SB1192eng 98TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

SB1192 Engrossed LRB098 02592 RLC 32597 b

AN ACT concerning criminal law.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)

Sec. 4. Identification Card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Disabled Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this determination by his or her supervising physician, a determination of disability from an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a disabled person or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21, shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Disabled Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 96-146, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1231, eff. 7-23-10; 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-5-12.)

Section 10. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 40-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/40-15)

Sec. 40-15. Acceptance for treatment as a parole or aftercare release condition. Acceptance for treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism under the supervision of a designated program may be made a condition of parole or aftercare release, and failure to comply with such treatment may be treated as a violation of parole or aftercare release. A designated program shall establish the conditions under which a parolee or releasee is accepted for treatment. No parolee or releasee may be placed under the supervision of a designated program for treatment unless the designated program accepts him or her for treatment. The designated program shall make periodic progress reports regarding each such parolee or releasee to the appropriate parole authority and shall report failures to comply with the prescribed treatment program.

(Source: P.A. 88-80.)

Section 15. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 34.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/34.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5034.2)

Sec. 34.2. To conduct meetings in each service region between local youth service, police, probation and aftercare parole workers to develop inter-agency plans to combat gang crime. The Department shall develop a model policy for local interagency cooperation in dealing with gangs.

(Source: P.A. 84-660.)

Section 20. The Child Death Review Team Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(20 ILCS 515/25)

Sec. 25. Team access to information.

(a) The Department shall provide to a child death review team, on the request of the team chairperson, all records and information in the Department's possession that are relevant to the team's review of a child death, including records and information concerning previous reports or investigations of suspected child abuse or neglect.

(b) A child death review team shall have access to all records and information that are relevant to its review of a child death and in the possession of a State or local governmental agency, including, but not limited to, information gained through the Child Advocacy Center protocol for cases of serious or fatal injury to a child. These records and information include, without limitation, birth certificates, all relevant medical and mental health records, records of law enforcement agency investigations, records of coroner or medical examiner investigations, records of the Department of Corrections and Department of Juvenile Justice concerning a person's parole, aftercare release, records of a probation and court services department, and records of a social services agency that provided services to the child or the child's family.

(Source: P.A. 95-527, eff. 6-1-08.)

Section 25. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3930/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 210-3)

Sec. 3. Definitions. Whenever used in this Act, and for the purposes of this Act unless the context clearly denotes otherwise:

(a) The term "criminal justice system" includes all activities by public agencies pertaining to the prevention or reduction of crime or enforcement of the criminal law, and particularly, but without limitation, the prevention, detection, and investigation of crime; the apprehension of offenders; the protection of victims and witnesses; the administration of juvenile justice; the prosecution and defense of criminal cases; the trial, conviction, and sentencing of offenders; as well as the correction and rehabilitation of offenders, which includes imprisonment, probation, parole, aftercare release, and treatment.

(b) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority created by this Act.

(c) The term "criminal justice information" means any and every type of information that is collected, transmitted, or maintained by the criminal justice system.

(d) The term "criminal history record information" means data identifiable to an individual and consisting of descriptions or notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, pre-trial proceedings, trials, or other formal events in the criminal justice system or descriptions or notations of criminal charges (including criminal violations of local municipal ordinances) and the nature of any disposition arising therefrom, including sentencing, court or correctional supervision, rehabilitation, and release. The term does not apply to statistical records and reports in which individuals are not identified and from which their identities are not ascertainable, or to information that is for criminal investigative or intelligence purposes.

(e) The term "unit of general local government" means any county, municipality or other general purpose political subdivision of this State.

(Source: P.A. 85-653.)

Section 30. The Sex Offender Management Board Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4026/17)

Sec. 17. Sentencing of sex offenders; treatment based upon evaluation required.

(a) Each felony sex offender sentenced by the court for a sex offense shall be required as a part of any sentence to probation, conditional release, or periodic imprisonment to undergo treatment based upon the recommendations of the evaluation made pursuant to Section 16 or based upon any subsequent recommendations by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts or the county probation department, whichever is appropriate. Beginning on January 1, 2014, the treatment shall be with a sex offender treatment provider or associate sex offender provider as defined in Section 10 of this Act and at the offender's own expense based upon the offender's ability to pay for such treatment.

(b) Beginning on January 1, 2004, each sex offender placed on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release by the Prisoner Review Board shall be required as a condition of parole or aftercare release to undergo treatment based upon any evaluation or subsequent reevaluation regarding such offender during the offender's incarceration or any period of parole or aftercare release. Beginning on January 1, 2014, the treatment shall be by a sex offender treatment provider or associate sex offender provider as defined in Section 10 of this Act and at the offender's expense based upon the offender's ability to pay for such treatment.

(Source: P.A. 97-1098, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 35. The Abuse Prevention Review Team Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(210 ILCS 28/25)

Sec. 25. Review team access to information.

(a) The Department shall provide to a review team, on the request of the review team chairperson, all records and information in the Department's possession that are relevant to the review team's review of a sexual assault or death described in subsection (b) of Section 20, including records and information concerning previous reports or investigations of suspected abuse or neglect.

(b) A review team shall have access to all records and information that are relevant to its review of a sexual assault or death and in the possession of a State or local governmental agency. These records and information include, without limitation, death certificates, all relevant medical and mental health records, records of law enforcement agency investigations, records of coroner or medical examiner investigations, records of the Department of Corrections and Department of Juvenile Justice concerning a person's parole, aftercare release, records of a probation and court services department, and records of a social services agency that provided services to the resident.

(Source: P.A. 93-577, eff. 8-21-03; 94-931, eff. 6-26-06.)

Section 40. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Section 2-110 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/2-110) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-110)

Sec. 2-110. (a) Any employee or agent of a public agency, any representative of a community legal services program or any other member of the general public shall be permitted access at reasonable hours to any individual resident of any facility, but only if there is neither a commercial purpose nor effect to such access and if the purpose is to do any of the following:

(1) Visit, talk with and make personal, social and legal services available to all residents;

(2) Inform residents of their rights and entitlements and their corresponding obligations, under federal and State laws, by means of educational materials and discussions in groups and with individual residents;

(3) Assist residents in asserting their legal rights regarding claims for public assistance, medical assistance and social security benefits, as well as in all other matters in which residents are aggrieved. Assistance may include counseling and litigation; or

(4) Engage in other methods of asserting, advising and representing residents so as to extend to them full enjoyment of their rights.

(a-5) If a resident of a licensed facility is an identified offender, any federal, State, or local law enforcement officer or county probation officer shall be permitted reasonable access to the individual resident to verify compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act, to verify compliance with the requirements of Public Act 94-163 and this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, or to verify compliance with applicable terms of probation, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.

(b) All persons entering a facility under this Section shall promptly notify appropriate facility personnel of their presence. They shall, upon request, produce identification to establish their identity. No such person shall enter the immediate living area of any resident without first identifying himself and then receiving permission from the resident to enter. The rights of other residents present in the room shall be respected. A resident may terminate at any time a visit by a person having access to the resident's living area under this Section.

(c) This Section shall not limit the power of the Department or other public agency otherwise permitted or required by law to enter and inspect a facility.

(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this Section, the administrator of a facility may refuse access to the facility to any person if the presence of that person in the facility would be injurious to the health and safety of a resident or would threaten the security of the property of a resident or the facility, or if the person seeks access to the facility for commercial purposes. Any person refused access to a facility may within 10 days request a hearing under Section 3-703. In that proceeding, the burden of proof as to the right of the facility to refuse access under this Section shall be on the facility.

(Source: P.A. 94-163, eff. 7-11-05; 94-752, eff. 5-10-06.)

Section 45. The ID/DD Community Care Act is amended by changing Section 2-110 as follows:

(210 ILCS 47/2-110)

Sec. 2-110. Access to residents.

(a) Any employee or agent of a public agency, any representative of a community legal services program or any other member of the general public shall be permitted access at reasonable hours to any individual resident of any facility, but only if there is neither a commercial purpose nor effect to such access and if the purpose is to do any of the following:

(1) Visit, talk with and make personal, social and legal services available to all residents;

(2) Inform residents of their rights and entitlements and their corresponding obligations, under federal and State laws, by means of educational materials and discussions in groups and with individual residents;

(3) Assist residents in asserting their legal rights regarding claims for public assistance, medical assistance and social security benefits, as well as in all other matters in which residents are aggrieved. Assistance may include counseling and litigation; or

(4) Engage in other methods of asserting, advising and representing residents so as to extend to them full enjoyment of their rights.

(a-5) If a resident of a licensed facility is an identified offender, any federal, State, or local law enforcement officer or county probation officer shall be permitted reasonable access to the individual resident to verify compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act or to verify compliance with applicable terms of probation, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.

(b) All persons entering a facility under this Section shall promptly notify appropriate facility personnel of their presence. They shall, upon request, produce identification to establish their identity. No such person shall enter the immediate living area of any resident without first identifying himself or herself and then receiving permission from the resident to enter. The rights of other residents present in the room shall be respected. A resident may terminate at any time a visit by a person having access to the resident's living area under this Section.

(c) This Section shall not limit the power of the Department or other public agency otherwise permitted or required by law to enter and inspect a facility.

(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this Section, the administrator of a facility may refuse access to the facility to any person if the presence of that person in the facility would be injurious to the health and safety of a resident or would threaten the security of the property of a resident or the facility, or if the person seeks access to the facility for commercial purposes. Any person refused access to a facility may within 10 days request a hearing under Section 3-703. In that proceeding, the burden of proof as to the right of the facility to refuse access under this Section shall be on the facility.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

Section 50. The Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act is amended by changing Section 2-110 as follows:

(210 ILCS 48/2-110)

Sec. 2-110. Access to residents.

(a) Any employee or agent of a public agency, any representative of a community legal services program or any other member of the general public shall be permitted access at reasonable hours to any individual resident of any facility, but only if there is neither a commercial purpose nor effect to such access and if the purpose is to do any of the following:

(1) Visit, talk with and make personal, social and legal services available to all residents;

(2) Inform residents of their rights and entitlements and their corresponding obligations, under federal and State laws, by means of educational materials and discussions in groups and with individual residents;

(3) Assist residents in asserting their legal rights regarding claims for public assistance, medical assistance and social security benefits, as well as in all other matters in which residents are aggrieved. Assistance may include counseling and litigation; or

(4) Engage in other methods of asserting, advising and representing residents so as to extend to them full enjoyment of their rights.

(a-5) If a resident of a licensed facility is an identified offender, any federal, State, or local law enforcement officer or county probation officer shall be permitted reasonable access to the individual resident to verify compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act or to verify compliance with applicable terms of probation, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.

(b) All persons entering a facility under this Section shall promptly notify appropriate facility personnel of their presence. They shall, upon request, produce identification to establish their identity. No such person shall enter the immediate living area of any resident without first identifying himself or herself and then receiving permission from the resident to enter. The rights of other residents present in the room shall be respected. A resident may terminate at any time a visit by a person having access to the resident's living area under this Section.

(c) This Section shall not limit the power of the Department or other public agency otherwise permitted or required by law to enter and inspect a facility.

(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this Section, the administrator of a facility may refuse access to the facility to any person if the presence of that person in the facility would be injurious to the health and safety of a resident or would threaten the security of the property of a resident or the facility, or if the person seeks access to the facility for commercial purposes. Any person refused access to a facility may within 10 days request a hearing under Section 3-703. In that proceeding, the burden of proof as to the right of the facility to refuse access under this Section shall be on the facility.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

Section 55. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Section 12-10.4 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/12-10.4)

Sec. 12-10.4. Juvenile Rehabilitation Services Medicaid Matching Fund. There is created in the State Treasury the Juvenile Rehabilitation Services Medicaid Matching Fund. Deposits to this Fund shall consist of all moneys received from the federal government for behavioral health services secured by counties pursuant to an agreement with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services with respect to Title XIX of the Social Security Act or under the Children's Health Insurance Program pursuant to the Children's Health Insurance Program Act and Title XXI of the Social Security Act for minors who are committed to mental health facilities by the Illinois court system and for residential placements secured by the Department of Juvenile Justice for minors as a condition of their aftercare release parole.

Disbursements from the Fund shall be made, subject to appropriation, by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services for grants to the Department of Juvenile Justice and those counties which secure behavioral health services ordered by the courts and which have an interagency agreement with the Department and submit detailed bills according to standards determined by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1100, eff. 1-1-11.)

Section 60. The Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(405 ILCS 82/20)

Sec. 20. Independent team of experts' access to information.

(a) The Secretary of Human Services shall provide to the independent team of experts, on the request of the team Chairperson, all records and information in the Department's possession that are relevant to the team's examination of a death of the sort described in subsection (c) of Section 10, including records and information concerning previous reports or investigations of any matter, as determined by the team.

(b) The independent team shall have access to all records and information that are relevant to its review of a death and in the possession of a State or local governmental agency or other entity. These records and information shall include, without limitation, death certificates, all relevant medical and mental health records, records of law enforcement agency investigations, records of coroner or medical examiner investigations, records of the Department of Corrections and Department of Juvenile Justice concerning a person's parole, aftercare release, records of a probation and court services department, and records of a social services agency that provided services to the person who died.

(Source: P.A. 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11.)

Section 65. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 5-105, 5-750, 5-815, and 5-820 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/5-105)

Sec. 5-105. Definitions. As used in this Article:

(1) "Aftercare release" means the conditional and revocable release of an adjudicated delinquent juvenile under the supervision of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(1.5) (1) "Court" means the circuit court in a session or division assigned to hear proceedings under this Act, and includes the term Juvenile Court.

(2) "Community service" means uncompensated labor for a community service agency as hereinafter defined.

(2.5) "Community service agency" means a not-for-profit organization, community organization, church, charitable organization, individual, public office, or other public body whose purpose is to enhance the physical or mental health of a delinquent minor or to rehabilitate the minor, or to improve the environmental quality or social welfare of the community which agrees to accept community service from juvenile delinquents and to report on the progress of the community service to the State's Attorney pursuant to an agreement or to the court or to any agency designated by the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the delinquent minor for community service.

(3) "Delinquent minor" means any minor who prior to his or her 17th birthday has violated or attempted to violate, regardless of where the act occurred, any federal or State law, county or municipal ordinance, and any minor who prior to his or her 18th birthday has violated or attempted to violate, regardless of where the act occurred, any federal, State, county or municipal law or ordinance classified as a misdemeanor offense.

(4) "Department" means the Department of Human Services unless specifically referenced as another department.

(5) "Detention" means the temporary care of a minor who is alleged to be or has been adjudicated delinquent and who requires secure custody for the minor's own protection or the community's protection in a facility designed to physically restrict the minor's movements, pending disposition by the court or execution of an order of the court for placement or commitment. Design features that physically restrict movement include, but are not limited to, locked rooms and the secure handcuffing of a minor to a rail or other stationary object. In addition, "detention" includes the court ordered care of an alleged or adjudicated delinquent minor who requires secure custody pursuant to Section 5-125 of this Act.

(6) "Diversion" means the referral of a juvenile, without court intervention, into a program that provides services designed to educate the juvenile and develop a productive and responsible approach to living in the community.

(7) "Juvenile detention home" means a public facility with specially trained staff that conforms to the county juvenile detention standards promulgated by the Department of Corrections.

(8) "Juvenile justice continuum" means a set of delinquency prevention programs and services designed for the purpose of preventing or reducing delinquent acts, including criminal activity by youth gangs, as well as intervention, rehabilitation, and prevention services targeted at minors who have committed delinquent acts, and minors who have previously been committed to residential treatment programs for delinquents. The term includes children-in-need-of-services and families-in-need-of-services programs; aftercare and reentry services; substance abuse and mental health programs; community service programs; community service work programs; and alternative-dispute resolution programs serving youth-at-risk of delinquency and their families, whether offered or delivered by State or local governmental entities, public or private for-profit or not-for-profit organizations, or religious or charitable organizations. This term would also encompass any program or service consistent with the purpose of those programs and services enumerated in this subsection.

(9) "Juvenile police officer" means a sworn police officer who has completed a Basic Recruit Training Course, has been assigned to the position of juvenile police officer by his or her chief law enforcement officer and has completed the necessary juvenile officers training as prescribed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or in the case of a State police officer, juvenile officer training approved by the Director of State Police.

(10) "Minor" means a person under the age of 21 years subject to this Act.

(11) "Non-secure custody" means confinement where the minor is not physically restricted by being placed in a locked cell or room, by being handcuffed to a rail or other stationary object, or by other means. Non-secure custody may include, but is not limited to, electronic monitoring, foster home placement, home confinement, group home placement, or physical restriction of movement or activity solely through facility staff.

(12) "Public or community service" means uncompensated labor for a not-for-profit organization or public body whose purpose is to enhance physical or mental stability of the offender, environmental quality or the social welfare and which agrees to accept public or community service from offenders and to report on the progress of the offender and the public or community service to the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the offender for public or community service.

(13) "Sentencing hearing" means a hearing to determine whether a minor should be adjudged a ward of the court, and to determine what sentence should be imposed on the minor. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the term "sentencing hearing" replace the term "dispositional hearing" and be synonymous with that definition as it was used in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(14) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a minor in physically unrestricting facilities pending court disposition or execution of court order for placement.

(15) "Site" means a not-for-profit organization, public body, church, charitable organization, or individual agreeing to accept community service from offenders and to report on the progress of ordered or required public or community service to the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the offender for public or community service.

(16) "Station adjustment" means the informal or formal handling of an alleged offender by a juvenile police officer.

(17) "Trial" means a hearing to determine whether the allegations of a petition under Section 5-520 that a minor is delinquent are proved beyond a reasonable doubt. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the term "trial" replace the term "adjudicatory hearing" and be synonymous with that definition as it was used in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 95-1031, eff. 1-1-10.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-750)

Sec. 5-750. Commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(1) Except as provided in subsection (2) of this Section, when any delinquent has been adjudged a ward of the court under this Act, the court may commit him or her to the Department of Juvenile Justice, if it finds that (a) his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian are unfit or are unable, for some reason other than financial circumstances alone, to care for, protect, train or discipline the minor, or are unwilling to do so, and the best interests of the minor and the public will not be served by placement under Section 5-740, or it is necessary to ensure the protection of the public from the consequences of criminal activity of the delinquent; and (b) commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice is the least restrictive alternative based on evidence that efforts were made to locate less restrictive alternatives to secure confinement and the reasons why efforts were unsuccessful in locating a less restrictive alternative to secure confinement. Before the court commits a minor to the Department of Juvenile Justice, it shall make a finding that secure confinement is necessary, following a review of the following individualized factors:

(A) Age of the minor.

(B) Criminal background of the minor.

(C) Review of results of any assessments of the minor, including child centered assessments such as the CANS.

(D) Educational background of the minor, indicating whether the minor has ever been assessed for a learning disability, and if so what services were provided as well as any disciplinary incidents at school.

(E) Physical, mental and emotional health of the minor, indicating whether the minor has ever been diagnosed with a health issue and if so what services were provided and whether the minor was compliant with services.

(F) Community based services that have been provided to the minor, and whether the minor was compliant with the services, and the reason the services were unsuccessful.

(G) Services within the Department of Juvenile Justice that will meet the individualized needs of the minor.

(1.5) Before the court commits a minor to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the court must find reasonable efforts have been made to prevent or eliminate the need for the minor to be removed from the home, or reasonable efforts cannot, at this time, for good cause, prevent or eliminate the need for removal, and removal from home is in the best interests of the minor, the minor's family, and the public.

(2) When a minor of the age of at least 13 years is adjudged delinquent for the offense of first degree murder, the court shall declare the minor a ward of the court and order the minor committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice until the minor's 21st birthday, without the possibility of aftercare release parole, furlough, or non-emergency authorized absence for a period of 5 years from the date the minor was committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, except that the time that a minor spent in custody for the instant offense before being committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be considered as time credited towards that 5 year period. Nothing in this subsection (2) shall preclude the State's Attorney from seeking to prosecute a minor as an adult as an alternative to proceeding under this Act.

(3) Except as provided in subsection (2), the commitment of a delinquent to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be for an indeterminate term which shall automatically terminate upon the delinquent attaining the age of 21 years unless the delinquent is sooner discharged from aftercare release parole or custodianship is otherwise terminated in accordance with this Act or as otherwise provided for by law.

(3.5) Every delinquent minor committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under this Act shall be eligible for aftercare release without regard to the length of time the minor has been confined or whether the minor has served any minimum term imposed. Post-release aftercare supervision shall be administered by the Department of Juvenile Justice, under the direction of the Director.

(4) When the court commits a minor to the Department of Juvenile Justice, it shall order him or her conveyed forthwith to the appropriate reception station or other place designated by the Department of Juvenile Justice, and shall appoint the Director of Juvenile Justice legal custodian of the minor. The clerk of the court shall issue to the Director of Juvenile Justice a certified copy of the order, which constitutes proof of the Director's authority. No other process need issue to warrant the keeping of the minor.

(5) If a minor is committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the clerk of the court shall forward to the Department:

(a) the disposition ordered;

(b) all reports;

(c) the court's statement of the basis for ordering the disposition; and

(d) all additional matters which the court directs the clerk to transmit.

(6) Whenever the Department of Juvenile Justice lawfully discharges from its custody and control a minor committed to it, the Director of Juvenile Justice shall petition the court for an order terminating his or her custodianship. The custodianship shall terminate automatically 30 days after receipt of the petition unless the court orders otherwise.

(Source: P.A. 97-362, eff. 1-1-12.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-815)

Sec. 5-815. Habitual Juvenile Offender.

(a) Definition. Any minor having been twice adjudicated a delinquent minor for offenses which, had he been prosecuted as an adult, would have been felonies under the laws of this State, and who is thereafter adjudicated a delinquent minor for a third time shall be adjudged an Habitual Juvenile Offender where:

1. the third adjudication is for an offense occurring after adjudication on the second; and

2. the second adjudication was for an offense occurring after adjudication on the first; and

3. the third offense occurred after January 1, 1980; and

4. the third offense was based upon the commission of or attempted commission of the following offenses: first degree murder, second degree murder or involuntary manslaughter; criminal sexual assault or aggravated criminal sexual assault; aggravated or heinous battery involving permanent disability or disfigurement or great bodily harm to the victim; burglary of a home or other residence intended for use as a temporary or permanent dwelling place for human beings; home invasion; robbery or armed robbery; or aggravated arson.

Nothing in this Section shall preclude the State's Attorney from seeking to prosecute a minor as an adult as an alternative to prosecution as an habitual juvenile offender.

A continuance under supervision authorized by Section 5-615 of this Act shall not be permitted under this Section.

(b) Notice to minor. The State shall serve upon the minor written notice of intention to prosecute under the provisions of this Section within 5 judicial days of the filing of any delinquency petition, adjudication upon which would mandate the minor's disposition as an Habitual Juvenile Offender.

(c) Petition; service. A notice to seek adjudication as an Habitual Juvenile Offender shall be filed only by the State's Attorney.

The petition upon which such Habitual Juvenile Offender notice is based shall contain the information and averments required for all other delinquency petitions filed under this Act and its service shall be according to the provisions of this Act.

No prior adjudication shall be alleged in the petition.

(d) Trial. Trial on such petition shall be by jury unless the minor demands, in open court and with advice of counsel, a trial by the court without jury.

Except as otherwise provided herein, the provisions of this Act concerning delinquency proceedings generally shall be applicable to Habitual Juvenile Offender proceedings.

(e) Proof of prior adjudications. No evidence or other disclosure of prior adjudications shall be presented to the court or jury during any adjudicatory hearing provided for under this Section unless otherwise permitted by the issues properly raised in such hearing. In the event the minor who is the subject of these proceedings elects to testify on his own behalf, it shall be competent to introduce evidence, for purposes of impeachment, that he has previously been adjudicated a delinquent minor upon facts which, had he been tried as an adult, would have resulted in his conviction of a felony or of any offense that involved dishonesty or false statement. Introduction of such evidence shall be according to the rules and procedures applicable to the impeachment of an adult defendant by prior conviction.

After an admission of the facts in the petition or adjudication of delinquency, the State's Attorney may file with the court a verified written statement signed by the State's Attorney concerning any prior adjudication of an offense set forth in subsection (a) of this Section which offense would have been a felony or of any offense that involved dishonesty or false statement had the minor been tried as an adult.

The court shall then cause the minor to be brought before it; shall inform him of the allegations of the statement so filed, and of his right to a hearing before the court on the issue of such prior adjudication and of his right to counsel at such hearing; and unless the minor admits such adjudication, the court shall hear and determine such issue, and shall make a written finding thereon.

A duly authenticated copy of the record of any such alleged prior adjudication shall be prima facie evidence of such prior adjudication or of any offense that involved dishonesty or false statement.

Any claim that a previous adjudication offered by the State's Attorney is not a former adjudication of an offense which, had the minor been prosecuted as an adult, would have resulted in his conviction of a felony or of any offense that involved dishonesty or false statement, is waived unless duly raised at the hearing on such adjudication, or unless the State's Attorney's proof shows that such prior adjudication was not based upon proof of what would have been a felony.

(f) Disposition. If the court finds that the prerequisites established in subsection (a) of this Section have been proven, it shall adjudicate the minor an Habitual Juvenile Offender and commit him to the Department of Juvenile Justice until his 21st birthday, without possibility of aftercare release parole, furlough, or non-emergency authorized absence. However, the minor shall be entitled to earn one day of good conduct credit for each day served as reductions against the period of his confinement. Such good conduct credits shall be earned or revoked according to the procedures applicable to the allowance and revocation of good conduct credit for adult prisoners serving determinate sentences for felonies.

For purposes of determining good conduct credit, commitment as an Habitual Juvenile Offender shall be considered a determinate commitment, and the difference between the date of the commitment and the minor's 21st birthday shall be considered the determinate period of his confinement.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-820)

Sec. 5-820. Violent Juvenile Offender.

(a) Definition. A minor having been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor for an offense which, had he or she been prosecuted as an adult, would have been a Class 2 or greater felony involving the use or threat of physical force or violence against an individual or a Class 2 or greater felony for which an element of the offense is possession or use of a firearm, and who is thereafter adjudicated a delinquent minor for a second time for any of those offenses shall be adjudicated a Violent Juvenile Offender if:

(1) The second adjudication is for an offense occurring after adjudication on the first; and

(2) The second offense occurred on or after January 1, 1995.

(b) Notice to minor. The State shall serve upon the minor written notice of intention to prosecute under the provisions of this Section within 5 judicial days of the filing of a delinquency petition, adjudication upon which would mandate the minor's disposition as a Violent Juvenile Offender.

(c) Petition; service. A notice to seek adjudication as a Violent Juvenile Offender shall be filed only by the State's Attorney.

The petition upon which the Violent Juvenile Offender notice is based shall contain the information and averments required for all other delinquency petitions filed under this Act and its service shall be according to the provisions of this Act.

No prior adjudication shall be alleged in the petition.

(d) Trial. Trial on the petition shall be by jury unless the minor demands, in open court and with advice of counsel, a trial by the court without a jury.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the provisions of this Act concerning delinquency proceedings generally shall be applicable to Violent Juvenile Offender proceedings.

(e) Proof of prior adjudications. No evidence or other disclosure of prior adjudications shall be presented to the court or jury during an adjudicatory hearing provided for under this Section unless otherwise permitted by the issues properly raised in that hearing. In the event the minor who is the subject of these proceedings elects to testify on his or her own behalf, it shall be competent to introduce evidence, for purposes of impeachment, that he or she has previously been adjudicated a delinquent minor upon facts which, had the minor been tried as an adult, would have resulted in the minor's conviction of a felony or of any offense that involved dishonesty or false statement. Introduction of such evidence shall be according to the rules and procedures applicable to the impeachment of an adult defendant by prior conviction.

After an admission of the facts in the petition or adjudication of delinquency, the State's Attorney may file with the court a verified written statement signed by the State's Attorney concerning any prior adjudication of an offense set forth in subsection (a) of this Section that would have been a felony or of any offense that involved dishonesty or false statement had the minor been tried as an adult.

The court shall then cause the minor to be brought before it; shall inform the minor of the allegations of the statement so filed, of his or her right to a hearing before the court on the issue of the prior adjudication and of his or her right to counsel at the hearing; and unless the minor admits the adjudication, the court shall hear and determine the issue, and shall make a written finding of the issue.

A duly authenticated copy of the record of any alleged prior adjudication shall be prima facie evidence of the prior adjudication or of any offense that involved dishonesty or false statement.

Any claim that a previous adjudication offered by the State's Attorney is not a former adjudication of an offense which, had the minor been prosecuted as an adult, would have resulted in his or her conviction of a Class 2 or greater felony involving the use or threat of force or violence, or a firearm, a felony or of any offense that involved dishonesty or false statement is waived unless duly raised at the hearing on the adjudication, or unless the State's Attorney's proof shows that the prior adjudication was not based upon proof of what would have been a felony.

