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Rep. John E. Bradley
Filed: 5/16/2014
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1 | | AMENDMENT TO SENATE BILL 2187
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2 | | AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend Senate Bill 2187, AS AMENDED, |
3 | | by replacing everything after the enacting clause with the |
4 | | following:
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5 | | "Section 5. The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act is |
6 | | amended by changing Sections 2, 7, and 15 and by adding |
7 | | Sections 4.1, 4.1a, 4.2, 4.3, 4.4, and 4.5 as follows:
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8 | | (225 ILCS 15/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 5352)
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9 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)
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10 | | Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:
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11 | | (1) "Department" means the Department of Financial and
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12 | | Professional Regulation.
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13 | | (2) "Secretary" means the Secretary
of Financial and |
14 | | Professional Regulation.
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15 | | (3) "Board" means the Clinical Psychologists Licensing
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16 | | and
Disciplinary
Board appointed by the Secretary.
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1 | | (4) "Person" means an individual, association, |
2 | | partnership or corporation.
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3 | | (5) "Clinical psychology" means the independent
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4 | | evaluation, classification and treatment of mental, |
5 | | emotional, behavioral
or nervous disorders or conditions, |
6 | | developmental disabilities, alcoholism
and substance |
7 | | abuse, disorders of habit or conduct, the psychological
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8 | | aspects of physical illness. The practice of clinical |
9 | | psychology includes
psychoeducational evaluation, therapy, |
10 | | remediation and consultation, the
use of psychological and |
11 | | neuropsychological testing, assessment,
psychotherapy, |
12 | | psychoanalysis, hypnosis, biofeedback, and behavioral
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13 | | modification when any of these are used for the purpose of |
14 | | preventing or
eliminating psychopathology, or for the |
15 | | amelioration of psychological
disorders of individuals or |
16 | | groups. "Clinical psychology" does not include
the use of |
17 | | hypnosis by unlicensed persons
pursuant to Section 3.
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18 | | (6) A person represents himself to be a "clinical |
19 | | psychologist" or "psychologist" within
the meaning of this |
20 | | Act when he or she holds himself out to the public by
any |
21 | | title or description of services incorporating the words |
22 | | "psychological",
"psychologic", "psychologist", |
23 | | "psychology", or "clinical psychologist" or
under such |
24 | | title or description offers to render or renders clinical
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25 | | psychological services as defined in paragraph (7) of this |
26 | | Section to
individuals, corporations, or the public for |
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1 | | remuneration.
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2 | | (7) "Clinical psychological services" refers to any |
3 | | services under
paragraph (5) of this Section if the words |
4 | | "psychological", "psychologic",
"psychologist", |
5 | | "psychology" or "clinical psychologist" are used to
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6 | | describe such services by the person or
organization |
7 | | offering to render or rendering them.
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8 | | (8) "Supervising physician" means a licensed physician |
9 | | who is authorized to prescribe psychotropic medication, |
10 | | has experience with a full range of complex mental |
11 | | disorders and a mix of diagnoses, and generally prescribes |
12 | | psychotropic medication to his or her patients in the |
13 | | normal course of his or her clinical medical practice in |
14 | | such a manner that reflects the clinical focus of the |
15 | | conditional prescribing psychologist. |
16 | | (9) "Collaborating physician" means a licensed |
17 | | physician who is authorized to prescribe psychotropic |
18 | | medications and generally prescribes these medications to |
19 | | his or her patients in the normal course of his or her |
20 | | clinical medical practice. |
21 | | (10) "Conditional prescribing psychologist" means a |
22 | | licensed, doctoral level psychologist who has undergone |
23 | | specialized training, has passed an examination accepted |
24 | | by the Board, and has received a current license granting |
25 | | prescriptive authority under Section 4.1 of this Act that |
26 | | has not been revoked or suspended from the Department. |
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1 | | (11) "Prescribing psychologist" means a licensed, |
2 | | doctoral level psychologist who has undergone specialized |
3 | | training, has passed an examination accepted by the Board, |
4 | | and has received a current license granting prescriptive |
5 | | authority under Section 4.2 of this Act that has not been |
6 | | revoked or suspended from the Department. |
7 | | (12) "Prescriptive authority" means the authority to |
8 | | prescribe, administer, discontinue, or distribute drugs or |
9 | | medicines. |
10 | | (13) "Prescription" means an order for a drug, |
11 | | laboratory test, or any medicines, including controlled |
12 | | substances as defined in the Illinois Controlled |
13 | | Substances Act, devices, or treatments. |
14 | | (14) "Drugs" has the meaning given to that term in the |
15 | | Pharmacy Practice Act. |
16 | | (15) "Medicines" has the meaning given to that term in |
17 | | the Pharmacy Practice Act. |
18 | | (16) "Cross-indicated drug" means a drug that is used |
19 | | for a purpose generally held to be reasonable, appropriate, |
20 | | and within the community standards of practice even though |
21 | | the use is not included in the federal Food and Drug |
22 | | Administration's approved labeled indications for the |
23 | | drug. |
24 | | This Act shall not apply to persons lawfully carrying on |
25 | | their particular
profession or business under any valid |
26 | | existing regulatory Act of the State.
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 94-870, eff. 6-16-06.)
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2 | | (225 ILCS 15/4.1 new) |
3 | | Sec. 4.1. Conditional prescribing psychologist license. |
4 | | (a) A psychologist may apply to the Department for a |
5 | | conditional prescribing psychologist license, which shall be |
6 | | valid for a period of 2 years. The Department may extend the |
7 | | duration of a conditional prescribing psychologist license for |
8 | | an additional year pending the issuance of a prescribing |
9 | | psychologist license issued under Section 4.2 of this Act. The |
10 | | application for a conditional prescribing psychologist license |
11 | | shall be made on a form approved by the Department, include the |
12 | | payment of any required fees, and be accompanied by evidence |
13 | | satisfactory to the Department that the applicant: |
14 | | (1) has completed a doctoral program in psychology from |
15 | | a regionally accredited university or professional school |
16 | | or, if the program is not accredited at the time of |
17 | | graduation, completion of a doctoral program in psychology |
18 | | that meets recognized acceptable professional standards as |
19 | | determined by the Department, in consultation with the |
20 | | Board; |
21 | | (2) holds a current and valid license to practice |
22 | | clinical psychology in the State; |
23 | | (3) has graduated with a master's degree in clinical |
24 | | psychopharmacology from a regionally accredited |
25 | | institution that requires students to possess sufficient |
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1 | | knowledge of human biology, anatomy, physiology, |
2 | | biochemistry, neuroanatomy, and psychopharmacology to |
3 | | ensure an adequate foundation for the completion of the |
4 | | master's degree; the curriculum shall meet the standards |
5 | | established by the National Register of Health Service |
6 | | Psychologists and the Association of State and Provincial |
7 | | Psychology Boards, including: |
8 | | (A) a range of training experiences at different |
9 | | health care facility sites; and |
10 | | (B) instruction in: |
11 | | (i) neurosciences, including neuroanatomy, |
12 | | neurophysiology, and neurochemistry; |
13 | | (ii) pharmacology and psychopharmacology, |
14 | | including pharmacology, clinical pharmacology, |
15 | | psychopharmacology, developmental |
16 | | psychopharmacology, and chemical dependence; |
17 | | (iii) pathophysiology, including normal |
18 | | anatomy and physiological processes, common |
19 | | pathological states, cardiovascular, renal, |
20 | | hepatic, gastrointestinal, neural, and endocrine |
21 | | functions, bioavailability and biodisposition of |
22 | | drugs, variability in drug bioavailability and |
23 | | disposition based upon ethnic and cultural |
24 | | differences, variability in response due to age, |
25 | | gender, disability, and ethnic differences, |
26 | | medical conditions affecting biodisposition, and |
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1 | | side effects, including contraindications; |
2 | | (iv) physical and laboratory assessment, |
3 | | including familiarity with medical charts, |
4 | | physical exams, and laboratory and radiological |
5 | | examinations; |
6 | | (v) pharmacotherapeutics, including |
7 | | pharmacotherapeutic interactions, psychotherapy |
8 | | and pharmacotherapy interactions, drug |
9 | | interactions, compliance maintenance programs, |
10 | | computer-based aids to practice, and |
11 | | pharmacoepidemiology; |
12 | | (vi) professional, legal, ethical, and |
13 | | interprofessional issues relevant to the practice |
14 | | of psychology involving psychopharmacology; |
15 | | (vii) continuous quality improvement processes |
16 | | and measures; and |
17 | | (viii) clinical outcomes research. |
18 | | (4) within the 5 years immediately preceding the date |
19 | | of application, has been certified by the applicant's |
20 | | supervising physician and one other physician in the |
21 | | applicant's clinical psychopharmacology training program, |
22 | | as having successfully completed a supervised and relevant |
23 | | clinical experience determined by the Department, in |
24 | | consultation with the Board, of no less than an 80-hour |
25 | | practicum in clinical assessment and pathophysiology and |
26 | | an additional supervised practicum of at least 400 hours |
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1 | | treating no fewer than 100 patients with a full range of |
2 | | complex mental disorders and a mix of diagnoses; both |
3 | | practica shall be supervised by an appropriately trained |
4 | | physician who is authorized to prescribe psychotropic |
5 | | medication, has experience with a full range of complex |
6 | | mental disorders and a mix of diagnoses, and generally |
7 | | prescribes psychotropic medication to his or her patients |
8 | | in the normal course of his or her clinical medical |
9 | | practice and determined by the Department, in consultation |
10 | | with the Board, as competent to train the applicant in the |
11 | | treatment of a diverse patient population; both practica |
12 | | shall take place in a health care setting, with a portion |
13 | | of the clinical experience occurring in one or more of the |
14 | | following settings: |
15 | | (A) correctional facilities; |
16 | | (B) federally qualified health centers, as defined |
17 | | in the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396d); |
18 | | (C) community service agencies serving the |
19 | | seriously mentally ill; |
20 | | (D) local, State, or federal facilities; or |
21 | | (E) shelters or any other facilities serving the |
22 | | needs of survivors of domestic violence. |
23 | | (5) has passed an examination authorized by the |
24 | | Department, in consultation with the Board, to determine |
25 | | his or her fitness to receive a license; |
26 | | (6) has sufficient malpractice insurance, as |
