SB2280 98TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB098 06719 MRW 36766 b

98TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2013 and 2014
SB2280

Introduced 2/15/2013, by Sen. Wm. Sam McCann

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Provides that Act may be referred to as the Constitutional Right to Carry a Firearm Act. Amends the Criminal Code of 2012. Allows a person 21 or older to carry on his or her person, openly or concealed, a firearm and firearm ammunition, unless otherwise prohibited. Allows a person 18 to 20 years of age to carry on his or her person, openly or concealed, a firearm and firearm ammunition if a member or honorably discharged veteran of the United States Armed Forces, unless otherwise prohibited. Prohibits the following persons from possessing or carrying a firearm and firearm ammunition: (1) convicted of a felony or if under 21 certain misdemeanors; (2) convicted of misdemeanor domestic violence; (3) fugitive from justice; (4) unlawful user or addicted to any controlled substance; (5) intellectually disabled, adjudicated as a mental defective, or been committed to a mental institution; (6) illegally in the United States or admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa but provides exceptions; (7) has renounced United States citizenship; (10) dishonorably discharged from the Armed Forces; or (11) subject to a court restraining order from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner, child of the intimate partner, or person, or engaging in conduct that would place an these persons in reasonable fear of bodily injury. Repeals the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and unlawful possession of a firearm and firearm ammunition. Amends various Acts to make conforming changes. Effective immediately.

CORRECTIONAL BUDGET AND IMPACT NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

HOME RULE NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning firearms, which may be referred to as the Constitutional Right to Carry a Firearm Act.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory Exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1331, eff. 7-27-10; 97-80, eff. 7-5-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-342, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-976, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 10. The Secretary of State Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Section 10b.1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 310/10b.1) (from Ch. 124, par. 110b.1)

Sec. 10b.1. Competitive examinations.

(a) For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions. Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into the Office of the Secretary of State and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education and experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical skill; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-0.1, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which would give him the powers of a peace officer, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio or other media.

The Director may, at his discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by Federal law or by the law of any State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Personnel and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Personnel for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(b) The Director of Personnel may require that each person seeking employment with the Secretary of State, as part of the application process, authorize an investigation to determine if the applicant has ever been convicted of a crime and if so, the disposition of those convictions; this authorization shall indicate the scope of the inquiry and the agencies which may be contacted. Upon this authorization, the Director of Personnel may request and receive information and assistance from any federal, state or local governmental agency as part of the authorized investigation. The investigation shall be undertaken after the fingerprinting of an applicant in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The investigation shall consist of a criminal history records check performed by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or some other entity that has the ability to check the applicant's fingerprints against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. If the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation conduct an investigation directly for the Secretary of State's Office, then the Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Department of State Police shall provide information concerning any criminal convictions, and their disposition, brought against the applicant or prospective employee of the Secretary of State upon request of the Department of Personnel when the request is made in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police. The information derived from this investigation, including the source of this information, and any conclusions or recommendations derived from this information by the Director of Personnel shall be provided to the applicant or prospective employee, or his designee, upon request to the Director of Personnel prior to any final action by the Director of Personnel on the application. No information obtained from such investigation may be placed in any automated information system. Any criminal convictions and their disposition information obtained by the Director of Personnel shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Office of the Secretary of State, except as required herein, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Office of the Secretary of State except as needed for the purpose of evaluating the application. The only physical identity materials which the applicant or prospective employee can be required to provide the Director of Personnel are photographs or fingerprints; these shall be returned to the applicant or prospective employee upon request to the Director of Personnel, after the investigation has been completed and no copy of these materials may be kept by the Director of Personnel or any agency to which such identity materials were transmitted. Only information and standards which bear a reasonable and rational relation to the performance of an employee shall be used by the Director of Personnel. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules and regulations for the administration of this Section. Any employee of the Secretary of State who gives or causes to be given away any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions and their disposition of an applicant or prospective employee shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 15. The Comptroller Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Section 10b.1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 410/10b.1) (from Ch. 15, par. 426)

Sec. 10b.1. Competitive examinations. For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions. Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into the Office of the Comptroller and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education and experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical skill; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-0.1, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which entails financial responsibilities, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio or other media.

The Director may, at his or her discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by Federal law or by the law of any State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Human Resources and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Human Resources for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 20. The Personnel Code is amended by changing Section 8b.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 415/8b.1) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b108b.1)

Sec. 8b.1. For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions.

Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into or promotion within the service, and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education; investigation of experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical fitness; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-0.1, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment, unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which would give him the powers of a peace officer, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. The eligibility conditions specified for the position of Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services in the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in Section 5-230 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-230) shall be applied to that position in addition to other standards, tests or criteria established by the Director. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of the examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio and other media. The Director may, however, in his discretion, continue to receive applications and examine candidates long enough to assure a sufficient number of eligibles to meet the needs of the service and may add the names of successful candidates to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings.

The Director may, in his discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by federal law or by the law of any State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Central Management Services and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Central Management Services for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 25. The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2605-45 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-45) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a-5)

Sec. 2605-45. Division of Administration. The Division of Administration shall exercise the following functions:

(1) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in the Department by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Act.

(2) Pursue research and the publication of studies pertaining to local law enforcement activities.

(3) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in the Department by the Personnel Code.

(4) Operate an electronic data processing and computer center for the storage and retrieval of data pertaining to criminal activity.

(5) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in the former Division of State Troopers by Section 17 of the State Police Act.

(6) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in the Department by "An Act relating to internal auditing in State government", approved August 11, 1967 (repealed; now the Fiscal Control and Internal Auditing Act, 30 ILCS 10/).

(6.5) (Blank). Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in the Department by the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(7) Exercise other duties that may be assigned by the Director to fulfill the responsibilities and achieve the purposes of the Department.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-120 rep.)

Section 30. The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by repealing Section 2605-120.

Section 35. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 2.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/2.2)

Sec. 2.2. Notification to the Department. Upon judgment of conviction of a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the defendant has been determined, under pursuant to Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, to be subject to the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9), the circuit court clerk shall include notification and a copy of the written determination in a report of the conviction to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office to enable the Department office to perform its duties under Sections 4 and 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and to report that determination to the Federal Bureau of Investigation to assist the Federal Bureau of Investigation in identifying persons prohibited from purchasing and possessing a firearm under pursuant to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 922. The written determination described in this Section shall be included in the defendant's record of arrest and conviction in the manner and form prescribed by the Department of State Police.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 45. The Peace Officer Firearm Training Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(50 ILCS 710/1) (from Ch. 85, par. 515)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Peace officer" means (i) any person who by virtue of his office or public employment is vested by law with a primary duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for offenses, whether that duty extends to all offenses or is limited to specific offenses, and who is employed in such capacity by any county or municipality or (ii) any retired law enforcement officers qualified under federal law to carry a concealed weapon.

(b) "Firearms" means any weapon or device defined as a firearm in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1.1 of "An Act relating to the acquisition, possession and transfer of firearms and firearm ammunition, to provide a penalty for the violation thereof and to make an appropriation in connection therewith", approved August 3, 1967, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 94-103, eff. 7-1-05.)

Section 50. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 10-1-7, 10-1-7.1, 10-2.1-6, and 10-2.1-6.3 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-7) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-1-7)

Sec. 10-1-7. Examination of applicants; disqualifications.

(a) All applicants for offices or places in the classified service, except those mentioned in Section 10-1-17, are subject to examination. The examination shall be public, competitive, and open to all citizens of the United States, with specified limitations as to residence, age, health, habits and moral character.

(b) Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire or police service of a municipality (other than a municipality that has more than 1,000,000 inhabitants) cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of Fire or Police Chief.

(c) No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-0.1, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and subsections (1), (6) and (8) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or arrested for any cause but not convicted on that cause shall be disqualified from taking the examination on grounds of habits or moral character, unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position on the police department, in which case the conviction or arrest may be considered as a factor in determining the person's habits or moral character.

(d) Persons entitled to military preference under Section 10-1-16 shall not be subject to limitations specifying age unless they are applicants for a position as a fireman or a policeman having no previous employment status as a fireman or policeman in the regularly constituted fire or police department of the municipality, in which case they must not have attained their 35th birthday, except any person who has served as an auxiliary police officer under Section 3.1-30-20 for at least 5 years and is under 40 years of age.

(e) All employees of a municipality of less than 500,000 population (except those who would be excluded from the classified service as provided in this Division 1) who are holding that employment as of the date a municipality adopts this Division 1, or as of July 17, 1959, whichever date is the later, and who have held that employment for at least 2 years immediately before that later date, and all firemen and policemen regardless of length of service who were either appointed to their respective positions by the board of fire and police commissioners under the provisions of Division 2 of this Article or who are serving in a position (except as a temporary employee) in the fire or police department in the municipality on the date a municipality adopts this Division 1, or as of July 17, 1959, whichever date is the later, shall become members of the classified civil service of the municipality without examination.

(f) The examinations shall be practical in their character, and shall relate to those matters that will fairly test the relative capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties of the positions to which they seek to be appointed. The examinations shall include tests of physical qualifications, health, and (when appropriate) manual skill. If an applicant is unable to pass the physical examination solely as the result of an injury received by the applicant as the result of the performance of an act of duty while working as a temporary employee in the position for which he or she is being examined, however, the physical examination shall be waived and the applicant shall be considered to have passed the examination. No questions in any examination shall relate to political or religious opinions or affiliations. Results of examinations and the eligible registers prepared from the results shall be published by the commission within 60 days after any examinations are held.

(g) The commission shall control all examinations, and may, whenever an examination is to take place, designate a suitable number of persons, either in or not in the official service of the municipality, to be examiners. The examiners shall conduct the examinations as directed by the commission and shall make a return or report of the examinations to the commission. If the appointed examiners are in the official service of the municipality, the examiners shall not receive extra compensation for conducting the examinations unless the examiners are subject to a collective bargaining agreement with the municipality. The commission may at any time substitute any other person, whether or not in the service of the municipality, in the place of any one selected as an examiner. The commission members may themselves at any time act as examiners without appointing examiners. The examiners at any examination shall not all be members of the same political party.

