associated piping within the jurisdiction of the Office of the State Fire Marshal is an exclusive State function which may not be exercised concurrently by a home rule unit except as expressly permitted in this Act.

(b) The Office of the State Fire Marshal may enter into written contracts with municipalities of over 500,000 in population to enforce the rules and regulations adopted under this subsection.

(3) (a) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall have authority over underground storage tanks which contain, have contained, or are designed to contain petroleum, hazardous substances and regulated substances as those terms are used in Subtitle I of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (P.L. 98-616), as amended by the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (P.L. 99-499). The Office shall have the power with regard to underground storage tanks to require any person who tests, installs, repairs, replaces, relines, or removes any underground storage tank system containing, formerly containing, or which is designed to contain petroleum or other regulated substances, to obtain a permit to install, repair, replace, reline, or remove the particular tank system, and to pay a fee set by the Office for a permit to install, repair, replace, reline, upgrade, test, or remove any portion of an underground storage tank system. All persons who do repairs above grade level for themselves need not pay a fee or be certified. All fees received by the Office from certification and permits shall be deposited in the Fire Prevention Fund for the exclusive use of the Office in administering the Underground Storage Tank program.

(b) (i) Within 120 days after the promulgation of regulations or amendments thereto by the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency to implement Section 9003 of Subtitle I of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (P.L. 98-616) of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580 95-580), as amended, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall adopt regulations or amendments thereto which are identical in substance. The rulemaking provisions of Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act shall not apply to regulations or amendments thereto adopted pursuant to this subparagraph (i).

(ii) The Office of the State Fire Marshal may adopt additional regulations relating to an underground storage tank program that are not inconsistent with and at least as stringent as Section 9003 of Subtitle I of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (P.L. 98-616) of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580), as amended, or regulations adopted thereunder. Except as provided otherwise in subparagraph (i) of this paragraph (b), the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall not adopt regulations relating to corrective action at underground storage tanks. Regulations adopted pursuant to this subsection shall be adopted in accordance with the procedures for rulemaking in Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(c) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall require any person, corporation or other entity who tests an underground tank or its piping or cathodic protection for another to report the results of such test to the Office.

(d) In accordance with constitutional limitations, the Office shall have authority to enter at all reasonable times upon any private or public property for the purpose of:

(i) Inspecting and investigating to ascertain possible violations of this Act, of regulations thereunder or of permits or terms or conditions thereof; or

(ii) In accordance with the provisions of this Act, taking whatever emergency action, that is necessary or appropriate, to assure that the public health or safety is not threatened whenever there is a release or a substantial threat of a release of petroleum or a regulated substance from an underground storage tank.

(e) The Office of the State Fire Marshal may issue an Administrative Order to any person who it reasonably believes has violated the rules and regulations governing underground storage tanks, including the installation, repair, leak detection, cathodic protection tank testing, removal or release notification. Such an order shall be served by registered or certified mail or in person. Any person served with such an order may appeal such order by submitting in writing any such appeal to the Office within 10 days of the date of receipt of such order. The Office shall conduct an administrative hearing governed by the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and enter an order to sustain, modify or revoke such order. Any appeal from such order shall be to the circuit court of the county in which the violation took place and shall be governed by the Administrative Review Law.

(f) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall not require the removal of an underground tank system taken out of operation before January 2, 1974, except in the case in which the office of the State Fire Marshal has determined that a release from the underground tank system poses a current or potential threat to human health and the environment. In that case, and upon receipt of an Order from the Office of the State Fire Marshal, the owner or operator of the nonoperational underground tank system shall assess the excavation zone and close the system in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

(4) (a) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall adopt rules and regulations regarding aboveground storage tanks and associated piping and no municipality or other political subdivision shall adopt or enforce any ordinances or regulations regarding such aboveground tanks and piping other than those which are identical to the rules and regulations of the Office of the State Fire Marshal unless, in the interest of fire safety, the Office of the State Fire Marshal delegates such authority to municipalities, political subdivisions or home rule units. It is declared to be the law of this State, pursuant to paragraphs (h) and (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, that the establishment of standards regarding aboveground storage tanks and associated piping within the jurisdiction of the Office of the State Fire Marshal is an exclusive State function which may not be exercised concurrently by a home rule unit except as expressly permitted in this Act.

(b) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall enforce its rules and regulations concerning aboveground storage tanks and associated piping; however, municipalities may enforce any of their zoning ordinances or zoning regulations regarding aboveground tanks. The Office of the State Fire Marshal may issue an administrative order to any owner of an aboveground storage tank and associated piping it reasonably believes to be in violation of such rules and regulations to remedy or remove any such violation. Such an order shall be served by registered or certified mail or in person. Any person served with such an order may appeal such order by submitting in writing any such appeal to the Office within 10 days of the date of receipt of such order. The Office shall conduct an administrative hearing governed by the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and enter an order to sustain, modify or revoke such order. Any appeal from such order shall be to the circuit court of the county in which the violation took place and shall be governed by the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 91-851, eff. 1-1-01; 92-618, eff. 7-11-02; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 430. The Animal Control Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(510 ILCS 5/10) (from Ch. 8, par. 360)

Sec. 10. Impoundment; redemption. When dogs or cats are apprehended and impounded by the Administrator, they must be scanned for the presence of a microchip. The Administrator shall make every reasonable attempt to contact the owner as soon as possible. The Administrator shall give notice of not less than 7 business days to the owner prior to disposal of the animal. Such notice shall be mailed to the last known address of the owner. Testimony of the Administrator, or his or her authorized agent, who mails such notice shall be evidence of the receipt of such notice by the owner of the animal.

In case the owner of any impounded dog or cat desires to make redemption thereof, he or she may do so by doing on the following conditions:

a. presenting present proof of current rabies inoculation, and registration, if applicable; , or

b. paying pay for the rabies inoculation of the dog or cat, and registration, if applicable; , and

c. paying pay the pound for the board of the dog or cat for the period it was impounded; ,

d. paying pay into the Animal Control Fund an additional impoundment fee as prescribed by the Board as a penalty for the first offense and for each subsequent offense; and

e. paying pay for microchipping and registration if not already done.

Animal control facilities that are open to the public 7 days per week for animal reclamation are exempt from the business day requirement.

The payments required for redemption under this Section shall be in addition to any other penalties invoked under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-548, eff. 8-19-03; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 435. The Humane Care for Animals Act is amended by changing Section 4.01 as follows:

(510 ILCS 70/4.01) (from Ch. 8, par. 704.01)

Sec. 4.01. Animals in entertainment. This Section does not apply when the only animals involved are dogs. (Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961, rather than this Section, applies when the only animals involved are dogs.)

(a) No person may own, capture, breed, train, or lease any animal which he or she knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between such animal and any other animal or human, or the intentional killing of any animal for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(b) No person shall promote, conduct, carry on, advertise, collect money for or in any other manner assist or aid in the presentation for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment, any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more animals or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal.

(c) No person shall sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move, or deliver or receive any animal which he or she knows or should know has been captured, bred, or trained, or will be used, to fight another animal or human or be intentionally killed, for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(d) No person shall manufacture for sale, shipment, transportation or delivery any device or equipment which that person knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any human and animal, or the intentional killing of any animal for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(e) No person shall own, possess, sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move any equipment or device which such person knows or should know is intended for use in connection with any show, exhibition, program, or activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(f) No person shall make available any site, structure, or facility, whether enclosed or not, which he or she knows or should know is intended to be used for the purpose of conducting any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal.

(g) No person shall attend or otherwise patronize any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal for the purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(h) (Blank).

(i) Any animals or equipment involved in a violation of this Section shall be immediately seized and impounded under Section 12 by the Department when located at any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving an animal fight for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(j) Any vehicle or conveyance other than a common carrier that is used in violation of this Section shall be seized, held, and offered for sale at public auction by the sheriff's department of the proper jurisdiction, and the proceeds from the sale shall be remitted to the general fund of the county where the violation took place.

(k) Any veterinarian in this State who is presented with an animal for treatment of injuries or wounds resulting from fighting where there is a reasonable possibility that the animal was engaged in or utilized for a fighting event for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment shall file a report with the Department and cooperate by furnishing the owners' names, dates, and descriptions of the animal or animals involved. Any veterinarian who in good faith complies with the requirements of this subsection has immunity from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, that may result from his or her actions. For the purposes of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of the veterinarian shall be rebuttably presumed.

(l) No person shall solicit a minor to violate this Section.

(m) The penalties for violations of this Section shall be as follows:

(1) A person convicted of violating subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense. A second or subsequent offense involving the violation of subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is a Class 4 felony.

(2) A person convicted of violating subsection (d), (e), or (f) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(3) A person convicted of violating subsection (g) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor.

(4) A person convicted of violating subsection (l) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 92-425, eff. 1-1-02; 92-454, eff. 1-1-02; 92-650, eff. 7-11-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 11-21-02.)

Section 440. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Section 2.25 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.25) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.25)

Sec. 2.25. It shall be unlawful for any person to take deer except (i) with a shotgun, handgun, or muzzleloading rifle or (ii) as provided by administrative rule, with a bow and arrow, or crossbow device for handicapped persons as defined in Section 2.33, during the open season of not more than 14 days which will be set annually by the Director between the dates of November 1st and December 31st, both inclusive. For the purposes of this Section, legal handguns include any centerfire handguns of .30 caliber or larger with a minimum barrel length of 4 inches. The only legal ammunition for a centerfire handgun is a cartridge of .30 caliber or larger with a capability of at least 500 foot pounds of energy at the muzzle. Full metal jacket bullets may not be used to harvest deer.

The Department shall make administrative rules concerning management restrictions applicable to the firearm and bow and arrow season.

It shall be unlawful for any person to take deer except with a bow and arrow, or crossbow device for handicapped persons (as defined in Section 2.33), during the open season for bow and arrow set annually by the Director between the dates of September 1st and January 31st, both inclusive.

It shall be unlawful for any person to take deer except with (i) a muzzleloading rifle, or (ii) bow and arrow, or crossbow device for handicapped persons as defined in Section 2.33, during the open season for muzzleloading rifles set annually by the Director.

The Director shall cause an administrative rule setting forth the prescribed rules and regulations, including bag and possession limits and those counties of the State where open seasons are established, to be published in accordance with Sections 1.3 and 1.13 of this Act.

The Department may establish separate harvest periods for the purpose of managing or eradicating disease that has been found in the deer herd. This season shall be restricted to gun or bow and arrow hunting only. The Department shall publicly announce, via statewide news release, the season dates and shooting hours, the counties and sites open to hunting, permit requirements, application dates, hunting rules, legal weapons, and reporting requirements.

The Department is authorized to establish a separate harvest period at specific sites within the State for the purpose of harvesting surplus deer that cannot be taken during the regular season provided for the taking of deer. This season shall be restricted to gun or bow and arrow hunting only and shall be established during the period of September 1st to February 15th, both inclusive. The Department shall publish suitable prescribed rules and regulations established by administrative rule pertaining to management restrictions applicable to this special harvest program.

(Source: P.A. 93-37, eff. 6-25-03; 93-554, eff. 8-20-03; revised 9-15-03.)

Section 445. The Illinois Open Land Trust Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(525 ILCS 33/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Conservation and recreation purposes" means activities that are consistent with the protection and preservation of open lands, natural areas, wetlands, prairies, forests, watersheds, resource-rich areas, greenways, and fish and wildlife habitats, including multiple use such as hunting, fishing, trapping, and other recreational uses.

"Conservation easement" means a nonpossessory interest in real property imposing limitations or affirmative obligations the purposes of which include retaining or protecting natural, scenic, or open-space values of real property, assuring its availability for forest, recreational, or open-space use, protecting natural resources, maintaining or enhancing air or water quality, or preserving the natural, historical, architectural, archaeological archacological, or cultural aspects of real property. A conservation easement may be released at any time by mutual consent of the parties.

"Department" means the Department of Natural Resources.

"Natural area" means an area of land that either retains or has recovered to a substantial degree its original natural or primeval character, though it need not be completely undisturbed, or has floral, faunal, ecological, geological, or archaeological features of scientific, educational, scenic, or esthetic interest.

"Open space" means those undeveloped or minimally developed lands that conserve and protect valuable natural features or processes.

"Real property" means land, including improvements existing on the land.

"Units of local government" means counties, townships, municipalities, park districts, conservation districts, forest preserve districts, river conservancy districts, and any other units of local government empowered to expend public funds for the acquisition and development of land for public outdoor park, recreation, or conservation purposes.

(Source: P.A. 91-220, eff. 7-21-99; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 450. The Illinois Highway Code is amended by changing Sections 5-701.2, 6-201.7, and 6-201.21 as follows:

(605 ILCS 5/5-701.2) (from Ch. 121, par. 5-701.2)

Sec. 5-701.2. Any county board, with the approval of the Department, may also use motor fuel tax money allotted to it for construction of State highways within the county.

(Source: Laws 1959, p. 196; revised 1-21-04.)

(605 ILCS 5/6-201.7) (from Ch. 121, par. 6-201.7)

Sec. 6-201.7. Construct, maintain and repair and be responsible for the construction, maintenance and repair of roads within the district, let contracts, employ labor and purchase material and machinery therefor, subject to the limitations provided in this Code. Contracts, labor, machinery, disposal, and incidental expenses related to special services under Section 6-201.21 of this Code constitute maintenance, for purposes of this Section.

Except for professional services, when the cost of construction, materials, supplies, new machinery or equipment exceeds $10,000, the contract for such construction, materials, supplies, machinery or equipment shall be let to the lowest responsible bidder after advertising for bids at least once, and at least 10 days prior to the time set for the opening of such bids, in a newspaper published within the township or road district, or, if no newspaper is published within the township or road district then in one published within the county, or, if no newspaper is published within the county then in a newspaper having general circulation within the township or road district, but, in case of an emergency, such contract may be let without advertising for bids. For purposes of this Section "new machinery or equipment" shall be defined as that which has been previously untitled or that which shows fewer than 200 hours on its operating clock and that is accompanied by a new equipment manufacturer's warranty.

(Source: P.A. 92-268, eff. 1-1-02; 93-109, eff. 7-8-03; 93-164, eff. 7-10-03; 93-610, eff. 11-18-03; revised 12-4-03.)

(605 ILCS 5/6-201.21)

Sec. 6-201.21. Special services; disaster relief. Subject to Section 30-117 of the Township Code, the highway commissioner has authority to provide for orderly collection and disposal of brush and leaves that have been properly placed for collection along the road district rights-of-way in accordance with local guidelines in those townships or counties that regulate by ordinance open burning of brush or leaves. Further, the highway commissioner has authority to provide necessary relief services following the occurrence of an event that has been declared a disaster by State or local officials. The highway commissioner has purchasing authority, subject to Section 6-201.6, and contractual authority as defined in of Section 6-201.7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-109, eff. 7-8-03; 93-610, eff. 11-18-03; revised 12-4-03.)

Section 455. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 2-123, 3-412, 3-413, 3-621, 3-622, 3-625, 3-803, 3-815.1, 6-411, 6-500, 6-508, 11-501, 11-605, 11-1201, 11-1414, 15-111, and 18b-105 and setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 3-648, 3-653, and 3-654 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/2-123) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-123)

Sec. 2-123. Sale and Distribution of Information.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the Secretary may make the driver's license, vehicle and title registration lists, in part or in whole, and any statistical information derived from these lists available to local governments, elected state officials, state educational institutions, and all other governmental units of the State and Federal Government requesting them for governmental purposes. The Secretary shall require any such applicant for services to pay for the costs of furnishing such services and the use of the equipment involved, and in addition is empowered to establish prices and charges for the services so furnished and for the use of the electronic equipment utilized.

(b) The Secretary is further empowered to and he may, in his discretion, furnish to any applicant, other than listed in subsection (a) of this Section, vehicle or driver data on a computer tape, disk, other electronic format or computer processable medium, or printout at a fixed fee of $250 for orders received before October 1, 2003 and $500 for orders received on or after October 1, 2003, in advance, and require in addition a further sufficient deposit based upon the Secretary of State's estimate of the total cost of the information requested and a charge of $25 for orders received before October 1, 2003 and $50 for orders received on or after October 1, 2003, per 1,000 units or part thereof identified or the actual cost, whichever is greater. The Secretary is authorized to refund any difference between the additional deposit and the actual cost of the request. This service shall not be in lieu of an abstract of a driver's record nor of a title or registration search. This service may be limited to entities purchasing a minimum number of records as required by administrative rule. The information sold pursuant to this subsection shall be the entire vehicle or driver data list, or part thereof. The information sold pursuant to this subsection shall not contain personally identifying information unless the information is to be used for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section. Commercial purchasers of driver and vehicle record databases shall enter into a written agreement with the Secretary of State that includes disclosure of the commercial use of the information to be purchased.

(c) Secretary of State may issue registration lists. The Secretary of State shall compile and publish, at least annually, a list of all registered vehicles. Each list of registered vehicles shall be arranged serially according to the registration numbers assigned to registered vehicles and shall contain in addition the names and addresses of registered owners and a brief description of each vehicle including the serial or other identifying number thereof. Such compilation may be in such form as in the discretion of the Secretary of State may seem best for the purposes intended.

(d) The Secretary of State shall furnish no more than 2 current available lists of such registrations to the sheriffs of all counties and to the chiefs of police of all cities and villages and towns of 2,000 population and over in this State at no cost. Additional copies may be purchased by the sheriffs or chiefs of police at the fee of $500 each or at the cost of producing the list as determined by the Secretary of State. Such lists are to be used for governmental purposes only.

(e) (Blank).

(e-1) (Blank).

(f) The Secretary of State shall make a title or registration search of the records of his office and a written report on the same for any person, upon written application of such person, accompanied by a fee of $5 for each registration or title search. The written application shall set forth the intended use of the requested information. No fee shall be charged for a title or registration search, or for the certification thereof requested by a government agency. The report of the title or registration search shall not contain personally identifying information unless the request for a search was made for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

The Secretary of State shall certify a title or registration record upon written request. The fee for certification shall be $5 in addition to the fee required for a title or registration search. Certification shall be made under the signature of the Secretary of State and shall be authenticated by Seal of the Secretary of State.

The Secretary of State may notify the vehicle owner or registrant of the request for purchase of his title or registration information as the Secretary deems appropriate.

No information shall be released to the requestor until expiration of a 10 day period. This 10 day period shall not apply to requests for information made by law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004, who are employed by or are acting on behalf of law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, and other business entities for purposes consistent with the Illinois Vehicle Code, the vehicle owner or registrant or other entities as the Secretary may exempt by rule and regulation.

Any misrepresentation made by a requestor of title or vehicle information shall be punishable as a petty offense, except in the case of persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency which shall be subject to disciplinary sanctions under Section 40-10 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

(f-5) The Secretary of State shall not disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any personally identifying information obtained by the Secretary of State in connection with a driver's license, vehicle, or title registration record unless the information is disclosed for one of the following purposes:

(1) For use by any government agency, including any court or law enforcement agency, in carrying out its functions, or any private person or entity acting on behalf of a federal, State, or local agency in carrying out its functions.

(2) For use in connection with matters of motor vehicle or driver safety and theft; motor vehicle emissions; motor vehicle product alterations, recalls, or advisories; performance monitoring of motor vehicles, motor vehicle parts, and dealers; and removal of non-owner records from the original owner records of motor vehicle manufacturers.

(3) For use in the normal course of business by a legitimate business or its agents, employees, or contractors, but only:

(A) to verify the accuracy of personal information submitted by an individual to the business or its agents, employees, or contractors; and

(B) if such information as so submitted is not correct or is no longer correct, to obtain the correct information, but only for the purposes of preventing fraud by, pursuing legal remedies against, or recovering on a debt or security interest against, the individual.

(4) For use in research activities and for use in producing statistical reports, if the personally identifying information is not published, redisclosed, or used to contact individuals.

(5) For use in connection with any civil, criminal, administrative, or arbitral proceeding in any federal, State, or local court or agency or before any self-regulatory body, including the service of process, investigation in anticipation of litigation, and the execution or enforcement of judgments and orders, or pursuant to an order of a federal, State, or local court.

(6) For use by any insurer or insurance support organization or by a self-insured entity or its agents, employees, or contractors in connection with claims investigation activities, antifraud activities, rating, or underwriting.

(7) For use in providing notice to the owners of towed or impounded vehicles.

(8) For use by any private investigative agency or security service licensed in Illinois for any purpose permitted under this subsection.

(9) For use by an employer or its agent or insurer to obtain or verify information relating to a holder of a commercial driver's license that is required under chapter 313 of title 49 of the United States Code.

(10) For use in connection with the operation of private toll transportation facilities.

(11) For use by any requester, if the requester demonstrates it has obtained the written consent of the individual to whom the information pertains.

(12) For use by members of the news media, as defined in Section 1-148.5, for the purpose of newsgathering when the request relates to the operation of a motor vehicle or public safety.

(13) For any other use specifically authorized by law, if that use is related to the operation of a motor vehicle or public safety.

(g) 1. The Secretary of State may, upon receipt of a written request and a fee of $6 before October 1, 2003 and a fee of $12 on and after October 1, 2003, furnish to the person or agency so requesting a driver's record. Such document may include a record of: current driver's license issuance information, except that the information on judicial driving permits shall be available only as otherwise provided by this Code; convictions; orders entered revoking, suspending or cancelling a driver's license or privilege; and notations of accident involvement. All other information, unless otherwise permitted by this Code, shall remain confidential. Information released pursuant to a request for a driver's record shall not contain personally identifying information, unless the request for the driver's record was made for one of the purposes set forth in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

2. The Secretary of State may certify an abstract of a driver's record upon written request therefor. Such certification shall be made under the signature of the Secretary of State and shall be authenticated by the Seal of his office.

3. All requests for driving record information shall be made in a manner prescribed by the Secretary and shall set forth the intended use of the requested information.

The Secretary of State may notify the affected driver of the request for purchase of his driver's record as the Secretary deems appropriate.

No information shall be released to the requester until expiration of a 10 day period. This 10 day period shall not apply to requests for information made by law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004, who are employed by or are acting on behalf of law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, and other business entities for purposes consistent with the Illinois Vehicle Code, the affected driver or other entities as the Secretary may exempt by rule and regulation.

Any misrepresentation made by a requestor of driver information shall be punishable as a petty offense, except in the case of persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency which shall be subject to disciplinary sanctions under Section 40-10 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

4. The Secretary of State may furnish without fee, upon the written request of a law enforcement agency, any information from a driver's record on file with the Secretary of State when such information is required in the enforcement of this Code or any other law relating to the operation of motor vehicles, including records of dispositions; documented information involving the use of a motor vehicle; whether such individual has, or previously had, a driver's license; and the address and personal description as reflected on said driver's record.

5. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the Secretary of State may furnish, without fee, information from an individual driver's record on file, if a written request therefor is submitted by any public transit system or authority, public defender, law enforcement agency, a state or federal agency, or an Illinois local intergovernmental association, if the request is for the purpose of a background check of applicants for employment with the requesting agency, or for the purpose of an official investigation conducted by the agency, or to determine a current address for the driver so public funds can be recovered or paid to the driver, or for any other purpose set forth in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

The Secretary may also furnish the courts a copy of an abstract of a driver's record, without fee, subsequent to an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance. Such abstract may include records of dispositions; documented information involving the use of a motor vehicle as contained in the current file; whether such individual has, or previously had, a driver's license; and the address and personal description as reflected on said driver's record.

6. Any certified abstract issued by the Secretary of State or transmitted electronically by the Secretary of State pursuant to this Section, to a court or on request of a law enforcement agency, for the record of a named person as to the status of the person's driver's license shall be prima facie evidence of the facts therein stated and if the name appearing in such abstract is the same as that of a person named in an information or warrant, such abstract shall be prima facie evidence that the person named in such information or warrant is the same person as the person named in such abstract and shall be admissible for any prosecution under this Code and be admitted as proof of any prior conviction or proof of records, notices, or orders recorded on individual driving records maintained by the Secretary of State.

7. Subject to any restrictions contained in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and upon receipt of a proper request and a fee of $6 before October 1, 2003 and a fee of $12 on or after October 1, 2003, the Secretary of State shall provide a driver's record to the affected driver, or the affected driver's attorney, upon verification. Such record shall contain all the information referred to in paragraph 1 of this subsection (g) plus: any recorded accident involvement as a driver; information recorded pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-117 and paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 6-204 of this Code. All other information, unless otherwise permitted by this Code, shall remain confidential.

(h) The Secretary shall not disclose social security numbers except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual except: (1) to officers and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know the social security numbers in performance of their official duties, (2) to law enforcement officials for a lawful, civil or criminal law enforcement investigation, and if the head of the law enforcement agency has made a written request to the Secretary specifying the law enforcement investigation for which the social security numbers are being sought, (3) to the United States Department of Transportation, or any other State, pursuant to the administration and enforcement of the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986, (4) pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction, or (5) to the Department of Public Aid for utilization in the child support enforcement duties assigned to that Department under provisions of the Public Aid Code after the individual has received advanced meaningful notification of what redisclosure is sought by the Secretary in accordance with the federal Privacy Act.

(i) (Blank).

(j) Medical statements or medical reports received in the Secretary of State's Office shall be confidential. No confidential information may be open to public inspection or the contents disclosed to anyone, except officers and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know the information contained in the medical reports and the Driver License Medical Advisory Board, unless so directed by an order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

(k) All fees collected under this Section shall be paid into the Road Fund of the State Treasury, except that (i) for fees collected before October 1, 2003, $3 of the $6 fee for a driver's record shall be paid into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund, (ii) for fees collected on and after October 1, 2003, of the $12 fee for a driver's record, $3 shall be paid into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund and $6 shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund, and (iii) for fees collected on and after October 1, 2003, 50% of the amounts collected pursuant to subsection (b) shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund.

(l) (Blank).

(m) Notations of accident involvement that may be disclosed under this Section shall not include notations relating to damage to a vehicle or other property being transported by a tow truck. This information shall remain confidential, provided that nothing in this subsection (m) shall limit disclosure of any notification of accident involvement to any law enforcement agency or official.

(n) Requests made by the news media for driver's license, vehicle, or title registration information may be furnished without charge or at a reduced charge, as determined by the Secretary, when the specific purpose for requesting the documents is deemed to be in the public interest. Waiver or reduction of the fee is in the public interest if the principal purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, and welfare or the legal rights of the general public and is not for the principal purpose of gaining a personal or commercial benefit. The information provided pursuant to this subsection shall not contain personally identifying information unless the information is to be used for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

(o) The redisclosure of personally identifying information obtained pursuant to this Section is prohibited, except to the extent necessary to effectuate the purpose for which the original disclosure of the information was permitted.

(p) The Secretary of State is empowered to adopt rules to effectuate this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-32, eff. 7-1-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-32, eff. 7-1-03; 93-438, eff. 8-5-03; revised 9-23-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-412) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-412)

Sec. 3-412. Registration plates and registration stickers to be furnished by the Secretary of State.

(a) The Secretary of State upon registering a vehicle subject to annual registration for the first time shall issue or shall cause to be issued to the owner one registration plate for a motorcycle, trailer, semitrailer, motorized pedalcycle or truck-tractor, 2 registration plates for other motor vehicles and, where applicable, current registration stickers for motor vehicles of the first division. The provisions of this Section may be made applicable to such vehicles of the second division, as the Secretary of State may, from time to time, in his discretion designate. On subsequent annual registrations during the term of the registration plate as provided in Section 3-414.1, the Secretary shall issue or cause to be issued registration stickers as evidence of current registration. However, the issuance of annual registration stickers to vehicles registered under the provisions of Sections 3-402.1 and 3-405.3 of this Code may not be required if the Secretary deems the issuance unnecessary.

(b) Every registration plate shall have displayed upon it the registration number assigned to the vehicle for which it is issued, the name of this State, which may be abbreviated, the year number for which it was issued, which may be abbreviated, the phrase "Land of Lincoln" (except as otherwise provided in this Code Chapter 3), and such other letters or numbers as the Secretary may prescribe. However, for apportionment plates issued to vehicles registered under Section 3-402.1 and fleet plates issued to vehicles registered under Section 3-405.3, the phrase "Land of Lincoln" may be omitted to allow for the word "apportioned", the word "fleet", or other similar language to be displayed. Registration plates issued to a vehicle registered as a fleet vehicle may display a designation determined by the Secretary.

The Secretary may in his discretion prescribe that letters be used as prefixes only on registration plates issued to vehicles of the first division which are registered under this Code and only as suffixes on registration plates issued to other vehicles. Every registration sticker issued as evidence of current registration shall designate the year number for which it is issued and such other letters or numbers as the Secretary may prescribe and shall be of a contrasting color with the registration plates and registration stickers of the previous year.

(c) Each registration plate and the required letters and numerals thereon, except the year number for which issued, shall be of sufficient size to be plainly readable from a distance of 100 feet during daylight, and shall be coated with reflectorizing material. The dimensions of the plate issued to vehicles of the first division shall be 6 by 12 inches.

(d) The Secretary of State shall issue for every passenger motor vehicle rented without a driver the same type of registration plates as the type of plates issued for a private passenger vehicle.

(e) The Secretary of State shall issue for every passenger car used as a taxicab or livery, distinctive registration plates.

(f) The Secretary of State shall issue for every motorcycle distinctive registration plates distinguishing between motorcycles having 150 or more cubic centimeters piston displacement, or having less than 150 cubic centimeter piston displacement.

(g) Registration plates issued to vehicles for-hire may display a designation as determined by the Secretary that such vehicles are for-hire.

(h) The Secretary of State shall issue for each electric vehicle distinctive registration plates which shall distinguish between electric vehicles having a maximum operating speed of 45 miles per hour or more and those having a maximum operating speed of less than 45 miles per hour.

(i) The Secretary of State shall issue for every public and private ambulance registration plates identifying the vehicle as an ambulance. The Secretary shall forward to the Department of Public Aid registration information for the purpose of verification of claims filed with the Department by ambulance owners for payment for services to public assistance recipients.

(j) The Secretary of State shall issue for every public and private medical carrier or rescue vehicle livery registration plates displaying numbers within ranges of numbers reserved respectively for medical carriers and rescue vehicles. The Secretary shall forward to the Department of Public Aid registration information for the purpose of verification of claims filed with the Department by owners of medical carriers or rescue vehicles for payment for services to public assistance recipients.

(Source: P.A. 92-629, eff. 7-1-03; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 9-27-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-413) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-413)

Sec. 3-413. Display of registration plates, registration stickers and drive-away permits.

(a) Registration plates issued for a motor vehicle other than a motorcycle, trailer, semitrailer, truck-tractor, apportioned bus, or apportioned truck shall be attached thereto, one in the front and one in the rear. The registration plate issued for a motorcycle, trailer or semitrailer required to be registered hereunder and any apportionment plate issued to a bus under the provisions of this Code shall be attached to the rear thereof. The registration plate issued for a truck-tractor or an apportioned truck required to be registered hereunder shall be attached to the front thereof.

(b) Every registration plate shall at all times be securely fastened in a horizontal position to the vehicle for which it is issued so as to prevent the plate from swinging and at a height of not less than 5 inches from the ground, measuring from the bottom of such plate, in a place and position to be clearly visible and shall be maintained in a condition to be clearly legible, free from any materials that would obstruct the visibility of the plate, including, but not limited to, glass covers and tinted plastic covers. Clear plastic covers are permissible as long as they remain clear and do not obstruct the visibility of the plates. Registration stickers issued as evidence of renewed annual registration shall be attached to registration plates as required by the Secretary of State, and be clearly visible at all times.

(c) Every drive-away permit issued pursuant to this Code shall be firmly attached to the motor vehicle in the manner prescribed by the Secretary of State. If a drive-away permit is affixed to a motor vehicle in any other manner the permit shall be void and of no effect.

(d) The Illinois prorate decal issued to a foreign registered vehicle part of a fleet prorated or apportioned with Illinois, shall be displayed on a registration plate and displayed on the front of such vehicle in the same manner as an Illinois registration plate.

(e) The registration plate issued for a camper body mounted on a truck displaying registration plates shall be attached to the rear of the camper body.

(f) No person shall operate a vehicle, nor permit the operation of a vehicle, upon which is displayed an Illinois registration plate, plates or registration stickers after the termination of the registration period for which issued or after the expiration date set pursuant to Sections 3-414 and 3-414.1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-668, eff. 1-1-03; 92-680, eff. 7-16-02; revised 10-2-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-621) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-621)

Sec. 3-621. The Secretary, upon receipt of an application, made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue to members of the Illinois National Guard, and to Illinois residents who are either former members of the Illinois National Guard or the surviving spouses of Illinois National Guard members, special registration plates. The special plates issued pursuant to this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds subject to the staggered registration system.

The design and color of such plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 92-545, eff. 6-12-02; 92-699, 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-622) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-622)

Sec. 3-622. The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue to members of the United States Armed Forces Reserves who reside in Illinois, and to Illinois residents who are either former members of the United States Armed Forces Reserves or the surviving spouses of United States Armed Forces Reserve members who resided in Illinois, special registration plates. The special plates issued pursuant to this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds subject to the staggered registration system. The design and color of such plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 92-545, eff. 6-12-02; 92-699, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-625) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-625)

Sec. 3-625. Pearl Harbor Plates. The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates to any Illinois resident who, while a member of the armed forces of the United States, participated in the battle of Pearl Harbor on December 7, 1941, or to the widowed spouse of any Illinois resident who, while a member of the armed forces of the United States, participated in the battle of Pearl Harbor on December 7, 1941, provided that the widowed spouse was married to the battle of Pearl Harbor participant at the time of the participant's death and is a single person at the time of application. The special plates issued pursuant to this Section should be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the 1st division, motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the 2nd division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

The design and color of such plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, and the appropriate registration fee shall accompany the application.

(Source: P.A. 92-545, eff. 6-12-02; 92-699, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-648)

Sec. 3-648. Education license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Education license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates shall be determined by a contest that every elementary school pupil in the State of Illinois is eligible to enter. The designs submitted for the contest shall be judged on September 30, 2002, and the winning design shall be selected by a committee composed of the Secretary, the Director of State Police, 2 members of the Senate, one member chosen by the President of the Senate and one member chosen by the Senate Minority Leader, and 2 members of the House of Representatives, one member chosen by the Speaker of the House and one member chosen by the House Minority Leader. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance, in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this $40 additional original issuance fee, $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs, and $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $40 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this $40 additional renewal fee, $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $38 shall be deposited into the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund. Each fiscal year, once deposits from the additional original issuance and renewal fees into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund have reached $500,000, all the amounts received for the additional fees for the balance of the fiscal year shall be deposited into the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund.

(d) The Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Ninety-five percent of the moneys in the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund shall be appropriated to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission for scholarships under Section 52 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act, and 5% of the moneys in the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund shall be appropriated to the State Board of Education for grants to the Golden Apple Foundation for Excellence in Teaching, a recognized charitable organization that meets the requirements of Title 26, Section 501(c)(3) of the United States Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-445, eff. 8-17-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-845, eff. 1-1-03; 93-21, eff. 7-1-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-653)

Sec. 3-653. Pet Friendly license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Pet Friendly license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as defined in Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary, except that the phrase "I am pet friendly" shall be on the plates. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this additional fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Pet Overpopulation Control Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this additional fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Pet Overpopulation Control Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Pet Overpopulation Control Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Pet Overpopulation Control Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, as grants to humane societies exempt from federal income taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code to be used solely for the humane sterilization of dogs and cats in the State of Illinois. In approving grants under this subsection (d), the Secretary shall consider recommendations for grants made by a volunteer board appointed by the Secretary that shall consist of 5 Illinois residents who are officers or directors of humane societies operating in different regions in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 92-520, eff. 6-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-654)

Sec. 3-654. Illinois Public Broadcasting System Stations special license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Illinois Public Broadcasting System Stations special license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Public Broadcasting Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Public Broadcasting Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Public Broadcasting Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, the Secretary shall pay all moneys in the Public Broadcasting Fund to the various Public Broadcasting System stations in Illinois for operating costs.

(Source: P.A. 92-695, eff. 1-1-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-655)

Sec. 3-655 3-648. Hospice license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Hospice license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The design of the plates shall include the word "Hospice" above drawings of two lilies and a butterfly. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Hospice Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Hospice Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Hospice Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Hospice Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, to the Department of Public Health for distribution as grants for hospice services as defined in the Hospice Program Licensing Act. The Director of Public Health shall adopt rules for the distribution of these grants.