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1 | | determined by rule, that will cover the applicant during |
2 | | the period the conditional prescribing psychologist |
3 | | license is in effect; |
4 | | (7) has an agreement with one or more of the health |
5 | | care settings described in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) |
6 | | of this Section with regard to services; and |
7 | | (8) meets all other requirements, as determined by rule |
8 | | of the Board, for obtaining a conditional prescribing |
9 | | psychologist license. |
10 | | (b) The Department may issue a conditional prescribing |
11 | | psychologist license if it finds that the applicant has met the |
12 | | requirements of subsection (a) of this Section. |
13 | | (c) A psychologist with a conditional prescribing |
14 | | psychologist license may only prescribe psychotropic |
15 | | medication pursuant to Section 4.4 of this Act under the |
16 | | supervision of a supervising physician subject to the following |
17 | | conditions: |
18 | | (1) the psychologist shall continue to hold a current |
19 | | license to practice psychology in Illinois and continue to |
20 | | maintain malpractice insurance; and |
21 | | (2) the psychologist shall maintain a written |
22 | | supervision agreement with a supervising physician |
23 | | pursuant to Section 4.1a of this Act. |
24 | | (225 ILCS 15/4.1a new) |
25 | | Sec. 4.1a. Written supervision agreement. |
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1 | | (a) A written supervision agreement between a psychologist |
2 | | and his or her supervising physician is required for all |
3 | | psychologists practicing under a conditional prescribing |
4 | | psychologist license issued pursuant to Section 4.1. A |
5 | | supervising physician shall delegate prescriptive authority to |
6 | | a conditional prescribing psychologist as part of a written |
7 | | supervision agreement. |
8 | | (b) The written supervision agreement shall govern the |
9 | | working relationship between the psychologist and his or her |
10 | | supervising physician during the supervision period. |
11 | | Supervision does not require an employment relationship |
12 | | between the supervising physician and psychologist. |
13 | | (c) Methods of communication shall be available for |
14 | | consultation with the supervising physician in person or by |
15 | | telecommunications in accordance with established written |
16 | | guidelines as set forth in the supervision agreement. |
17 | | (d) The psychologist shall provide his or her supervising |
18 | | physician with all relevant information that is necessary for |
19 | | the supervising physician to adequately supervise the |
20 | | psychologist's training under Section 4.1. |
21 | | (e) Supervision under all supervision agreements shall be |
22 | | adequate if the supervising physician does each of the |
23 | | following: |
24 | | (1) consults with the psychologist in order to discuss |
25 | | a patient's history, diagnoses, medication choices, dosage |
26 | | levels and all other relevant information; |
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1 | | (2) maintains the ability to alter a patient's |
2 | | treatment plan if necessary; |
3 | | (3) meets in person or by video conference on a weekly |
4 | | basis with the psychologist to review all of the |
5 | | psychologist's cases involving the use of prescriptive |
6 | | authority; and |
7 | | (4) provides his or her assessment of the |
8 | | psychologist's suitability to prescribe psychotropic |
9 | | medication independently at the time the psychologist is |
10 | | prepared to apply for a prescribing psychologist license. |
11 | | (f) The supervising physician shall be individually |
12 | | responsible for the acts and omissions of the psychologist |
13 | | involving the use of prescriptive authority that occur while |
14 | | the psychologist is under the supervising physician's |
15 | | supervision. This provision does not relieve the psychologist |
16 | | from liability for his or her acts and omissions. |
17 | | (g) The psychologist shall inform the Department of the |
18 | | name of the physician under whose supervision the psychologist |
19 | | will prescribe psychotropic medication and promptly inform the |
20 | | Department of any change of the supervising physician. |
21 | | (h) A physician supervising a psychologist prescribing |
22 | | psychotropic medication under a conditional prescribing |
23 | | psychologist license shall inform the Department that he or she |
24 | | is supervising the psychologist. |
25 | | (225 ILCS 15/4.2 new) |
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1 | | Sec. 4.2. Prescribing psychologist license. |
2 | | (a) A psychologist may apply to the Department for a |
3 | | prescribing psychologist license. The application shall be |
4 | | made on a form approved by the Department, include the payment |
5 | | of any required fees, and be accompanied by evidence |
6 | | satisfactory to the Department that the applicant: |
7 | | (1) has been issued a conditional prescribing |
8 | | psychologist license pursuant to Section 4.1 of this Act |
9 | | and has successfully completed 2 years of prescribing |
10 | | psychotropic medication under a conditional prescribing |
11 | | psychologist license as attested to by the supervising |
12 | | licensed physician and one other physician in the |
13 | | applicant's clinical psychopharmacology training program; |
14 | | (2) holds a current license to practice clinical |
15 | | psychology in Illinois; |
16 | | (3) has sufficient malpractice insurance, as |
17 | | determined by rule, that will cover the applicant as a |
18 | | prescribing psychologist; |
19 | | (4) has an agreement with one or more of the health |
20 | | care settings described in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) |
21 | | of Section 4.1 with regard to services; and |
22 | | (5) meets all other requirements for obtaining a |
23 | | prescribing psychologist license, as determined by rule. |
24 | | (b) The Department may issue a prescribing psychologist |
25 | | license if it finds that the applicant has met the requirements |
26 | | of subsection (a) of this Section. |
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1 | | (c) A prescribing psychologist may only prescribe |
2 | | psychotropic medication pursuant to the provisions of this Act |
3 | | if the prescribing psychologist: |
4 | | (1) continues to hold a current license to practice |
5 | | psychology in Illinois and continues to maintain |
6 | | malpractice insurance; |
7 | | (2) satisfies the continuing education requirements |
8 | | for prescribing psychologists, as determined by rule, a |
9 | | portion of which shall address continuous quality |
10 | | improvement processes and measures and clinical outcomes |
11 | | research; and |
12 | | (3) maintains a written collaborative agreement with a |
13 | | collaborating physician pursuant to Section 4.3 of this |
14 | | Act. |
15 | | (225 ILCS 15/4.3 new) |
16 | | Sec. 4.3. Written collaborative agreements. |
17 | | (a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all |
18 | | prescribing psychologists practicing under a prescribing |
19 | | psychologist license issued pursuant to Section 4.2 of this |
20 | | Act. The collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive |
21 | | authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written |
22 | | collaborative agreement. |
23 | | (b) The written collaborative agreement shall describe the |
24 | | working relationship of the prescribing psychologist with the |
25 | | collaborating physician and shall delegate prescriptive |
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1 | | authority as provided in this Act. Collaboration does not |
2 | | require an employment relationship between the collaborating |
3 | | physician and prescribing psychologist. Absent an employment |
4 | | relationship, an agreement may not restrict third-party |
5 | | payment sources accepted by the prescribing psychologist. For |
6 | | the purposes of this Section, "collaboration" means the |
7 | | relationship between a prescribing psychologist and a |
8 | | collaborating physician with respect to the delivery of |
9 | | prescribing services in accordance with (1) the prescribing |
10 | | psychologist's training, education, and experience and (2) |
11 | | collaboration and consultation as documented in a jointly |
12 | | developed written collaborative agreement. |
13 | | (c) The agreement shall promote the exercise of |
14 | | professional judgment by the prescribing psychologist |
15 | | corresponding to his or her education and experience. |
16 | | (d) The collaborative agreement shall not be construed to |
17 | | require the personal presence of a physician at the place where |
18 | | services are rendered. Methods of communication shall be |
19 | | available for consultation with the collaborating physician in |
20 | | person or by telecommunications in accordance with established |
21 | | written guidelines as set forth in the written agreement. |
22 | | (e) Collaboration and consultation pursuant to all |
23 | | collaboration agreements shall be adequate if a collaborating |
24 | | physician does each of the following: |
25 | | (1) participates in the joint formulation and joint |
26 | | approval of orders or guidelines with the prescribing |
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1 | | psychologist and he or she periodically reviews the |
2 | | prescribing psychologist's orders and the services |
3 | | provided patients under the orders in accordance with |
4 | | accepted standards of medical practice and prescribing |
5 | | psychologist practice; |
6 | | (2) provides collaboration and consultation with the |
7 | | prescribing psychologist at least once a month; and |
8 | | (3) is available through telecommunications for |
9 | | consultation on medical problems, complications, |
10 | | emergencies, or patient referral. |
11 | | (f) The written collaborative agreement shall contain |
12 | | provisions detailing notice for termination or change of status |
13 | | involving a written collaborative agreement, except when the |
14 | | notice is given for just cause. |
15 | | (g) A copy of the signed written collaborative agreement |
16 | | shall be available to the Department upon request to either the |
17 | | prescribing psychologist or the collaborating physician. |
18 | | (h) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the |
19 | | authority of a prescribing psychologist to perform all duties |
20 | | authorized under this Act. |
21 | | (i) A prescribing psychologist shall inform each |
22 | | collaborating physician of all collaborative agreements he or |
23 | | she has signed and provide a copy of these to any collaborating |
24 | | physician. |
25 | | (225 ILCS 15/4.4 new) |
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1 | | Sec. 4.4. Controlled substance prescriptive authority. |
2 | | (a) The delegated prescriptive authority under this Act is |
3 | | limited to: |
4 | | (1) a drug that is classified as an antianxiety, |
5 | | antidepressant, or antipsychotic central nervous system |
6 | | drug in the most recent publication of Drug Facts and |
7 | | Comparisons (published by the Facts and Comparisons |
8 | | Division of J.B. Lippincott Company); |
9 | | (2) a drug that is a cross-indicated drug for the |
10 | | central nervous system drug classification, described in |
11 | | paragraph (1) of this subsection (a), according to any of |
12 | | the following: |
13 | | (A) the American Psychiatric Press Textbook of |
14 | | Psychopharmacy; |
15 | | (B) Current Clinical Strategies for Psychiatry; |
16 | | (C) Drug Facts and Comparisons; or |
17 | | (D) a publication with a focus and content similar |
18 | | to publications described in items (A), (B), and (C); |
19 | | or |
20 | | (3) a drug that is: |
21 | | (A) classified in a central nervous system drug |
22 | | category or classification (according to Drug Facts |
23 | | and Comparisons) that is created after March 12, 2002; |
24 | | and |
25 | | (B) prescribed for the treatment of a mental |
26 | | illness (as defined in the most recent publication of |
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1 | | the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and |
2 | | Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders or the World |
3 | | Health Organization's International Statistical |
4 | | Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems |
5 | | Chapter titled Mental and Behavioural Disorders). |
6 | | (b) A prescribing psychologist shall not prescribe |
7 | | narcotic drugs, as defined in Section 102 of the Illinois |
8 | | Controlled Substances Act. |
9 | | (c) To prescribe controlled substances under this Section, |