(f) Disposition. If the court finds that the prerequisites established in subsection (a) of this Section have been proven, it shall adjudicate the minor a Violent Juvenile Offender and commit the minor to the Department of Juvenile Justice until his or her 21st birthday, without possibility of aftercare release parole, furlough, or non-emergency authorized absence. However, the minor shall be entitled to earn one day of good conduct credit for each day served as reductions against the period of his or her confinement. The good conduct credits shall be earned or revoked according to the procedures applicable to the allowance and revocation of good conduct credit for adult prisoners serving determinate sentences for felonies.

For purposes of determining good conduct credit, commitment as a Violent Juvenile Offender shall be considered a determinate commitment, and the difference between the date of the commitment and the minor's 21st birthday shall be considered the determinate period of his or her confinement.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall preclude the State's Attorney from seeking to prosecute a minor as a habitual juvenile offender or as an adult as an alternative to prosecution as a Violent Juvenile Offender.

(h) A continuance under supervision authorized by Section 5-615 of this Act shall not be permitted under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06.)

Section 70. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 11-9.2, 31-1, 31-6, 31-7, and 31A-0.1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.2)

Sec. 11-9.2. Custodial sexual misconduct.

(a) A person commits custodial sexual misconduct when: (1) he or she is an employee of a penal system and engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a person who is in the custody of that penal system or (2) he or she is an employee of a treatment and detention facility and engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a person who is in the custody of that treatment and detention facility.

(b) A probation or supervising officer or surveillance agent or aftercare specialist commits custodial sexual misconduct when the probation or supervising officer or surveillance agent or aftercare specialist engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a probationer, parolee, or releasee or person serving a term of conditional release who is under the supervisory, disciplinary, or custodial authority of the officer or agent or worker so engaging in the sexual conduct or sexual penetration.

(c) Custodial sexual misconduct is a Class 3 felony.

(d) Any person convicted of violating this Section immediately shall forfeit his or her employment with a penal system, treatment and detention facility, or conditional release program.

(e) For purposes of this Section, the consent of the probationer, parolee, releasee, or inmate in custody of the penal system or person detained or civilly committed under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall not be a defense to a prosecution under this Section. A person is deemed incapable of consent, for purposes of this Section, when he or she is a probationer, parolee, releasee, or inmate in custody of a penal system or person detained or civilly committed under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(f) This Section does not apply to:

(1) Any employee, probation or supervising officer, or surveillance agent or aftercare specialist who is lawfully married to a person in custody if the marriage occurred before the date of custody.

(2) Any employee, probation or supervising officer, or surveillance agent or aftercare specialist who has no knowledge, and would have no reason to believe, that the person with whom he or she engaged in custodial sexual misconduct was a person in custody.

(g) In this Section:

(0.5) "Aftercare specialist" means any person employed by the Department of Juvenile Justice to supervise and facilitate services for persons placed on aftercare release.

(1) "Custody" means:

(i) pretrial incarceration or detention;

(ii) incarceration or detention under a sentence or commitment to a State or local penal institution;

(iii) parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release;

(iv) electronic home detention;

(v) probation;

(vi) detention or civil commitment either in secure care or in the community under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(2) "Penal system" means any system which includes institutions as defined in Section 2-14 of this Code or a county shelter care or detention home established under Section 1 of the County Shelter Care and Detention Home Act.

(2.1) "Treatment and detention facility" means any Department of Human Services facility established for the detention or civil commitment of persons under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(2.2) "Conditional release" means a program of treatment and services, vocational services, and alcohol or other drug abuse treatment provided to any person civilly committed and conditionally released to the community under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(3) "Employee" means:

(i) an employee of any governmental agency of this State or any county or municipal corporation that has by statute, ordinance, or court order the responsibility for the care, control, or supervision of pretrial or sentenced persons in a penal system or persons detained or civilly committed under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(ii) a contractual employee of a penal system as defined in paragraph (g)(2) of this Section who works in a penal institution as defined in Section 2-14 of this Code;

(iii) a contractual employee of a "treatment and detention facility" as defined in paragraph (g)(2.1) of this Code or a contractual employee of the Department of Human Services who provides supervision of persons serving a term of conditional release as defined in paragraph (g)(2.2) of this Code.

(4) "Sexual conduct" or "sexual penetration" means any act of sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(5) "Probation officer" means any person employed in a probation or court services department as defined in Section 9b of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

(6) "Supervising officer" means any person employed to supervise persons placed on parole or mandatory supervised release with the duties described in Section 3-14-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) "Surveillance agent" means any person employed or contracted to supervise persons placed on conditional release in the community under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-1)

Sec. 31-1. Resisting or obstructing a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee.

(a) A person who knowingly resists or obstructs the performance by one known to the person to be a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee of any authorized act within his or her official capacity commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(a-5) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of resisting or obstructing a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee to be sentenced to a minimum of 48 consecutive hours of imprisonment or ordered to perform community service for not less than 100 hours as may be determined by the court. The person shall not be eligible for probation in order to reduce the sentence of imprisonment or community service.

(a-7) A person convicted for a violation of this Section whose violation was the proximate cause of an injury to a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "correctional institution employee" means any person employed to supervise and control inmates incarcerated in a penitentiary, State farm, reformatory, prison, jail, house of correction, police detention area, half-way house, or other institution or place for the incarceration or custody of persons under sentence for offenses or awaiting trial or sentence for offenses, under arrest for an offense, a violation of probation, a violation of parole, a violation of aftercare release, or a violation of mandatory supervised release, or awaiting a bail setting hearing or preliminary hearing, or who are sexually dangerous persons or who are sexually violent persons; and "firefighter" means any individual, either as an employee or volunteer, of a regularly constituted fire department of a municipality or fire protection district who performs fire fighting duties, including, but not limited to, the fire chief, assistant fire chief, captain, engineer, driver, ladder person, hose person, pipe person, and any other member of a regularly constituted fire department. "Firefighter" also means a person employed by the Office of the State Fire Marshal to conduct arson investigations.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of this Section if a person resists or obstructs the performance of one known by the person to be a firefighter by returning to or remaining in a dwelling, residence, building, or other structure to rescue or to attempt to rescue any person.

(Source: P.A. 95-801, eff. 1-1-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-6)

Sec. 31-6. Escape; failure to report to a penal institution or to report for periodic imprisonment.

(a) A person convicted of a felony or charged with the commission of a felony, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, who intentionally escapes from any penal institution or from the custody of an employee of that institution commits a Class 2 felony; however, a person convicted of a felony, or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, who knowingly fails to report to a penal institution or to report for periodic imprisonment at any time or knowingly fails to return from furlough or from work and day release or who knowingly fails to abide by the terms of home confinement is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(b) A person convicted of a misdemeanor or charged with the commission of a misdemeanor, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who intentionally escapes from any penal institution or from the custody of an employee of that institution commits a Class A misdemeanor; however, a person convicted of a misdemeanor, or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who knowingly fails to report to a penal institution or to report for periodic imprisonment at any time or knowingly fails to return from furlough or from work and day release or who knowingly fails to abide by the terms of home confinement is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(b-1) A person committed to the Department of Human Services under the provisions of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or in detention with the Department of Human Services awaiting such a commitment who intentionally escapes from any secure residential facility or from the custody of an employee of that facility commits a Class 2 felony.

(c) A person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a felony offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, and who intentionally escapes from custody commits a Class 2 felony; however, a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a misdemeanor offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who intentionally escapes from custody commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(c-5) A person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of probation, conditional discharge, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for a felony or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, who intentionally escapes from custody is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(c-6) A person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of supervision, probation, or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who intentionally escapes from custody is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) A person who violates this Section while armed with a dangerous weapon commits a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-839, eff. 8-15-08; 95-921, eff. 1-1-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-7)

Sec. 31-7. Aiding escape.

(a) Whoever, with intent to aid any prisoner in escaping from any penal institution, conveys into the institution or transfers to the prisoner anything for use in escaping commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) Whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a felony or charged with the commission of a felony, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, in escaping from any penal institution or from the custody of any employee of that institution commits a Class 2 felony; however, whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a felony or charged with the commission of a felony, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, in failing to return from furlough or from work and day release is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(c) Whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a misdemeanor or charged with the commission of a misdemeanor, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, in escaping from any penal institution or from the custody of an employee of that institution commits a Class A misdemeanor; however, whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a misdemeanor or charged with the commission of a misdemeanor, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, in failing to return from furlough or from work and day release is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) Whoever knowingly aids a person in escaping from any public institution, other than a penal institution, in which he is lawfully detained, or from the custody of an employee of that institution, commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) Whoever knowingly aids a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a felony offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, in escaping from custody commits a Class 2 felony; however, whoever knowingly aids a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a misdemeanor offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, in escaping from custody commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(f) An officer or employee of any penal institution who recklessly permits any prisoner in his custody to escape commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(f-5) With respect to a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of probation, conditional discharge, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for a felony, whoever intentionally aids that person to escape from that custody is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(f-6) With respect to a person who is in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of supervision, probation, or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor, whoever intentionally aids that person to escape from that custody is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(g) A person who violates this Section while armed with a dangerous weapon commits a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-839, eff. 8-15-08; 95-921, eff. 1-1-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/31A-0.1)

Sec. 31A-0.1. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article:

"Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of an item of contraband, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

"Employee" means any elected or appointed officer, trustee or employee of a penal institution or of the governing authority of the penal institution, or any person who performs services for the penal institution pursuant to contract with the penal institution or its governing authority.

"Item of contraband" means any of the following:

(i) "Alcoholic liquor" as that term is defined in Section 1-3.05 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

(ii) "Cannabis" as that term is defined in subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(iii) "Controlled substance" as that term is defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(iii-a) "Methamphetamine" as that term is defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(iv) "Hypodermic syringe" or hypodermic needle, or any instrument adapted for use of controlled substances or cannabis by subcutaneous injection.

(v) "Weapon" means any knife, dagger, dirk, billy, razor, stiletto, broken bottle, or other piece of glass which could be used as a dangerous weapon. This term includes any of the devices or implements designated in subsections (a)(1), (a)(3) and (a)(6) of Section 24-1 of this Code, or any other dangerous weapon or instrument of like character.

(vi) "Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas, including but not limited to:

(A) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter; or

(B) any device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required as recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; or

(C) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or industrial ammunition; or

(D) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him or her incapable of normal functioning, commonly referred to as a stun gun or taser.

(vii) "Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm, including but not limited to:

(A) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; or

(B) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

(viii) "Explosive" means, but is not limited to, bomb, bombshell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes such as black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles.

(ix) "Tool to defeat security mechanisms" means, but is not limited to, handcuff or security restraint key, tool designed to pick locks, popper, or any device or instrument used to or capable of unlocking or preventing from locking any handcuff or security restraints, doors to cells, rooms, gates or other areas of the penal institution.

(x) "Cutting tool" means, but is not limited to, hacksaw blade, wirecutter, or device, instrument or file capable of cutting through metal.

(xi) "Electronic contraband" for the purposes of Section 31A-1.1 of this Article means, but is not limited to, any electronic, video recording device, computer, or cellular communications equipment, including, but not limited to, cellular telephones, cellular telephone batteries, videotape recorders, pagers, computers, and computer peripheral equipment brought into or possessed in a penal institution without the written authorization of the Chief Administrative Officer. "Electronic contraband" for the purposes of Section 31A-1.2 of this Article, means, but is not limited to, any electronic, video recording device, computer, or cellular communications equipment, including, but not limited to, cellular telephones, cellular telephone batteries, videotape recorders, pagers, computers, and computer peripheral equipment.

"Penal institution" means any penitentiary, State farm, reformatory, prison, jail, house of correction, police detention area, half-way house or other institution or place for the incarceration or custody of persons under sentence for offenses awaiting trial or sentence for offenses, under arrest for an offense, a violation of probation, a violation of parole, a violation of aftercare release, or a violation of mandatory supervised release, or awaiting a bail setting hearing or preliminary hearing; provided that where the place for incarceration or custody is housed within another public building this Article shall not apply to that part of the building unrelated to the incarceration or custody of persons.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 75. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Section 509 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/509) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1509)

Sec. 509.

Whenever any court in this State grants probation to any person that the court has reason to believe is or has been an addict or unlawful possessor of controlled substances, the court shall require, as a condition of probation, that the probationer submit to periodic tests by the Department of Corrections to determine by means of appropriate chemical detection tests whether the probationer is using controlled substances. The court may require as a condition of probation that the probationer enter an approved treatment program, if the court determines that the probationer is addicted to a controlled substance. Whenever the Parole and Pardon Board grants parole or aftercare release to a person whom the Board has reason to believe has been an unlawful possessor or addict of controlled substances, the Board shall require as a condition of parole that the parolee or aftercare releasee submit to appropriate periodic chemical tests by the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice to determine whether the parolee or aftercare releasee is using controlled substances.

(Source: P.A. 77-757.)

Section 80. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 102-16, 103-5, 110-5, 110-6.1, 110-6.3, 112A-2, 112A-20, 112A-22, and 112A-22.10 and by adding Section 102-3.5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/102-3.5 new)

Sec. 102-3.5. "Aftercare release".

"Aftercare release" means the conditional and revocable release of a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, under the supervision of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(725 ILCS 5/102-16) (from Ch. 38, par. 102-16)

Sec. 102-16. "Parole".

"Parole" means the conditional and revocable release of a person committed to the Department of Corrections person under the supervision of a paroling authority.

(Source: P.A. 77-2476.)

(725 ILCS 5/103-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 103-5)

Sec. 103-5. Speedy trial.)

(a) Every person in custody in this State for an alleged offense shall be tried by the court having jurisdiction within 120 days from the date he or she was taken into custody unless delay is occasioned by the defendant, by an examination for fitness ordered pursuant to Section 104-13 of this Act, by a fitness hearing, by an adjudication of unfitness to stand trial, by a continuance allowed pursuant to Section 114-4 of this Act after a court's determination of the defendant's physical incapacity for trial, or by an interlocutory appeal. Delay shall be considered to be agreed to by the defendant unless he or she objects to the delay by making a written demand for trial or an oral demand for trial on the record. The provisions of this subsection (a) do not apply to a person on bail or recognizance for an offense but who is in custody for a violation of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for another offense.

The 120-day term must be one continuous period of incarceration. In computing the 120-day term, separate periods of incarceration may not be combined. If a defendant is taken into custody a second (or subsequent) time for the same offense, the term will begin again at day zero.

(b) Every person on bail or recognizance shall be tried by the court having jurisdiction within 160 days from the date defendant demands trial unless delay is occasioned by the defendant, by an examination for fitness ordered pursuant to Section 104-13 of this Act, by a fitness hearing, by an adjudication of unfitness to stand trial, by a continuance allowed pursuant to Section 114-4 of this Act after a court's determination of the defendant's physical incapacity for trial, or by an interlocutory appeal. The defendant's failure to appear for any court date set by the court operates to waive the defendant's demand for trial made under this subsection.

For purposes of computing the 160 day period under this subsection (b), every person who was in custody for an alleged offense and demanded trial and is subsequently released on bail or recognizance and demands trial, shall be given credit for time spent in custody following the making of the demand while in custody. Any demand for trial made under this subsection (b) shall be in writing; and in the case of a defendant not in custody, the demand for trial shall include the date of any prior demand made under this provision while the defendant was in custody.

(c) If the court determines that the State has exercised without success due diligence to obtain evidence material to the case and that there are reasonable grounds to believe that such evidence may be obtained at a later day the court may continue the cause on application of the State for not more than an additional 60 days. If the court determines that the State has exercised without success due diligence to obtain results of DNA testing that is material to the case and that there are reasonable grounds to believe that such results may be obtained at a later day, the court may continue the cause on application of the State for not more than an additional 120 days.

(d) Every person not tried in accordance with subsections (a), (b) and (c) of this Section shall be discharged from custody or released from the obligations of his bail or recognizance.

(e) If a person is simultaneously in custody upon more than one charge pending against him in the same county, or simultaneously demands trial upon more than one charge pending against him in the same county, he shall be tried, or adjudged guilty after waiver of trial, upon at least one such charge before expiration relative to any of such pending charges of the period prescribed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section. Such person shall be tried upon all of the remaining charges thus pending within 160 days from the date on which judgment relative to the first charge thus prosecuted is rendered pursuant to the Unified Code of Corrections or, if such trial upon such first charge is terminated without judgment and there is no subsequent trial of, or adjudication of guilt after waiver of trial of, such first charge within a reasonable time, the person shall be tried upon all of the remaining charges thus pending within 160 days from the date on which such trial is terminated; if either such period of 160 days expires without the commencement of trial of, or adjudication of guilt after waiver of trial of, any of such remaining charges thus pending, such charge or charges shall be dismissed and barred for want of prosecution unless delay is occasioned by the defendant, by an examination for fitness ordered pursuant to Section 104-13 of this Act, by a fitness hearing, by an adjudication of unfitness for trial, by a continuance allowed pursuant to Section 114-4 of this Act after a court's determination of the defendant's physical incapacity for trial, or by an interlocutory appeal; provided, however, that if the court determines that the State has exercised without success due diligence to obtain evidence material to the case and that there are reasonable grounds to believe that such evidence may be obtained at a later day the court may continue the cause on application of the State for not more than an additional 60 days.

(f) Delay occasioned by the defendant shall temporarily suspend for the time of the delay the period within which a person shall be tried as prescribed by subsections (a), (b), or (e) of this Section and on the day of expiration of the delay the said period shall continue at the point at which it was suspended. Where such delay occurs within 21 days of the end of the period within which a person shall be tried as prescribed by subsections (a), (b), or (e) of this Section, the court may continue the cause on application of the State for not more than an additional 21 days beyond the period prescribed by subsections (a), (b), or (e). This subsection (f) shall become effective on, and apply to persons charged with alleged offenses committed on or after, March 1, 1977.

(Source: P.A. 94-1094, eff. 1-26-07.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-5)

Sec. 110-5. Determining the amount of bail and conditions of release.

(a) In determining the amount of monetary bail or conditions of release, if any, which will reasonably assure the appearance of a defendant as required or the safety of any other person or the community and the likelihood of compliance by the defendant with all the conditions of bail, the court shall, on the basis of available information, take into account such matters as the nature and circumstances of the offense charged, whether the evidence shows that as part of the offense there was a use of violence or threatened use of violence, whether the offense involved corruption of public officials or employees, whether there was physical harm or threats of physical harm to any public official, public employee, judge, prosecutor, juror or witness, senior citizen, child or handicapped person, whether evidence shows that during the offense or during the arrest the defendant possessed or used a firearm, machine gun, explosive or metal piercing ammunition or explosive bomb device or any military or paramilitary armament, whether the evidence shows that the offense committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, the condition of the victim, any written statement submitted by the victim or proffer or representation by the State regarding the impact which the alleged criminal conduct has had on the victim and the victim's concern, if any, with further contact with the defendant if released on bail, whether the offense was based on racial, religious, sexual orientation or ethnic hatred, the likelihood of the filing of a greater charge, the likelihood of conviction, the sentence applicable upon conviction, the weight of the evidence against such defendant, whether there exists motivation or ability to flee, whether there is any verification as to prior residence, education, or family ties in the local jurisdiction, in another county, state or foreign country, the defendant's employment, financial resources, character and mental condition, past conduct, prior use of alias names or dates of birth, and length of residence in the community, the consent of the defendant to periodic drug testing in accordance with Section 110-6.5, whether a foreign national defendant is lawfully admitted in the United States of America, whether the government of the foreign national maintains an extradition treaty with the United States by which the foreign government will extradite to the United States its national for a trial for a crime allegedly committed in the United States, whether the defendant is currently subject to deportation or exclusion under the immigration laws of the United States, whether the defendant, although a United States citizen, is considered under the law of any foreign state a national of that state for the purposes of extradition or non-extradition to the United States, the amount of unrecovered proceeds lost as a result of the alleged offense, the source of bail funds tendered or sought to be tendered for bail, whether from the totality of the court's consideration, the loss of funds posted or sought to be posted for bail will not deter the defendant from flight, whether the evidence shows that the defendant is engaged in significant possession, manufacture, or delivery of a controlled substance or cannabis, either individually or in consort with others, whether at the time of the offense charged he or she was on bond or pre-trial release pending trial, probation, periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge pursuant to this Code or the comparable Code of any other state or federal jurisdiction, whether the defendant is on bond or pre-trial release pending the imposition or execution of sentence or appeal of sentence for any offense under the laws of Illinois or any other state or federal jurisdiction, whether the defendant is under parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release or work release from the Illinois Department of Corrections or any penal institution or corrections department of any state or federal jurisdiction, the defendant's record of convictions, whether the defendant has been convicted of a misdemeanor or ordinance offense in Illinois or similar offense in other state or federal jurisdiction within the 10 years preceding the current charge or convicted of a felony in Illinois, whether the defendant was convicted of an offense in another state or federal jurisdiction that would be a felony if committed in Illinois within the 20 years preceding the current charge or has been convicted of such felony and released from the penitentiary within 20 years preceding the current charge if a penitentiary sentence was imposed in Illinois or other state or federal jurisdiction, the defendant's records of juvenile adjudication of delinquency in any jurisdiction, any record of appearance or failure to appear by the defendant at court proceedings, whether there was flight to avoid arrest or prosecution, whether the defendant escaped or attempted to escape to avoid arrest, whether the defendant refused to identify himself or herself, or whether there was a refusal by the defendant to be fingerprinted as required by law. Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered in connection with this Section may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or defendant. All evidence shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence applicable at criminal trials. If the State presents evidence that the offense committed by the defendant was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, and if the court determines that the evidence may be substantiated, the court shall prohibit the defendant from associating with other members of the organized gang as a condition of bail or release. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(b) The amount of bail shall be:

(1) Sufficient to assure compliance with the conditions set forth in the bail bond, which shall include the defendant's current address with a written admonishment to the defendant that he or she must comply with the provisions of Section 110-12 regarding any change in his or her address. The defendant's address shall at all times remain a matter of public record with the clerk of the court.

(2) Not oppressive.

(3) Considerate of the financial ability of the accused.

(4) When a person is charged with a drug related offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or possession or delivery of a controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the full street value of the drugs seized shall be considered. "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the basis of a proffer by the State based upon reliable information of a law enforcement official contained in a written report as to the amount seized and such proffer may be used by the court as to the current street value of the smallest unit of the drug seized.

(b-5) Upon the filing of a written request demonstrating reasonable cause, the State's Attorney may request a source of bail hearing either before or after the posting of any funds. If the hearing is granted, before the posting of any bail, the accused must file a written notice requesting that the court conduct a source of bail hearing. The notice must be accompanied by justifying affidavits stating the legitimate and lawful source of funds for bail. At the hearing, the court shall inquire into any matters stated in any justifying affidavits, and may also inquire into matters appropriate to the determination which shall include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) the background, character, reputation, and relationship to the accused of any surety; and

(2) the source of any money or property deposited by any surety, and whether any such money or property constitutes the fruits of criminal or unlawful conduct; and

(3) the source of any money posted as cash bail, and whether any such money constitutes the fruits of criminal or unlawful conduct; and

(4) the background, character, reputation, and relationship to the accused of the person posting cash bail.

Upon setting the hearing, the court shall examine, under oath, any persons who may possess material information.

The State's Attorney has a right to attend the hearing, to call witnesses and to examine any witness in the proceeding. The court shall, upon request of the State's Attorney, continue the proceedings for a reasonable period to allow the State's Attorney to investigate the matter raised in any testimony or affidavit. If the hearing is granted after the accused has posted bail, the court shall conduct a hearing consistent with this subsection (b-5). At the conclusion of the hearing, the court must issue an order either approving of disapproving the bail.

(c) When a person is charged with an offense punishable by fine only the amount of the bail shall not exceed double the amount of the maximum penalty.

(d) When a person has been convicted of an offense and only a fine has been imposed the amount of the bail shall not exceed double the amount of the fine.

(e) The State may appeal any order granting bail or setting a given amount for bail.

(f) When a person is charged with a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,

(1) whether the alleged incident involved harassment or abuse, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(2) whether the person has a history of domestic violence, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, or a history of other criminal acts;

(3) based on the mental health of the person;

(4) whether the person has a history of violating the orders of any court or governmental entity;

(5) whether the person has been, or is, potentially a threat to any other person;

(6) whether the person has access to deadly weapons or a history of using deadly weapons;

(7) whether the person has a history of abusing alcohol or any controlled substance;

(8) based on the severity of the alleged incident that is the basis of the alleged offense, including, but not limited to, the duration of the current incident, and whether the alleged incident involved physical injury, sexual assault, strangulation, abuse during the alleged victim's pregnancy, abuse of pets, or forcible entry to gain access to the alleged victim;

(9) whether a separation of the person from the alleged victim or a termination of the relationship between the person and the alleged victim has recently occurred or is pending;

(10) whether the person has exhibited obsessive or controlling behaviors toward the alleged victim, including, but not limited to, stalking, surveillance, or isolation of the alleged victim or victim's family member or members;

(11) whether the person has expressed suicidal or homicidal ideations;

(12) based on any information contained in the complaint and any police reports, affidavits, or other documents accompanying the complaint,

the court may, in its discretion, order the respondent to undergo a risk assessment evaluation conducted by an Illinois Department of Human Services approved partner abuse intervention program provider, pretrial service, probation, or parole agency. These agencies shall have access to summaries of the defendant's criminal history, which shall not include victim interviews or information, for the risk evaluation. Based on the information collected from the 12 points to be considered at a bail hearing for a violation of an order of protection, the results of any risk evaluation conducted and the other circumstances of the violation, the court may order that the person, as a condition of bail, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 96-688, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-6.1)

Sec. 110-6.1. Denial of bail in non-probationable felony offenses.

(a) Upon verified petition by the State, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether bail should be denied to a defendant who is charged with a felony offense for which a sentence of imprisonment, without probation, periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge, is required by law upon conviction, when it is alleged that the defendant's admission to bail poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person or persons.

(1) A petition may be filed without prior notice to the defendant at the first appearance before a judge, or within the 21 calendar days, except as provided in Section 110-6, after arrest and release of the defendant upon reasonable notice to defendant; provided that while such petition is pending before the court, the defendant if previously released shall not be detained.

(2) The hearing shall be held immediately upon the defendant's appearance before the court, unless for good cause shown the defendant or the State seeks a continuance. A continuance on motion of the defendant may not exceed 5 calendar days, and a continuance on the motion of the State may not exceed 3 calendar days. The defendant may be held in custody during such continuance.

(b) The court may deny bail to the defendant where, after the hearing, it is determined that:

(1) the proof is evident or the presumption great that the defendant has committed an offense for which a sentence of imprisonment, without probation, periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge, must be imposed by law as a consequence of conviction, and

(2) the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person or persons, by conduct which may include, but is not limited to, a forcible felony, the obstruction of justice, intimidation, injury, physical harm, an offense under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which is a Class X felony, or an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act which is a Class X felony, and

(3) the court finds that no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Article, can reasonably assure the physical safety of any other person or persons.

(c) Conduct of the hearings.

(1) The hearing on the defendant's culpability and dangerousness shall be conducted in accordance with the following provisions:

(A) Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered at such hearing may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or by defendant. Defendant has the right to be represented by counsel, and if he is indigent, to have counsel appointed for him. Defendant shall have the opportunity to testify, to present witnesses in his own behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses if any are called by the State. The defendant has the right to present witnesses in his favor. When the ends of justice so require, the court may exercises its discretion and compel the appearance of a complaining witness. The court shall state on the record reasons for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness. Cross-examination of a complaining witness at the pretrial detention hearing for the purpose of impeaching the witness' credibility is insufficient reason to compel the presence of the witness. In deciding whether to compel the appearance of a complaining witness, the court shall be considerate of the emotional and physical well-being of the witness. The pre-trial detention hearing is not to be used for purposes of discovery, and the post arraignment rules of discovery do not apply. The State shall tender to the defendant, prior to the hearing, copies of defendant's criminal history, if any, if available, and any written or recorded statements and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if relied upon by the State in its petition. The rules concerning the admissibility of evidence in criminal trials do not apply to the presentation and consideration of information at the hearing. At the trial concerning the offense for which the hearing was conducted neither the finding of the court nor any transcript or other record of the hearing shall be admissible in the State's case in chief, but shall be admissible for impeachment, or as provided in Section 115-10.1 of this Code, or in a perjury proceeding.

(B) A motion by the defendant to suppress evidence or to suppress a confession shall not be entertained. Evidence that proof may have been obtained as the result of an unlawful search and seizure or through improper interrogation is not relevant to this state of the prosecution.

(2) The facts relied upon by the court to support a finding that the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person or persons shall be supported by clear and convincing evidence presented by the State.