(Source: P.A. 92-693, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-656)

Sec. 3-656 3-653. Lewis and Clark Bicentennial license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated as Lewis and Clark Bicentennial license plates to residents of Illinois. The special plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as defined by Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The Secretary of State shall confer with the Governor's Illinois Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Commission regarding the design, color, and format of the plates. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land Of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. Of this additional fee, $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $25 shall be deposited into the Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this additional fee, $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $25 shall be deposited into the Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund.

(d) The Secretary of State shall issue special license plates under this Section on and before September 1, 2008. The Secretary may not issue special plates under this Section after September 1, 2008.

(e) The Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, be used by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Community Affairs to promote tourism and education related to the Lewis and Clark Expedition and for historic preservation purposes related to the Expedition.

The State Treasurer shall transfer any moneys remaining in the Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund on September 1, 2009 and any moneys received for deposit into that Fund on or after September 1, 2009 into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-694, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-15-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-657)

Sec. 3-657 3-654. Park District Youth Program license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue Park District Youth Program license plates. The special Park District Youth Program plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, must accompany each application. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Park District Youth Program Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Park District Youth Program Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Park District Youth Program Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Park District Youth Program Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, as grants to the Illinois Association of Park Districts, a not-for-profit corporation, for grants to park districts and recreation agencies providing innovative after school programming for Illinois youth.

(Source: P.A. 92-697, eff. 7-19-02; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-658)

Sec. 3-658 3-654. Professional Sports Teams license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Professional Sports Teams license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary, except that the plates shall, subject to the permission of the applicable team owner, display the logo of the Chicago Bears, the Chicago Bulls, the Chicago Blackhawks Black Hawks, the Chicago Cubs, the Chicago White Sox, the St. Louis Rams, or the St. Louis Cardinals, at the applicant's option. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Professional Sports Teams Education Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Professional Sports Teams Education Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Professional Sports Teams Education Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Professional Sports Teams Education Fund shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, be deposited every 6 months into the Common School Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-699, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-28-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-659)

Sec. 3-659 3-654. Pan Hellenic license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Pan Hellenic license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary, except that an emblem of a Pan Hellenic eligible member shall be on the plate. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln" as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, may prescribe rules governing the requirements and approval of the special plates.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs. For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund is created as a special fund in the State Treasury. The State Treasurer shall create separate accounts within the Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund for each eligible member for which Pan Hellenic license plates have been issued. Moneys in the Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund shall be allocated to each account in proportion to the number of plates sold in regard to each fraternity or sorority. All moneys in the Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund shall be distributed, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, as grants to the Illinois Alpha Kappa Alpha Charitable Foundation, Illinois Delta Sigma Theta Charitable Foundation, Illinois Zeta Phi Beta Charitable Foundation, Illinois Sigma Gamma Rho Charitable Foundation, Illinois Alpha Phi Alpha Charitable Foundation, Illinois Omega Psi Phi Charitable Foundation, Illinois Kappa Alpha Psi Charitable Foundation, Illinois Phi Beta Sigma Charitable Foundation, or Illinois Iota Phi Theta Charitable Foundation for charitable purposes sponsored by the African-American fraternity or sorority.

(Source: P.A. 92-702, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-660)

Sec. 3-660 3-653. September 11th license plates.

(a) Beginning on September 11, 2002, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as September 11th license plates.

The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the September 11th Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the September 11th Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The September 11th Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Community Affairs shall pay all moneys in the September 11th Fund as grants to aid victims of terrorism and as grants to local governments to cover the costs of training, equipment, and other items related to public safety initiatives intended to prevent further acts of terrorism or to respond to further acts of terrorism or other disasters or emergency situations in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 92-704, eff. 7-19-02; revised 10-15-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-661)

Sec. 3-661 3-653. Illinois Route 66 license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Illinois Route 66 license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project, Inc. shall use all moneys in the Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project Fund for the development of tourism, through education and interpretation, preservation, and promotion of the former U.S. Route 66 in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 92-706, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-662)

Sec. 3-662 3-654. Stop Neuroblastoma license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Stop Neuroblastoma license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary, except that the following phrases shall be on the plates: (i) "Stop Neuroblastoma" and (ii) "Stop Cancer". The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Stop Neuroblastoma Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Stop Neuroblastoma Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Stop Neuroblastoma Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Stop Neuroblastoma Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, as grants to the American Cancer Society for neuroblastoma and cancer research, education, screening, and treatment.

(Source: P.A. 92-711, eff. 7-19-02; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-803) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-803)

Sec. 3-803. Reductions.

(a) Reduction of fees and taxes prescribed in this Chapter shall be applicable only to vehicles newly-acquired by the owner after the beginning of a registration period or which become subject to registration after the beginning of a registration period as specified in this Act. The Secretary of State may deny a reduction as to any vehicle operated in this State without being properly and timely registered in Illinois under this Chapter, of a vehicle in violation of any provision of this Chapter, or upon detection of such violation by an audit, or upon determining that such vehicle was operated in Illinois before such violation. Bond or other security in the proper amount may be required by the Secretary of State while the matter is under investigation. Reductions shall be granted if a person becomes the owner after the dates specified or if a vehicle becomes subject to registration under this Act, as amended, after the dates specified.

(b) Vehicles of the First Division. The annual fees and taxes prescribed by Section 3-806 shall be reduced by 50% on and after June 15, except as provided in Sections 3-414 and 3-802 of this Act.

(c) Vehicles of the Second Division. The annual fees and taxes prescribed by Sections 3-402, 3-402.1, 3-815 and 3-819 and paid on a calendar year for such vehicles shall be reduced on a quarterly basis if the vehicle becomes subject to registration on and after March 31, June 30 or September 30. Where such fees and taxes are payable on a fiscal year basis, they shall be reduced on a quarterly basis on and after September 30, December 31 or March 31.

(d) Two-year Registrations. The fees and taxes prescribed by Section 3-808 for 2-year registrations shall not be reduced in any event. However, the fees and taxes prescribed for all other 2-year registrations by this Act, shall be reduced as follows:

By 25% on and after June 15;

By 50% on and after December 15;

By 75% on and after the next ensuing June 15.

(e) The registration fees and taxes imposed upon certain vehicles shall not be reduced by any amount in any event in the following instances:

Permits under Sections 3-403 and 3-811;

Municipal Buses under Section 3-807;

Governmental or charitable vehicles under Section 3-808;

Farm Machinery under Section 3-809;

Soil and conservation equipment under Section 3-809.1;

Special Plates under Section 3-810;

Permanently mounted equipment under Section 3-812;

Registration fee under Section 3-813;

Semitrailer fees under Section 3-814;

Farm trucks under Section 3-815;

Mileage weight tax option under Section 3-818;

Farm trailers under Section 3-819;

Duplicate plates under Section 3-820;

Fees under Section 3-821;

Security Fees under Section 3-822;

Search Fees under Section 3-823.

(f) The reductions provided for shall not apply to any vehicle of the first or second division registered by the same applicant in the prior registration year.

The changes to this Section made by Public Act 84-210 take This bill takes effect with the 1986 Calendar Registration Year.

(g) Reductions shall in no event result in payment of a fee or tax less than $6, and the Secretary of State shall promulgate schedules of fees reflecting applicable reductions. Where any reduced amount is not stated in full dollars, the Secretary of State may adjust the amount due to the nearest full dollar amount.

(h) The reductions provided for in subsections (a) through (g) of this Section shall not apply to those vehicles of the first or second division registered on a staggered registration basis.

(i) A vehicle which becomes subject to registration during the last month of the current registration year is exempt from any applicable reduced fourth quarter or second semiannual registration fee, and may register for the subsequent registration year as its initial registration. This subsection does not include those apportioned and prorated fees under Sections 3-402 and 3-402.1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 84-1311; revised 2-25-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-815.1)

Sec. 3-815.1. Commercial distribution fee. Beginning July 1, 2003, in addition to any tax or fee imposed under this Code:

(a) Vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight that exceeds 8,000 pounds and that incur any tax or fee under subsection (a) of Section 3-815 of this Code or subsection (a) of Section 3-818 of this Code, as applicable, and shall pay to the Secretary of State a commercial distribution fee, for each registration year, for the use of the public highways, State infrastructure, and State services, in an amount equal to 36% of the taxes and fees incurred under subsection (a) of Section 3-815 of this Code, or subsection (a) of Section 3-818 of this Code, as applicable, rounded up to the nearest whole dollar.

(b) Vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight of 8,000 pounds or less and that incur any tax or fee under subsection (a) of Section 3-815 of this Code or subsection (a) of Section 3-818 of this Code, as applicable, and have claimed the rolling stock exemption under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Occupation Tax Act, or Service Use Tax Act shall pay to the Illinois Department of Revenue (or the Secretary of State under an intergovernmental agreement) a commercial distribution fee, for each registration year, for the use of the public highways, State infrastructure, and State services, in an amount equal to 36% of the taxes and fees incurred under subsection (a) of Section 3-815 of this Code or subsection (a) of Section 3-818 of this Code, as applicable, rounded up to the nearest whole dollar.

The fees paid under this Section shall be deposited by the Secretary of State into the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-23, eff. 6-20-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-411) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-411)

Sec. 6-411. Qualifications of Driver Training Instructors. In order to qualify for a license as an instructor for a driving school, an applicant must:

(a) Be of good moral character;

(b) Authorize an investigation to include a fingerprint based background check to determine if the applicant has ever been convicted of a crime and if so, the disposition of those convictions; this authorization shall indicate the scope of the inquiry and the agencies which may be contacted. Upon this authorization the Secretary of State may request and receive information and assistance from any federal, state or local governmental agency as part of the authorized investigation. Each applicant shall submit have his or her fingerprints submitted to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records record information databases. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The applicant shall be required to pay all related fingerprint fees including, but not limited to, the amounts established by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background investigations. The Department of State Police shall provide information concerning any criminal convictions, and their disposition, brought against the applicant upon request of the Secretary of State when the request is made in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police. Unless otherwise prohibited by law, the information derived from this investigation including the source of this information, and any conclusions or recommendations derived from this information by the Secretary of State shall be provided to the applicant, or his designee, upon request to the Secretary of State, prior to any final action by the Secretary of State on the application. Any criminal convictions and their disposition information obtained by the Secretary of State shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Office of the Secretary of State, except as required herein, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Office of the Secretary of State except as needed for the purpose of evaluating the applicant. The information obtained from this investigation may be maintained by the Secretary of State or any agency to which such information was transmitted. Only information and standards which bear a reasonable and rational relation to the performance of a driver training instructor shall be used by the Secretary of State. Any employee of the Secretary of State who gives or causes to be given away any confidential information concerning any criminal charges and their disposition of an applicant shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless release of such information is authorized by this Section;

(c) Pass such examination as the Secretary of State shall require on (1) traffic laws, (2) safe driving practices, (3) operation of motor vehicles, and (4) qualifications of teacher;

(d) Be physically able to operate safely a motor vehicle and to train others in the operation of motor vehicles. An instructors license application must be accompanied by a medical examination report completed by a competent physician licensed to practice in the State of Illinois;

(e) Hold a valid Illinois drivers license;

(f) Have graduated from an accredited high school after at least 4 years of high school education or the equivalent; and

(g) Pay to the Secretary of State an application and license fee of $70.

If a driver training school class room instructor teaches an approved driver education course, as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code, to students under 18 years of age, he or she shall furnish to the Secretary of State a certificate issued by the State Board of Education that the said instructor is qualified and meets the minimum educational standards for teaching driver education courses in the local public or parochial school systems, except that no State Board of Education certification shall be required of any instructor who teaches exclusively in a commercial driving school. On and after July 1, 1986, the existing rules and regulations of the State Board of Education concerning commercial driving schools shall continue to remain in effect but shall be administered by the Secretary of State until such time as the Secretary of State shall amend or repeal the rules in accordance with The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Upon request, the Secretary of State shall issue a certificate of completion to a student under 18 years of age who has completed an approved driver education course at a commercial driving school.

(Source: P.A. 93-408, eff. 1-1-04; 93-418, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-15-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-500) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-500)

Sec. 6-500. Definitions of words and phrases. Notwithstanding the definitions set forth elsewhere in this Code, for purposes of the Uniform Commercial Driver's License Act (UCDLA), the words and phrases listed below have the meanings ascribed to them as follows:

(1) Alcohol. "Alcohol" means any substance containing any form of alcohol, including but not limited to ethanol, methanol, propanol, and isopropanol.

(2) Alcohol concentration. "Alcohol concentration" means:

(A) the number of grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath; or

(B) the number of grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood; or

(C) the number of grams of alcohol per 67 milliliters of urine.

Alcohol tests administered within 2 hours of the driver being "stopped or detained" shall be considered that driver's "alcohol concentration" for the purposes of enforcing this UCDLA.

(3) (Blank).

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(6) Commercial Motor Vehicle.

(A) "Commercial motor vehicle" means a motor vehicle, except those referred to in subdivision (B), designed to transport passengers or property if:

(i) the vehicle has a GVWR of 26,001 pounds or more or such a lesser GVWR as subsequently determined by federal regulations or the Secretary of State; or any combination of vehicles with a GCWR of 26,001 pounds or more, provided the GVWR of any vehicle or vehicles being towed is 10,001 pounds or more; or

(ii) the vehicle is designed to transport 16 or more persons; or

(iii) the vehicle is transporting hazardous materials and is required to be placarded in accordance with 49 C.F.R. Part 172, subpart F.

(B) Pursuant to the interpretation of the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 by the Federal Highway Administration, the definition of "commercial motor vehicle" does not include:

(i) recreational vehicles, when operated primarily for personal use;

(ii) United States Department of Defense vehicles being operated by non-civilian personnel. This includes any operator on active military duty; members of the Reserves; National Guard; personnel on part-time training; and National Guard military technicians (civilians who are required to wear military uniforms and are subject to the Code of Military Justice); or

(iii) firefighting and other emergency equipment with audible and visual signals, owned or operated by or for a governmental entity, which is necessary to the preservation of life or property or the execution of emergency governmental functions which are normally not subject to general traffic rules and regulations.

(7) Controlled Substance. "Controlled substance" shall have the same meaning as defined in Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and shall also include cannabis as defined in Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(8) Conviction. "Conviction" means an unvacated adjudication of guilt or a determination that a person has violated or failed to comply with the law in a court of original jurisdiction or an authorized administrative tribunal; an unvacated forfeiture of bail or collateral deposited to secure the person's appearance in court; the payment of a fine or court cost regardless of whether the imposition of sentence is deferred and ultimately a judgment dismissing the underlying charge is entered; or a violation of a condition of release without bail, regardless of whether or not the penalty is rebated, suspended or probated.

(9) (Blank).

(10) (Blank).

(11) (Blank).

(12) (Blank).

(13) Driver. "Driver" means any person who drives, operates, or is in physical control of a commercial motor vehicle, or who is required to hold a CDL.

(14) Employee. "Employee" means a person who is employed as a commercial motor vehicle driver. A person who is self-employed as a commercial motor vehicle driver must comply with the requirements of this UCDLA pertaining to employees. An owner-operator on a long-term lease shall be considered an employee.

(15) Employer. "Employer" means a person (including the United States, a State or a local authority) who owns or leases a commercial motor vehicle or assigns employees to operate such a vehicle. A person who is self-employed as a commercial motor vehicle driver must comply with the requirements of this UCDLA.

(16) (Blank).

(17) Foreign jurisdiction. "Foreign jurisdiction" means a sovereign jurisdiction that does not fall within the definition of "State".

(18) (Blank).

(19) (Blank).

(20) Hazardous Material. Upon a finding by the United States Secretary of Transportation, in his or her discretion, under 49 App. U.S.C. 5103(a), that the transportation of a particular quantity and form of material in commerce may pose an unreasonable risk to health and safety or property, he or she shall designate the quantity and form of material or group or class of the materials as a hazardous material. The materials so designated may include but are not limited to explosives, radioactive materials, etiologic agents, flammable liquids or solids, combustible liquids or solids, poisons, oxidizing or corrosive materials, and compressed gases.

(21) Long-term lease. "Long-term lease" means a lease of a commercial motor vehicle by the owner-lessor to a lessee, for a period of more than 29 days.

(22) Motor Vehicle. "Motor vehicle" means every vehicle which is self-propelled, and every vehicle which is propelled by electric power obtained from over head trolley wires but not operated upon rails, except vehicles moved solely by human power and motorized wheel chairs.

(23) Non-resident CDL. "Non-resident CDL" means a commercial driver's license issued by a state to an individual who is domiciled in a foreign jurisdiction.

(24) (Blank).

(25) (Blank).

(25.5) Railroad-Highway Grade Crossing Violation. "Railroad-highway grade crossing violation" means a violation, while operating a commercial motor vehicle, of any of the following:

(A) Section 11-1201, 11-1202, or 11-1425 of this Code.

(B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G) (H) Any other similar law or local ordinance of any state relating to railroad-highway grade crossing. (A) (G)

(26) Serious Traffic Violation. "Serious traffic violation" means:

(A) a conviction when operating a commercial motor vehicle of:

(i) a violation relating to excessive speeding, involving a single speeding charge of 15 miles per hour or more above the legal speed limit; or

(ii) a violation relating to reckless driving; or

(iii) a violation of any State law or local ordinance relating to motor vehicle traffic control (other than parking violations) arising in connection with a fatal traffic accident; or

(iv) a violation of Section 6-501, relating to having multiple driver's licenses; or

(v) a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 6-507, relating to the requirement to have a valid CDL; or

(vi) a violation relating to improper or erratic traffic lane changes; or

(vii) a violation relating to following another vehicle too closely; or

(B) any other similar violation of a law or local ordinance of any state relating to motor vehicle traffic control, other than a parking violation, which the Secretary of State determines by administrative rule to be serious.

(27) State. "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia and any province or territory of Canada.

(28) (Blank).

(29) (Blank).

(30) (Blank).

(31) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 92-249, eff. 1-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-834, eff. 8-22-02; revised 8-26-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-508) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-508)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 93-644)

Sec. 6-508. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) - qualification standards.

(a) Testing.

(1) General. No person shall be issued an original or renewal CDL unless that person is domiciled in this State. The Secretary shall cause to be administered such tests as the Secretary deems necessary to meet the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383, subparts G and H.

(2) Third party testing. The Secretary of state may authorize a "third party tester", pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 383.75, to administer the skills test or tests specified by Federal Highway Administration pursuant to the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 and any appropriate federal rule.

(b) Waiver of Skills Test. The Secretary of State may waive the skills test specified in this Section for a commercial driver license applicant who meets the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383.77.

(c) Limitations on issuance of a CDL. A CDL, or a commercial driver instruction permit, shall not be issued to a person while the person is subject to a disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle, or unless otherwise permitted by this Code, while the person's driver's license is suspended, revoked or cancelled in any state, or any territory or province of Canada; nor may a CDL be issued to a person who has a CDL issued by any other state, or foreign jurisdiction, unless the person first surrenders all such licenses. No CDL shall be issued to or renewed for a person who does not meet the requirement of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). The requirement may be met with the aid of a hearing aid.

(c-1) The Secretary may issue a CDL with a school bus driver endorsement to allow a person to drive the type of bus described in subsection (d-5) of Section 6-104 of this Code. The CDL with a school bus driver endorsement may be issued only to a person meeting the following requirements:

(1) the person has submitted his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police for fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and future information available in the state system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system;

(2) the person has passed a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on charter bus operation, charter bus safety, and certain special traffic laws relating to school buses determined by the Secretary of State to be relevant to charter buses, and submitted to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

(3) the person has demonstrated physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use; and

(4) the person has not been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-6, 10-7, 11-6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-21, 11-22, 12-3.1, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-3.3, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, and 33A-2, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (v) the offenses defined in Sections 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act and (vi) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

(d) Commercial driver instruction permit. A commercial driver instruction permit may be issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license if such person successfully passes such tests as the Secretary determines to be necessary. A commercial driver instruction permit shall not be issued to a person who does not meet the requirements of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11), except for the renewal of a commercial driver instruction permit for a person who possesses a commercial instruction permit prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1999.

(Source: P.A. 93-476, eff. 1-1-04.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 93-644)

Sec. 6-508. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) - qualification standards.

(a) Testing.

(1) General. No person shall be issued an original or renewal CDL unless that person is domiciled in this State. The Secretary shall cause to be administered such tests as the Secretary deems necessary to meet the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383, subparts G and H.

(2) Third party testing. The Secretary of state may authorize a "third party tester", pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 383.75, to administer the skills test or tests specified by Federal Highway Administration pursuant to the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 and any appropriate federal rule.

(b) Waiver of Skills Test. The Secretary of State may waive the skills test specified in this Section for a commercial driver license applicant who meets the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383.77.

(c) Limitations on issuance of a CDL. A CDL, or a commercial driver instruction permit, shall not be issued to a person while the person is subject to a disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle, or unless otherwise permitted by this Code, while the person's driver's license is suspended, revoked or cancelled in any state, or any territory or province of Canada; nor may a CDL be issued to a person who has a CDL issued by any other state, or foreign jurisdiction, unless the person first surrenders all such licenses. No CDL shall be issued to or renewed for a person who does not meet the requirement of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). The requirement may be met with the aid of a hearing aid.

(c-1) The Secretary may issue a CDL with a school bus driver endorsement to allow a person to drive the type of bus described in subsection (d-5) of Section 6-104 of this Code. The CDL with a school bus driver endorsement may be issued only to a person meeting the following requirements:

(1) the person has submitted his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases for fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and future information available in the state system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system;

(2) the person has passed a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on charter bus operation, charter bus safety, and certain special traffic laws relating to school buses determined by the Secretary of State to be relevant to charter buses, and submitted to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

(3) the person has demonstrated physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use; and

(4) the person has not been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-6, 10-7, 11-6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-21, 11-22, 12-3.1, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-3.3, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, and 33A-2, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (v) the offenses defined in Sections 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act and (vi) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and may not exceed the actual cost of the records check.

(d) Commercial driver instruction permit. A commercial driver instruction permit may be issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license if such person successfully passes such tests as the Secretary determines to be necessary. A commercial driver instruction permit shall not be issued to a person who does not meet the requirements of 49 CFR 391.41 (b)(11), except for the renewal of a commercial driver instruction permit for a person who possesses a commercial instruction permit prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1999.

(Source: P.A. 93-476, eff. 1-1-04; 93-644, eff. 6-1-04; revised 1-13-04.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501)

Sec. 11-501. Driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof.

(a) A person shall not drive or be in actual physical control of any vehicle within this State while:

(1) the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath is 0.08 or more based on the definition of blood and breath units in Section 11-501.2;

(2) under the influence of alcohol;

(3) under the influence of any intoxicating compound or combination of intoxicating compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of driving safely;

(4) under the influence of any other drug or combination of drugs to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving;

(5) under the combined influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving; or

(6) there is any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's breath, blood, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act.

(b) The fact that any person charged with violating this Section is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, shall not constitute a defense against any charge of violating this Section.

(c) Except as provided under paragraphs (c-3), (c-4), and (d) of this Section, every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and, in addition to any other criminal or administrative action, for any second conviction of violating this Section or a similar provision of a law of another state or local ordinance committed within 5 years of a previous violation of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall be mandatorily sentenced to a minimum of 5 days of imprisonment or assigned to a minimum of 30 days of community service as may be determined by the court. Every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall be subject to an additional mandatory minimum fine of $500 and an additional mandatory 5 days of community service in a program benefiting children if the person committed a violation of paragraph (a) or a similar provision of a local ordinance while transporting a person under age 16. Every person convicted a second time for violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance within 5 years of a previous violation of this Section or a similar provision of a law of another state or local ordinance shall be subject to an additional mandatory minimum fine of $500 and an additional 10 days of mandatory community service in a program benefiting children if the current offense was committed while transporting a person under age 16. The imprisonment or assignment under this subsection shall not be subject to suspension nor shall the person be eligible for probation in order to reduce the sentence or assignment.

(c-1) (1) A person who violates this Section during a period in which his or her driving privileges are revoked or suspended, where the revocation or suspension was for a violation of this Section, Section 11-501.1, paragraph (b) of Section 11-401, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) A person who violates this Section a third time during a period in which his or her driving privileges are revoked or suspended where the revocation or suspension was for a violation of this Section, Section 11-501.1, paragraph (b) of Section 11-401, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(3) A person who violates this Section a fourth or subsequent time during a period in which his or her driving privileges are revoked or suspended where the revocation or suspension was for a violation of this Section, Section 11-501.1, paragraph (b) of Section 11-401, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(c-2) (Blank).

(c-3) Every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance who had a child under age 16 in the vehicle at the time of the offense shall have his or her punishment under this Act enhanced by 2 days of imprisonment for a first offense, 10 days of imprisonment for a second offense, 30 days of imprisonment for a third offense, and 90 days of imprisonment for a fourth or subsequent offense, in addition to the fine and community service required under subsection (c) and the possible imprisonment required under subsection (d). The imprisonment or assignment under this subsection shall not be subject to suspension nor shall the person be eligible for probation in order to reduce the sentence or assignment.

(c-4) When a person is convicted of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the following penalties apply when his or her blood, breath, or urine was .16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2 or when that person is convicted of violating this Section while transporting a child under the age of 16:

(1) A person who is convicted of violating subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of this Code a first time, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed under subsection (c), is subject to a mandatory minimum of 100 hours of community service and a minimum fine of $500.

(2) A person who is convicted of violating subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of this Code a second time within 10 years, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed under subsection (c), is subject to a mandatory minimum of 2 days of imprisonment and a minimum fine of $1,250.

(3) A person who is convicted of violating subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of this Code a third time within 20 years is guilty of a Class 4 felony and, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed under subsection (c), is subject to a mandatory minimum of 90 days of imprisonment and a minimum fine of $2,500.

(4) A person who is convicted of violating this subsection (c-4) a fourth or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony and, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed under subsection (c), is not eligible for a sentence of probation or conditional discharge and is subject to a minimum fine of $2,500.

(d) (1) Every person convicted of committing a violation of this Section shall be guilty of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof if:

(A) the person committed a violation of this Section, or a similar provision of a law of another state or a local ordinance when the cause of action is the same as or substantially similar to this Section, for the third or subsequent time;

(B) the person committed a violation of paragraph (a) while driving a school bus with children on board;

(C) the person in committing a violation of paragraph (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the injuries;

(D) the person committed a violation of paragraph (a) for a second time and has been previously convicted of violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted under subparagraph (C) or subparagraph (F) of this paragraph (1);

(E) the person, in committing a violation of paragraph (a) while driving at any speed in a school speed zone at a time when a speed limit of 20 miles per hour was in effect under subsection (a) of Section 11-605 of this Code, was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in bodily harm, other than great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, to another person, when the violation of paragraph (a) was a proximate cause of the bodily harm; or

(F) the person, in committing a violation of paragraph (a), was involved in a motor vehicle, snowmobile, all-terrain vehicle, or watercraft accident that resulted in the death of another person, when the violation of paragraph (a) was a proximate cause of the death.

(2) Except as provided in this paragraph (2), aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof is a Class 4 felony. For a violation of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), the defendant, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than one year nor more than 12 years. Aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) is a Class 2 felony, for which the defendant, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to: (A) a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years if the violation resulted in the death of one person; or (B) a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years if the violation resulted in the deaths of 2 or more persons. For any prosecution under this subsection (d), a certified copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted as proof of any prior conviction.

(e) After a finding of guilt and prior to any final sentencing, or an order for supervision, for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance, individuals shall be required to undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound abuse problem exists and the extent of the problem, and undergo the imposition of treatment as appropriate. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. The cost of any professional evaluation shall be paid for by the individual required to undergo the professional evaluation.

(e-1) Any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating this Section, including any person receiving a disposition of court supervision for violating this Section, may be required by the Court to attend a victim impact panel offered by, or under contract with, a County State's Attorney's office, a probation and court services department, Mothers Against Drunk Driving, or the Alliance Against Intoxicated Motorists. All costs generated by the victim impact panel shall be paid from fees collected from the offender or as may be determined by the court.

(f) Every person found guilty of violating this Section, whose operation of a motor vehicle while in violation of this Section proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be liable for the expense of an emergency response as provided under Section 5-5-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g) The Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of any person convicted under this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(h) Every person sentenced under paragraph (2) or (3) of subsection (c-1) of this Section or subsection (d) of this Section and who receives a term of probation or conditional discharge shall be required to serve a minimum term of either 60 days community service or 10 days of imprisonment as a condition of the probation or conditional discharge. This mandatory minimum term of imprisonment or assignment of community service shall not be suspended and shall not be subject to reduction by the court.

(i) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices on all vehicles owned by an individual who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system.

(j) In addition to any other penalties and liabilities, a person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision for violating this Section, shall be fined $100, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest. If the person has been previously convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the fine shall be $200. In the event that more than one agency is responsible for the arrest, the $100 or $200 shall be shared equally. Any moneys received by a law enforcement agency under this subsection (j) shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State. This shall include, but is not limited to, in-car video cameras, radar and laser speed detection devices, and alcohol breath testers. Any moneys received by the Department of State Police under this subsection (j) shall be deposited into the State Police DUI Fund and shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State.

(k) The Secretary of State Police DUI Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys received by the Secretary of State Police under subsection (j) of this Section shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Police DUI Fund and, subject to appropriation, shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment to assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State.

(Source: P.A. 92-248, eff. 8-3-01; 92-418, eff. 8-17-01; 92-420, eff. 8-17-01; 92-429, eff. 1-1-02; 92-431, eff. 1-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-156, eff. 1-1-04; 93-213, eff. 7-18-03; 93-584, eff. 8-22-03; revised 8-27-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-605) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-605)

Sec. 11-605. Special speed limit while passing schools or while traveling through highway construction or maintenance zones.

(a) For the purpose of this Section, "school" means the following entities:

(1) A public or private primary or secondary school.

(2) A primary or secondary school operated by a religious institution.

(3) A public, private, or religious nursery school.

On a school day when school children are present and so close thereto that a potential hazard exists because of the close proximity of the motorized traffic, no person shall drive a motor vehicle at a speed in excess of 20 miles per hour while passing a school zone or while traveling on a roadway on public school property or upon any public thoroughfare where children pass going to and from school.

For the purpose of this Section a school day shall begin at seven ante meridian and shall conclude at four post meridian.

This Section shall not be applicable unless appropriate signs are posted upon streets and highways under their respective jurisdiction and maintained by the Department, township, county, park district, city, village or incorporated town wherein the school zone is located. With regard to the special speed limit while passing schools, such signs shall give proper due warning that a school zone is being approached and shall indicate the school zone and the maximum speed limit in effect during school days when school children are present.

(b) No person shall operate a motor vehicle in a construction or maintenance zone at a speed in excess of the posted speed limit when workers are present and so close to the moving traffic that a potential hazard exists because of the motorized traffic.

(c) Nothing in this Chapter shall prohibit the use of electronic speed-detecting devices within 500 feet of signs within a special school speed zone or a construction or maintenance zone indicating such zone, as defined in this Section, nor shall evidence obtained thereby be inadmissible in any prosecution for speeding provided the use of such device shall apply only to the enforcement of the speed limit in such special school speed zone or a construction or maintenance zone.

(d) For the purpose of this Section, a construction or maintenance zone is an area in which the Department, Toll Highway Authority, or local agency has determined that the preexisting established speed limit through a highway construction or maintenance project is greater than is reasonable or safe with respect to the conditions expected to exist in the construction or maintenance zone and has posted a lower speed limit with a highway construction or maintenance zone special speed limit sign.

Highway construction or maintenance zone special speed limit signs shall be of a design approved by the Department. The signs shall give proper due warning that a construction or maintenance zone is being approached and shall indicate the maximum speed limit in effect. The signs shall also state the amount of the minimum fine for a violation when workers are present.

(e) A first violation of this Section is a petty offense with a minimum fine of $150. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a petty offense with a minimum fine of $300.

(f) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) is $150 or greater, the person who violates subsection (a) shall be charged an additional $50 to be paid to the unit school district where the violation occurred for school safety purposes. If the violation occurred in a dual school district, $25 of the surcharge shall be paid to the elementary school district for school safety purposes and $25 of the surcharge shall be paid to the high school district for school safety purposes. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the entire $50 surcharge shall be paid to the appropriate school district or districts.

For purposes of this subsection (f), "school safety purposes" includes the costs associated with school zone safety education and the purchase, installation, and maintenance of caution lights which are mounted on school speed zone signs.

(g) When a fine for a violation of subsection (b) is $150 or greater, the person who violates subsection (b) shall be charged an additional $50. The $50 surcharge shall be deposited into the Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund.

(h) The Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, the Secretary of Transportation shall use all moneys in the Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund to hire off-duty Department of State Police officers to monitor construction or maintenance zones.

(Source: P.A. 91-531, eff. 1-1-00; 92-242, eff. 1-1-02; 92-619, eff. 1-1-03; 92-780, eff. 8-6-02; revised 8-22-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1201) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1201)

Sec. 11-1201. Obedience to signal indicating approach of train.

(a) Whenever any person driving a vehicle approaches a railroad grade crossing where the driver is not always required to stop, the person must exercise due care and caution as the existence of a railroad track across a highway is a warning of danger, and under any of the circumstances stated in this Section, the driver shall stop within 50 feet but not less than 15 feet from the nearest rail of the railroad and shall not proceed until the tracks are clear and he or she can do so safely. The foregoing requirements shall apply when:

1. A clearly visible electric or mechanical signal device gives warning of the immediate approach of a railroad train;

2. A crossing gate is lowered or a human flagman gives or continues to give a signal of the approach or passage of a railroad train;

3. A railroad train approaching a highway crossing emits a warning signal and such railroad train, by reason of its speed or nearness to such crossing, is an immediate hazard;

4. An approaching railroad train is plainly visible and is in hazardous proximity to such crossing;

5. A railroad train is approaching so closely that an immediate hazard is created.

(a-5) Whenever a person driving a vehicle approaches a railroad grade crossing where the driver is not always required to stop but must slow down, the person must exercise due care and caution as the existence of a railroad track across a highway is a warning of danger, and under any of the circumstances stated in this Section, the driver shall slow down within 50 feet but not less than 15 feet from the nearest rail of the railroad and shall not proceed until he or she checks that the tracks are clear of an approaching train.

(b) No person shall drive any vehicle through, around or under any crossing gate or barrier at a railroad crossing while such gate or barrier is closed or is being opened or closed.

(c) The Department, and local authorities with the approval of the Department, are hereby authorized to designate particularly dangerous highway grade crossings of railroads and to erect stop signs thereat. When such stop signs are erected the driver of any vehicle shall stop within 50 feet but not less than 15 feet from the nearest rail of such railroad and shall proceed only upon exercising due care.

(d) At any railroad grade crossing provided with railroad crossbuck signs, without automatic, electric, or mechanical signal devices, crossing gates, or a human flagman giving a signal of the approach or passage of a train, the driver of a vehicle shall in obedience to the railroad crossbuck sign, yield the right-of-way and slow down to a speed reasonable for the existing conditions and shall stop, if required for safety, at a clearly marked stopped line, or if no stop line, within 50 feet but not less than 15 feet from the nearest rail of the railroad and shall not proceed until he or she can do so safely. If a driver is involved in a collision at a railroad crossing or interferes with the movement of a train after driving past the railroad crossbuck sign, the collision or interference is prima facie evidence of the driver's failure to yield right-of-way.

(d-1) No person shall, while driving a commercial motor vehicle, fail to negotiate a railroad-highway grade railroad crossing because of insufficient undercarriage clearance.

(d-5) (Blank).

(e) It is unlawful to violate any part of this Section.

(1) A violation of this Section is a petty offense for which a fine of $250 shall be imposed for a first violation, and a fine of $500 shall be imposed for a second or subsequent violation. The court may impose 25 hours of community service in place of the $250 fine for the first violation.

(2) For a second or subsequent violation, the Secretary of State may suspend the driving privileges of the offender for a minimum of 6 months.

(f) Corporate authorities of municipal corporations regulating operators of vehicles that fail to obey signals indicating the presence, approach, passage, or departure of a train shall impose fines as established in subsection (e) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-245, eff. 8-3-01; 92-249, eff. 1-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-814, eff. 1-1-03; 92-834, eff. 8-22-02; revised 8-26-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1414) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1414)

Sec. 11-1414. Approaching, overtaking, and passing school bus.