10 | | a prescribing psychologist shall obtain a mid-level |
11 | | practitioner controlled substance license. |
12 | | (d) The collaborating physician shall file with the |
13 | | Department notice of delegation of prescriptive authority and |
14 | | termination of such delegation in accordance with rules of the |
15 | | Department. Upon receipt of this notice of delegating authority |
16 | | to prescribe any Schedule II through V nonnarcotic controlled |
17 | | substances, the prescribing psychologist shall be eligible to |
18 | | register for a mid-level practitioner controlled substance |
19 | | license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled |
20 | | Substances Act. |
21 | | (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
22 | | method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, |
23 | | including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, |
24 | | standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders. |
25 | | (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit |
26 | | generic substitution. |
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1 | | (g) Any prescribing psychologist who writes a prescription |
2 | | for a controlled substance without having a valid appropriate |
3 | | authority may be fined by the Department not more than $50 per |
4 | | prescription and the Department may take any other disciplinary |
5 | | action provided for in this Act. |
6 | | (225 ILCS 15/4.5 new) |
7 | | Sec. 4.5. Endorsement. |
8 | | (a) Individuals who are already licensed as medical or |
9 | | prescribing psychologists in another state may apply for an |
10 | | Illinois prescribing psychologist license by endorsement from |
11 | | that state, or acceptance of that state's examination. |
12 | | Applicants from other states may not be required to pass the |
13 | | examination required for licensure as a conditional |
14 | | prescribing or prescribing psychologist in Illinois if they |
15 | | meet requirements set forth in this Act and its rules, such as |
16 | | proof of education, testing, payment of any fees, and |
17 | | experience. |
18 | | (b) Individuals who graduated from the Department of |
19 | | Defense Psychopharmacology Demonstration Project may apply for |
20 | | an Illinois prescribing psychologist license by endorsement. |
21 | | Applicants from the Department of Defense Psychopharmacology |
22 | | Demonstration Project may not be required to pass the |
23 | | examination required for licensure as a conditional |
24 | | prescribing or prescribing psychologist in Illinois if they |
25 | | meet requirements set forth in this Act and its rules, such as |
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1 | | proof of education, testing, payment of any fees, and |
2 | | experience. |
3 | | (c) Individuals applying for a prescribing psychologist |
4 | | license or conditional prescribing psychologist license by |
5 | | endorsement shall be required to first obtain a clinical |
6 | | psychologist license under this Act. |
7 | | (225 ILCS 15/7) (from Ch. 111, par. 5357) |
8 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017) |
9 | | Sec. 7. Board. The Secretary shall appoint a Board that
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10 | | shall serve in
an advisory capacity to the Secretary. |
11 | | The Board shall consist of 9 7 persons, 4 of whom are
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12 | | licensed clinical
psychologists, and actively engaged in the |
13 | | practice of clinical psychology, 2 of whom are licensed |
14 | | prescribing psychologists,
2 of whom are licensed clinical |
15 | | psychologists and are full time faculty
members of accredited |
16 | | colleges or
universities who are engaged in training clinical |
17 | | psychologists, and one of
whom is a public member who is not a |
18 | | licensed health care provider. In
appointing members of the |
19 | | Board, the Secretary shall give due
consideration to the |
20 | | adequate representation of the various fields of
health care |
21 | | psychology such as clinical psychology, school psychology and
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22 | | counseling psychology. In appointing members of the Board,
the |
23 | | Secretary
shall give due consideration to recommendations by |
24 | | members of the
profession of clinical psychology and by the |
25 | | State-wide organizations
representing the interests of |
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1 | | clinical psychologists and organizations
representing the |
2 | | interests of academic programs as well as recommendations
by |
3 | | approved doctoral level psychology programs in the State of |
4 | | Illinois.
The members shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. |
5 | | No member shall be
eligible to serve for more than 2 full |
6 | | terms. Any appointment to fill a
vacancy shall be for the |
7 | | unexpired portion of the term. A member appointed
to fill a |
8 | | vacancy for an unexpired term for a duration of 2 years or more |
9 | | may be reappointed for a maximum of one term and a member |
10 | | appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term for a |
11 | | duration of less than 2 years may be reappointed for a maximum |
12 | | of 2 terms. The Secretary
may remove any member for cause at |
13 | | any time prior to
the expiration of his or her term. |
14 | | The 2 initial appointees to the Board who are licensed
|
15 | | prescribing psychologists may hold a medical or prescription
|
16 | | license issued by another state so long as the license is |
17 | | deemed by the Secretary to be substantially equivalent to a |
18 | | prescribing psychologist license under this Act. Such initial |
19 | | appointees shall serve on the Board until the Department adopts |
20 | | rules necessary too implement licensure under Section 4.2 of |
21 | | this Act. |
22 | | The Board shall annually elect one of its members as
|
23 | | chairperson and vice chairperson. |
24 | | The members of the Board shall be reimbursed for all
|
25 | | authorized legitimate and
necessary expenses incurred in |
26 | | attending the meetings of the Board. |
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1 | | The Secretary shall give due consideration to all |
2 | | recommendations of the
Board. In the event the Secretary |
3 | | disagrees with or takes
action
contrary to the recommendation |
4 | | of the Board, he or she
shall provide the
Board with a written |
5 | | and specific explanation of his or
her actions. |
6 | | The Board may make recommendations on all matters relating |
7 | | to continuing education including the number of hours necessary |
8 | | for license renewal, waivers for those unable to meet such |
9 | | requirements and acceptable course content. Such |
10 | | recommendations shall not impose an undue burden on the |
11 | | Department or an unreasonable restriction on those seeking |
12 | | license renewal. |
13 | | Five Four members shall constitute a
quorum. A quorum is |
14 | | required for all Board decisions. |
15 | | Members of the Board shall have no liability in any action |
16 | | based upon any
disciplinary proceeding or other activity |
17 | | performed in good faith as a member
of the Board. |
18 | | The Secretary may terminate the appointment of any member |
19 | | for cause which
in the opinion of the Secretary
reasonably |
20 | | justifies such termination. |
21 | | (Source: P.A. 96-1050, eff. 1-1-11.)
|
22 | | (225 ILCS 15/15) (from Ch. 111, par. 5365)
|
23 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)
|
24 | | Sec. 15. Disciplinary action; grounds. The Department may |
25 | | refuse to
issue, refuse to renew, suspend,
or revoke any |
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1 | | license, or may place on probation, censure, reprimand, or
take |
2 | | other disciplinary action deemed appropriate by the |
3 | | Department,
including the imposition of fines not to exceed |
4 | | $10,000 for each violation,
with regard to any license issued |
5 | | under the provisions of this Act for any
one or a combination |
6 | | of the following reasons:
|
7 | | (1) Conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo |
8 | | contendere to, any crime that is a felony under the laws of
|
9 | | the United
States or any state or territory thereof or that |
10 | | is a misdemeanor
of which an
essential element is |
11 | | dishonesty, or any crime that
is
directly
related to the |
12 | | practice of the profession.
|
13 | | (2) Gross negligence in the rendering of clinical |
14 | | psychological
services.
|
15 | | (3) Using fraud or making any misrepresentation in |
16 | | applying for a license
or in passing the examination |
17 | | provided for in this Act.
|
18 | | (4) Aiding or abetting or conspiring to aid or abet a |
19 | | person, not a
clinical psychologist licensed under this |
20 | | Act, in representing himself or
herself as
so licensed or |
21 | | in applying for a license under this Act.
|
22 | | (5) Violation of any provision of this Act or the rules |
23 | | promulgated
thereunder.
|
24 | | (6) Professional connection or association with any |
25 | | person, firm,
association, partnership or corporation |
26 | | holding himself, herself,
themselves, or
itself out in any |
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1 | | manner contrary to this Act.
|
2 | | (7) Unethical, unauthorized or unprofessional conduct |
3 | | as defined by rule.
In establishing those rules, the |
4 | | Department shall consider, though is not
bound by, the |
5 | | ethical standards for psychologists promulgated by |
6 | | recognized
national psychology associations.
|
7 | | (8) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any |
8 | | provisions of this
Act or the rules promulgated thereunder.
|
9 | | (9) Failing to provide, within 60 days, information in |
10 | | response to a
written request made by the Department.
|
11 | | (10) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, |
12 | | narcotics,
stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug |
13 | | that results in a
clinical
psychologist's inability to |
14 | | practice with reasonable judgment, skill or
safety.
|
15 | | (11) Discipline by another state, territory, the |
16 | | District of Columbia or
foreign country, if at least one of |
17 | | the grounds for the discipline is the
same or substantially |
18 | | equivalent to those set forth herein.
|
19 | | (12) Directly or indirectly giving or receiving from |
20 | | any person, firm,
corporation, association or partnership |
21 | | any fee, commission, rebate, or
other form of compensation |
22 | | for any professional service not actually or
personally |
23 | | rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona |
24 | | fide independent contractor or employment arrangements |
25 | | among health care professionals, health facilities, health |
26 | | care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise |
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1 | | prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include |
2 | | provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or |
3 | | other employment benefits for the provision of services |
4 | | within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. |
5 | | Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to |
6 | | require an employment arrangement to receive professional |
7 | | fees for services rendered.
|
8 | | (13) A finding by the Board that the licensee, after
|
9 | | having his or her
license placed on probationary status has |
10 | | violated the terms of
probation.
|
11 | | (14) Willfully making or filing false records or |
12 | | reports, including but
not limited to, false records or |
13 | | reports filed with State agencies or
departments.
|
14 | | (15) Physical illness, including but not limited to, |
15 | | deterioration through
the aging process, mental illness or |
16 | | disability that results in
the inability to practice the |
17 | | profession
with reasonable judgment, skill and safety.
|
18 | | (16) Willfully failing to report an instance of |
19 | | suspected child abuse or
neglect as required by the Abused |
20 | | and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
|
21 | | (17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
22 | | report by the Department
of Children and Family Services |
23 | | pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child
Reporting Act, |
24 | | and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the
|
25 | | licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or |
26 | | neglected child as defined
in the Abused and Neglected |
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1 | | Child Reporting Act.
|
2 | | (18) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral |
3 | | Act.