(h) In municipalities of 500,000 or more population, no person who has attained his or her 35th birthday shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a fireman or a policeman unless the person has had previous employment status as a policeman or fireman in the regularly constituted police or fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section.

(i) In municipalities of more than 5,000 but not more than 200,000 inhabitants, no person who has attained his or her 35th birthday shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a fireman or a policeman unless the person has had previous employment status as a policeman or fireman in the regularly constituted police or fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section.

(j) In all municipalities, applicants who are 20 years of age and who have successfully completed 2 years of law enforcement studies at an accredited college or university may be considered for appointment to active duty with the police department. An applicant described in this subsection (j) who is appointed to active duty shall not have power of arrest, nor shall the applicant be permitted to carry firearms, until he or she reaches 21 years of age.

(k) In municipalities of more than 500,000 population, applications for examination for and appointment to positions as firefighters or police shall be made available at various branches of the public library of the municipality.

(l) No municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 shall require that any fireman appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year. The limitation on periods of probationary employment provided in this amendatory Act of 1989 is an exclusive power and function of the State. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 must comply with this limitation on periods of probationary employment, which is a denial and limitation of home rule powers. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a certified paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic certification.

(m) To the extent that this Section or any other Section in this Division conflicts with Section 10-1-7.1 or 10-1-7.2, then Section 10-1-7.1 or 10-1-7.2 shall control.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-7.1)

Sec. 10-1-7.1. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 10-1-7.2, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, municipal ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A home rule or non-home rule municipality may not administer its fire department process for original appointments in a manner that is less stringent than this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and functions exercised by the State.

A municipality that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (a), this Section does not apply to a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes established by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by this Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the municipality's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the Civil Service Commission. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the commission upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by the commission. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the municipality shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the municipality, county or counties in which the municipality is located, State, or nation. Municipalities may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any municipality may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a municipality cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district, or

(2) any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time that the municipality begins to use full-time firefighters to provide all or part of its fire protection service.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the municipality or their designees and agents.

No municipality shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a certified paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic certification.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Division 1 has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the municipality, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the municipality, or (ii) on the municipality's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means a score that is at or above the median score for all applicants participating in the written test. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the median score. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the median score.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum fixed by this Section and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained certification as an Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a municipality who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, certified Firefighter III, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT-B or EMT-I, licensed paramedic, or any combination of those capacities may be awarded up to a maximum of 5 points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than 0.5 points for each complete year of paid-on-call or part-time service. Applicants from outside the municipality who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or another municipality may be awarded up to 5 experience preference points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than one point for each complete year of full-time service.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the municipality or in the case of applicants from outside the municipality the governing body of any fire protection district or any other municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category except (1). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories, that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-0.1, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Division, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-6) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-2.1-6)

Sec. 10-2.1-6. Examination of applicants; disqualifications.

(a) All applicants for a position in either the fire or police department of the municipality shall be under 35 years of age, shall be subject to an examination that shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants (unless the council or board of trustees by ordinance limit applicants to electors of the municipality, county, state or nation) and shall be subject to reasonable limitations as to residence, health, habits, and moral character. The municipality may not charge or collect any fee from an applicant who has met all prequalification standards established by the municipality for any such position. With respect to a police department, a veteran shall be allowed to exceed the maximum age provision of this Section by the number of years served on active military duty, but by no more than 10 years of active military duty.

(b) Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire or police service of a municipality (other than a municipality that has more than 1,000,000 inhabitants) cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of Fire or Police Chief.

(c) No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-0.1, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and subsections (1), (6) and (8) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted on that cause shall be disqualified from taking the examination to qualify for a position in the fire department on grounds of habits or moral character.

(d) The age limitation in subsection (a) does not apply (i) to any person previously employed as a policeman or fireman in a regularly constituted police or fire department of (I) any municipality, regardless of whether the municipality is located in Illinois or in another state, or (II) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, (ii) to any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer fireman for 5 years immediately preceding the time that municipality begins to use full time firemen to provide all or part of its fire protection service, or (iii) to any person who has served as an auxiliary police officer under Section 3.1-30-20 for at least 5 years and is under 40 years of age, (iv) to any person who has served as a deputy under Section 3-6008 of the Counties Code and otherwise meets necessary training requirements, or (v) to any person who has served as a sworn officer as a member of the Illinois Department of State Police.

(e) Applicants who are 20 years of age and who have successfully completed 2 years of law enforcement studies at an accredited college or university may be considered for appointment to active duty with the police department. An applicant described in this subsection (e) who is appointed to active duty shall not have power of arrest, nor shall the applicant be permitted to carry firearms, until he or she reaches 21 years of age.

(f) Applicants who are 18 years of age and who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques, amounting to a total of 4 high school credits, within the cadet program of a municipality may be considered for appointment to active duty with the fire department of any municipality.

(g) The council or board of trustees may by ordinance provide that persons residing outside the municipality are eligible to take the examination.

(h) The examinations shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that will fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties of the positions to which they seek appointment. No person shall be appointed to the police or fire department if he or she does not possess a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education. A board of fire and police commissioners may, by its rules, require police applicants to have obtained an associate's degree or a bachelor's degree as a prerequisite for employment. The examinations shall include tests of physical qualifications and health. A board of fire and police commissioners may, by its rules, waive portions of the required examination for police applicants who have previously been full-time sworn officers of a regular police department in any municipal, county, university, or State law enforcement agency, provided they are certified by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board and have been with their respective law enforcement agency within the State for at least 2 years. No person shall be appointed to the police or fire department if he or she has suffered the amputation of any limb unless the applicant's duties will be only clerical or as a radio operator. No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the board of fire and police commissioners of the municipality as provided in this Division 2.1.

(i) No person who is classified by his local selective service draft board as a conscientious objector, or who has ever been so classified, may be appointed to the police department.

(j) No person shall be appointed to the police or fire department unless he or she is a person of good character and not an habitual drunkard, gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. No person, however, shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of his or her record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-0.1, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and subsections (1), (6) and (8) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction on that cause. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought and after a trial as provided in this Division 2.1.

(Source: P.A. 96-472, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-6.3)

Sec. 10-2.1-6.3. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 10-2.1-6.4, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, municipal ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A home rule or non-home rule municipality may not administer its fire department process for original appointments in a manner that is less stringent than this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and functions exercised by the State.

A municipality that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (a), this Section does not apply to a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes established by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by this Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the municipality's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the board of fire and police commissioners. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the board upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by action of the board. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the municipality shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the municipality, county or counties in which the municipality is located, State, or nation. Municipalities may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any municipality may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a municipality cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district, or

(2) any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time that the municipality begins to use full-time firefighters to provide all or part of its fire protection service.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the municipality or their designees and agents.

No municipality shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a certified paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic certification.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Section has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the municipality, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the municipality, or (ii) on the municipality's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means a score that is at or above the median score for all applicants participating in the written test. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the median score. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the median score.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum fixed by this Section and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained certification as an Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a municipality who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT-B or EMT-I, or any combination of those capacities shall be awarded 0.5 point for each year of successful service in one or more of those capacities, up to a maximum of 5 points. Certified Firefighter III and State of Illinois or nationally licensed paramedics shall be awarded one point per year up to a maximum of 5 points. Applicants from outside the municipality who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or another municipality for at least 2 years shall be awarded 5 experience preference points. These additional points presuppose a rating scale totaling 100 points available for the eligibility list. If more or fewer points are used in the rating scale for the eligibility list, the points awarded under this subsection shall be increased or decreased by a factor equal to the total possible points available for the examination divided by 100.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the municipality or in the case of applicants from outside the municipality the governing body of any fire protection district or any other municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category except (1). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories, that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-0.1, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Division, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 55. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by changing Sections 16.06 and 16.06b as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/16.06) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 37.06)

Sec. 16.06. Eligibility for positions in fire department; disqualifications.

(a) All applicants for a position in the fire department of the fire protection district shall be under 35 years of age and shall be subjected to examination, which shall be public, competitive, and free to all applicants, subject to reasonable limitations as to health, habits, and moral character; provided that the foregoing age limitation shall not apply in the case of any person having previous employment status as a fireman in a regularly constituted fire department of any fire protection district, and further provided that each fireman or fire chief who is a member in good standing in a regularly constituted fire department of any municipality which shall be or shall have subsequently been included within the boundaries of any fire protection district now or hereafter organized shall be given a preference for original appointment in the same class, grade or employment over all other applicants. The examinations shall be practical in their character and shall relate to those matters which will fairly test the persons examined as to their relative capacity to discharge the duties of the positions to which they seek appointment. The examinations shall include tests of physical qualifications and health. No applicant, however, shall be examined concerning his political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the board of fire commissioners.

In any fire protection district that employs full-time firefighters and is subject to a collective bargaining agreement, a person who has not qualified for regular appointment under the provisions of this Section shall not be used as a temporary or permanent substitute for certificated members of a fire district's fire department or for regular appointment as a certificated member of a fire district's fire department unless mutually agreed to by the employee's certified bargaining agent. Such agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining. Fire protection districts covered by the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that are using non-certificated employees as substitutes immediately prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly may, by mutual agreement with the certified bargaining agent, continue the existing practice or a modified practice and that agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining.

(b) No person shall be appointed to the fire department unless he or she is a person of good character and not a person who has been convicted of a felony in Illinois or convicted in another jurisdiction for conduct that would be a felony under Illinois law, or convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude. No person, however, shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of his or her record of misdemeanor convictions, except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-0.1, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and subsections (1), (6), and (8) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(70 ILCS 705/16.06b)

Sec. 16.06b. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 16.06c, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in a no less stringent manner than the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, Fire Protection District Act, fire district ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A fire protection district that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes required by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by the Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the fire district's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the board of fire commissioners, or board of trustees serving in the capacity of a board of fire commissioners. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the commission upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by action of the commission. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the district shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the district, county or counties in which the district is located, State, or nation. Districts may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any fire protection district may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a district cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that district, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the district, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district, or

(2) any person who has served a fire district as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time that the district begins to use full-time firefighters to provide all or part of its fire protection service.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the district or their designees and agents.