(a) The driver of a vehicle shall stop such vehicle before meeting or overtaking, from either direction, any school bus stopped at any location for the purpose of receiving or discharging pupils. Such stop is required before reaching the school bus when there is in operation on the school bus the visual signals as specified in Sections 12-803 and 12-805 of this Code. The driver of the vehicle shall not proceed until the school bus resumes motion or the driver of the vehicle is signaled by the school bus driver to proceed or the visual signals are no longer actuated.

(b) The stop signal arm required by Section 12-803 of this Code shall be extended after the school bus has come to a complete stop for the purpose of loading or discharging pupils and shall be closed before the school bus is placed in motion again. The stop signal arm shall not be extended at any other time.

(c) The alternately flashing red signal lamps of an 8-lamp flashing signal system required by Section 12-805 of this Code shall be actuated after the school bus has come to a complete stop for the purpose of loading or discharging pupils and shall be turned off before the school bus is placed in motion again. The red signal lamps shall not be actuated at any other time except as provided in paragraph (d) of this Section.

(d) The alternately flashing amber signal lamps of an 8-lamp flashing signal system required by Section 12-805 of this Code shall be actuated continuously during not less than the last 100 feet traveled by the school bus before stopping for the purpose of loading or discharging pupils within an urban area and during not less than the last 200 feet traveled by the school bus outside an urban area. The amber signal lamps shall remain actuated until the school bus is stopped. The amber signal lamps shall not be actuated at any other time.

(d-5) The alternately flashing head lamps permitted by Section 12-805 of this Code may be operated while the alternately flashing red or amber signal lamps required by that Section are actuated.

(e) The driver of a vehicle upon a highway having 4 or more lanes which permits at least 2 lanes of traffic to travel in opposite directions need not stop such vehicle upon meeting a school bus which is stopped in the opposing roadway; and need not stop such vehicle when driving upon a controlled access highway when passing a school bus traveling in either direction that is stopped in a loading zone adjacent to the surfaced or improved part of the controlled access highway where pedestrians are not permitted to cross.

(f) Beginning with the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985, the Secretary of State shall suspend for a period of 3 months the driving privileges of any person convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance; the Secretary shall suspend for a period of one year the driving privileges of any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection (a) of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the second or subsequent violation occurs within 5 years of a prior conviction for the same offense. In addition to the suspensions authorized by this Section, any person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall be subject to a mandatory fine of $150 or, upon a second or subsequent violation, $500. The Secretary may also grant, for the duration of any suspension issued under this subsection, a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the driver's residence and place of employment or within other proper limits that the Secretary of State shall find necessary to avoid any undue hardship. A restricted driving permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license may be cancelled, revoked or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension or cancellation of the restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. Any conviction for a violation of this subsection shall be included as an offense for the purposes of determining suspension action under any other provision of this Code, provided however, that the penalties provided under this subsection shall be imposed unless those penalties imposed under other applicable provisions are greater.

The owner of any vehicle alleged to have violated paragraph (a) of this Section shall, upon appropriate demand by the State's Attorney or other authorized prosecutor acting in response to a signed complaint, provide a written statement or deposition identifying the operator of the vehicle if such operator was not the owner at the time of the alleged violation. Failure to supply such information shall be construed to be the same as a violation of paragraph (a) and shall be subject to the same penalties herein provided. In the event the owner has assigned control for the use of the vehicle to another, the person to whom control was assigned shall comply with the provisions of this paragraph and be subject to the same penalties as herein provided.

(Source: P.A. 93-180, eff. 7-11-03; 93-181, eff. 1-1-04; revised 8-12-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-111) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-111)

Sec. 15-111. Wheel and axle loads and gross weights.

(a) On non-designated highways, no vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with pneumatic tires may be operated, unladen or with load, when the total weight transmitted to the road surface exceeds 18,000 pounds on a single axle or 32,000 pounds on a tandem axle with no axle within the tandem exceeding 18,000 pounds except:

(1) when a different limit is established and posted in accordance with Section 15-316 of this Code;

(2) vehicles for which the Department of Transportation and local authorities issue overweight permits under authority of Section 15-301 of this Code;

(3) tow trucks subject to the conditions provided in subsection (d) may not exceed 24,000 pounds on a single rear axle or 44,000 pounds on a tandem rear axle;

(4) any single axle of a 2-axle truck weighing 36,000 pounds or less and not a part of a combination of vehicles, shall not exceed 20,000 pounds;

(5) any single axle of a 2-axle truck equipped with a personnel lift or digger derrick, weighing 36,000 pounds or less, owned and operated by a public utility, shall not exceed 20,000 pounds;

(6) any single axle of a 2-axle truck specially equipped with a front loading compactor used exclusively for garbage, refuse, or recycling may not exceed 20,000 pounds per axle, provided that the gross weight of the vehicle does not exceed 40,000 pounds;

(7) a truck, not in combination and specially equipped with a selfcompactor or an industrial roll-off hoist and roll-off container, used exclusively for garbage or refuse operations may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle;

(8) a truck, not in combination and used exclusively for the collection of rendering materials, may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle;

(9) tandem axles on a 3-axle truck registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, manufactured prior to or in the model year of 2014 and first registered in Illinois prior to January 1, 2015, with a distance greater than 72 inches but not more than 96 inches between any series of 2 axles, is allowed a combined weight on the series not to exceed 36,000 pounds and neither axle of the series may exceed 18,000 pounds. Any vehicle of this type manufactured after the model year of 2014 or first registered in Illinois after December 31, 2014 may not exceed a combined weight of 32,000 pounds through the series of 2 axles and neither axle of the series may exceed 18,000 pounds;

(10) tandem axles on a 4-axle truck mixer, whose fourth axle is a road surface engaging mixer trailing axle, registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the mixing and transportation of concrete and manufactured prior to or in the model year of 2014 and first registered in Illinois prior to January 1, 2015, with a distance greater than 72 inches but not more than 96 inches between any series of 2 axles, is allowed a combined weight on the series not to exceed 36,000 pounds and neither axle of the series may exceed 18,000 pounds. Any vehicle of this type manufactured after the model year of 2014 or first registered in Illinois after December 31, 2014 may not exceed a combined weight of 32,000 pounds through the series of 2 axles and neither axle of the series may exceed 18,000 pounds;

(11) 4-axle vehicles or a 5 or more axle combination of vehicles: The weight transmitted upon the road surface through any series of 3 axles whose centers are more than 96 inches apart, measured between extreme axles in the series, may not exceed those allowed in the table contained in subsection (f) of this Section. No axle or tandem axle of the series may exceed the maximum weight permitted under this Section for a single or tandem axle.

No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with other than pneumatic tires may be operated, unladen or with load, upon the highways of this State when the gross weight on the road surface through any wheel exceeds 800 pounds per inch width of tire tread or when the gross weight on the road surface through any axle exceeds 16,000 pounds.

(b) On non-designated highways, the gross weight of vehicles and combination of vehicles including the weight of the vehicle or combination and its maximum load shall be subject to the foregoing limitations and further shall not exceed the following gross weights dependent upon the number of axles and distance between extreme axles of the vehicle or combination measured longitudinally to the nearest foot.

VEHICLES HAVING 2 AXLES ....................... 36,000 pounds

VEHICLES OR COMBINATIONS

HAVING 3 AXLES

VEHICLES OPERATING ON CRAWLER TYPE TRACKS ..... 40,000 pounds

TRUCKS EQUIPPED WITH SELFCOMPACTORS

OR ROLL-OFF HOISTS AND ROLL-OFF CONTAINERS FOR GARBAGE

OR REFUSE HAULS ONLY AND TRUCKS USED FOR

THE COLLECTION OF RENDERING MATERIALS

On Highway Not Part of National System

of Interstate and Defense Highways

with 2 axles 36,000 pounds

with 3 axles 54,000 pounds

TWO AXLE TRUCKS EQUIPPED WITH

A FRONT LOADING COMPACTOR USED EXCLUSIVELY

FOR THE COLLECTION OF GARBAGE, REFUSE, OR RECYCLING

with 2 axles 40,000 pounds

(c) Cities having a population of more than 50,000 may permit by ordinance axle loads on 2 axle motor vehicles 33 1/2% above those provided for herein, but the increase shall not become effective until the city has officially notified the Department of the passage of the ordinance and shall not apply to those vehicles when outside of the limits of the city, nor shall the gross weight of any 2 axle motor vehicle operating over any street of the city exceed 40,000 pounds.

(d) Weight limitations shall not apply to vehicles (including loads) operated by a public utility when transporting equipment required for emergency repair of public utility facilities or properties or water wells.

A combination of vehicles, including a tow truck and a disabled vehicle or disabled combination of vehicles, that exceeds the weight restriction imposed by this Code, may be operated on a public highway in this State provided that neither the disabled vehicle nor any vehicle being towed nor the tow truck itself shall exceed the weight limitations permitted under this Chapter. During the towing operation, neither the tow truck nor the vehicle combination shall exceed 24,000 pounds on a single rear axle and 44,000 pounds on a tandem rear axle, provided the towing vehicle:

(1) is specifically designed as a tow truck having a gross vehicle weight rating of at least 18,000 pounds and is equipped with air brakes, provided that air brakes are required only if the towing vehicle is towing a vehicle, semitrailer, or tractor-trailer combination that is equipped with air brakes;

(2) is equipped with flashing, rotating, or oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet in all directions;

(3) is capable of utilizing the lighting and braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination of vehicles; and

(4) does not engage in a tow exceeding 20 miles from the initial point of wreck or disablement. Any additional movement of the vehicles may occur only upon issuance of authorization for that movement under the provisions of Sections 15-301 through 15-319 of this Code.

Gross weight limits shall not apply to the combination of the tow truck and vehicles being towed. The tow truck license plate must cover the operating empty weight of the tow truck only. The weight of each vehicle being towed shall be covered by a valid license plate issued to the owner or operator of the vehicle being towed and displayed on that vehicle. If no valid plate issued to the owner or operator of that vehicle is displayed on that vehicle, or the plate displayed on that vehicle does not cover the weight of the vehicle, the weight of the vehicle shall be covered by the third tow truck plate issued to the owner or operator of the tow truck and temporarily affixed to the vehicle being towed.

The Department may by rule or regulation prescribe additional requirements. However, nothing in this Code shall prohibit a tow truck under instructions of a police officer from legally clearing a disabled vehicle, that may be in violation of weight limitations of this Chapter, from the roadway to the berm or shoulder of the highway. If in the opinion of the police officer that location is unsafe, the officer is authorized to have the disabled vehicle towed to the nearest place of safety.

For the purpose of this subsection, gross vehicle weight rating, or GVWR, shall mean the value specified by the manufacturer as the loaded weight of the tow truck.

(e) No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with pneumatic tires shall be operated, unladen or with load, upon the highways of this State in violation of the provisions of any permit issued under the provisions of Sections 15-301 through 15-319 of this Chapter.

(f) On designated Class I, II, or III highways and the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, no vehicle or combination of vehicles with pneumatic tires may be operated, unladen or with load, when the total weight on the road surface exceeds the following: 20,000 pounds on a single axle; 34,000 pounds on a tandem axle with no axle within the tandem exceeding 20,000 pounds; 80,000 pounds gross weight for vehicle combinations of 5 or more axles; or a total weight on a group of 2 or more consecutive axles in excess of that weight produced by the application of the following formula: W = 500 times the sum of (LN divided by N-1) + 12N + 36, where "W" equals overall total weight on any group of 2 or more consecutive axles to the nearest 500 pounds, "L" equals the distance measured to the nearest foot between extremes of any group of 2 or more consecutive axles, and "N" equals the number of axles in the group under consideration.

The above formula when expressed in tabular form results in allowable loads as follows:

Distance measured to the nearest foot between the extremes of any Maximum weight in pounds group of 2 or of any group of more consecutive 2 or more consecutive axles axles

*If the distance between 2 axles is 96 inches or less, the 2 axles are tandem axles and the maximum total weight may not exceed 34,000 pounds, notwithstanding the higher limit resulting from the application of the formula.

Vehicles not in a combination having more than 4 axles may not exceed the weight in the table in this subsection (f) for 4 axles measured between the extreme axles of the vehicle.

Vehicles in a combination having more than 6 axles may not exceed the weight in the table in this subsection (f) for 6 axles measured between the extreme axles of the combination.

Local authorities, with respect to streets and highways under their jurisdiction, without additional fees, may also by ordinance or resolution allow the weight limitations of this subsection, provided the maximum gross weight on any one axle shall not exceed 20,000 pounds and the maximum total weight on any tandem axle shall not exceed 34,000 pounds, on designated highways when appropriate regulatory signs giving notice are erected upon the street or highway or portion of any street or highway affected by the ordinance or resolution.

The following are exceptions to the above formula:

(1) Two consecutive sets of tandem axles may carry a total weight of 34,000 pounds each if the overall distance between the first and last axles of the consecutive sets of tandem axles is 36 feet or more.

(2) Vehicles for which a different limit is established and posted in accordance with Section 15-316 of this Code.

(3) Vehicles for which the Department of Transportation and local authorities issue overweight permits under authority of Section 15-301 of this Code. These vehicles are not subject to the bridge formula.

(4) Tow trucks subject to the conditions provided in subsection (d) may not exceed 24,000 pounds on a single rear axle or 44,000 pounds on a tandem rear axle.

(5) A tandem axle on a 3-axle truck registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, manufactured prior to or in the model year of 2014, and registered in Illinois prior to January 1, 2015, with a distance between 2 axles in a series greater than 72 inches but not more than 96 inches may not exceed a total weight of 36,000 pounds and neither axle of the series may exceed 18,000 pounds.

(6) A truck not in combination, equipped with a self compactor or an industrial roll-off hoist and roll-off container, used exclusively for garbage or refuse operations, may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 36,000 pounds gross weight on a 2-axle vehicle; 54,000 pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not subject to the bridge formula.

(7) Combinations of vehicles, registered as Special Hauling Vehicles that include a semitrailer manufactured prior to or in the model year of 2014, and registered in Illinois prior to January 1, 2015, having 5 axles with a distance of 42 feet or less between extreme axles, may not exceed the following maximum weights: 18,000 pounds on a single axle; 32,000 pounds on a tandem axle; and 72,000 pounds gross weight. This combination of vehicles is not subject to the bridge formula. For all those combinations of vehicles that include a semitrailer manufactured after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the overall distance between the first and last axles of the 2 sets of tandems must be 18 feet 6 inches or more. Any combination of vehicles that has had its cargo container replaced in its entirety after December 31, 2014 may not exceed the weights allowed by the bridge formula.

No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with other than pneumatic tires may be operated, unladen or with load, upon the highways of this State when the gross weight on the road surface through any wheel exceeds 800 pounds per inch width of tire tread or when the gross weight on the road surface through any axle exceeds 16,000 pounds.

(f-1) A vehicle and load not exceeding 73,280 pounds is allowed access as follows:

(1) From any State designated highway onto any county, township, or municipal highway for a distance of 5 highway miles for the purpose of loading and unloading, provided:

(A) The vehicle and load does not exceed 8 feet 6 inches in width and 65 feet overall length.

(B) There is no sign prohibiting that access.

(C) The route is not being used as a thoroughfare between State designated highways.

(2) From any State designated highway onto any county or township highway for a distance of 5 highway miles, or any municipal highway for a distance of one highway mile for the purpose of food, fuel, repairs, and rest, provided:

(A) The vehicle and load does not exceed 8 feet 6 inches in width and 65 feet overall length.

(B) There is no sign prohibiting that access.

(C) The route is not being used as a thoroughfare between State designated highways.

(f-2) A vehicle and load greater than 73,280 pounds in weight but not exceeding 80,000 pounds is allowed access as follows:

(1) From a Class I highway onto any street or highway for a distance of one highway mile for the purpose of loading, unloading, food, fuel, repairs, and rest, provided there is no sign prohibiting that access.

(2) From a Class I, II, or III highway onto any State highway or any local designated highway for a distance of 5 highway miles for the purpose of loading, unloading, food, fuel, repairs, and rest.

Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act relating to procedures for rulemaking shall not apply to the designation of highways under this subsection.

(g) No person shall operate a vehicle or combination of vehicles over a bridge or other elevated structure constituting part of a highway with a gross weight that is greater than the maximum weight permitted by the Department, when the structure is sign posted as provided in this Section.

(h) The Department upon request from any local authority shall, or upon its own initiative may, conduct an investigation of any bridge or other elevated structure constituting a part of a highway, and if it finds that the structure cannot with safety to itself withstand the weight of vehicles otherwise permissible under this Code the Department shall determine and declare the maximum weight of vehicles that the structures can withstand, and shall cause or permit suitable signs stating maximum weight to be erected and maintained before each end of the structure. No person shall operate a vehicle or combination of vehicles over any structure with a gross weight that is greater than the posted maximum weight.

(i) Upon the trial of any person charged with a violation of subsections (g) or (h) of this Section, proof of the determination of the maximum allowable weight by the Department and the existence of the signs, constitutes conclusive evidence of the maximum weight that can be maintained with safety to the bridge or structure.

(Source: P.A. 92-417, eff. 1-1-02; 93-177, eff. 7-11-03; 93-186, eff. 1-1-04; revised 1-22-04.)

(625 ILCS 5/18b-105) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 18b-105)

Sec. 18b-105. Rules and Regulations.

(a) The Department is authorized to make and adopt reasonable rules and regulations and orders consistent with law necessary to carry out the provisions of this Chapter.

(b) The following parts of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as now in effect, are hereby adopted by reference as though they were set out in full:

Part 383 - Commercial Driver's License Standards, Requirements, and Penalties;

Part 385 - Safety Fitness Procedures;

Part 390 - Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations: General;

Part 391 - Qualifications of Drivers;

Part 392 - Driving of Motor Vehicles;

Part 393 - Parts and Accessories Necessary for Safe Operation;

Part 395 - Hours of Service of Drivers, except as provided in Section 18b-106.1; and

Part 396 - Inspection, Repair and Maintenance.

(b-5) Individuals who meet the requirements set forth in the definition of "medical examiner" in Section 390.5 of Part 390 of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations may act as medical examiners in accordance with Part 391 of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(c) The following parts and Sections of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations shall not apply to those intrastate carriers, drivers or vehicles subject to subsection (b).

(1) Section 393.93 of Part 393 for those vehicles manufactured before June 30, 1972.

(2) Section 393.86 of Part 393 for those vehicles which are registered as farm trucks under subsection (c) of Section 3-815 of this Code.

(3) (Blank).

(4) (Blank).

(5) Paragraph (b)(1) of Section 391.11 of Part 391.

(6) All of Part 395 for all agricultural movements as defined in Chapter 1, between the period of February 1 through November 30 each year, and all farm to market agricultural transportation as defined in Chapter 1 and for grain hauling operations within a radius of 200 air miles of the normal work reporting location.

(7) Paragraphs (b)(3) (insulin dependent diabetic) and (b)(10) (minimum visual acuity) of Section 391.41 of part 391, but only for any driver who immediately prior to July 29, 1986 was eligible and licensed to operate a motor vehicle subject to this Section and was engaged in operating such vehicles, and who was disqualified on July 29, 1986 by the adoption of Part 391 by reason of the application of paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(10) of Section 391.41 with respect to a physical condition existing at that time unless such driver has a record of accidents which would indicate a lack of ability to operate a motor vehicle in a safe manner.

(d) Intrastate carriers subject to the recording provisions of Section 395.8 of Part 395 of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations shall be exempt as established under paragraph (1) of Section 395.8; provided, however, for the purpose of this Code, drivers shall operate within a 150 air-mile radius of the normal work reporting location to qualify for exempt status.

(e) Regulations adopted by the Department subsequent to those adopted under subsection (b) hereof shall be identical in substance to the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations of the United States Department of Transportation and adopted in accordance with the procedures for rulemaking in Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-179, eff. 1-1-00; 92-108; eff. 1-1-02; 92-249; eff. 1-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-703, eff. 7-19-02; revised 7-30-02.)

Section 460. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by changing Sections 27.1a, 27.2, and 27.2a as follows:

(705 ILCS 105/27.1a) (from Ch. 25, par. 27.1a)

Sec. 27.1a. The fees of the clerks of the circuit court in all counties having a population of not more than 500,000 inhabitants in the instances described in this Section shall be as provided in this Section. In those instances where a minimum and maximum fee is stated, the clerk of the circuit court must charge the minimum fee listed and may charge up to the maximum fee if the county board has by resolution increased the fee. The fees shall be paid in advance and shall be as follows:

(a) Civil Cases.

The fee for filing a complaint, petition, or other pleading initiating a civil action, with the following exceptions, shall be a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $160.

(A) When the amount of money or damages or the value of personal property claimed does not exceed $250, $10.

(B) When that amount exceeds $250 but does not exceed $500, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20.

(C) When that amount exceeds $500 but does not exceed $2500, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(D) When that amount exceeds $2500 but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $75.

(E) For the exercise of eminent domain, a minimum of $45 and a maximum of $150. For each additional lot or tract of land or right or interest therein subject to be condemned, the damages in respect to which shall require separate assessment by a jury, a minimum of $45 and a maximum of $150.

(a-1) Family.

For filing a petition under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, $25.

For filing a petition for a marriage license, $10.

For performing a marriage in court, $10.

For filing a petition under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, $40.

(b) Forcible Entry and Detainer.

In each forcible entry and detainer case when the plaintiff seeks possession only or unites with his or her claim for possession of the property a claim for rent or damages or both in the amount of $15,000 or less, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $50. When the plaintiff unites his or her claim for possession with a claim for rent or damages or both exceeding $15,000, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $160.

(c) Counterclaim or Joining Third Party Defendant.

When any defendant files a counterclaim as part of his or her answer or otherwise or joins another party as a third party defendant, or both, the defendant shall pay a fee for each counterclaim or third party action in an amount equal to the fee he or she would have had to pay had he or she brought a separate action for the relief sought in the counterclaim or against the third party defendant, less the amount of the appearance fee, if that has been paid.

(d) Confession of Judgment.

In a confession of judgment when the amount does not exceed $1500, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $50. When the amount exceeds $1500, but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $115. When the amount exceeds $15,000, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $200.

(e) Appearance.

The fee for filing an appearance in each civil case shall be a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $60, except as follows:

(A) When the plaintiff in a forcible entry and detainer case seeks possession only, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $50.

(B) When the amount in the case does not exceed $1500, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $30.

(C) When that amount exceeds $1500 but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $60.

(f) Garnishment, Wage Deduction, and Citation.

In garnishment affidavit, wage deduction affidavit, and citation petition when the amount does not exceed $1,000, a minimum of $5 and a maximum of $15; when the amount exceeds $1,000 but does not exceed $5,000, a minimum of $5 and a maximum of $30; and when the amount exceeds $5,000, a minimum of $5 and a maximum of $50.

(g) Petition to Vacate or Modify.

(1) Petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order of court, except in forcible entry and detainer cases and small claims cases or a petition to reopen an estate, to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support, or to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, if filed before 30 days after the entry of the judgment or order, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $50.

(2) Petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order of court, except a petition to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support or to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, if filed later than 30 days after the entry of the judgment or order, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $75.

(3) Petition to vacate order of bond forfeiture, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $40.

(h) Mailing.

When the clerk is required to mail, the fee will be a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $10, plus the cost of postage.

(i) Certified Copies.

Each certified copy of a judgment after the first, except in small claims and forcible entry and detainer cases, a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $10.

(j) Habeas Corpus.

For filing a petition for relief by habeas corpus, a minimum of $60 and a maximum of $100.

(k) Certification, Authentication, and Reproduction.

(1) Each certification or authentication for taking the acknowledgment of a deed or other instrument in writing with the seal of office, a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $6.

(2) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, under 100 pages, plus delivery and costs, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $60.

(3) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, over 100 pages, plus delivery and costs, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $150.

(4) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, over 200 pages, an additional fee of a minimum of 20 cents and a maximum of 25 cents per page.

(5) For reproduction of any document contained in the clerk's files:

(A) First page, a minimum of $1 and a maximum of $2.

(B) Next 19 pages, 50 cents per page.

(C) All remaining pages, 25 cents per page.

(l) Remands.

In any cases remanded to the Circuit Court from the Supreme Court or the Appellate Court for a new trial, the clerk shall file the remanding order and reinstate the case with either its original number or a new number. The Clerk shall not charge any new or additional fee for the reinstatement. Upon reinstatement the Clerk shall advise the parties of the reinstatement. A party shall have the same right to a jury trial on remand and reinstatement as he or she had before the appeal, and no additional or new fee or charge shall be made for a jury trial after remand.

(m) Record Search.

For each record search, within a division or municipal district, the clerk shall be entitled to a search fee of a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $6 for each year searched.

(n) Hard Copy.

For each page of hard copy print output, when case records are maintained on an automated medium, the clerk shall be entitled to a fee of a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $6.

(o) Index Inquiry and Other Records.

No fee shall be charged for a single plaintiff/defendant index inquiry or single case record inquiry when this request is made in person and the records are maintained in a current automated medium, and when no hard copy print output is requested. The fees to be charged for management records, multiple case records, and multiple journal records may be specified by the Chief Judge pursuant to the guidelines for access and dissemination of information approved by the Supreme Court.

(p) (Blank).

a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $50 (q) Alias Summons.

For each alias summons or citation issued by the clerk, a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $5.

(r) Other Fees.

Any fees not covered in this Section shall be set by rule or administrative order of the Circuit Court with the approval of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts.

The clerk of the circuit court may provide additional services for which there is no fee specified by statute in connection with the operation of the clerk's office as may be requested by the public and agreed to by the clerk and approved by the chief judge of the circuit court. Any charges for additional services shall be as agreed to between the clerk and the party making the request and approved by the chief judge of the circuit court. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require any clerk to provide any service not otherwise required by law.

(s) Jury Services.

The clerk shall be entitled to receive, in addition to other fees allowed by law, the sum of a minimum of $62.50 and a maximum of $212.50, as a fee for the services of a jury in every civil action not quasi-criminal in its nature and not a proceeding for the exercise of the right of eminent domain and in every other action wherein the right of trial by jury is or may be given by law. The jury fee shall be paid by the party demanding a jury at the time of filing the jury demand. If the fee is not paid by either party, no jury shall be called in the action or proceeding, and the same shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(t) Voluntary Assignment.

For filing each deed of voluntary assignment, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20; for recording the same, a minimum of 25 cents and a maximum of 50 cents for each 100 words. Exceptions filed to claims presented to an assignee of a debtor who has made a voluntary assignment for the benefit of creditors shall be considered and treated, for the purpose of taxing costs therein, as actions in which the party or parties filing the exceptions shall be considered as party or parties plaintiff, and the claimant or claimants as party or parties defendant, and those parties respectively shall pay to the clerk the same fees as provided by this Section to be paid in other actions.

(u) Expungement Petition.

The clerk shall be entitled to receive a fee of a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $60 for each expungement petition filed and an additional fee of a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $4 for each certified copy of an order to expunge arrest records.

(v) Probate.

The clerk is entitled to receive the fees specified in this subsection (v), which shall be paid in advance, except that, for good cause shown, the court may suspend, reduce, or release the costs payable under this subsection:

(1) For administration of the estate of a decedent (whether testate or intestate) or of a missing person, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $150, plus the fees specified in subsection (v)(3), except:

(A) When the value of the real and personal property does not exceed $15,000, the fee shall be a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(B) When (i) proof of heirship alone is made, (ii) a domestic or foreign will is admitted to probate without administration (including proof of heirship), or (iii) letters of office are issued for a particular purpose without administration of the estate, the fee shall be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $40.

(C) For filing a petition to sell Real Estate, $50.

(2) For administration of the estate of a ward, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75, plus the fees specified in subsection (v)(3), except:

(A) When the value of the real and personal property does not exceed $15,000, the fee shall be a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(B) When (i) letters of office are issued to a guardian of the person or persons, but not of the estate or (ii) letters of office are issued in the estate of a ward without administration of the estate, including filing or joining in the filing of a tax return or releasing a mortgage or consenting to the marriage of the ward, the fee shall be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20.

(C) For filing a Petition to sell Real Estate, $50.

(3) In addition to the fees payable under subsection (v)(1) or (v)(2) of this Section, the following fees are payable:

(A) For each account (other than one final account) filed in the estate of a decedent, or ward, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $25.

(B) For filing a claim in an estate when the amount claimed is $150 or more but less than $500, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $25; when the amount claimed is $500 or more but less than $10,000, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $40; when the amount claimed is $10,000 or more, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $60; provided that the court in allowing a claim may add to the amount allowed the filing fee paid by the claimant.

(C) For filing in an estate a claim, petition, or supplemental proceeding based upon an action seeking equitable relief including the construction or contest of a will, enforcement of a contract to make a will, and proceedings involving testamentary trusts or the appointment of testamentary trustees, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $60.

(D) For filing in an estate (i) the appearance of any person for the purpose of consent or (ii) the appearance of an executor, administrator, administrator to collect, guardian, guardian ad litem, or special administrator, no fee.

(E) Except as provided in subsection (v)(3)(D), for filing the appearance of any person or persons, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $30.

(F) For each jury demand, a minimum of $62.50 and a maximum of $137.50.

(G) For disposition of the collection of a judgment or settlement of an action or claim for wrongful death of a decedent or of any cause of action of a ward, when there is no other administration of the estate, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $50, less any amount paid under subsection (v)(1)(B) or (v)(2)(B) except that if the amount involved does not exceed $5,000, the fee, including any amount paid under subsection (v)(1)(B) or (v)(2)(B), shall be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20.

(H) For each certified copy of letters of office, of court order or other certification, a minimum of $1 and a maximum of $2, plus a minimum of 50 cents and a maximum of $1 per page in excess of 3 pages for the document certified.

(I) For each exemplification, a minimum of $1 and a maximum of $2, plus the fee for certification.

(4) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay the cost of publication by the clerk directly to the newspaper.

(5) The person on whose behalf a charge is incurred for witness, court reporter, appraiser, or other miscellaneous fee shall pay the same directly to the person entitled thereto.

(6) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay to the clerk all postage charges incurred by the clerk in mailing petitions, orders, notices, or other documents pursuant to the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975.

(w) Criminal and Quasi-Criminal Costs and Fees.

(1) The clerk shall be entitled to costs in all criminal and quasi-criminal cases from each person convicted or sentenced to supervision therein as follows:

(A) Felony complaints, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $100.

(B) Misdemeanor complaints, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $75.

(C) Business offense complaints, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $75.

(D) Petty offense complaints, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $75.

(E) Minor traffic or ordinance violations, $10.

(F) When court appearance required, $15.

(G) Motions to vacate or amend final orders, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(H) Motions to vacate bond forfeiture orders, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(I) Motions to vacate ex parte judgments, whenever filed, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(J) Motions to vacate judgment on forfeitures, whenever filed, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(K) Motions to vacate "failure to appear" or "failure to comply" notices sent to the Secretary of State, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(2) In counties having a population of not more than 500,000 inhabitants, when the violation complaint is issued by a municipal police department, the clerk shall be entitled to costs from each person convicted therein as follows:

(A) Minor traffic or ordinance violations, $10.

(B) When court appearance required, $15.

(3) In ordinance violation cases punishable by fine only, the clerk of the circuit court shall be entitled to receive, unless the fee is excused upon a finding by the court that the defendant is indigent, in addition to other fees or costs allowed or imposed by law, the sum of a minimum of $62.50 and a maximum of $137.50 as a fee for the services of a jury. The jury fee shall be paid by the defendant at the time of filing his or her jury demand. If the fee is not so paid by the defendant, no jury shall be called, and the case shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(x) Transcripts of Judgment.

For the filing of a transcript of judgment, the clerk shall be entitled to the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(y) Change of Venue.

(1) For the filing of a change of case on a change of venue, the clerk shall be entitled to the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(2) The fee for the preparation and certification of a record on a change of venue to another jurisdiction, when original documents are forwarded, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $40.

(z) Tax objection complaints.

For each tax objection complaint containing one or more tax objections, regardless of the number of parcels involved or the number of taxpayers joining on the complaint, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $50.

(aa) Tax Deeds.

(1) Petition for tax deed, if only one parcel is involved, a minimum of $45 and a maximum of $200.

(2) For each additional parcel, add a fee of a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $60.

(bb) Collections.

(1) For all collections made of others, except the State and county and except in maintenance or child support cases, a sum equal to a minimum of 2% and a maximum of 2.5% of the amount collected and turned over.

(2) Interest earned on any funds held by the clerk shall be turned over to the county general fund as an earning of the office.

(3) For any check, draft, or other bank instrument returned to the clerk for non-sufficient funds, account closed, or payment stopped, $25.

(4) In child support and maintenance cases, the clerk, if authorized by an ordinance of the county board, may collect an annual fee of up to $36 from the person making payment for maintaining child support records and the processing of support orders to the State of Illinois KIDS system and the recording of payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. This fee shall be in addition to and separate from amounts ordered to be paid as maintenance or child support and shall be deposited into a Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund, of which the clerk shall be the custodian, ex-officio, to be used by the clerk to maintain child support orders and record all payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. The clerk may recover from the person making the maintenance or child support payment any additional cost incurred in the collection of this annual fee.

The clerk shall also be entitled to a fee of $5 for certifications made to the Secretary of State as provided in Section 7-703 of the Family Financial Responsibility Law and these fees shall also be deposited into the Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund.

(cc) Corrections of Numbers.

For correction of the case number, case title, or attorney computer identification number, if required by rule of court, on any document filed in the clerk's office, to be charged against the party that filed the document, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $25.

(dd) Exceptions.

(1) The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to police departments or other law enforcement agencies. In this Section, "law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or a unit of local government which is vested by law or ordinance with the duty to maintain public order and to enforce criminal laws or ordinances. "Law enforcement agency" also means the Attorney General or any state's attorney.

(2) No fee provided herein shall be charged to any unit of local government or school district.

(3) The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to any action instituted under subsection (b) of Section 11-31-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code by a private owner or tenant of real property within 1200 feet of a dangerous or unsafe building seeking an order compelling the owner or owners of the building to take any of the actions authorized under that subsection.

(4) The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to the filing of any commitment petition or petition for an order authorizing the administration of authorized involuntary treatment in the form of medication under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(ee) Adoptions.

(1) For an adoption...................................$65

(2) Upon good cause shown, the court may waive the adoption filing fee in a special needs adoption. The term "special needs adoption" shall have the meaning ascribed to it by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

(ff) Adoption exemptions.

No fee other than that set forth in subsection (ee) shall be charged to any person in connection with an adoption proceeding nor may any fee be charged for proceedings for the appointment of a confidential intermediary under the Adoption Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-521, eff. 6-1-02; 93-39, eff. 7-1-03; 93-385, eff. 7-25-03; 93-573, eff. 8-21-03; revised 9-5-03.)

(705 ILCS 105/27.2) (from Ch. 25, par. 27.2)

Sec. 27.2. The fees of the clerks of the circuit court in all counties having a population in excess of 500,000 inhabitants but less than 3,000,000 inhabitants in the instances described in this Section shall be as provided in this Section. In those instances where a minimum and maximum fee is stated, counties with more than 500,000 inhabitants but less than 3,000,000 inhabitants must charge the minimum fee listed in this Section and may charge up to the maximum fee if the county board has by resolution increased the fee. In addition, the minimum fees authorized in this Section shall apply to all units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants. The fees shall be paid in advance and shall be as follows:

(a) Civil Cases.

The fee for filing a complaint, petition, or other pleading initiating a civil action, with the following exceptions, shall be a minimum of $150 and a maximum of $190.

(A) When the amount of money or damages or the value of personal property claimed does not exceed $250, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $15.

(B) When that amount exceeds $250 but does not exceed $1,000, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(C) When that amount exceeds $1,000 but does not exceed $2500, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $50.

(D) When that amount exceeds $2500 but does not exceed $5,000, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $100.

(D-5) When the amount exceeds $5,000 but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $150.

(E) For the exercise of eminent domain, $150. For each additional lot or tract of land or right or interest therein subject to be condemned, the damages in respect to which shall require separate assessment by a jury, $150.

(b) Forcible Entry and Detainer.

In each forcible entry and detainer case when the plaintiff seeks possession only or unites with his or her claim for possession of the property a claim for rent or damages or both in the amount of $15,000 or less, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $75. When the plaintiff unites his or her claim for possession with a claim for rent or damages or both exceeding $15,000, a minimum of $150 and a maximum of $225.