|
4 | | (19) Making a material misstatement in furnishing |
5 | | information to the
Department, any other State or federal |
6 | | agency, or any other entity.
|
7 | | (20) Failing to report to the Department any adverse |
8 | | judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability |
9 | | claim related to an act or conduct similar to an act or |
10 | | conduct that would constitute grounds for action as set |
11 | | forth in this Section. |
12 | | (21) Failing to report to the Department any adverse |
13 | | final action taken against a licensee or applicant by |
14 | | another licensing jurisdiction, including any other state |
15 | | or territory of the United States or any foreign state or |
16 | | country, or any peer review body, health care institution, |
17 | | professional society or association related to the |
18 | | profession, governmental agency, law enforcement agency, |
19 | | or court for an act or conduct similar to an act or conduct |
20 | | that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action as |
21 | | set forth in this Section.
|
22 | | (22) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
23 | | distributing, giving, or self-administering (A) any drug |
24 | | classified as a controlled substance (designated product) |
25 | | for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes or |
26 | | (B) any narcotic drug. |
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1 | | (23) Violating state or federal laws or regulations |
2 | | relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or |
3 | | ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act. |
4 | | The entry of an order by any circuit court establishing |
5 | | that any person
holding a license under this Act is subject to |
6 | | involuntary admission or
judicial admission as provided for in |
7 | | the Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Code, |
8 | | operates as an automatic suspension of that license. That
|
9 | | person may have his or her license restored only upon the |
10 | | determination by
a circuit
court that the patient is no longer |
11 | | subject to involuntary admission or
judicial admission and the |
12 | | issuance of an order so finding and discharging the
patient and |
13 | | upon the Board's recommendation to the
Department that the
|
14 | | license be restored. Where the circumstances so indicate, the |
15 | | Board may
recommend to the Department that it require an |
16 | | examination prior to restoring
any license so automatically |
17 | | suspended.
|
18 | | The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the |
19 | | license of any person
who fails to file a return, or to pay the |
20 | | tax, penalty or interest shown in
a filed return, or to pay any |
21 | | final assessment of the tax penalty or
interest, as required by |
22 | | any tax Act administered by the Illinois
Department of Revenue, |
23 | | until such time as the requirements of any such tax
Act are |
24 | | satisfied.
|
25 | | In enforcing this Section, the Board upon a showing of a |
26 | | possible
violation may compel any person licensed to practice |
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1 | | under this Act, or
who has applied for licensure or |
2 | | certification pursuant to this Act, to submit
to a mental or |
3 | | physical examination, or both, as required by and at the |
4 | | expense
of the Department. The examining physicians or clinical |
5 | | psychologists
shall be those specifically designated by the |
6 | | Board.
The Board or the Department may order the examining |
7 | | physician or clinical
psychologist to present testimony |
8 | | concerning this mental or physical
examination
of the licensee |
9 | | or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of
any |
10 | | common law or statutory privilege relating to communications |
11 | | between the
licensee or applicant and the examining physician |
12 | | or clinical psychologist.
The person to be examined may have, |
13 | | at his or her own expense, another
physician or clinical |
14 | | psychologist of his or her choice present during all
aspects of |
15 | | the examination. Failure of any person to submit to a mental or
|
16 | | physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for |
17 | | suspension of a
license until the person submits to the |
18 | | examination if the Board finds,
after notice and hearing, that |
19 | | the refusal to submit to the examination was
without reasonable |
20 | | cause.
|
21 | | If the Board finds a person unable to practice because of |
22 | | the reasons
set forth in this Section, the Board may require |
23 | | that person to submit to
care, counseling or treatment by |
24 | | physicians or clinical psychologists approved
or designated by |
25 | | the Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued,
|
26 | | reinstated, or
renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of |
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1 | | care, counseling or treatment,
the
Board may recommend to the |
2 | | Department to file a complaint to immediately
suspend, revoke |
3 | | or otherwise discipline the license of the person.
Any person |
4 | | whose
license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, |
5 | | disciplined or supervised
subject to such terms, conditions or |
6 | | restrictions, and who fails to comply with
such terms, |
7 | | conditions or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary |
8 | | for a
determination as to whether the person shall have his or |
9 | | her license
suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the |
10 | | Board.
|
11 | | In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a |
12 | | person's license
under this Section, a hearing on that person's |
13 | | license must be convened by
the Board within 15 days after the |
14 | | suspension and completed without appreciable
delay.
The Board |
15 | | shall have the authority to review the subject person's record |
16 | | of
treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the |
17 | | extent permitted by
applicable federal statutes and |
18 | | regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of
medical |
19 | | records.
|
20 | | A person licensed under this Act and affected under this |
21 | | Section shall
be
afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the |
22 | | Board that he or she can resume
practice in compliance with |
23 | | acceptable and prevailing standards under the
provisions of his |
24 | | or her license.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10.)
|
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1 | | Section 10. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by |
2 | | changing Sections 22 and 54.5 as follows:
|
3 | | (225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)
|
4 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2014)
|
5 | | Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.
|
6 | | (A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, |
7 | | reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other |
8 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may |
9 | | deem proper
with regard to the license or permit of any person |
10 | | issued
under this Act to practice medicine, or a chiropractic |
11 | | physician, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for |
12 | | each violation, upon any of the following grounds:
|
13 | | (1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, |
14 | | locale,
facility, or
institution other than:
|
15 | | (a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory |
16 | | Surgical Treatment
Center Act;
|
17 | | (b) an institution licensed under the Hospital |
18 | | Licensing Act;
|
19 | | (c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or |
20 | | hospitalization or care
facility maintained by the |
21 | | State or any agency thereof, where such department
or |
22 | | agency has authority under law to establish and enforce |
23 | | standards for the
ambulatory surgical treatment |
24 | | centers, hospitalization, or care facilities
under its |
25 | | management and control;
|
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1 | | (d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, |
2 | | hospitalization or care
facilities maintained by the |
3 | | Federal Government; or
|
4 | | (e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, |
5 | | hospitalization or care
facilities maintained by any |
6 | | university or college established under the laws
of |
7 | | this State and supported principally by public funds |
8 | | raised by
taxation.
|
9 | | (2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a wilful |
10 | | and wanton
manner on a
woman who was not pregnant at the |
11 | | time the abortion procedure was
performed.
|
12 | | (3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of |
13 | | guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, |
14 | | including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding |
15 | | sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first |
16 | | offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of |
17 | | the United States of any crime that is a felony.
|
18 | | (4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.
|
19 | | (5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or |
20 | | unprofessional
conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
21 | | defraud or harm the public.
|
22 | | (6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or
|
23 | | misrepresentation.
|
24 | | (7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined |
25 | | in law
as
controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any |
26 | | other substances which results in
the inability to practice |
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1 | | with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
|
2 | | (8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by |
3 | | law, an
assumed
name.
|
4 | | (9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or |
5 | | procuring, a
license
under this Act or in connection with |
6 | | applying for renewal of a license under
this Act.
|
7 | | (10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding |
8 | | their
skill or the
efficacy or value of the medicine, |
9 | | treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at
their direction |
10 | | in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the |
11 | | body
or mind.
|
12 | | (11) Allowing another person or organization to use |
13 | | their
license, procured
under this Act, to practice.
|
14 | | (12) Disciplinary action of another state or |
15 | | jurisdiction
against a license
or other authorization to |
16 | | practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy,
doctor |
17 | | of osteopathic medicine or
doctor of chiropractic, a |
18 | | certified copy of the record of the action taken by
the |
19 | | other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence |
20 | | thereof.
|
21 | | (13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the |
22 | | Medical
Practice Act
prior to the repeal of that Act, or |
23 | | violation of the rules, or a final
administrative action of |
24 | | the Secretary, after consideration of the
recommendation |
25 | | of the Disciplinary Board.
|
26 | | (14) Violation of the prohibition against fee |
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1 | | splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.
|
2 | | (15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the
|
3 | | registrant after
having his or her license placed on |
4 | | probationary status or subjected to
conditions or |
5 | | restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed |
6 | | to
comply with such terms or conditions.
|
7 | | (16) Abandonment of a patient.
|
8 | | (17) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
9 | | distributing, giving
or
self-administering any drug |
10 | | classified as a controlled substance (designated
product) |
11 | | or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic
|
12 | | purposes.
|
13 | | (18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
14 | | appliances or
goods provided
for a patient in such manner |
15 | | as to exploit the patient for financial gain of
the |
16 | | physician.
|
17 | | (19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat
|
18 | | disease by a secret
method, procedure, treatment or |
19 | | medicine, or the treating, operating or
prescribing for any |
20 | | human condition by a method, means or procedure which the
|
21 | | licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.
|
22 | | (20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act |
23 | | including,
but not limited to, commission of an act of |
24 | | sexual misconduct related to the
licensee's
practice.
|
25 | | (21) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports |
26 | | in his
or her
practice as a physician, including, but not |
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1 | | limited to, false records to
support claims against the |
2 | | medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare |
3 | | and Family Services (formerly Department of
Public Aid)
|
4 | | under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
|
5 | | (22) Wilful omission to file or record, or wilfully |
6 | | impeding
the filing or
recording, or inducing another |
7 | | person to omit to file or record, medical
reports as |
8 | | required by law, or wilfully failing to report an instance |
9 | | of
suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.
|
10 | | (23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
11 | | report by
the Department
of Children and Family Services |
12 | | under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting
Act, and |
13 | | upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
14 | | licensee has
caused a child to be an abused child or |
15 | | neglected child as defined in the
Abused and Neglected |
16 | | Child Reporting Act.
|
17 | | (24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any
|
18 | | corporation, agents or
persons, or profiting from those |
19 | | representing themselves to be agents of the
licensee.
|
20 | | (25) Gross and wilful and continued overcharging for
|
21 | | professional services,
including filing false statements |
22 | | for collection of fees for which services are
not rendered, |
23 | | including, but not limited to, filing such false statements |
24 | | for
collection of monies for services not rendered from the |
25 | | medical assistance
program of the Department of Healthcare |
26 | | and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
|
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1 | | under the Illinois Public Aid
Code.
|
2 | | (26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
|
3 | | demonstrates
incapacity
or incompetence to practice under |
4 | | this Act.
|
5 | | (27) Mental illness or disability which results in the
|
6 | | inability to
practice under this Act with reasonable |
7 | | judgment, skill or safety.