No district shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a certified paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic certification.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Section has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the district, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the district, or (ii) on the fire protection district's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means a score that is at or above the median score for all applicants participating in the written test. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the median score. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the median score.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum fixed by this Section and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained certification as an Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a district who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, certified Firefighter III, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT-B or EMT-I, licensed paramedic, or any combination of those capacities may be awarded up to a maximum of 5 points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than 0.5 points for each complete year of paid-on-call or part-time service. Applicants from outside the district who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or municipality for at least 2 years may be awarded up to 5 experience preference points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than one point for each complete year of full-time service.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the district or in the case of applicants from outside the district the governing body of any other fire protection district or any municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category except (1). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories, that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-0.1, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Section, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 60. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 10-22.6, 10-27.1A and 34-8.05 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.6) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.6)

Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of pupils; school searches.

(a) To expel pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct perpetuated by electronic means, and no action shall lie against them for such expulsion. Expulsion shall take place only after the parents have been requested to appear at a meeting of the board, or with a hearing officer appointed by it, to discuss their child's behavior. Such request shall be made by registered or certified mail and shall state the time, place and purpose of the meeting. The board, or a hearing officer appointed by it, at such meeting shall state the reasons for dismissal and the date on which the expulsion is to become effective. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting and the board may take such action thereon as it finds appropriate. An expelled pupil may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on the school bus from riding the school bus, and no action shall lie against them for such suspension. The board may by policy authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of such acts for a period not to exceed 10 school days. If a pupil is suspended due to gross disobedience or misconduct on a school bus, the board may suspend the pupil in excess of 10 school days for safety reasons. Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the parents or guardian of such pupil along with a full statement of the reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right to a review. The school board must be given a summary of the notice, including the reason for the suspension and the suspension length. Upon request of the parents or guardian the school board or a hearing officer appointed by it shall review such action of the superintendent or principal, assistant principal, or dean of students. At such review the parents or guardian of the pupil may appear and discuss the suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting. After its hearing or upon receipt of the written report of its hearing officer, the board may take such action as it finds appropriate. A pupil who is suspended in excess of 20 school days may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the suspension, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall be invited to send a representative to consult with the board at such meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be the cause for expulsion or suspension.

(d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case by case basis. A student who is determined to have brought one of the following objects to school, any school-sponsored activity or event, or any activity or event that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be expelled for a period of not less than one year:

(1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code, firearm as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The expulsion period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.

(2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. Expulsion or suspension shall be construed in a manner consistent with the Federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. A student who is subject to suspension or expulsion as provided in this Section may be eligible for a transfer to an alternative school program in accordance with Article 13A of the School Code. The provisions of this subsection (d) apply in all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34.

(d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend a student for a period not to exceed 10 school days or may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case by case basis, if (i) that student has been determined to have made an explicit threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet website through which the threat was made is a site that was accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or was available to third parties who worked or studied within the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii) the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to the safety and security of the threatened individual because of his or her duties or employment status or status as a student inside the school. The provisions of this subsection (d-5) apply in all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school authorities may inspect and search places and areas such as lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well as personal effects left in those places and areas by students, without notice to or the consent of the student, and without a search warrant. As a matter of public policy, the General Assembly finds that students have no reasonable expectation of privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects left in these places and areas. School authorities may request the assistance of law enforcement officials for the purpose of conducting inspections and searches of lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or other illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including searches conducted through the use of specially trained dogs. If a search conducted in accordance with this Section produces evidence that the student has violated or is violating either the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules, such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and disciplinary action may be taken. School authorities may also turn over such evidence to law enforcement authorities. The provisions of this subsection (e) apply in all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34.

(f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or expulsion from school and all school activities and a prohibition from being present on school grounds.

(g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if a student is suspended or expelled for any reason from any public or private school in this or any other state, the student must complete the entire term of the suspension or expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the school district if there is no threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program. This subsection (g) applies to all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-633, eff. 8-24-09; 96-998, eff. 7-2-10; 97-340, eff. 1-1-12; 97-495, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-27.1A)

Sec. 10-27.1A. Firearms in schools.

(a) All school officials, including teachers, guidance counselors, and support staff, shall immediately notify the office of the principal in the event that they observe any person in possession of a firearm on school grounds; provided that taking such immediate action to notify the office of the principal would not immediately endanger the health, safety, or welfare of students who are under the direct supervision of the school official or the school official. If the health, safety, or welfare of students under the direct supervision of the school official or of the school official is immediately endangered, the school official shall notify the office of the principal as soon as the students under his or her supervision and he or she are no longer under immediate danger. A report is not required by this Section when the school official knows that the person in possession of the firearm is a law enforcement official engaged in the conduct of his or her official duties. Any school official acting in good faith who makes such a report under this Section shall have immunity from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise be incurred as a result of making the report. The identity of the school official making such report shall not be disclosed except as expressly and specifically authorized by law. Knowingly and willfully failing to comply with this Section is a petty offense. A second or subsequent offense is a Class C misdemeanor.

(b) Upon receiving a report from any school official pursuant to this Section, or from any other person, the principal or his or her designee shall immediately notify a local law enforcement agency. If the person found to be in possession of a firearm on school grounds is a student, the principal or his or her designee shall also immediately notify that student's parent or guardian. Any principal or his or her designee acting in good faith who makes such reports under this Section shall have immunity from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of making the reports. Knowingly and willfully failing to comply with this Section is a petty offense. A second or subsequent offense is a Class C misdemeanor. If the person found to be in possession of the firearm on school grounds is a minor, the law enforcement agency shall detain that minor until such time as the agency makes a determination pursuant to clause (a) of subsection (1) of Section 5-401 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as to whether the agency reasonably believes that the minor is delinquent. If the law enforcement agency determines that probable cause exists to believe that the minor committed a violation of Section 24-0.1 or item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 while on school grounds, the agency shall detain the minor for processing pursuant to Section 5-407 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(c) On or after January 1, 1997, upon receipt of any written, electronic, or verbal report from any school personnel regarding a verified incident involving a firearm in a school or on school owned or leased property, including any conveyance owned, leased, or used by the school for the transport of students or school personnel, the superintendent or his or her designee shall report all such firearm-related incidents occurring in a school or on school property to the local law enforcement authorities immediately and to the Department of State Police in a form, manner, and frequency as prescribed by the Department of State Police.

The State Board of Education shall receive an annual statistical compilation and related data associated with incidents involving firearms in schools from the Department of State Police. The State Board of Education shall compile this information by school district and make it available to the public.

(d) As used in this Section, the term "firearm" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

As used in this Section, the term "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school.

As used in this Section, the term "school grounds" includes the real property comprising any school, any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-8.05)

Sec. 34-8.05. Reporting firearms in schools. On or after January 1, 1997, upon receipt of any written, electronic, or verbal report from any school personnel regarding a verified incident involving a firearm in a school or on school owned or leased property, including any conveyance owned, leased, or used by the school for the transport of students or school personnel, the general superintendent or his or her designee shall report all such firearm-related incidents occurring in a school or on school property to the local law enforcement authorities no later than 24 hours after the occurrence of the incident and to the Department of State Police in a form, manner, and frequency as prescribed by the Department of State Police.

The State Board of Education shall receive an annual statistical compilation and related data associated with incidents involving firearms in schools from the Department of State Police. As used in this Section, the term "firearm" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-498, eff. 6-27-96.)

Section 65. The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004 is amended by changing Section 35-35 as follows:

(225 ILCS 447/35-35)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 35-35. Requirement of a firearm control card.

(a) No person shall perform duties that include the use, carrying, or possession of a firearm in the performance of those duties without complying with the provisions of this Section and having been issued a valid firearm control card by the Department.

(b) No employer shall employ any person to perform the duties for which employee registration is required and allow that person to carry a firearm unless that person has complied with all the firearm training requirements of this Section and has been issued a firearm control card. This Act permits only the following to carry firearms while actually engaged in the performance of their duties or while commuting directly to or from their places of employment: persons licensed as private detectives and their registered employees; persons licensed as private security contractors and their registered employees; persons licensed as private alarm contractors and their registered employees; and employees of a registered armed proprietary security force.

(c) Possession of a valid firearm control card allows an employee to carry a firearm not otherwise prohibited by law while the employee is engaged in the performance of his or her duties or while the employee is commuting directly to or from the employee's place or places of employment, provided that this is accomplished within one hour from departure from home or place of employment.

(d) The Department shall issue a firearm control card to a person who has passed an approved firearm training course, who is currently employed by an agency licensed by this Act, and has met all the requirements of this Act, and who possesses a valid firearm owner identification card. Application for the firearm control card shall be made by the employer to the Department on forms provided by the Department. The Department shall forward the card to the employer who shall be responsible for its issuance to the employee. The firearm control card shall be issued by the Department and shall identify the person holding it and the name of the course where the employee received firearm instruction and shall specify the type of weapon or weapons the person is authorized by the Department to carry and for which the person has been trained.

(e) Expiration and requirements for renewal of firearm control cards shall be determined by rule.

(f) The Department may, in addition to any other disciplinary action permitted by this Act, refuse to issue, suspend, or revoke a firearm control card if the applicant or holder has been convicted of any felony or crime involving the illegal use, carrying, or possession of a deadly weapon or for a violation of this Act or rules promulgated under this Act. The Department shall refuse to issue or shall revoke a firearm control card if the applicant or holder fails to possess a valid firearm owners identification card. The Director shall summarily suspend a firearm control card if the Director finds that its continued use would constitute an imminent danger to the public. A hearing shall be held before the Board within 30 days if the Director summarily suspends a firearm control card.

(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, all requirements relating to firearms control cards do not apply to a peace officer.

(h) The Department may issue a temporary firearm control card pending issuance of a new firearm control card upon an agency's acquiring of an established armed account. An agency that has acquired armed employees as a result of acquiring an established armed account may, on forms supplied by the Department, request the issuance of a temporary firearm control card for each acquired employee who held a valid firearm control card under his or her employment with the newly acquired established armed account immediately preceding the acquiring of the account and who continues to meet all of the qualifications for issuance of a firearm control card set forth in this Act and any rules adopted under this Act. The Department shall, by rule, set the fee for issuance of a temporary firearm control card.