(c) Counterclaim or Joining Third Party Defendant.

When any defendant files a counterclaim as part of his or her answer or otherwise or joins another party as a third party defendant, or both, the defendant shall pay a fee for each counterclaim or third party action in an amount equal to the fee he or she would have had to pay had he or she brought a separate action for the relief sought in the counterclaim or against the third party defendant, less the amount of the appearance fee, if that has been paid.

(d) Confession of Judgment.

In a confession of judgment when the amount does not exceed $1500, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $60. When the amount exceeds $1500, but does not exceed $5,000, $75. When the amount exceeds $5,000, but does not exceed $15,000, $175. When the amount exceeds $15,000, a minimum of $200 and a maximum of $250.

(e) Appearance.

The fee for filing an appearance in each civil case shall be a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75, except as follows:

(A) When the plaintiff in a forcible entry and detainer case seeks possession only, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(B) When the amount in the case does not exceed $1500, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(C) When the amount in the case exceeds $1500 but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $60.

(f) Garnishment, Wage Deduction, and Citation.

In garnishment affidavit, wage deduction affidavit, and citation petition when the amount does not exceed $1,000, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $15; when the amount exceeds $1,000 but does not exceed $5,000, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $30; and when the amount exceeds $5,000, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $50.

(g) Petition to Vacate or Modify.

(1) Petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order of court, except in forcible entry and detainer cases and small claims cases or a petition to reopen an estate, to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support, or to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, if filed before 30 days after the entry of the judgment or order, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $50.

(2) Petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order of court, except a petition to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support or to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, if filed later than 30 days after the entry of the judgment or order, a minimum of $60 and a maximum of $75.

(3) Petition to vacate order of bond forfeiture, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(h) Mailing.

When the clerk is required to mail, the fee will be a minimum of $6 and a maximum of $10, plus the cost of postage.

(i) Certified Copies.

Each certified copy of a judgment after the first, except in small claims and forcible entry and detainer cases, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $15.

(j) Habeas Corpus.

For filing a petition for relief by habeas corpus, a minimum of $80 and a maximum of $125.

(k) Certification, Authentication, and Reproduction.

(1) Each certification or authentication for taking the acknowledgment of a deed or other instrument in writing with the seal of office, a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $6.

(2) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, under 100 pages, plus delivery and costs, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75.

(3) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, over 100 pages, plus delivery and costs, a minimum of $120 and a maximum of $150.

(4) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, over 200 pages, an additional fee of a minimum of 20 and a maximum of 25 cents per page.

(5) For reproduction of any document contained in the clerk's files:

(A) First page, $2.

(B) Next 19 pages, 50 cents per page.

(C) All remaining pages, 25 cents per page.

(l) Remands.

In any cases remanded to the Circuit Court from the Supreme Court or the Appellate Court for a new trial, the clerk shall file the remanding order and reinstate the case with either its original number or a new number. The Clerk shall not charge any new or additional fee for the reinstatement. Upon reinstatement the Clerk shall advise the parties of the reinstatement. A party shall have the same right to a jury trial on remand and reinstatement as he or she had before the appeal, and no additional or new fee or charge shall be made for a jury trial after remand.

(m) Record Search.

For each record search, within a division or municipal district, the clerk shall be entitled to a search fee of a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $6 for each year searched.

(n) Hard Copy.

For each page of hard copy print output, when case records are maintained on an automated medium, the clerk shall be entitled to a fee of a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $6.

(o) Index Inquiry and Other Records.

No fee shall be charged for a single plaintiff/defendant index inquiry or single case record inquiry when this request is made in person and the records are maintained in a current automated medium, and when no hard copy print output is requested. The fees to be charged for management records, multiple case records, and multiple journal records may be specified by the Chief Judge pursuant to the guidelines for access and dissemination of information approved by the Supreme Court.

(p) (Blank).

(q) Alias Summons.

For each alias summons or citation issued by the clerk, a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $5.

(r) Other Fees.

Any fees not covered in this Section shall be set by rule or administrative order of the Circuit Court with the approval of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts.

The clerk of the circuit court may provide additional services for which there is no fee specified by statute in connection with the operation of the clerk's office as may be requested by the public and agreed to by the clerk and approved by the chief judge of the circuit court. Any charges for additional services shall be as agreed to between the clerk and the party making the request and approved by the chief judge of the circuit court. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require any clerk to provide any service not otherwise required by law.

(s) Jury Services.

The clerk shall be entitled to receive, in addition to other fees allowed by law, the sum of a minimum of $192.50 and a maximum of $212.50, as a fee for the services of a jury in every civil action not quasi-criminal in its nature and not a proceeding for the exercise of the right of eminent domain and in every other action wherein the right of trial by jury is or may be given by law. The jury fee shall be paid by the party demanding a jury at the time of filing the jury demand. If the fee is not paid by either party, no jury shall be called in the action or proceeding, and the same shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(t) Voluntary Assignment.

For filing each deed of voluntary assignment, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20; for recording the same, a minimum of 25¢ and a maximum of 50¢ for each 100 words. Exceptions filed to claims presented to an assignee of a debtor who has made a voluntary assignment for the benefit of creditors shall be considered and treated, for the purpose of taxing costs therein, as actions in which the party or parties filing the exceptions shall be considered as party or parties plaintiff, and the claimant or claimants as party or parties defendant, and those parties respectively shall pay to the clerk the same fees as provided by this Section to be paid in other actions.

(u) Expungement Petition.

The clerk shall be entitled to receive a fee of a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $60 for each expungement petition filed and an additional fee of a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $4 for each certified copy of an order to expunge arrest records.

(v) Probate.

The clerk is entitled to receive the fees specified in this subsection (v), which shall be paid in advance, except that, for good cause shown, the court may suspend, reduce, or release the costs payable under this subsection:

(1) For administration of the estate of a decedent (whether testate or intestate) or of a missing person, a minimum of $100 and a maximum of $150, plus the fees specified in subsection (v)(3), except:

(A) When the value of the real and personal property does not exceed $15,000, the fee shall be a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(B) When (i) proof of heirship alone is made, (ii) a domestic or foreign will is admitted to probate without administration (including proof of heirship), or (iii) letters of office are issued for a particular purpose without administration of the estate, the fee shall be a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(2) For administration of the estate of a ward, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75, plus the fees specified in subsection (v)(3), except:

(A) When the value of the real and personal property does not exceed $15,000, the fee shall be a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(B) When (i) letters of office are issued to a guardian of the person or persons, but not of the estate or (ii) letters of office are issued in the estate of a ward without administration of the estate, including filing or joining in the filing of a tax return or releasing a mortgage or consenting to the marriage of the ward, the fee shall be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20.

(3) In addition to the fees payable under subsection (v)(1) or (v)(2) of this Section, the following fees are payable:

(A) For each account (other than one final account) filed in the estate of a decedent, or ward, a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $25.

(B) For filing a claim in an estate when the amount claimed is $150 or more but less than $500, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20; when the amount claimed is $500 or more but less than $10,000, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40; when the amount claimed is $10,000 or more, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $60; provided that the court in allowing a claim may add to the amount allowed the filing fee paid by the claimant.

(C) For filing in an estate a claim, petition, or supplemental proceeding based upon an action seeking equitable relief including the construction or contest of a will, enforcement of a contract to make a will, and proceedings involving testamentary trusts or the appointment of testamentary trustees, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $60.

(D) For filing in an estate (i) the appearance of any person for the purpose of consent or (ii) the appearance of an executor, administrator, administrator to collect, guardian, guardian ad litem, or special administrator, no fee.

(E) Except as provided in subsection (v)(3)(D), for filing the appearance of any person or persons, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $30.

(F) For each jury demand, a minimum of $102.50 and a maximum of $137.50.

(G) For disposition of the collection of a judgment or settlement of an action or claim for wrongful death of a decedent or of any cause of action of a ward, when there is no other administration of the estate, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $50, less any amount paid under subsection (v)(1)(B) or (v)(2)(B) except that if the amount involved does not exceed $5,000, the fee, including any amount paid under subsection (v)(1)(B) or (v)(2)(B), shall be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20.

(H) For each certified copy of letters of office, of court order or other certification, a minimum of $1 and a maximum of $2, plus a minimum of 50¢ and a maximum of $1 per page in excess of 3 pages for the document certified.

(I) For each exemplification, a minimum of $1 and a maximum of $2, plus the fee for certification.

(4) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay the cost of publication by the clerk directly to the newspaper.

(5) The person on whose behalf a charge is incurred for witness, court reporter, appraiser, or other miscellaneous fee shall pay the same directly to the person entitled thereto.

(6) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his attorney shall pay to the clerk all postage charges incurred by the clerk in mailing petitions, orders, notices, or other documents pursuant to the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975.

(w) Criminal and Quasi-Criminal Costs and Fees.

(1) The clerk shall be entitled to costs in all criminal and quasi-criminal cases from each person convicted or sentenced to supervision therein as follows:

(A) Felony complaints, a minimum of $80 and a maximum of $125.

(B) Misdemeanor complaints, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75.

(C) Business offense complaints, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75.

(D) Petty offense complaints, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75.

(E) Minor traffic or ordinance violations, $20.

(F) When court appearance required, $30.

(G) Motions to vacate or amend final orders, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(H) Motions to vacate bond forfeiture orders, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $30.

(I) Motions to vacate ex parte judgments, whenever filed, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $30.

(J) Motions to vacate judgment on forfeitures, whenever filed, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $25.

(K) Motions to vacate "failure to appear" or "failure to comply" notices sent to the Secretary of State, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(2) In counties having a population of more than 500,000 but fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, when the violation complaint is issued by a municipal police department, the clerk shall be entitled to costs from each person convicted therein as follows:

(A) Minor traffic or ordinance violations, $10.

(B) When court appearance required, $15.

(3) In ordinance violation cases punishable by fine only, the clerk of the circuit court shall be entitled to receive, unless the fee is excused upon a finding by the court that the defendant is indigent, in addition to other fees or costs allowed or imposed by law, the sum of a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $112.50 as a fee for the services of a jury. The jury fee shall be paid by the defendant at the time of filing his or her jury demand. If the fee is not so paid by the defendant, no jury shall be called, and the case shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(x) Transcripts of Judgment.

For the filing of a transcript of judgment, the clerk shall be entitled to the same fee as if it were the commencement of new suit.

(y) Change of Venue.

(1) For the filing of a change of case on a change of venue, the clerk shall be entitled to the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(2) The fee for the preparation and certification of a record on a change of venue to another jurisdiction, when original documents are forwarded, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(z) Tax objection complaints.

For each tax objection complaint containing one or more tax objections, regardless of the number of parcels involved or the number of taxpayers joining in the complaint, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $50.

(aa) Tax Deeds.

(1) Petition for tax deed, if only one parcel is involved, a minimum of $150 and a maximum of $250.

(2) For each additional parcel, add a fee of a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $100.

(bb) Collections.

(1) For all collections made of others, except the State and county and except in maintenance or child support cases, a sum equal to a minimum of 2.5% and a maximum of 3.0% of the amount collected and turned over.

(2) Interest earned on any funds held by the clerk shall be turned over to the county general fund as an earning of the office.

(3) For any check, draft, or other bank instrument returned to the clerk for non-sufficient funds, account closed, or payment stopped, $25.

(4) In child support and maintenance cases, the clerk, if authorized by an ordinance of the county board, may collect an annual fee of up to $36 from the person making payment for maintaining child support records and the processing of support orders to the State of Illinois KIDS system and the recording of payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. This fee shall be in addition to and separate from amounts ordered to be paid as maintenance or child support and shall be deposited into a Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund, of which the clerk shall be the custodian, ex-officio, to be used by the clerk to maintain child support orders and record all payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. The clerk may recover from the person making the maintenance or child support payment any additional cost incurred in the collection of this annual fee.

The clerk shall also be entitled to a fee of $5 for certifications made to the Secretary of State as provided in Section 7-703 of the Family Financial Responsibility Law and these fees shall also be deposited into the Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund.

(cc) Corrections of Numbers.

For correction of the case number, case title, or attorney computer identification number, if required by rule of court, on any document filed in the clerk's office, to be charged against the party that filed the document, a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $25.

(dd) Exceptions.

The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to police departments or other law enforcement agencies. In this Section, "law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or a unit of local government which is vested by law or ordinance with the duty to maintain public order and to enforce criminal laws or ordinances. "Law enforcement agency" also means the Attorney General or any state's attorney. The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to any action instituted under subsection (b) of Section 11-31-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code by a private owner or tenant of real property within 1200 feet of a dangerous or unsafe building seeking an order compelling the owner or owners of the building to take any of the actions authorized under that subsection.

The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to the filing of any commitment petition or petition for an order authorizing the administration of authorized involuntary treatment in the form of medication under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(ee) Adoptions.

(1) For an adoption...................................$65

(2) Upon good cause shown, the court may waive the adoption filing fee in a special needs adoption. The term "special needs adoption" shall have the meaning ascribed to it by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

(ff) Adoption exemptions.

No fee other than that set forth in subsection (ee) shall be charged to any person in connection with an adoption proceeding nor may any fee be charged for proceedings for the appointment of a confidential intermediary under the Adoption Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-521, eff. 6-1-02; 93-385, eff. 7-25-03; 93-573, eff. 8-21-03; revised 9-8-03.)

(705 ILCS 105/27.2a) (from Ch. 25, par. 27.2a)

Sec. 27.2a. The fees of the clerks of the circuit court in all counties having a population of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants in the instances described in this Section shall be as provided in this Section. In those instances where a minimum and maximum fee is stated, the clerk of the circuit court must charge the minimum fee listed and may charge up to the maximum fee if the county board has by resolution increased the fee. The fees shall be paid in advance and shall be as follows:

(a) Civil Cases.

The fee for filing a complaint, petition, or other pleading initiating a civil action, with the following exceptions, shall be a minimum of $190 and a maximum of $240.

(A) When the amount of money or damages or the value of personal property claimed does not exceed $250, a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $22.

(B) When that amount exceeds $250 but does not exceed $1000, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $75.

(C) When that amount exceeds $1000 but does not exceed $2500, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $80.

(D) When that amount exceeds $2500 but does not exceed $5000, a minimum of $100 and a maximum of $130.

(E) When that amount exceeds $5000 but does not exceed $15,000, $150.

(F) For the exercise of eminent domain, $150. For each additional lot or tract of land or right or interest therein subject to be condemned, the damages in respect to which shall require separate assessment by a jury, $150.

(G) For the final determination of parking, standing, and compliance violations and final administrative decisions issued after hearings regarding vehicle immobilization and impoundment made pursuant to Sections 3-704.1, 6-306.5, and 11-208.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, $25.

(b) Forcible Entry and Detainer.

In each forcible entry and detainer case when the plaintiff seeks possession only or unites with his or her claim for possession of the property a claim for rent or damages or both in the amount of $15,000 or less, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $140. When the plaintiff unites his or her claim for possession with a claim for rent or damages or both exceeding $15,000, a minimum of $225 and a maximum of $335.

(c) Counterclaim or Joining Third Party Defendant.

When any defendant files a counterclaim as part of his or her answer or otherwise or joins another party as a third party defendant, or both, the defendant shall pay a fee for each counterclaim or third party action in an amount equal to the fee he or she would have had to pay had he or she brought a separate action for the relief sought in the counterclaim or against the third party defendant, less the amount of the appearance fee, if that has been paid.

(d) Confession of Judgment.

In a confession of judgment when the amount does not exceed $1500, a minimum of $60 and a maximum of $70. When the amount exceeds $1500, but does not exceed $5000, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $150. When the amount exceeds $5000, but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $175 and a maximum of $260. When the amount exceeds $15,000, a minimum of $250 and a maximum of $310.

(e) Appearance.

The fee for filing an appearance in each civil case shall be a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $110, except as follows:

(A) When the plaintiff in a forcible entry and detainer case seeks possession only, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $80.

(B) When the amount in the case does not exceed $1500, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $80.

(C) When that amount exceeds $1500 but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $60 and a maximum of $90.

(f) Garnishment, Wage Deduction, and Citation.

In garnishment affidavit, wage deduction affidavit, and citation petition when the amount does not exceed $1,000, a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $25; when the amount exceeds $1,000 but does not exceed $5,000, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $45; and when the amount exceeds $5,000, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $80.

(g) Petition to Vacate or Modify.

(1) Petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order of court, except in forcible entry and detainer cases and small claims cases or a petition to reopen an estate, to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support, or to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, if filed before 30 days after the entry of the judgment or order, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $60.

(2) Petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order of court, except a petition to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support or to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, if filed later than 30 days after the entry of the judgment or order, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $90.

(3) Petition to vacate order of bond forfeiture, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $80.

(h) Mailing.

When the clerk is required to mail, the fee will be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $15, plus the cost of postage.

(i) Certified Copies.

Each certified copy of a judgment after the first, except in small claims and forcible entry and detainer cases, a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $20.

(j) Habeas Corpus.

For filing a petition for relief by habeas corpus, a minimum of $125 and a maximum of $190.

(k) Certification, Authentication, and Reproduction.

(1) Each certification or authentication for taking the acknowledgment of a deed or other instrument in writing with the seal of office, a minimum of $6 and a maximum of $9.

(2) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, under 100 pages, plus delivery and costs, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $110.

(3) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, over 100 pages, plus delivery and costs, a minimum of $150 and a maximum of $185.

(4) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, over 200 pages, an additional fee of a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 30 cents per page.

(5) For reproduction of any document contained in the clerk's files:

(A) First page, $2.

(B) Next 19 pages, 50 cents per page.

(C) All remaining pages, 25 cents per page.

(l) Remands.

In any cases remanded to the Circuit Court from the Supreme Court or the Appellate Court for a new trial, the clerk shall file the remanding order and reinstate the case with either its original number or a new number. The Clerk shall not charge any new or additional fee for the reinstatement. Upon reinstatement the Clerk shall advise the parties of the reinstatement. A party shall have the same right to a jury trial on remand and reinstatement as he or she had before the appeal, and no additional or new fee or charge shall be made for a jury trial after remand.

(m) Record Search.

For each record search, within a division or municipal district, the clerk shall be entitled to a search fee of a minimum of $6 and a maximum of $9 for each year searched.

(n) Hard Copy.

For each page of hard copy print output, when case records are maintained on an automated medium, the clerk shall be entitled to a fee of a minimum of $6 and a maximum of $9.

(o) Index Inquiry and Other Records.

No fee shall be charged for a single plaintiff/defendant index inquiry or single case record inquiry when this request is made in person and the records are maintained in a current automated medium, and when no hard copy print output is requested. The fees to be charged for management records, multiple case records, and multiple journal records may be specified by the Chief Judge pursuant to the guidelines for access and dissemination of information approved by the Supreme Court.

(p) (Blank).

(q) Alias Summons.

For each alias summons or citation issued by the clerk, a minimum of $5 and a maximum of $6.

(r) Other Fees.

Any fees not covered in this Section shall be set by rule or administrative order of the Circuit Court with the approval of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts.

The clerk of the circuit court may provide additional services for which there is no fee specified by statute in connection with the operation of the clerk's office as may be requested by the public and agreed to by the clerk and approved by the chief judge of the circuit court. Any charges for additional services shall be as agreed to between the clerk and the party making the request and approved by the chief judge of the circuit court. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require any clerk to provide any service not otherwise required by law.

(s) Jury Services.

The clerk shall be entitled to receive, in addition to other fees allowed by law, the sum of a minimum of $212.50 and maximum of $230, as a fee for the services of a jury in every civil action not quasi-criminal in its nature and not a proceeding for the exercise of the right of eminent domain and in every other action wherein the right of trial by jury is or may be given by law. The jury fee shall be paid by the party demanding a jury at the time of filing the jury demand. If the fee is not paid by either party, no jury shall be called in the action or proceeding, and the same shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(t) Voluntary Assignment.

For filing each deed of voluntary assignment, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40; for recording the same, a minimum of 50¢ and a maximum of $0.80 for each 100 words. Exceptions filed to claims presented to an assignee of a debtor who has made a voluntary assignment for the benefit of creditors shall be considered and treated, for the purpose of taxing costs therein, as actions in which the party or parties filing the exceptions shall be considered as party or parties plaintiff, and the claimant or claimants as party or parties defendant, and those parties respectively shall pay to the clerk the same fees as provided by this Section to be paid in other actions.

(u) Expungement Petition.

The clerk shall be entitled to receive a fee of a minimum of $60 and a maximum of $120 for each expungement petition filed and an additional fee of a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $8 for each certified copy of an order to expunge arrest records.

(v) Probate.

The clerk is entitled to receive the fees specified in this subsection (v), which shall be paid in advance, except that, for good cause shown, the court may suspend, reduce, or release the costs payable under this subsection:

(1) For administration of the estate of a decedent (whether testate or intestate) or of a missing person, a minimum of $150 and a maximum of $225, plus the fees specified in subsection (v)(3), except:

(A) When the value of the real and personal property does not exceed $15,000, the fee shall be a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $65.

(B) When (i) proof of heirship alone is made, (ii) a domestic or foreign will is admitted to probate without administration (including proof of heirship), or (iii) letters of office are issued for a particular purpose without administration of the estate, the fee shall be a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $65.

(2) For administration of the estate of a ward, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $110, plus the fees specified in subsection (v)(3), except:

(A) When the value of the real and personal property does not exceed $15,000, the fee shall be a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $65.

(B) When (i) letters of office are issued to a guardian of the person or persons, but not of the estate or (ii) letters of office are issued in the estate of a ward without administration of the estate, including filing or joining in the filing of a tax return or releasing a mortgage or consenting to the marriage of the ward, the fee shall be a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(3) In addition to the fees payable under subsection (v)(1) or (v)(2) of this Section, the following fees are payable:

(A) For each account (other than one final account) filed in the estate of a decedent, or ward, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(B) For filing a claim in an estate when the amount claimed is $150 or more but less than $500, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40; when the amount claimed is $500 or more but less than $10,000, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $65; when the amount claimed is $10,000 or more, a minimum of $60 and a maximum of $90; provided that the court in allowing a claim may add to the amount allowed the filing fee paid by the claimant.

(C) For filing in an estate a claim, petition, or supplemental proceeding based upon an action seeking equitable relief including the construction or contest of a will, enforcement of a contract to make a will, and proceedings involving testamentary trusts or the appointment of testamentary trustees, a minimum of $60 and a maximum of $90.

(D) For filing in an estate (i) the appearance of any person for the purpose of consent or (ii) the appearance of an executor, administrator, administrator to collect, guardian, guardian ad litem, or special administrator, no fee.

(E) Except as provided in subsection (v)(3)(D), for filing the appearance of any person or persons, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $90.

(F) For each jury demand, a minimum of $137.50 and a maximum of $180.

(G) For disposition of the collection of a judgment or settlement of an action or claim for wrongful death of a decedent or of any cause of action of a ward, when there is no other administration of the estate, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $80, less any amount paid under subsection (v)(1)(B) or (v)(2)(B) except that if the amount involved does not exceed $5,000, the fee, including any amount paid under subsection (v)(1)(B) or (v)(2)(B), shall be a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(H) For each certified copy of letters of office, of court order or other certification, a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $4, plus $1 per page in excess of 3 pages for the document certified.

(I) For each exemplification, $2, plus the fee for certification.

(4) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay the cost of publication by the clerk directly to the newspaper.

(5) The person on whose behalf a charge is incurred for witness, court reporter, appraiser, or other miscellaneous fee shall pay the same directly to the person entitled thereto.

(6) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay to the clerk all postage charges incurred by the clerk in mailing petitions, orders, notices, or other documents pursuant to the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975.

(w) Criminal and Quasi-Criminal Costs and Fees.

(1) The clerk shall be entitled to costs in all criminal and quasi-criminal cases from each person convicted or sentenced to supervision therein as follows:

(A) Felony complaints, a minimum of $125 and a maximum of $190.

(B) Misdemeanor complaints, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $110.

(C) Business offense complaints, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $110.

(D) Petty offense complaints, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $110.

(E) Minor traffic or ordinance violations, $30.

(F) When court appearance required, $50.

(G) Motions to vacate or amend final orders, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $80.

(H) Motions to vacate bond forfeiture orders, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $45.

(I) Motions to vacate ex parte judgments, whenever filed, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $45.

(J) Motions to vacate judgment on forfeitures, whenever filed, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $30.

(K) Motions to vacate "failure to appear" or "failure to comply" notices sent to the Secretary of State, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $50.

(2) In counties having a population of 3,000,000 or more, when the violation complaint is issued by a municipal police department, the clerk shall be entitled to costs from each person convicted therein as follows:

(A) Minor traffic or ordinance violations, $30.

(B) When court appearance required, $50.

(3) In ordinance violation cases punishable by fine only, the clerk of the circuit court shall be entitled to receive, unless the fee is excused upon a finding by the court that the defendant is indigent, in addition to other fees or costs allowed or imposed by law, the sum of a minimum of $112.50 and a maximum of $250 as a fee for the services of a jury. The jury fee shall be paid by the defendant at the time of filing his or her jury demand. If the fee is not so paid by the defendant, no jury shall be called, and the case shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(x) Transcripts of Judgment.

For the filing of a transcript of judgment, the clerk shall be entitled to the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(y) Change of Venue.

(1) For the filing of a change of case on a change of venue, the clerk shall be entitled to the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(2) The fee for the preparation and certification of a record on a change of venue to another jurisdiction, when original documents are forwarded, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $65.

(z) Tax objection complaints.

For each tax objection complaint containing one or more tax objections, regardless of the number of parcels involved or the number of taxpayers joining in the complaint, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $100.

(aa) Tax Deeds.

(1) Petition for tax deed, if only one parcel is involved, a minimum of $250 and a maximum of $400.

(2) For each additional parcel, add a fee of a minimum of $100 and a maximum of $200.

(bb) Collections.

(1) For all collections made of others, except the State and county and except in maintenance or child support cases, a sum equal to 3.0% of the amount collected and turned over.

(2) Interest earned on any funds held by the clerk shall be turned over to the county general fund as an earning of the office.

(3) For any check, draft, or other bank instrument returned to the clerk for non-sufficient funds, account closed, or payment stopped, $25.

(4) In child support and maintenance cases, the clerk, if authorized by an ordinance of the county board, may collect an annual fee of up to $36 from the person making payment for maintaining child support records and the processing of support orders to the State of Illinois KIDS system and the recording of payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. This fee shall be in addition to and separate from amounts ordered to be paid as maintenance or child support and shall be deposited into a Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund, of which the clerk shall be the custodian, ex-officio, to be used by the clerk to maintain child support orders and record all payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. The clerk may recover from the person making the maintenance or child support payment any additional cost incurred in the collection of this annual fee.

The clerk shall also be entitled to a fee of $5 for certifications made to the Secretary of State as provided in Section 7-703 of the Family Financial Responsibility Law and these fees shall also be deposited into the Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund.

(cc) Corrections of Numbers.

For correction of the case number, case title, or attorney computer identification number, if required by rule of court, on any document filed in the clerk's office, to be charged against the party that filed the document, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(dd) Exceptions.

(1) The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to police departments or other law enforcement agencies. In this Section, "law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or a unit of local government which is vested by law or ordinance with the duty to maintain public order and to enforce criminal laws or ordinances. "Law enforcement agency" also means the Attorney General or any state's attorney.

(2) No fee provided herein shall be charged to any unit of local government or school district. The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to any action instituted under subsection (b) of Section 11-31-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code by a private owner or tenant of real property within 1200 feet of a dangerous or unsafe building seeking an order compelling the owner or owners of the building to take any of the actions authorized under that subsection.

(3) The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to the filing of any commitment petition or petition for an order authorizing the administration of authorized involuntary treatment in the form of medication under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(ee) Adoption.

(1) For an adoption...................................$65

(2) Upon good cause shown, the court may waive the adoption filing fee in a special needs adoption. The term "special needs adoption" shall have the meaning ascribed to it by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

(ff) Adoption exemptions.

No fee other than that set forth in subsection (ee) shall be charged to any person in connection with an adoption proceeding nor may any fee be charged for proceedings for the appointment of a confidential intermediary under the Adoption Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-521, eff. 6-1-02; 93-385, eff. 7-25-03; 93-573, eff. 8-21-03; revised 9-8-03.)

Section 465. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 1-3, 2-23, 3-24, 4-21, and 5-710 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/1-3) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-3)

Sec. 1-3. Definitions. Terms used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, have the following meanings ascribed to them:

(1) "Adjudicatory hearing" means a hearing to determine whether the allegations of a petition under Section 2-13, 3-15 or 4-12 that a minor under 18 years of age is abused, neglected or dependent, or requires authoritative intervention, or addicted, respectively, are supported by a preponderance of the evidence or whether the allegations of a petition under Section 5-520 that a minor is delinquent are proved beyond a reasonable doubt.

(2) "Adult" means a person 21 years of age or older.

(3) "Agency" means a public or private child care facility legally authorized or licensed by this State for placement or institutional care or for both placement and institutional care.

(4) "Association" means any organization, public or private, engaged in welfare functions which include services to or on behalf of children but does not include "agency" as herein defined.

(4.05) Whenever a "best interest" determination is required, the following factors shall be considered in the context of the child's age and developmental needs:

(a) the physical safety and welfare of the child, including food, shelter, health, and clothing;

(b) the development of the child's identity;

(c) the child's background and ties, including familial, cultural, and religious;

(d) the child's sense of attachments, including:

(i) where the child actually feels love, attachment, and a sense of being valued (as opposed to where adults believe the child should feel such love, attachment, and a sense of being valued);

(ii) the child's sense of security;

(iii) the child's sense of familiarity;

(iv) continuity of affection for the child;

(v) the least disruptive placement alternative for the child;

(e) the child's wishes and long-term goals;

(f) the child's community ties, including church, school, and friends;

(g) the child's need for permanence which includes the child's need for stability and continuity of relationships with parent figures and with siblings and other relatives;

(h) the uniqueness of every family and child;

(i) the risks attendant to entering and being in substitute care; and

(j) the preferences of the persons available to care for the child.

(4.1) "Chronic truant" shall have the definition ascribed to it in Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(5) "Court" means the circuit court in a session or division assigned to hear proceedings under this Act.

(6) "Dispositional hearing" means a hearing to determine whether a minor should be adjudged to be a ward of the court, and to determine what order of disposition should be made in respect to a minor adjudged to be a ward of the court.

(7) "Emancipated minor" means any minor 16 years of age or over who has been completely or partially emancipated under the "Emancipation of Mature Minors Act", enacted by the Eighty-First General Assembly, or under this Act.

(8) "Guardianship of the person" of a minor means the duty and authority to act in the best interests of the minor, subject to residual parental rights and responsibilities, to make important decisions in matters having a permanent effect on the life and development of the minor and to be concerned with his or her general welfare. It includes but is not necessarily limited to:

(a) the authority to consent to marriage, to enlistment in the armed forces of the United States, or to a major medical, psychiatric, and surgical treatment; to represent the minor in legal actions; and to make other decisions of substantial legal significance concerning the minor;

(b) the authority and duty of reasonable visitation, except to the extent that these have been limited in the best interests of the minor by court order;

(c) the rights and responsibilities of legal custody except where legal custody has been vested in another person or agency; and

(d) the power to consent to the adoption of the minor, but only if expressly conferred on the guardian in accordance with Section 2-29, 3-30, or 4-27.

(9) "Legal custody" means the relationship created by an order of court in the best interests of the minor which imposes on the custodian the responsibility of physical possession of a minor and the duty to protect, train and discipline him and to provide him with food, shelter, education and ordinary medical care, except as these are limited by residual parental rights and responsibilities and the rights and responsibilities of the guardian of the person, if any.

(10) "Minor" means a person under the age of 21 years subject to this Act.

(11) "Parent" means the father or mother of a child and includes any adoptive parent. It also includes a man (i) whose paternity is presumed or has been established under the law of this or another jurisdiction or (ii) who has registered with the Putative Father Registry in accordance with Section 12.1 of the Adoption Act and whose paternity has not been ruled out under the law of this or another jurisdiction. It does not include a parent whose rights in respect to the minor have been terminated in any manner provided by law.

(11.1) "Permanency goal" means a goal set by the court as defined in subdivision (2) of Section 2-28.

(11.2) "Permanency hearing" means a hearing to set the permanency goal and to review and determine (i) the appropriateness of the services contained in the plan and whether those services have been provided, (ii) whether reasonable efforts have been made by all the parties to the service plan to achieve the goal, and (iii) whether the plan and goal have been achieved.

(12) "Petition" means the petition provided for in Section 2-13, 3-15, 4-12 or 5-520, including any supplemental petitions thereunder in Section 3-15, 4-12 or 5-520.

(13) "Residual parental rights and responsibilities" means those rights and responsibilities remaining with the parent after the transfer of legal custody or guardianship of the person, including, but not necessarily limited to, the right to reasonable visitation (which may be limited by the court in the best interests of the minor as provided in subsection (8)(b) of this Section), the right to consent to adoption, the right to determine the minor's religious affiliation, and the responsibility for his support.

(14) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a minor in physically unrestricting facilities pending court disposition or execution of court order for placement.

(15) "Station adjustment" means the informal handling of an alleged offender by a juvenile police officer.

(16) "Ward of the court" means a minor who is so adjudged under Section 2-22, 3-23, 4-20 or 5-705, after a finding of the requisite jurisdictional facts, and thus is subject to the dispositional powers of the court under this Act.

(17) "Juvenile police officer" means a sworn police officer who has completed a Basic Recruit Training Course, has been assigned to the position of juvenile police officer by his or her chief law enforcement officer and has completed the necessary juvenile officers training as prescribed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or in the case of a State police officer, juvenile officer training approved by the Director of the Department of State Police.

(18) "Secure child care facility" means any child care facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services to provide secure living arrangements for children under 18 years of age who are subject to placement in facilities under the Children and Family Services Act and who are not subject to placement in facilities for whom standards are established by the Department of Corrections under Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections. "Secure child care facility" also means a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building, or a distinct part of the building are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building.

(Source: P.A. 90-28, eff. 1-1-98; 90-87, eff. 9-1-97; 90-590, eff. 1-1-99; 90-608, eff. 6-30-98; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 10-9-03.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-23) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-23)

Sec. 2-23. Kinds of dispositional orders.

(1) The following kinds of orders of disposition may be made in respect of wards of the court:

(a) A minor under 18 years of age found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 may be (1) continued in the custody of his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian; (2) placed in accordance with Section 2-27; (3) restored to the custody of the parent, parents, guardian, or legal custodian, provided the court shall order the parent, parents, guardian, or legal custodian to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services and comply with the terms of an after-care plan or risk the loss of custody of the child and the possible termination of their parental rights; or (4) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act.

However, in any case in which a minor is found by the court to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 of this Act, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian or legal custodian whose acts or omissions or both have been identified, pursuant to subsection (1) of Section 2-21, as forming the basis for the court's finding of abuse or neglect, until such time as a hearing is held on the issue of the best interests of the minor and the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for the minor without endangering the minor's health or safety, and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor.

(b) A minor under 18 years of age found to be dependent under Section 2-4 may be (1) placed in accordance with Section 2-27 or (2) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act.

However, in any case in which a minor is found by the court to be dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian or legal custodian whose acts or omissions or both have been identified, pursuant to subsection (1) of Section 2-21, as forming the basis for the court's finding of dependency, until such time as a hearing is held on the issue of the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for the minor without endangering the minor's health or safety, and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor.

(c) When the court awards guardianship to the Department of Children and Family Services, the court shall order the parents to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services, comply with the terms of the service plans, and correct the conditions that require the child to be in care, or risk termination of their parental rights.

(2) Any order of disposition may provide for protective supervision under Section 2-24 and may include an order of protection under Section 2-25.

Unless the order of disposition expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification, not inconsistent with Section 2-28, until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 2-31.

(3) The court also shall enter any other orders necessary to fulfill the service plan, including, but not limited to, (i) orders requiring parties to cooperate with services, (ii) restraining orders controlling the conduct of any party likely to frustrate the achievement of the goal, and (iii) visiting orders. Unless otherwise specifically authorized by law, the court is not empowered under this subsection (3) to order specific placements, specific services, or specific service providers to be included in the plan. If the court concludes that the Department of Children and Family Services has abused its discretion in setting the current service plan or permanency goal for the minor, the court shall enter specific findings in writing based on the evidence and shall enter an order for the Department to develop and implement a new permanency goal and service plan consistent with the court's findings. The new service plan shall be filed with the court and served on all parties. The court shall continue the matter until the new service plan is filed.