(d) Factors to be considered in making a determination of dangerousness. The court may, in determining whether the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person or persons, consider but shall not be limited to evidence or testimony concerning:

(1) The nature and circumstances of any offense charged, including whether the offense is a crime of violence, involving a weapon.

(2) The history and characteristics of the defendant including:

(A) Any evidence of the defendant's prior criminal history indicative of violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of such behavior. Such evidence may include testimony or documents received in juvenile proceedings, criminal, quasi-criminal, civil commitment, domestic relations or other proceedings.

(B) Any evidence of the defendant's psychological, psychiatric or other similar social history which tends to indicate a violent, abusive, or assaultive nature, or lack of any such history.

(3) The identity of any person or persons to whose safety the defendant is believed to pose a threat, and the nature of the threat;

(4) Any statements made by, or attributed to the defendant, together with the circumstances surrounding them;

(5) The age and physical condition of any person assaulted by the defendant;

(6) Whether the defendant is known to possess or have access to any weapon or weapons;

(7) Whether, at the time of the current offense or any other offense or arrest, the defendant was on probation, parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release or other release from custody pending trial, sentencing, appeal or completion of sentence for an offense under federal or state law;

(8) Any other factors, including those listed in Section 110-5 of this Article deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of such behavior.

(e) Detention order. The court shall, in any order for detention:

(1) briefly summarize the evidence of the defendant's culpability and its reasons for concluding that the defendant should be held without bail;

(2) direct that the defendant be committed to the custody of the sheriff for confinement in the county jail pending trial;

(3) direct that the defendant be given a reasonable opportunity for private consultation with counsel, and for communication with others of his choice by visitation, mail and telephone; and

(4) direct that the sheriff deliver the defendant as required for appearances in connection with court proceedings.

(f) If the court enters an order for the detention of the defendant pursuant to subsection (e) of this Section, the defendant shall be brought to trial on the offense for which he is detained within 90 days after the date on which the order for detention was entered. If the defendant is not brought to trial within the 90 day period required by the preceding sentence, he shall not be held longer without bail. In computing the 90 day period, the court shall omit any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the defendant.

(g) Rights of the defendant. Any person shall be entitled to appeal any order entered under this Section denying bail to the defendant.

(h) The State may appeal any order entered under this Section denying any motion for denial of bail.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as modifying or limiting in any way the defendant's presumption of innocence in further criminal proceedings.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-6.3)

Sec. 110-6.3. Denial of bail in stalking and aggravated stalking offenses.

(a) Upon verified petition by the State, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether bail should be denied to a defendant who is charged with stalking or aggravated stalking, when it is alleged that the defendant's admission to bail poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense, and denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based.

(1) A petition may be filed without prior notice to the defendant at the first appearance before a judge, or within 21 calendar days, except as provided in Section 110-6, after arrest and release of the defendant upon reasonable notice to defendant; provided that while the petition is pending before the court, the defendant if previously released shall not be detained.

(2) The hearing shall be held immediately upon the defendant's appearance before the court, unless for good cause shown the defendant or the State seeks a continuance. A continuance on motion of the defendant may not exceed 5 calendar days, and the defendant may be held in custody during the continuance. A continuance on the motion of the State may not exceed 3 calendar days; however, the defendant may be held in custody during the continuance under this provision if the defendant has been previously found to have violated an order of protection or has been previously convicted of, or granted court supervision for, any of the offenses set forth in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, against the same person as the alleged victim of the stalking or aggravated stalking offense.

(b) The court may deny bail to the defendant when, after the hearing, it is determined that:

(1) the proof is evident or the presumption great that the defendant has committed the offense of stalking or aggravated stalking; and

(2) the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense; and

(3) the denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based; and

(4) the court finds that no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Code, including mental health treatment at a community mental health center, hospital, or facility of the Department of Human Services, can reasonably assure the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense.

(c) Conduct of the hearings.

(1) The hearing on the defendant's culpability and threat to the alleged victim of the offense shall be conducted in accordance with the following provisions:

(A) Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered at the hearing may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or by defendant. Defendant has the right to be represented by counsel, and if he is indigent, to have counsel appointed for him. Defendant shall have the opportunity to testify, to present witnesses in his own behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses if any are called by the State. The defendant has the right to present witnesses in his favor. When the ends of justice so require, the court may exercise its discretion and compel the appearance of a complaining witness. The court shall state on the record reasons for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness. Cross-examination of a complaining witness at the pretrial detention hearing for the purpose of impeaching the witness' credibility is insufficient reason to compel the presence of the witness. In deciding whether to compel the appearance of a complaining witness, the court shall be considerate of the emotional and physical well-being of the witness. The pretrial detention hearing is not to be used for the purposes of discovery, and the post arraignment rules of discovery do not apply. The State shall tender to the defendant, prior to the hearing, copies of defendant's criminal history, if any, if available, and any written or recorded statements and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if relied upon by the State. The rules concerning the admissibility of evidence in criminal trials do not apply to the presentation and consideration of information at the hearing. At the trial concerning the offense for which the hearing was conducted neither the finding of the court nor any transcript or other record of the hearing shall be admissible in the State's case in chief, but shall be admissible for impeachment, or as provided in Section 115-10.1 of this Code, or in a perjury proceeding.

(B) A motion by the defendant to suppress evidence or to suppress a confession shall not be entertained. Evidence that proof may have been obtained as the result of an unlawful search and seizure or through improper interrogation is not relevant to this state of the prosecution.

(2) The facts relied upon by the court to support a finding that:

(A) the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense; and

(B) the denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based;

shall be supported by clear and convincing evidence presented by the State.

(d) Factors to be considered in making a determination of the threat to the alleged victim of the offense. The court may, in determining whether the defendant poses, at the time of the hearing, a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense, consider but shall not be limited to evidence or testimony concerning:

(1) The nature and circumstances of the offense charged;

(2) The history and characteristics of the defendant including:

(A) Any evidence of the defendant's prior criminal history indicative of violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior. The evidence may include testimony or documents received in juvenile proceedings, criminal, quasi-criminal, civil commitment, domestic relations or other proceedings;

(B) Any evidence of the defendant's psychological, psychiatric or other similar social history that tends to indicate a violent, abusive, or assaultive nature, or lack of any such history.

(3) The nature of the threat which is the basis of the charge against the defendant;

(4) Any statements made by, or attributed to the defendant, together with the circumstances surrounding them;

(5) The age and physical condition of any person assaulted by the defendant;

(6) Whether the defendant is known to possess or have access to any weapon or weapons;

(7) Whether, at the time of the current offense or any other offense or arrest, the defendant was on probation, parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release or other release from custody pending trial, sentencing, appeal or completion of sentence for an offense under federal or state law;

(8) Any other factors, including those listed in Section 110-5 of this Code, deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior.

(e) The court shall, in any order denying bail to a person charged with stalking or aggravated stalking:

(1) briefly summarize the evidence of the defendant's culpability and its reasons for concluding that the defendant should be held without bail;

(2) direct that the defendant be committed to the custody of the sheriff for confinement in the county jail pending trial;

(3) direct that the defendant be given a reasonable opportunity for private consultation with counsel, and for communication with others of his choice by visitation, mail and telephone; and

(4) direct that the sheriff deliver the defendant as required for appearances in connection with court proceedings.

(f) If the court enters an order for the detention of the defendant under subsection (e) of this Section, the defendant shall be brought to trial on the offense for which he is detained within 90 days after the date on which the order for detention was entered. If the defendant is not brought to trial within the 90 day period required by this subsection (f), he shall not be held longer without bail. In computing the 90 day period, the court shall omit any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the defendant. The court shall immediately notify the alleged victim of the offense that the defendant has been admitted to bail under this subsection.

(g) Any person shall be entitled to appeal any order entered under this Section denying bail to the defendant.

(h) The State may appeal any order entered under this Section denying any motion for denial of bail.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as modifying or limiting in any way the defendant's presumption of innocence in further criminal proceedings.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-2)

Sec. 112A-2. Commencement of Actions.

(a) Actions for orders of protection are commenced in conjunction with a delinquency petition or a criminal prosecution by filing a petition for an order of protection, under the same case number as the delinquency petition or the criminal prosecution, to be granted during pre-trial release of a defendant, with any dispositional order issued under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or as a condition of release, supervision, conditional discharge, probation, periodic imprisonment, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, or in conjunction with imprisonment or a bond forfeiture warrant, provided that:

(i) the violation is alleged in an information, complaint, indictment or delinquency petition on file, and the alleged offender and victim are family or household members; and

(ii) the petition, which is filed by the State's Attorney, names a victim of the alleged crime as a petitioner.

(b) Withdrawal or dismissal of any petition for an order of protection prior to adjudication where the petitioner is represented by the state shall operate as a dismissal without prejudice.

(c) Voluntary dismissal or withdrawal of any delinquency petition or criminal prosecution or a finding of not guilty shall not require dismissal of the action for the order of protection; instead, in the discretion of the State's Attorney, it may be treated as an independent action and, if necessary and appropriate, transferred to a different court or division. Dismissal of any delinquency petition or criminal prosecution shall not affect the validity of any previously issued order of protection, and thereafter subsection (b) of Section 112A-20 shall be inapplicable to that order.

(Source: P.A. 90-590, eff. 1-1-99.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-20) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-20)

Sec. 112A-20. Duration and extension of orders.

(a) Duration of emergency and interim orders. Unless re-opened or extended or voided by entry of an order of greater duration:

(1) Emergency orders issued under Section 112A-17 shall be effective for not less than 14 nor more than 21 days;

(2) Interim orders shall be effective for up to 30 days.

(b) Duration of plenary orders. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a plenary order of protection shall be valid for a fixed period of time not to exceed 2 years. A plenary order of protection entered in conjunction with a criminal prosecution shall remain in effect as follows:

(1) if entered during pre-trial release, until disposition, withdrawal, or dismissal of the underlying charge; if, however, the case is continued as an independent cause of action, the order's duration may be for a fixed period of time not to exceed 2 years;

(2) if in effect in conjunction with a bond forfeiture warrant, until final disposition or an additional period of time not exceeding 2 years; no order of protection, however, shall be terminated by a dismissal that is accompanied by the issuance of a bond forfeiture warrant;

(3) until expiration of any supervision, conditional discharge, probation, periodic imprisonment, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release and for an additional period of time thereafter not exceeding 2 years; or

(4) until the date set by the court for expiration of any sentence of imprisonment and subsequent parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release and for an additional period of time thereafter not exceeding 2 years.

(c) Computation of time. The duration of an order of protection shall not be reduced by the duration of any prior order of protection.

(d) Law enforcement records. When a plenary order of protection expires upon the occurrence of a specified event, rather than upon a specified date as provided in subsection (b), no expiration date shall be entered in Department of State Police records. To remove the plenary order from those records, either party shall request the clerk of the court to file a certified copy of an order stating that the specified event has occurred or that the plenary order has been vacated or modified with the sheriff, and the sheriff shall direct that law enforcement records shall be promptly corrected in accordance with the filed order.

(e) Extension of Orders. Any emergency, interim or plenary order of protection may be extended one or more times, as required, provided that the requirements of Section 112A-17, 112A-18 or 112A-19, as appropriate, are satisfied. If the motion for extension is uncontested and petitioner seeks no modification of the order, the order may be extended on the basis of petitioner's motion or affidavit stating that there has been no material change in relevant circumstances since entry of the order and stating the reason for the requested extension. An extension of a plenary order of protection may be granted, upon good cause shown, to remain in effect until the order of protection is vacated or modified. Extensions may be granted only in open court and not under the provisions of Section 112A-17(c), which applies only when the court is unavailable at the close of business or on a court holiday.

(f) Termination date. Any order of protection which would expire on a court holiday shall instead expire at the close of the next court business day.

(g) Statement of purpose. The practice of dismissing or suspending a criminal prosecution in exchange for issuing an order of protection undermines the purposes of this Article. This Section shall not be construed as encouraging that practice.

(Source: P.A. 95-886, eff. 1-1-09.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-22) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-22)

Sec. 112A-22. Notice of orders.

(a) Entry and issuance. Upon issuance of any order of protection, the clerk shall immediately, or on the next court day if an emergency order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 112A-17, (i) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures and (ii) provide a file stamped copy of the order to respondent, if present, and to petitioner.

(b) Filing with sheriff. The clerk of the issuing judge shall, or the petitioner may, on the same day that an order of protection is issued, file a copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records or charged with serving the order upon respondent. If the order was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 112A-17, the clerk shall on the next court day, file a certified copy of the order with the Sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records. If the respondent, at the time of the issuance of the order, is committed to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice or is on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records shall notify the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice within 48 hours of receipt of a copy of the order of protection from the clerk of the issuing judge or the petitioner. Such notice shall include the name of the respondent, the respondent's IDOC or IDJJ inmate number, the respondent's date of birth, and the LEADS Record Index Number.

(c) Service by sheriff. Unless respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon respondent and file proof of such service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent, however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or other persons defined in Section 112A-22.10 may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in Section 112A-22.10. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, it shall be served with the order or short form notification if such service is made by the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server.

(c-5) If the person against whom the order of protection is issued is arrested and the written order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 112A-17 and received by the custodial law enforcement agency before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody, the custodial law enforcement agent shall promptly serve the order upon the respondent or arrestee before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody. In no event shall detention of the respondent or arrestee be extended for hearing on the petition for order of protection or receipt of the order issued under Section 112A-17 of this Code.

(d) Extensions, modifications and revocations. Any order extending, modifying or revoking any order of protection shall be promptly recorded, issued and served as provided in this Section.

(e) Notice to health care facilities and health care practitioners. Upon the request of the petitioner, the clerk of the circuit court shall send a certified copy of the order of protection to any specified health care facility or health care practitioner requested by the petitioner at the mailing address provided by the petitioner.

(f) Disclosure by health care facilities and health care practitioners. After receiving a certified copy of an order of protection that prohibits a respondent's access to records, no health care facility or health care practitioner shall allow a respondent access to the records of any child who is a protected person under the order of protection, or release information in those records to the respondent, unless the order has expired or the respondent shows a certified copy of the court order vacating the corresponding order of protection that was sent to the health care facility or practitioner. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require health care facilities or health care practitioners to alter procedures related to billing and payment. The health care facility or health care practitioner may file the copy of the order of protection in the records of a child who is a protected person under the order of protection, or may employ any other method to identify the records to which a respondent is prohibited access. No health care facility or health care practitioner shall be civilly or professionally liable for reliance on a copy of an order of protection, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(g) Notice to schools. Upon the request of the petitioner, within 24 hours of the issuance of an order of protection, the clerk of the issuing judge shall send a certified copy of the order of protection to the day-care facility, pre-school or pre-kindergarten, or private school or the principal office of the public school district or any college or university in which any child who is a protected person under the order of protection or any child of the petitioner is enrolled as requested by the petitioner at the mailing address provided by the petitioner. If the child transfers enrollment to another day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, private school, public school, college, or university, the petitioner may, within 24 hours of the transfer, send to the clerk written notice of the transfer, including the name and address of the institution to which the child is transferring. Within 24 hours of receipt of notice from the petitioner that a child is transferring to another day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, private school, public school, college, or university, the clerk shall send a certified copy of the order to the institution to which the child is transferring.

(h) Disclosure by schools. After receiving a certified copy of an order of protection that prohibits a respondent's access to records, neither a day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, public or private school, college, or university nor its employees shall allow a respondent access to a protected child's records or release information in those records to the respondent. The school shall file the copy of the order of protection in the records of a child who is a protected person under the order of protection. When a child who is a protected person under the order of protection transfers to another day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, public or private school, college, or university, the institution from which the child is transferring may, at the request of the petitioner, provide, within 24 hours of the transfer, written notice of the order of protection, along with a certified copy of the order, to the institution to which the child is transferring.

(Source: P.A. 96-651, eff. 1-1-10; 97-50, eff. 6-28-11; 97-904, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-22.10)

Sec. 112A-22.10. Short form notification.

(a) Instead of personal service of an order of protection under Section 112A-22, a sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or personnel assigned by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release may serve a respondent with a short form notification. The short form notification must include the following items:

(1) The respondent's name.

(2) The respondent's date of birth, if known.

(3) The petitioner's name.

(4) The names of other protected parties.

(5) The date and county in which the order of protection was filed.

(6) The court file number.

(7) The hearing date and time, if known.

(8) The conditions that apply to the respondent, either in checklist form or handwritten.

(9) The name of the judge who signed the order.

(b) The short form notification must contain the following notice in bold print:

"The order of protection is now enforceable. You must report to the office of the sheriff or the office of the circuit court in (name of county) County to obtain a copy of the order of protection. You are subject to arrest and may be charged with a misdemeanor or felony if you violate any of the terms of the order of protection."

(c) Upon verification of the identity of the respondent and the existence of an unserved order of protection against the respondent, a sheriff or other law enforcement official may detain the respondent for a reasonable time necessary to complete and serve the short form notification.

(d) When service is made by short form notification under this Section, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the service.

(e) The Attorney General shall provide adequate copies of the short form notification form to law enforcement agencies in this State.

(Source: P.A. 97-50, eff. 6-28-11.)

Section 85. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4.5, and 5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1403)

Sec. 3. The terms used in this Act, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, shall have the following meanings:

(a) "Crime victim" and "victim" mean (1) a person physically injured in this State as a result of a violent crime perpetrated or attempted against that person or (2) a person who suffers injury to or loss of property as a result of a violent crime perpetrated or attempted against that person or (3) a single representative who may be the spouse, parent, child or sibling of a person killed as a result of a violent crime perpetrated against the person killed or the spouse, parent, child or sibling of any person granted rights under this Act who is physically or mentally incapable of exercising such rights, except where the spouse, parent, child or sibling is also the defendant or prisoner or (4) any person against whom a violent crime has been committed or (5) any person who has suffered personal injury as a result of a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or of a similar provision of a local ordinance, or of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or (6) in proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, both parents, legal guardians, foster parents, or a single adult representative of a minor or disabled person who is a crime victim.

(b) "Witness" means any person who personally observed the commission of a violent crime and who will testify on behalf of the State of Illinois in the criminal prosecution of the violent crime.

(c) "Violent Crime" means any felony in which force or threat of force was used against the victim, or any offense involving sexual exploitation, sexual conduct or sexual penetration, or a violation of Section 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, domestic battery, violation of an order of protection, stalking, or any misdemeanor which results in death or great bodily harm to the victim or any violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, if the violation resulted in personal injury or death, and includes any action committed by a juvenile that would be a violent crime if committed by an adult. For the purposes of this paragraph, "personal injury" shall include any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or medical facility. A type A injury shall include severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(d) "Sentencing Hearing" means any hearing where a sentence is imposed by the court on a convicted defendant and includes hearings conducted pursuant to Sections 5-6-4, 5-6-4.1, 5-7-2 and 5-7-7 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(e) "Court proceedings" includes the preliminary hearing, any hearing the effect of which may be the release of the defendant from custody or to alter the conditions of bond, the trial, sentencing hearing, notice of appeal, any modification of sentence, probation revocation hearings, aftercare release, or parole hearings.

(f) "Concerned citizen" includes relatives of the victim, friends of the victim, witnesses to the crime, or any other person associated with the victim or prisoner.

(Source: P.A. 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-875, eff. 1-22-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-572, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(725 ILCS 120/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Procedures to implement the rights of crime victims. To afford crime victims their rights, law enforcement, prosecutors, judges and corrections will provide information, as appropriate of the following procedures:

(a) At the request of the crime victim, law enforcement authorities investigating the case shall provide notice of the status of the investigation, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation, until such time as the alleged assailant is apprehended or the investigation is closed.

(a-5) When law enforcement authorities re-open a closed case to resume investigating, they shall provide notice of the re-opening of the case, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation.

(b) The office of the State's Attorney:

(1) shall provide notice of the filing of information, the return of an indictment by which a prosecution for any violent crime is commenced, or the filing of a petition to adjudicate a minor as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(2) shall provide notice of the date, time, and place of trial;

(3) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information of social services and financial assistance available for victims of crime, including information of how to apply for these services and assistance;

(3.5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information about available victim services, including referrals to programs, counselors, and agencies that assist a victim to deal with trauma, loss, and grief;

(4) shall assist in having any stolen or other personal property held by law enforcement authorities for evidentiary or other purposes returned as expeditiously as possible, pursuant to the procedures set out in Section 115-9 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide appropriate employer intercession services to ensure that employers of victims will cooperate with the criminal justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;

(6) shall provide information whenever possible, of a secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not require victims to be in close proximity to defendant or juveniles accused of a violent crime, and their families and friends;

(7) shall provide notice to the crime victim of the right to have a translator present at all court proceedings and, in compliance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the right to communications access through a sign language interpreter or by other means;

(8) in the case of the death of a person, which death occurred in the same transaction or occurrence in which acts occurred for which a defendant is charged with an offense, shall notify the spouse, parent, child or sibling of the decedent of the date of the trial of the person or persons allegedly responsible for the death;

(9) shall inform the victim of the right to have present at all court proceedings, subject to the rules of evidence, an advocate or other support person of the victim's choice, and the right to retain an attorney, at the victim's own expense, who, upon written notice filed with the clerk of the court and State's Attorney, is to receive copies of all notices, motions and court orders filed thereafter in the case, in the same manner as if the victim were a named party in the case;

(10) at the sentencing hearing shall make a good faith attempt to explain the minimum amount of time during which the defendant may actually be physically imprisoned. The Office of the State's Attorney shall further notify the crime victim of the right to request from the Prisoner Review Board information concerning the release of the defendant under subparagraph (d)(1) of this Section;

(11) shall request restitution at sentencing and shall consider restitution in any plea negotiation, as provided by law; and

(12) shall, upon the court entering a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, inform the victim of the notification services available from the Department of Human Services, including the statewide telephone number, under subparagraph (d)(2) of this Section.

(c) At the written request of the crime victim, the office of the State's Attorney shall:

(1) provide notice a reasonable time in advance of the following court proceedings: preliminary hearing, any hearing the effect of which may be the release of defendant from custody, or to alter the conditions of bond and the sentencing hearing. The crime victim shall also be notified of the cancellation of the court proceeding in sufficient time, wherever possible, to prevent an unnecessary appearance in court;

(2) provide notice within a reasonable time after receipt of notice from the custodian, of the release of the defendant on bail or personal recognizance or the release from detention of a minor who has been detained for a violent crime;

(3) explain in nontechnical language the details of any plea or verdict of a defendant, or any adjudication of a juvenile as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(4) where practical, consult with the crime victim before the Office of the State's Attorney makes an offer of a plea bargain to the defendant or enters into negotiations with the defendant concerning a possible plea agreement, and shall consider the written victim impact statement, if prepared prior to entering into a plea agreement;

(5) provide notice of the ultimate disposition of the cases arising from an indictment or an information, or a petition to have a juvenile adjudicated as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(6) provide notice of any appeal taken by the defendant and information on how to contact the appropriate agency handling the appeal;

(7) provide notice of any request for post-conviction review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time and place of any hearing concerning the petition. Whenever possible, notice of the hearing shall be given in advance;

(8) forward a copy of any statement presented under Section 6 to the Prisoner Review Board to be considered by the Board in making its determination under subsection (b) of Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(d) (1) The Prisoner Review Board shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen, upon written request, of the prisoner's release on parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a violent crime from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall provide to a victim or any other concerned citizen a recent photograph of any person convicted of a felony, upon his or her release from custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen when feasible at least 7 days prior to the prisoner's release on furlough of the times and dates of such furlough. Upon written request by the victim or any other concerned citizen, the State's Attorney shall notify the person once of the times and dates of release of a prisoner sentenced to periodic imprisonment. Notification shall be based on the most recent information as to victim's or other concerned citizen's residence or other location available to the notifying authority.

(2) When the defendant has been committed to the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 5-2-4 or any other provision of the Unified Code of Corrections, the victim may request to be notified by the releasing authority of the approval by the court of an on-grounds pass, a supervised off-grounds pass, an unsupervised off-grounds pass, or conditional release; the release on an off-grounds pass; the return from an off-grounds pass; transfer to another facility; conditional release; escape; death; or final discharge from State custody. The Department of Human Services shall establish and maintain a statewide telephone number to be used by victims to make notification requests under these provisions and shall publicize this telephone number on its website and to the State's Attorney of each county.

(3) In the event of an escape from State custody, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of the escape and the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim. The notification shall be based upon the most recent information as to the victim's residence or other location available to the Board. When no such information is available, the Board shall make all reasonable efforts to obtain the information and make the notification. When the escapee is apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board and the Board shall notify the victim.

(4) The victim of the crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced shall receive reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the parole or aftercare release hearing interview and may submit, in writing, on film, videotape or other electronic means or in the form of a recording or in person at the parole or aftercare release hearing interview or if a victim of a violent crime, by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section, information for consideration by the Prisoner Review Board. The victim shall be notified within 7 days after the prisoner has been granted parole or aftercare release and shall be informed of the right to inspect the registry of parole or aftercare release decisions, established under subsection (g) of Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The provisions of this paragraph (4) are subject to the Open Parole Hearings Act.

(5) If a statement is presented under Section 6, the Prisoner Review Board shall inform the victim of any order of discharge entered by the Board pursuant to Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(6) At the written request of the victim of the crime for which the prisoner was sentenced or the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted, the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim and the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted of the death of the prisoner if the prisoner died while on parole or aftercare release or mandatory supervised release.

(7) When a defendant who has been committed to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Human Services is released or discharged and subsequently committed to the Department of Human Services as a sexually violent person and the victim had requested to be notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's discharge, conditional release, death, or escape from State custody, the releasing authority shall provide to the Department of Human Services such information that would allow the Department of Human Services to contact the victim.

(8) When a defendant has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act and has been sentenced to the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim of the sex offense of the prisoner's eligibility for release on parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a sex offense from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The notification shall be made to the victim at least 30 days, whenever possible, before release of the sex offender.

(e) The officials named in this Section may satisfy some or all of their obligations to provide notices and other information through participation in a statewide victim and witness notification system established by the Attorney General under Section 8.5 of this Act.

(f) To permit a victim of a violent crime to provide information to the Prisoner Review Board for consideration by the Board at a parole or aftercare release hearing of a person who committed the crime against the victim in accordance with clause (d)(4) of this Section or at a proceeding to determine the conditions of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence or at a hearing on revocation of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence, the Board shall establish a toll-free number that may be accessed by the victim of a violent crime to present that information to the Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-875, eff. 1-22-10; 97-457, eff. 1-1-12; 97-572, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-815, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 120/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1405)

Sec. 5. Rights of Witnesses.

(a) Witnesses as defined in subsection (b) of Section 3 of this Act shall have the following rights:

(1) to be notified by the Office of the State's Attorney of all court proceedings at which the witness' presence is required in a reasonable amount of time prior to the proceeding, and to be notified of the cancellation of any scheduled court proceeding in sufficient time to prevent an unnecessary appearance in court, where possible;

(2) to be provided with appropriate employer intercession services by the Office of the State's Attorney or the victim advocate personnel to ensure that employers of witnesses will cooperate with the criminal justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;

(3) to be provided, whenever possible, a secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not require witnesses to be in close proximity to defendants and their families and friends;

(4) to be provided with notice by the Office of the State's Attorney, where necessary, of the right to have a translator present whenever the witness' presence is required and, in compliance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, to be provided with notice of the right to communications access through a sign language interpreter or by other means.

(b) At the written request of the witness, the witness shall:

(1) receive notice from the office of the State's Attorney of any request for post-conviction review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time, and place of any hearing concerning the petition for post-conviction review; whenever possible, notice of the hearing on the petition shall be given in advance;

(2) receive notice by the releasing authority of the defendant's discharge from State custody if the defendant was committed to the Department of Human Services under Section 5-2-4 or any other provision of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(3) receive notice from the Prisoner Review Board of the prisoner's escape from State custody, after the Board has been notified of the escape by the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice; when the escapee is apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice shall immediately notify the Prisoner Review Board and the Board shall notify the witness;

(4) receive notice from the Prisoner Review Board of the prisoner's release on parole, aftercare release, electronic detention, work release or mandatory supervised release and of the prisoner's final discharge from parole, aftercare release, electronic detention, work release, or mandatory supervised release.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; 95-897, eff. 1-1-09.)

Section 90. The Privacy of Child Victims of Criminal Sexual Offenses Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(725 ILCS 190/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1453)

Sec. 3. Confidentiality of Law Enforcement and Court Records. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, inspection and copying of law enforcement records maintained by any law enforcement agency or circuit court records maintained by any circuit clerk relating to any investigation or proceeding pertaining to a criminal sexual offense, by any person, except a judge, state's attorney, assistant state's attorney, psychologist, psychiatrist, social worker, doctor, parent, parole agent, aftercare specialist, probation officer, defendant or defendant's attorney in any criminal proceeding or investigation related thereto, shall be restricted to exclude the identity of any child who is a victim of such criminal sexual offense or alleged criminal sexual offense. A court may for the child's protection and for good cause shown, prohibit any person or agency present in court from further disclosing the child's identity.