(i) The Department may not issue a firearm control card to employees of a licensed fingerprint vendor agency.

(Source: P.A. 95-613, eff. 9-11-07.)

Section 70. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 6-103.1 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/6-103.1)

Sec. 6-103.1. Adjudication as a mental defective. When a person has been adjudicated as a mental defective as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the court shall direct the circuit court clerk to immediately notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) Office, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police, and shall forward a copy of the court order to the Department. For purposes of this Section, "has been adjudicated as a mental defective" means the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful authority that a person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) is a danger to himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own affairs;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of insanity, mental disease or defect;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 75. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(410 ILCS 45/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1302)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Abatement" means the removal or encapsulation of all leadbearing substances in a residential building or dwelling unit.

"Child care facility" means any structure used by a child care provider licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or public school structure frequented by children through 6 years of age.

"Delegate agency" means a unit of local government or health department approved by the Department to carry out the provisions of this Act.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

"Dwelling" means any structure all or part of which is designed or used for human habitation.

"High risk area" means an area in the State determined by the Department to be high risk for lead exposure for children through 6 years of age. The Department shall consider, but not be limited to, the following factors to determine a high risk area: age and condition (using Department of Housing and Urban Development definitions of "slum" and "blighted") of housing, proximity to highway traffic or heavy local traffic or both, percentage of housing determined as rental or vacant, proximity to industry using lead, established incidence of elevated blood lead levels in children, percentage of population living below 200% of federal poverty guidelines, and number of children residing in the area who are 6 years of age or younger.

"Exposed surface" means any interior or exterior surface of a dwelling or residential building.

"Lead abatement contractor" means any person or entity licensed by the Department to perform lead abatement and mitigation.

"Lead abatement worker" means any person employed by a lead abatement contractor and licensed by the Department to perform lead abatement and mitigation.

"Lead bearing substance" means any item containing or coated with lead such that the lead content is more than six-hundredths of one percent (0.06%) lead by total weight; or any dust on surfaces or in furniture or other nonpermanent elements of the dwelling; or any paint or other surface coating material containing more than five-tenths of one percent (0.5%) lead by total weight (calculated as lead metal) in the total non-volatile content of liquid paint; or lead bearing substances containing greater than one milligram per square centimeter or any lower standard for lead content in residential paint as may be established by federal law or regulation; or more than 1 milligram per square centimeter in the dried film of paint or previously applied substance; or item or dust on item containing lead in excess of the amount specified in the rules and regulations authorized by this Act or a lower standard for lead content as may be established by federal law or regulation. "Lead bearing substance" does not include firearm ammunition or components as defined by the Criminal Code of 2012 Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

"Lead hazard" means a lead bearing substance that poses an immediate health hazard to humans.

"Lead poisoning" means the condition of having blood lead levels in excess of those considered safe under State and federal rules and regulations.

"Low risk area" means an area in the State determined by the Department to be low risk for lead exposure for children through 6 years of age. The Department shall consider the factors named in "high risk area" to determine low risk areas.

"Mitigation" means the remediation, in a manner described in Section 9, of a lead hazard so that the lead bearing substance does not pose an immediate health hazard to humans.

"Owner" means any person, who alone, jointly, or severally with others:

(a) Has legal title to any dwelling or residential building, with or without accompanying actual possession of the dwelling or residential building, or

(b) Has charge, care or control of the dwelling or residential building as owner or agent of the owner, or as executor, administrator, trustee, or guardian of the estate of the owner.

"Person" means any one or more natural persons, legal entities, governmental bodies, or any combination.

"Residential building" means any room, group of rooms, or other interior areas of a structure designed or used for human habitation; common areas accessible by inhabitants; and the surrounding property or structures.

"Risk assessment" means a questionnaire to be developed by the Department for use by physicians and other health care providers to determine risk factors for children through 6 years of age residing in areas designated as low risk for lead exposure.

(Source: P.A. 94-879, eff. 6-20-06.)

(430 ILCS 65/Act rep.)

Section 80. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is repealed.

Section 85. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Section 3.2 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/3.2) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.2)

Sec. 3.2. Hunting license; application; instruction. Before the Department or any county, city, village, township, incorporated town clerk or his duly designated agent or any other person authorized or designated by the Department to issue hunting licenses shall issue a hunting license to any person, the person shall file his application with the Department or other party authorized to issue licenses on a form provided by the Department and further give definite proof of identity and place of legal residence. Each clerk designating agents to issue licenses and stamps shall furnish the Department, within 10 days following the appointment, the names and mailing addresses of the agents. Each clerk or his duly designated agent shall be authorized to sell licenses and stamps only within the territorial area for which he was elected or appointed. No duly designated agent is authorized to furnish licenses or stamps for issuance by any other business establishment. Each application shall be executed and sworn to and shall set forth the name and description of the applicant and place of residence.

No hunting license shall be issued to any person born on or after January 1, 1980 unless he presents the person authorized to issue the license evidence that he has held a hunting license issued by the State of Illinois or another state in a prior year, or a certificate of competency as provided in this Section. Persons under 16 years of age may be issued a Lifetime Hunting or Sportsmen's Combination License as provided under Section 20-45 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code but shall not be entitled to hunt unless they have a certificate of competency as provided in this Section and they shall have the certificate in their possession while hunting.

The Department of Natural Resources shall authorize personnel of the Department or certified volunteer instructors to conduct courses, of not less than 10 hours in length, in firearms and hunter safety, which may include training in bow and arrow safety, at regularly specified intervals throughout the State. Persons successfully completing the course shall receive a certificate of competency. The Department of Natural Resources may further cooperate with any reputable association or organization in establishing courses if the organization has as one of its objectives the promotion of safety in the handling of firearms or bow and arrow.

The Department of Natural Resources shall designate any person found by it to be competent to give instruction in the handling of firearms, hunter safety, and bow and arrow. The persons so appointed shall give the course of instruction and upon the successful completion shall issue to the person instructed a certificate of competency in the safe handling of firearms, hunter safety, and bow and arrow. No charge shall be made for any course of instruction except for materials or ammunition consumed. The Department of Natural Resources shall furnish information on the requirements of hunter safety education programs to be distributed free of charge to applicants for hunting licenses by the persons appointed and authorized to issue licenses. Funds for the conducting of firearms and hunter safety courses shall be taken from the fee charged for hunting licenses the Firearm Owners Identification Card.

The fee for a hunting license to hunt all species for a resident of Illinois is $12. For residents age 65 or older, and, commencing with the 2012 license year, resident veterans of the United States Armed Forces after returning from service abroad or mobilization by the President of the United States, the fee is one-half of the fee charged for a hunting license to hunt all species for a resident of Illinois. Veterans must provide to the Department, at one of the Department's 5 regional offices, verification of their service. The Department shall establish what constitutes suitable verification of service for the purpose of issuing resident veterans hunting licenses at a reduced fee. Nonresidents shall be charged $57 for a hunting license.

Nonresidents may be issued a nonresident hunting license for a period not to exceed 10 consecutive days' hunting in the State and shall be charged a fee of $35.

A special nonresident hunting license authorizing a nonresident to take game birds by hunting on a game breeding and hunting preserve area only, established under Section 3.27, shall be issued upon proper application being made and payment of a fee equal to that for a resident hunting license. The expiration date of this license shall be on the same date each year that game breeding and hunting preserve area licenses expire.

Each applicant for a State Migratory Waterfowl Stamp, regardless of his residence or other condition, shall pay a fee of $15 and shall receive a stamp. Except as provided under Section 20-45 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the stamp shall be signed by the person or affixed to his license or permit in a space designated by the Department for that purpose.

Each applicant for a State Habitat Stamp, regardless of his residence or other condition, shall pay a fee of $5 and shall receive a stamp. Except as provided under Section 20-45 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the stamp shall be signed by the person or affixed to his license or permit in a space designated by the Department for that purpose.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as to require the purchase of more than one State Habitat Stamp by any person in any one license year.

The Department shall furnish the holders of hunting licenses and stamps with an insignia as evidence of possession of license, or license and stamp, as the Department may consider advisable. The insignia shall be exhibited and used as the Department may order.

All other hunting licenses and all State stamps shall expire upon March 31 of each year.

Every person holding any license, permit, or stamp issued under the provisions of this Act shall have it in his possession for immediate presentation for inspection to the officers and authorized employees of the Department, any sheriff, deputy sheriff, or any other peace officer making a demand for it. This provision shall not apply to Department owned or managed sites where it is required that all hunters deposit their license or , permit, or Firearm Owner's Identification Card at the check station upon entering the hunting areas.

(Source: P.A. 96-831, eff. 1-1-10; 97-498, eff. 4-1-12.)

Section 90. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 11-208.7 and 12-612 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/11-208.7)

Sec. 11-208.7. Administrative fees and procedures for impounding vehicles for specified violations.

(a) Any municipality may, consistent with this Section, provide by ordinance procedures for the release of properly impounded vehicles and for the imposition of a reasonable administrative fee related to its administrative and processing costs associated with the investigation, arrest, and detention of an offender, or the removal, impoundment, storage, and release of the vehicle. The administrative fee imposed by the municipality may be in addition to any fees charged for the towing and storage of an impounded vehicle. The administrative fee shall be waived by the municipality upon verifiable proof that the vehicle was stolen at the time the vehicle was impounded.