(4) In addition to any other order of disposition, the court may order any minor adjudicated neglected with respect to his or her own injurious behavior to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentence hearing" referred to therein shall be the dispositional hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of such restitution on the minor's behalf.

(5) Any order for disposition where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 2-27 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of such minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. Such payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the order of disposition requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(7) The court may terminate the parental rights of a parent at the initial dispositional hearing if all of the conditions in subsection (5) of Section 2-21 are met.

(Source: P.A. 89-17, eff. 5-31-95; 89-235, eff. 8-4-95; 90-27, eff. 1-1-98; 90-28, eff. 1-1-98; 90-608, eff. 6-30-98; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 10-9-03.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-24) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-24)

Sec. 3-24. Kinds of dispositional orders.

(1) The following kinds of orders of disposition may be made in respect to wards of the court: A minor found to be requiring authoritative intervention under Section 3-3 may be (a) committed to the Department of Children and Family Services, subject to Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act; (b) placed under supervision and released to his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian; (c) placed in accordance with Section 3-28 with or without also being placed under supervision. Conditions of supervision may be modified or terminated by the court if it deems that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby; (d) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act; or (e) subject to having his or her driver's license or driving privilege suspended for such time as determined by the Court but only until he or she attains 18 years of age.

(2) Any order of disposition may provide for protective supervision under Section 3-25 and may include an order of protection under Section 3-26.

(3) Unless the order of disposition expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 3-32.

(4) In addition to any other order of disposition, the court may order any person found to be a minor requiring authoritative intervention under Section 3-3 to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentence hearing" referred to therein shall be the dispositional hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of such restitution on the minor's behalf.

(5) Any order for disposition where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 3-28 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of such minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. Such payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the order of disposition requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(7) The court must impose upon a minor under an order of continuance under supervision or an order of disposition under this Article III, as a condition of the order, a fee of $25 for each month or partial month of supervision with a probation officer. If the court determines the inability of the minor, or the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the minor to pay the fee, the court may impose a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under this Act. The fee may be imposed only upon a minor who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee must be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court must pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit into the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-329, eff. 8-9-01; revised 10-9-03.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-21) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-21)

Sec. 4-21. Kinds of dispositional orders.

(1) A minor found to be addicted under Section 4-3 may be (a) committed to the Department of Children and Family Services, subject to Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act; (b) placed under supervision and released to his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian; (c) placed in accordance with Section 4-25 with or without also being placed under supervision. Conditions of supervision may be modified or terminated by the court if it deems that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby; (d) required to attend an approved alcohol or drug abuse treatment or counseling program on an inpatient or outpatient basis instead of or in addition to the disposition otherwise provided for in this paragraph; (e) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act; or (f) subject to having his or her driver's license or driving privilege suspended for such time as determined by the Court but only until he or she attains 18 years of age. No disposition under this subsection shall provide for the minor's placement in a secure facility.

(2) Any order of disposition may provide for protective supervision under Section 4-22 and may include an order of protection under Section 4-23.

(3) Unless the order of disposition expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 4-29.

(4) In addition to any other order of disposition, the court may order any minor found to be addicted under this Article as neglected with respect to his or her own injurious behavior, to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentence hearing" referred to therein shall be the dispositional hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of such restitution on the minor's behalf.

(5) Any order for disposition where the minor is placed in accordance with Section 4-25 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of such minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. Such payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the order of disposition requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(7) The court must impose upon a minor under an order of continuance under supervision or an order of disposition under this Article IV, as a condition of the order, a fee of $25 for each month or partial month of supervision with a probation officer. If the court determines the inability of the minor, or the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the minor to pay the fee, the court may impose a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under this Act. The fee may be imposed only upon a minor who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee must be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court must pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit into the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-329, eff. 8-9-01; revised 10-9-03.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-710)

Sec. 5-710. Kinds of sentencing orders.

(1) The following kinds of sentencing orders may be made in respect of wards of the court:

(a) Except as provided in Sections 5-805, 5-810, 5-815, a minor who is found guilty under Section 5-620 may be:

(i) put on probation or conditional discharge and released to his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian, provided, however, that any such minor who is not committed to the Department of Corrections, Juvenile Division under this subsection and who is found to be a delinquent for an offense which is first degree murder, a Class X felony, or a forcible felony shall be placed on probation;

(ii) placed in accordance with Section 5-740, with or without also being put on probation or conditional discharge;

(iii) required to undergo a substance abuse assessment conducted by a licensed provider and participate in the indicated clinical level of care;

(iv) placed in the guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, but only if the delinquent minor is under 13 years of age;

(v) placed in detention for a period not to exceed 30 days, either as the exclusive order of disposition or, where appropriate, in conjunction with any other order of disposition issued under this paragraph, provided that any such detention shall be in a juvenile detention home and the minor so detained shall be 10 years of age or older. However, the 30-day limitation may be extended by further order of the court for a minor under age 13 committed to the Department of Children and Family Services if the court finds that the minor is a danger to himself or others. The minor shall be given credit on the sentencing order of detention for time spent in detention under Sections 5-501, 5-601, 5-710, or 5-720 of this Article as a result of the offense for which the sentencing order was imposed. The court may grant credit on a sentencing order of detention entered under a violation of probation or violation of conditional discharge under Section 5-720 of this Article for time spent in detention before the filing of the petition alleging the violation. A minor shall not be deprived of credit for time spent in detention before the filing of a violation of probation or conditional discharge alleging the same or related act or acts;

(vi) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act;

(vii) subject to having his or her driver's license or driving privileges suspended for such time as determined by the court but only until he or she attains 18 years of age;

(viii) put on probation or conditional discharge and placed in detention under Section 3-6039 of the Counties Code for a period not to exceed the period of incarceration permitted by law for adults found guilty of the same offense or offenses for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent, and in any event no longer than upon attainment of age 21; this subdivision (viii) notwithstanding any contrary provision of the law; or

(ix) ordered to undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from his or her body.

(b) A minor found to be guilty may be committed to the Department of Corrections, Juvenile Division, under Section 5-750 if the minor is 13 years of age or older, provided that the commitment to the Department of Corrections, Juvenile Division, shall be made only if a term of incarceration is permitted by law for adults found guilty of the offense for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent. The time during which a minor is in custody before being released upon the request of a parent, guardian or legal custodian shall be considered as time spent in detention.

(c) When a minor is found to be guilty for an offense which is a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Cannabis Control Act and made a ward of the court, the court may enter a disposition order requiring the minor to undergo assessment, counseling or treatment in a substance abuse program approved by the Department of Human Services.

(2) Any sentencing order other than commitment to the Department of Corrections, Juvenile Division, may provide for protective supervision under Section 5-725 and may include an order of protection under Section 5-730.

(3) Unless the sentencing order expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 5-750.

(4) In addition to any other sentence, the court may order any minor found to be delinquent to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentencing hearing" referred to in that Section shall be the sentencing hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may be ordered by the court to pay some or all of the restitution on the minor's behalf, pursuant to the Parental Responsibility Law. The State's Attorney is authorized to act on behalf of any victim in seeking restitution in proceedings under this Section, up to the maximum amount allowed in Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(5) Any sentencing order where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 5-740 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of the minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. The payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the sentencing order requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(7) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Corrections, Juvenile Division for a period of time in excess of that period for which an adult could be committed for the same act.

(8) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall be ordered to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage that was caused by the violation or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(8.5) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall be ordered to undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(9) In addition to any other sentencing order, the court shall order any minor found to be guilty for an act which would constitute, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or criminal sexual abuse if committed by an adult to undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agency of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the minor's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of the test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the sentencing order was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the minor of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or the legal guardian, of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at the Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed. The court shall order that the cost of any test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the minor.

(10) When a court finds a minor to be guilty the court shall, before entering a sentencing order under this Section, make a finding whether the offense committed either: (a) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the minor's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, or (b) involved a violation of subsection (a) of Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or a violation of any statute that involved the wrongful use of a firearm. If the court determines the question in the affirmative, and the court does not commit the minor to the Department of Corrections, Juvenile Division, the court shall order the minor to perform community service for not less than 30 hours nor more than 120 hours, provided that community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service shall be performed in the minor's neighborhood. This order shall be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section except for an order to place the minor in the custody of the Department of Corrections, Juvenile Division. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-98, eff. 1-1-00; 92-454, eff. 1-1-02; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 470. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by renumbering Section 2-.5, changing Sections 9-3, 10-6, 12-2, 12-10.1, 14-3, 17-1, and 24-2, and setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 12-4.10 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/2-0.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/2-.5)

Sec. 2-0.5 2-.5. Definitions. For the purposes of this Code, the words and phrases described in this Article have the meanings designated in this Article, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983; revised 1-22-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/9-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 93-178)

Sec. 9-3. Involuntary Manslaughter and Reckless Homicide.

(a) A person who unintentionally kills an individual without lawful justification commits involuntary manslaughter if his acts whether lawful or unlawful which cause the death are such as are likely to cause death or great bodily harm to some individual, and he performs them recklessly, except in cases in which the cause of the death consists of the driving of a motor vehicle or operating a snowmobile, all-terrain vehicle, or watercraft, in which case the person commits reckless homicide.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Sentence.

(1) Involuntary manslaughter is a Class 3 felony.

(2) Reckless homicide is a Class 3 felony.

(e) (Blank).

(e-5) (Blank).

(f) In cases involving involuntary manslaughter in which the victim was a family or household member as defined in paragraph (3) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the penalty shall be a Class 2 felony, for which a person if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 93-213, eff. 7-18-03.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 93-178)

Sec. 9-3. Involuntary Manslaughter and Reckless Homicide.

(a) A person who unintentionally kills an individual without lawful justification commits involuntary manslaughter if his acts whether lawful or unlawful which cause the death are such as are likely to cause death or great bodily harm to some individual, and he performs them recklessly, except in cases in which the cause of the death consists of the driving of a motor vehicle or operating a snowmobile, all-terrain vehicle, or watercraft, in which case the person commits reckless homicide.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Sentence.

(1) Involuntary manslaughter is a Class 3 felony.

(2) Reckless homicide is a Class 3 felony.

(e) (Blank). subsections, (e-7), and (e-8)

(e-5) (Blank).

(e-7) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e-8), in cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant was driving in a construction or maintenance zone, as defined in Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(e-8) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant was driving in a construction or maintenance zone, as defined in Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and caused the deaths of 2 or more persons as part of a single course of conduct, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years.

(f) In cases involving involuntary manslaughter in which the victim was a family or household member as defined in paragraph (3) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the penalty shall be a Class 2 felony, for which a person if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 93-178, eff. 6-1-04; 93-213, eff. 7-18-03; revised 7-28-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/10-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-6)

Sec. 10-6. Harboring a runaway.

(a) Any person, other than an agency or association providing crisis intervention services as defined in Section 3-5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or an operator of a youth emergency shelter as defined in Section 2.21 of the Child Care Act of 1969, who, without the knowledge and consent of the minor's parent or guardian, knowingly gives shelter to a minor, other than a mature minor who has been emancipated under the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act, for more than 48 hours without the consent of the minor's parent or guardian, and without notifying the local law enforcement authorities of the minor's name and the fact that the minor is being provided shelter commits the offense of harboring a runaway.

(b) Any person who commits the offense of harboring a runaway is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 86-278; 86-386; revised 10-9-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-2)

Sec. 12-2. Aggravated assault.

(a) A person commits an aggravated assault, when, in committing an assault, he:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm, other than by discharging a firearm in the direction of another person, a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional officer or a fireman or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by another person, a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional officer or a fireman while the officer or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the officer or fireman performing his official duties;

(2) Is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm;

(3) Knows the individual assaulted to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and such teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes;

(4) Knows the individual assaulted to be a supervisor, director, instructor or other person employed in any park district and such supervisor, director, instructor or other employee is upon the grounds of the park or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for park purposes;

(5) Knows the individual assaulted to be a caseworker, investigator, or other person employed by the State Department of Public Aid, a County Department of Public Aid, or the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) and such caseworker, investigator, or other person is upon the grounds of a public aid office or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for public aid purposes, or upon the grounds of a home of a public aid applicant, recipient or any other person being interviewed or investigated in the employees' discharge of his duties, or on grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building in which the applicant, recipient, or other such person resides or is located;

(6) Knows the individual assaulted to be a peace officer, or a community policing volunteer, or a fireman while the officer or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the officer, community policing volunteer, or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, community policing volunteer, or fireman performing his official duties, and the assault is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm in the direction of the officer or fireman or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by the officer or fireman;

(7) Knows the individual assaulted to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver or other medical assistance or first aid personnel engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his official duties;

(8) Knows the individual assaulted to be the driver, operator, employee or passenger of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transportation of the public for hire and the individual assaulted is then performing in such capacity or then using such public transportation as a passenger or using any area of any description designated by the transportation facility or system as a vehicle boarding, departure, or transfer location;

(9) Or the individual assaulted is on or about a public way, public property, or public place of accommodation or amusement;

(10) Knows the individual assaulted to be an employee of the State of Illinois, a municipal corporation therein or a political subdivision thereof, engaged in the performance of his authorized duties as such employee;

(11) Knowingly and without legal justification, commits an assault on a physically handicapped person;

(12) Knowingly and without legal justification, commits an assault on a person 60 years of age or older;

(13) Discharges a firearm;

(14) Knows the individual assaulted to be a correctional officer, while the officer is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer performing his or her official duties;

(15) Knows the individual assaulted to be a correctional employee or an employee of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons, while the employee is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his or her official duties, and the assault is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm in the direction of the employee or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by the employee; or

(16) Knows the individual assaulted to be an employee of a police or sheriff's department engaged in the performance of his or her official duties as such employee.

(a-5) A person commits an aggravated assault when he or she knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device that is attached or affixed to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes near or in the immediate vicinity of any person.

(b) Sentence.

Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (1) through (5) and (8) through (12) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (13), (14), and (15) of subsection (a) of this Section and as defined in subsection (a-5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (6), (7), and (16) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor if a firearm is not used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (6), (7), and (16) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony if a firearm is used in the commission of the assault.

(Source: P.A. 91-672, eff. 1-1-00; 92-841, eff. 8-22-02; 92-865, eff. 1-3-03; revised 1-9-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.10)

Sec. 12-4.10. Drug related child endangerment.

(a) A person commits the offense of drug related child endangerment when he or she endangers the life and health of a child by knowingly exposing the child to a clandestine drug laboratory environment by performing any of the following acts:

(1) producing, manufacturing, or preparing a controlled substance; or

(2) producing, manufacturing, or preparing an ingredient required to manufacture a controlled substance; or

(3) storing chemicals used in the controlled substance manufacturing process in a structure to which the child has access; or

(4) storing contaminated apparatus used in the controlled substance manufacturing process in a structure to which the child has access; or

(5) storing chemical waste and other by-products created during the controlled substance manufacturing process in a structure to which the child has access; or

(6) storing any device used for the ingestion of controlled substances in a structure to which the child has access.

(b) In this Section:

"Child" means a person under the age of 18 years.

"Structure" means any house, apartment building, shop, barn, warehouse, building, vessel, railroad car, cargo container, motor vehicle, house car, trailer, trailer coach, camper, mine, floating home, watercraft, any structure capable of holding a clandestine laboratory or any real property.

(c) Sentence. A person convicted of drug related child endangerment is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 93-340, eff. 7-24-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.12)

Sec. 12-4.12 12-4.10. Endangering the life and health of an emergency service provider.

(a) A person commits the offense of endangering the life and health of an emergency service provider if an emergency service provider experiences death, great bodily harm, disability, or disfigurement as a result of entering a structure containing a clandestine drug laboratory designed or intended to produce an unlawful controlled substance or designed or intended to produce ingredients used in the manufacture of an unlawful controlled substance.

(b) In this Section:

"Emergency service provider" means a peace officer, a firefighter, an emergency medical technician-ambulance, an emergency medical-technician-intermediate, an emergency medical technician-paramedic, an ambulance driver or other medical or first aid personnel.

"Structure" means any house, apartment building, shop, barn, warehouse, building, vessel, railroad car, cargo container, motor vehicle, housecar, trailer, trailer coach, camper, mine, floating home, watercraft, any structure capable of holding a clandestine laboratory or any real property.

(c) Sentence. Endangering the life and health of an emergency service provider is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 93-111, eff. 7-8-03; revised 9-25-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-10.1)

Sec. 12-10.1. Piercing the body of a minor.

(a)(1) Any person who pierces the body or oral cavity of a person under 18 years of age without written consent of a parent or legal guardian of that person commits the offense of piercing the body of a minor. Before the oral cavity of a person under 18 years of age may be pierced, the written consent form signed by the parent or legal guardian must contain a provision in substantially the following form:

"I understand that the oral piercing of the tongue, lips, cheeks, or any other area of the oral cavity carries serious risk of infection or damage to the mouth and teeth, or both infection and damage to those areas, that could result but is not limited to nerve damage, numbness, and life threatening blood clots.".

A person who pierces the oral cavity of a person under 18 years of age without obtaining a signed written consent form from a parent or legal guardian of the person that includes the provision describing the health risks of body piercing, violates this Section.

(2) Sentence. Piercing the body of a minor is a Class C misdemeanor.

(b) Definition. As used in this Section, to "pierce" means to make a hole in the body or oral cavity in order to insert or allow the insertion of any ring, hoop, stud, or other object for the purpose of ornamentation of the body. "Piercing" does not include tongue splitting as defined in Section 12-10.2.

(c) Exceptions. This Section may not be construed in any way to prohibit any injection, incision, acupuncture, or similar medical or dental procedure performed by a licensed health care professional or other person authorized to perform that procedure. This Section does not prohibit ear piercing. This Section does not apply to a minor emancipated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act or by marriage.

(Source: P.A. 92-692, eff. 1-1-03; 93-449, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-3)

Sec. 14-3. Exemptions. The following activities shall be exempt from the provisions of this Article:

(a) Listening to radio, wireless and television communications of any sort where the same are publicly made;

(b) Hearing conversation when heard by employees of any common carrier by wire incidental to the normal course of their employment in the operation, maintenance or repair of the equipment of such common carrier by wire so long as no information obtained thereby is used or divulged by the hearer;

(c) Any broadcast by radio, television or otherwise whether it be a broadcast or recorded for the purpose of later broadcasts of any function where the public is in attendance and the conversations are overheard incidental to the main purpose for which such broadcasts are then being made;

(d) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to any emergency communication made in the normal course of operations by any federal, state or local law enforcement agency or institutions dealing in emergency services, including, but not limited to, hospitals, clinics, ambulance services, fire fighting agencies, any public utility, emergency repair facility, civilian defense establishment or military installation;

(e) Recording the proceedings of any meeting required to be open by the Open Meetings Act, as amended;

(f) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to incoming telephone calls of phone lines publicly listed or advertised as consumer "hotlines" by manufacturers or retailers of food and drug products. Such recordings must be destroyed, erased or turned over to local law enforcement authorities within 24 hours from the time of such recording and shall not be otherwise disseminated. Failure on the part of the individual or business operating any such recording or listening device to comply with the requirements of this subsection shall eliminate any civil or criminal immunity conferred upon that individual or business by the operation of this Section;

(g) With prior notification to the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded under circumstances where the use of the device is necessary for the protection of the law enforcement officer or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, in the course of an investigation of a forcible felony, a felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, a felony violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any "streetgang related" or "gang-related" felony as those terms are defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act. Any recording or evidence derived as the result of this exemption shall be inadmissible in any proceeding, criminal, civil or administrative, except (i) where a party to the conversation suffers great bodily injury or is killed during such conversation, or (ii) when used as direct impeachment of a witness concerning matters contained in the interception or recording. The Director of the Department of State Police shall issue regulations as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of tape recordings, and reports regarding their use;

(g-5) With approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of any offense defined in Article 29D of this Code. In all such cases, an application for an order approving the previous or continuing use of an eavesdropping device must be made within 48 hours of the commencement of such use. In the absence of such an order, or upon its denial, any continuing use shall immediately terminate. The Director of State Police shall issue rules as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of tape recordings, and reports regarding their use.

Any recording or evidence obtained or derived in the course of an investigation of any offense defined in Article 29D of this Code shall, upon motion of the State's Attorney or Attorney General prosecuting any violation of Article 29D, be reviewed in camera with notice to all parties present by the court presiding over the criminal case, and, if ruled by the court to be relevant and otherwise admissible, it shall be admissible at the trial of the criminal case.

This subsection (g-5) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2005. No conversations recorded or monitored pursuant to this subsection (g-5) shall be inadmissible inadmissable in a court of law by virtue of the repeal of this subsection (g-5) on January 1, 2005;

(h) Recordings made simultaneously with a video recording of an oral conversation between a peace officer, who has identified his or her office, and a person stopped for an investigation of an offense under the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(i) Recording of a conversation made by or at the request of a person, not a law enforcement officer or agent of a law enforcement officer, who is a party to the conversation, under reasonable suspicion that another party to the conversation is committing, is about to commit, or has committed a criminal offense against the person or a member of his or her immediate household, and there is reason to believe that evidence of the criminal offense may be obtained by the recording;

(j) The use of a telephone monitoring device by either (1) a corporation or other business entity engaged in marketing or opinion research or (2) a corporation or other business entity engaged in telephone solicitation, as defined in this subsection, to record or listen to oral telephone solicitation conversations or marketing or opinion research conversations by an employee of the corporation or other business entity when:

(i) the monitoring is used for the purpose of service quality control of marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, the education or training of employees or contractors engaged in marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, or internal research related to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation; and

(ii) the monitoring is used with the consent of at least one person who is an active party to the marketing or opinion research conversation or telephone solicitation conversation being monitored.

No communication or conversation or any part, portion, or aspect of the communication or conversation made, acquired, or obtained, directly or indirectly, under this exemption (j), may be, directly or indirectly, furnished to any law enforcement officer, agency, or official for any purpose or used in any inquiry or investigation, or used, directly or indirectly, in any administrative, judicial, or other proceeding, or divulged to any third party.

When recording or listening authorized by this subsection (j) on telephone lines used for marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation purposes results in recording or listening to a conversation that does not relate to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation; the person recording or listening shall, immediately upon determining that the conversation does not relate to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, terminate the recording or listening and destroy any such recording as soon as is practicable.

Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall provide current and prospective employees with notice that the monitoring or recordings may occur during the course of their employment. The notice shall include prominent signage notification within the workplace.

Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall provide their employees or agents with access to personal-only telephone lines which may be pay telephones, that are not subject to telephone monitoring or telephone recording.

For the purposes of this subsection (j), "telephone solicitation" means a communication through the use of a telephone by live operators:

(i) soliciting the sale of goods or services;

(ii) receiving orders for the sale of goods or services;

(iii) assisting in the use of goods or services; or

(iv) engaging in the solicitation, administration, or collection of bank or retail credit accounts.

For the purposes of this subsection (j), "marketing or opinion research" means a marketing or opinion research interview conducted by a live telephone interviewer engaged by a corporation or other business entity whose principal business is the design, conduct, and analysis of polls and surveys measuring the opinions, attitudes, and responses of respondents toward products and services, or social or political issues, or both; .

(k) Electronic recordings, including but not limited to, a motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of a custodial interrogation of an individual at a police station or other place of detention by a law enforcement officer under Section 5-401.5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or Section 103-2.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; and

(l) (k) Recording the interview or statement of any person when the person knows that the interview is being conducted by a law enforcement officer or prosecutor and the interview takes place at a police station that is currently participating in the Custodial Interview Pilot Program established under the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02; 93-206, eff. 7-18-03; 93-517, eff. 8-6-03; 93-605, eff. 11-19-03; revised 12-9-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-1)

Sec. 17-1. Deceptive practices.

(A) Definitions.

As used in this Section:

(i) A "Financial institution" means any bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or other depository of money, or medium of savings and collective investment.

(ii) An "account holder" is any person, having a checking account or savings account in a financial institution.

(iii) To act with the "intent to defraud" means to act wilfully, and with the specific intent to deceive or cheat, for the purpose of causing financial loss to another, or to bring some financial gain to oneself. It is not necessary to establish that any person was actually defrauded or deceived.

(B) General Deception.

A person commits a deceptive practice when, with intent to defraud, the person does any of the following:

(a) He or she causes another, by deception or threat, to execute a document disposing of property or a document by which a pecuniary obligation is incurred. , or

(b) Being an officer, manager or other person participating in the direction of a financial institution, he or she knowingly receives or permits the receipt of a deposit or other investment, knowing that the institution is insolvent. , or

(c) He or she knowingly makes or directs another to make a false or deceptive statement addressed to the public for the purpose of promoting the sale of property or services. , or

(d) With intent to obtain control over property or to pay for property, labor or services of another, or in satisfaction of an obligation for payment of tax under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or any other tax due to the State of Illinois, he or she issues or delivers a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository. Failure to have sufficient funds or credit with the depository when the check or other order is issued or delivered, or when such check or other order is presented for payment and dishonored on each of 2 occasions at least 7 days apart, is prima facie evidence that the offender knows that it will not be paid by the depository, and that he or she has the intent to defraud. In this paragraph (d), "property" includes rental property (real or personal).

(e) He or she issues or delivers a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository in an amount exceeding $150 in payment of an amount owed on any credit transaction for property, labor or services, or in payment of the entire amount owed on any credit transaction for property, labor or services, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, and thereafter fails to provide funds or credit with the depository in the face amount of the check or order within 7 seven days of receiving actual notice from the depository or payee of the dishonor of the check or order.

Sentence.

A person convicted of a deceptive practice under paragraph paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d), or through (e) of this subsection (B), except as otherwise provided by this Section, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

A person convicted of a deceptive practice in violation of paragraph (d) a second or subsequent time shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.

A person convicted of deceptive practices in violation of paragraph (d), when the value of the property so obtained, in a single transaction, or in separate transactions within a 90 day period, exceeds $150, shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony. In the case of a prosecution for separate transactions totaling more than $150 within a 90 day period, such separate transactions shall be alleged in a single charge and provided in a single prosecution.

(C) Deception on a Bank or Other Financial Institution.

(1) False Statements.

1) Any person who, with the intent to defraud, makes or causes to be made, any false statement in writing in order to obtain an account with a bank or other financial institution, or to obtain credit from a bank or other financial institution, knowing such writing to be false, and with the intent that it be relied upon, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For purposes of this subsection (C), a false statement shall mean any false statement representing identity, address, or employment, or the identity, address or employment of any person, firm or corporation.

(2) Possession of Stolen or Fraudulently Obtained Checks.

2) Any person who possesses, with the intent to obtain access to funds of another person held in a real or fictitious deposit account at a financial institution, makes a false statement or a misrepresentation to the financial institution, or possesses, transfers, negotiates, or presents for payment a check, draft, or other item purported to direct the financial institution to withdraw or pay funds out of the account holder's deposit account with knowledge that such possession, transfer, negotiation, or presentment is not authorized by the account holder or the issuing financial institution is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A person shall be deemed to have been authorized to possess, transfer, negotiate, or present for payment such item if the person was otherwise entitled by law to withdraw or recover funds from the account in question and followed the requisite procedures under the law. In the event that the account holder, upon discovery of the withdrawal or payment, claims that the withdrawal or payment was not authorized, the financial institution may require the account holder to submit an affidavit to that effect on a form satisfactory to the financial institution before the financial institution may be required to credit the account in an amount equal to the amount or amounts that were withdrawn or paid without authorization.

Any person who, within any 12 month period, violates this Section with respect to 3 or more checks or orders for the payment of money at the same time or consecutively, each the property of a different account holder or financial institution, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(3) Possession of Implements of Check Fraud.

Any person who possesses, with the intent to defraud, and without the authority of the account holder or financial institution, any check imprinter, signature imprinter, or "certified" stamp is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

A person who within any 12 month period violates this subsection (C) as to possession of 3 or more such devices at the same time or consecutively, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(4) Possession of Identification Card.

4) Any person, who, with the intent to defraud, possesses any check guarantee card or key card or identification card for cash dispensing machines without the authority of the account holder or financial institution, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

A person who, within any 12 month period, violates this Section at the same time or consecutively with respect to 3 or more cards, each the property of different account holders, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

A person convicted under this Section, when the value of property so obtained, in a single transaction, or in separate transactions within any 90 day period, exceeds $150 shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 92-633, eff. 1-1-03; 92-646, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-3-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by an agency certified by the Department of Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment, provided that such commuting is accomplished within one hour from departure from home or place of employment, as the case may be. Persons exempted under this subdivision (a)(5) shall be required to have completed a course of study in firearms handling and training approved and supervised by the Department of Professional Regulation as prescribed by Section 28 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004, prior to becoming eligible for this exemption. The Department of Professional Regulation shall provide suitable documentation demonstrating the successful completion of the prescribed firearms training. Such documentation shall be carried at all times when such persons are in possession of a concealable weapon.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force of at least 5 persons registered with the Department of Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm authorization card by the Department of Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm authorization cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm authorization card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm authorization card by the Department of Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm authorization cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm authorization card shall be carried by the person so trained at all times when such person is in possession of a concealable weapon. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately accessible.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.

(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordinance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordinance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, those devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 92-325, eff. 8-9-01; 93-438, eff. 8-5-03; 93-439, eff. 8-5-03; 93-576, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-15-03.)

Section 475. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 108B-5, 108B-11, 112A-28, and 122-1 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/108B-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 108B-5)

Sec. 108B-5. Requirements for order of interception.

(a) Upon consideration of an application, the chief judge may enter an ex parte order, as requested or as modified, authorizing the interception of a private communication, if the chief judge determines on the basis of the application submitted by the applicant, that:

(1) There is probable cause for belief that (A) (a) the person whose private communication is to be intercepted is committing, has committed, or is about to commit an offense enumerated in Section 108B-3, or (B) (b) the facilities from which, or the place where, the private communication is to be intercepted, is, has been, or is about to be used in connection with the commission of the offense, or is leased to, listed in the name of, or commonly used by, the person; and

(2) There is probable cause for belief that a particular private communication concerning such offense may be obtained through the interception; and

(3) Normal investigative procedures with respect to the offense have been tried and have failed or reasonably appear to be unlikely to succeed if tried or too dangerous to employ; and

(4) The electronic criminal surveillance officers to be authorized to supervise the interception of the private communication have been certified by the Department.

(b) In the case of an application, other than for an extension, for an order to intercept a communication of a person or on a wire communication facility that was the subject of a previous order authorizing interception, the application shall be based upon new evidence or information different from and in addition to the evidence or information offered to support the prior order, regardless of whether the evidence was derived from prior interceptions or from other sources.

(c) The chief judge may authorize interception of a private communication anywhere in the judicial circuit. If the court authorizes the use of an eavesdropping device with respect to a vehicle, watercraft, or aircraft that is within the judicial circuit at the time the order is issued, the order may provide that the interception may continue anywhere within the State if the vehicle, watercraft, or aircraft leaves the judicial circuit.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02; revised 1-20-03.)

(725 ILCS 5/108B-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 108B-11)

Sec. 108B-11. Inventory.

(a) Within a reasonable period of time but not later than 90 days after the termination of the period of the order, or its extensions, or the date of the denial of an application made under Section 108B-8, the chief judge issuing or denying the order or extension shall cause an inventory to be served on any person:

(1) named in the order;

(2) arrested as a result of the interception of his private communication;

(3) indicted or otherwise charged as a result of the interception of his private communication;

(4) Any person whose private communication was intercepted and who the judge issuing or denying the order or application may in his discretion determine should be informed in the interest of justice.

(b) The inventory under this Section shall include:

(1) notice of the entry of the order or the application for an order denied under Section 108B-8;

(2) the date of the entry of the order or the denial of an order applied for under Section 108B-8;

(3) the period of authorized or disapproved interception; and

(4) the fact that during the period a private communication was or was not intercepted.

(c) A court of competent jurisdiction, upon filing of a motion, may in its discretion make available to those persons or their attorneys for inspection those portions of the intercepted communications, applications and orders as the court determines to be in the interest of justice.

(d) On an ex parte showing of good cause to a court of competent jurisdiction, the serving of the inventories required by this Section may be postponed for a period not to exceed 12 months.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02; revised 1-20-03.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-28) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-28)

Sec. 112A-28. Data maintenance by law enforcement agencies.

(a) All sheriffs shall furnish to the Department of State Police, daily, in the form and detail the Department requires, copies of any recorded orders of protection issued by the court, and any foreign orders of protection filed by the clerk of the court, and transmitted to the sheriff by the clerk of the court pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 112A-22 of this Act. Each order of protection shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Automated Data System on the same day it is issued by the court. If an emergency order of protection was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 112A-17, the order shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Automated Data System as soon as possible after receipt from the clerk.

(b) The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete and systematic record and index of all valid and recorded orders of protection issued or filed pursuant to this Act. The data shall be used to inform all dispatchers and law enforcement officers at the scene of an alleged incident of abuse or violation of an order of protection of any recorded prior incident of abuse involving the abused party and the effective dates and terms of any recorded order of protection.

(c) The data, records and transmittals required under this Section shall pertain to any valid emergency, interim or plenary order of protection, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding or authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(Source: P.A. 90-392, eff. 1-1-98; 91-903, eff. 1-1-01; revised 2-17-03.)

(725 ILCS 5/122-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 122-1)

Sec. 122-1. Petition in the trial court.

(a) Any person imprisoned in the penitentiary may institute a proceeding under this Article if the person asserts that:

(1) in the proceedings which resulted in his or her conviction there was a substantial denial of his or her rights under the Constitution of the United States or of the State of Illinois or both; or

(2) the death penalty was imposed and there is newly discovered evidence not available to the person at the time of the proceeding that resulted in his or her conviction that establishes a substantial basis to believe that the defendant is actually innocent by clear and convincing evidence.

(a-5) A proceeding under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) may be commenced within a reasonable period of time after the person's conviction notwithstanding any other provisions of this Article. In such a proceeding regarding actual innocence, if the court determines the petition is frivolous or is patently without merit, it shall dismiss the petition in a written order, specifying the findings of fact and conclusions of law it made in reaching its decision. Such order of dismissal is a final judgment and shall be served upon the petitioner by certified mail within 10 days of its entry.

(b) The proceeding shall be commenced by filing with the clerk of the court in which the conviction took place a petition (together with a copy thereof) verified by affidavit. Petitioner shall also serve another copy upon the State's Attorney by any of the methods provided in Rule 7 of the Supreme Court. The clerk shall docket the petition for consideration by the court pursuant to Section 122-2.1 upon his or her receipt thereof and bring the same promptly to the attention of the court.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (a-5), if the petitioner is under sentence of death, no proceedings under this Article shall be commenced more than 6 months after the denial of a petition for certiorari to the United States Supreme Court on direct appeal, or more than 6 months from the date for filing such a petition if none is filed, unless the petitioner alleges facts showing that the delay was not due to his or her culpable negligence.

When a defendant has a sentence other than death, no proceedings under this Article shall be commenced more than 6 months after the denial of the Petition for Leave to Appeal to the Illinois Supreme Court, or more than 6 months from the date for filing such a petition if none is filed, unless the petitioner alleges facts showing that the delay was not due to his or her culpable negligence.

This limitation does not apply to a petition advancing a claim of actual innocence.

(d) A person seeking relief by filing a petition under this Section must specify in the petition or its heading that it is filed under this Section. A trial court that has received a petition complaining of a conviction or sentence that fails to specify in the petition or its heading that it is filed under this Section need not evaluate the petition to determine whether it could otherwise have stated some grounds for relief under this Article.

(e) A proceeding under this Article may not be commenced on behalf of a defendant who has been sentenced to death without the written consent of the defendant, unless the defendant, because of a mental or physical condition, is incapable of asserting his or her own claim.

(f) Only one petition may be filed by a petitioner under this Article without leave of the court. Leave of court may be granted only if a petitioner demonstrates cause for his or her failure to bring the claim in his or her initial post-conviction proceedings and prejudice results from that failure. For purposes of this subsection (f): (1) a prisoner shows cause by identifying an objective factor that impeded his or her ability to raise a specific claim during his or her initial post-conviction proceedings; and (2) a prisoner shows prejudice by demonstrating that the claim not raised during his or her initial post-conviction proceedings so infected the trial that the resulting conviction or sentence violated due process.