|
8 | | (28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to,
|
9 | | deterioration through
the aging process, or loss of motor |
10 | | skill which results in a physician's
inability to practice |
11 | | under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or
safety.
|
12 | | (29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing
|
13 | | examinations
administered under this Act.
|
14 | | (30) Wilfully or negligently violating the |
15 | | confidentiality
between
physician and patient except as |
16 | | required by law.
|
17 | | (31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive |
18 | | statement
in any
document connected with practice under |
19 | | this Act.
|
20 | | (32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed |
21 | | under this
Act in the
practice of a profession licensed |
22 | | under this Act.
|
23 | | (33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations |
24 | | relating
to controlled
substances, legend
drugs, or |
25 | | ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.
|
26 | | (34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
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1 | | final
action taken
against them by another licensing |
2 | | jurisdiction (any other state or any
territory of the |
3 | | United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer
|
4 | | review body, by any health care institution, by any |
5 | | professional society or
association related to practice |
6 | | under this Act, by any governmental agency, by
any law |
7 | | enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct |
8 | | similar to acts
or conduct which would constitute grounds |
9 | | for action as defined in this
Section.
|
10 | | (35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a
|
11 | | license or
authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a |
12 | | doctor of osteopathy, a
doctor of osteopathic medicine, or |
13 | | doctor
of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or |
14 | | surrender of membership on
any medical staff or in any |
15 | | medical or professional association or society,
while |
16 | | under disciplinary investigation by any of those |
17 | | authorities or bodies,
for acts or conduct similar to acts |
18 | | or conduct which would constitute grounds
for action as |
19 | | defined in this Section.
|
20 | | (36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
21 | | judgment,
settlement,
or award arising from a liability |
22 | | claim related to acts or conduct similar to
acts or conduct |
23 | | which would constitute grounds for action as defined in |
24 | | this
Section.
|
25 | | (37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as |
26 | | required
by law.
|
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1 | | (38) Failure to furnish the Department, its |
2 | | investigators or
representatives, relevant information, |
3 | | legally requested by the Department
after consultation |
4 | | with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical
|
5 | | Coordinator.
|
6 | | (39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral
|
7 | | Act.
|
8 | | (40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is |
9 | | required
under the
Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.
|
10 | | (41) Failure to establish and maintain records of |
11 | | patient care and
treatment as required by this law.
|
12 | | (42) Entering into an excessive number of written |
13 | | collaborative
agreements with licensed advanced practice |
14 | | nurses resulting in an inability to
adequately |
15 | | collaborate.
|
16 | | (43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
17 | | licensed advanced practice nurse. |
18 | | (44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical |
19 | | Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
|
20 | | (45) Entering into an excessive number of supervisory |
21 | | agreements with conditionally licensed prescribing |
22 | | psychologists or an excessive number of written |
23 | | collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing |
24 | | psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately |
25 | | collaborate. |
26 | | (46) Repeated failure to adequately supervise a |
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1 | | conditionally licensed prescribing psychologist or failure |
2 | | to adequately collaborate with a licensed prescribing |
3 | | psychologist. |
4 | | Except
for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all |
5 | | proceedings to suspend,
revoke, place on probationary status, |
6 | | or take any
other disciplinary action as the Department may |
7 | | deem proper, with regard to a
license on any of the foregoing |
8 | | grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next
after receipt by |
9 | | the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or
|
10 | | notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described |
11 | | herein. Except
for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and |
12 | | (29), no action shall be commenced more
than 10 years after the |
13 | | date of the incident or act alleged to have violated
this |
14 | | Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a |
15 | | pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents |
16 | | alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior |
17 | | that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act |
18 | | received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the |
19 | | complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause |
20 | | of action
in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final |
21 | | judgment of any civil action
in favor of the plaintiff, such |
22 | | claim, cause of action or civil action being
grounded on the |
23 | | allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent
|
24 | | in providing care, the Department shall have an additional |
25 | | period of 2 years
from the date of notification to the |
26 | | Department under Section 23 of this Act
of such settlement or |
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1 | | final judgment in which to investigate and
commence formal |
2 | | disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except
|
3 | | as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder |
4 | | of the license
was outside the State of Illinois shall not be |
5 | | included within any period of
time limiting the commencement of |
6 | | disciplinary action by the Department.
|
7 | | The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court |
8 | | establishing that any
person holding a license under this Act |
9 | | is a person in need of mental treatment
operates as a |
10 | | suspension of that license. That person may resume their
|
11 | | practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon |
12 | | a finding by
the Disciplinary Board that they have been |
13 | | determined to be recovered
from mental illness by the court and |
14 | | upon the Disciplinary Board's
recommendation that they be |
15 | | permitted to resume their practice.
|
16 | | The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary |
17 | | action concerning the license of any person
who fails to file a |
18 | | return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a
filed |
19 | | return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or |
20 | | interest, as
required by any tax Act administered by the |
21 | | Illinois Department of Revenue,
until such time as the |
22 | | requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as
determined by |
23 | | the Illinois Department of Revenue.
|
24 | | The Department, upon the recommendation of the |
25 | | Disciplinary Board, shall
adopt rules which set forth standards |
26 | | to be used in determining:
|
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1 | | (a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently |
2 | | rehabilitated to warrant the
public trust;
|
3 | | (b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or |
4 | | unprofessional conduct of
a character likely to deceive, |
5 | | defraud, or harm the public;
|
6 | | (c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission |
7 | | of any act,
including, but not limited to, commission of an |
8 | | act of sexual misconduct
related
to the licensee's |
9 | | practice; and
|
10 | | (d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice |
11 | | of medicine.
|
12 | | However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in |
13 | | any civil action
except for review of a licensing or other |
14 | | disciplinary action under this Act.
|
15 | | In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the |
16 | | Licensing Board,
upon a showing of a possible violation, may |
17 | | compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual |
18 | | who is licensed to
practice under this Act or holds a permit to |
19 | | practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing |
20 | | Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit
|
21 | | pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical |
22 | | examination and evaluation, or both,
which may include a |
23 | | substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by |
24 | | the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of |
25 | | the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall |
26 | | specifically designate the examining physician licensed to |
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1 | | practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the |
2 | | multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or |
3 | | physical examination and evaluation, or both. The |
4 | | multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to |
5 | | practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one |
6 | | or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice |
7 | | medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic |
8 | | physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical |
9 | | social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and |
10 | | other professional and administrative staff. Any examining |
11 | | physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require |
12 | | any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation |
13 | | pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional |
14 | | supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any |
15 | | examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited |
16 | | to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or |
17 | | neuropsychological testing.
The Disciplinary Board, the |
18 | | Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining
|
19 | | physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to |
20 | | provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the |
21 | | Licensing Board any and all records, including business |
22 | | records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, |
23 | | including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary |
24 | | Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the |
25 | | examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team |
26 | | to present testimony concerning this examination
and |
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1 | | evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, |
2 | | including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or |
3 | | documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No |
4 | | information, report, record, or other documents in any way |
5 | | related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by |
6 | | reason of
any common
law or statutory privilege relating to |
7 | | communication between the licensee or
applicant and
the |
8 | | examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary |
9 | | team.
No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit |
10 | | holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and |
11 | | examination for the examining physician or any member of the |
12 | | multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, |
13 | | records, or other documents or to provide any testimony |
14 | | regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be |
15 | | examined may have, at his or her own expense, another
physician |
16 | | of his or her choice present during all aspects of the |
17 | | examination.
Failure of any individual to submit to mental or |
18 | | physical examination and evaluation, or both, when
directed, |
19 | | shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until |
20 | | such time
as the individual submits to the examination. If the |
21 | | Disciplinary Board finds a physician unable
to practice because |
22 | | of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Disciplinary
|
23 | | Board shall require such physician to submit to care, |
24 | | counseling, or treatment
by physicians approved or designated |
25 | | by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition
for continued, |
26 | | reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician,
|
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1 | | whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of |
2 | | this Act, or,
continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or |
3 | | supervised, subject to such
terms, conditions or restrictions |
4 | | who shall fail to comply with such terms,
conditions or |
5 | | restrictions, or to complete a required program of care,
|
6 | | counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical |
7 | | Coordinator or
Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred |
8 | | to the Secretary for a
determination as to whether the licensee |
9 | | shall have their license suspended
immediately, pending a |
10 | | hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In instances in
which the |
11 | | Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a |
12 | | hearing
upon such person's license must be convened by the |
13 | | Disciplinary Board within 15
days after such suspension and |
14 | | completed without appreciable delay. The
Disciplinary Board |
15 | | shall have the authority to review the subject physician's
|
16 | | record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to |
17 | | the extent
permitted by applicable federal statutes and |
18 | | regulations safeguarding the
confidentiality of medical |
19 | | records.
|
20 | | An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this |
21 | | Section, shall be
afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the |
22 | | Disciplinary Board that they can
resume practice in compliance |
23 | | with acceptable and prevailing standards under
the provisions |
24 | | of their license.
|
25 | | The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of |
26 | | fines in
disciplinary cases, not to exceed
$10,000 for each |
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1 | | violation of this Act. Fines
may be imposed in conjunction with |
2 | | other forms of disciplinary action, but
shall not be the |
3 | | exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out
of |
4 | | conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds |
5 | | collected from
such fines shall be deposited in the Medical |
6 | | Disciplinary Fund.
|
7 | | All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within |
8 | | 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine |
9 | | or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing |
10 | | the fine. |
11 | | (B) The Department shall revoke the license or
permit |
12 | | issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic |
13 | | physician who
has been convicted a second time of committing |
14 | | any felony under the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the |
15 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who |
16 | | has been convicted a second time of
committing a Class 1 felony |
17 | | under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public
Aid Code. A |
18 | | person whose license or permit is revoked
under
this subsection |
19 | | B shall be prohibited from practicing
medicine or treating |
20 | | human ailments without the use of drugs and without
operative |
21 | | surgery.
|
22 | | (C) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the
|
23 | | Department civil
penalties and any other appropriate |
24 | | discipline in disciplinary cases when the
Board finds that a |
25 | | physician willfully performed an abortion with actual
|
26 | | knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been |
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1 | | performed is a minor
or an incompetent person without notice as |
2 | | required under the Parental Notice
of Abortion Act of 1995. |
3 | | Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall
impose, |
4 | | for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a |
5 | | second or
subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.
|
6 | | (Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-601, eff. 12-30-13.)
|
7 | | (225 ILCS 60/54.5)
|
8 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2014)
|
9 | | Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician |
10 | | assistants , and advanced practice nurses , and prescribing |
11 | | psychologists .
|
12 | | (a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its
|
13 | | branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a
|
14 | | physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the
|
15 | | requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of
1987. A |
16 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches may |
17 | | enter into supervising physician agreements with
no more than 5 |
18 | | physician assistants as set forth in subsection (a) of Section |
19 | | 7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
|
20 | | (b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
|
21 | | branches in active clinical practice may collaborate with an |
22 | | advanced practice
nurse in accordance with the requirements of |
23 | | the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration
is for the purpose of |
24 | | providing medical consultation,
and no employment relationship |
25 | | is required. A
written collaborative agreement shall
conform to |
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1 | | the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
2 | | The written collaborative agreement shall
be for
services the |
3 | | collaborating physician generally provides or may provide in
|
4 | | his or her clinical medical practice.