(b) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the release of properly impounded vehicles under this Section may impose fees for the following violations:

(1) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense for which a motor vehicle may be seized and forfeited pursuant to Section 36-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(2) driving under the influence of alcohol, another drug or drugs, an intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, in violation of Section 11-501 of this Code; or

(3) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, a felony or in violation of the Cannabis Control Act; or

(4) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; or

(5) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.5, 24-0.1, or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(6) driving while a driver's license, permit, or privilege to operate a motor vehicle is suspended or revoked pursuant to Section 6-303 of this Code; except that vehicles shall not be subjected to seizure or impoundment if the suspension is for an unpaid citation (parking or moving) or due to failure to comply with emission testing; or

(7) operation or use of a motor vehicle while soliciting, possessing, or attempting to solicit or possess cannabis or a controlled substance, as defined by the Cannabis Control Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; or

(8) operation or use of a motor vehicle with an expired driver's license, in violation of Section 6-101 of this Code, if the period of expiration is greater than one year; or

(9) operation or use of a motor vehicle without ever having been issued a driver's license or permit, in violation of Section 6-101 of this Code, or operating a motor vehicle without ever having been issued a driver's license or permit due to a person's age; or

(10) operation or use of a motor vehicle by a person against whom a warrant has been issued by a circuit clerk in Illinois for failing to answer charges that the driver violated Section 6-101, 6-303, or 11-501 of this Code; or

(11) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in violation of Article 16 or 16A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(12) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, any other misdemeanor or felony offense in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when so provided by local ordinance.

(c) The following shall apply to any fees imposed for administrative and processing costs pursuant to subsection (b):

(1) All administrative fees and towing and storage charges shall be imposed on the registered owner of the motor vehicle or the agents of that owner.

(2) The fees shall be in addition to (i) any other penalties that may be assessed by a court of law for the underlying violations; and (ii) any towing or storage fees, or both, charged by the towing company.

(3) The fees shall be uniform for all similarly situated vehicles.

(4) The fees shall be collected by and paid to the municipality imposing the fees.

(5) The towing or storage fees, or both, shall be collected by and paid to the person, firm, or entity that tows and stores the impounded vehicle.

(d) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the release of properly impounded vehicles under this Section shall provide for an opportunity for a hearing, as provided in subdivision (b)(4) of Section 11-208.3 of this Code, and for the release of the vehicle to the owner of record, lessee, or a lienholder of record upon payment of all administrative fees and towing and storage fees.

(e) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall include the following provisions concerning notice of impoundment:

(1) Whenever a police officer has cause to believe that a motor vehicle is subject to impoundment, the officer shall provide for the towing of the vehicle to a facility authorized by the municipality.

(2) At the time the vehicle is towed, the municipality shall notify or make a reasonable attempt to notify the owner, lessee, or person identifying himself or herself as the owner or lessee of the vehicle, or any person who is found to be in control of the vehicle at the time of the alleged offense, of the fact of the seizure, and of the vehicle owner's or lessee's right to an administrative hearing.

(3) The municipality shall also provide notice that the motor vehicle will remain impounded pending the completion of an administrative hearing, unless the owner or lessee of the vehicle or a lienholder posts with the municipality a bond equal to the administrative fee as provided by ordinance and pays for all towing and storage charges.

(f) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall include a provision providing that the registered owner or lessee of the vehicle and any lienholder of record shall be provided with a notice of hearing. The notice shall:

(1) be served upon the owner, lessee, and any lienholder of record either by personal service or by first class mail to the interested party's address as registered with the Secretary of State;

(2) be served upon interested parties within 10 days after a vehicle is impounded by the municipality; and

(3) contain the date, time, and location of the administrative hearing. An initial hearing shall be scheduled and convened no later than 45 days after the date of the mailing of the notice of hearing.

(g) In addition to the requirements contained in subdivision (b)(4) of Section 11-208.3 of this Code relating to administrative hearings, any ordinance providing for the impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall include the following requirements concerning administrative hearings:

(1) administrative hearings shall be conducted by a hearing officer who is an attorney licensed to practice law in this State for a minimum of 3 years;

(2) at the conclusion of the administrative hearing, the hearing officer shall issue a written decision either sustaining or overruling the vehicle impoundment;

(3) if the basis for the vehicle impoundment is sustained by the administrative hearing officer, any administrative fee posted to secure the release of the vehicle shall be forfeited to the municipality;

(4) all final decisions of the administrative hearing officer shall be subject to review under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law; and

(5) unless the administrative hearing officer overturns the basis for the vehicle impoundment, no vehicle shall be released to the owner, lessee, or lienholder of record until all administrative fees and towing and storage charges are paid.

(h) Vehicles not retrieved from the towing facility or storage facility within 35 days after the administrative hearing officer issues a written decision shall be deemed abandoned and disposed of in accordance with the provisions of Article II of Chapter 4 of this Code.

(i) Unless stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction, any fine, penalty, or administrative fee imposed under this Section which remains unpaid in whole or in part after the expiration of the deadline for seeking judicial review under the Administrative Review Law may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 97-109, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-612)

Sec. 12-612. False or secret compartment in a vehicle.

(a) Offenses. It is unlawful for any person:

(1) to own or operate with criminal intent any vehicle he or she knows to contain a false or secret compartment that is used or has been used to conceal a firearm as prohibited by Section 24-0.1 paragraph (a)(4) of Section 24-1 or paragraph (a)(1) of Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or controlled substance as prohibited by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(2) to install, create, build, or fabricate in any vehicle a false or secret compartment knowing that another person intends to use the compartment to conceal a firearm as prohibited by Section 24-0.1 or paragraph (a)(1) of Section 24-1.6 (a)(4) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or controlled substance as prohibited by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

(1) "False or secret compartment" means an enclosure integrated into a vehicle that is a modification of the vehicle as built by the original manufacturer.

(2) "Vehicle" means any of the following vehicles without regard to whether the vehicles are private or commercial, including, but not limited to, cars, trucks, buses, aircraft, and watercraft.

(c) Forfeiture. Any vehicle containing a false or secret compartment used in violation of this Section, as well as any items within that compartment, shall be subject to seizure by the Department of State Police or by any municipal or other local law enforcement agency within whose jurisdiction that property is found as provided in Sections 36-1 and 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/36-1 and 5/36-2). The removal of the false or secret compartment from the vehicle, or the promise to do so, shall not be the basis for a defense to forfeiture of the motor vehicle under Section 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 and shall not be the basis for the court to release the vehicle to the owner.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony. The sentence imposed for violation of this Section shall be served consecutively to any other sentence imposed in connection with the firearm, controlled substance, or other contraband concealed in the false or secret compartment.

(e) For purposes of this Section, a new owner is not responsible for any conduct that occurred or knowledge of conduct that occurred prior to transfer of title.

(Source: P.A. 96-202, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 95. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by changing Section 27.3a as follows:

(705 ILCS 105/27.3a)

Sec. 27.3a. Fees for automated record keeping, probation and court services operations, and State and Conservation Police operations.

1. The expense of establishing and maintaining automated record keeping systems in the offices of the clerks of the circuit court shall be borne by the county. To defray such expense in any county having established such an automated system or which elects to establish such a system, the county board may require the clerk of the circuit court in their county to charge and collect a court automation fee of not less than $1 nor more than $15 to be charged and collected by the clerk of the court. Such fee shall be paid at the time of filing the first pleading, paper or other appearance filed by each party in all civil cases or by the defendant in any felony, traffic, misdemeanor, municipal ordinance, or conservation case upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision, provided that the record keeping system which processes the case category for which the fee is charged is automated or has been approved for automation by the county board, and provided further that no additional fee shall be required if more than one party is presented in a single pleading, paper or other appearance. Such fee shall be collected in the manner in which all other fees or costs are collected.

1.1. Starting on July 6, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-761) and pursuant to an administrative order from the chief judge of the circuit or the presiding judge of the county authorizing such collection, a clerk of the circuit court in any county that imposes a fee pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section shall also charge and collect an additional $10 operations fee for probation and court services department operations.

This additional fee shall be paid by the defendant in any felony, traffic, misdemeanor, local ordinance, or conservation case upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision, except such $10 operations fee shall not be charged and collected in cases governed by Supreme Court Rule 529 in which the bail amount is $120 or less.

1.2. With respect to the fee imposed and collected under subsection 1.1 of this Section, each clerk shall transfer all fees monthly to the county treasurer for deposit into the probation and court services fund created under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act, and such monies shall be disbursed from the fund only at the direction of the chief judge of the circuit or another judge designated by the Chief Circuit Judge in accordance with the policies and guidelines approved by the Supreme Court.

1.5. Starting on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, a clerk of the circuit court in any county that imposes a fee pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section, shall charge and collect an additional fee in an amount equal to the amount of the fee imposed pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section. This additional fee shall be paid by the defendant in any felony, traffic, misdemeanor, or local ordinance case upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision. This fee shall not be paid by the defendant for any conservation violation listed in subsection 1.6 of this Section.

1.6. Starting on July 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-46), a clerk of the circuit court in any county that imposes a fee pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section shall charge and collect an additional fee in an amount equal to the amount of the fee imposed pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section. This additional fee shall be paid by the defendant upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision for a conservation violation under the State Parks Act, the Recreational Trails of Illinois Act, the Illinois Explosives Act, the Timber Buyers Licensing Act, the Forest Products Transportation Act, the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Environmental Protection Act, the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the Wildlife Code, the Cave Protection Act, the Illinois Exotic Weed Act, the Illinois Forestry Development Act, the Ginseng Harvesting Act, the Illinois Lake Management Program Act, the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act, the Illinois Open Land Trust Act, the Open Space Lands Acquisition and Development Act, the Illinois Prescribed Burning Act, the State Forest Act, the Water Use Act of 1983, the Illinois Veteran, Youth, and Young Adult Conservation Jobs Act, the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, the Boat Registration and Safety Act, the Illinois Dangerous Animals Act, the Hunter and Fishermen Interference Prohibition Act, the Wrongful Tree Cutting Act, or Section 11-1426.1, 11-1426.2, 11-1427, 11-1427.1, 11-1427.2, 11-1427.3, 11-1427.4, or 11-1427.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or Section 48-3 or 48-10 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

2. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, each clerk shall commence such charges and collections upon receipt of written notice from the chairman of the county board together with a certified copy of the board's resolution, which the clerk shall file of record in his office.

3. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, such fees shall be in addition to all other fees and charges of such clerks, and assessable as costs, and may be waived only if the judge specifically provides for the waiver of the court automation fee. The fees shall be remitted monthly by such clerk to the county treasurer, to be retained by him in a special fund designated as the court automation fund. The fund shall be audited by the county auditor, and the board shall make expenditure from the fund in payment of any cost related to the automation of court records, including hardware, software, research and development costs and personnel related thereto, provided that the expenditure is approved by the clerk of the court and by the chief judge of the circuit court or his designate.

4. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, such fees shall not be charged in any matter coming to any such clerk on change of venue, nor in any proceeding to review the decision of any administrative officer, agency or body.

5. With respect to the additional fee imposed under subsection 1.5 of this Section, the fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk to the State Treasurer within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

6. With respect to the additional fees imposed under subsection 1.5 of this Section, the Director of State Police may direct the use of these fees for homeland security purposes by transferring these fees on a quarterly basis from the State Police Operations Assistance Fund into the Illinois Law Enforcement Alarm Systems (ILEAS) Fund for homeland security initiatives programs. The transferred fees shall be allocated, subject to the approval of the ILEAS Executive Board, as follows: (i) 66.6% shall be used for homeland security initiatives and (ii) 33.3% shall be used for airborne operations. The ILEAS Executive Board shall annually supply the Director of State Police with a report of the use of these fees.

7. With respect to the additional fee imposed under subsection 1.6 of this Section, the fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk to the State Treasurer within one month after receipt for deposit into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-1029, eff. 7-13-10; 97-46, eff. 7-1-12; 97-453, eff. 8-19-11; 97-738, eff. 7-5-12; 97-761, eff. 7-6-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 100. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 1-8, 5-130, 5-407, and 5-901 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/1-8) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-8)

Sec. 1-8. Confidentiality and accessibility of juvenile court records.

(A) Inspection and copying of juvenile court records relating to a minor who is the subject of a proceeding under this Act shall be restricted to the following:

(1) The minor who is the subject of record, his parents, guardian and counsel.

(2) Law enforcement officers and law enforcement agencies when such information is essential to executing an arrest or search warrant or other compulsory process, or to conducting an ongoing investigation or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" means any ongoing organization, association, or group of 3 or more persons, whether formal or informal, having as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more criminal acts and that has a common name or common identifying sign, symbol or specific color apparel displayed, and whose members individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal activity.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(3) Judges, hearing officers, prosecutors, probation officers, social workers or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or predisposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors pursuant to the order of the juvenile court when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(4) Judges, prosecutors and probation officers:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805; or

(b) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the amount of bail; or

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation or fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation; or

(d) when a minor becomes 17 years of age or older, and is the subject of criminal proceedings, including a hearing to determine the amount of bail, a pre-trial investigation, a pre-sentence investigation, a fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation.

(5) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(6) Authorized military personnel.

(7) Victims, their subrogees and legal representatives; however, such persons shall have access only to the name and address of the minor and information pertaining to the disposition or alternative adjustment plan of the juvenile court.

(8) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular records; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record.

(9) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers.

(10) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court.

(11) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile court records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, who is the subject of juvenile court records sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (11) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(A-1) Findings and exclusions of paternity entered in proceedings occurring under Article II of this Act shall be disclosed, in a manner and form approved by the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court, to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services when necessary to discharge the duties of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(B) A minor who is the victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record.

(C) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (C), juvenile court records shall not be made available to the general public but may be inspected by representatives of agencies, associations and news media or other properly interested persons by general or special order of the court presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(0.1) In cases where the records concern a pending juvenile court case, the party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(0.2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(0.3) In determining whether the records should be available for inspection, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the moving party's interest in obtaining the information. The State's Attorney, the minor, and the minor's parents, guardian, and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records. For purposes of obtaining documents pursuant to this Section, a civil subpoena is not an order of the court.

(0.4) Any records obtained in violation of this subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(1) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is adjudicated a delinquent minor under this Act under either of the following circumstances:

(A) The adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault; or

(B) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the act was committed and the adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of: (i) an act in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (ii) an act involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (iii) an act that would be a Class X felony offense under or the minor's second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act if committed by an adult, (iv) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (v) an act that would be an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (vi) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or (vii) an act that would be an offense under another Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(2) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is at least 13 years of age at the time the offense is committed and who is convicted, in criminal proceedings permitted or required under Section 5-4, under either of the following circumstances:

(A) The minor has been convicted of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault,

(B) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the offense was committed and the conviction was based upon the minor's commission of: (i) an offense in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (ii) an offense involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (iii) a Class X felony offense under or a second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act, (iv) a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (v) an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (vi) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or (vii) an act that would be an offense under another Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(D) Pending or following any adjudication of delinquency for any offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the victim of any such offense shall receive the rights set out in Sections 4 and 6 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act; and the juvenile who is the subject of the adjudication, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, shall be treated as an adult for the purpose of affording such rights to the victim.

(E) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any state, county or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records of disposition or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(F) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-0.1, 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the dispositional order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to such juvenile records shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any guidance counselor designated by him.

(G) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(H) When a Court hearing a proceeding under Article II of this Act becomes aware that an earlier proceeding under Article II had been heard in a different county, that Court shall request, and the Court in which the earlier proceedings were initiated shall transmit, an authenticated copy of the Court record, including all documents, petitions, and orders filed therein and the minute orders, transcript of proceedings, and docket entries of the Court.

(I) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 17th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-212, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-130)

Sec. 5-130. Excluded jurisdiction.

(1) (a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the time of an offense was at least 15 years of age and who is charged with: (i) first degree murder, (ii) aggravated criminal sexual assault, (iii) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05 where the minor personally discharged a firearm as defined in Section 2-15.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, (iv) armed robbery when the armed robbery was committed with a firearm, or (v) aggravated vehicular hijacking when the hijacking was committed with a firearm.

These charges and all other charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(b) (i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes one or more charges specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) and additional charges that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(c) (i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), then, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), that finding shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine if the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(2) (Blank).

(3) (a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the time of the offense was at least 15 years of age and who is charged with a violation of the provisions of Section 24-0.1 or paragraph (1), (3), (4), or (10) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 while in school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, or on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year. School is defined, for purposes of this Section as any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university. These charges and all other charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(b) (i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes one or more charges specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) and additional charges that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(c) (i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (3), then, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (3), that finding shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine if the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(4) (a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the time of an offense was at least 13 years of age and who is charged with first degree murder committed during the course of either aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping. However, this subsection (4) does not include a minor charged with first degree murder based exclusively upon the accountability provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) (i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge first degree murder committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes first degree murder committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, and additional charges that are not specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(c) (i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of first degree murder committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If the minor was not yet 15 years of age at the time of the offense, and if after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense other than first degree murder committed during the course of either aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnapping, the finding shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous delinquent history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the best interest of the minor and the security of the public require sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(5) (a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who is charged with a violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-6 or Section 32-10 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the minor is subject to prosecution under the criminal laws of this State as a result of the application of the provisions of Section 5-125, or subsection (1) or (2) of this Section. These charges and all other charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(b) (i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes one or more charges specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (5) and additional charges that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(c) (i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), then, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), the conviction shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of this State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine if whether the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous delinquent history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(6) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who, pursuant to subsection (1) or (3) or Section 5-805 or 5-810, has previously been placed under the jurisdiction of the criminal court and has been convicted of a crime under an adult criminal or penal statute. Such a minor shall be subject to prosecution under the criminal laws of this State.

(7) The procedures set out in this Article for the investigation, arrest and prosecution of juvenile offenders shall not apply to minors who are excluded from jurisdiction of the Juvenile Court, except that minors under 17 years of age shall be kept separate from confined adults.

(8) Nothing in this Act prohibits or limits the prosecution of any minor for an offense committed on or after his or her 17th birthday even though he or she is at the time of the offense a ward of the court.

(9) If an original petition for adjudication of wardship alleges the commission by a minor 13 years of age or over of an act that constitutes a crime under the laws of this State, the minor, with the consent of his or her counsel, may, at any time before commencement of the adjudicatory hearing, file with the court a motion that criminal prosecution be ordered and that the petition be dismissed insofar as the act or acts involved in the criminal proceedings are concerned. If such a motion is filed as herein provided, the court shall enter its order accordingly.

(10) If, prior to August 12, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-574), a minor is charged with a violation of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act under the criminal laws of this State, other than a minor charged with a Class X felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, any party including the minor or the court sua sponte may, before trial, move for a hearing for the purpose of trying and sentencing the minor as a delinquent minor. To request a hearing, the party must file a motion prior to trial. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to all parties. On its own motion or upon the filing of a motion by one of the parties including the minor, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the minor should be tried and sentenced as a delinquent minor under this Article. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters:

(a) The age of the minor;

(b) Any previous delinquent or criminal history of the minor;

(c) Any previous abuse or neglect history of the minor;

(d) Any mental health or educational history of the minor, or both; and

(e) Whether there is probable cause to support the charge, whether the minor is charged through accountability, and whether there is evidence the minor possessed a deadly weapon or caused serious bodily harm during the offense.

Any material that is relevant and reliable shall be admissible at the hearing. In all cases, the judge shall enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois unless the judge makes a finding based on a preponderance of the evidence that the minor would be amenable to the care, treatment, and training programs available through the facilities of the juvenile court based on an evaluation of the factors listed in this subsection (10).

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-407)

Sec. 5-407. Processing of juvenile in possession of a firearm.

(a) If a law enforcement officer detains a minor pursuant to Section 10-27.1A of the School Code, the officer shall deliver the minor to the nearest juvenile officer, in the manner prescribed by subsection (2) of Section 5-405 of this Act. The juvenile officer shall deliver the minor without unnecessary delay to the court or to the place designated by rule or order of court for the reception of minors. In no event shall the minor be eligible for any other disposition by the juvenile police officer, notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (3) of Section 5-405 of this Act.