When a criminal sexual offense is committed or alleged to have been committed by a school district employee or any individual contractually employed by a school district, a copy of the criminal history record information relating to the investigation of the offense or alleged offense shall be transmitted to the superintendent of schools of the district immediately upon request or if the law enforcement agency knows that a school district employee or any individual contractually employed by a school district has committed or is alleged to have committed a criminal sexual offense, the superintendent of schools of the district shall be immediately provided a copy of the criminal history record information. The superintendent shall be restricted from specifically revealing the name of the victim without written consent of the victim or victim's parent or guardian.

A court may prohibit such disclosure only after giving notice and a hearing to all affected parties. In determining whether to prohibit disclosure of the minor's identity the court shall consider:

(a) the best interest of the child; and

(b) whether such nondisclosure would further a compelling State interest.

For the purposes of this Act, "criminal history record information" means:

(i) chronologically maintained arrest information, such as traditional arrest logs or blotters;

(ii) the name of a person in the custody of a law enforcement agency and the charges for which that person is being held;

(iii) court records that are public;

(iv) records that are otherwise available under State or local law; or

(v) records in which the requesting party is the individual identified, except as provided under part (vii) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-69, eff. 1-1-08; 95-599, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

Section 95. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 30, and 40 as follows:

(725 ILCS 207/15)

Sec. 15. Sexually violent person petition; contents; filing.

(a) A petition alleging that a person is a sexually violent person must be filed before the release or discharge of the person or within 30 days of placement onto parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for an offense enumerated in paragraph (e) of Section 5 of this Act. A petition may be filed by the following:

(1) The Attorney General on his or her own motion, after consulting with and advising the State's Attorney of the county in which the person was convicted of a sexually violent offense, adjudicated delinquent for a sexually violent offense or found not guilty of or not responsible for a sexually violent offense by reason of insanity, mental disease, or mental defect; or

(2) The State's Attorney of the county referenced in paragraph (1)(a)(1) of this Section, on his or her own motion; or

(3) The Attorney General and the State's Attorney of the county referenced in paragraph (1)(a)(1) of this Section may jointly file a petition on their own motion; or

(4) A petition may be filed at the request of the agency with jurisdiction over the person, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 10 of this Act, by:

(a) the Attorney General;

(b) the State's Attorney of the county referenced in paragraph (1)(a)(1) of this Section; or

(c) the Attorney General and the State's Attorney jointly.

(b) A petition filed under this Section shall allege that all of the following apply to the person alleged to be a sexually violent person:

(1) The person satisfies any of the following criteria:

(A) The person has been convicted of a sexually violent offense;

(B) The person has been found delinquent for a sexually violent offense; or

(C) The person has been found not guilty of a sexually violent offense by reason of insanity, mental disease, or mental defect.

(2) (Blank).

(3) (Blank).

(4) The person has a mental disorder.

(5) The person is dangerous to others because the person's mental disorder creates a substantial probability that he or she will engage in acts of sexual violence.

(b-5) The petition must be filed no more than 90 days before discharge or entry into mandatory supervised release from a Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice correctional facility for a sentence that was imposed upon a conviction for a sexually violent offense. For inmates sentenced under the law in effect prior to February 1, 1978, the petition shall be filed no more than 90 days after the Prisoner Review Board's order granting parole pursuant to Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b-6) The petition must be filed no more than 90 days before discharge or release:

(1) from a Department of Juvenile Justice juvenile correctional facility if the person was placed in the facility for being adjudicated delinquent under Section 5-20 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or found guilty under Section 5-620 of that Act on the basis of a sexually violent offense; or

(2) from a commitment order that was entered as a result of a sexually violent offense.

(b-7) A person convicted of a sexually violent offense remains eligible for commitment as a sexually violent person pursuant to this Act under the following circumstances: (1) the person is in custody for a sentence that is being served concurrently or consecutively with a sexually violent offense; (2) the person returns to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice for any reason during the term of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release being served for a sexually violent offense; or (3) the person is convicted or adjudicated delinquent for any offense committed during the term of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release being served for a sexually violent offense, regardless of whether that conviction or adjudication was for a sexually violent offense.

(c) A petition filed under this Section shall state with particularity essential facts to establish probable cause to believe the person is a sexually violent person. If the petition alleges that a sexually violent offense or act that is a basis for the allegation under paragraph (b)(1) of this Section was an act that was sexually motivated as provided under paragraph (e)(2) of Section 5 of this Act, the petition shall state the grounds on which the offense or act is alleged to be sexually motivated.

(d) A petition under this Section shall be filed in either of the following:

(1) The circuit court for the county in which the person was convicted of a sexually violent offense, adjudicated delinquent for a sexually violent offense or found not guilty of a sexually violent offense by reason of insanity, mental disease or mental defect.

(2) The circuit court for the county in which the person is in custody under a sentence, a placement to a Department of Corrections correctional facility or a Department of Juvenile Justice juvenile correctional facility, or a commitment order.

(e) The filing of a petition under this Act shall toll the running of the term of parole or mandatory supervised release until:

(1) dismissal of the petition filed under this Act;

(2) a finding by a judge or jury that the respondent is not a sexually violent person; or

(3) the sexually violent person is discharged under Section 65 of this Act.

(f) The State has the right to have the person evaluated by experts chosen by the State. The agency with jurisdiction as defined in Section 10 of this Act shall allow the expert reasonable access to the person for purposes of examination, to the person's records, and to past and present treatment providers and any other staff members relevant to the examination.

(Source: P.A. 96-1128, eff. 1-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 207/30)

Sec. 30. Detention; probable cause hearing; transfer for examination.

(a) Upon the filing of a petition under Section 15 of this Act, the court shall review the petition to determine whether to issue an order for detention of the person who is the subject of the petition. The person shall be detained only if there is cause to believe that the person is eligible for commitment under subsection (f) of Section 35 of this Act. A person detained under this Section shall be held in a facility approved by the Department. If the person is serving a sentence of imprisonment, is in a Department of Corrections correctional facility or juvenile correctional facility or is committed to institutional care, and the court orders detention under this Section, the court shall order that the person be transferred to a detention facility approved by the Department. A detention order under this Section remains in effect until the person is discharged after a trial under Section 35 of this Act or until the effective date of a commitment order under Section 40 of this Act, whichever is applicable.

(b) Whenever a petition is filed under Section 15 of this Act, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the person named in the petition is a sexually violent person. If the person named in the petition is in custody, the court shall hold the probable cause hearing within 72 hours after the petition is filed, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and legal holidays. The court may grant a continuance of the probable cause hearing for no more than 7 additional days upon the motion of the respondent, for good cause. If the person named in the petition has been released, is on parole, is on aftercare release, is on mandatory supervised release, or otherwise is not in custody, the court shall hold the probable cause hearing within a reasonable time after the filing of the petition. At the probable cause hearing, the court shall admit and consider all relevant hearsay evidence.

(c) If the court determines after a hearing that there is probable cause to believe that the person named in the petition is a sexually violent person, the court shall order that the person be taken into custody if he or she is not in custody and shall order the person to be transferred within a reasonable time to an appropriate facility for an evaluation as to whether the person is a sexually violent person. If the person who is named in the petition refuses to speak to, communicate with, or otherwise fails to cooperate with the examining evaluator from the Department of Human Services or the Department of Corrections, that person may only introduce evidence and testimony from any expert or professional person who is retained or court-appointed to conduct an examination of the person that results from a review of the records and may not introduce evidence resulting from an examination of the person. Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, all evaluations conducted pursuant to this Act and all Illinois Department of Corrections treatment records shall be admissible at all proceedings held pursuant to this Act, including the probable cause hearing and the trial.

If the court determines that probable cause does not exist to believe that the person is a sexually violent person, the court shall dismiss the petition.

(d) The Department shall promulgate rules that provide the qualifications for persons conducting evaluations under subsection (c) of this Section.

(e) If the person named in the petition claims or appears to be indigent, the court shall, prior to the probable cause hearing under subsection (b) of this Section, appoint counsel.

(Source: P.A. 92-415, eff. 8-17-01; 93-616, eff. 1-1-04; 93-970, eff. 8-20-04.)

(725 ILCS 207/40)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1098)

Sec. 40. Commitment.

(a) If a court or jury determines that the person who is the subject of a petition under Section 15 of this Act is a sexually violent person, the court shall order the person to be committed to the custody of the Department for control, care and treatment until such time as the person is no longer a sexually violent person.

(b)(1) The court shall enter an initial commitment order under this Section pursuant to a hearing held as soon as practicable after the judgment is entered that the person who is the subject of a petition under Section 15 is a sexually violent person. If the court lacks sufficient information to make the determination required by paragraph (b)(2) of this Section immediately after trial, it may adjourn the hearing and order the Department to conduct a predisposition investigation or a supplementary mental examination, or both, to assist the court in framing the commitment order. If the Department's examining evaluator previously rendered an opinion that the person who is the subject of a petition under Section 15 does not meet the criteria to be found a sexually violent person, then another evaluator shall conduct the predisposition investigation and/or supplementary mental examination. A supplementary mental examination under this Section shall be conducted in accordance with Section 3-804 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The State has the right to have the person evaluated by experts chosen by the State.

(2) An order for commitment under this Section shall specify either institutional care in a secure facility, as provided under Section 50 of this Act, or conditional release. In determining whether commitment shall be for institutional care in a secure facility or for conditional release, the court shall consider the nature and circumstances of the behavior that was the basis of the allegation in the petition under paragraph (b)(1) of Section 15, the person's mental history and present mental condition, and what arrangements are available to ensure that the person has access to and will participate in necessary treatment. All treatment, whether in institutional care, in a secure facility, or while on conditional release, shall be conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and conducted by a treatment provider approved by the Board. The Department shall arrange for control, care and treatment of the person in the least restrictive manner consistent with the requirements of the person and in accordance with the court's commitment order.

(3) If the court finds that the person is appropriate for conditional release, the court shall notify the Department. The Department shall prepare a plan that identifies the treatment and services, if any, that the person will receive in the community. The plan shall address the person's need, if any, for supervision, counseling, medication, community support services, residential services, vocational services, and alcohol or other drug abuse treatment. The Department may contract with a county health department, with another public agency or with a private agency to provide the treatment and services identified in the plan. The plan shall specify who will be responsible for providing the treatment and services identified in the plan. The plan shall be presented to the court for its approval within 60 days after the court finding that the person is appropriate for conditional release, unless the Department and the person to be released request additional time to develop the plan. The conditional release program operated under this Section is not subject to the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(4) An order for conditional release places the person in the custody and control of the Department. A person on conditional release is subject to the conditions set by the court and to the rules of the Department. Before a person is placed on conditional release by the court under this Section, the court shall so notify the municipal police department and county sheriff for the municipality and county in which the person will be residing. The notification requirement under this Section does not apply if a municipal police department or county sheriff submits to the court a written statement waiving the right to be notified. Notwithstanding any other provision in the Act, the person being supervised on conditional release shall not reside at the same street address as another sex offender being supervised on conditional release under this Act, mandatory supervised release, parole, aftercare release, probation, or any other manner of supervision. If the Department alleges that a released person has violated any condition or rule, or that the safety of others requires that conditional release be revoked, he or she may be taken into custody under the rules of the Department.

At any time during which the person is on conditional release, if the Department determines that the person has violated any condition or rule, or that the safety of others requires that conditional release be revoked, the Department may request the Attorney General or State's Attorney to request the court to issue an emergency ex parte order directing any law enforcement officer to take the person into custody and transport the person to the county jail. The Department may request, or the Attorney General or State's Attorney may request independently of the Department, that a petition to revoke conditional release be filed. When a petition is filed, the court may order the Department to issue a notice to the person to be present at the Department or other agency designated by the court, order a summons to the person to be present, or order a body attachment for all law enforcement officers to take the person into custody and transport him or her to the county jail, hospital, or treatment facility. The Department shall submit a statement showing probable cause of the detention and a petition to revoke the order for conditional release to the committing court within 48 hours after the detention. The court shall hear the petition within 30 days, unless the hearing or time deadline is waived by the detained person. Pending the revocation hearing, the Department may detain the person in a jail, in a hospital or treatment facility. The State has the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that any rule or condition of release has been violated, or that the safety of others requires that the conditional release be revoked. If the court determines after hearing that any rule or condition of release has been violated, or that the safety of others requires that conditional release be revoked, it may revoke the order for conditional release and order that the released person be placed in an appropriate institution until the person is discharged from the commitment under Section 65 of this Act or until again placed on conditional release under Section 60 of this Act.

(5) An order for conditional release places the person in the custody, care, and control of the Department. The court shall order the person be subject to the following rules of conditional release, in addition to any other conditions ordered, and the person shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions of conditional release. These conditions shall be that the person:

(A) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(B) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court and the Department;

(C) refrain from possession of a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(D) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature, that prior consent by the court is not possible without the prior notification and approval of the Department;

(E) at the direction of the Department, notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record or sexual offending history or characteristics, and permit the supervising officer or agent to make the notification requirement;

(F) attend and fully participate in assessment, treatment, and behavior monitoring including, but not limited to, medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment specific to sexual offending, drug addiction, or alcoholism, to the extent appropriate to the person based upon the recommendation and findings made in the Department evaluation or based upon any subsequent recommendations by the Department;

(G) waive confidentiality allowing the court and Department access to assessment or treatment results or both;

(H) work regularly at a Department approved occupation or pursue a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department within 72 hours of any change in employment, study, or training;

(I) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by the Department officer;

(J) submit to the search of his or her person, residence, vehicle, or any personal or real property under his or her control at any time by the Department;

(K) financially support his or her dependents and provide the Department access to any requested financial information;

(L) serve a term of home confinement, the conditions of which shall be that the person:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his or her confinement during the hours designated by the Department;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the Department into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the person's compliance with the condition of his or her confinement;

(iii) if deemed necessary by the Department, be placed on an electronic monitoring device;

(M) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the Department by the clerk of the court;

(N) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms the Department finds appropriate. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, others accompanying the person, and advance approval by the Department;

(O) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family, and report any incidental contact with the victim or the victim's family to the Department within 72 hours; refrain from entering onto the premises of, traveling past, or loitering near the victim's residence, place of employment, or other places frequented by the victim;

(P) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, with particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs, drug users, drug dealers, or prostitutes;

(Q) refrain from all contact, direct or indirect, personally, by telephone, letter, or through another person, with minor children without prior identification and approval of the Department;

(R) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of alcohol or any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her breath, saliva, blood, or urine for tests to determine the presence of alcohol or any illicit drug;

(S) not establish a dating, intimate, or sexual relationship with a person without prior written notification to the Department;

(T) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is pornographic, sexually oriented, or sexually stimulating, or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity or depicts minors under the age of 18, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(U) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers or any other sex-related telephone numbers;

(V) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of the Department and report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department within 72 hours;

(W) not establish any living arrangement or residence without prior approval of the Department;

(X) not publish any materials or print any advertisements without providing a copy of the proposed publications to the Department officer and obtaining permission prior to publication;

(Y) not leave the county except with prior permission of the Department and provide the Department officer or agent with written travel routes to and from work and any other designated destinations;

(Z) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending items including video or still camera items or children's toys;

(AA) provide a written daily log of activities as directed by the Department;

(BB) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access or potential victims.

(6) A person placed on conditional release and who during the term undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device may be ordered to pay all costs incidental to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing and all costs incidental to the approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the person's ability to pay those costs. The Department may establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring.

(Source: P.A. 96-1128, eff. 1-1-11.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1098)

Sec. 40. Commitment.

(a) If a court or jury determines that the person who is the subject of a petition under Section 15 of this Act is a sexually violent person, the court shall order the person to be committed to the custody of the Department for control, care and treatment until such time as the person is no longer a sexually violent person.

(b)(1) The court shall enter an initial commitment order under this Section pursuant to a hearing held as soon as practicable after the judgment is entered that the person who is the subject of a petition under Section 15 is a sexually violent person. If the court lacks sufficient information to make the determination required by paragraph (b)(2) of this Section immediately after trial, it may adjourn the hearing and order the Department to conduct a predisposition investigation or a supplementary mental examination, or both, to assist the court in framing the commitment order. If the Department's examining evaluator previously rendered an opinion that the person who is the subject of a petition under Section 15 does not meet the criteria to be found a sexually violent person, then another evaluator shall conduct the predisposition investigation and/or supplementary mental examination. A supplementary mental examination under this Section shall be conducted in accordance with Section 3-804 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The State has the right to have the person evaluated by experts chosen by the State.

(2) An order for commitment under this Section shall specify either institutional care in a secure facility, as provided under Section 50 of this Act, or conditional release. In determining whether commitment shall be for institutional care in a secure facility or for conditional release, the court shall consider the nature and circumstances of the behavior that was the basis of the allegation in the petition under paragraph (b)(1) of Section 15, the person's mental history and present mental condition, and what arrangements are available to ensure that the person has access to and will participate in necessary treatment. All treatment, whether in institutional care, in a secure facility, or while on conditional release, shall be conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and conducted by a treatment provider licensed under the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act. The Department shall arrange for control, care and treatment of the person in the least restrictive manner consistent with the requirements of the person and in accordance with the court's commitment order.

(3) If the court finds that the person is appropriate for conditional release, the court shall notify the Department. The Department shall prepare a plan that identifies the treatment and services, if any, that the person will receive in the community. The plan shall address the person's need, if any, for supervision, counseling, medication, community support services, residential services, vocational services, and alcohol or other drug abuse treatment. The Department may contract with a county health department, with another public agency or with a private agency to provide the treatment and services identified in the plan. The plan shall specify who will be responsible for providing the treatment and services identified in the plan. The plan shall be presented to the court for its approval within 60 days after the court finding that the person is appropriate for conditional release, unless the Department and the person to be released request additional time to develop the plan. The conditional release program operated under this Section is not subject to the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(4) An order for conditional release places the person in the custody and control of the Department. A person on conditional release is subject to the conditions set by the court and to the rules of the Department. Before a person is placed on conditional release by the court under this Section, the court shall so notify the municipal police department and county sheriff for the municipality and county in which the person will be residing. The notification requirement under this Section does not apply if a municipal police department or county sheriff submits to the court a written statement waiving the right to be notified. Notwithstanding any other provision in the Act, the person being supervised on conditional release shall not reside at the same street address as another sex offender being supervised on conditional release under this Act, mandatory supervised release, parole, aftercare release, probation, or any other manner of supervision. If the Department alleges that a released person has violated any condition or rule, or that the safety of others requires that conditional release be revoked, he or she may be taken into custody under the rules of the Department.

At any time during which the person is on conditional release, if the Department determines that the person has violated any condition or rule, or that the safety of others requires that conditional release be revoked, the Department may request the Attorney General or State's Attorney to request the court to issue an emergency ex parte order directing any law enforcement officer to take the person into custody and transport the person to the county jail. The Department may request, or the Attorney General or State's Attorney may request independently of the Department, that a petition to revoke conditional release be filed. When a petition is filed, the court may order the Department to issue a notice to the person to be present at the Department or other agency designated by the court, order a summons to the person to be present, or order a body attachment for all law enforcement officers to take the person into custody and transport him or her to the county jail, hospital, or treatment facility. The Department shall submit a statement showing probable cause of the detention and a petition to revoke the order for conditional release to the committing court within 48 hours after the detention. The court shall hear the petition within 30 days, unless the hearing or time deadline is waived by the detained person. Pending the revocation hearing, the Department may detain the person in a jail, in a hospital or treatment facility. The State has the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that any rule or condition of release has been violated, or that the safety of others requires that the conditional release be revoked. If the court determines after hearing that any rule or condition of release has been violated, or that the safety of others requires that conditional release be revoked, it may revoke the order for conditional release and order that the released person be placed in an appropriate institution until the person is discharged from the commitment under Section 65 of this Act or until again placed on conditional release under Section 60 of this Act.

(5) An order for conditional release places the person in the custody, care, and control of the Department. The court shall order the person be subject to the following rules of conditional release, in addition to any other conditions ordered, and the person shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions of conditional release. These conditions shall be that the person:

(A) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(B) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court and the Department;

(C) refrain from possession of a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(D) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature, that prior consent by the court is not possible without the prior notification and approval of the Department;

(E) at the direction of the Department, notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record or sexual offending history or characteristics, and permit the supervising officer or agent to make the notification requirement;

(F) attend and fully participate in assessment, treatment, and behavior monitoring including, but not limited to, medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment specific to sexual offending, drug addiction, or alcoholism, to the extent appropriate to the person based upon the recommendation and findings made in the Department evaluation or based upon any subsequent recommendations by the Department;

(G) waive confidentiality allowing the court and Department access to assessment or treatment results or both;

(H) work regularly at a Department approved occupation or pursue a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department within 72 hours of any change in employment, study, or training;

(I) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by the Department officer;

(J) submit to the search of his or her person, residence, vehicle, or any personal or real property under his or her control at any time by the Department;

(K) financially support his or her dependents and provide the Department access to any requested financial information;

(L) serve a term of home confinement, the conditions of which shall be that the person:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his or her confinement during the hours designated by the Department;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the Department into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the person's compliance with the condition of his or her confinement;

(iii) if deemed necessary by the Department, be placed on an electronic monitoring device;

(M) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the Department by the clerk of the court;

(N) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms the Department finds appropriate. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, others accompanying the person, and advance approval by the Department;

(O) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family, and report any incidental contact with the victim or the victim's family to the Department within 72 hours; refrain from entering onto the premises of, traveling past, or loitering near the victim's residence, place of employment, or other places frequented by the victim;

(P) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, with particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs, drug users, drug dealers, or prostitutes;

(Q) refrain from all contact, direct or indirect, personally, by telephone, letter, or through another person, with minor children without prior identification and approval of the Department;

(R) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of alcohol or any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her breath, saliva, blood, or urine for tests to determine the presence of alcohol or any illicit drug;

(S) not establish a dating, intimate, or sexual relationship with a person without prior written notification to the Department;

(T) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is pornographic, sexually oriented, or sexually stimulating, or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity or depicts minors under the age of 18, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(U) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers or any other sex-related telephone numbers;

(V) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of the Department and report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department within 72 hours;

(W) not establish any living arrangement or residence without prior approval of the Department;

(X) not publish any materials or print any advertisements without providing a copy of the proposed publications to the Department officer and obtaining permission prior to publication;

(Y) not leave the county except with prior permission of the Department and provide the Department officer or agent with written travel routes to and from work and any other designated destinations;

(Z) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending items including video or still camera items or children's toys;

(AA) provide a written daily log of activities as directed by the Department;

(BB) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access or potential victims.

(6) A person placed on conditional release and who during the term undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device may be ordered to pay all costs incidental to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing and all costs incidental to the approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the person's ability to pay those costs. The Department may establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring.

(Source: P.A. 96-1128, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1098, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 100. The Uniform Criminal Extradition Act is amended by changing Section 22 as follows:

(725 ILCS 225/22) (from Ch. 60, par. 39)

Sec. 22. Fugitives from this state; duty of Governors.

Whenever the Governor of this State shall demand a person charged with crime or with escaping from confinement or breaking the terms of his or her bail, probation, aftercare release, or parole in this State, from the Executive Authority of any other state, or from the chief justice or an associate justice of the Supreme Court of the District of Columbia authorized to receive such demand under the laws of the United States, he or she shall issue a warrant under the seal of this State, to some agent, commanding him or her to receive the person so charged if delivered to him or her and convey him or her to the proper officer of the county in this State in which the offense was committed.

(Source: Laws 1955, p. 1982.)

Section 105. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-1-2, 3-2-2, 3-2.5-20, 3-2.5-65, 3-3-1, 3-3-2, 3-3-3, 3-3-4, 3-3-5, 3-3-7, 3-3-8, 3-3-9, 3-3-10, 3-4-3, 3-5-1, 3-10-6, 5-1-16, 5-4-3, 5-8A-3, 5-8A-5, and 5-8A-7 and by adding Sections 3-2.5-70, 3-2.5-75, 3-2.5-80, and 5-1-1.1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-1-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-1-2)

Sec. 3-1-2. Definitions.

(a) "Chief Administrative Officer" means the person designated by the Director to exercise the powers and duties of the Department of Corrections in regard to committed persons within a correctional institution or facility, and includes the superintendent of any juvenile institution or facility.

(a-3) "Aftercare release" means the conditional and revocable release of a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, under the supervision of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(a-5) "Sex offense" for the purposes of paragraph (16) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7, paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 5-6-3, and paragraph (18) of subsection (c) of Section 5-6-3.1 only means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 11-1.20 or 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 or 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.60 or 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 or subsection (a) of Section 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (a-5).

An offense violating federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (a-5) shall constitute a sex offense for the purpose of this subsection (a-5). A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for a sex offense for the purposes of this subsection (a-5).

(b) "Commitment" means a judicially determined placement in the custody of the Department of Corrections on the basis of delinquency or conviction.

(c) "Committed Person" is a person committed to the Department, however a committed person shall not be considered to be an employee of the Department of Corrections for any purpose, including eligibility for a pension, benefits, or any other compensation or rights or privileges which may be provided to employees of the Department.

(c-5) "Computer scrub software" means any third-party added software, designed to delete information from the computer unit, the hard drive, or other software, which would eliminate and prevent discovery of browser activity, including but not limited to Internet history, address bar or bars, cache or caches, and/or cookies, and which would over-write files in a way so as to make previous computer activity, including but not limited to website access, more difficult to discover.

(d) "Correctional Institution or Facility" means any building or part of a building where committed persons are kept in a secured manner.

(e) In the case of functions performed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Department" means the Department of Corrections of this State. In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Department" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (f-5).

(f) In the case of functions performed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Director" means the Director of the Department of Corrections. In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Director" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (f-5).

(f-5) In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, references to "Department" or "Director" refer to either the Department of Corrections or the Director of Corrections or to the Department of Juvenile Justice or the Director of Juvenile Justice unless the context is specific to the Department of Juvenile Justice or the Director of Juvenile Justice.

(g) "Discharge" means the final termination of a commitment to the Department of Corrections.

(h) "Discipline" means the rules and regulations for the maintenance of order and the protection of persons and property within the institutions and facilities of the Department and their enforcement.

(i) "Escape" means the intentional and unauthorized absence of a committed person from the custody of the Department.

(j) "Furlough" means an authorized leave of absence from the Department of Corrections for a designated purpose and period of time.

(k) "Parole" means the conditional and revocable release of a person committed to the Department of Corrections person under the supervision of a parole officer.

(l) "Prisoner Review Board" means the Board established in Section 3-3-1(a), independent of the Department, to review rules and regulations with respect to good time credits, to hear charges brought by the Department against certain prisoners alleged to have violated Department rules with respect to good time credits, to set release dates for certain prisoners sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1977, to hear and decide the time of aftercare release for persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 to hear requests and make recommendations to the Governor with respect to pardon, reprieve or commutation, to set conditions for parole and mandatory supervised release and determine whether violations of those conditions justify revocation of parole or release, and to assume all other functions previously exercised by the Illinois Parole and Pardon Board.

(m) Whenever medical treatment, service, counseling, or care is referred to in this Unified Code of Corrections, such term may be construed by the Department or Court, within its discretion, to include treatment, service or counseling by a Christian Science practitioner or nursing care appropriate therewith whenever request therefor is made by a person subject to the provisions of this Act.

(n) "Victim" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act.

(o) "Wrongfully imprisoned person" means a person who has been discharged from a prison of this State and has received:

(1) a pardon from the Governor stating that such pardon is issued on the ground of innocence of the crime for which he or she was imprisoned; or

(2) a certificate of innocence from the Circuit Court as provided in Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1550, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-2-2)

Sec. 3-2-2. Powers and Duties of the Department.

(1) In addition to the powers, duties and responsibilities which are otherwise provided by law, the Department shall have the following powers:

(a) To accept persons committed to it by the courts of this State for care, custody, treatment and rehabilitation, and to accept federal prisoners and aliens over whom the Office of the Federal Detention Trustee is authorized to exercise the federal detention function for limited purposes and periods of time.

(b) To develop and maintain reception and evaluation units for purposes of analyzing the custody and rehabilitation needs of persons committed to it and to assign such persons to institutions and programs under its control or transfer them to other appropriate agencies. In consultation with the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse (now the Department of Human Services), the Department of Corrections shall develop a master plan for the screening and evaluation of persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug abuse problems, and for making appropriate treatment available to such persons; the Department shall report to the General Assembly on such plan not later than April 1, 1987. The maintenance and implementation of such plan shall be contingent upon the availability of funds.