A written collaborative |
5 | | agreement shall be adequate with respect to collaboration
with |
6 | | advanced practice nurses if all of the following apply:
|
7 | | (1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of |
8 | | professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse |
9 | | commensurate with his or her education and experience. The |
10 | | agreement need not describe the exact steps that an |
11 | | advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each |
12 | | specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify |
13 | | those procedures that require a physician's presence as the |
14 | | procedures are being performed.
|
15 | | (2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and |
16 | | approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and |
17 | | collaborating physician, as needed, based on the practice |
18 | | of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders and the |
19 | | patient services provided thereunder are periodically |
20 | | reviewed by the collaborating physician.
|
21 | | (3) The advance practice nurse provides services the |
22 | | collaborating physician generally provides or may provide |
23 | | in his or her clinical medical practice, except as set |
24 | | forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to |
25 | | labor and delivery, the collaborating physician must |
26 | | provide delivery services in order to participate with a |
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1 | | certified nurse midwife. |
2 | | (4) The collaborating physician and advanced practice |
3 | | nurse consult at least once a month to provide |
4 | | collaboration and consultation. |
5 | | (5) Methods of communication are available with the |
6 | | collaborating physician in person or through |
7 | | telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and |
8 | | referral as needed to address patient care needs. |
9 | | (6) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice |
10 | | for termination or change of status involving a written |
11 | | collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given |
12 | | for just cause.
|
13 | | (b-5) An anesthesiologist or physician licensed to |
14 | | practice medicine in
all its branches may collaborate with a |
15 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist
in accordance with |
16 | | Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of |
17 | | anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of |
18 | | anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or |
19 | | physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of |
20 | | anesthesia services consistent with Department rules. |
21 | | Collaboration shall be
adequate if:
|
22 | | (1) an anesthesiologist or a physician
participates in |
23 | | the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or
|
24 | | guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the |
25 | | services provided
patients under such orders; and
|
26 | | (2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist
or |
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1 | | physician participates through discussion of and agreement |
2 | | with the
anesthesia plan and is physically present and |
3 | | available on the premises during
the delivery of anesthesia |
4 | | services for
diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of |
5 | | emergency medical conditions.
Anesthesia services in a |
6 | | hospital shall be conducted in accordance with
Section 10.7 |
7 | | of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical
|
8 | | treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the |
9 | | Ambulatory Surgical
Treatment Center Act.
|
10 | | (b-10) The anesthesiologist or operating physician must |
11 | | agree with the
anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of |
12 | | services.
|
13 | | (c) The supervising physician shall have access to the
|
14 | | medical records of all patients attended by a physician
|
15 | | assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to
the |
16 | | medical records of all patients attended to by an
advanced |
17 | | practice nurse.
|
18 | | (d) (Blank).
|
19 | | (e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or
|
20 | | omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant , |
21 | | or advanced practice
nurse solely on the basis of having signed |
22 | | a
supervision agreement or guidelines or a collaborative
|
23 | | agreement, an order, a standing medical order, a
standing |
24 | | delegation order, or other order or guideline
authorizing a |
25 | | prescribing psychologist, physician assistant , or advanced |
26 | | practice
nurse to perform acts, unless the physician has
reason |
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1 | | to believe the prescribing psychologist, physician assistant , |
2 | | or advanced
practice nurse lacked the competency to perform
the |
3 | | act or acts or commits willful and wanton misconduct.
|
4 | | (f) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, |
5 | | delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse |
6 | | as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the |
7 | | delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the |
8 | | requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
9 | | (g) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, |
10 | | delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as |
11 | | part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of |
12 | | prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |
13 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. |
14 | | (h) For the purposes of this Section, "generally provides |
15 | | or may provide in his or her clinical medical practice" means |
16 | | categories of care or treatment, not specific tasks or duties, |
17 | | that the physician provides individually or through delegation |
18 | | to other persons so that the physician has the experience and |
19 | | ability to provide collaboration and consultation. This |
20 | | definition shall not be construed to prohibit an advanced |
21 | | practice nurse from providing primary health treatment or care |
22 | | within the scope of his or her training and experience, |
23 | | including, but not limited to, health screenings, patient |
24 | | histories, physical examinations, women's health examinations, |
25 | | or school physicals that may be provided as part of the routine |
26 | | practice of an advanced practice nurse or on a volunteer basis. |
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1 | | (i) A supervising physician shall delegate prescriptive |
2 | | authority to a conditional prescribing psychologist as part of |
3 | | a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of |
4 | | prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |
5 | | Section 4.1a of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. |
6 | | (j) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive |
7 | | authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written |
8 | | collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive |
9 | | authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of |
10 | | the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. |
11 | | (Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1071, eff. 8-24-12; |
12 | | 98-192, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
13 | | Section 15. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is |
14 | | amended by changing Sections 102 and 303.05 as follows: |
15 | | (720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102) |
16 | | Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
17 | | context
otherwise requires:
|
18 | | (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, |
19 | | chemical,
substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as |
20 | | to endanger the public
morals, health, safety or welfare or who |
21 | | is so far addicted to the use of a
dangerous drug or controlled |
22 | | substance other than alcohol as to have lost
the power of self |
23 | | control with reference to his or her addiction.
|
24 | | (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a |
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1 | | controlled
substance, whether by injection, inhalation, |
2 | | ingestion, or any other
means, to the body of a patient, |
3 | | research subject, or animal (as
defined by the Humane |
4 | | Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
|
5 | | (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his |
6 | | or her authorized agent),
|
7 | | (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an |
8 | | order, or
|
9 | | (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane |
10 | | Euthanasia in
Animal Shelters Act.
|
11 | | (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf |
12 | | of or at
the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, |
13 | | dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not
include a |
14 | | common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
|
15 | | the carrier or warehouseman.
|
16 | | (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal |
17 | | substance,
chemically and pharmacologically related to |
18 | | testosterone (other than
estrogens, progestins, |
19 | | corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone),
and includes:
|
20 | | (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
21 | | (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
22 | | (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, |
23 | | (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], |
24 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
25 | | (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], |
26 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
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1 | | (vi) 4-androstenediol |
2 | | (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), |
3 | | (vii) 5-androstenediol |
4 | | (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), |
5 | | (viii) 1-androstenedione |
6 | | ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), |
7 | | (ix) 4-androstenedione |
8 | | (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), |
9 | | (x) 5-androstenedione |
10 | | (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), |
11 | | (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
12 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
13 | | (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
14 | | 1,4,-diene-3-one), |
15 | | (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- |
16 | | diene-3,17-dione), |
17 | | (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 |
18 | | [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
19 | | (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
20 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
21 | | (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- |
22 | | 17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- |
23 | | androst-1,4-dien-3-one), |
24 | | (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone |
25 | | (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] |
26 | | -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), |
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1 | | (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a. |
2 | | '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
3 | | 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
4 | | (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
5 | | androstan-3-one), |
6 | | (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- |
7 | | 5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
8 | | (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
9 | | hydroxyestr-4-ene), |
10 | | (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- |
11 | | 1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
12 | | (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], |
13 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
14 | | (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
15 | | hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), |
16 | | (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) |
17 | | (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- |
18 | | androst-4-en-3-one), |
19 | | (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- |
20 | | dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), |
21 | | (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
22 | | hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), |
23 | | (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
24 | | [5a]-androstan-3-one), |
25 | | (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
26 | | hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
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1 | | (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
2 | | dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), |
3 | | (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
4 | | 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
5 | | (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- |
6 | | dihydroxy-5a-androstane), |
7 | | (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy |
8 | | -5a-androstane), |
9 | | (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
10 | | dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), |
11 | | (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- |
12 | | methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
13 | | (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
14 | | hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), |
15 | | (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
16 | | hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), |
17 | | (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
18 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
19 | | (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
20 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
21 | | (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone |
22 | | (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- |
23 | | androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- |
24 | | 1-testosterone'), |
25 | | (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
26 | | (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
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|
1 | | dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
2 | | (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
3 | | dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
4 | | (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
5 | | dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
6 | | (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
7 | | dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
8 | | (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione |
9 | | (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), |
10 | | (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- |
11 | | en-3,17-dione), |
12 | | (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- |
13 | | en-3,17-dione), |
14 | | (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- |
15 | | hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), |
16 | | (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
17 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
18 | | (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
19 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
20 | | (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
21 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
22 | | (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
23 | | 2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
24 | | (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- |
25 | | dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
26 | | (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- |
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1 | | 17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
2 | | (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
3 | | (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), |
4 | | (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
5 | | (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
6 | | (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- |
7 | | secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic |
8 | | acid lactone), |
9 | | (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
10 | | 4-en-3-one), |
11 | | (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- |
12 | | diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- |
13 | | 4,9,11-trien-3-one), |
14 | | (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, |
15 | | 11-trien-3-one).
|
16 | | Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an |
17 | | anabolic
steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, |
18 | | distributes, dispenses,
delivers, or possesses with intent to |
19 | | deliver an anabolic steroid, which
anabolic steroid is |
20 | | expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be
administered |
21 | | through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
|
22 | | which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services |
23 | | for such
administration, and which the person intends to |
24 | | administer or have
administered through such implants, shall |
25 | | not be considered to be in
unauthorized possession or to |
26 | | unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense,
deliver, or |
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1 | | possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
|
2 | | purposes of this Act.