(b) Minors not excluded from this Act's jurisdiction under subsection (3)(a) of Section 5-130 of this Act shall be brought before a judicial officer within 40 hours, exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and court-designated holidays, for a detention hearing to determine whether he or she shall be further held in custody. If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is a delinquent minor by virtue of his or her violation of Section 24-0.1 or item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 while on school grounds, that finding shall create a presumption that immediate and urgent necessity exists under subdivision (2) of Section 5-501 of this Act. Once the presumption of immediate and urgent necessity has been raised, the burden of demonstrating the lack of immediate and urgent necessity shall be on any party that is opposing detention for the minor. Should the court order detention pursuant to this Section, the minor shall be detained, pending the results of a court-ordered psychological evaluation to determine if the minor is a risk to himself, herself, or others. Upon receipt of the psychological evaluation, the court shall review the determination regarding the existence of urgent and immediate necessity. The court shall consider the psychological evaluation in conjunction with the other factors identified in subdivision (2) of Section 5-501 of this Act in order to make a de novo determination regarding whether it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be detained or placed in a shelter care facility. In addition to the pre-trial conditions found in Section 5-505 of this Act, the court may order the minor to receive counseling and any other services recommended by the psychological evaluation as a condition for release of the minor.

(c) Upon making a determination that the student presents a risk to himself, herself, or others, the court shall issue an order restraining the student from entering the property of the school if he or she has been suspended or expelled from the school as a result of possessing a firearm. The order shall restrain the student from entering the school and school owned or leased property, including any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by the school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity. The order shall remain in effect until such time as the court determines that the student no longer presents a risk to himself, herself, or others.

(d) Psychological evaluations ordered pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section and statements made by the minor during the course of these evaluations, shall not be admissible on the issue of delinquency during the course of any adjudicatory hearing held under this Act.

(e) In this Section:

"School" means any public or private elementary or secondary school.

"School grounds" includes the real property comprising any school, any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-901)

Sec. 5-901. Court file.

(1) The Court file with respect to proceedings under this Article shall consist of the petitions, pleadings, victim impact statements, process, service of process, orders, writs and docket entries reflecting hearings held and judgments and decrees entered by the court. The court file shall be kept separate from other records of the court.

(a) The file, including information identifying the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense, shall be disclosed only to the following parties when necessary for discharge of their official duties:

(i) A judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge;

(ii) Parties to the proceedings and their attorneys;

(iii) Victims and their attorneys, except in cases of multiple victims of sex offenses in which case the information identifying the nonrequesting victims shall be redacted;

(iv) Probation officers, law enforcement officers or prosecutors or their staff;

(v) Adult and juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(b) The Court file redacted to remove any information identifying the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense shall be disclosed only to the following parties when necessary for discharge of their official duties:

(i) Authorized military personnel;

(ii) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular recording: provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record;

(iii) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 or Section 6-205.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers;

(iv) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court;

(v) Any individual, or any public or private agency or institution, having custody of the juvenile under court order or providing educational, medical or mental health services to the juvenile or a court-approved advocate for the juvenile or any placement provider or potential placement provider as determined by the court.

(3) A minor who is the victim or alleged victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record. Information identifying victims and alleged victims of sex offenses, shall not be disclosed or open to public inspection under any circumstances. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense from voluntarily disclosing his or her identity.

(4) Relevant information, reports and records shall be made available to the Department of Juvenile Justice when a juvenile offender has been placed in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(5) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (5), juvenile court records shall not be made available to the general public but may be inspected by representatives of agencies, associations and news media or other properly interested persons by general or special order of the court. The State's Attorney, the minor, his or her parents, guardian and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records.

(a) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is adjudicated a delinquent minor under this Act under either of the following circumstances:

(i) The adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault; or

(ii) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the act was committed and the adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of: (A) an act in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (B) an act involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (C) an act that would be a Class X felony offense under or the minor's second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act if committed by an adult, (D) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (E) an act that would be an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, or (F) an act that would be an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act if committed by an adult.

(b) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is at least 13 years of age at the time the offense is committed and who is convicted, in criminal proceedings permitted or required under Section 5-805, under either of the following circumstances:

(i) The minor has been convicted of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault,

(ii) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the offense was committed and the conviction was based upon the minor's commission of: (A) an offense in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (B) an offense involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (C) a Class X felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act or a second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act, (D) a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (E) an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or (F) an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(6) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the use of a adjudication of delinquency as evidence in any juvenile or criminal proceeding, where it would otherwise be admissible under the rules of evidence, including but not limited to, use as impeachment evidence against any witness, including the minor if he or she testifies.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority examining the character and fitness of an applicant for a position as a law enforcement officer to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(8) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-0.1, 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the sentencing order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to such juvenile records shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any guidance counselor designated by him or her.

(9) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(11) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 17th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(12) Information or records may be disclosed to the general public when the court is conducting hearings under Section 5-805 or 5-810.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 105. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 2-7.1, 2-7.5, 12-3.05, 17-30, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.6, 24-1.8, 24-2, 24-3, 24-3.2, 24-3.4, 24-3.5, and 24-9 and adding Sections 24-0.1 and 24-4.5 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/2-7.1)

Sec. 2-7.1. "Firearm "Firearm" and "firearm ammunition". "Firearm "Firearm" and "firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-544, eff. 1-1-00.)

(720 ILCS 5/2-7.5)

Sec. 2-7.5. "Firearm". Except as otherwise provided in a specific Section, "firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which either expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter and which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second or breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets, or similar industrial ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.05) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4)

Sec. 12-3.05. Aggravated battery.

(a) Offense based on injury. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement.

(2) Causes severe and permanent disability, great bodily harm, or disfigurement by means of a caustic or flammable substance, a poisonous gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant or agent, a radioactive substance, or a bomb or explosive compound.

(3) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual whom the person knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual 60 years of age or older.

(5) Strangles another individual.

(b) Offense based on injury to a child or intellectually disabled person. A person who is at least 18 years of age commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly and without legal justification by any means:

(1) causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years, or to any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person; or

(2) causes bodily harm or disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years or to any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.

(c) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she is or the person battered is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, a sports venue, or a domestic violence shelter.

(d) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she knows the individual battered to be any of the following:

(1) A person 60 years of age or older.

(2) A person who is pregnant or physically handicapped.

(3) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A judge, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) An officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a unit of local government, or a school district, while performing his or her official duties.

(7) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(8) A taxi driver on duty.

(9) A merchant who detains the person for an alleged commission of retail theft under Section 16-26 of this Code and the person without legal justification by any means causes bodily harm to the merchant.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(e) Offense based on use of a firearm. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(3) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Discharges a firearm and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, or a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(f) Offense based on use of a weapon or device. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code the Air Rifle Act.

(2) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(3) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of another.

(g) Offense based on certain conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled substance to another and any user experiences great bodily harm or permanent disability as a result of the injection, inhalation, or ingestion of any amount of the controlled substance.

(2) Knowingly administers to an individual or causes him or her to take, without his or her consent or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, anesthetic, or controlled substance, or gives to another person any food containing any substance or object intended to cause physical injury if eaten.

(3) Knowingly causes or attempts to cause a correctional institution employee or Department of Human Services employee to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces by throwing, tossing, or expelling the fluid or material, and the person is an inmate of a penal institution or is a sexually dangerous person or sexually violent person in the custody of the Department of Human Services.

(h) Sentence. Unless otherwise provided, aggravated battery is a Class 3 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(4), (d)(4), or (g)(3) is a Class 2 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(3) or (g)(1) is a Class 1 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony when the aggravated battery was intentional and involved the infliction of torture, as defined in paragraph (14) of subsection (b) of Section 9-1 of this Code, as the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering, or agony of the victim.

Aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(5) is a Class 1 felony if:

(A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous instrument while committing the offense; or

(B) the person caused great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to the other person while committing the offense; or

(C) the person has been previously convicted of a violation of subdivision (a)(5) under the laws of this State or laws similar to subdivision (a)(5) of any other state.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(1) is a Class X felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(2) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 6 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(5) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 12 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 15 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(6), (e)(7), or (e)(8) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 20 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (b)(1) is a Class X felony, except that:

(1) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(2) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(i) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic Violence Shelters Act.

"Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Domestic violence shelter" means any building or other structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or any place within 500 feet of such a building or other structure in the case of a person who is going to or from such a building or other structure.

"Firearm" has the meaning provided under Section 2-7.5 of this Code 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, and does not include an air rifle as defined by Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code 1 of the Air Rifle Act.

"Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

"Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of this Code.

"Strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.

(Source: P.A. 96-201, eff. 8-10-09; 96-363, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12, 97-313, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-467, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-30) (was 720 ILCS 5/16C-2)

Sec. 17-30. Defaced, altered, or removed manufacturer or owner identification number.

(a) Unlawful sale of household appliances. A person commits unlawful sale of household appliances when he or she knowingly, with the intent to defraud or deceive another, keeps for sale, within any commercial context, any household appliance with a missing, defaced, obliterated, or otherwise altered manufacturer's identification number.

(b) Construction equipment identification defacement. A person commits construction equipment identification defacement when he or she knowingly changes, alters, removes, mutilates, or obliterates a permanently affixed serial number, product identification number, part number, component identification number, owner-applied identification, or other mark of identification attached to or stamped, inscribed, molded, or etched into a machine or other equipment, whether stationary or mobile or self-propelled, or a part of such machine or equipment, used in the construction, maintenance, or demolition of buildings, structures, bridges, tunnels, sewers, utility pipes or lines, ditches or open cuts, roads, highways, dams, airports, or waterways or in material handling for such projects.

The trier of fact may infer that the defendant has knowingly changed, altered, removed, or obliterated the serial number, product identification number, part number, component identification number, owner-applied identification number, or other mark of identification, if the defendant was in possession of any machine or other equipment or a part of such machine or equipment used in the construction, maintenance, or demolition of buildings, structures, bridges, tunnels, sewers, utility pipes or lines, ditches or open cuts, roads, highways, dams, airports, or waterways or in material handling for such projects upon which any such serial number, product identification number, part number, component identification number, owner-applied identification number, or other mark of identification has been changed, altered, removed, or obliterated.

(c) Defacement of manufacturer's serial number or identification mark. A person commits defacement of a manufacturer's serial number or identification mark when he or she knowingly removes, alters, defaces, covers, or destroys the manufacturer's serial number or any other manufacturer's number or distinguishing identification mark upon any machine or other article of merchandise, other than a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a firearm as defined in Section 2-7.5 of this Code the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, with the intent of concealing or destroying the identity of such machine or other article of merchandise.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony if the value of the appliance or appliances exceeds $1,000 and a Class B misdemeanor if the value of the appliance or appliances is $1,000 or less.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(3) A violation of subsection (c) of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.