(Source: P.A. 93-493, eff. 1-1-04; 93-605, eff. 11-19-03; revised 12-9-03.)

Section 480. The Capital Crimes Litigation Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 19 as follows:

(725 ILCS 124/15)

Sec. 15. Capital Litigation Trust Fund.

(a) The Capital Litigation Trust Fund is created as a special fund in the State Treasury. The Trust Fund shall be administered by the State Treasurer to provide moneys for the appropriations to be made, grants to be awarded, and compensation and expenses to be paid under this Act. All interest earned from the investment or deposit of moneys accumulated in the Trust Fund shall, under Section 4.1 of the State Finance Act, be deposited into the Trust Fund.

(b) Moneys deposited into the Trust Fund shall not be considered general revenue of the State of Illinois.

(c) Moneys deposited into the Trust Fund shall be used exclusively for the purposes of providing funding for the prosecution and defense of capital cases as provided in this Act and shall not be appropriated, loaned, or in any manner transferred to the General Revenue Fund of the State of Illinois.

(d) Every fiscal year the State Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Capital Litigation Trust Fund an amount equal to the full amount of moneys appropriated by the General Assembly (both by original and supplemental appropriation), less any unexpended balance from the previous fiscal year, from the Capital Litigation Trust Fund for the specific purpose of making funding available for the prosecution and defense of capital cases. The Public Defender and State's Attorney in Cook County, the State Appellate Defender, the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor, and the Attorney General shall make annual requests for appropriations from the Trust Fund.

(1) The Public Defender in Cook County shall request appropriations to the State Treasurer for expenses incurred by the Public Defender and for funding for private appointed defense counsel in Cook County.

(2) The State's Attorney in Cook County shall request an appropriation to the State Treasurer for expenses incurred by the State's Attorney.

(3) The State Appellate Defender shall request a direct appropriation from the Trust Fund for expenses incurred by the State Appellate Defender in providing assistance to trial attorneys under item (c)(5) of Section 10 of the State Appellate Defender Act and an appropriation to the State Treasurer for payments from the Trust Fund for the defense of cases in counties other than Cook County.

(4) The State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall request a direct appropriation from the Trust Fund to pay expenses incurred by the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and an appropriation to the State Treasurer for payments from the Trust Fund for expenses incurred by State's Attorneys in counties other than Cook County.

(5) The Attorney General shall request a direct appropriation from the Trust Fund to pay expenses incurred by the Attorney General in assisting the State's Attorneys in counties other than Cook County and to pay for expenses incurred by the Attorney General when the Attorney General is ordered by the presiding judge of the Criminal Division of the Circuit Court of Cook County to prosecute or supervise the prosecution of Cook County cases.

The Public Defender and State's Attorney in Cook County, the State Appellate Defender, the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor, and the Attorney General may each request supplemental appropriations from the Trust Fund during the fiscal year.

(e) Moneys in the Trust Fund shall be expended only as follows:

(1) To pay the State Treasurer's costs to administer the Trust Fund. The amount for this purpose may not exceed 5% in any one fiscal year of the amount otherwise appropriated from the Trust Fund in the same fiscal year.

(2) To pay the capital litigation expenses of trial defense including, but not limited to, DNA testing, including DNA testing under Section 116-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, analysis, and expert testimony, investigatory and other assistance, expert, forensic, and other witnesses, and mitigation specialists, and grants and aid provided to public defenders or assistance to attorneys who have been appointed by the court to represent defendants who are charged with capital crimes.

(3) To pay the compensation of trial attorneys, other than public defenders, who have been appointed by the court to represent defendants who are charged with capital crimes.

(4) To provide State's Attorneys with funding for capital litigation expenses including, but not limited to, investigatory and other assistance and expert, forensic, and other witnesses necessary to prosecute capital cases. State's Attorneys in any county other than Cook County seeking funding for capital litigation expenses including, but not limited to, investigatory and other assistance and expert, forensic, or other witnesses under this Section may request that the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor or the Attorney General, as the case may be, certify the expenses as reasonable, necessary, and appropriate for payment from the Trust Fund, on a form created by the State Treasurer. Upon certification of the expenses and delivery of the certification to the State Treasurer, the Treasurer shall pay the expenses directly from the Capital Litigation Trust Fund if there are sufficient moneys in the Trust Fund to pay the expenses.

(5) To provide financial support through the Attorney General pursuant to the Attorney General Act for the several county State's Attorneys outside of Cook County, but shall not be used to increase personnel for the Attorney General's Office, except when the Attorney General is ordered by the presiding judge of the Criminal Division of the Circuit Court of Cook County to prosecute or supervise the prosecution of Cook County cases.

(6) To provide financial support through the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor pursuant to the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act for the several county State's Attorneys outside of Cook County, but shall not be used to increase personnel for the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor.

(7) To provide financial support to the State Appellate Defender pursuant to the State Appellate Defender Act.

Moneys expended from the Trust Fund shall be in addition to county funding for Public Defenders and State's Attorneys, and shall not be used to supplant or reduce ordinary and customary county funding.

(f) Moneys in the Trust Fund shall be appropriated to the State Appellate Defender, the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor, the Attorney General, and the State Treasurer. The State Appellate Defender shall receive an appropriation from the Trust Fund to enable it to provide assistance to appointed defense counsel throughout the State and to Public Defenders in counties other than Cook. The State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and the Attorney General shall receive appropriations from the Trust Fund to enable them to provide assistance to State's Attorneys in counties other than Cook County and when the Attorney General is ordered by the presiding judge of the Criminal Division of the Circuit Court of Cook County to prosecute or supervise the prosecution of Cook County cases. Moneys shall be appropriated to the State Treasurer to enable the Treasurer (i) to make grants to Cook County, (ii) to pay the expenses of Public Defenders and State's Attorneys in counties other than Cook County, (iii) to pay the expenses and compensation of appointed defense counsel in counties other than Cook County, and (iv) to pay the costs of administering the Trust Fund. All expenditures and grants made from the Trust Fund shall be subject to audit by the Auditor General.

(g) For Cook County, grants from the Trust Fund shall be made and administered as follows:

(1) For each State fiscal year, the State's Attorney and Public Defender must each make a separate application to the State Treasurer for capital litigation grants.

(2) The State Treasurer shall establish rules and procedures for grant applications. The rules shall require the Cook County Treasurer as the grant recipient to report on a periodic basis to the State Treasurer how much of the grant has been expended, how much of the grant is remaining, and the purposes for which the grant has been used. The rules may also require the Cook County Treasurer to certify on a periodic basis that expenditures of the funds have been made for expenses that are reasonable, necessary, and appropriate for payment from the Trust Fund.

(3) The State Treasurer shall make the grants to the Cook County Treasurer as soon as possible after the beginning of the State fiscal year.

(4) The State's Attorney or Public Defender may apply for supplemental grants during the fiscal year.

(5) Grant moneys shall be paid to the Cook County Treasurer in block grants and held in separate accounts for the State's Attorney, the Public Defender, and court appointed defense counsel other than the Cook County Public Defender, respectively, for the designated fiscal year, and are not subject to county appropriation.

(6) Expenditure of grant moneys under this subsection (g) is subject to audit by the Auditor General.

(7) The Cook County Treasurer shall immediately make payment from the appropriate separate account in the county treasury for capital litigation expenses to the State's Attorney, Public Defender, or court appointed defense counsel other than the Public Defender, as the case may be, upon order of the State's Attorney, Public Defender or the court, respectively.

(h) If a defendant in a capital case in Cook County is represented by court appointed counsel other than the Cook County Public Defender, the appointed counsel shall petition the court for an order directing the Cook County Treasurer to pay the court appointed counsel's reasonable and necessary compensation and capital litigation expenses from grant moneys provided from the Trust Fund. These petitions shall be considered in camera. Orders denying petitions for compensation or expenses are final. Counsel may not petition for expenses that may have been provided or compensated by the State Appellate Defender under item (c)(5) of Section 10 of the State Appellate Defender Act.

(i) In counties other than Cook County, and when the Attorney General is ordered by the presiding judge of the Criminal Division of the Circuit Court of Cook County to prosecute or supervise the prosecution of Cook County cases, and excluding capital litigation expenses or services that may have been provided by the State Appellate Defender under item (c)(5) of Section 10 of the State Appellate Defender Act:

(1) Upon certification by the circuit court, on a form created by the State Treasurer, that all or a portion of the expenses are reasonable, necessary, and appropriate for payment from the Trust Fund and the court's delivery of the certification to the Treasurer, the Treasurer shall pay the certified expenses of Public Defenders from the money appropriated to the Treasurer for capital litigation expenses of Public Defenders in any county other than Cook County, if there are sufficient moneys in the Trust Fund to pay the expenses.

(2) If a defendant in a capital case is represented by court appointed counsel other than the Public Defender, the appointed counsel shall petition the court to certify compensation and capital litigation expenses including, but not limited to, investigatory and other assistance, expert, forensic, and other witnesses, and mitigation specialists as reasonable, necessary, and appropriate for payment from the Trust Fund. Upon certification on a form created by the State Treasurer of all or a portion of the compensation and expenses certified as reasonable, necessary, and appropriate for payment from the Trust Fund and the court's delivery of the certification to the Treasurer, the State Treasurer shall pay the certified compensation and expenses from the money appropriated to the Treasurer for that purpose, if there are sufficient moneys in the Trust Fund to make those payments.

(3) A petition for capital litigation expenses under this subsection shall be considered in camera. Orders denying petitions for compensation or expenses are final.

(j) If the Trust Fund is discontinued or dissolved by an Act of the General Assembly or by operation of law, any balance remaining in the Trust Fund shall be returned to the General Revenue Fund after deduction of administrative costs, any other provision of this Act to the contrary notwithstanding.

(Source: P.A. 93-127, eff. 1-1-04; 93-605, eff. 11-19-03; revised 12-9-03.)

(725 ILCS 124/19)

Sec. 19. Report; repeal.

(a) The Cook County Public Defender, the Cook County State's Attorney, the State Appellate Defender, the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor, and the Attorney General shall each report separately to the General Assembly by January 1, 2004 detailing the amounts of money received by them through this Act, the uses for which those funds were expended, the balances then in the Capital Litigation Trust Fund or county accounts, as the case may be, dedicated to them for the use and support of Public Defenders, appointed trial defense counsel, and State's Attorneys, as the case may be. The report shall describe and discuss the need for continued funding through the Fund and contain any suggestions for changes to this Act.

(b) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 93-605, eff. 11-19-03; revised 12-9-03.)

Section 485. The Sexually Dangerous Persons Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(725 ILCS 205/9) (from Ch. 38, par. 105-9)

Sec. 9. An application in writing setting forth facts showing that such sexually dangerous person or criminal sexual psychopathic person has recovered may be filed before the committing court. Upon receipt thereof, the clerk of the court shall cause a copy of the application to be sent to the Director of the Department of Corrections. The Director shall then cause to be prepared and sent to the court a socio-psychiatric report concerning the applicant. The report shall be prepared by a social worker and psychologist under the supervision of a licensed psychiatrist assigned to, the institution wherein such applicant is confined. The court shall set a date for the hearing upon such application and shall consider the report so prepared under the direction of the Director of the Department of Corrections and any other relevant information submitted by or on behalf of such applicant. If the person is found to be no longer dangerous, the court shall order that he be discharged. If the court finds that the person appears no longer to be dangerous but that it is impossible to determine with certainty under conditions of institutional care that such person has fully recovered, the court shall enter an order permitting such person to go at large subject to such conditions and such supervision by the Director as in the opinion of the court will adequately protect the public. In the event the person violates any of the conditions of such order, the court shall revoke such conditional release and recommit the person pursuant to Section 5-6-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections under the terms of the original commitment. Upon an order of discharge every outstanding information and indictment, the basis of which was the reason for the present detention, shall be quashed.

(Source: P.A. 92-786, eff. 8-6-02; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 490. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(725 ILCS 207/25)

Sec. 25. Rights of persons subject to petition.

(a) Any person who is the subject of a petition filed under Section 15 of this Act shall be served with a copy of the petition in accordance with the Civil Practice Law.

(b) The circuit court in which a petition under Section 15 of this Act is filed shall conduct all hearings under this Act. The court shall give the person who is the subject of the petition reasonable notice of the time and place of each such hearing. The court may designate additional persons to receive these notices.

(c) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of Section 65 and Section 70 of this Act, at any hearing conducted under this Act, the person who is the subject of the petition has the right to:

(1) To be present and to be represented by counsel. If the person is indigent, the court shall appoint counsel.

(2) To remain silent.

(3) To present and cross-examine witnesses.

(4) To have the hearing recorded by a court reporter.

(d) The person who is the subject of the petition, the person's attorney, the Attorney General or the State's Attorney may request that a trial under Section 35 of this Act be to a jury. A verdict of a jury under this Act is not valid unless it is unanimous.

(e) Whenever the person who is the subject of the petition is required to submit to an examination under this Act, he or she may retain experts or professional persons to perform an examination. The respondent's chosen evaluator must be approved by the Sex Offender Management Board and the evaluation must be conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act. If the person retains a qualified expert or professional person of his or her own choice to conduct an examination, the examiner shall have reasonable access to the person for the purpose of the examination, as well as to the person's past and present treatment records and patient health care records. If the person is indigent, the court shall, upon the person's request, appoint a qualified and available expert or professional person to perform an examination. Upon the order of the circuit court, the county shall pay, as part of the costs of the action, the costs of a court-appointed expert or professional person to perform an examination and participate in the trial on behalf of an indigent person.

(Source: P.A. 93-616, eff. 1-1-04; revised 1-10-04.)

Section 495. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 5-2-4, 5-4-3, 5-5-3, and 5-8-1.3 and setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5-9-1.12 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/5-2-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-2-4)

Sec. 5-2-4. Proceedings after Acquittal by Reason of Insanity.

(a) After a finding or verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity under Sections 104-25, 115-3 or 115-4 of The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the defendant shall be ordered to the Department of Human Services for an evaluation as to whether he is in need of mental health services. The order shall specify whether the evaluation shall be conducted on an inpatient or outpatient basis. If the evaluation is to be conducted on an inpatient basis, the defendant shall be placed in a secure setting unless the Court determines that there are compelling reasons why such placement is not necessary. After the evaluation and during the period of time required to determine the appropriate placement, the defendant shall remain in jail. Upon completion of the placement process the sheriff shall be notified and shall transport the defendant to the designated facility.

The Department shall provide the Court with a report of its evaluation within 30 days of the date of this order. The Court shall hold a hearing as provided under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code to determine if the individual is: (a) in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis; (b) in need of mental health services on an outpatient basis; (c) a person not in need of mental health services. The Court shall enter its findings.

If the defendant is found to be in need of mental health services on an inpatient care basis, the Court shall order the defendant to the Department of Human Services. The defendant shall be placed in a secure setting unless the Court determines that there are compelling reasons why such placement is not necessary. Such defendants placed in a secure setting shall not be permitted outside the facility's housing unit unless escorted or accompanied by personnel of the Department of Human Services or with the prior approval of the Court for unsupervised on-grounds privileges as provided herein. Any defendant placed in a secure setting pursuant to this Section, transported to court hearings or other necessary appointments off facility grounds by personnel of the Department of Human Services, shall be placed in security devices or otherwise secured during the period of transportation to assure secure transport of the defendant and the safety of Department of Human Services personnel and others. These security measures shall not constitute restraint as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. If the defendant is found to be in need of mental health services, but not on an inpatient care basis, the Court shall conditionally release the defendant, under such conditions as set forth in this Section as will reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress and participation in treatment or rehabilitation and the safety of the defendant and others. If the Court finds the person not in need of mental health services, then the Court shall order the defendant discharged from custody.

(a-1) (1) Definitions. : For the purposes of this Section:

(A) (Blank).

(B) "In need of mental health services on an inpatient basis" means: a defendant who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity but who due to mental illness is reasonably expected to inflict serious physical harm upon himself or another and who would benefit from inpatient care or is in need of inpatient care.

(C) "In need of mental health services on an outpatient basis" means: a defendant who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity who is not in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, but is in need of outpatient care, drug and/or alcohol rehabilitation programs, community adjustment programs, individual, group, or family therapy, or chemotherapy.

(D) "Conditional Release" means: the release from either the custody of the Department of Human Services or the custody of the Court of a person who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity under such conditions as the Court may impose which reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment or habilitation and the safety of the defendant and others. The Court shall consider such terms and conditions which may include, but need not be limited to, outpatient care, alcoholic and drug rehabilitation programs, community adjustment programs, individual, group, family, and chemotherapy, random testing to ensure the defendant's timely and continuous taking of any medicines prescribed to control or manage his or her conduct or mental state, and periodic checks with the legal authorities and/or the Department of Human Services. The Court may order as a condition of conditional release that the defendant not contact the victim of the offense that resulted in the finding or verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity or any other person. The Court may order the Department of Human Services to provide care to any person conditionally released under this Section. The Department may contract with any public or private agency in order to discharge any responsibilities imposed under this Section. The Department shall monitor the provision of services to persons conditionally released under this Section and provide periodic reports to the Court concerning the services and the condition of the defendant. Whenever a person is conditionally released pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney for the county in which the hearing is held shall designate in writing the name, telephone number, and address of a person employed by him or her who shall be notified in the event that either the reporting agency or the Department decides that the conditional release of the defendant should be revoked or modified pursuant to subsection (i) of this Section. Such conditional release shall be for a period of five years. However, the defendant, the person or facility rendering the treatment, therapy, program or outpatient care, the Department, or the State's Attorney may petition the Court for an extension of the conditional release period for an additional 5 years. Upon receipt of such a petition, the Court shall hold a hearing consistent with the provisions of this paragraph (a) and paragraph (f) of this Section, shall determine whether the defendant should continue to be subject to the terms of conditional release, and shall enter an order either extending the defendant's period of conditional release for an additional 5 year period or discharging the defendant. Additional 5-year periods of conditional release may be ordered following a hearing as provided in this Section. However, in no event shall the defendant's period of conditional release continue beyond the maximum period of commitment ordered by the Court pursuant to paragraph (b) of this Section. These provisions for extension of conditional release shall only apply to defendants conditionally released on or after August 8, 2003 the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. However the extension provisions of Public Act 83-1449 apply only to defendants charged with a forcible felony.

(E) "Facility director" means the chief officer of a mental health or developmental disabilities facility or his or her designee or the supervisor of a program of treatment or habilitation or his or her designee. "Designee" may include a physician, clinical psychologist, social worker, nurse, or clinical professional counselor.

(b) If the Court finds the defendant in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, the admission, detention, care, treatment or habilitation, treatment plans, review proceedings, including review of treatment and treatment plans, and discharge of the defendant after such order shall be under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, except that the initial order for admission of a defendant acquitted of a felony by reason of insanity shall be for an indefinite period of time. Such period of commitment shall not exceed the maximum length of time that the defendant would have been required to serve, less credit for good behavior as provided in Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, before becoming eligible for release had he been convicted of and received the maximum sentence for the most serious crime for which he has been acquitted by reason of insanity. The Court shall determine the maximum period of commitment by an appropriate order. During this period of time, the defendant shall not be permitted to be in the community in any manner, including but not limited to off-grounds privileges, with or without escort by personnel of the Department of Human Services, unsupervised on-grounds privileges, discharge or conditional or temporary release, except by a plan as provided in this Section. In no event shall a defendant's continued unauthorized absence be a basis for discharge. Not more than 30 days after admission and every 60 days thereafter so long as the initial order remains in effect, the facility director shall file a treatment plan report in writing with the court and forward a copy of the treatment plan report to the clerk of the court, the State's Attorney, and the defendant's attorney, if the defendant is represented by counsel, or to a person authorized by the defendant under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act to be sent a copy of the report. The report shall include an opinion as to whether the defendant is currently in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis or in need of mental health services on an outpatient basis. The report shall also summarize the basis for those findings and provide a current summary of the following items from the treatment plan: (1) an assessment of the defendant's treatment needs, (2) a description of the services recommended for treatment, (3) the goals of each type of element of service, (4) an anticipated timetable for the accomplishment of the goals, and (5) a designation of the qualified professional responsible for the implementation of the plan. The report may also include unsupervised on-grounds privileges, off-grounds privileges (with or without escort by personnel of the Department of Human Services), home visits and participation in work programs, but only where such privileges have been approved by specific court order, which order may include such conditions on the defendant as the Court may deem appropriate and necessary to reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment and the safety of the defendant and others.

(c) Every defendant acquitted of a felony by reason of insanity and subsequently found to be in need of mental health services shall be represented by counsel in all proceedings under this Section and under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(1) The Court shall appoint as counsel the public defender or an attorney licensed by this State.

(2) Upon filing with the Court of a verified statement of legal services rendered by the private attorney appointed pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection, the Court shall determine a reasonable fee for such services. If the defendant is unable to pay the fee, the Court shall enter an order upon the State to pay the entire fee or such amount as the defendant is unable to pay from funds appropriated by the General Assembly for that purpose.

(d) When the facility director determines that:

(1) the defendant is no longer in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis; and

(2) the defendant may be conditionally released because he or she is still in need of mental health services or that the defendant may be discharged as not in need of any mental health services; or

(3) the defendant no longer requires placement in a secure setting;

the facility director shall give written notice to the Court, State's Attorney and defense attorney. Such notice shall set forth in detail the basis for the recommendation of the facility director, and specify clearly the recommendations, if any, of the facility director, concerning conditional release. Any recommendation for conditional release shall include an evaluation of the defendant's need for psychotropic medication, what provisions should be made, if any, to ensure that the defendant will continue to receive psychotropic medication following discharge, and what provisions should be made to assure the safety of the defendant and others in the event the defendant is no longer receiving psychotropic medication. Within 30 days of the notification by the facility director, the Court shall set a hearing and make a finding as to whether the defendant is:

(i) (blank); or

(ii) in need of mental health services in the form of inpatient care; or

(iii) in need of mental health services but not subject to inpatient care; or

(iv) no longer in need of mental health services; or

(v) no longer requires placement in a secure setting.

Upon finding by the Court, the Court shall enter its findings and such appropriate order as provided in subsection (a) of this Section.

(e) A defendant admitted pursuant to this Section, or any person on his behalf, may file a petition for treatment plan review, transfer to a non-secure setting within the Department of Human Services or discharge or conditional release under the standards of this Section in the Court which rendered the verdict. Upon receipt of a petition for treatment plan review, transfer to a non-secure setting or discharge or conditional release, the Court shall set a hearing to be held within 120 days. Thereafter, no new petition may be filed for 180 days without leave of the Court.

(f) The Court shall direct that notice of the time and place of the hearing be served upon the defendant, the facility director, the State's Attorney, and the defendant's attorney. If requested by either the State or the defense or if the Court feels it is appropriate, an impartial examination of the defendant by a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist as defined in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code who is not in the employ of the Department of Human Services shall be ordered, and the report considered at the time of the hearing.

(g) The findings of the Court shall be established by clear and convincing evidence. The burden of proof and the burden of going forth with the evidence rest with the defendant or any person on the defendant's behalf when a hearing is held to review a petition filed by or on behalf of the defendant. The evidence shall be presented in open Court with the right of confrontation and cross-examination. Such evidence may include, but is not limited to:

(1) whether the defendant appreciates the harm caused by the defendant to others and the community by his or her prior conduct that resulted in the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity;

(2) Whether the person appreciates the criminality of conduct similar similiar to the conduct for which he or she was originally charged in this matter;

(3) the current state of the defendant's illness;

(4) what, if any, medications the defendant is taking to control his or her mental illness;

(5) what, if any, adverse physical side effects the medication has on the defendant;

(6) the length of time it would take for the defendant's mental health to deteriorate if the defendant stopped taking prescribed medication;

(7) the defendant's history or potential for alcohol and drug abuse;

(8) the defendant's past criminal history;

(9) any specialized physical or medical needs of the defendant;

(10) any family participation or involvement expected upon release and what is the willingness and ability of the family to participate or be involved;

(11) the defendant's potential to be a danger to himself, herself, or others; and

(12) any other factor or factors the Court deems appropriate.

(h) Before the court orders that the defendant be discharged or conditionally released, it shall order the facility director to establish a discharge plan that includes a plan for the defendant's shelter, support, and medication. If appropriate, the court shall order that the facility director establish a program to train the defendant in self-medication under standards established by the Department of Human Services. If the Court finds, consistent with the provisions of this Section, that the defendant is no longer in need of mental health services it shall order the facility director to discharge the defendant. If the Court finds, consistent with the provisions of this Section, that the defendant is in need of mental health services, and no longer in need of inpatient care, it shall order the facility director to release the defendant under such conditions as the Court deems appropriate and as provided by this Section. Such conditional release shall be imposed for a period of 5 years as provided in paragraph (1) (D) of subsection (a) and shall be subject to later modification by the Court as provided by this Section. If the Court finds consistent with the provisions in this Section that the defendant is in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, it shall order the facility director not to discharge or release the defendant in accordance with paragraph (b) of this Section.

(i) If within the period of the defendant's conditional release the State's Attorney determines that the defendant has not fulfilled the conditions of his or her release, the State's Attorney may petition the Court to revoke or modify the conditional release of the defendant. Upon the filing of such petition the defendant may be remanded to the custody of the Department, or to any other mental health facility designated by the Department, pending the resolution of the petition. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the emergency admission of a defendant pursuant to Article VI of Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or the voluntary admission of the defendant pursuant to Article IV of Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. If the Court determines, after hearing evidence, that the defendant has not fulfilled the conditions of release, the Court shall order a hearing to be held consistent with the provisions of paragraph (f) and (g) of this Section. At such hearing, if the Court finds that the defendant is in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, it shall enter an order remanding him or her to the Department of Human Services or other facility. If the defendant is remanded to the Department of Human Services, he or she shall be placed in a secure setting unless the Court determines that there are compelling reasons that such placement is not necessary. If the Court finds that the defendant continues to be in need of mental health services but not on an inpatient basis, it may modify the conditions of the original release in order to reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment and his or her safety and the safety of others in accordance with the standards established in paragraph (1) (D) of subsection (a). Nothing in this Section shall limit a Court's contempt powers or any other powers of a Court.

(j) An order of admission under this Section does not affect the remedy of habeas corpus.

(k) In the event of a conflict between this Section and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, the provisions of this Section shall govern.

(l) This amendatory Act shall apply to all persons who have been found not guilty by reason of insanity and who are presently committed to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities (now the Department of Human Services).

(m) The Clerk of the Court shall, after the entry of an order of transfer to a non-secure setting of the Department of Human Services or discharge or conditional release, transmit a certified copy of the order to the Department of Human Services, and the sheriff of the county from which the defendant was admitted. The Clerk of the Court shall also transmit a certified copy of the order of discharge or conditional release to the Illinois Department of State Police, to the proper law enforcement agency for the municipality where the offense took place, and to the sheriff of the county into which the defendant is conditionally discharged. The Illinois Department of State Police shall maintain a centralized record of discharged or conditionally released defendants while they are under court supervision for access and use of appropriate law enforcement agencies.

(Source: P.A. 93-78, eff. 1-1-04; 93-473, eff. 8-8-03; revised 1-22-04.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-3)

Sec. 5-4-3. Persons convicted of, or found delinquent for, certain offenses or institutionalized as sexually dangerous; specimens; genetic marker groups.

(a) Any person convicted of, found guilty under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for, or who received a disposition of court supervision for, a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense, convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law, found guilty or given supervision for any offense classified as a felony under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or committed as a sexually violent person under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall, regardless of the sentence or disposition imposed, be required to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section, provided such person is:

(1) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after July 1, 1990 and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, periodic imprisonment, fine, probation, conditional discharge or any other form of sentence, or given a disposition of court supervision for the offense;

(1.5) found guilty or given supervision under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after January 1, 1997;

(2) ordered institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person on or after July 1, 1990;

(3) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense before July 1, 1990 and is presently confined as a result of such conviction in any State correctional facility or county jail or is presently serving a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or periodic imprisonment as a result of such conviction;

(3.5) convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law or found guilty or given supervision for such an offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on or after August 22, 2002;

(4) presently institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person or presently institutionalized as a person found guilty but mentally ill of a sexual offense or attempt to commit a sexual offense;

(4.5) ordered committed as a sexually violent person on or after the effective date of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act; or

(5) seeking transfer to or residency in Illinois under Sections 3-3-11.05 through 3-3-11.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections and the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision or the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

Notwithstanding other provisions of this Section, any person incarcerated in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections on or after August 22, 2002 shall be required to submit a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue prior to his or her final discharge or release on parole or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release.

(a-5) Any person who was otherwise convicted of or received a disposition of court supervision for any other offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or who was found guilty or given supervision for such a violation under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, may, regardless of the sentence imposed, be required by an order of the court to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(b) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(1.5), (a)(2), (a)(3.5), and (a-5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(c) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(4.5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to provide such samples prior to final discharge, parole, or release at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(c-5) Any person required by paragraph (a)(5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall, where feasible, be required to provide the specimens before being accepted for conditioned residency in Illinois under the interstate compact or agreement, but no later than 45 days after arrival in this State.

(c-6) The Illinois Department of State Police may determine which type of specimen or specimens, blood, saliva, or tissue, is acceptable for submission to the Division of Forensic Services for analysis.

(d) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of blood samples. The collection of samples shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a physician authorized to practice medicine, a registered nurse or other qualified person trained in venipuncture may withdraw blood for the purposes of this Act. The samples shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-1) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of saliva samples. The collection of saliva samples shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting saliva may collect saliva for the purposes of this Section. The samples shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-2) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of tissue samples. The collection of tissue samples shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting tissue may collect tissue for the purposes of this Section. The samples shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-5) To the extent that funds are available, the Illinois Department of State Police shall contract with qualified personnel and certified laboratories for the collection, analysis, and categorization of known samples.

(d-6) Agencies designated by the Illinois Department of State Police and the Illinois Department of State Police may contract with third parties to provide for the collection or analysis of DNA, or both, of an offender's blood, saliva, and tissue samples.

(e) The genetic marker groupings shall be maintained by the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services.

(f) The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be confidential and shall be released only to peace officers of the United States, of other states or territories, of the insular possessions of the United States, of foreign countries duly authorized to receive the same, to all peace officers of the State of Illinois and to all prosecutorial agencies, and to defense counsel as provided by Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be used only for (i) valid law enforcement identification purposes and as required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation for participation in the National DNA database, (ii) technology validation purposes, (iii) a population statistics database, or (iv) quality assurance purposes if personally identifying information is removed, or (v) (iii) assisting in the defense of the criminally accused pursuant to Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. Notwithstanding any other statutory provision to the contrary, all information obtained under this Section shall be maintained in a single State data base, which may be uploaded into a national database, and which information may be subject to expungement only as set forth in subsection (f-1).

(f-1) Upon receipt of notification of a reversal of a conviction based on actual innocence, or of the granting of a pardon pursuant to Section 12 of Article V of the Illinois Constitution, if that pardon document specifically states that the reason for the pardon is the actual innocence of an individual whose DNA record has been stored in the State or national DNA identification index in accordance with this Section by the Illinois Department of State Police, the DNA record shall be expunged from the DNA identification index, and the Department shall by rule prescribe procedures to ensure that the record and any samples, analyses, or other documents relating to such record, whether in the possession of the Department or any law enforcement or police agency, or any forensic DNA laboratory, including any duplicates or copies thereof, are destroyed and a letter is sent to the court verifying the expungement is completed.

(f-5) Any person who intentionally uses genetic marker grouping analysis information, or any other information derived from a DNA sample, beyond the authorized uses as provided under this Section, or any other Illinois law, is guilty of a Class 4 felony, and shall be subject to a fine of not less than $5,000.

(f-6) The Illinois Department of State Police may contract with third parties for the purposes of implementing this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. Any other party contracting to carry out the functions of this Section shall be subject to the same restrictions and requirements of this Section insofar as applicable, as the Illinois Department of State Police, and to any additional restrictions imposed by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(g) For the purposes of this Section, "qualifying offense" means any of the following:

(1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-11, 11-18.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(1.1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 9-1, 9-2, 10-1, 10-2, 12-11, 12-11.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 19-1, or 19-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 for which persons are convicted on or after July 1, 2001;

(2) any former statute of this State which defined a felony sexual offense;

(3) (blank);

(4) any inchoate violation of Section 9-3.1, 11-9.3, 12-7.3, or 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(5) any violation or inchoate violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(g-5) (Blank).

(h) The Illinois Department of State Police shall be the State central repository for all genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act. The Illinois Department of State Police may promulgate rules for the form and manner of the collection of blood, saliva, or tissue samples and other procedures for the operation of this Act. The provisions of the Administrative Review Law shall apply to all actions taken under the rules so promulgated.

(i) (1) A person required to provide a blood, saliva, or tissue specimen shall cooperate with the collection of the specimen and any deliberate act by that person intended to impede, delay or stop the collection of the blood, saliva, or tissue specimen is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) In the event that a person's DNA sample is not adequate for any reason, the person shall provide another DNA sample for analysis. Duly authorized law enforcement and corrections personnel may employ reasonable force in cases in which an individual refuses to provide a DNA sample required under this Act.

(j) Any person required by subsection (a) to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police for analysis and categorization into genetic marker grouping, in addition to any other disposition, penalty, or fine imposed, shall pay an analysis fee of $200. If the analysis fee is not paid at the time of sentencing, the court shall establish a fee schedule by which the entire amount of the analysis fee shall be paid in full, such schedule not to exceed 24 months from the time of conviction. The inability to pay this analysis fee shall not be the sole ground to incarcerate the person.

(k) All analysis and categorization fees provided for by subsection (j) shall be regulated as follows:

(1) The State Offender DNA Identification System Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury.

(2) All fees shall be collected by the clerk of the court and forwarded to the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund for deposit. The clerk of the circuit court may retain the amount of $10 from each collected analysis fee to offset administrative costs incurred in carrying out the clerk's responsibilities under this Section.

(3) Fees deposited into the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund shall be used by Illinois State Police crime laboratories as designated by the Director of State Police. These funds shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing laws and shall be designated for the exclusive use of State crime laboratories. These uses may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(A) Costs incurred in providing analysis and genetic marker categorization as required by subsection (d).

(B) Costs incurred in maintaining genetic marker groupings as required by subsection (e).

(C) Costs incurred in the purchase and maintenance of equipment for use in performing analyses.

(D) Costs incurred in continuing research and development of new techniques for analysis and genetic marker categorization.

(E) Costs incurred in continuing education, training, and professional development of forensic scientists regularly employed by these laboratories.

(l) The failure of a person to provide a specimen, or of any person or agency to collect a specimen, within the 45 day period shall in no way alter the obligation of the person to submit such specimen, or the authority of the Illinois Department of State Police or persons designated by the Department to collect the specimen, or the authority of the Illinois Department of State Police to accept, analyze and maintain the specimen or to maintain or upload results of genetic marker grouping analysis information into a State or national database.

(m) If any provision of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is held unconstitutional or otherwise invalid, the remainder of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is not affected.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-40, eff. 6-29-01; 92-571, eff. 6-26-02; 92-600, eff. 6-28-02; 92-829, eff. 8-22-02; 92-854, eff. 12-5-02; 93-216, eff. 1-1-04; 93-605, eff. 11-19-03; revised 12-9-03.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) Every person convicted of an offense shall be sentenced as provided in this Section.

(b) The following options shall be appropriate dispositions, alone or in combination, for all felonies and misdemeanors other than those identified in subsection (c) of this Section:

(1) A period of probation.

(2) A term of periodic imprisonment.

(3) A term of conditional discharge.

(4) A term of imprisonment.

(5) An order directing the offender to clean up and repair the damage, if the offender was convicted under paragraph (h) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (now repealed).

(6) A fine.

(7) An order directing the offender to make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(8) A sentence of participation in a county impact incarceration program under Section 5-8-1.2 of this Code.

Whenever an individual is sentenced for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and the professional evaluation recommends remedial or rehabilitative treatment or education, neither the treatment nor the education shall be the sole disposition and either or both may be imposed only in conjunction with another disposition. The court shall monitor compliance with any remedial education or treatment recommendations contained in the professional evaluation. Programs conducting alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education must be licensed by the Department of Human Services. However, if the individual is not a resident of Illinois, the court may accept an alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education program in the state of such individual's residence. Programs providing treatment must be licensed under existing applicable alcoholism and drug treatment licensure standards.