|
3 | | (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement |
4 | | Administration,
United States Department of Justice, or its |
5 | | successor agency.
|
6 | | (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" |
7 | | means a Department of Human Services administrative employee |
8 | | licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances |
9 | | who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human |
10 | | Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription |
11 | | Information Library. |
12 | | (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of |
13 | | components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a |
14 | | prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the |
15 | | prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of |
16 | | professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident |
17 | | to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale |
18 | | or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs |
19 | | or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug |
20 | | orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing |
21 | | patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded |
22 | | for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the |
23 | | following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not |
24 | | reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a |
25 | | timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the |
26 | | prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be |
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1 | | compounded. |
2 | | (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or |
3 | | immediate
precursor, to a Schedule whether by
transfer from |
4 | | another Schedule or otherwise.
|
5 | | (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or |
6 | | immediate
precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act |
7 | | or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, |
8 | | designated as a controlled substance by the Department through |
9 | | administrative rule. The term does not include distilled |
10 | | spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
|
11 | | defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the |
12 | | Tobacco Products Tax
Act of 1995 .
|
13 | | (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance: |
14 | | (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially |
15 | | similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance |
16 | | in Schedule I or II; |
17 | | (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or |
18 | | hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is |
19 | | substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, |
20 | | depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
21 | | nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or |
22 | | II; or |
23 | | (3) with respect to a particular person, which such |
24 | | person represents or intends to have a stimulant, |
25 | | depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
26 | | nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater |
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1 | | than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect |
2 | | on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in |
3 | | Schedule I or II. |
4 | | (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, |
5 | | which, or
the container or labeling of which, without |
6 | | authorization bears the
trademark, trade name, or other |
7 | | identifying mark, imprint, number or
device, or any likeness |
8 | | thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or
dispenser other |
9 | | than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed,
or |
10 | | dispensed the substance.
|
11 | | (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive |
12 | | or
attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, |
13 | | with or
without consideration, whether or not there is an |
14 | | agency relationship.
|
15 | | (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human |
16 | | Services (as
successor to the Department of Alcoholism and |
17 | | Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
|
18 | | (j) (Blank).
|
19 | | (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of |
20 | | Corrections
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
21 | | (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" |
22 | | means the Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation |
23 | | of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
24 | | (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall |
25 | | depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes |
26 | | impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
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1 | | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
2 | | but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles |
3 | | and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, |
4 | | barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and |
5 | | synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar |
6 | | sedative hypnotics.
|
7 | | (n) (Blank).
|
8 | | (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State |
9 | | Police or his or her designated agents.
|
10 | | (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to |
11 | | an
ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the |
12 | | lawful order of
a prescriber, including the prescribing, |
13 | | administering, packaging,
labeling, or compounding necessary |
14 | | to prepare the substance for that
delivery.
|
15 | | (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
|
16 | | (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by |
17 | | administering or
dispensing, a controlled substance.
|
18 | | (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
|
19 | | (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the |
20 | | official
United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic |
21 | | Pharmacopoeia of the
United States, or official National |
22 | | Formulary, or any supplement to any
of them; (2) substances |
23 | | intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment, or |
24 | | prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances
(other |
25 | | than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
|
26 | | the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use |
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1 | | as a
component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or |
2 | | (3) of this
subsection. It does not include devices or their |
3 | | components, parts, or
accessories.
|
4 | | (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means
an entity certified by the |
5 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
|
6 | | purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control |
7 | | facility license or
animal
shelter license under the Animal |
8 | | Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is
authorized to purchase, |
9 | | store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
|
10 | | Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal |
11 | | euthanasia.
|
12 | | (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III |
13 | | substances
(nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used |
14 | | by a euthanasia agency for
the purpose of animal euthanasia.
|
15 | | (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a |
16 | | controlled
substance by a practitioner in the regular course of |
17 | | professional
treatment to or for any person who is under his or |
18 | | her treatment for a
pathology or condition other than that |
19 | | individual's physical or
psychological dependence upon or |
20 | | addiction to a controlled substance,
except as provided herein: |
21 | | and application of the term to a pharmacist
shall mean the |
22 | | dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
|
23 | | prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the |
24 | | pharmacist
is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by |
25 | | accepted professional
standards including, but not limited to |
26 | | the following, in making the
judgment:
|
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1 | | (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient |
2 | | relationship,
|
3 | | (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one |
4 | | prescriber for
large numbers of patients,
|
5 | | (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
|
6 | | (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be |
7 | | clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual |
8 | | dose may be used legitimately),
|
9 | | (5) unusual geographic distances between patient, |
10 | | pharmacist and
prescriber,
|
11 | | (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
|
12 | | (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly |
13 | | altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any |
14 | | type. |
15 | | (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a |
16 | | pharmacy in
compounding solutions for direct administration to |
17 | | a patient in a private
residence, long-term care facility, or |
18 | | hospice setting by means of parenteral,
intravenous, |
19 | | intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
|
20 | | (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State
Police of the |
21 | | State of Illinois, or its successor agency. |
22 | | (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
|
23 | | (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule |
24 | | designated as
being a principal compound used, or produced |
25 | | primarily for use, in the
manufacture of a controlled |
26 | | substance;
|
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1 | | (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or |
2 | | likely to
be used in the manufacture of such controlled |
3 | | substance; and
|
4 | | (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, |
5 | | curtail or limit
the manufacture of such controlled |
6 | | substance.
|
7 | | (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, |
8 | | educating
or instructing by practitioners using controlled |
9 | | substances within
educational facilities approved by the State |
10 | | Board of Education or
its successor agency.
|
11 | | (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, |
12 | | County or
Municipal peace unit or police force.
|
13 | | (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a |
14 | | controlled
substance which (1) by overall dosage unit |
15 | | appearance, including shape,
color, size, markings or lack |
16 | | thereof, taste, consistency, or any other
identifying physical |
17 | | characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable
person |
18 | | to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) |
19 | | is
expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled |
20 | | substance or is
distributed under circumstances which would |
21 | | lead a reasonable person to
believe that the substance is a |
22 | | controlled substance. For the purpose of
determining whether |
23 | | the representations made or the circumstances of the
|
24 | | distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the |
25 | | substance to be
a controlled substance under this clause (2) of |
26 | | subsection (y), the court or
other authority may consider the |
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1 | | following factors in addition to any other
factor that may be |
2 | | relevant:
|
3 | | (a) statements made by the owner or person in control |
4 | | of the substance
concerning its nature, use or effect;
|
5 | | (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the |
6 | | substance may
be resold for profit;
|
7 | | (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner |
8 | | normally used for the
illegal distribution of controlled |
9 | | substances;
|
10 | | (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution |
11 | | included an
exchange of or demand for money or other |
12 | | property as consideration, and
whether the amount of the |
13 | | consideration was substantially greater than the
|
14 | | reasonable retail market value of the substance.
|
15 | | Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a |
16 | | noncontrolled
substance in its finished dosage form that was |
17 | | initially introduced into
commerce prior to the initial |
18 | | introduction into commerce of a controlled
substance in its |
19 | | finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
|
20 | | Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or |
21 | | distributing
of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized |
22 | | to dispense and
distribute controlled substances under this |
23 | | Act, provided that such action
would be deemed to be carried |
24 | | out in good faith under subsection (u) if the
substances |
25 | | involved were controlled substances.
|
26 | | Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the |
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1 | | manufacture,
preparation, propagation, compounding, |
2 | | processing, packaging, advertising
or distribution of a drug or |
3 | | drugs by any person registered pursuant to
Section 510 of the |
4 | | Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
|
5 | | (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is |
6 | | located in a state
of the United States that delivers, |
7 | | dispenses or
distributes, through the United States Postal |
8 | | Service or other common
carrier, to Illinois residents, any |
9 | | substance which requires a prescription.
|
10 | | (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, |
11 | | propagation,
compounding, conversion or processing of a |
12 | | controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
|
13 | | directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of |
14 | | natural origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
15 | | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
16 | | synthesis, and includes any packaging or
repackaging of the |
17 | | substance or labeling of its container, except that
this term |
18 | | does not include:
|
19 | | (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding |
20 | | of a
controlled substance for his or her own use; or
|
21 | | (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent |
22 | | under his or her
supervision, the preparation, |
23 | | compounding, packaging, or labeling of a
controlled |
24 | | substance:
|
25 | | (a) as an incident to his or her administering or |
26 | | dispensing of a
controlled substance in the course of |
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1 | | his or her professional practice; or
|
2 | | (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or |
3 | | chemical
analysis and not for sale.
|
4 | | (z-1) (Blank).
|
5 | | (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
6 | | under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
7 | | (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician |
8 | | assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through |
9 | | a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to |
10 | | practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with |
11 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, |
12 | | (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated |
13 | | authority to prescribe through a written delegation of |
14 | | authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
15 | | of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with |
16 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, or (iii) an animal |
17 | | euthanasia agency , (iv) a prescribing psychologist, or (v) a |
18 | | conditional prescribing psychologist . |
19 | | (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether |
20 | | produced
directly or indirectly by extraction from substances |
21 | | of vegetable origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
22 | | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
23 | | synthesis:
|
24 | | (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, |
25 | | including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts |
26 | | of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of |
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1 | | such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within |
2 | | the specific chemical designation; however the term |
3 | | "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline |
4 | | alkaloids of opium;
|
5 | | (2) (blank);
|
6 | | (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
|
7 | | (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of |
8 | | coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and |
9 | | ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have |
10 | | been removed;
|
11 | | (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, |
12 | | and salts of isomers; |
13 | | (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, |
14 | | and salts of isomers; |
15 | | (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which |
16 | | contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to |
17 | | in subparagraphs (1) through (6). |
18 | | (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
|
19 | | Nurse Practice Act.
|
20 | | (cc) (Blank).
|
21 | | (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction |
22 | | forming or
addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine |
23 | | or being capable of
conversion into a drug having addiction |
24 | | forming or addiction sustaining
liability.
|
25 | | (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
|
26 | | somniferum L., except its seeds.