(b-1) To create and implement, on January 1, 2002, a pilot program to establish the effectiveness of pupillometer technology (the measurement of the pupil's reaction to light) as an alternative to a urine test for purposes of screening and evaluating persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug problems. The pilot program shall require the pupillometer technology to be used in at least one Department of Corrections facility. The Director may expand the pilot program to include an additional facility or facilities as he or she deems appropriate. A minimum of 4,000 tests shall be included in the pilot program. The Department must report to the General Assembly on the effectiveness of the program by January 1, 2003.

(b-5) To develop, in consultation with the Department of State Police, a program for tracking and evaluating each inmate from commitment through release for recording his or her gang affiliations, activities, or ranks.

(c) To maintain and administer all State correctional institutions and facilities under its control and to establish new ones as needed. Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may, with the written approval of the Governor, authorize the Department of Central Management Services to enter into an agreement of the type described in subsection (d) of Section 405-300 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-300). The Department shall designate those institutions which shall constitute the State Penitentiary System.

Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may authorize the Department of Central Management Services to accept bids from counties and municipalities for the construction, remodeling or conversion of a structure to be leased to the Department of Corrections for the purposes of its serving as a correctional institution or facility. Such construction, remodeling or conversion may be financed with revenue bonds issued pursuant to the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act by the municipality or county. The lease specified in a bid shall be for a term of not less than the time needed to retire any revenue bonds used to finance the project, but not to exceed 40 years. The lease may grant to the State the option to purchase the structure outright.

Upon receipt of the bids, the Department may certify one or more of the bids and shall submit any such bids to the General Assembly for approval. Upon approval of a bid by a constitutional majority of both houses of the General Assembly, pursuant to joint resolution, the Department of Central Management Services may enter into an agreement with the county or municipality pursuant to such bid.

(c-5) To build and maintain regional juvenile detention centers and to charge a per diem to the counties as established by the Department to defray the costs of housing each minor in a center. In this subsection (c-5), "juvenile detention center" means a facility to house minors during pendency of trial who have been transferred from proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 to prosecutions under the criminal laws of this State in accordance with Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether the transfer was by operation of law or permissive under that Section. The Department shall designate the counties to be served by each regional juvenile detention center.

(d) To develop and maintain programs of control, rehabilitation and employment of committed persons within its institutions.

(d-5) To provide a pre-release job preparation program for inmates at Illinois adult correctional centers.

(e) To establish a system of supervision and guidance of committed persons in the community.

(f) To establish in cooperation with the Department of Transportation to supply a sufficient number of prisoners for use by the Department of Transportation to clean up the trash and garbage along State, county, township, or municipal highways as designated by the Department of Transportation. The Department of Corrections, at the request of the Department of Transportation, shall furnish such prisoners at least annually for a period to be agreed upon between the Director of Corrections and the Director of Transportation. The prisoners used on this program shall be selected by the Director of Corrections on whatever basis he deems proper in consideration of their term, behavior and earned eligibility to participate in such program - where they will be outside of the prison facility but still in the custody of the Department of Corrections. Prisoners convicted of first degree murder, or a Class X felony, or armed violence, or aggravated kidnapping, or criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, or forcible detention, or arson, or a prisoner adjudged a Habitual Criminal shall not be eligible for selection to participate in such program. The prisoners shall remain as prisoners in the custody of the Department of Corrections and such Department shall furnish whatever security is necessary. The Department of Transportation shall furnish trucks and equipment for the highway cleanup program and personnel to supervise and direct the program. Neither the Department of Corrections nor the Department of Transportation shall replace any regular employee with a prisoner.

(g) To maintain records of persons committed to it and to establish programs of research, statistics and planning.

(h) To investigate the grievances of any person committed to the Department, to inquire into any alleged misconduct by employees or committed persons, and to investigate the assets of committed persons to implement Section 3-7-6 of this Code; and for these purposes it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of writings and papers, and may examine under oath any witnesses who may appear before it; to also investigate alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole or release; and for this purpose it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents only if there is reason to believe that such procedures would provide evidence that such violations have occurred.

If any person fails to obey a subpoena issued under this subsection, the Director may apply to any circuit court to secure compliance with the subpoena. The failure to comply with the order of the court issued in response thereto shall be punishable as contempt of court.

(i) To appoint and remove the chief administrative officers, and administer programs of training and development of personnel of the Department. Personnel assigned by the Department to be responsible for the custody and control of committed persons or to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or employees or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole shall be conservators of the peace for those purposes, and shall have the full power of peace officers outside of the facilities of the Department in the protection, arrest, retaking and reconfining of committed persons or where the exercise of such power is necessary to the investigation of such misconduct or violations. This subsection shall not apply to persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on aftercare release.

(j) To cooperate with other departments and agencies and with local communities for the development of standards and programs for better correctional services in this State.

(k) To administer all moneys and properties of the Department.

(l) To report annually to the Governor on the committed persons, institutions and programs of the Department.

(l-5) (Blank).

(m) To make all rules and regulations and exercise all powers and duties vested by law in the Department.

(n) To establish rules and regulations for administering a system of sentence credits, established in accordance with Section 3-6-3, subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(o) To administer the distribution of funds from the State Treasury to reimburse counties where State penal institutions are located for the payment of assistant state's attorneys' salaries under Section 4-2001 of the Counties Code.

(p) To exchange information with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services for the purpose of verifying living arrangements and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Code and the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(q) To establish a diversion program.

The program shall provide a structured environment for selected technical parole or mandatory supervised release violators and committed persons who have violated the rules governing their conduct while in work release. This program shall not apply to those persons who have committed a new offense while serving on parole or mandatory supervised release or while committed to work release.

Elements of the program shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) The staff of a diversion facility shall provide supervision in accordance with required objectives set by the facility.

(2) Participants shall be required to maintain employment.

(3) Each participant shall pay for room and board at the facility on a sliding-scale basis according to the participant's income.

(4) Each participant shall:

(A) provide restitution to victims in accordance with any court order;

(B) provide financial support to his dependents; and

(C) make appropriate payments toward any other court-ordered obligations.

(5) Each participant shall complete community service in addition to employment.

(6) Participants shall take part in such counseling, educational and other programs as the Department may deem appropriate.

(7) Participants shall submit to drug and alcohol screening.

(8) The Department shall promulgate rules governing the administration of the program.

(r) To enter into intergovernmental cooperation agreements under which persons in the custody of the Department may participate in a county impact incarceration program established under Section 3-6038 or 3-15003.5 of the Counties Code.

(r-5) (Blank).

(r-10) To systematically and routinely identify with respect to each streetgang active within the correctional system: (1) each active gang; (2) every existing inter-gang affiliation or alliance; and (3) the current leaders in each gang. The Department shall promptly segregate leaders from inmates who belong to their gangs and allied gangs. "Segregate" means no physical contact and, to the extent possible under the conditions and space available at the correctional facility, prohibition of visual and sound communication. For the purposes of this paragraph (r-10), "leaders" means persons who:

(i) are members of a criminal streetgang;

(ii) with respect to other individuals within the streetgang, occupy a position of organizer, supervisor, or other position of management or leadership; and

(iii) are actively and personally engaged in directing, ordering, authorizing, or requesting commission of criminal acts by others, which are punishable as a felony, in furtherance of streetgang related activity both within and outside of the Department of Corrections.

"Streetgang", "gang", and "streetgang related" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(s) To operate a super-maximum security institution, in order to manage and supervise inmates who are disruptive or dangerous and provide for the safety and security of the staff and the other inmates.

(t) To monitor any unprivileged conversation or any unprivileged communication, whether in person or by mail, telephone, or other means, between an inmate who, before commitment to the Department, was a member of an organized gang and any other person without the need to show cause or satisfy any other requirement of law before beginning the monitoring, except as constitutionally required. The monitoring may be by video, voice, or other method of recording or by any other means. As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "unprivileged conversation" or "unprivileged communication" means a conversation or communication that is not protected by any privilege recognized by law or by decision, rule, or order of the Illinois Supreme Court.

(u) To establish a Women's and Children's Pre-release Community Supervision Program for the purpose of providing housing and services to eligible female inmates, as determined by the Department, and their newborn and young children.

(u-5) To issue an order, whenever a person committed to the Department absconds or absents himself or herself, without authority to do so, from any facility or program to which he or she is assigned. The order shall be certified by the Director, the Supervisor of the Apprehension Unit, or any person duly designated by the Director, with the seal of the Department affixed. The order shall be directed to all sheriffs, coroners, and police officers, or to any particular person named in the order. Any order issued pursuant to this subdivision (1) (u-5) shall be sufficient warrant for the officer or person named in the order to arrest and deliver the committed person to the proper correctional officials and shall be executed the same as criminal process.

(v) To do all other acts necessary to carry out the provisions of this Chapter.

(2) The Department of Corrections shall by January 1, 1998, consider building and operating a correctional facility within 100 miles of a county of over 2,000,000 inhabitants, especially a facility designed to house juvenile participants in the impact incarceration program.

(3) When the Department lets bids for contracts for medical services to be provided to persons committed to Department facilities by a health maintenance organization, medical service corporation, or other health care provider, the bid may only be let to a health care provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(4) When the Department lets bids for contracts for food or commissary services to be provided to Department facilities, the bid may only be let to a food or commissary services provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(Source: P.A. 96-1265, eff. 7-26-10; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-800, eff. 7-13-12; 97-802, eff. 7-13-12; revised 7-23-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-20)

Sec. 3-2.5-20. General powers and duties.

(a) In addition to the powers, duties, and responsibilities which are otherwise provided by law or transferred to the Department as a result of this Article, the Department, as determined by the Director, shall have, but are not limited to, the following rights, powers, functions and duties:

(1) To accept juveniles committed to it by the courts of this State for care, custody, treatment, and rehabilitation.

(2) To maintain and administer all State juvenile correctional institutions previously under the control of the Juvenile and Women's & Children Divisions of the Department of Corrections, and to establish and maintain institutions as needed to meet the needs of the youth committed to its care.

(3) To identify the need for and recommend the funding and implementation of an appropriate mix of programs and services within the juvenile justice continuum, including but not limited to prevention, nonresidential and residential commitment programs, day treatment, and conditional release programs and services, with the support of educational, vocational, alcohol, drug abuse, and mental health services where appropriate.

(3.5) To assist youth committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 with successful reintegration into society, the Department shall retain custody and control of all adjudicated delinquent juveniles released under Section 3-3-10 of this Code, shall provide a continuum of post-release treatment and services to those youth, and shall supervise those youth during their release period in accordance with the conditions set by the Prisoner Review Board.

(4) To establish and provide transitional and post-release treatment programs for juveniles committed to the Department. Services shall include but are not limited to:

(i) family and individual counseling and treatment placement;

(ii) referral services to any other State or local agencies;

(iii) mental health services;

(iv) educational services;

(v) family counseling services; and

(vi) substance abuse services.

(5) To access vital records of juveniles for the purposes of providing necessary documentation for transitional services such as obtaining identification, educational enrollment, employment, and housing.

(6) To develop staffing and workload standards and coordinate staff development and training appropriate for juvenile populations.

(7) To develop, with the approval of the Office of the Governor and the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, annual budget requests.

(8) To administer the Interstate Compact for Juveniles, with respect to all juveniles under its jurisdiction, and to cooperate with the Department of Human Services with regard to all non-offender juveniles subject to the Interstate Compact for Juveniles.

(b) The Department may employ personnel in accordance with the Personnel Code and Section 3-2.5-15 of this Code, provide facilities, contract for goods and services, and adopt rules as necessary to carry out its functions and purposes, all in accordance with applicable State and federal law.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; 95-937, eff. 8-26-08.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-65)

Sec. 3-2.5-65. Juvenile Advisory Board.

(a) There is created a Juvenile Advisory Board composed of 11 persons, appointed by the Governor to advise the Director on matters pertaining to juvenile offenders. The members of the Board shall be qualified for their positions by demonstrated interest in and knowledge of juvenile correctional work consistent with the definition of purpose and mission of the Department in Section 3-2.5-5 and shall not be officials of the State in any other capacity. The members under this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be appointed as soon as possible after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and be appointed to staggered terms 3 each expiring in 2007, 2008, and 2009 and 2 of the members' terms expiring in 2010. Thereafter all members will serve for a term of 6 years, except that members shall continue to serve until their replacements are appointed. Any vacancy occurring shall be filled in the same manner for the remainder of the term. The Director of Juvenile Justice shall be an ex officio member of the Board. The Board shall elect a chair from among its appointed members. The Director shall serve as secretary of the Board. Members of the Board shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for expenses necessarily incurred in the performance of their duties. The Board shall meet quarterly and at other times at the call of the chair.

(b) The Board shall:

(1) Advise the Director concerning policy matters and programs of the Department with regard to the custody, care, study, discipline, training, and treatment of juveniles in the State juvenile correctional institutions and for the care and supervision of juveniles on aftercare release released on parole.

(2) Establish, with the Director and in conjunction with the Office of the Governor, outcome measures for the Department in order to ascertain that it is successfully fulfilling the mission mandated in Section 3-2.5-5 of this Code. The annual results of the Department's work as defined by those measures shall be approved by the Board and shall be included in an annual report transmitted to the Governor and General Assembly jointly by the Director and the Board.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-70 new)

Sec. 3-2.5-70. Aftercare.

(a) The Department shall implement an aftercare program that includes, at a minimum, the following program elements:

(1) A process of case management plan for timely and successful reentry into the community beginning upon commitment.

(2) A process for reviewing committed youth for recommendation for aftercare release.

(3) An aftercare release program that includes supervision in accordance with the conditions set by the Prisoner Review Board and referral to and facilitation of community-based services as indicated including education, social and mental health services, substance abuse treatment, employment and vocational training, individual and family counseling, financial counseling, and other services as appropriate; and assistance in locating appropriate residential placement and obtaining suitable employment. The Department may purchase necessary services for a releasee if they are otherwise unavailable and the releasee is unable to pay for the services. It may assess all or part of the costs of these services to a releasee in accordance with his or her ability to pay for the services.

(4) Procedures for sanctions for violations of conditions of aftercare release that ensure that juvenile offenders face uniform and consistent consequences that hold them accountable taking into account aggravating and mitigating factors and prioritizing public safety.

(5) A process for reviewing youth on aftercare release for discharge.

(b) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall have the following rights, powers, functions, and duties:

(1) To investigate alleged violations of an aftercare releasee's conditions of release; and for this purpose it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents only if there is reason to believe that the procedures would provide evidence that the violations have occurred. If any person fails to obey a subpoena issued under this subsection, the Director may apply to any circuit court to secure compliance with the subpoena. The failure to comply with the order of the court issued in response thereto shall be punishable as contempt of court.

(2) To issue a violation warrant for the apprehension of an aftercare releasee for violations of the conditions of aftercare release. Aftercare Specialists and Supervisors have the full power of peace officers in the retaking of any youth alleged to have violated the conditions of aftercare release.

(c) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall designate Aftercare Specialists qualified in juvenile matters to perform case management and post-release programming functions under this Section.

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-75 new)

Sec. 3-2.5-75. Release from Department of Juvenile Justice.

(a) Upon release of a youth on aftercare, the Department shall return all property held for the youth, provide the youth with suitable clothing, and procure necessary transportation for the youth to his or her designated place of residence and employment. It may provide the youth with a grant of money for travel and expenses which may be paid in installments. The amount of the money grant shall be determined by the Department.

(b) Before a wrongfully imprisoned person, as defined in Section 3-1-2 of this Code, is discharged from the Department, the Department shall provide him or her with any documents necessary after discharge, including an identification card under subsection (e) of this Section.

(c) The Department of Juvenile Justice may establish and maintain, in any institution it administers, revolving funds to be known as "Travel and Allowances Revolving Funds". These revolving funds shall be used for advancing travel and expense allowances to committed, released, and discharged youth. The moneys paid into these revolving funds shall be from appropriations to the Department for committed, released, and discharged prisoners.

(d) Upon the release of a youth on aftercare, the Department shall provide that youth with information concerning programs and services of the Illinois Department of Public Health to ascertain whether that youth has been exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any identified causative agent of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS).

(e) Upon the release of a youth on aftercare or who has been wrongfully imprisoned, the Department shall provide the youth with an identification card identifying the youth as being on aftercare or wrongfully imprisoned, as the case may be. The Department, in consultation with the Office of the Secretary of State, shall prescribe the form of the identification card, which may be similar to the form of the standard Illinois Identification Card. The Department shall inform the youth that he or she may present the identification card to the Office of the Secretary of State upon application for a standard Illinois Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act. The Department shall require the youth to pay a $1 fee for the identification card. The Department shall adopt rules governing the issuance of identification cards to youth being released on aftercare or pardon.

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-80 new)

Sec. 3-2.5-80. Supervision on Aftercare Release.

(a) The Department shall retain custody of all youth placed on aftercare release or released under Section 3-3-10 of this Code. The Department shall supervise those youth during their aftercare release period in accordance with the conditions set by the Prisoner Review Board.

(b) A copy of youth's conditions of aftercare release shall be signed by the youth and given to the youth and to his or her Aftercare Specialist who shall report on the youth's progress under the rules of the Prisoner Review Board. Aftercare Specialists and Supervisors shall have the full power of peace officers in the retaking of any releasees who has allegedly violated his or her aftercare release conditions. The Aftercare Specialist may request the Department of Juvenile Justice to issue a warrant for the arrest of any releasee who has allegedly violated his or her aftercare release conditions.

(c) The Aftercare Supervisor shall request the Department of Juvenile Justice to issue an aftercare release violation warrant, and the Department of Juvenile Justice shall issue an aftercare release violation warrant, under the following circumstances:

(1) if the releasee commits an act that constitutes a felony using a firearm or knife;

(2) if applicable, the releasee fails to comply with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) if the releasee is charged with:

(A) a felony offense of domestic battery under Section 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(B) aggravated domestic battery under Section 12-3.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(C) stalking under Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(D) aggravated stalking under Section 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(E) violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(F) any offense that would require registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act; or

(4) if the releasee is on aftercare release for a murder, a Class X felony or a Class 1 felony violation of the Criminal Code of 2012, or any felony that requires registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act and commits an act that constitutes first degree murder, a Class X felony, a Class 1 felony, a Class 2 felony, or a Class 3 felony.

Personnel designated by the Department of Juvenile Justice or another peace officer may detain an alleged aftercare release violator until a warrant for his or her return to the Department of Juvenile Justice can be issued. The releasee may be delivered to any secure place until he or she can be transported to the Department of Juvenile Justice. The Aftercare Specialist or the Department of Juvenile Justice shall file a violation report with notice of charges with the Prisoner Review Board.

(d) The Aftercare Specialist shall regularly advise and consult with the releasee and assist the youth in adjusting to community life in accord with this Section.

(e) If the aftercare releasee has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the Aftercare Specialist shall periodically, but not less than once a month, verify that the releasee is in compliance with paragraph (7.6) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7.

(f) The Aftercare Specialist shall keep those records as the Prisoner Review Board or Department may require. All records shall be entered in the master file of the youth.

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-1)

Sec. 3-3-1. Establishment and Appointment of Prisoner Review Board.

(a) There shall be a Prisoner Review Board independent of the Department of Corrections which shall be:

(1) the paroling authority for persons sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977;

(1.5) the authority for hearing and deciding the time of aftercare release for persons adjudicated delinquent under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(2) the board of review for cases involving the revocation of sentence credits or a suspension or reduction in the rate of accumulating the credit;

(3) the board of review and recommendation for the exercise of executive clemency by the Governor;

(4) the authority for establishing release dates for certain prisoners sentenced under the law in existence prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, in accordance with Section 3-3-2.1 of this Code;

(5) the authority for setting conditions for parole, mandatory supervised release under Section 5-8-1(a) of this Code, and aftercare release, and determining whether a violation of those conditions warrant revocation of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release or the imposition of other sanctions.

(b) The Board shall consist of 15 persons appointed by the Governor by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. One member of the Board shall be designated by the Governor to be Chairman and shall serve as Chairman at the pleasure of the Governor. The members of the Board shall have had at least 5 years of actual experience in the fields of penology, corrections work, law enforcement, sociology, law, education, social work, medicine, psychology, other behavioral sciences, or a combination thereof. At least 6 members so appointed must have had at least 3 years experience in the field of juvenile matters. No more than 8 Board members may be members of the same political party.

Each member of the Board shall serve on a full-time basis and shall not hold any other salaried public office, whether elective or appointive, nor any other office or position of profit, nor engage in any other business, employment, or vocation. The Chairman of the Board shall receive $35,000 a year, or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater, and each other member $30,000, or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the term of each member of the Board who was appointed by the Governor and is in office on June 30, 2003 shall terminate at the close of business on that date or when all of the successor members to be appointed pursuant to this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later. As soon as possible, the Governor shall appoint persons to fill the vacancies created by this amendatory Act.

Of the initial members appointed under this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Governor shall appoint 5 members whose terms shall expire on the third Monday in January 2005, 5 members whose terms shall expire on the third Monday in January 2007, and 5 members whose terms shall expire on the third Monday in January 2009. Their respective successors shall be appointed for terms of 6 years from the third Monday in January of the year of appointment. Each member shall serve until his or her successor is appointed and qualified.

Any member may be removed by the Governor for incompetence, neglect of duty, malfeasance or inability to serve.

(d) The Chairman of the Board shall be its chief executive and administrative officer. The Board may have an Executive Director; if so, the Executive Director shall be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. The salary and duties of the Executive Director shall be fixed by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 97-697, eff. 6-22-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-2)

Sec. 3-3-2. Powers and Duties.

(a) The Parole and Pardon Board is abolished and the term "Parole and Pardon Board" as used in any law of Illinois, shall read "Prisoner Review Board." After the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, the Prisoner Review Board shall provide by rule for the orderly transition of all files, records, and documents of the Parole and Pardon Board and for such other steps as may be necessary to effect an orderly transition and shall:

(1) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, cases of prisoners who were sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, and who are eligible for parole;

(2) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of parole and the time of discharge from parole, impose sanctions for violations of parole, and revoke parole for those sentenced under the law in effect prior to this amendatory Act of 1977; provided that the decision to parole and the conditions of parole for all prisoners who were sentenced for first degree murder or who received a minimum sentence of 20 years or more under the law in effect prior to February 1, 1978 shall be determined by a majority vote of the Prisoner Review Board. One representative supporting parole and one representative opposing parole will be allowed to speak. Their comments shall be limited to making corrections and filling in omissions to the Board's presentation and discussion;

(3) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of mandatory supervised release and the time of discharge from mandatory supervised release, impose sanctions for violations of mandatory supervised release, and revoke mandatory supervised release for those sentenced under the law in effect after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977;

(3.5) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of mandatory supervised release and the time of discharge from mandatory supervised release, to impose sanctions for violations of mandatory supervised release and revoke mandatory supervised release for those serving extended supervised release terms pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1;

(3.6) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the time of aftercare release, the conditions of aftercare release and the time of discharge from aftercare release, impose sanctions for violations of aftercare release, and revoke aftercare release for those adjudicated delinquent under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(4) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members, decide cases brought by the Department of Corrections against a prisoner in the custody of the Department for alleged violation of Department rules with respect to sentence credits under Section 3-6-3 of this Code in which the Department seeks to revoke sentence credits, if the amount of time at issue exceeds 30 days or when, during any 12 month period, the cumulative amount of credit revoked exceeds 30 days except where the infraction is committed or discovered within 60 days of scheduled release. In such cases, the Department of Corrections may revoke up to 30 days of sentence credit. The Board may subsequently approve the revocation of additional sentence credit, if the Department seeks to revoke sentence credit in excess of thirty days. However, the Board shall not be empowered to review the Department's decision with respect to the loss of 30 days of sentence credit for any prisoner or to increase any penalty beyond the length requested by the Department;

(5) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the release dates for certain prisoners sentenced under the law in existence prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, in accordance with Section 3-3-2.1 of this Code;

(6) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, all requests for pardon, reprieve or commutation, and make confidential recommendations to the Governor;

(7) comply with the requirements of the Open Parole Hearings Act;

(8) hear by at least one member and, through a panel of at least 3 members, decide cases brought by the Department of Corrections against a prisoner in the custody of the Department for court dismissal of a frivolous lawsuit pursuant to Section 3-6-3(d) of this Code in which the Department seeks to revoke up to 180 days of sentence credit, and if the prisoner has not accumulated 180 days of sentence credit at the time of the dismissal, then all sentence credit accumulated by the prisoner shall be revoked;

(9) hear by at least 3 members, and, through a panel of at least 3 members, decide whether to grant certificates of relief from disabilities or certificates of good conduct as provided in Article 5.5 of Chapter V; and

(10) upon a petition by a person who has been convicted of a Class 3 or Class 4 felony and who meets the requirements of this paragraph, hear by at least 3 members and, with the unanimous vote of a panel of 3 members, issue a certificate of eligibility for sealing recommending that the court order the sealing of all official records of the arresting authority, the circuit court clerk, and the Department of State Police concerning the arrest and conviction for the Class 3 or 4 felony. A person may not apply to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for sealing:

(A) until 5 years have elapsed since the expiration of his or her sentence;

(B) until 5 years have elapsed since any arrests or detentions by a law enforcement officer for an alleged violation of law, other than a petty offense, traffic offense, conservation offense, or local ordinance offense;

(C) if convicted of a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Precursor Tracking Act unless the petitioner has completed a drug abuse program for the offense on which sealing is sought and provides proof that he or she has completed the program successfully;

(D) if convicted of:

(i) a sex offense described in Article 11 or Sections 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) aggravated assault;

(iii) aggravated battery;

(iv) domestic battery;

(v) aggravated domestic battery;

(vi) violation of an order of protection;

(vii) an offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 involving a firearm;

(viii) driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof;

(ix) aggravated driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof; or

(x) any crime defined as a crime of violence under Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

If a person has applied to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for sealing and the Board denies the certificate, the person must wait at least 4 years before filing again or filing for pardon from the Governor unless the Chairman of the Prisoner Review Board grants a waiver.

The decision to issue or refrain from issuing a certificate of eligibility for sealing shall be at the Board's sole discretion, and shall not give rise to any cause of action against either the Board or its members.

The Board may only authorize the sealing of Class 3 and 4 felony convictions of the petitioner from one information or indictment under this paragraph (10). A petitioner may only receive one certificate of eligibility for sealing under this provision for life.

(a-5) The Prisoner Review Board, with the cooperation of and in coordination with the Department of Corrections and the Department of Central Management Services, shall implement a pilot project in 3 correctional institutions providing for the conduct of hearings under paragraphs (1) and (4) of subsection (a) of this Section through interactive video conferences. The project shall be implemented within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996. Within 6 months after the implementation of the pilot project, the Prisoner Review Board, with the cooperation of and in coordination with the Department of Corrections and the Department of Central Management Services, shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the use, costs, effectiveness, and future viability of interactive video conferences for Prisoner Review Board hearings.

(b) Upon recommendation of the Department the Board may restore sentence credit previously revoked.

(c) The Board shall cooperate with the Department in promoting an effective system of parole, aftercare release, and mandatory supervised release.

(d) The Board shall promulgate rules for the conduct of its work, and the Chairman shall file a copy of such rules and any amendments thereto with the Director and with the Secretary of State.

(e) The Board shall keep records of all of its official actions and shall make them accessible in accordance with law and the rules of the Board.

(f) The Board or one who has allegedly violated the conditions of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release may require by subpoena the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of documentary evidence relating to any matter under investigation or hearing. The Chairman of the Board may sign subpoenas which shall be served by any agent or public official authorized by the Chairman of the Board, or by any person lawfully authorized to serve a subpoena under the laws of the State of Illinois. The attendance of witnesses, and the production of documentary evidence, may be required from any place in the State to a hearing location in the State before the Chairman of the Board or his or her designated agent or agents or any duly constituted Committee or Subcommittee of the Board. Witnesses so summoned shall be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the circuit courts of the State, and witnesses whose depositions are taken and the persons taking those depositions are each entitled to the same fees as are paid for like services in actions in the circuit courts of the State. Fees and mileage shall be vouchered for payment when the witness is discharged from further attendance.

In case of disobedience to a subpoena, the Board may petition any circuit court of the State for an order requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of documentary evidence or both. A copy of such petition shall be served by personal service or by registered or certified mail upon the person who has failed to obey the subpoena, and such person shall be advised in writing that a hearing upon the petition will be requested in a court room to be designated in such notice before the judge hearing motions or extraordinary remedies at a specified time, on a specified date, not less than 10 nor more than 15 days after the deposit of the copy of the written notice and petition in the U.S. mails addressed to the person at his last known address or after the personal service of the copy of the notice and petition upon such person. The court upon the filing of such a petition, may order the person refusing to obey the subpoena to appear at an investigation or hearing, or to there produce documentary evidence, if so ordered, or to give evidence relative to the subject matter of that investigation or hearing. Any failure to obey such order of the circuit court may be punished by that court as a contempt of court.