In addition to any other fine or penalty required by law, any individual convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision of local ordinance, whose operation of a motor vehicle while in violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7, Section 5-16, or such ordinance proximately caused an incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be required to make restitution to a public agency for the costs of that emergency response. Such restitution shall not exceed $1,000 per public agency for each such emergency response. For the purpose of this paragraph, emergency response shall mean any incident requiring a response by: a police officer as defined under Section 1-162 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; a fireman carried on the rolls of a regularly constituted fire department; and an ambulance as defined under Section 3.85 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

Neither a fine nor restitution shall be the sole disposition for a felony and either or both may be imposed only in conjunction with another disposition.

(c) (1) When a defendant is found guilty of first degree murder the State may either seek a sentence of imprisonment under Section 5-8-1 of this Code, or where appropriate seek a sentence of death under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1) or (c)(2) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing heroin or cocaine or an analog thereof.

(E) A violation of Section 5.1 or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(F) A Class 2 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Q) A violation of Section 20-1.2 or 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(S) A violation of Section 11-501(c-1)(3) of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(T) A second or subsequent violation of paragraph (6.6) of subsection (a), subsection (c-5), or subsection (d-5) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(3) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 5 days or 30 days of community service as may be determined by the court shall be imposed for a second violation committed within 5 years of a previous violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. In the case of a third or subsequent violation committed within 5 years of a previous violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, a minimum term of either 10 days of imprisonment or 60 days of community service shall be imposed.

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) A minimum term of 30 consecutive days of imprisonment, 40 days of 24 hour periodic imprisonment or 720 hours of community service, as may be determined by the court, shall be imposed for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which the defendant's driving privileges are revoked or suspended, where the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501 or Section 11-501.1 of that Code.

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraph (4.3) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraph (4.5) and paragraph (4.6) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) A minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(5) The court may sentence an offender convicted of a business offense or a petty offense or a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(6) In no case shall an offender be eligible for a disposition of probation or conditional discharge for a Class 1 felony committed while he was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(7) When a defendant is adjudged a habitual criminal under Article 33B of the Criminal Code of 1961, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(8) When a defendant, over the age of 21 years, is convicted of a Class 1 or Class 2 felony, after having twice been convicted in any state or federal court of an offense that contains the same elements as an offense now classified in Illinois as a Class 2 or greater Class felony and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts, such defendant shall be sentenced as a Class X offender. This paragraph shall not apply unless (1) the first felony was committed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977; and (2) the second felony was committed after conviction on the first; and (3) the third felony was committed after conviction on the second. A person sentenced as a Class X offender under this paragraph is not eligible to apply for treatment as a condition of probation as provided by Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) When a person is convicted of violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the following penalties apply when his or her blood, breath, or urine was .16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2 or that person is convicted of violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code while transporting a child under the age of 16:

(A) For a first violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-501, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed under subsection (c) of Section 11-501: a mandatory minimum of 100 hours of community service and a minimum fine of $500.

(B) For a second violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-501, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed under subsection (c) of Section 11-501 within 10 years: a mandatory minimum of 2 days of imprisonment and a minimum fine of $1,250.

(C) For a third violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-501, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed under subsection (c) of Section 11-501 within 20 years: a mandatory minimum of 90 days of imprisonment and a minimum fine of $2,500.

(D) For a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-501: ineligibility for a sentence of probation or conditional discharge and a minimum fine of $2,500.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan including but not limited to the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(f) This Article shall not deprive a court in other proceedings to order a forfeiture of property, to suspend or cancel a license, to remove a person from office, or to impose any other civil penalty.

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-21, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or any violation of the Cannabis Control Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substance Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of the GED test. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) A court may not impose a sentence or disposition for a felony or misdemeanor that requires the defendant to be implanted or injected with or to use any form of birth control.

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional good conduct credit for meritorious service as provided under Section 3-6-6.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, or 16-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person is an addict or alcoholic, as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, to a substance or alcohol abuse program licensed under that Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-183, eff. 7-27-01; 92-248, eff. 8-3-01; 92-283, eff. 1-1-02; 92-340, eff. 8-10-01; 92-418, eff. 8-17-01; 92-422, eff. 8-17-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-698, eff. 7-19-02; 93-44, eff. 7-1-03; 93-156, eff. 1-1-04; 93-169, eff. 7-10-03; 93-301, eff. 1-1-04; 93-419, eff. 1-1-04; 93-546, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1.3)

Sec. 5-8-1.3. Pilot residential and transition treatment program for women.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes:

(1) that drug-offending women with children who have been in and out of the criminal justice system for years are a serious problem;

(2) that the intergenerational cycle of women continuously being part of the criminal justice system needs to be broken;

(3) that the effects of drug offending women with children disrupts family harmony and creates an atmosphere that is not conducive to healthy childhood development;

(4) that there is a need for an effective residential community supervision model to provide help to women to become drug free, recover from trauma, focus on healthy mother-child relationships, and establish economic independence and long-term support;

(5) that certain non-violent women offenders with children eligible for sentences of incarceration, may benefit from the rehabilitative aspects of gender responsive treatment programs and services. This Section shall not be construed to allow violent offenders to participate in a treatment program.

(b) Under the direction of the sheriff and with the approval of the county board of commissioners, the sheriff, in any county with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants, may operate a residential and transition treatment program for women established by the Illinois Department of Corrections if funding has been provided by federal, local or private entities. If the court finds during the sentencing hearing conducted under Section 5-4-1 that a woman convicted of a felony meets the eligibility requirements of the sheriff's residential and transition treatment program for women, the court may refer the offender to the sheriff's residential and transition treatment program for women for consideration as a participant as an alternative to incarceration in the penitentiary. The sheriff shall be responsible for supervising all women who are placed in the residential and transition treatment program for women for the 12-month period. In the event that the woman is not accepted for placement in the sheriff's residential and transition treatment program for women, the court shall proceed to sentence the woman to any other disposition authorized by this Code. If the woman does not successfully complete the residential and transition treatment program for women, the woman's failure to do so shall constitute a violation of the sentence to the residential and transition treatment program for women.

(c) In order to be eligible to be a participant in the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women, the participant shall meet all of the following conditions:

(1) The woman has not been convicted of a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, a Class X felony, first or second degree murder, armed violence, aggravated kidnapping, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, forcible detention, or arson and has not been previously convicted of any of those offenses.

(2) The woman must undergo an initial assessment evaluation to determine the treatment and program plan.

(3) The woman was recommended and accepted for placement in the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women by the Department of Corrections and has consented in writing to participation in the program under the terms and conditions of the program. The Department of Corrections may consider whether space is available.

(d) The program may include a substance abuse treatment program designed for women offenders, mental health, trauma, and medical treatment; parenting skills and family relationship counseling, preparation for a GED or vocational certificate; life skills program; job readiness and job skill training, and a community transition development plan.

(e) With the approval of the Department of Corrections, the sheriff shall issue requirements for the program and inform the participants who shall sign an agreement to adhere to all rules and all requirements for the pilot residential and transition treatment program.

(f) Participation in the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women shall be for a period not to exceed 12 months. The period may not be reduced by accumulation of good time.

(g) If the woman successfully completes the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women, the sheriff shall notify the Department of Corrections, the court, and the State's Attorney of the county of the woman's successful completion.

(h) A woman may be removed from the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women for violation of the terms and conditions of the program or in the event she is unable to participate. The failure to complete the program shall be deemed a violation of the conditions of the program. The sheriff shall give notice to the Department of Corrections, the court, and the State's Attorney of the woman's failure to complete the program. The Department of Corrections or its designee shall file a petition alleging that the woman has violated the conditions of the program with the court. The State's Attorney may proceed on the petition under Section 5-4-1 of this Code.

(i) The conditions of the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women shall include that the woman while in the program:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report or appear in person before any person or agency as directed by the court, the sheriff, or Department of Corrections;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(4) consent to drug testing;

(5) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without prior notification and approval of the Department of Corrections;

(6) upon placement in the program, must agree to follow all requirements of the program. ;

(j) The Department of Corrections or the sheriff may terminate the program at any time by mutual agreement or with 30 days prior written notice by either the Department of Corrections or the sheriff.

(k) The Department of Corrections may enter into a joint contract with a county with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants to establish and operate a pilot residential and treatment program for women.

(l) The Director of the Department of Corrections shall have the authority to develop rules to establish and operate a pilot residential and treatment program for women that shall include criteria for selection of the participants of the program in conjunction and approval by the sentencing court. Violent crime offenders are not eligible to participate in the program.

(m) The Department shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly before September 30th of each year on the pilot residential and treatment program for women, including the composition of the program by offenders, sentence, age, offense, and race.

(n) The Department of Corrections or the sheriff may terminate the program with 30 days prior written notice.

(o) A county with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants is authorized to apply for funding from federal, local or private entities to create a Residential and Treatment Program for Women. This sentencing option may not go into effect until the funding is secured for the program and the program has been established.

(Source: P.A. 92-806, eff. 1-1-03; revised 1-20-03.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.12)

Sec. 5-9-1.12. Arson fines.

(a) In addition to any other penalty imposed, a fine of $500 shall be imposed upon a person convicted of the offense of arson, residential arson, or aggravated arson.

(b) The additional fine shall be assessed by the court imposing sentence and shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk in addition to the fine, if any, and costs in the case. Each such additional fine shall be remitted by the Circuit Clerk within one month after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Fire Prevention Fund. The Circuit Clerk shall retain 10% of such fine to cover the costs incurred in administering and enforcing this Section. The additional fine may not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing.

(c) The moneys in the Fire Prevention Fund collected as additional fines under this Section shall be distributed by the Office of the State Fire Marshal to the fire department or fire protection district that suppressed or investigated the fire that was set by the defendant and for which the defendant was convicted of arson, residential arson, or aggravated arson. If more than one fire department or fire protection district suppressed or investigated the fire, the additional fine shall be distributed equally among those departments or districts.

(d) The moneys distributed to the fire departments or fire protection districts under this Section may only be used to purchase fire suppression or fire investigation equipment.

(Source: P.A. 93-169, eff. 7-10-03.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.13)

Sec. 5-9-1.13 5-9-1.12. Applications for transfer to other states. A person subject to conditions of probation, parole, or mandatory supervised release who seeks to transfer to another state subject to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision must make provisions for the payment of any restitution awarded by the circuit court and pay a fee of $125 to the proper administrative or judicial authorities before being granted the transfer, or otherwise arrange for payment. The fee payment from persons subject to a sentence of probation shall be deposited into the general fund of the county in which the circuit has jurisdiction. The fee payment from persons subject to parole or mandatory supervised release shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund. The proceeds of this fee shall be used to defray the costs of the Department of Corrections or county sheriff departments, respectively, who will be required to retrieve offenders that violate the terms of their transfers to other states. Upon return to the State of Illinois, these persons shall also be subject to reimbursing either the State of Illinois or the county for the actual costs of returning them to Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 93-475, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-26-03.)

Section 500. The Probation and Probation Officers Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(730 ILCS 110/15) (from Ch. 38, par. 204-7)

Sec. 15. (1) The Supreme Court of Illinois may establish a Division of Probation Services whose purpose shall be the development, establishment, promulgation, and enforcement of uniform standards for probation services in this State, and to otherwise carry out the intent of this Act. The Division may:

(a) establish qualifications for chief probation officers and other probation and court services personnel as to hiring, promotion, and training.

(b) make available, on a timely basis, lists of those applicants whose qualifications meet the regulations referred to herein, including on said lists all candidates found qualified.

(c) establish a means of verifying the conditions for reimbursement under this Act and develop criteria for approved costs for reimbursement.

(d) develop standards and approve employee compensation schedules for probation and court services departments.

(e) employ sufficient personnel in the Division to carry out the functions of the Division.

(f) establish a system of training and establish standards for personnel orientation and training.

(g) develop standards for a system of record keeping for cases and programs, gather statistics, establish a system of uniform forms, and develop research for planning of Probation Services.

(h) develop standards to assure adequate support personnel, office space, equipment and supplies, travel expenses, and other essential items necessary for Probation and Court Services Departments to carry out their duties.

(i) review and approve annual plans submitted by Probation and Court Services Departments.

(j) monitor and evaluate all programs operated by Probation and Court Services Departments, and may include in the program evaluation criteria such factors as the percentage of Probation sentences for felons convicted of Probationable offenses.

(k) seek the cooperation of local and State government and private agencies to improve the quality of probation and court services.

(l) where appropriate, establish programs and corresponding standards designed to generally improve the quality of probation and court services and reduce the rate of adult or juvenile offenders committed to the Department of Corrections.

(m) establish such other standards and regulations and do all acts necessary to carry out the intent and purposes of this Act.

The Division shall establish a model list of structured intermediate sanctions that may be imposed by a probation agency for violations of terms and conditions of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision.

The State of Illinois shall provide for the costs of personnel, travel, equipment, telecommunications, postage, commodities, printing, space, contractual services and other related costs necessary to carry out the intent of this Act.

(2) (a) The chief judge of each circuit shall provide full-time probation services for all counties within the circuit, in a manner consistent with the annual probation plan, the standards, policies, and regulations established by the Supreme Court. A probation district of two or more counties within a circuit may be created for the purposes of providing full-time probation services. Every county or group of counties within a circuit shall maintain a probation department which shall be under the authority of the Chief Judge of the circuit or some other judge designated by the Chief Judge. The Chief Judge, through the Probation and Court Services Department shall submit annual plans to the Division for probation and related services.

(b) The Chief Judge of each circuit shall appoint the Chief Probation Officer and all other probation officers for his or her circuit from lists of qualified applicants supplied by the Supreme Court. Candidates for chief managing officer and other probation officer positions must apply with both the Chief Judge of the circuit and the Supreme Court.

(3) A Probation and Court Service Department shall apply to the Supreme Court for funds for basic services, and may apply for funds for new and expanded programs or Individualized Services and Programs. Costs shall be reimbursed monthly based on a plan and budget approved by the Supreme Court. No Department may be reimbursed for costs which exceed or are not provided for in the approved annual plan and budget. After the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985, each county must provide basic services in accordance with the annual plan and standards created by the division. No department may receive funds for new or expanded programs or individualized services and programs unless they are in compliance with standards as enumerated in paragraph (h) of subsection (1) of this Section, the annual plan, and standards for basic services.

(4) The Division shall reimburse the county or counties for probation services as follows:

(a) 100% of the salary of all chief managing officers designated as such by the Chief Judge and the division.

(b) 100% of the salary for all probation officer and supervisor positions approved for reimbursement by the division after April 1, 1984, to meet workload standards and to implement intensive sanction and probation supervision programs and other basic services as defined in this Act.

(c) 100% of the salary for all secure detention personnel and non-secure group home personnel approved for reimbursement after December 1, 1990. For all such positions approved for reimbursement before December 1, 1990, the counties shall be reimbursed $1,250 per month beginning July 1, 1995, and an additional $250 per month beginning each July 1st thereafter until the positions receive 100% salary reimbursement. Allocation of such positions will be based on comparative need considering capacity, staff/resident ratio, physical plant and program.

(d) $1,000 per month for salaries for the remaining probation officer positions engaged in basic services and new or expanded services. All such positions shall be approved by the division in accordance with this Act and division standards.

(e) 100% of the travel expenses in accordance with Division standards for all Probation positions approved under paragraph (b) of subsection 4 of this Section.

(f) If the amount of funds reimbursed to the county under paragraphs (a) through (e) of subsection 4 of this Section on an annual basis is less than the amount the county had received during the 12 month period immediately prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985, then the Division shall reimburse the amount of the difference to the county. The effect of paragraph (b) of subsection 7 of this Section shall be considered in implementing this supplemental reimbursement provision.

(5) The Division shall provide funds beginning on April 1, 1987 for the counties to provide Individualized Services and Programs as provided in Section 16 of this Act.

(6) A Probation and Court Services Department in order to be eligible for the reimbursement must submit to the Supreme Court an application containing such information and in such a form and by such dates as the Supreme Court may require. Departments to be eligible for funding must satisfy the following conditions:

(a) The Department shall have on file with the Supreme Court an annual Probation plan for continuing, improved, and new Probation and Court Services Programs approved by the Supreme Court or its designee. This plan shall indicate the manner in which Probation and Court Services will be delivered and improved, consistent with the minimum standards and regulations for Probation and Court Services, as established by the Supreme Court. In counties with more than one Probation and Court Services Department eligible to receive funds, all Departments within that county must submit plans which are approved by the Supreme Court.

(b) The annual probation plan shall seek to generally improve the quality of probation services and to reduce the commitment of adult and juvenile offenders to the Department of Corrections and shall require, when appropriate, coordination with the Department of Corrections and the Department of Children and Family Services in the development and use of community resources, information systems, case review and permanency planning systems to avoid the duplication of services.

(c) The Department shall be in compliance with standards developed by the Supreme Court for basic, new and expanded services, training, personnel hiring and promotion.

(d) The Department shall in its annual plan indicate the manner in which it will support the rights of crime victims and in which manner it will implement Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and in what manner it will coordinate crime victims' support services with other criminal justice agencies within its jurisdiction, including but not limited to, the State's Attorney, the Sheriff and any municipal police department.

(7) No statement shall be verified by the Supreme Court or its designee or vouchered by the Comptroller unless each of the following conditions have been met:

(a) The probation officer is a full-time employee appointed by the Chief Judge to provide probation services.

(b) The probation officer, in order to be eligible for State reimbursement, is receiving a salary of at least $17,000 per year.

(c) The probation officer is appointed or was reappointed in accordance with minimum qualifications or criteria established by the Supreme Court; however, all probation officers appointed prior to January 1, 1978, shall be exempted from the minimum requirements established by the Supreme Court. Payments shall be made to counties employing these exempted probation officers as long as they are employed in the position held on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985. Promotions shall be governed by minimum qualifications established by the Supreme Court.

(d) The Department has an established compensation schedule approved by the Supreme Court. The compensation schedule shall include salary ranges with necessary increments to compensate each employee. The increments shall, within the salary ranges, be based on such factors as bona fide occupational qualifications, performance, and length of service. Each position in the Department shall be placed on the compensation schedule according to job duties and responsibilities of such position. The policy and procedures of the compensation schedule shall be made available to each employee.

(8) In order to obtain full reimbursement of all approved costs, each Department must continue to employ at least the same number of probation officers and probation managers as were authorized for employment for the fiscal year which includes January 1, 1985. This number shall be designated as the base amount of the Department. No positions approved by the Division under paragraph (b) of subsection 4 will be included in the base amount. In the event that the Department employs fewer Probation officers and Probation managers than the base amount for a period of 90 days, funding received by the Department under subsection 4 of this Section may be reduced on a monthly basis by the amount of the current salaries of any positions below the base amount.

(9) Before the 15th day of each month, the treasurer of any county which has a Probation and Court Services Department, or the treasurer of the most populous county, in the case of a Probation or Court Services Department funded by more than one county, shall submit an itemized statement of all approved costs incurred in the delivery of Basic Probation and Court Services under this Act to the Supreme Court. The treasurer may also submit an itemized statement of all approved costs incurred in the delivery of new and expanded Probation and Court Services as well as Individualized Services and Programs. The Supreme Court or its designee shall verify compliance with this Section and shall examine and audit the monthly statement and, upon finding them to be correct, shall forward them to the Comptroller for payment to the county treasurer. In the case of payment to a treasurer of a county which is the most populous of counties sharing the salary and expenses of a Probation and Court Services Department, the treasurer shall divide the money between the counties in a manner that reflects each county's share of the cost incurred by the Department.

(10) The county treasurer must certify that funds received under this Section shall be used solely to maintain and improve Probation and Court Services. The county or circuit shall remain in compliance with all standards, policies and regulations established by the Supreme Court. If at any time the Supreme Court determines that a county or circuit is not in compliance, the Supreme Court shall immediately notify the Chief Judge, county board chairman and the Director of Court Services Chief Probation Officer. If after 90 days of written notice the noncompliance still exists, the Supreme Court shall be required to reduce the amount of monthly reimbursement by 10%. An additional 10% reduction of monthly reimbursement shall occur for each consecutive month of noncompliance. Except as provided in subsection 5 of Section 15, funding to counties shall commence on April 1, 1986. Funds received under this Act shall be used to provide for Probation Department expenses including those required under Section 13 of this Act. For State fiscal year 2004 only, the Mandatory Arbitration Fund may be used to provide for Probation Department expenses, including those required under Section 13 of this Act.

(11) The respective counties shall be responsible for capital and space costs, fringe benefits, clerical costs, equipment, telecommunications, postage, commodities and printing.

(12) For purposes of this Act only, probation officers shall be considered peace officers. In the exercise of their official duties, probation officers, sheriffs, and police officers may, anywhere within the State, arrest any probationer who is in violation of any of the conditions of his or her probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, and it shall be the duty of the officer making the arrest to take the probationer before the Court having jurisdiction over the probationer for further order.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; 93-576, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-23-03.)

Section 505. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 7-103.102 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/7-103.102)

Sec. 7-103.102. Quick-take; Lake County. Quick-take proceedings under Section 7-103 may be used for a period of 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly by Lake County for the acquisition of property necessary for the purpose of improving County Highway 31 (Rollins Road) from Illinois Route 83 to U.S. Route 45.

(Source: P.A. 93-646, eff. 12-31-03.)

(735 ILCS 5/7-103.111)

Sec. 7-103.111. 7-103.102. Quick-take; Village of Palatine. Quick-take proceedings under Section 7-103 may be used for a period of 60 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly by the Village of Palatine for the acquisition of property for the purposes of the Downtown Tax Increment Redevelopment Project Area, bounded generally by Plum Grove Road on the East, Palatine Road on the South, Cedar Street on the West, and Colfax Street on the North, and the Rand Corridor Redevelopment Project Area, bounded generally by Dundee Road on the South, Lake-Cook Road on the North, and on the East and West by Rand Road, in the Village of Palatine more specifically described in the following ordinances adopted by the Village of Palatine:

Village ordinance 0-224-99, adopted December 13, 1999;

Village ordinance 0-225-99, adopted December 13, 1999;

Village ordinance 0-226-99, adopted December 13, 1999;

Village ordinance 0-13-00, adopted January 24, 2000, correcting certain scrivener's errors and attached as exhibit A to the foregoing legal descriptions;

Village ordinance 0-23-03, adopted January 27, 2003;

Village ordinance 0-24-03, adopted January 27, 2003; and

Village ordinance 0-25-03, adopted January 27, 2003.

(Source: P.A. 93-602, eff. 11-18-03; revised 1-13-04.)

(735 ILCS 5/7-103.112)

Sec. 7-103.112. 7-103.102. Quick-take; Bi-State Development Agency; MetroLink Light Rail System. Quick-take proceedings under Section 7-103 may be used for a period from September 1, 2003 through September 1, 2004 by the Bi-State Development Agency of the Missouri-Illinois Metropolitan District for station area development, transit oriented development and economic development initiatives in support of the MetroLink Light Rail System, beginning in East St. Louis, Illinois, and terminating at MidAmerica Airport, St. Clair County, Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 93-603, eff. 11-19-03; revised 1-13-04.)

Section 510. The State Lawsuit Immunity Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(745 ILCS 5/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 801)

Sec. 1. Except as provided in the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, the Court of Claims Act, and the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and or Section 1.5 of this Act, the State of Illinois shall not be made a defendant or party in any court.

(Source: P.A. 93-414, eff. 1-1-04; 93-615, eff. 11-19-03; revised 12-19-03.)

Section 515. The Non-Support Punishment Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(750 ILCS 16/20)

Sec. 20. Entry of order for support; income withholding.

(a) In a case in which no court or administrative order for support is in effect against the defendant:

(1) at any time before the trial, upon motion of the State's Attorney, or of the Attorney General if the action has been instituted by his office, and upon notice to the defendant, or at the time of arraignment or as a condition of postponement of arraignment, the court may enter such temporary order for support as may seem just, providing for the support or maintenance of the spouse or child or children of the defendant, or both, pendente lite; or

(2) before trial with the consent of the defendant, or at the trial on entry of a plea of guilty, or after conviction, instead of imposing the penalty provided in this Act, or in addition thereto, the court may enter an order for support, subject to modification by the court from time to time as circumstances may require, directing the defendant to pay a certain sum for maintenance of the spouse, or for support of the child or children, or both.

(b) The court shall determine the amount of child support by using the guidelines and standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 505 and in Section 505.2 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

If (i) the non-custodial parent was properly served with a request for discovery of financial information relating to the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support, (ii) the non-custodial parent failed to comply with the request, despite having been ordered to do so by the court, and (iii) the non-custodial parent is not present at the hearing to determine support despite having received proper notice, then any relevant financial information concerning the non-custodial parent's ability to provide support that was obtained pursuant to subpoena and proper notice shall be admitted into evidence without the need to establish any further foundation for its admission.

(c) The court shall determine the amount of maintenance using the standards set forth in Section 504 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(d) The court may, for violation of any order under this Section, punish the offender as for a contempt of court, but no pendente lite order shall remain in effect longer than 4 months, or after the discharge of any panel of jurors summoned for service thereafter in such court, whichever is sooner.

(e) Any order for support entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support under the judgments, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each judgment shall have the full force, effect, and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Each judgment is subject to modification or termination only in accordance with Section 510 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. A lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

(f) An order for support entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring the obligor to report to the obligee and to the clerk of the court within 10 days each time the obligor obtains new employment, and each time the obligor's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer.

Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For any obligor arrested for failure to report new employment, bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment.

An order for support entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring the obligor and obligee parents to advise each other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or of a minor child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

(g) An order for support entered or modified in a case in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code shall include a provision requiring the noncustodial parent to notify the Illinois Department of Public Aid, within 7 days, of the name and address of any new employer of the noncustodial parent, whether the noncustodial parent has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy.

(h) In any subsequent action to enforce an order for support entered under this Act, upon sufficient showing that diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the noncustodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in that action may be made at the last known address of the noncustodial parent, in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or in this Act, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

(i) An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

(j) A support obligation, or any portion of a support obligation, which becomes due and remains unpaid for 30 days or more shall accrue simple interest at the rate of 9% per annum. An order for support entered or modified on or after January 1, 2002 shall contain a statement that a support obligation required under the order, or any portion of a support obligation required under the order, that becomes due and remains unpaid for 30 days or more shall accrue simple interest at the rate of 9% per annum. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the accrual of interest as provided in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-374, eff. 8-15-01; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; 92-876, eff. 6-1-03; revised 9-27-03.)

Section 520. The Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(750 ILCS 45/14) (from Ch. 40, par. 2514)

Sec. 14. Judgment.

(a) (1) The judgment shall contain or explicitly reserve provisions concerning any duty and amount of child support and may contain provisions concerning the custody and guardianship of the child, visitation privileges with the child, the furnishing of bond or other security for the payment of the judgment, which the court shall determine in accordance with the relevant factors set forth in the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act and any other applicable law of Illinois, to guide the court in a finding in the best interests of the child. In determining custody, joint custody, removal, or visitation, the court shall apply the relevant standards of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, including Section 609. Specifically, in determining the amount of any child support award, the court shall use the guidelines and standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 505 and in Section 505.2 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. For purposes of Section 505 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, "net income" of the non-custodial parent shall include any benefits available to that person under the Illinois Public Aid Code or from other federal, State or local government-funded programs. The court shall, in any event and regardless of the amount of the non-custodial parent's net income, in its judgment order the non-custodial parent to pay child support to the custodial parent in a minimum amount of not less than $10 per month. In an action brought within 2 years after a child's birth, the judgment or order may direct either parent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred by either parent related to the mother's pregnancy and the delivery of the child. The judgment or order shall contain the father's social security number, which the father shall disclose to the court; however, failure to include the father's social security number on the judgment or order does not invalidate the judgment or order.

(2) If a judgment of parentage contains no explicit award of custody, the establishment of a support obligation or of visitation rights in one parent shall be considered a judgment granting custody to the other parent. If the parentage judgment contains no such provisions, custody shall be presumed to be with the mother; however, the presumption shall not apply if the father has had physical custody for at least 6 months prior to the date that the mother seeks to enforce custodial rights.

(b) The court shall order all child support payments, determined in accordance with such guidelines, to commence with the date summons is served. The level of current periodic support payments shall not be reduced because of payments set for the period prior to the date of entry of the support order. The Court may order any child support payments to be made for a period prior to the commencement of the action. In determining whether and the extent to which the payments shall be made for any prior period, the court shall consider all relevant facts, including the factors for determining the amount of support specified in the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act and other equitable factors including but not limited to:

(1) The father's prior knowledge of the fact and circumstances of the child's birth.

(2) The father's prior willingness or refusal to help raise or support the child.

(3) The extent to which the mother or the public agency bringing the action previously informed the father of the child's needs or attempted to seek or require his help in raising or supporting the child.

(4) The reasons the mother or the public agency did not file the action earlier.

(5) The extent to which the father would be prejudiced by the delay in bringing the action.

For purposes of determining the amount of child support to be paid for any period before the date the order for current child support is entered, there is a rebuttable presumption that the father's net income for the prior period was the same as his net income at the time the order for current child support is entered.

If (i) the non-custodial parent was properly served with a request for discovery of financial information relating to the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support, (ii) the non-custodial parent failed to comply with the request, despite having been ordered to do so by the court, and (iii) the non-custodial parent is not present at the hearing to determine support despite having received proper notice, then any relevant financial information concerning the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support that was obtained pursuant to subpoena and proper notice shall be admitted into evidence without the need to establish any further foundation for its admission.

(c) Any new or existing support order entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each such judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each judgment shall have the full force, effect and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. A lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

(d) If the judgment or order of the court is at variance with the child's birth certificate, the court shall order that a new birth certificate be issued under the Vital Records Act.

(e) On request of the mother and the father, the court shall order a change in the child's name. After hearing evidence the court may stay payment of support during the period of the father's minority or period of disability.

(f) If, upon a showing of proper service, the father fails to appear in court, or otherwise appear as provided by law, the court may proceed to hear the cause upon testimony of the mother or other parties taken in open court and shall enter a judgment by default. The court may reserve any order as to the amount of child support until the father has received notice, by regular mail, of a hearing on the matter.

(g) A one-time charge of 20% is imposable upon the amount of past-due child support owed on July 1, 1988 which has accrued under a support order entered by the court. The charge shall be imposed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-21 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and shall be enforced by the court upon petition.

(h) All orders for support, when entered or modified, shall include a provision requiring the non-custodial parent to notify the court and, in cases in which party is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Department of Public Aid, within 7 days, (i) of the name and address of any new employer of the non-custodial parent, (ii) whether the non-custodial parent has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy, and (iii) of any new residential or mailing address or telephone number of the non-custodial parent. In any subsequent action to enforce a support order, upon a sufficient showing that a diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the non-custodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in the case may be made at the last known address of the non-custodial parent in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or this Act, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

(i) An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

(j) An order entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring the obligor to report to the obligee and to the clerk of court within 10 days each time the obligor obtains new employment, and each time the obligor's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer. Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For any obligor arrested for failure to report new employment bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment. An order entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring the obligor and obligee parents to advise each other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or that of a minor child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

(Source: P.A. 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; 92-876, eff. 6-1-03; 93-139, eff. 7-10-03; revised 9-15-03.)

Section 525. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Sections 219, 224, and 302 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/219) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-19)

Sec. 219. Plenary order of protection. A plenary order of protection shall issue if petitioner has served notice of the hearing for that order on respondent, in accordance with Section 211, and satisfies the requirements of this Section for one or more of the requested remedies. For each remedy requested, petitioner must establish that:

(1) the court has jurisdiction under Section 208;

(2) the requirements of Section 214 are satisfied; and

(3) a general appearance was made or filed by or for respondent or process was served on respondent in the manner required by Section 210; and

(4) respondent has answered or is in default.

(Source: P.A. 84-1305; revised 2-25-02.)

(750 ILCS 60/224) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-24)

Sec. 224. Modification and re-opening of orders.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, upon motion by petitioner, the court may modify an emergency, interim, or plenary order of protection:

(1) If respondent has abused petitioner since the hearing for that order, by adding or altering one or more remedies, as authorized by Section 214; and

(2) Otherwise, by adding any remedy authorized by Section 214 which was:

(i) reserved in that order of protection;

(ii) not requested for inclusion in that order of protection; or

(iii) denied on procedural grounds, but not on the merits.

(b) Upon motion by petitioner or respondent, the court may modify any prior order of protection's remedy for custody, visitation or payment of support in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. Each order of protection shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Automated Data System on the same day it is issued by the court.

(c) After 30 days following entry of a plenary order of protection, a court may modify that order only when changes in the applicable law or facts since that plenary order was entered warrant a modification of its terms.

(d) Upon 2 days' notice to petitioner, in accordance with Section 211 of this Act, or such shorter notice as the court may prescribe, a respondent subject to an emergency or interim order of protection issued under this Act may appear and petition the court to re-hear the original or amended petition. Any petition to re-hear shall be verified and shall allege the following:

(1) that respondent did not receive prior notice of the initial hearing in which the emergency, interim, or plenary order was entered under Sections 211 and 217; and

(2) that respondent had a meritorious defense to the order or any of its remedies or that the order or any of its remedies was not authorized by this Act.

(e) In the event that the emergency or interim order granted petitioner exclusive possession and the petition of respondent seeks to re-open or vacate that grant, the court shall set a date for hearing within 14 days on all issues relating to exclusive possession. Under no circumstances shall a court continue a hearing concerning exclusive possession beyond the 14th day, except by agreement of the parties. Other issues raised by the pleadings may be consolidated for the hearing if neither party nor the court objects.

(f) This Section does not limit the means, otherwise available by law, for vacating or modifying orders of protection.

(Source: P.A. 87-1186; revised 2-17-03.)

(750 ILCS 60/302) (from Ch. 40, par. 2313-2)

Sec. 302. Data maintenance by law enforcement agencies.

(a) All sheriffs shall furnish to the Department of State Police, on the same day as received, in the form and detail the Department requires, copies of any recorded emergency, interim, or plenary orders of protection issued by the court, and any foreign orders of protection filed by the clerk of the court, and transmitted to the sheriff by the clerk of the court pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 222 of this Act. Each order of protection shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Automated Data System on the same day it is issued by the court. If an emergency order of protection was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 217, the order shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Automated Data System as soon as possible after receipt from the clerk.

(b) The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete and systematic record and index of all valid and recorded orders of protection issued pursuant to this Act. The data shall be used to inform all dispatchers and law enforcement officers at the scene of an alleged incident of abuse, neglect, or exploitation or violation of an order of protection of any recorded prior incident of abuse, neglect, or exploitation involving the abused, neglected, or exploited party and the effective dates and terms of any recorded order of protection.

(c) The data, records and transmittals required under this Section shall pertain to any valid emergency, interim or plenary order of protection, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding or authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(Source: P.A. 90-392, eff. 1-1-98; 91-903, eff. 1-1-01; revised 2-17-03.)

Section 530. The Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(750 ILCS 70/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Abortion" means the use of any instrument, medicine, drug, or any other substance or device to terminate the pregnancy of a woman known to be pregnant with an intention other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of a child after live birth, or to remove a dead fetus.

"Actual notice" means the giving of notice directly, in person, or by telephone.

"Adult family member" means a person over 21 years of age who is the parent, grandparent, step-parent living in the household, or legal guardian.

"Constructive notice" means notice by certified mail to the last known address of the person entitled to notice with delivery deemed to have occurred 48 hours after the certified notice is mailed.

"Incompetent" means any person who has been adjudged as mentally ill or developmentally disabled and who, because of her mental illness or developmental disability, is not fully able to manage her person and for whom a guardian of the person has been appointed under Section 11a-3(a)(1) of the Probate Act of 1975.

"Medical emergency" means a condition that, on the basis of the physician's good faith clinical judgment, so complicates the medical condition of a pregnant woman as to necessitate the immediate abortion of her pregnancy to avert her death or for which a delay will create serious risk of substantial and irreversible impairment of major bodily function.

"Minor" means any person under 18 years of age who is not or has not been married or who has not been emancipated under the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act.

"Neglect" means the failure of an adult family member to supply a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, or medical care when reasonably able to do so or the failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that imminently and seriously endanger the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so.