|
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1 | | (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or |
2 | | solution or other liquid form of medication intended for |
3 | | administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form |
4 | | of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal |
5 | | administration. |
6 | | (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon |
7 | | Board of
the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
8 | | (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, |
9 | | mail-order pharmacy,
government or governmental subdivision or |
10 | | agency, business trust, estate,
trust, partnership or |
11 | | association, or any other entity.
|
12 | | (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or |
13 | | certificate of
registration as a registered pharmacist, a local |
14 | | registered pharmacist
or a registered assistant pharmacist |
15 | | under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
|
16 | | (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in |
17 | | which
pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy |
18 | | Practice Act.
|
19 | | (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
20 | | under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
21 | | (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise |
22 | | requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all |
23 | | of its branches. |
24 | | (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of |
25 | | the opium
poppy, after mowing.
|
26 | | (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice |
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1 | | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric |
2 | | physician,
veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, |
3 | | physician assistant,
advanced practice nurse,
licensed |
4 | | practical
nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or |
5 | | pharmacy, or other
person licensed, registered, or otherwise |
6 | | lawfully permitted by the
United States or this State to |
7 | | distribute, dispense, conduct research
with respect to, |
8 | | administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
|
9 | | controlled substance in the course of professional practice or |
10 | | research.
|
11 | | (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written |
12 | | prescription upon which
the designated drug has been indicated |
13 | | prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written |
14 | | prescription that is individually generated by machine or |
15 | | computer in the prescriber's office.
|
16 | | (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice |
17 | | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, |
18 | | prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the |
19 | | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, conditional prescribing |
20 | | psychologist licensed under Section 4.1 of the Clinical |
21 | | Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician , or
|
22 | | veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant |
23 | | who
issues a
prescription for a controlled substance
in |
24 | | accordance
with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a |
25 | | written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5
of the
|
26 | | Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced |
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1 | | practice
nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under |
2 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with |
3 | | Section 303.05, a written delegation,
and a written
|
4 | | collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse |
5 | | Practice Act.
|
6 | | (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral |
7 | | order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable |
8 | | federal requirements,
of
a physician licensed to practice |
9 | | medicine in all its branches,
dentist, podiatric physician or |
10 | | veterinarian for any controlled
substance, of an optometrist |
11 | | for a Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substance in accordance |
12 | | with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of |
13 | | 1987, of a physician assistant for a
controlled substance
in |
14 | | accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a |
15 | | written supervision agreement required under
Section 7.5 of the
|
16 | | Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or of an advanced |
17 | | practice
nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under |
18 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a |
19 | | prescription for a
controlled substance in accordance
with
|
20 | | Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written |
21 | | collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse |
22 | | Practice Act when required by law.
|
23 | | (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an |
24 | | electronic library that contains reported controlled substance |
25 | | data. |
26 | | (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the |
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1 | | entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on |
2 | | controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316. |
3 | | (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, |
4 | | planting,
cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled |
5 | | substance other than methamphetamine.
|
6 | | (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to |
7 | | register
under Section 302 of this Act.
|
8 | | (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each |
9 | | person
authorized to handle controlled substances under the |
10 | | laws of the United
States and of this State.
|
11 | | (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either |
12 | | the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the |
13 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the |
14 | | Secretary's designated agents. |
15 | | (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, |
16 | | district,
commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, |
17 | | and any area
subject to the legal authority of the United |
18 | | States of America.
|
19 | | (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an |
20 | | overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) |
21 | | causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
22 | | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
23 | | but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, |
24 | | methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine |
25 | | and its analogs. |
26 | | (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses |
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1 | | a
controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of |
2 | | a member of his or her
household or for administering to an |
3 | | animal owned by him or her or by a member
of his or her |
4 | | household.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised |
6 | | 11-12-13.)
|
7 | | (720 ILCS 570/303.05)
|
8 | | Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
|
9 | | (a) The Department of Financial and Professional |
10 | | Regulation shall register licensed
physician assistants , and |
11 | | licensed advanced practice nurses , prescribing psychologists |
12 | | licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist |
13 | | Licensing Act, and conditional prescribing psychologists |
14 | | licensed under Section 4.1 of the Clinical Psychologist |
15 | | Licensing Act to prescribe and
dispense controlled substances |
16 | | under Section 303 and euthanasia
agencies to purchase, store, |
17 | | or administer animal euthanasia drugs under the
following |
18 | | circumstances:
|
19 | | (1) with respect to physician assistants,
|
20 | | (A) the physician assistant has been
delegated
|
21 | | written authority to prescribe any Schedule III |
22 | | through V controlled substances by a physician |
23 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches in |
24 | | accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant |
25 | | Practice Act
of 1987;
and
the physician assistant has
|
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1 | | completed the
appropriate application forms and has |
2 | | paid the required fees as set by rule;
or
|
3 | | (B) the physician assistant has been delegated
|
4 | | authority by a supervising physician licensed to |
5 | | practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or |
6 | | dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a |
7 | | written delegation of authority and under the |
8 | | following conditions: |
9 | | (i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances |
10 | | by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
11 | | application may be delegated, provided that the |
12 | | delegated Schedule II controlled substances are |
13 | | routinely prescribed by the supervising physician. |
14 | | This delegation must identify the specific |
15 | | Schedule II controlled substances by either brand |
16 | | name or generic name. Schedule II controlled |
17 | | substances to be delivered by injection or other |
18 | | route of administration may not be delegated; |
19 | | (ii) any delegation must be of controlled |
20 | | substances prescribed by the supervising |
21 | | physician; |
22 | | (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no |
23 | | more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation |
24 | | authorized only after prior approval of the |
25 | | supervising physician; |
26 | | (iv) the physician assistant must discuss the |
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1 | | condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
2 | | substance is prescribed monthly with the |
3 | | delegating physician; |
4 | | (v) the physician assistant must have |
5 | | completed the appropriate application forms and |
6 | | paid the required fees as set by rule; |
7 | | (vi) the physician assistant must provide |
8 | | evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact |
9 | | hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant |
10 | | program accredited by the Accreditation Review |
11 | | Commission on Education for the Physician |
12 | | Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for |
13 | | any new license issued with Schedule II authority |
14 | | after the effective date of this amendatory Act of |
15 | | the 97th General Assembly; and |
16 | | (vii) the physician assistant must annually |
17 | | complete at least 5 hours of continuing education |
18 | | in pharmacology ; . |
19 | | (2) with respect to advanced practice nurses, |
20 | | (A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
|
21 | | authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V |
22 | | controlled substances by a collaborating physician |
23 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a |
24 | | collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with |
25 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice
Act. The advanced |
26 | | practice nurse has completed the
appropriate |
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1 | | application forms and has paid the required
fees as set |
2 | | by rule; or |
3 | | (B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
|
4 | | authority by a collaborating physician licensed to |
5 | | practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating |
6 | | podiatric physician to prescribe or dispense Schedule |
7 | | II controlled substances through a written delegation |
8 | | of authority and under the following conditions: |
9 | | (i) specific Schedule II controlled substances |
10 | | by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
11 | | application may be delegated, provided that the |
12 | | delegated Schedule II controlled substances are |
13 | | routinely prescribed by the collaborating |
14 | | physician or podiatric physician. This delegation |
15 | | must identify the specific Schedule II controlled |
16 | | substances by either brand name or generic name. |
17 | | Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered |
18 | | by injection or other route of administration may |
19 | | not be delegated; |
20 | | (ii) any delegation must be of controlled |
21 | | substances prescribed by the collaborating |
22 | | physician or podiatric physician; |
23 | | (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no |
24 | | more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation |
25 | | authorized only after prior approval of the |
26 | | collaborating physician or podiatric physician; |
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1 | | (iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss |
2 | | the condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
3 | | substance is prescribed monthly with the |
4 | | delegating physician or podiatric physician or in |
5 | | the course of review as required by Section 65-40 |
6 | | of the Nurse Practice Act; |
7 | | (v) the advanced practice nurse must have |
8 | | completed the appropriate application forms and |
9 | | paid the required fees as set by rule; |
10 | | (vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide |
11 | | evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 |
12 | | graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new |
13 | | license issued with Schedule II authority after |
14 | | the effective date of this amendatory Act of the |
15 | | 97th General Assembly; and |
16 | | (vii) the advanced practice nurse must |
17 | | annually complete 5 hours of continuing education |
18 | | in pharmacology; or |
19 | | (3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the |
20 | | euthanasia agency has
obtained a license from the |
21 | | Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation and |
22 | | obtained a registration number from the
Department ; .
|
23 | | (4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the |
24 | | prescribing psychologist has been delegated
authority to |
25 | | prescribe any Schedule II through V controlled substances |
26 | | by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine |
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1 | | in all its branches in accordance with Sections 4.3 and 4.4 |
2 | | of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, and the |
3 | | prescribing psychologist has completed the
appropriate |
4 | | application forms and has paid the required
fees as set by |
5 | | rule; or |
6 | | (5) with respect to conditional prescribing |
7 | | psychologists, the conditional prescribing psychologist |
8 | | has been delegated
authority to prescribe any Schedule II |
9 | | through V controlled substances by a supervising physician |
10 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in |
11 | | accordance with Sections 4.1a and 4.4 of the Clinical |
12 | | Psychologist Licensing Act, and the conditional |
13 | | prescribing psychologist has completed the
appropriate |
14 | | application forms and has paid the required
fees as set by |
15 | | rule. |
16 | | (b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to |
17 | | prescribe those
schedules of controlled substances for which a |
18 | | licensed physician or licensed podiatric physician has |
19 | | delegated
prescriptive authority, except that an animal |
20 | | euthanasia agency does not have any
prescriptive authority.
A |
21 | | physician assistant and an advanced practice nurse are |
22 | | prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled |
23 | | substances not set forth in the required written delegation of |
24 | | authority.
|
25 | | (c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, |
26 | | physician
assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal |
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1 | | euthanasia agencies may be issued a
mid-level practitioner
|
2 | | controlled substances license for Illinois.
|
3 | | (d) A collaborating physician or podiatric physician may, |
4 | | but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an |
5 | | advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative |
6 | | agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall |
7 | | conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse |
8 | | Practice Act. |
9 | | (e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, |
10 | | delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as |
11 | | part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of |
12 | | prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |
13 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. |
14 | | (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit |
15 | | generic substitution. |
16 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; |
17 | | 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)".
|