Each member of the Board and any hearing officer designated by the Board shall have the power to administer oaths and to take the testimony of persons under oath.

(g) Except under subsection (a) of this Section, a majority of the members then appointed to the Prisoner Review Board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of all business of the Board.

(h) The Prisoner Review Board shall annually transmit to the Director a detailed report of its work for the preceding calendar year. The annual report shall also be transmitted to the Governor for submission to the Legislature.

(Source: P.A. 96-875, eff. 1-22-10; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-3)

Sec. 3-3-3. Eligibility for Parole or Release.

(a) Except for those offenders who accept the fixed release date established by the Prisoner Review Board under Section 3-3-2.1, every person serving a term of imprisonment under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977 shall be eligible for parole when he or she has served:

(1) the minimum term of an indeterminate sentence less time credit for good behavior, or 20 years less time credit for good behavior, whichever is less; or

(2) 20 years of a life sentence less time credit for good behavior; or

(3) 20 years or one-third of a determinate sentence, whichever is less, less time credit for good behavior.

(b) No person sentenced under this amendatory Act of 1977 or who accepts a release date under Section 3-3-2.1 shall be eligible for parole.

(c) Except for those sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment, every person sentenced to imprisonment under this amendatory Act of 1977 or given a release date under Section 3-3-2.1 of this Act shall serve the full term of a determinate sentence less time credit for good behavior and shall then be released under the mandatory supervised release provisions of paragraph (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code.

(d) No person serving a term of natural life imprisonment may be paroled or released except through executive clemency.

(e) Every person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-10 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or Section 5-8-6 of this Code and confined in the State correctional institutions or facilities if such juvenile has not been tried as an adult shall be eligible for aftercare release parole without regard to the length of time the person has been confined or whether the person has served any minimum term imposed. However, if a juvenile has been tried as an adult he or she shall only be eligible for parole or mandatory supervised release as an adult under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-4)

Sec. 3-3-4. Preparation for Parole Hearing.

(a) The Prisoner Review Board shall consider the parole of each eligible person committed to the Department of Corrections at least 30 days prior to the date he or she shall first become eligible for parole, and shall consider the aftercare release parole of each person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice as a delinquent at least 30 days prior to the expiration of the first year of confinement.

(b) A person eligible for parole or aftercare release shall, no less than 15 days in advance of his or her parole interview, prepare a parole or aftercare release plan in accordance with the rules of the Prisoner Review Board. The person shall be assisted in preparing his or her parole or aftercare release plan by personnel of the Department of Corrections, or the Department of Juvenile Justice in the case of a person committed to that Department, and may, for this purpose, be released on furlough under Article 11 or on authorized absence under Section 3-9-4. The appropriate Department shall also provide assistance in obtaining information and records helpful to the individual for his or her parole hearing. If the person eligible for parole or aftercare release has a petition or any written submissions prepared on his or her behalf by an attorney or other representative, the attorney or representative for the person eligible for parole or aftercare release must serve by certified mail the State's Attorney of the county where he or she was prosecuted with the petition or any written submissions 15 days after his or her parole interview. The State's Attorney shall provide the attorney for the person eligible for parole or aftercare release with a copy of his or her letter in opposition to parole or aftercare release via certified mail within 5 business days of the en banc hearing.

(c) Any member of the Board shall have access at all reasonable times to any committed person and to his or her master record file within the Department, and the Department shall furnish such a report to the Board concerning the conduct and character of any such person prior to his or her parole interview.

(d) In making its determination of parole or aftercare release, the Board shall consider:

(1) material transmitted to the Department of Juvenile Justice by the clerk of the committing court under Section 5-4-1 or Section 5-10 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(2) the report under Section 3-8-2 or 3-10-2;

(3) a report by the Department and any report by the chief administrative officer of the institution or facility;

(4) a parole or aftercare release progress report;

(5) a medical and psychological report, if requested by the Board;

(6) material in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means in the form of a recording submitted by the person whose parole or aftercare release is being considered;

(7) material in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means in the form of a recording or testimony submitted by the State's Attorney and the victim or a concerned citizen pursuant to the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act; and

(8) the person's eligibility for commitment under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(e) The prosecuting State's Attorney's office shall receive from the Board reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the parole or aftercare release interview and may submit relevant information by oral argument or testimony of victims and concerned citizens, or both, in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means or in the form of a recording to the Board for its consideration. Upon written request of the State's Attorney's office, the Prisoner Review Board shall hear protests to parole, or aftercare release, except in counties of 1,500,000 or more inhabitants where there shall be standing objections to all such petitions. If a State's Attorney who represents a county of less than 1,500,000 inhabitants requests a protest hearing, the inmate's counsel or other representative shall also receive notice of such request. This hearing shall take place the month following the inmate's parole or aftercare release interview. If the inmate's parole or aftercare release interview is rescheduled then the Prisoner Review Board shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the new date. The person eligible for parole or aftercare release shall be heard at the next scheduled en banc hearing date. If the case is to be continued, the State's Attorney's office and the attorney or representative for the person eligible for parole or aftercare release will be notified of any continuance within 5 business days. The State's Attorney may waive the written notice.

(f) The victim of the violent crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced shall receive notice of a parole or aftercare release hearing as provided in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of Section 4.5 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(g) Any recording considered under the provisions of subsection (d)(6), (d)(7) or (e) of this Section shall be in the form designated by the Board. Such recording shall be both visual and aural. Every voice on the recording and person present shall be identified and the recording shall contain either a visual or aural statement of the person submitting such recording, the date of the recording and the name of the person whose parole or aftercare release eligibility is being considered. Such recordings shall be retained by the Board and shall be deemed to be submitted at any subsequent parole or aftercare release hearing if the victim or State's Attorney submits in writing a declaration clearly identifying such recording as representing the present position of the victim or State's Attorney regarding the issues to be considered at the parole or aftercare release hearing.

(h) The Board shall not release any material to the inmate, the inmate's attorney, any third party, or any other person containing any information from the victim or from a person related to the victim by blood, adoption, or marriage who has written objections, testified at any hearing, or submitted audio or visual objections to the inmate's parole, or aftercare release, unless provided with a waiver from that objecting party.

(Source: P.A. 96-875, eff. 1-22-10; 97-523, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1075, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12; revised 9-20-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-5)

Sec. 3-3-5. Hearing and Determination.

(a) The Prisoner Review Board shall meet as often as need requires to consider the cases of persons eligible for parole and aftercare release. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of this Act, the Prisoner Review Board may meet and order its actions in panels of 3 or more members. The action of a majority of the panel shall be the action of the Board. In consideration of persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the panel shall have at least a majority of members experienced in juvenile matters.

(b) If the person under consideration for parole or aftercare release is in the custody of the Department, at least one member of the Board shall interview him or her, and a report of that interview shall be available for the Board's consideration. However, in the discretion of the Board, the interview need not be conducted if a psychiatric examination determines that the person could not meaningfully contribute to the Board's consideration. The Board may in its discretion parole or release on aftercare a person who is then outside the jurisdiction on his or her record without an interview. The Board need not hold a hearing or interview a person who is paroled or released on aftercare under paragraphs (d) or (e) of this Section or released on Mandatory release under Section 3-3-10.

(c) The Board shall not parole or release a person eligible for parole or aftercare release if it determines that:

(1) there is a substantial risk that he or she will not conform to reasonable conditions of parole or aftercare release; or

(2) his or her release at that time would deprecate the seriousness of his or her offense or promote disrespect for the law; or

(3) his or her release would have a substantially adverse effect on institutional discipline.

(d) A person committed under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 who has not been sooner released shall be released on aftercare paroled on or before his or her 20th birthday to begin serving a period of aftercare release parole under Section 3-3-8.

(e) A person who has served the maximum term of imprisonment imposed at the time of sentencing less time credit for good behavior shall be released on parole to serve a period of parole under Section 5-8-1.

(f) The Board shall render its decision within a reasonable time after hearing and shall state the basis therefor both in the records of the Board and in written notice to the person on whose application it has acted. In its decision, the Board shall set the person's time for parole or aftercare release, or if it denies parole or aftercare release it shall provide for a rehearing not less frequently than once every year, except that the Board may, after denying parole, schedule a rehearing no later than 5 years from the date of the parole denial, if the Board finds that it is not reasonable to expect that parole would be granted at a hearing prior to the scheduled rehearing date. If the Board shall parole or release a person, and, if he or she is not released within 90 days from the effective date of the order granting parole, or aftercare release, the matter shall be returned to the Board for review.

(f-1) If the Board paroles or releases a person who is eligible for commitment as a sexually violent person, the effective date of the Board's order shall be stayed for 90 days for the purpose of evaluation and proceedings under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(g) The Board shall maintain a registry of decisions in which parole has been granted, which shall include the name and case number of the prisoner, the highest charge for which the prisoner was sentenced, the length of sentence imposed, the date of the sentence, the date of the parole, and the basis for the decision of the Board to grant parole and the vote of the Board on any such decisions. The registry shall be made available for public inspection and copying during business hours and shall be a public record pursuant to the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act.

(h) The Board shall promulgate rules regarding the exercise of its discretion under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-875, eff. 1-22-10; 97-522, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1075, eff. 8-24-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-7)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of Parole or Mandatory Supervised Release.

(a) The conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole, aftercare release, and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole, aftercare release, or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of aftercare releasees, to the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(4) permit the agent or aftercare specialist to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent or aftercare specialist to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of aftercare releasees, to the Department of Juvenile Justice as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody and immediately report service or notification of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-988), wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child committed on or after August 11, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-236) when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the defendant used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the person's parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-640), not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(7.11) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, aftercare specialist, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent or aftercare specialist;

(7.12) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(7.13) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of aftercare releasees, the Department of Juvenile Justice before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of aftercare releasees, the Department of Juvenile Justice before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections or an aftercare specialist of the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent or aftercare specialist and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections, or in the case of an aftercare releasee, by his or her aftercare specialist or of the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent or aftercare specialist that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent or aftercare specialist may be modified at any time, as the agent or aftercare specialist deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code;

(18) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory; a no contact order issued pursuant to the Civil No Contact Order Act; or a no contact order issued pursuant to the Stalking No Contact Order Act; and

(19) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense, be:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Board may in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his or her dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) (blank);

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.6) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent or aftercare specialist, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent or aftercare specialist; and

(8) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of an aftercare releasee, the Department of Juvenile Justice prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of an aftercare releasee, the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of an aftercare releasee, the Department of Juvenile Justice. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of an aftercare releasee, the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of an aftercare releasee, the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of an aftercare releasee, the Department of Juvenile Justice and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of an aftercare releasee, the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections or, in the case of an aftercare releasee, the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer or aftercare specialist before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his or her release, and he or she shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer or, in the case of an aftercare releasee, aftercare specialist in charge of his or her supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-236, eff. 8-11-09; 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1539, eff. 3-4-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-50, eff. 6-28-11; 97-531, eff. 1-1-12; 97-560, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-8)

Sec. 3-3-8. Length of parole, aftercare release, and mandatory supervised release; discharge.)

(a) The length of parole for a person sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977 and the length of mandatory supervised release for those sentenced under the law in effect on and after such effective date shall be as set out in Section 5-8-1 unless sooner terminated under paragraph (b) of this Section. The aftercare release parole period of a juvenile committed to the Department under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall extend until he or she is 21 years of age unless sooner terminated under paragraph (b) of this Section.

(b) The Prisoner Review Board may enter an order releasing and discharging one from parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, and his or her commitment to the Department, when it determines that he or she is likely to remain at liberty without committing another offense.

(b-1) Provided that the subject is in compliance with the terms and conditions of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, the Prisoner Review Board may reduce the period of a parolee or releasee's parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release by 90 days upon the parolee or releasee receiving a high school diploma or upon passage of the high school level Test of General Educational Development during the period of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. This reduction in the period of a subject's term of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall be available only to subjects who have not previously earned a high school diploma or who have not previously passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development.

(c) The order of discharge shall become effective upon entry of the order of the Board. The Board shall notify the clerk of the committing court of the order. Upon receipt of such copy, the clerk shall make an entry on the record judgment that the sentence or commitment has been satisfied pursuant to the order.

(d) Rights of the person discharged under this Section shall be restored under Section 5-5-5. This Section is subject to Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 97-531, eff. 1-1-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-9)

Sec. 3-3-9. Violations; changes of conditions; preliminary hearing; revocation of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release; revocation hearing.

(a) If prior to expiration or termination of the term of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, a person violates a condition set by the Prisoner Review Board or a condition of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release under Section 3-3-7 of this Code to govern that term, the Board may:

(1) continue the existing term, with or without modifying or enlarging the conditions; or

(2) parole or release the person to a half-way house; or

(3) revoke the parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release and reconfine the person for a term computed in the following manner:

(i) (A) For those sentenced under the law in effect prior to this amendatory Act of 1977, the recommitment shall be for any portion of the imposed maximum term of imprisonment or confinement which had not been served at the time of parole and the parole term, less the time elapsed between the parole of the person and the commission of the violation for which parole was revoked;

(B) Except as set forth in paragraph (C), for those subject to mandatory supervised release under paragraph (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code, the recommitment shall be for the total mandatory supervised release term, less the time elapsed between the release of the person and the commission of the violation for which mandatory supervised release is revoked. The Board may also order that a prisoner serve up to one year of the sentence imposed by the court which was not served due to the accumulation of sentence credit;

(C) For those subject to sex offender supervision under clause (d)(4) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code, the reconfinement period for violations of clauses (a)(3) through (b-1)(15) of Section 3-3-7 shall not exceed 2 years from the date of reconfinement; .

(ii) the person shall be given credit against the term of reimprisonment or reconfinement for time spent in custody since he or she was paroled or released which has not been credited against another sentence or period of confinement;

(iii) persons committed under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may be continued under the existing term of aftercare release parole with or without modifying the conditions of aftercare release parole, paroled or released on aftercare release to a group home or other residential facility, or recommitted until the age of 21 unless sooner terminated;

(iv) this Section is subject to the release under supervision and the reparole and rerelease provisions of Section 3-3-10.

(b) The Board may revoke parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for violation of a condition for the duration of the term and for any further period which is reasonably necessary for the adjudication of matters arising before its expiration. The issuance of a warrant of arrest for an alleged violation of the conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall toll the running of the term until the final determination of the charge. When parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release is not revoked that period shall be credited to the term, unless a community-based sanction is imposed as an alternative to revocation and reincarceration, including a diversion established by the Illinois Department of Corrections Parole Services Unit prior to the holding of a preliminary parole revocation hearing. Parolees who are diverted to a community-based sanction shall serve the entire term of parole or mandatory supervised release, if otherwise appropriate.

(b-5) The Board shall revoke parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for violation of the conditions prescribed in paragraph (7.6) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7.

(c) A person charged with violating a condition of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall have a preliminary hearing before a hearing officer designated by the Board to determine if there is cause to hold the person for a revocation hearing. However, no preliminary hearing need be held when revocation is based upon new criminal charges and a court finds probable cause on the new criminal charges or when the revocation is based upon a new criminal conviction and a certified copy of that conviction is available.

(d) Parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall not be revoked without written notice to the offender setting forth the violation of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release charged against him or her.

(e) A hearing on revocation shall be conducted before at least one member of the Prisoner Review Board. The Board may meet and order its actions in panels of 3 or more members. The action of a majority of the panel shall be the action of the Board. In consideration of persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the member hearing the matter and at least a majority of the panel shall be experienced in juvenile matters. A record of the hearing shall be made. At the hearing the offender shall be permitted to:

(1) appear and answer the charge; and

(2) bring witnesses on his or her behalf.

(f) The Board shall either revoke parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release or order the person's term continued with or without modification or enlargement of the conditions.

(g) Parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall not be revoked for failure to make payments under the conditions of parole or release unless the Board determines that such failure is due to the offender's willful refusal to pay.

(Source: P.A. 96-1271, eff. 1-1-11; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-10)

Sec. 3-3-10. Eligibility after Revocation; Release under Supervision.

(a) A person whose parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release has been revoked may be reparoled or rereleased by the Board at any time to the full parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release term under Section 3-3-8, except that the time which the person shall remain subject to the Board shall not exceed (1) the imposed maximum term of imprisonment or confinement and the parole term for those sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977 or (2) the term of imprisonment imposed by the court and the mandatory supervised release term for those sentenced under the law in effect on and after such effective date.

(b) If the Board sets no earlier release date:

(1) A person sentenced for any violation of law which occurred before January 1, 1973, shall be released under supervision 6 months prior to the expiration of his or her maximum sentence of imprisonment less good time credit under Section 3-6-3.

(2) Any person who has violated the conditions of his or her parole or aftercare release and been reconfined under Section 3-3-9 shall be released under supervision 6 months prior to the expiration of the term of his or her reconfinement under paragraph (a) of Section 3-3-9 less good time credit under Section 3-6-3. This paragraph shall not apply to persons serving terms of mandatory supervised release.

(3) Nothing herein shall require the release of a person who has violated his or her parole within 6 months of the date when his or her release under this Section would otherwise be mandatory.

(c) Persons released under this Section shall be subject to Sections 3-3-6, 3-3-7, 3-3-9, 3-14-1, 3-14-2, 3-14-2.5, 3-14-3, and 3-14-4.

(Source: P.A. 94-165, eff. 7-11-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-4-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-4-3)

Sec. 3-4-3. Funds and Property of Persons Committed.

(a) The Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice shall establish accounting records with accounts for each person who has or receives money while in an institution or facility of that Department and it shall allow the withdrawal and disbursement of money by the person under rules and regulations of that Department. Any interest or other income from moneys deposited with the Department by a resident of the Department of Juvenile Justice in excess of $200 shall accrue to the individual's account, or in balances up to $200 shall accrue to the Residents' Benefit Fund. For an individual in an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections the interest shall accrue to the Residents' Benefit Fund. The Department shall disburse all moneys so held no later than the person's final discharge from the Department. Moneys in the account of a committed person who files a lawsuit determined frivolous under Article XXII of the Code of Civil Procedure shall be deducted to pay for the filing fees and cost of the suit as provided in that Article. The Department shall under rules and regulations record and receipt all personal property not allowed to committed persons. The Department shall return such property to the individual no later than the person's release on parole or aftercare.

(b) Any money held in accounts of committed persons separated from the Department by death, discharge, or unauthorized absence and unclaimed for a period of 1 year thereafter by the person or his legal representative shall be transmitted to the State Treasurer who shall deposit it into the General Revenue Fund. Articles of personal property of persons so separated may be sold or used by the Department if unclaimed for a period of 1 year for the same purpose. Clothing, if unclaimed within 30 days, may be used or disposed of as determined by the Department.

(c) Forty percent of the profits on sales from commissary stores shall be expended by the Department for the special benefit of committed persons which shall include but not be limited to the advancement of inmate payrolls, for the special benefit of employees, and for the advancement or reimbursement of employee travel, provided that amounts expended for employees shall not exceed the amount of profits derived from sales made to employees by such commissaries, as determined by the Department. The remainder of the profits from sales from commissary stores must be used first to pay for wages and benefits of employees covered under a collective bargaining agreement who are employed at commissary facilities of the Department and then to pay the costs of dietary staff.

(d) The Department shall confiscate any unauthorized currency found in the possession of a committed person. The Department shall transmit the confiscated currency to the State Treasurer who shall deposit it into the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-5-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-5-1)

Sec. 3-5-1. Master Record File.

(a) The Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice shall maintain a master record file on each person committed to it, which shall contain the following information:

(1) all information from the committing court;

(2) reception summary;

(3) evaluation and assignment reports and recommendations;

(4) reports as to program assignment and progress;

(5) reports of disciplinary infractions and disposition, including tickets and Administrative Review Board action;

(6) any parole or aftercare release plan;

(7) any parole or aftercare release reports;

(8) the date and circumstances of final discharge;

(9) criminal history;

(10) current and past gang affiliations and ranks;

(11) information regarding associations and family relationships;

(12) any grievances filed and responses to those grievances; and

(13) other information that the respective Department determines is relevant to the secure confinement and rehabilitation of the committed person.

(b) All files shall be confidential and access shall be limited to authorized personnel of the respective Department. Personnel of other correctional, welfare or law enforcement agencies may have access to files under rules and regulations of the respective Department. The respective Department shall keep a record of all outside personnel who have access to files, the files reviewed, any file material copied, and the purpose of access. If the respective Department or the Prisoner Review Board makes a determination under this Code which affects the length of the period of confinement or commitment, the committed person and his counsel shall be advised of factual information relied upon by the respective Department or Board to make the determination, provided that the Department or Board shall not be required to advise a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice any such information which in the opinion of the Department of Juvenile Justice or Board would be detrimental to his treatment or rehabilitation.

(c) The master file shall be maintained at a place convenient to its use by personnel of the respective Department in charge of the person. When custody of a person is transferred from the Department to another department or agency, a summary of the file shall be forwarded to the receiving agency with such other information required by law or requested by the agency under rules and regulations of the respective Department.

(d) The master file of a person no longer in the custody of the respective Department shall be placed on inactive status and its use shall be restricted subject to rules and regulations of the Department.

(e) All public agencies may make available to the respective Department on request any factual data not otherwise privileged as a matter of law in their possession in respect to individuals committed to the respective Department.

(Source: P.A. 97-696, eff. 6-22-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-10-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-10-6)

Sec. 3-10-6. Return and Release from Department of Human Services.

(a) The Department of Human Services shall return to the Department of Juvenile Justice any person committed to a facility of the Department under paragraph (a) of Section 3-10-5 when the person no longer meets the standard for admission of a minor to a mental health facility, or is suitable for administrative admission to a developmental disability facility.

(b) If a person returned to the Department of Juvenile Justice under paragraph (a) of this Section has not had an aftercare release a parole hearing within the preceding 6 months, he or she shall have an aftercare release a parole hearing within 45 days after his or her return.

(c) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall notify the Secretary of Human Services of the expiration of the commitment or sentence of any person transferred to the Department of Human Services under Section 3-10-5. If the Department of Human Services determines that such person transferred to it under paragraph (a) of Section 3-10-5 requires further hospitalization, it shall file a petition for commitment of such person under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(d) The Department of Human Services shall release under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, any person transferred to it pursuant to paragraph (c) of Section 3-10-5, whose sentence has expired and whom it deems no longer meets the standard for admission of a minor to a mental health facility, or is suitable for administrative admission to a developmental disability facility. A person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and transferred to the Department of Human Services under paragraph (c) of Section 3-10-5 shall be released to the committing juvenile court when the Department of Human Services determines that he or she no longer requires hospitalization for treatment.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-1-1.1 new)

Sec. 5-1-1.1. Aftercare release. "Aftercare release" means the conditional and revocable release of a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, under the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(730 ILCS 5/5-1-16) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-1-16)

Sec. 5-1-16. Parole.

"Parole" means the conditional and revocable release of a person committed to the Department of Corrections person under the supervision of a parole officer.

(Source: P.A. 78-939.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-3)

Sec. 5-4-3. Specimens; genetic marker groups.

(a) Any person convicted of, found guilty under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for, or who received a disposition of court supervision for, a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense, convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law, convicted or found guilty of any offense requiring registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, found guilty or given supervision for any offense classified as a felony under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, convicted or found guilty of, under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, any offense requiring registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or committed as a sexually violent person under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall, regardless of the sentence or disposition imposed, be required to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section, provided such person is:

(1) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after July 1, 1990 and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, periodic imprisonment, fine, probation, conditional discharge or any other form of sentence, or given a disposition of court supervision for the offense;

(1.5) found guilty or given supervision under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after January 1, 1997;

(2) ordered institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person on or after July 1, 1990;

(3) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense before July 1, 1990 and is presently confined as a result of such conviction in any State correctional facility or county jail or is presently serving a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or periodic imprisonment as a result of such conviction;

(3.5) convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law or found guilty or given supervision for such an offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on or after August 22, 2002;

(4) presently institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person or presently institutionalized as a person found guilty but mentally ill of a sexual offense or attempt to commit a sexual offense; or

(4.5) ordered committed as a sexually violent person on or after the effective date of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(a-1) Any person incarcerated in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice on or after August 22, 2002, whether for a term of years, natural life, or a sentence of death, who has not yet submitted a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to submit a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue prior to his or her final discharge, or release on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, or within 6 months from August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426), whichever is sooner. A person incarcerated on or after August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426) shall be required to submit a specimen within 45 days of incarceration, or prior to his or her final discharge, or release on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, whichever is sooner. These specimens shall be placed into the State or national DNA database, to be used in accordance with other provisions of this Section, by the Illinois State Police.

(a-2) Any person sentenced to life imprisonment in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or sentenced to death after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police. Any person serving a sentence of life imprisonment in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or any person who is under a sentence of death on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue upon request at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-3) Any person seeking transfer to or residency in Illinois under Sections 3-3-11.05 through 3-3-11.5 of this Code, the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision, or the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after transfer to or residency in Illinois at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-3.1) Any person required by an order of the court to submit a DNA specimen shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after the court order at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-3.2) On or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383), any person arrested for any of the following offenses, after an indictment has been returned by a grand jury, or following a hearing pursuant to Section 109-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 and a judge finds there is probable cause to believe the arrestee has committed one of the designated offenses, or an arrestee has waived a preliminary hearing shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 14 days after such indictment or hearing at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police:

(A) first degree murder;

(B) home invasion;

(C) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(D) aggravated criminal sexual assault; or

(E) criminal sexual assault.

(a-3.3) Any person required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act, regardless of the date of conviction as set forth in subsection (c-5.2) shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within the time period prescribed in subsection (c-5.2) at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-5) Any person who was otherwise convicted of or received a disposition of court supervision for any other offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or who was found guilty or given supervision for such a violation under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, may, regardless of the sentence imposed, be required by an order of the court to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(b) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(1.5), (a)(2), (a)(3.5), and (a-5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(c) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(4.5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to provide such specimens prior to final discharge or within 6 months from August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426), whichever is sooner. These specimens shall be placed into the State or national DNA database, to be used in accordance with other provisions of this Act, by the Illinois State Police.

(c-5) Any person required by paragraph (a-3) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall, where feasible, be required to provide the specimens before being accepted for conditioned residency in Illinois under the interstate compact or agreement, but no later than 45 days after arrival in this State.

(c-5.2) Unless it is determined that a registered sex offender has previously submitted a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue that has been placed into the State DNA database, a person registering as a sex offender shall be required to submit a specimen at the time of his or her initial registration pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act or, for a person registered as a sex offender on or prior to January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383), within one year of January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383) or at the time of his or her next required registration.

(c-6) The Illinois Department of State Police may determine which type of specimen or specimens, blood, saliva, or tissue, is acceptable for submission to the Division of Forensic Services for analysis. The Illinois Department of State Police may require the submission of fingerprints from anyone required to give a specimen under this Act.

(d) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of blood specimens. The collection of specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a physician authorized to practice medicine, a registered nurse or other qualified person trained in venipuncture may withdraw blood for the purposes of this Act. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-1) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of saliva specimens. The collection of saliva specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting saliva may collect saliva for the purposes of this Section. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-2) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of tissue specimens. The collection of tissue specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting tissue may collect tissue for the purposes of this Section. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-5) To the extent that funds are available, the Illinois Department of State Police shall contract with qualified personnel and certified laboratories for the collection, analysis, and categorization of known specimens, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section.

(d-6) Agencies designated by the Illinois Department of State Police and the Illinois Department of State Police may contract with third parties to provide for the collection or analysis of DNA, or both, of an offender's blood, saliva, and tissue specimens, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section.

(e) The genetic marker groupings shall be maintained by the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services.

(f) The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be confidential and shall be released only to peace officers of the United States, of other states or territories, of the insular possessions of the United States, of foreign countries duly authorized to receive the same, to all peace officers of the State of Illinois and to all prosecutorial agencies, and to defense counsel as provided by Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be used only for (i) valid law enforcement identification purposes and as required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation for participation in the National DNA database, (ii) technology validation purposes, (iii) a population statistics database, (iv) quality assurance purposes if personally identifying information is removed, (v) assisting in the defense of the criminally accused pursuant to Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or (vi) identifying and assisting in the prosecution of a person who is suspected of committing a sexual assault as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act. Notwithstanding any other statutory provision to the contrary, all information obtained under this Section shall be maintained in a single State data base, which may be uploaded into a national database, and which information may be subject to expungement only as set forth in subsection (f-1).