"Physical abuse" means any physical injury intentionally inflicted by an adult family member on a child.

"Physician" means any person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Illinois Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 that is prohibited by the criminal laws of the State of Illinois and committed against a minor by an adult family member as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-18, eff. 6-1-95; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 535. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Section 11a-18 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/11a-18) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-18)

Sec. 11a-18. Duties of the estate guardian.

(a) To the extent specified in the order establishing the guardianship, the guardian of the estate shall have the care, management and investment of the estate, shall manage the estate frugally and shall apply the income and principal of the estate so far as necessary for the comfort and suitable support and education of the ward, his minor and adult dependent children, and persons related by blood or marriage who are dependent upon or entitled to support from him, or for any other purpose which the court deems to be for the best interests of the ward, and the court may approve the making on behalf of the ward of such agreements as the court determines to be for the ward's best interests. The guardian may make disbursement of his ward's funds and estate directly to the ward or other distributee or in such other manner and in such amounts as the court directs. If the estate of a ward is derived in whole or in part from payments of compensation, adjusted compensation, pension, insurance or other similar benefits made directly to the estate by the Veterans Administration, notice of the application for leave to invest or expend the ward's funds or estate, together with a copy of the petition and proposed order, shall be given to the Veterans' Administration Regional Office in this State at least 7 days before the hearing on the application.

(a-5) The probate court, upon petition of a guardian, other than the guardian of a minor, and after notice to all other persons interested as the court directs, may authorize the guardian to exercise any or all powers over the estate and business affairs of the ward that the ward could exercise if present and not under disability. The court may authorize the taking of an action or the application of funds not required for the ward's current and future maintenance and support in any manner approved by the court as being in keeping with the ward's wishes so far as they can be ascertained. The court must consider the permanence of the ward's disabling condition and the natural objects of the ward's bounty. In ascertaining and carrying out the ward's wishes the court may consider, but shall not be limited to, minimization of State or federal income, estate, or inheritance taxes; and providing gifts to charities, relatives, and friends that would be likely recipients of donations from the ward. The ward's wishes as best they can be ascertained shall be carried out, whether or not tax savings are involved. Actions or applications of funds may include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) making gifts of income or principal, or both, of the estate, either outright or in trust;

(2) conveying, releasing, or disclaiming his or her contingent and expectant interests in property, including marital property rights and any right of survivorship incident to joint tenancy or tenancy by the entirety;

(3) releasing or disclaiming his or her powers as trustee, personal representative, custodian for minors, or guardian;

(4) exercising, releasing, or disclaiming his or her powers as donee of a power of appointment;

(5) entering into contracts;

(6) creating for the benefit of the ward or others, revocable or irrevocable trusts of his or her property that may extend beyond his or her disability or life; .

(7) exercising options of the ward to purchase or exchange securities or other property;

(8) exercising the rights of the ward to elect benefit or payment options, to terminate, to change beneficiaries or ownership, to assign rights, to borrow, or to receive cash value in return for a surrender of rights under any one or more of the following:

(i) life insurance policies, plans, or benefits, .

(ii) annuity policies, plans, or benefits, .

(iii) mutual fund and other dividend investment plans, .

(iv) retirement, profit sharing, and employee welfare plans and benefits;

(9) exercising his or her right to claim or disclaim an elective share in the estate of his or her deceased spouse and to renounce any interest by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos transfer;

(10) changing the ward's residence or domicile; or

(11) modifying by means of codicil or trust amendment the terms of the ward's will or any revocable trust created by the ward, as the court may consider advisable in light of changes in applicable tax laws.

The guardian in his or her petition shall briefly outline the action or application of funds for which he or she seeks approval, the results expected to be accomplished thereby, and the tax savings, if any, expected to accrue. The proposed action or application of funds may include gifts of the ward's personal property or real estate, but transfers of real estate shall be subject to the requirements of Section 20 of this Act. Gifts may be for the benefit of prospective legatees, devisees, or heirs apparent of the ward or may be made to individuals or charities in which the ward is believed to have an interest. The guardian shall also indicate in the petition that any planned disposition is consistent with the intentions of the ward insofar as they can be ascertained, and if the ward's intentions cannot be ascertained, the ward will be presumed to favor reduction in the incidents of various forms of taxation and the partial distribution of his or her estate as provided in this subsection. The guardian shall not, however, be required to include as a beneficiary or fiduciary any person who he has reason to believe would be excluded by the ward. A guardian shall be required to investigate and pursue a ward's eligibility for governmental benefits.

(b) Upon the direction of the court which issued his letters, a guardian may perform the contracts of his ward which were legally subsisting at the time of the commencement of the ward's disability. The court may authorize the guardian to execute and deliver any bill of sale, deed or other instrument.

(c) The guardian of the estate of a ward shall appear for and represent the ward in all legal proceedings unless another person is appointed for that purpose as guardian or next friend. This does not impair the power of any court to appoint a guardian ad litem or next friend to defend the interests of the ward in that court, or to appoint or allow any person as the next friend of a ward to commence, prosecute or defend any proceeding in his behalf. Without impairing the power of the court in any respect, if the guardian of the estate of a ward and another person as next friend shall appear for and represent the ward in a legal proceeding in which the compensation of the attorney or attorneys representing the guardian and next friend is solely determined under a contingent fee arrangement, the guardian of the estate of the ward shall not participate in or have any duty to review the prosecution of the action, to participate in or review the appropriateness of any settlement of the action, or to participate in or review any determination of the appropriateness of any fees awarded to the attorney or attorneys employed in the prosecution of the action.

(d) Adjudication of disability shall not revoke or otherwise terminate a trust which is revocable by the ward. A guardian of the estate shall have no authority to revoke a trust that is revocable by the ward, except that the court may authorize a guardian to revoke a Totten trust or similar deposit or withdrawable capital account in trust to the extent necessary to provide funds for the purposes specified in paragraph (a) of this Section. If the trustee of any trust for the benefit of the ward has discretionary power to apply income or principal for the ward's benefit, the trustee shall not be required to distribute any of the income or principal to the guardian of the ward's estate, but the guardian may bring an action on behalf of the ward to compel the trustee to exercise the trustee's discretion or to seek relief from an abuse of discretion. This paragraph shall not limit the right of a guardian of the estate to receive accountings from the trustee on behalf of the ward.

(e) Absent court order pursuant to the "Illinois Power of Attorney Act" enacted by the 85th General Assembly directing a guardian to exercise powers of the principal under an agency that survives disability, the guardian will have no power, duty or liability with respect to any property subject to the agency. This subsection (e) applies to all agencies, whenever and wherever executed.

(f) Upon petition by any interested person (including the standby or short-term guardian), with such notice to interested persons as the court directs and a finding by the court that it is in the best interest of the disabled person, the court may terminate or limit the authority of a standby or short-term guardian or may enter such other orders as the court deems necessary to provide for the best interest of the disabled person. The petition for termination or limitation of the authority of a standby or short-term guardian may, but need not, be combined with a petition to have another guardian appointed for the disabled person.

(Source: P.A. 89-672, eff. 8-14-96; 90-345, eff. 8-8-97; 90-796, eff. 12-15-98; revised 1-20-03.)

Section 540. The Illinois Living Will Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(755 ILCS 35/3) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 703)

Sec. 3. Execution of a Document.

(a) An individual of sound mind and having reached the age of majority or having obtained the status of an emancipated person pursuant to the "Emancipation of Mature Minors Act", as now or hereafter amended, may execute a document directing that if he is suffering from a terminal condition, then death delaying procedures shall not be utilized for the prolongation of his life.

(b) The declaration must be signed by the declarant, or another at the declarant's direction, and witnessed by 2 individuals 18 years of age or older.

(c) The declaration of a qualified patient diagnosed as pregnant by the attending physician shall be given no force and effect as long as in the opinion of the attending physician it is possible that the fetus could develop to the point of live birth with the continued application of death delaying procedures.

(d) If the patient is able, it shall be the responsibility of the patient to provide for notification to his or her attending physician of the existence of a declaration, to provide the declaration to the physician and to ask the attending physician whether he or she is willing to comply with its provisions. An attending physician who is so notified shall make the declaration, or copy of the declaration, a part of the patient's medical records. If the physician is at any time unwilling to comply with its provisions, the physician shall promptly so advise the declarant. If the physician is unwilling to comply with its provisions and the patient is able, it is the patient's responsibility to initiate the transfer to another physician of the patient's choosing. If the physician is unwilling to comply with its provisions and the patient is at any time not able to initiate the transfer, then the attending physician shall without delay notify the person with the highest priority, as set forth in this subsection, who is available, able, and willing to make arrangements for the transfer of the patient and the appropriate medical records to another physician for the effectuation of the patient's declaration. The order of priority is as follows: (1) any person authorized by the patient to make such arrangements, (2) a guardian of the person of the patient, without the necessity of obtaining a court order to do so, and (3) any member of the patient's family.

(e) The declaration may, but need not, be in the following form, and in addition may include other specific directions. Should any specific direction be determined to be invalid, such invalidity shall not affect other directions of the declaration which can be given effect without the invalid direction, and to this end the directions in the declaration are severable.

DECLARATION

This declaration is made this ............. day of ............. (month, year). I, .................., being of sound mind, willfully and voluntarily make known my desires that my moment of death shall not be artificially postponed.

If at any time I should have an incurable and irreversible injury, disease, or illness judged to be a terminal condition by my attending physician who has personally examined me and has determined that my death is imminent except for death delaying procedures, I direct that such procedures which would only prolong the dying process be withheld or withdrawn, and that I be permitted to die naturally with only the administration of medication, sustenance, or the performance of any medical procedure deemed necessary by my attending physician to provide me with comfort care.

In the absence of my ability to give directions regarding the use of such death delaying procedures, it is my intention that this declaration shall be honored by my family and physician as the final expression of my legal right to refuse medical or surgical treatment and accept the consequences from such refusal.

Signed ....................

City, County and State of Residence .........................

The declarant is personally known to me and I believe him or her to be of sound mind. I saw the declarant sign the declaration in my presence (or the declarant acknowledged in my presence that he or she had signed the declaration) and I signed the declaration as a witness in the presence of the declarant. I did not sign the declarant's signature above for or at the direction of the declarant. At the date of this instrument, I am not entitled to any portion of the estate of the declarant according to the laws of intestate succession or, to the best of my knowledge and belief, under any will of declarant or other instrument taking effect at declarant's death, or directly financially responsible for declarant's medical care.

Witness ..................

Witness ..................

(Source: P.A. 85-1209; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 545. The Health Care Surrogate Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 65 as follows:

(755 ILCS 40/10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 851-10)

Sec. 10. Definitions.

"Adult" means a person who is (i) 18 years of age or older or (ii) an emancipated minor under the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act.

"Artificial nutrition and hydration" means supplying food and water through a conduit, such as a tube or intravenous line, where the recipient is not required to chew or swallow voluntarily, including, but not limited to, nasogastric tubes, gastrostomies, jejunostomies, and intravenous infusions. Artificial nutrition and hydration does not include assisted feeding, such as spoon or bottle feeding.

"Available" means that a person is not "unavailable". A person is unavailable if (i) the person's existence is not known, (ii) the person has not been able to be contacted by telephone or mail, or (iii) the person lacks decisional capacity, refuses to accept the office of surrogate, or is unwilling to respond in a manner that indicates a choice among the treatment matters at issue.

"Attending physician" means the physician selected by or assigned to the patient who has primary responsibility for treatment and care of the patient and who is a licensed physician in Illinois. If more than one physician shares that responsibility, any of those physicians may act as the attending physician under this Act.

"Close friend" means any person 18 years of age or older who has exhibited special care and concern for the patient and who presents an affidavit to the attending physician stating that he or she (i) is a close friend of the patient, (ii) is willing and able to become involved in the patient's health care, and (iii) has maintained such regular contact with the patient as to be familiar with the patient's activities, health, and religious and moral beliefs. The affidavit must also state facts and circumstances that demonstrate that familiarity.

"Death" means when, according to accepted medical standards, there is (i) an irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory functions or (ii) an irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem.

"Decisional capacity" means the ability to understand and appreciate the nature and consequences of a decision regarding medical treatment or forgoing life-sustaining treatment and the ability to reach and communicate an informed decision in the matter as determined by the attending physician.

"Forgo life-sustaining treatment" means to withhold, withdraw, or terminate all or any portion of life-sustaining treatment with knowledge that the patient's death is likely to result.

"Guardian" means a court appointed guardian of the person who serves as a representative of a minor or as a representative of a person under legal disability.

"Health care facility" means a type of health care provider commonly known by a wide variety of titles, including but not limited to, hospitals, medical centers, nursing homes, rehabilitation centers, long term or tertiary care facilities, and other facilities established to administer health care and provide overnight stays in their ordinary course of business or practice.

"Health care provider" means a person that is licensed, certified, or otherwise authorized or permitted by the law of this State to administer health care in the ordinary course of business or practice of a profession, including, but not limited to, physicians, nurses, health care facilities, and any employee, officer, director, agent, or person under contract with such a person.

"Imminent" (as in "death is imminent") means a determination made by the attending physician according to accepted medical standards that death will occur in a relatively short period of time, even if life-sustaining treatment is initiated or continued.

"Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical treatment, procedure, or intervention that, in the judgment of the attending physician, when applied to a patient with a qualifying condition, would not be effective to remove the qualifying condition or would serve only to prolong the dying process. Those procedures can include, but are not limited to, assisted ventilation, renal dialysis, surgical procedures, blood transfusions, and the administration of drugs, antibiotics, and artificial nutrition and hydration.

"Minor" means an individual who is not an adult as defined in this Act.

"Parent" means a person who is the natural or adoptive mother or father of the child and whose parental rights have not been terminated by a court of law.

"Patient" means an adult or minor individual, unless otherwise specified, under the care or treatment of a licensed physician or other health care provider.

"Person" means an individual, a corporation, a business trust, a trust, a partnership, an association, a government, a governmental subdivision or agency, or any other legal entity.

"Qualifying condition" means the existence of one or more of the following conditions in a patient certified in writing in the patient's medical record by the attending physician and by at least one other qualified physician:

(1) "Terminal condition" means an illness or injury for which there is no reasonable prospect of cure or recovery, death is imminent, and the application of life-sustaining treatment would only prolong the dying process.

(2) "Permanent unconsciousness" means a condition that, to a high degree of medical certainty, (i) will last permanently, without improvement, (ii) in which thought, sensation, purposeful action, social interaction, and awareness of self and environment are absent, and (iii) for which initiating or continuing life-sustaining treatment, in light of the patient's medical condition, provides only minimal medical benefit.

(3) "Incurable or irreversible condition" means an illness or injury (i) for which there is no reasonable prospect of cure or recovery, (ii) that ultimately will cause the patient's death even if life-sustaining treatment is initiated or continued, (iii) that imposes severe pain or otherwise imposes an inhumane burden on the patient, and (iv) for which initiating or continuing life-sustaining treatment, in light of the patient's medical condition, provides only minimal medical benefit.

The determination that a patient has a qualifying condition creates no presumption regarding the application or non-application of life-sustaining treatment. It is only after a determination by the attending physician that the patient has a qualifying condition that the surrogate decision maker may consider whether or not to forgo life-sustaining treatment. In making this decision, the surrogate shall weigh the burdens on the patient of initiating or continuing life-sustaining treatment against the benefits of that treatment.

"Qualified physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches in Illinois who has personally examined the patient.

"Surrogate decision maker" means an adult individual or individuals who (i) have decisional capacity, (ii) are available upon reasonable inquiry, (iii) are willing to make medical treatment decisions on behalf of a patient who lacks decisional capacity, and (iv) are identified by the attending physician in accordance with the provisions of this Act as the person or persons who are to make those decisions in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-246, eff. 1-1-98; 90-538, eff. 12-1-97; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 10-9-03.)

(755 ILCS 40/65)

Sec. 65. Do-not-resuscitate orders.

(a) An individual of sound mind and having reached the age of majority or having obtained the status of an emancipated person pursuant to the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act may execute a document (consistent with the Department of Public Health Uniform DNR Order Form) directing that resuscitating efforts shall not be implemented. Such an order may also be executed by an attending physician.

(b) Consent to a DNR order may be obtained from the individual, or from another person at the individual's direction, or from the individual's legal guardian, agent under a power of attorney for health care, or surrogate decision maker, and witnessed by 2 individuals 18 years of age or older.

(c) The DNR order may, but need not, be in the form adopted by the Department of Public Health pursuant to Section 2310-600 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law (20 ILCS 2310/2310-600).

(d) A health care professional or health care provider may presume, in the absence of knowledge to the contrary, that a completed Department of Public Health Uniform DNR Order form or a copy of that form is a valid DNR order. A health care professional or health care provider, or an employee of a health care professional or health care provider, who in good faith complies with a do-not-resuscitate order made in accordance with this Act is not, as a result of that compliance, subject to any criminal or civil liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct, and may not be found to have committed an act of unprofessional conduct.

(Source: P.A. 92-356, eff. 10-1-01; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 550. The Business Corporation Act of 1983 is amended by changing Sections 15.10 and 15.95 as follows:

(805 ILCS 5/15.10) (from Ch. 32, par. 15.10)

Sec. 15.10. Fees for filing documents. The Secretary of State shall charge and collect for:

(a) Filing articles of incorporation, $150.

(b) Filing articles of amendment, $50, unless the amendment is a restatement of the articles of incorporation, in which case the fee shall be $150.

(c) Filing articles of merger or consolidation, $100, but if the merger or consolidation involves more than 2 corporations, $50 for each additional corporation.

(d) Filing articles of share exchange, $100.

(e) Filing articles of dissolution, $5.

(f) Filing application to reserve a corporate name, $25.

(g) Filing a notice of transfer of a reserved corporate name, $25.

(h) Filing statement of change of address of registered office or change of registered agent, or both, $25.

(i) Filing statement of the establishment of a series of shares, $25.

(j) Filing an application of a foreign corporation for authority to transact business in this State, $150.

(k) Filing an application of a foreign corporation for amended authority to transact business in this State, $25.

(l) Filing a copy of amendment to the articles of incorporation of a foreign corporation holding authority to transact business in this State, $50, unless the amendment is a restatement of the articles of incorporation, in which case the fee shall be $150.

(m) Filing a copy of articles of merger of a foreign corporation holding a certificate of authority to transact business in this State, $100, but if the merger involves more than 2 corporations, $50 for each additional corporation.

(n) Filing an application for withdrawal and final report or a copy of articles of dissolution of a foreign corporation, $25.

(o) Filing an annual report, interim annual report, or final transition annual report of a domestic or foreign corporation, $75.

(p) Filing an application for reinstatement of a domestic or a foreign corporation, $200.

(q) Filing an application for use of an assumed corporate name, $150 for each year or part thereof ending in 0 or 5, $120 for each year or part thereof ending in 1 or 6, $90 for each year or part thereof ending in 2 or 7, $60 for each year or part thereof ending in 3 or 8, $30 for each year or part thereof ending in 4 or 9, between the date of filing the application and the date of the renewal of the assumed corporate name; and a renewal fee for each assumed corporate name, $150.

(r) To change an assumed corporate name for the period remaining until the renewal date of the original assumed name, $25.

(s) Filing an application for cancellation of an assumed corporate name, $5.

(t) Filing an application to register the corporate name of a foreign corporation, $50; and an annual renewal fee for the registered name, $50.

(u) Filing an application for cancellation of a registered name of a foreign corporation, $25.

(v) Filing a statement of correction, $50.

(w) Filing a petition for refund or adjustment, $5.

(x) Filing a statement of election of an extended filing month, $25.

(y) Filing any other statement or report, $5.

(Source: P.A. 92-33, eff. 7-1-01; 93-32, eff. 12-1-03; 93-59, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-5-03.)

(805 ILCS 5/15.95) (from Ch. 32, par. 15.95)

Sec. 15.95. Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund.

(a) A special fund in the State treasury known as the Division of Corporations Special Operations Fund is renamed the Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Department of Business Services of the Office of the Secretary of State, hereinafter "Department", to create and maintain the capability to perform expedited services in response to special requests made by the public for same day or 24 hour service. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall be used for, but not limited to, expenditures for personal services, retirement, social security, contractual services, equipment, electronic data processing, and telecommunications.

(b) The balance in the Fund at the end of any fiscal year shall not exceed $600,000 and any amount in excess thereof shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund.

(c) All fees payable to the Secretary of State under this Section shall be deposited into the Fund. No other fees or taxes collected under this Act shall be deposited into the Fund.

(d) "Expedited services" means services rendered within the same day, or within 24 hours from the time, the request therefor is submitted by the filer, law firm, service company, or messenger physically in person or, at the Secretary of State's discretion, by electronic means, to the Department's Springfield Office and includes requests for certified copies, photocopies, and certificates of good standing or fact made to the Department's Springfield Office in person or by telephone, or requests for certificates of good standing or fact made in person or by telephone to the Department's Chicago Office.

(e) Fees for expedited services shall be as follows:

Restatement of articles, $200;

Merger, consolidation or exchange, $200;

Articles of incorporation, $100;

Articles of amendment, $100;

Revocation of dissolution, $100;

Reinstatement, $100;

Application for authority, $100;

Cumulative report of changes in issued shares or paid-in capital, $100;

Report following merger or consolidation, $100;

Certificate of good standing or fact, $20;

All other filings, copies of documents, annual reports filed on or after January 1, 1984, and copies of documents of dissolved or revoked corporations having a file number over 5199, $50.

(f) Expedited services shall not be available for a statement of correction, a petition for refund or adjustment, or a request involving annual reports filed before January 1, 1984 or involving dissolved corporations with a file number below 5200.

(Source: P.A. 92-33, eff. 7-1-01; 93-32, eff. 9-1-03; 93-59, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-5-03.)

Section 555. The Limited Liability Company Act is amended by changing Sections 1-25 and 50-10 as follows:

(805 ILCS 180/1-25)

Sec. 1-25. Nature of business. A limited liability company may be formed for any lawful purpose or business except:

(1) (blank);

(2) insurance unless, for the purpose of carrying on business as a member of a group including incorporated and individual unincorporated underwriters, the Director of Insurance finds that the group meets the requirements of subsection (3) of Section 86 of the Illinois Insurance Code and the limited liability company, if insolvent, is subject to liquidation by the Director of Insurance under Article XIII of the Illinois Insurance Code;

(3) the practice of dentistry unless all the members and managers are licensed as dentists under the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(4) the practice of medicine unless all the managers, if any, are licensed to practice medicine under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and each member is either:

(A) licensed to practice medicine under the Medical Practice Act of 1987; or

(B) a registered medical corporation or corporations organized pursuant to the Medical Corporation Act; or

(C) a professional corporation organized pursuant to the Professional Service Corporation Act of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(D) a limited liability company that satisfies the requirements of subparagraph (A), (B), or (C).

(Source: P.A. 92-144, eff. 7-24-01; 93-59, eff. 7-1-03; 93-561, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-5-03.)

(805 ILCS 180/50-10)

Sec. 50-10. Fees.

(a) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect in accordance with the provisions of this Act and rules promulgated under its authority all of the following:

(1) Fees for filing documents.

(2) Miscellaneous charges.

(3) Fees for the sale of lists of filings and for copies of any documents.

(b) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect for all of the following:

(1) Filing articles of organization of limited liability companies (domestic), application for admission (foreign), and restated articles of organization (domestic), $500.

(2) Filing amendments:

(A) For other than change of registered agent name or registered office, or both, $150.

(B) For the purpose of changing the registered agent name or registered office, or both, $35.

(3) Filing articles of dissolution or application for withdrawal, $100.

(4) Filing an application to reserve a name, $300.

(5) (Blank).

(6) Filing a notice of a transfer of a reserved name, $100.

(7) Registration of a name, $300.

(8) Renewal of registration of a name, $100.

(9) Filing an application for use of an assumed name under Section 1-20 of this Act, $150 for each year or part thereof ending in 0 or 5, $120 for each year or part thereof ending in 1 or 6, $90 for each year or part thereof ending in 2 or 7, $60 for each year or part thereof ending in 3 or 8, $30 for each year or part thereof ending in 4 or 9, and a renewal for each assumed name, $150.

(10) Filing an application for change of an assumed name, $100.

(11) Filing an annual report of a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company, $250, if filed as required by this Act, plus a penalty if delinquent.

(12) Filing an application for reinstatement of a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company $500.

(13) Filing Articles of Merger, $100 plus $50 for each party to the merger in excess of the first 2 parties.

(14) Filing an Agreement of Conversion or Statement of Conversion, $100.

(15) Filing a statement of correction, $25.

(16) Filing a petition for refund, $15.

(17) Filing any other document, $100.

(c) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect all of the following:

(1) For furnishing a copy or certified copy of any document, instrument, or paper relating to a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company, $1 per page, but not less than $25, and $25 for the certificate and for affixing the seal thereto.

(2) For the transfer of information by computer process media to any purchaser, fees established by rule.

(Source: P.A. 92-33, eff. 7-1-01; 93-32, eff. 12-1-03; 93-59, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-5-03.)

Section 560. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2MM as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2MM)

Sec. 2MM. Verification of accuracy of credit reporting information used to extend consumers credit.

(a) A credit card issuer who mails an offer or solicitation to apply for a credit card and who receives a completed application in response to the offer or solicitation which lists an address that is not substantially the same as the address on the offer or solicitation may not issue a credit card based on that application until reasonable steps have been taken to verify the applicant's change of address.

(b) Any person who uses a consumer credit report in connection with the approval of credit based on the application for an extension of credit, and who has received notification of a police report filed with a consumer reporting agency that the applicant has been a victim of financial identity theft, as defined in Section 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961, may not lend money or extend credit without taking reasonable steps to verify the consumer's identity and confirm that the application for an extension of credit is not the result of financial identity theft.

(c) For purposes of this Section, "extension of credit" does not include an increase in an existing open-end credit plan, as defined in Regulation Z of the Federal Reserve System (12 C.F.R. 226.2), or any change to or review of an existing credit account.

(d) Any person who violates subsection (a) or subsection (b) commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-195, eff. 1-1-04.)

(815 ILCS 505/2NN)

Sec. 2NN 2MM. Receipts; credit card and debit card account numbers.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Cardholder" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.02 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

"Credit card" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.03 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

"Debit card" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.15 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

"Issuer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.08 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

"Person" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.09 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

"Provider" means a person who furnishes money, goods, services, or anything else of value upon presentation, whether physically, in writing, verbally, electronically, or otherwise, of a credit card or debit card by the cardholder, or any agent or employee of that person.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, no provider may print or otherwise produce or reproduce or permit the printing or other production or reproduction of the following: (i) any part of the credit card or debit card account number, other than the last 4 digits or other characters, (ii) the credit card or debit card expiration date on any receipt provided or made available to the cardholder.

(c) This Section does not apply to a credit card or debit card transaction in which the sole means available to the provider of recording the credit card or debit card account number is by handwriting or by imprint of the card.

(d) This Section does not apply to receipts issued for transactions on the electronic benefits transfer card system in accordance with 7 CFR 274.12(g)(3).

(e) A violation of this Section constitutes an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(f) This Section is operative on January 1, 2005.

(Source: P.A. 93-231, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-26-03.)

(815 ILCS 505/2PP)

Sec. 2PP 2MM. Mail; disclosure. It is an unlawful practice under this Act to knowingly mail or send or cause to be mailed or sent a postcard or letter to a recipient in this State if:

(1) the postcard or letter contains a request that the recipient call a telephone number; and

(2) the postcard or letter is mailed or sent to induce the recipient to call the telephone number so that goods, services, or other merchandise, as defined in Section 1, may be offered for sale to the recipient; and

(3) the postcard or letter does not disclose that goods, services, or other merchandise, as defined in Section 1, may be offered for sale if the recipient calls the telephone number.

(Source: P.A. 93-459, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-26-03.)

Section 565. The Prevailing Wage Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 4 as follows:

(820 ILCS 130/2) (from Ch. 48, par. 39s-2)

Sec. 2. This Act applies to the wages of laborers, mechanics and other workers employed in any public works, as hereinafter defined, by any public body and to anyone under contracts for public works.

As used in this Act, unless the context indicates otherwise:

"Public works" means all fixed works constructed by any public body, other than work done directly by any public utility company, whether or not done under public supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" as defined herein includes all projects financed in whole or in part with bonds issued under the Industrial Project Revenue Bond Act (Article 11, Division 74 of the Illinois Municipal Code), the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act, the Illinois Finance Authority Act, the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, or the Build Illinois Bond Act, and all projects financed in whole or in part with loans or other funds made available pursuant to the Build Illinois Act. "Public works" also includes all projects financed in whole or in part with funds from the Fund for Illinois' Future under Section 6z-47 of the State Finance Act, funds for school construction under Section 5 of the General Obligation Bond Act, funds authorized under Section 3 of the School Construction Bond Act, funds for school infrastructure under Section 6z-45 of the State Finance Act, and funds for transportation purposes under Section 4 of the General Obligation Bond Act. "Public works" also includes all projects financed in whole or in part with funds from the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Community Affairs under the Illinois Renewable Fuels Development Program Act for which there is no project labor agreement.

"Construction" means all work on public works involving laborers, workers or mechanics.

"Locality" means the county where the physical work upon public works is performed, except (1) that if there is not available in the county a sufficient number of competent skilled laborers, workers and mechanics to construct the public works efficiently and properly, "locality" includes any other county nearest the one in which the work or construction is to be performed and from which such persons may be obtained in sufficient numbers to perform the work and (2) that, with respect to contracts for highway work with the Department of Transportation of this State, "locality" may at the discretion of the Secretary of the Department of Transportation be construed to include two or more adjacent counties from which workers may be accessible for work on such construction.

"Public body" means the State or any officer, board or commission of the State or any political subdivision or department thereof, or any institution supported in whole or in part by public funds, and includes every county, city, town, village, township, school district, irrigation, utility, reclamation improvement or other district and every other political subdivision, district or municipality of the state whether such political subdivision, municipality or district operates under a special charter or not.

The terms "general prevailing rate of hourly wages", "general prevailing rate of wages" or "prevailing rate of wages" when used in this Act mean the hourly cash wages plus fringe benefits for training and apprenticeship programs approved by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, health and welfare, insurance, vacations and pensions paid generally, in the locality in which the work is being performed, to employees engaged in work of a similar character on public works.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 93-15, eff. 6-11-03; 93-16, eff. 1-1-04; 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 1-12-04.)

(820 ILCS 130/4) (from Ch. 48, par. 39s-4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 93-38)

Sec. 4. The public body awarding any contract for public work or otherwise undertaking any public works, shall ascertain the general prevailing rate of hourly wages in the locality in which the work is to be performed, for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract, and where the public body performs the work without letting a contract therefor, shall ascertain the prevailing rate of wages on a per hour basis in the locality, and such public body shall specify in the resolution or ordinance and in the call for bids for the contract, that the general prevailing rate of wages in the locality for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract or perform such work, also the general prevailing rate for legal holiday and overtime work, as ascertained by the public body or by the Department of Labor shall be paid for each craft or type of worker needed to execute the contract or to perform such work, and it shall be mandatory upon the contractor to whom the contract is awarded and upon any subcontractor under him, and where the public body performs the work, upon the public body, to pay not less than the specified rates to all laborers, workers and mechanics employed by them in the execution of the contract or such work; provided, however, that if the public body desires that the Department of Labor ascertain the prevailing rate of wages, it shall notify the Department of Labor to ascertain the general prevailing rate of hourly wages for work under contract, or for work performed by a public body without letting a contract as required in the locality in which the work is to be performed, for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract or project or work to be performed. Upon such notification the Department of Labor shall ascertain such general prevailing rate of wages, and certify the prevailing wage to such public body. The public body awarding the contract shall cause to be inserted in the contract a stipulation to the effect that not less than the prevailing rate of wages as found by the public body or Department of Labor or determined by the court on review shall be paid to all laborers, workers and mechanics performing work under the contract. It shall also require in all such contractor's bonds that the contractor include such provision as will guarantee the faithful performance of such prevailing wage clause as provided by contract. All bid specifications shall list the specified rates to all laborers, workers and mechanics in the locality for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract. If the Department of Labor revises the prevailing rate of hourly wages to be paid by the public body, the revised rate shall apply to such contract, and the public body shall be responsible to notify the contractor and each subcontractor, of the revised rate. Two or more investigatory hearings under this Section on the issue of establishing a new prevailing wage classification for a particular craft or type of worker shall be consolidated in a single hearing before the Department. Such consolidation shall occur whether each separate investigatory hearing is conducted by a public body or the Department. The party requesting a consolidated investigatory hearing shall have the burden of establishing that there is no existing prevailing wage classification for the particular craft or type of worker in any of the localities under consideration.

It shall be mandatory upon the contractor or construction manager to whom a contract for public works is awarded to post, at a location on the project site of the public works that is easily accessible to the workers engaged on the project, the prevailing wage rates for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract or project or work to be performed. A failure to post a prevailing wage rate as required by this Section is a violation of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-783, eff. 8-6-02; 93-15, eff. 6-11-03; 93-16, eff. 1-1-04.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 93-38)

Sec. 4. (a) The public body awarding any contract for public work or otherwise undertaking any public works, shall ascertain the general prevailing rate of hourly wages in the locality in which the work is to be performed, for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract, and where the public body performs the work without letting a contract therefor, shall ascertain the prevailing rate of wages on a per hour basis in the locality, and such public body shall specify in the resolution or ordinance and in the call for bids for the contract, that the general prevailing rate of wages in the locality for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract or perform such work, also the general prevailing rate for legal holiday and overtime work, as ascertained by the public body or by the Department of Labor shall be paid for each craft or type of worker needed to execute the contract or to perform such work, and it shall be mandatory upon the contractor to whom the contract is awarded and upon any subcontractor under him, and where the public body performs the work, upon the public body, to pay not less than the specified rates to all laborers, workers and mechanics employed by them in the execution of the contract or such work; provided, however, that if the public body desires that the Department of Labor ascertain the prevailing rate of wages, it shall notify the Department of Labor to ascertain the general prevailing rate of hourly wages for work under contract, or for work performed by a public body without letting a contract as required in the locality in which the work is to be performed, for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract or project or work to be performed. Upon such notification the Department of Labor shall ascertain such general prevailing rate of wages, and certify the prevailing wage to such public body. The public body awarding the contract shall cause to be inserted in the project specifications and the contract a stipulation to the effect that not less than the prevailing rate of wages as found by the public body or Department of Labor or determined by the court on review shall be paid to all laborers, workers and mechanics performing work under the contract.

(b) It shall also be mandatory upon the contractor to whom the contract is awarded to insert into each subcontract and into the project specifications for each subcontract a written stipulation to the effect that not less than the prevailing rate of wages shall be paid to all laborers, workers, and mechanics performing work under the contract. It shall also be mandatory upon each subcontractor to cause to be inserted into each lower tiered subcontract and into the project specifications for each lower tiered subcontract a stipulation to the effect that not less than the prevailing rate of wages shall be paid to all laborers, workers, and mechanics performing work under the contract. A contractor or subcontractor who fails to comply with this subsection (b) is in violation of this Act.

(c) It shall also require in all such contractor's bonds that the contractor include such provision as will guarantee the faithful performance of such prevailing wage clause as provided by contract. All bid specifications shall list the specified rates to all laborers, workers and mechanics in the locality for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract.

(d) If the Department of Labor revises the prevailing rate of hourly wages to be paid by the public body, the revised rate shall apply to such contract, and the public body shall be responsible to notify the contractor and each subcontractor, of the revised rate.

(e) Two or more investigatory hearings under this Section on the issue of establishing a new prevailing wage classification for a particular craft or type of worker shall be consolidated in a single hearing before the Department. Such consolidation shall occur whether each separate investigatory hearing is conducted by a public body or the Department. The party requesting a consolidated investigatory hearing shall have the burden of establishing that there is no existing prevailing wage classification for the particular craft or type of worker in any of the localities under consideration.

(f) It shall be mandatory upon the contractor or construction manager to whom a contract for public works is awarded to post, at a location on the project site of the public works that is easily accessible to the workers engaged on the project, the prevailing wage rates for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract or project or work to be performed. A failure to post a prevailing wage rate as required by this Section is a violation of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-783, eff. 8-6-02; 93-15, eff. 6-11-03; 93-16, eff. 1-1-04; 93-38, eff. 6-1-04; revised 7-28-03.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.