(f-1) Upon receipt of notification of a reversal of a conviction based on actual innocence, or of the granting of a pardon pursuant to Section 12 of Article V of the Illinois Constitution, if that pardon document specifically states that the reason for the pardon is the actual innocence of an individual whose DNA record has been stored in the State or national DNA identification index in accordance with this Section by the Illinois Department of State Police, the DNA record shall be expunged from the DNA identification index, and the Department shall by rule prescribe procedures to ensure that the record and any specimens, analyses, or other documents relating to such record, whether in the possession of the Department or any law enforcement or police agency, or any forensic DNA laboratory, including any duplicates or copies thereof, are destroyed and a letter is sent to the court verifying the expungement is completed. For specimens required to be collected prior to conviction, unless the individual has other charges or convictions that require submission of a specimen, the DNA record for an individual shall be expunged from the DNA identification databases and the specimen destroyed upon receipt of a certified copy of a final court order for each charge against an individual in which the charge has been dismissed, resulted in acquittal, or that the charge was not filed within the applicable time period. The Department shall by rule prescribe procedures to ensure that the record and any specimens in the possession or control of the Department are destroyed and a letter is sent to the court verifying the expungement is completed.

(f-5) Any person who intentionally uses genetic marker grouping analysis information, or any other information derived from a DNA specimen, beyond the authorized uses as provided under this Section, or any other Illinois law, is guilty of a Class 4 felony, and shall be subject to a fine of not less than $5,000.

(f-6) The Illinois Department of State Police may contract with third parties for the purposes of implementing this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section. Any other party contracting to carry out the functions of this Section shall be subject to the same restrictions and requirements of this Section insofar as applicable, as the Illinois Department of State Police, and to any additional restrictions imposed by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(g) For the purposes of this Section, "qualifying offense" means any of the following:

(1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-11, 11-18.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(1.1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 9-1, 9-2, 10-1, 10-2, 12-11, 12-11.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-6, 19-1, 19-2, or 19-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for which persons are convicted on or after July 1, 2001;

(2) any former statute of this State which defined a felony sexual offense;

(3) (blank);

(4) any inchoate violation of Section 9-3.1, 9-3.4, 11-9.3, 12-7.3, or 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(5) any violation or inchoate violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(g-5) (Blank).

(h) The Illinois Department of State Police shall be the State central repository for all genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act. The Illinois Department of State Police may promulgate rules for the form and manner of the collection of blood, saliva, or tissue specimens and other procedures for the operation of this Act. The provisions of the Administrative Review Law shall apply to all actions taken under the rules so promulgated.

(i) (1) A person required to provide a blood, saliva, or tissue specimen shall cooperate with the collection of the specimen and any deliberate act by that person intended to impede, delay or stop the collection of the blood, saliva, or tissue specimen is a Class 4 felony.

(2) In the event that a person's DNA specimen is not adequate for any reason, the person shall provide another DNA specimen for analysis. Duly authorized law enforcement and corrections personnel may employ reasonable force in cases in which an individual refuses to provide a DNA specimen required under this Act.

(j) Any person required by subsection (a), or any person who was previously required by subsection (a-3.2), to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police for analysis and categorization into genetic marker grouping, in addition to any other disposition, penalty, or fine imposed, shall pay an analysis fee of $250. If the analysis fee is not paid at the time of sentencing, the court shall establish a fee schedule by which the entire amount of the analysis fee shall be paid in full, such schedule not to exceed 24 months from the time of conviction. The inability to pay this analysis fee shall not be the sole ground to incarcerate the person.

(k) All analysis and categorization fees provided for by subsection (j) shall be regulated as follows:

(1) The State Offender DNA Identification System Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury.

(2) All fees shall be collected by the clerk of the court and forwarded to the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund for deposit. The clerk of the circuit court may retain the amount of $10 from each collected analysis fee to offset administrative costs incurred in carrying out the clerk's responsibilities under this Section.

(3) Fees deposited into the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund shall be used by Illinois State Police crime laboratories as designated by the Director of State Police. These funds shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing laws and shall be designated for the exclusive use of State crime laboratories. These uses may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(A) Costs incurred in providing analysis and genetic marker categorization as required by subsection (d).

(B) Costs incurred in maintaining genetic marker groupings as required by subsection (e).

(C) Costs incurred in the purchase and maintenance of equipment for use in performing analyses.

(D) Costs incurred in continuing research and development of new techniques for analysis and genetic marker categorization.

(E) Costs incurred in continuing education, training, and professional development of forensic scientists regularly employed by these laboratories.

(l) The failure of a person to provide a specimen, or of any person or agency to collect a specimen, shall in no way alter the obligation of the person to submit such specimen, or the authority of the Illinois Department of State Police or persons designated by the Department to collect the specimen, or the authority of the Illinois Department of State Police to accept, analyze and maintain the specimen or to maintain or upload results of genetic marker grouping analysis information into a State or national database.

(m) If any provision of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is held unconstitutional or otherwise invalid, the remainder of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is not affected.

(n) Neither the Department of State Police, the Division of Forensic Services, nor any laboratory of the Division of Forensic Services may contract out forensic testing for the purpose of an active investigation or a matter pending before a court of competent jurisdiction without the written consent of the prosecuting agency. For the purposes of this subsection (n), "forensic testing" includes the analysis of physical evidence in an investigation or other proceeding for the prosecution of a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or for matters adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and includes the use of forensic databases and databanks, including DNA, firearm, and fingerprint databases, and expert testimony.

(o) Mistake does not invalidate a database match. The detention, arrest, or conviction of a person based upon a database match or database information is not invalidated if it is determined that the specimen was obtained or placed in the database by mistake.

(p) This Section may be referred to as the Illinois DNA Database Law of 2011.

(Source: P.A. 96-426, eff. 8-13-09; 96-642, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-383, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8A-3)

Sec. 5-8A-3. Application.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (d), a person charged with or convicted of an excluded offense may not be placed in an electronic home detention program, except for bond pending trial or appeal or while on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.

(b) A person serving a sentence for a conviction of a Class 1 felony, other than an excluded offense, may be placed in an electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 90 days of incarceration.

(c) A person serving a sentence for a conviction of a Class X felony, other than an excluded offense, may be placed in an electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 90 days of incarceration, provided that the person was sentenced on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993 and provided that the court has not prohibited the program for the person in the sentencing order.

(d) A person serving a sentence for conviction of an offense other than for predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse, may be placed in an electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 12 months of incarceration, provided that (i) the person is 55 years of age or older; (ii) the person is serving a determinate sentence; (iii) the person has served at least 25% of the sentenced prison term; and (iv) placement in an electronic home detention program is approved by the Prisoner Review Board.

(e) A person serving a sentence for conviction of a Class 2, 3 or 4 felony offense which is not an excluded offense may be placed in an electronic home detention program pursuant to Department administrative directives.

(f) Applications for electronic home detention may include the following:

(1) pretrial or pre-adjudicatory detention;

(2) probation;

(3) conditional discharge;

(4) periodic imprisonment;

(5) parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release;

(6) work release;

(7) furlough or

(8) post-trial incarceration.

(g) A person convicted of an offense described in clause (4) or (5) of subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code shall be placed in an electronic home detention program for at least the first 2 years of the person's mandatory supervised release term.

(Source: P.A. 91-279, eff. 1-1-00.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8A-5)

Sec. 5-8A-5. Consent of the participant. Before entering an order for commitment for electronic home detention, the supervising authority shall inform the participant and other persons residing in the home of the nature and extent of the approved electronic monitoring devices by doing the following:

(A) Securing the written consent of the participant in the program to comply with the rules and regulations of the program as stipulated in subsections (A) through (I) of Section 5-8A-4.

(B) Where possible, securing the written consent of other persons residing in the home of the participant, including the person in whose name the telephone is registered, at the time of the order or commitment for electronic home detention is entered and acknowledge the nature and extent of approved electronic monitoring devices.

(C) Insure that the approved electronic devices be minimally intrusive upon the privacy of the participant and other persons residing in the home while remaining in compliance with subsections (B) through (D) of Section 5-8A-4.

(D) This Section does not apply to persons subject to Electronic Home Monitoring as a term or condition of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 90-399, eff. 1-1-98; 91-279, eff. 1-1-00.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-7)

Sec. 5-8A-7. Domestic violence surveillance program. If the Prisoner Review Board, Department of Corrections, or court (the supervising authority) orders electronic surveillance as a condition of parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, early release, probation, or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection or as a condition of bail for a person charged with a violation of an order of protection, the supervising authority shall use the best available global positioning technology to track domestic violence offenders. Best available technology must have real-time and interactive capabilities that facilitate the following objectives: (1) immediate notification to the supervising authority of a breach of a court ordered exclusion zone; (2) notification of the breach to the offender; and (3) communication between the supervising authority, law enforcement, and the victim, regarding the breach.

(Source: P.A. 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 96-688, eff. 8-25-09.)

Section 110. The Open Parole Hearings Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, and 35 as follows:

(730 ILCS 105/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1655)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Applicant" means an inmate who is being considered for parole or aftercare release by the Prisoner Review Board.

(a-1) "Aftercare releasee" means a person released from the Department of Juvenile Justice on aftercare release subject to aftercare revocation proceedings.

(b) "Board" means the Prisoner Review Board as established in Section 3-3-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(c) "Parolee" means a person subject to parole revocation proceedings.

(d) "Parole or aftercare release hearing" means the formal hearing and determination of an inmate being considered for release from incarceration on community supervision.

(e) "Parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release revocation hearing" means the formal hearing and determination of allegations that a parolee, aftercare releasee, or mandatory supervised releasee has violated the conditions of his or her release agreement.

(f) "Victim" means a victim or witness of a violent crime as defined in subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act, or any person legally related to the victim by blood, marriage, adoption, or guardianship, or any friend of the victim, or any concerned citizen.

(g) "Violent crime" means a crime defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-299, eff. 8-11-11.)

(730 ILCS 105/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 1660)

Sec. 10. Victim's statements.

(a) Upon request of the victim, the State's Attorney shall forward a copy of any statement presented at the time of trial to the Prisoner Review Board to be considered at the time of a parole or aftercare release hearing.

(b) The victim may enter a statement either oral, written, on video tape, or other electronic means in the form and manner described by the Prisoner Review Board to be considered at the time of a parole or aftercare release consideration hearing.

(Source: P.A. 87-224.)

(730 ILCS 105/15) (from Ch. 38, par. 1665)

Sec. 15. Open hearings.

(a) The Board may restrict the number of individuals allowed to attend parole or aftercare release or parole or aftercare release revocation hearings in accordance with confidentiality concerns of the juvenile or his or her representative, physical limitations, security requirements of the hearing facilities or those giving repetitive or cumulative testimony.

(b) The Board may deny admission or continued attendance at parole or aftercare release or parole or aftercare release revocation hearings to individuals who:

(1) threaten or present danger to the security of the institution in which the hearing is being held;

(2) threaten or present a danger to other attendees or participants; or

(3) disrupt the hearing.

(c) Upon formal action of a majority of the Board members present, the Board may close parole or aftercare release and parole or aftercare release revocation hearings in order to:

(1) deliberate upon the oral testimony and any other relevant information received from applicants, parolees, releasees, victims, or others; or

(2) provide applicants, releasees, and parolees the opportunity to challenge information other than that which if the person's identity were to be exposed would possibly subject them to bodily harm or death, which they believe detrimental to their parole or aftercare release determination hearing or revocation proceedings.

(Source: P.A. 87-224.)

(730 ILCS 105/20) (from Ch. 38, par. 1670)

Sec. 20. Finality of Board decisions. A Board decision concerning parole or aftercare release or parole or aftercare release revocation shall be final at the time the decision is delivered to the inmate, subject to any rehearing granted under Board rules.

(Source: P.A. 87-224.)

(730 ILCS 105/25) (from Ch. 38, par. 1675)

Sec. 25. Notification of future parole or aftercare release hearings.

(a) The Board shall notify the State's Attorney of the committing county of the pending hearing and the victim of all forthcoming parole or aftercare release hearings at least 15 days in advance. Written notification shall contain:

(1) notification of the place of the hearing;

(2) the date and approximate time of the hearing;

(3) their right to enter a statement, to appear in person, and to submit other information by video tape, tape recording, or other electronic means in the form and manner described by the Board or if a victim of a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of that Section.

Notification to the victims shall be at the last known address of the victim. It shall be the responsibility of the victim to notify the board of any changes in address and name.

(b) However, at any time the victim may request by a written certified statement that the Prisoner Review Board stop sending notice under this Section.

(c) (Blank).

(d) No later than 7 days after a parole hearing the Board shall send notice of its decision to the State's Attorney and victim. If parole or aftercare release is denied, the Board shall within a reasonable period of time notify the victim of the month and year of the next scheduled hearing.

(Source: P.A. 93-235, eff. 7-22-03.)

(730 ILCS 105/35) (from Ch. 38, par. 1685)

Sec. 35. Victim impact statements.

(a) The Board shall receive and consider victim impact statements.

(b) Victim impact statements either oral, written, video-taped, tape recorded or made by other electronic means shall not be considered public documents under provisions of the Freedom of Information Act.

(c) The inmate or his or her attorney shall be informed of the existence of a victim impact statement and its contents under provisions of Board rules. This shall not be construed to permit disclosure to an inmate of any information which might result in the risk of threats or physical harm to a victim or complaining witness.

(d) The inmate shall be given the opportunity to answer a victim impact statement, either orally or in writing.

(e) All written victim impact statements shall be part of the applicant's, releasee's, or parolee's parole file.

(Source: P.A. 97-299, eff. 8-11-11.)

Section 115. The Sex Offender Registration Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, and 8-5 as follows:

(730 ILCS 150/3)

Sec. 3. Duty to register.

(a) A sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predator shall, within the time period prescribed in subsections (b) and (c), register in person and provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. Such information shall include a current photograph, current address, current place of employment, the sex offender's or sexual predator's telephone number, including cellular telephone number, the employer's telephone number, school attended, all e-mail addresses, instant messaging identities, chat room identities, and other Internet communications identities that the sex offender uses or plans to use, all Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) registered or used by the sex offender, all blogs and other Internet sites maintained by the sex offender or to which the sex offender has uploaded any content or posted any messages or information, extensions of the time period for registering as provided in this Article and, if an extension was granted, the reason why the extension was granted and the date the sex offender was notified of the extension. The information shall also include a copy of the terms and conditions of parole or release signed by the sex offender and given to the sex offender by his or her supervising officer or aftercare specialist, in the case of an aftercare releasee, the county of conviction, license plate numbers for every vehicle registered in the name of the sex offender, the age of the sex offender at the time of the commission of the offense, the age of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, and any distinguishing marks located on the body of the sex offender. A sex offender convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall provide all Internet protocol (IP) addresses in his or her residence, registered in his or her name, accessible at his or her place of employment, or otherwise under his or her control or custody. If the sex offender is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the sex offender shall report to the registering agency whether he or she is living in a household with a child under 18 years of age who is not his or her own child, provided that his or her own child is not the victim of the sex offense. The sex offender or sexual predator shall register:

(1) with the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she resides or is temporarily domiciled for a period of time of 3 or more days, unless the municipality is the City of Chicago, in which case he or she shall register at the Chicago Police Department Headquarters; or

(2) with the sheriff in the county in which he or she resides or is temporarily domiciled for a period of time of 3 or more days in an unincorporated area or, if incorporated, no police chief exists.

If the sex offender or sexual predator is employed at or attends an institution of higher education, he or she shall also register:

(i) with:

(A) the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she is employed at or attends an institution of higher education, unless the municipality is the City of Chicago, in which case he or she shall register at the Chicago Police Department Headquarters; or

(B) the sheriff in the county in which he or she is employed or attends an institution of higher education located in an unincorporated area, or if incorporated, no police chief exists; and

(ii) with the public safety or security director of the institution of higher education which he or she is employed at or attends.

The registration fees shall only apply to the municipality or county of primary registration, and not to campus registration.

For purposes of this Article, the place of residence or temporary domicile is defined as any and all places where the sex offender resides for an aggregate period of time of 3 or more days during any calendar year. Any person required to register under this Article who lacks a fixed address or temporary domicile must notify, in person, the agency of jurisdiction of his or her last known address within 3 days after ceasing to have a fixed residence.

A sex offender or sexual predator who is temporarily absent from his or her current address of registration for 3 or more days shall notify the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of his or her current registration, including the itinerary for travel, in the manner provided in Section 6 of this Act for notification to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of change of address.

Any person who lacks a fixed residence must report weekly, in person, with the sheriff's office of the county in which he or she is located in an unincorporated area, or with the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she is located. The agency of jurisdiction will document each weekly registration to include all the locations where the person has stayed during the past 7 days.

The sex offender or sexual predator shall provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. That information shall include the sex offender's or sexual predator's current place of employment.

(a-5) An out-of-state student or out-of-state employee shall, within 3 days after beginning school or employment in this State, register in person and provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. Such information will include current place of employment, school attended, and address in state of residence. A sex offender convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall provide all Internet protocol (IP) addresses in his or her residence, registered in his or her name, accessible at his or her place of employment, or otherwise under his or her control or custody. The out-of-state student or out-of-state employee shall register:

(1) with:

(A) the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she attends school or is employed for a period of time of 5 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of more than 30 days during any calendar year, unless the municipality is the City of Chicago, in which case he or she shall register at the Chicago Police Department Headquarters; or

(B) the sheriff in the county in which he or she attends school or is employed for a period of time of 5 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of more than 30 days during any calendar year in an unincorporated area or, if incorporated, no police chief exists; and

(2) with the public safety or security director of the institution of higher education he or she is employed at or attends for a period of time of 5 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of more than 30 days during a calendar year.

The registration fees shall only apply to the municipality or county of primary registration, and not to campus registration.

The out-of-state student or out-of-state employee shall provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. That information shall include the out-of-state student's current place of school attendance or the out-of-state employee's current place of employment.

(a-10) Any law enforcement agency registering sex offenders or sexual predators in accordance with subsections (a) or (a-5) of this Section shall forward to the Attorney General a copy of sex offender registration forms from persons convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, including periodic and annual registrations under Section 6 of this Act.

(b) Any sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predator, regardless of any initial, prior, or other registration, shall, within 3 days of beginning school, or establishing a residence, place of employment, or temporary domicile in any county, register in person as set forth in subsection (a) or (a-5).

(c) The registration for any person required to register under this Article shall be as follows:

(1) Any person registered under the Habitual Child Sex Offender Registration Act or the Child Sex Offender Registration Act prior to January 1, 1996, shall be deemed initially registered as of January 1, 1996; however, this shall not be construed to extend the duration of registration set forth in Section 7.

(2) Except as provided in subsection (c)(2.1) or (c)(4), any person convicted or adjudicated prior to January 1, 1996, whose liability for registration under Section 7 has not expired, shall register in person prior to January 31, 1996.

(2.1) A sex offender or sexual predator, who has never previously been required to register under this Act, has a duty to register if the person has been convicted of any felony offense after July 1, 2011. A person who previously was required to register under this Act for a period of 10 years and successfully completed that registration period has a duty to register if: (i) the person has been convicted of any felony offense after July 1, 2011, and (ii) the offense for which the 10 year registration was served currently requires a registration period of more than 10 years. Notification of an offender's duty to register under this subsection shall be pursuant to Section 5-7 of this Act.

(2.5) Except as provided in subsection (c)(4), any person who has not been notified of his or her responsibility to register shall be notified by a criminal justice entity of his or her responsibility to register. Upon notification the person must then register within 3 days of notification of his or her requirement to register. Except as provided in subsection (c)(2.1), if notification is not made within the offender's 10 year registration requirement, and the Department of State Police determines no evidence exists or indicates the offender attempted to avoid registration, the offender will no longer be required to register under this Act.

(3) Except as provided in subsection (c)(4), any person convicted on or after January 1, 1996, shall register in person within 3 days after the entry of the sentencing order based upon his or her conviction.

(4) Any person unable to comply with the registration requirements of this Article because he or she is confined, institutionalized, or imprisoned in Illinois on or after January 1, 1996, shall register in person within 3 days of discharge, parole or release.

(5) The person shall provide positive identification and documentation that substantiates proof of residence at the registering address.

(6) The person shall pay a $100 initial registration fee and a $100 annual renewal fee. The fees shall be used by the registering agency for official purposes. The agency shall establish procedures to document receipt and use of the funds. The law enforcement agency having jurisdiction may waive the registration fee if it determines that the person is indigent and unable to pay the registration fee. Thirty-five dollars for the initial registration fee and $35 of the annual renewal fee shall be used by the registering agency for official purposes. Five dollars of the initial registration fee and $5 of the annual fee shall be deposited into the Sex Offender Management Board Fund under Section 19 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act. Money deposited into the Sex Offender Management Board Fund shall be administered by the Sex Offender Management Board and shall be used by the Board to comply with the provisions of the Sex Offender Management Board Act. Thirty dollars of the initial registration fee and $30 of the annual renewal fee shall be deposited into the Sex Offender Registration Fund and shall be used by the Department of State Police to maintain and update the Illinois State Police Sex Offender Registry. Thirty dollars of the initial registration fee and $30 of the annual renewal fee shall be deposited into the Attorney General Sex Offender Awareness, Training, and Education Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall be used by the Attorney General to administer the I-SORT program and to alert and educate the public, victims, and witnesses of their rights under various victim notification laws and for training law enforcement agencies, State's Attorneys, and medical providers of their legal duties concerning the prosecution and investigation of sex offenses.

(d) Within 3 days after obtaining or changing employment and, if employed on January 1, 2000, within 5 days after that date, a person required to register under this Section must report, in person to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, the business name and address where he or she is employed. If the person has multiple businesses or work locations, every business and work location must be reported to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 96-1094, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1096, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1097, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1102, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1104, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-155, eff 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-578, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1098, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(730 ILCS 150/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 224)

Sec. 4. Discharge of sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predator from Department of Corrections facility or other penal institution; duties of official in charge. Any sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predator, as defined by this Article, who is discharged, paroled or released from a Department of Corrections facility, a facility where such person was placed by the Department of Corrections or another penal institution, and whose liability for registration has not terminated under Section 7 shall, prior to discharge, parole or release from the facility or institution, be informed of his or her duty to register in person within 3 days of release by the facility or institution in which he or she was confined. The facility or institution shall also inform any person who must register that if he or she establishes a residence outside of the State of Illinois, is employed outside of the State of Illinois, or attends school outside of the State of Illinois, he or she must register in the new state within 3 days after establishing the residence, beginning employment, or beginning school.

The facility shall require the person to read and sign such form as may be required by the Department of State Police stating that the duty to register and the procedure for registration has been explained to him or her and that he or she understands the duty to register and the procedure for registration. The facility shall further advise the person in writing that the failure to register or other violation of this Article shall result in revocation of parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release or conditional release. The facility shall obtain information about where the person expects to reside, work, and attend school upon his or her discharge, parole or release and shall report the information to the Department of State Police. The facility shall give one copy of the form to the person and shall send one copy to each of the law enforcement agencies having jurisdiction where the person expects to reside, work, and attend school upon his or her discharge, parole or release and retain one copy for the files. Electronic data files which includes all notification form information and photographs of sex offenders being released from an Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice facility will be shared on a regular basis as determined between the Department of State Police, and the Department of Corrections, and Department of Juvenile Justice.

(Source: P.A. 94-168, eff. 1-1-06; 95-640, eff. 6-1-08.)

(730 ILCS 150/8-5)

Sec. 8-5. Verification requirements.

(a) Address verification. The agency having jurisdiction shall verify the address of sex offenders, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predators required to register with their agency at least once per year. The verification must be documented in LEADS in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police.

(a-5) Internet Protocol address verification. The agency having jurisdiction may verify the Internet protocol (IP) address of sex offenders, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, who are required to register with their agency under Section 3 of this Act. A copy of any such verification must be sent to the Attorney General for entrance in the Illinois Cyber-crimes Location Database pursuant to Section 5-4-3.2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b) Registration verification. The supervising officer or aftercare specialist, in the case of an aftercare releasee, shall, within 15 days of sentencing to probation or release from an Illinois Department of Corrections facility or other penal institution, contact the law enforcement agency in the jurisdiction in which the sex offender or sexual predator designated as his or her intended residence and verify compliance with the requirements of this Act. Revocation proceedings shall be immediately commenced against a sex offender or sexual predator on probation, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release who fails to comply with the requirements of this Act.

(c) In an effort to ensure that sexual predators and sex offenders who fail to respond to address-verification attempts or who otherwise abscond from registration are located in a timely manner, the Department of State Police shall share information with local law enforcement agencies. The Department shall use analytical resources to assist local law enforcement agencies to determine the potential whereabouts of any sexual predator or sex offender who fails to respond to address-verification attempts or who otherwise absconds from registration. The Department shall review and analyze all available information concerning any such predator or offender who fails to respond to address-verification attempts or who otherwise absconds from registration and provide the information to local law enforcement agencies in order to assist the agencies in locating and apprehending the sexual predator or sex offender.

(Source: P.A. 94-988, eff. 1-1-07; 95-579, eff. 6-1-08.)

Section 120. The Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 50 as follows:

(730 ILCS 154/15)

Sec. 15. Discharge of violent offender against youth. Discharge of violent offender against youth from Department of Corrections facility or other penal institution; duties of official in charge. Any violent offender against youth who is discharged, paroled, or released from a Department of Corrections facility, a facility where such person was placed by the Department of Corrections or another penal institution, and whose liability for registration has not terminated under Section 40 shall, prior to discharge, parole or release from the facility or institution, be informed of his or her duty to register in person within 5 days of release by the facility or institution in which he or she was confined. The facility or institution shall also inform any person who must register that if he or she establishes a residence outside of the State of Illinois, is employed outside of the State of Illinois, or attends school outside of the State of Illinois, he or she must register in the new state within 5 days after establishing the residence, beginning employment, or beginning school.

The facility shall require the person to read and sign such form as may be required by the Department of State Police stating that the duty to register and the procedure for registration has been explained to him or her and that he or she understands the duty to register and the procedure for registration. The facility shall further advise the person in writing that the failure to register or other violation of this Act shall result in revocation of parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release or conditional release. The facility shall obtain information about where the person expects to reside, work, and attend school upon his or her discharge, parole or release and shall report the information to the Department of State Police. The facility shall give one copy of the form to the person and shall send one copy to each of the law enforcement agencies having jurisdiction where the person expects to reside, work, and attend school upon his or her discharge, parole or release and retain one copy for the files. Electronic data files which includes all notification form information and photographs of violent offenders against youth being released from an Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice facility will be shared on a regular basis as determined between the Department of State Police, and the Department of Corrections and Department of Juvenile Justice.

(Source: P.A. 94-945, eff. 6-27-06.)

(730 ILCS 154/50)

Sec. 50. Verification requirements.

(a) The agency having jurisdiction shall verify the address of violent offenders against youth required to register with their agency at least once per year. The verification must be documented in LEADS in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police.

(b) The supervising officer or aftercare specialist, in the case of an aftercare releasee, shall, within 15 days of sentencing to probation or release from an Illinois Department of Corrections facility or other penal institution, contact the law enforcement agency in the jurisdiction which the violent offender against youth designated as his or her intended residence and verify compliance with the requirements of this Act. Revocation proceedings shall be immediately commenced against a violent offender against youth on probation, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release who fails to comply with the requirements of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-945, eff. 6-27-06.)

Section 125. The Stalking No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Sections 20, 115, and 117 as follows:

(740 ILCS 21/20)

Sec. 20. Commencement of action; filing fees.

(a) An action for a stalking no contact order is commenced:

(1) independently, by filing a petition for a stalking no contact order in any civil court, unless specific courts are designated by local rule or order; or

(2) in conjunction with a delinquency petition or a criminal prosecution, by filing a petition for a stalking no contact order under the same case number as the delinquency petition or criminal prosecution, to be granted during pre-trial release of a defendant, with any dispositional order issued under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or as a condition of release, supervision, conditional discharge, probation, periodic imprisonment, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, or in conjunction with imprisonment or a bond forfeiture warrant, provided that (i) the violation is alleged in an information, complaint, indictment, or delinquency petition on file and the alleged victim is a person protected by this Act, and (ii) the petition, which is filed by the State's Attorney, names a victim of the alleged crime as a petitioner.

(b) Withdrawal or dismissal of any petition for a stalking no contact order prior to adjudication where the petitioner is represented by the State shall operate as a dismissal without prejudice. No action for a stalking no contact order shall be dismissed because the respondent is being prosecuted for a crime against the petitioner. For any action commenced under item (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, dismissal of the conjoined case (or a finding of not guilty) shall not require dismissal of the action for a stalking no contact order; instead, it may be treated as an independent action and, if necessary and appropriate, transferred to a different court or division.

(c) No fee shall be charged by the clerk of the court for filing petitions or modifying or certifying orders. No fee shall be charged by the sheriff for service by the sheriff of a petition, rule, motion, or order in an action commenced under this Section.

(d) The court shall provide, through the office of the clerk of the court, simplified forms for filing of a petition under this Section by any person not represented by counsel.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/115)

Sec. 115. Notice of orders.

(a) Upon issuance of any stalking no contact order, the clerk shall immediately, or on the next court day if an emergency order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 95:

(1) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures; and

(2) provide a file stamped copy of the order to the respondent, if present, and to the petitioner.

(b) The clerk of the issuing judge shall, or the petitioner may, on the same day that a stalking no contact order is issued, file a certified copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records or charged with serving the order upon the respondent. If the order was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 95, the clerk shall, on the next court day, file a certified copy of the order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records. If the respondent, at the time of the issuance of the order, is committed to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or is on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records shall notify the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice within 48 hours of receipt of a copy of the stalking no contact order from the clerk of the issuing judge or the petitioner. Such notice shall include the name of the respondent, the respondent's IDOC or IDJJ inmate number, the respondent's date of birth, and the LEADS Record Index Number.

(c) Unless the respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon the respondent and file proof of such service in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent, however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or other persons defined in Section 117 may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in Section 117. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, it shall be served with the order or short form notification if such service is made by the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server.

(d) If the person against whom the stalking no contact order is issued is arrested and the written order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 95 and received by the custodial law enforcement agency before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody, the custodial law enforcement agent shall promptly serve the order upon the respondent or arrestee before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody. In no event shall detention of the respondent or arrestee be extended for hearing on the petition for stalking no contact order or receipt of the order issued under Section 95 of this Act.

(e) Any order extending, modifying, or revoking any stalking no contact order shall be promptly recorded, issued, and served as provided in this Section.

(f) Upon the request of the petitioner, within 24 hours of the issuance of a stalking no contact order, the clerk of the issuing judge shall send written notice of the order along with a certified copy of the order to any school, daycare, college, or university at which the petitioner is enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10; 97-904, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1017, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

(740 ILCS 21/117)

Sec. 117. Short form notification.

(a) Instead of personal service of a stalking no contact order under Section 115, a sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or personnel assigned by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release may serve a respondent with a short form notification. The short form notification must include the following items:

(1) The respondent's name.

(2) The respondent's date of birth, if known.

(3) The petitioner's name.

(4) The names of other protected parties.

(5) The date and county in which the stalking no contact order was filed.

(6) The court file number.

(7) The hearing date and time, if known.

(8) The conditions that apply to the respondent, either in checklist form or handwritten.

(b) The short form notification must contain the following notice in bold print:

"The order is now enforceable. You must report to the office of the sheriff or the office of the circuit court in (name of county) County to obtain a copy of the order. You are subject to arrest and may be charged with a misdemeanor or felony if you violate any of the terms of the order."

(c) Upon verification of the identity of the respondent and the existence of an unserved order against the respondent, a sheriff or other law enforcement official may detain the respondent for a reasonable time necessary to complete and serve the short form notification.

(d) When service is made by short form notification under this Section, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the service.

(e) The Attorney General shall make the short form notification form available to law enforcement agencies in this State.

(f) A single short form notification form may be used for orders of protection under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, stalking no contact orders under this Act, and civil no contact orders under the Civil No Contact Order Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1017, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 130. The Civil No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Sections 202, 216, 218, and 218.1 as follows:

(740 ILCS 22/202)

Sec. 202. Commencement of action; filing fees.

(a) An action for a civil no contact order is commenced:

(1) independently, by filing a petition for a civil no contact order in any civil court, unless specific courts are designated by local rule or order; or

(2) in conjunction with a delinquency petition or a criminal prosecution, by filing a petition for a civil no contact order under the same case number as the delinquency petition or criminal prosecution, to be granted during pre-trial release of a defendant, with any dispositional order issued under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or as a condition of release, supervision, conditional discharge, probation, periodic imprisonment, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, or in conjunction with imprisonment or a bond forfeiture warrant, provided that (i) the violation is alleged in an information, complaint, indictment, or delinquency petition on file and the alleged victim is a person protected by this Act, and (ii) the petition, which is filed by the State's Attorney, names a victim of the alleged crime as a petitioner.

(b) Withdrawal or dismissal of any petition for a civil no contact order prior to adjudication where the petitioner is represented by the State shall operate as a dismissal without prejudice. No action for a civil no contact order shall be dismissed because the respondent is being prosecuted for a crime against the petitioner. For any action commenced under item (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, dismissal of the conjoined case (or a finding of not guilty) shall not require dismissal of the action for a civil no contact order; instead, it may be treated as an independent action and, if necessary and appropriate, transferred to a different court or division.

(c) No fee shall be charged by the clerk of the court for filing petitions or modifying or certifying orders. No fee shall be charged by the sheriff for service by the sheriff of a petition, rule, motion, or order in an action commenced under this Section.

(d) The court shall provide, through the office of the clerk of the court, simplified forms for filing of a petition under this Section by any person not represented by counsel.

(Source: P.A. 93-236, eff. 1-1-04; 93-811, eff. 1-1-05.)

(740 ILCS 22/216)

Sec. 216. Duration and extension of orders.

(a) Unless re-opened or extended or voided by entry of an order of greater duration, an emergency order shall be effective for not less than 14 nor more than 21 days.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a plenary civil no contact order shall be effective for a fixed period of time, not to exceed 2 years. A plenary civil no contact order entered in conjunction with a criminal prosecution shall remain in effect as follows:

(1) if entered during pre-trial release, until disposition, withdrawal, or dismissal of the underlying charge; if however, the case is continued as an independent cause of action, the order's duration may be for a fixed period of time not to exceed 2 years;

(2) if in effect in conjunction with a bond forfeiture warrant, until final disposition or an additional period of time not exceeding 2 years; no civil no contact order, however, shall be terminated by a dismissal that is accompanied by the issuance of a bond forfeiture warrant;

(3) until expiration of any supervision, conditional discharge, probation, periodic imprisonment, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release and for an additional period of time thereafter not exceeding 2 years; or

(4) until the date set by the court for expiration of any sentence of imprisonment and subsequent parole aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release and for an additional period of time thereafter not exceeding 2 years.

(c) Any emergency or plenary order may be extended one or more times, as required, provided that the requirements of Section 214 or 215, as appropriate, are satisfied. If the motion for extension is uncontested and the petitioner seeks no modification of the order, the order may be extended on the basis of the petitioner's motion or affidavit stating that there has been no material change in relevant circumstances since entry of the order and stating the reason for the requested extension. Extensions may be granted only in open court and not under the provisions of subsection (c) of Section 214, which applies only when the court is unavailable at the close of business or on a court holiday.

(d) Any civil no contact order which would expire on a court holiday shall instead expire at the close of the next court business day.

(d-5) An extension of a plenary civil no contact order may be granted, upon good cause shown, to remain in effect until the civil no contact order is vacated or modified.

(e) The practice of dismissing or suspending a criminal prosecution in exchange for the issuance of a civil no contact order undermines the purposes of this Act. This Section shall not be construed as encouraging that practice.

(Source: P.A. 96-311, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 22/218)

Sec. 218. Notice of orders.

(a) Upon issuance of any civil no contact order, the clerk shall immediately, or on the next court day if an emergency order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 214:

(1) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures; and

(2) provide a file stamped copy of the order to the respondent, if present, and to the petitioner.

(b) The clerk of the issuing judge shall, or the petitioner may, on the same day that a civil no contact order is issued, file a certified copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records or charged with serving the order upon the respondent. If the order was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 214, the clerk shall, on the next court day, file a certified copy of the order with the Sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records. If the respondent, at the time of the issuance of the order, is committed to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or is on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records shall notify the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice within 48 hours of receipt of a copy of the civil no contact order from the clerk of the issuing judge or the petitioner. Such notice shall include the name of the respondent, the respondent's IDOC or IDJJ inmate number, the respondent's date of birth, and the LEADS Record Index Number.

(c) Unless the respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon the respondent and file proof of such service in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent, however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or other persons defined in Section 218.1 may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in Section 218.1. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, it shall be served with the order or short form notification if such service is made by the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server.

(d) If the person against whom the civil no contact order is issued is arrested and the written order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 214 and received by the custodial law enforcement agency before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody, the custodial law enforcement agent shall promptly serve the order upon the respondent or arrestee before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody. In no event shall detention of the respondent or arrestee be extended for hearing on the petition for civil no contact order or receipt of the order issued under Section 214 of this Act.

(e) Any order extending, modifying, or revoking any civil no contact order shall be promptly recorded, issued, and served as provided in this Section.

(f) Upon the request of the petitioner, within 24 hours of the issuance of a civil no contact order, the clerk of the issuing judge shall send written notice of the order along with a certified copy of the order to any school, college, or university at which the petitioner is enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 97-904, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1017, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

(740 ILCS 22/218.1)

Sec. 218.1. Short form notification.

(a) Instead of personal service of a civil no contact order under Section 218, a sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or personnel assigned by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release may serve a respondent with a short form notification. The short form notification must include the following items:

(1) The respondent's name.

(2) The respondent's date of birth, if known.

(3) The petitioner's name.

(4) The names of other protected parties.

(5) The date and county in which the civil no contact order was filed.

(6) The court file number.

(7) The hearing date and time, if known.

(8) The conditions that apply to the respondent, either in checklist form or handwritten.

(b) The short form notification must contain the following notice in bold print:

"The order is now enforceable. You must report to the office of the sheriff or the office of the circuit court in (name of county) County to obtain a copy of the order. You are subject to arrest and may be charged with a misdemeanor or felony if you violate any of the terms of the order."

(c) Upon verification of the identity of the respondent and the existence of an unserved order against the respondent, a sheriff or other law enforcement official may detain the respondent for a reasonable time necessary to complete and serve the short form notification.

(d) When service is made by short form notification under this Section, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the service.

(e) The Attorney General shall make the short form notification form available to law enforcement agencies in this State.

(f) A single short form notification form may be used for orders of protection under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, stalking no contact orders under the Stalking No Contact Order Act, and civil no contact orders under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1017, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 135. The Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(740 ILCS 147/30)

Sec. 30. Service of process.

(a) All streetgangs and streetgang members engaged in a course or pattern of gang-related criminal activity within this State impliedly consent to service of process upon them as set forth in this Section, or as may be otherwise authorized by the Code of Civil Procedure.

(b) Service of process upon a streetgang may be had by leaving a copy of the complaint and summons directed to any officer of such gang, commanding the gang to appear and answer the complaint or otherwise plead at a time and place certain:

(1) with any gang officer; or

(2) with any individual member of the gang simultaneously named therein; or

(3) in the manner provided for service upon a voluntary unincorporated association in a civil action; or

(4) in the manner provided for service by publication in a civil action; or

(5) with any parent, legal guardian, or legal custodian of any persons charged with a gang-related offense when any person sued civilly under this Act is under 18 years of age and is also charged criminally or as a delinquent minor; or

(6) with the director of any agency or department of this State who is the legal guardian, guardianship administrator, or custodian of any person sued under this Act; or

(7) with the probation or parole officer or aftercare specialist of any person sued under this Act; or

(8) with such other person or agent as the court may, upon petition of the State's Attorney or his or her designee, authorize as appropriate and reasonable under all of the circumstances.

(c) If after being summoned a streetgang does not appear, the court shall enter an answer for the streetgang neither affirming nor denying the allegations of the complaint but demanding strict proof thereof, and proceed to trial and judgment without further process.

(d) When any person is named as a defendant streetgang member in any complaint, or subsequently becomes known and is added or joined as a named defendant, service of process may be had as authorized or provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure for service of process in a civil case.

(e) Unknown gang members may be sued as a class and designated as such in the caption of any complaint filed under this Act. Service of process upon unknown members may be made in the manner prescribed for provision of notice to members of a class in a class action, or as the court may direct for providing the best service and notice practicable under the circumstances which shall include individual, personal, or other service upon all members who can be identified and located through reasonable effort.

(Source: P.A. 87-932.)

Section 140. The Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act is amended by changing Section 4-106 as follows:

(745 ILCS 10/4-106) (from Ch. 85, par. 4-106)

Sec. 4-106. Neither a local public entity nor a public employee is liable for:

(a) Any injury resulting from determining to parole or release a prisoner, to revoke his or her parole or release, or the terms and conditions of his or her parole or release.

(b) Any injury inflicted by an escaped or escaping prisoner.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 2983.)

Section 145. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Sections 202, 220, 222, and 222.10 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/202) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-2)

Sec. 202. Commencement of action; filing fees; dismissal.

(a) How to commence action. Actions for orders of protection are commenced:

(1) Independently: By filing a petition for an order of protection in any civil court, unless specific courts are designated by local rule or order.

(2) In conjunction with another civil proceeding: By filing a petition for an order of protection under the same case number as another civil proceeding involving the parties, including but not limited to: (i) any proceeding under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, Nonsupport of Spouse and Children Act, Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act or an action for nonsupport brought under Article 10 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, provided that a petitioner and the respondent are a party to or the subject of that proceeding or (ii) a guardianship proceeding under the Probate Act of 1975, or a proceeding for involuntary commitment under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or any proceeding, other than a delinquency petition, under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, provided that a petitioner or the respondent is a party to or the subject of such proceeding.

(3) In conjunction with a delinquency petition or a criminal prosecution: By filing a petition for an order of protection, under the same case number as the delinquency petition or criminal prosecution, to be granted during pre-trial release of a defendant, with any dispositional order issued under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or as a condition of release, supervision, conditional discharge, probation, periodic imprisonment, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, or in conjunction with imprisonment or a bond forfeiture warrant; provided that:

(i) the violation is alleged in an information, complaint, indictment or delinquency petition on file, and the alleged offender and victim are family or household members or persons protected by this Act; and

(ii) the petition, which is filed by the State's Attorney, names a victim of the alleged crime as a petitioner.

(b) Filing, certification, and service fees. No fee shall be charged by the clerk for filing, amending, vacating, certifying, or photocopying petitions or orders; or for issuing alias summons; or for any related filing service. No fee shall be charged by the sheriff for service by the sheriff of a petition, rule, motion, or order in an action commenced under this Section.

(c) Dismissal and consolidation. Withdrawal or dismissal of any petition for an order of protection prior to adjudication where the petitioner is represented by the State shall operate as a dismissal without prejudice. No action for an order of protection shall be dismissed because the respondent is being prosecuted for a crime against the petitioner. An independent action may be consolidated with another civil proceeding, as provided by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section. For any action commenced under paragraph (2) or (3) of subsection (a) of this Section, dismissal of the conjoined case (or a finding of not guilty) shall not require dismissal of the action for the order of protection; instead, it may be treated as an independent action and, if necessary and appropriate, transferred to a different court or division. Dismissal of any conjoined case shall not affect the validity of any previously issued order of protection, and thereafter subsections (b)(1) and (b)(2) of Section 220 shall be inapplicable to such order.

(d) Pro se petitions. The court shall provide, through the office of the clerk of the court, simplified forms and clerical assistance to help with the writing and filing of a petition under this Section by any person not represented by counsel. In addition, that assistance may be provided by the state's attorney.

(Source: P.A. 93-458, eff. 1-1-04.)

(750 ILCS 60/220) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-20)

Sec. 220. Duration and extension of orders.

(a) Duration of emergency and interim orders. Unless re-opened or extended or voided by entry of an order of greater duration:

(1) Emergency orders issued under Section 217 shall be effective for not less than 14 nor more than 21 days;

(2) Interim orders shall be effective for up to 30 days.

(b) Duration of plenary orders. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a plenary order of protection shall be valid for a fixed period of time, not to exceed two years.

(1) A plenary order of protection entered in conjunction with another civil proceeding shall remain in effect as follows:

(i) if entered as preliminary relief in that other proceeding, until entry of final judgment in that other proceeding;

(ii) if incorporated into the final judgment in that other proceeding, until the order of protection is vacated or modified; or

(iii) if incorporated in an order for involuntary commitment, until termination of both the involuntary commitment and any voluntary commitment, or for a fixed period of time not exceeding 2 years.

(2) A plenary order of protection entered in conjunction with a criminal prosecution shall remain in effect as follows:

(i) if entered during pre-trial release, until disposition, withdrawal, or dismissal of the underlying charge; if, however, the case is continued as an independent cause of action, the order's duration may be for a fixed period of time not to exceed 2 years;

(ii) if in effect in conjunction with a bond forfeiture warrant, until final disposition or an additional period of time not exceeding 2 years; no order of protection, however, shall be terminated by a dismissal that is accompanied by the issuance of a bond forfeiture warrant;

(iii) until expiration of any supervision, conditional discharge, probation, periodic imprisonment, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release and for an additional period of time thereafter not exceeding 2 years; or

(iv) until the date set by the court for expiration of any sentence of imprisonment and subsequent parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release and for an additional period of time thereafter not exceeding 2 years.

(c) Computation of time. The duration of an order of protection shall not be reduced by the duration of any prior order of protection.

(d) Law enforcement records. When a plenary order of protection expires upon the occurrence of a specified event, rather than upon a specified date as provided in subsection (b), no expiration date shall be entered in Department of State Police records. To remove the plenary order from those records, either party shall request the clerk of the court to file a certified copy of an order stating that the specified event has occurred or that the plenary order has been vacated or modified with the Sheriff, and the Sheriff shall direct that law enforcement records shall be promptly corrected in accordance with the filed order.

(e) Extension of orders. Any emergency, interim or plenary order may be extended one or more times, as required, provided that the requirements of Section 217, 218 or 219, as appropriate, are satisfied. If the motion for extension is uncontested and petitioner seeks no modification of the order, the order may be extended on the basis of petitioner's motion or affidavit stating that there has been no material change in relevant circumstances since entry of the order and stating the reason for the requested extension. An extension of a plenary order of protection may be granted, upon good cause shown, to remain in effect until the order of protection is vacated or modified. Extensions may be granted only in open court and not under the provisions of subsection (c) of Section 217, which applies only when the court is unavailable at the close of business or on a court holiday.

(f) Termination date. Any order of protection which would expire on a court holiday shall instead expire at the close of the next court business day.

(g) Statement of purpose. The practice of dismissing or suspending a criminal prosecution in exchange for the issuance of an order of protection undermines the purposes of this Act. This Section shall not be construed as encouraging that practice.

(Source: P.A. 95-886, eff. 1-1-09.)

(750 ILCS 60/222) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-22)

Sec. 222. Notice of orders.

(a) Entry and issuance. Upon issuance of any order of protection, the clerk shall immediately, or on the next court day if an emergency order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 217, (i) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures and (ii) provide a file stamped copy of the order to respondent, if present, and to petitioner.

(b) Filing with sheriff. The clerk of the issuing judge shall, or the petitioner may, on the same day that an order of protection is issued, file a certified copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records or charged with serving the order upon respondent. If the order was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 217, the clerk shall on the next court day, file a certified copy of the order with the Sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records. If the respondent, at the time of the issuance of the order, is committed to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or is on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records shall notify the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice within 48 hours of receipt of a copy of the order of protection from the clerk of the issuing judge or the petitioner. Such notice shall include the name of the respondent, the respondent's IDOC inmate number or IDJJ youth identification number, the respondent's date of birth, and the LEADS Record Index Number.

(c) Service by sheriff. Unless respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon respondent and file proof of such service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent, however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or other persons defined in Section 222.10 may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in Section 222.10. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, it shall be served with the order or short form notification if such service is made by the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server. A single fee may be charged for service of an order obtained in civil court, or for service of such an order together with process, unless waived or deferred under Section 210.

(c-5) If the person against whom the order of protection is issued is arrested and the written order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 217 and received by the custodial law enforcement agency before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody, the custodial law enforcement agent shall promptly serve the order upon the respondent or arrestee before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody. In no event shall detention of the respondent or arrestee be extended for hearing on the petition for order of protection or receipt of the order issued under Section 217 of this Act.

(d) Extensions, modifications and revocations. Any order extending, modifying or revoking any order of protection shall be promptly recorded, issued and served as provided in this Section.

(e) Notice to schools. Upon the request of the petitioner, within 24 hours of the issuance of an order of protection, the clerk of the issuing judge shall send a certified copy of the order of protection to the day-care facility, pre-school or pre-kindergarten, or private school or the principal office of the public school district or any college or university in which any child who is a protected person under the order of protection or any child of the petitioner is enrolled as requested by the petitioner at the mailing address provided by the petitioner. If the child transfers enrollment to another day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, private school, public school, college, or university, the petitioner may, within 24 hours of the transfer, send to the clerk written notice of the transfer, including the name and address of the institution to which the child is transferring. Within 24 hours of receipt of notice from the petitioner that a child is transferring to another day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, private school, public school, college, or university, the clerk shall send a certified copy of the order to the institution to which the child is transferring.

(f) Disclosure by schools. After receiving a certified copy of an order of protection that prohibits a respondent's access to records, neither a day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, public or private school, college, or university nor its employees shall allow a respondent access to a protected child's records or release information in those records to the respondent. The school shall file the copy of the order of protection in the records of a child who is a protected person under the order of protection. When a child who is a protected person under the order of protection transfers to another day-care facility, pre-school, pre-kindergarten, public or private school, college, or university, the institution from which the child is transferring may, at the request of the petitioner, provide, within 24 hours of the transfer, written notice of the order of protection, along with a certified copy of the order, to the institution to which the child is transferring.

(g) Notice to health care facilities and health care practitioners. Upon the request of the petitioner, the clerk of the circuit court shall send a certified copy of the order of protection to any specified health care facility or health care practitioner requested by the petitioner at the mailing address provided by the petitioner.

(h) Disclosure by health care facilities and health care practitioners. After receiving a certified copy of an order of protection that prohibits a respondent's access to records, no health care facility or health care practitioner shall allow a respondent access to the records of any child who is a protected person under the order of protection, or release information in those records to the respondent, unless the order has expired or the respondent shows a certified copy of the court order vacating the corresponding order of protection that was sent to the health care facility or practitioner. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require health care facilities or health care practitioners to alter procedures related to billing and payment. The health care facility or health care practitioner may file the copy of the order of protection in the records of a child who is a protected person under the order of protection, or may employ any other method to identify the records to which a respondent is prohibited access. No health care facility or health care practitioner shall be civilly or professionally liable for reliance on a copy of an order of protection, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 96-651, eff. 1-1-10; 97-50, eff. 6-28-11; 97-904, eff. 1-1-13.)

(750 ILCS 60/222.10)

Sec. 222.10. Short form notification.

(a) Instead of personal service of an order of protection under Section 222, a sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or personnel assigned by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release may serve a respondent with a short form notification. The short form notification must include the following items:

(1) The respondent's name.

(2) The respondent's date of birth, if known.

(3) The petitioner's name.

(4) The names of other protected parties.

(5) The date and county in which the order of protection was filed.

(6) The court file number.

(7) The hearing date and time, if known.

(8) The conditions that apply to the respondent, either in checklist form or handwritten.

(b) The short form notification must contain the following notice in bold print:

"The order is now enforceable. You must report to the office of the sheriff or the office of the circuit court in (name of county) County to obtain a copy of the order. You are subject to arrest and may be charged with a misdemeanor or felony if you violate any of the terms of the order."

(c) Upon verification of the identity of the respondent and the existence of an unserved order against the respondent, a sheriff or other law enforcement official may detain the respondent for a reasonable time necessary to complete and serve the short form notification.

(d) When service is made by short form notification under this Section, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the service.

(e) The Attorney General shall make the short form notification form available to law enforcement agencies in this State.

(f) A single short form notification form may be used for orders of protection under this Act, stalking no contact orders under the Stalking No Contact Order Act, and civil no contact orders under the Civil No Contact Order Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-50, eff. 6-28-11; 97-1017, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 150. The Line of Duty Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(820 ILCS 315/2) (from Ch. 48, par. 282)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Law enforcement officer" or "officer" means any person employed by the State or a local governmental entity as a policeman, peace officer, auxiliary policeman or in some like position involving the enforcement of the law and protection of the public interest at the risk of that person's life. This includes supervisors, wardens, superintendents and their assistants, guards and keepers, correctional officers, youth supervisors, parole agents, aftercare specialists, school teachers and correctional counsellors in all facilities of both the Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice, while within the facilities under the control of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice or in the act of transporting inmates or wards from one location to another or while performing their official duties, and all other Department of Correction or Department of Juvenile Justice employees who have daily contact with inmates.

The death of the foregoing employees of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice in order to be included herein must be by the direct or indirect willful act of an inmate, ward, work-releasee, parolee, aftercare releasee, parole violator, aftercare release violator, person under conditional release, or any person sentenced or committed, or otherwise subject to confinement in or to the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(b) "Fireman" means any person employed by the State or a local governmental entity as, or otherwise serving as, a member or officer of a fire department either for the purpose of the prevention or control of fire or the underwater recovery of drowning victims, including volunteer firemen.

(c) "Local governmental entity" includes counties, municipalities and municipal corporations.

(d) "State" means the State of Illinois and its departments, divisions, boards, bureaus, commissions, authorities and colleges and universities.

(e) "Killed in the line of duty" means losing one's life as a result of injury received in the active performance of duties as a law enforcement officer, civil defense worker, civil air patrol member, paramedic, fireman, or chaplain if the death occurs within one year from the date the injury was received and if that injury arose from violence or other accidental cause. In the case of a State employee, "killed in the line of duty" means losing one's life as a result of injury received in the active performance of one's duties as a State employee, if the death occurs within one year from the date the injury was received and if that injury arose from a willful act of violence by another State employee committed during such other employee's course of employment and after January 1, 1988. The term excludes death resulting from the willful misconduct or intoxication of the officer, civil defense worker, civil air patrol member, paramedic, fireman, chaplain, or State employee. However, the burden of proof of such willful misconduct or intoxication of the officer, civil defense worker, civil air patrol member, paramedic, fireman, chaplain, or State employee is on the Attorney General. Subject to the conditions set forth in subsection (a) with respect to inclusion under this Act of Department of Corrections and Department of Juvenile Justice employees described in that subsection, for the purposes of this Act, instances in which a law enforcement officer receives an injury in the active performance of duties as a law enforcement officer include but are not limited to instances when:

(1) the injury is received as a result of a wilful act of violence committed other than by the officer and a relationship exists between the commission of such act and the officer's performance of his duties as a law enforcement officer, whether or not the injury is received while the officer is on duty as a law enforcement officer;

(2) the injury is received by the officer while the officer is attempting to prevent the commission of a criminal act by another or attempting to apprehend an individual the officer suspects has committed a crime, whether or not the injury is received while the officer is on duty as a law enforcement officer;

(3) the injury is received by the officer while the officer is travelling to or from his employment as a law enforcement officer or during any meal break, or other break, which takes place during the period in which the officer is on duty as a law enforcement officer.

In the case of an Armed Forces member, "killed in the line of duty" means losing one's life while on active duty in connection with the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks on the United States, Operation Enduring Freedom, or Operation Iraqi Freedom.

(f) "Volunteer fireman" means a person having principal employment other than as a fireman, but who is carried on the rolls of a regularly constituted fire department either for the purpose of the prevention or control of fire or the underwater recovery of drowning victims, the members of which are under the jurisdiction of the corporate authorities of a city, village, incorporated town, or fire protection district, and includes a volunteer member of a fire department organized under the "General Not for Profit Corporation Act", approved July 17, 1943, as now or hereafter amended, which is under contract with any city, village, incorporated town, fire protection district, or persons residing therein, for fire fighting services. "Volunteer fireman" does not mean an individual who volunteers assistance without being regularly enrolled as a fireman.

(g) "Civil defense worker" means any person employed by the State or a local governmental entity as, or otherwise serving as, a member of a civil defense work force, including volunteer civil defense work forces engaged in serving the public interest during periods of disaster, whether natural or man-made.

(h) "Civil air patrol member" means any person employed by the State or a local governmental entity as, or otherwise serving as, a member of the organization commonly known as the "Civil Air Patrol", including volunteer members of the organization commonly known as the "Civil Air Patrol".

(i) "Paramedic" means an Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic certified by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, and all other emergency medical personnel certified by the Illinois Department of Public Health who are members of an organized body or not-for-profit corporation under the jurisdiction of a city, village, incorporated town, fire protection district or county, that provides emergency medical treatment to persons of a defined geographical area.

(j) "State employee" means any employee as defined in Section 14-103.05 of the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended.

(k) "Chaplain" means an individual who:

(1) is a chaplain of (i) a fire department or (ii) a police department or other agency consisting of law enforcement officers; and

(2) has been designated a chaplain by (i) the fire department, police department, or other agency or an officer or body having jurisdiction over the department or agency or (ii) a labor organization representing the firemen or law enforcement officers.

(l) "Armed Forces member" means an Illinois resident who is: a member of the Armed Forces of the United States; a member of the Illinois National Guard while on active military service pursuant to an order of the President of the United States; or a member of any reserve component of the Armed Forces of the United States while on active military service pursuant to an order of the President of the United States.

(Source: P.A. 93-1047, eff. 10-18-04; 93-1073, eff. 1-18-05; 94-696, eff. 6-1-06.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.