(e) No liability shall be imposed upon any person for the unintentional failure to comply with subsection (a).

(f) Definitions. In this Section:

"Commercial context" means a continuing business enterprise conducted for profit by any person whose primary business is the wholesale or retail marketing of household appliances, or a significant portion of whose business or inventory consists of household appliances kept or sold on a wholesale or retail basis.

"Household appliance" means any gas or electric device or machine marketed for use as home entertainment or for facilitating or expediting household tasks or chores. The term shall include but not necessarily be limited to refrigerators, freezers, ranges, radios, television sets, vacuum cleaners, toasters, dishwashers, and other similar household items.

"Manufacturer's identification number" means any serial number or other similar numerical or alphabetical designation imprinted upon or attached to or placed, stamped, or otherwise imprinted upon or attached to a household appliance or item by the manufacturer for purposes of identifying a particular appliance or item individually or by lot number.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-0.1 new)

Sec. 24-0.1. Possession and carry of a firearm and firearm ammunition; unlawful possession and carry of a firearm and firearm ammunition; exceptions; penalty; preemption.

(a) A person may possess and carry on his or her person, openly or concealed, any firearm and firearm ammunition, except as otherwise provided in Section 24-1.6 of this Code or a person who:

(1) is under 21 years of age, unless he or she is at least 18 years of age and is a member or honorably discharged veteran of the United States Armed Forces, including the Reserves or the National Guard;

(2) has been convicted in any court of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;

(3) has been convicted in any court of a misdemeanor crime of domestic violence, including but not limited to domestic battery or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction;

(4) is under 21 years of age and he or she has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent;

(5) is a fugitive from justice;

(6) is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance;

(7) has been adjudicated as a mental defective or who has been committed to a mental institution;

(8) is intellectually disabled;

(9) is an alien illegally or unlawfully in the United States, or has been admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101 (a) (26)) except any alien lawfully admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa, if that alien is:

(A) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes or is in possession of a hunting license or permit lawfully issued in the United States;

(B) an official representative of a foreign government who is accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States, or en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;

(C) an official of a foreign government or a distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State; or

(D) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official law enforcement business;

(10) having been a citizen of the United States, has renounced his or her citizenship;

(11) has been discharged from the Armed Forces, including Reserves and the National Guard, under dishonorable conditions;

(12) is subject to a court order that:

(A) was issued after a hearing of which the person received actual notice, and at which the person had an opportunity to participate;

(B) restrains the person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of that person or child of the intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child; and

(C) includes a finding that the person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of the intimate partner or child; or by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against the intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury.

(b) An owner or lessee of private property, private business enterprise, business, or commercial business; or any other private organization, entity, or person, may prohibit a person from possessing or carrying a firearm on or within premises under its control, if the owner or lessee conspicuously posts at each entrance to the premises notice in a type face easily read by persons entering the premises that the possession and carrying of firearms is prohibited. This prohibition does not apply to a parking area on the premises where persons may park their motor vehicle. This prohibition does not apply to a public way or sidewalk through the premises.

(c) Nothing in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibits a person:

(1) under 18 years of age from participating in any lawful recreational activity with a firearm such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at targets upon established public or private target ranges or hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code;

(2) under 21 years of age when on his or her land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission;

(3) from transporting a firearm that is broken down in a non-functioning state, not immediately accessible; or unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container;

(4) enrolled in a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university who is carrying or possessing a firearm for use in a training course, parade, hunting, target shooting on a school range, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and the firearm is transported unloaded and enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package; or

(5) an athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in connection with the athlete's training for and participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.

(d) A person commits unlawful possession or carrying of a firearm or firearm ammunition when he or she possesses or carries a firearm or firearm ammunition while prohibited from carrying or possessing a firearm or firearm ammunition under this Section.

(e) Sentence. Unlawful possession or carrying of a firearm or firearm ammunition is a Class A misdemeanor, unless committed in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development which is a Class 3 felony.

(f) For the purposes of subsection (e):

"Public transportation agency" means a public or private agency that provides for the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, except for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance of the general public as passengers.

"Public transportation facility" means a terminal or other place where one may obtain public transportation.

"School" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(g) It is unlawful for any unit of local government, including a home rule unit of government, to regulate the possession or carrying of firearms and firearm ammunition. It is declared to be the policy of this State that the regulation of the possession or carrying of firearms and firearm ammunition is an exclusive power and function of the State. A home rule unit may not regulate the possession or carrying of firearms and firearm ammunition. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)

Sec. 24-1. Unlawful Use of Weapons.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons when he knowingly:

(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or

(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or

(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or

(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except when on his or her land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (4) does not apply to or affect transportation of a stun gun or taser weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(5) Sets a spring gun; or

(6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm; or

(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries:

(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;

(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or

(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged; or , excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.

This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or

(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about his person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity; or

(10) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of the stun gun or taser such weapon or the lawful commerce in stun guns or tasers weapons, or except when on his or her land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (10) does not apply to or affect transportation of a stun gun or taser weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) means (i) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or

(11) Sells, manufactures, possesses, or purchases any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or

(12) (Blank); or

(13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, or other instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a short stick or club commonly carried by police officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece of wood or other man-made material.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), subsection 24-1(a)(11), or subsection 24-1(a)(13) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7)(ii) or (iii) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) commits a Class 3 felony. The possession of each weapon in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Violations in specific places.

(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.

(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of the such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public transportation agency" means a public or private agency that provides for the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, except for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance of the general public as passengers; and "public transportation facility" means a terminal or other place where one may obtain public transportation.

(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.

(e) Exemptions. Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-809, eff. 1-1-09; 95-885, eff. 1-1-09; 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1.1)

Sec. 24-1.1. Unlawful Use or Possession of Weapons by Felons or Persons in the Custody of the Department of Corrections Facilities.

(a) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly possess on or about his person or on his land or in his own abode or fixed place of business any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Act or any firearm or any firearm ammunition if the person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction. This Section shall not apply if the person has been granted relief by the United States Attorney General under Section 925 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (Title 18 U.S.C. Section 925), as amended Director of the Department of State Police under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(b) It is unlawful for any person confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, to possess any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code or any firearm or firearm ammunition, regardless of the intent with which he possesses it.

(c) It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of subsection (b), that such possession was specifically authorized by rule, regulation, or directive of the Illinois Department of Corrections or order issued pursuant thereto.

(d) The defense of necessity is not available to a person who is charged with a violation of subsection (b) of this Section.

(e) Sentence. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution shall be a Class 3 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to no less than 2 years and no more than 10 years and any second or subsequent violation shall be a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution who has been convicted of a forcible felony, a felony violation of Article 24 of this Code or of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, stalking or aggravated stalking, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years. Violation of this Section by a person who is on parole or mandatory supervised release is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution is a Class X felony when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. Any person who violates this Section while confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, is guilty of a Class 1 felony, if he possesses any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code regardless of the intent with which he possesses it, a Class X felony if he possesses any firearm, firearm ammunition or explosive, and a Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. A violation of this Section while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 is a Class X felony punishable by a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more than 40 years. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 97-237, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.6)

Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon when he or she knowingly:

(1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; or

(2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; and

(3) One of the following factors is present:

(A) the stun gun or taser firearm possessed was uncased, loaded and immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(B) (blank) the firearm possessed was uncased, unloaded and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(C) (blank) the person possessing the firearm has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(D) the person possessing the weapon was previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or

(E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(F) (blank); or

(G) the person possessing the weapon had a order of protection issued against him or her within the previous 2 years; or

(H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in the commission or attempted commission of a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence against the person or property of another; or

(I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21 years of age and in possession of a handgun as defined in Section 24-3, unless the person under 21 is authorized to possess under Section 24-0.1 of this Code or engaged in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f).

(b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the transportation or possession of weapons that:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (d), a first offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon committed with a firearm by a person 18 years of age or older where the factors listed in item both items (A) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are present is a Class 4 felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than 3 years.

(3) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon by a person who has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(4) (Blank). Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X felony.

(e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-829, eff. 12-3-09; 96-1107, eff. 1-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.8)

Sec. 24-1.8. Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member.

(a) A person commits unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when he or she knowingly:

(1) possesses, carries, or conceals on or about his or her person a firearm and firearm ammunition while on any street, road, alley, gangway, sidewalk, or any other lands, except when inside his or her own abode or inside his or her fixed place of business, and has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is a member of a street gang; or

(2) possesses or carries in any vehicle a firearm and firearm ammunition which are both immediately accessible at the time of the offense while on any street, road, alley, or any other lands, except when inside his or her own abode or garage, and has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is a member of a street gang.

(b) Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member is a Class 2 felony for which the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to no less than 3 years and no more than 10 years. A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the offense of unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition and the court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment authorized for the Class 2 felony.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

"Street gang" or "gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

"Street gang member" or "gang member" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-829, eff. 12-3-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by an agency certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment, provided that such commuting is accomplished within one hour from departure from home or place of employment, as the case may be. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of a licensed agency and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed agency at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force of at least 5 persons registered with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm control card shall be carried by the person so trained at all times when such person is in possession of a concealable weapon. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons under pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) (Blank). Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) (Blank). Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) (Blank). Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of this such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of the any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his or her employment, where the such activities involving the such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of the such contract.

During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately accessible.

(7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B) the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the modification is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26 inches.

During transportation, the weapon any such weapon shall be broken down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately accessible.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.

(f) (Blank). Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsection Subsections 24-1(a)(11) does and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordinance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordinance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.

(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.

(g-10) Subsection Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and 24-1(a)(10), and Section Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in connection with such athlete's training for and participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving this such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where the such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which this such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-230, eff. 1-1-10; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-465, eff. 8-22-11; 97-676, eff. 6-1-12; 97-936, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1010, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)

Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.

(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.

(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental hospital within the past 5 years.

(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is intellectually disabled.

(g) Delivers any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers any rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a point outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) the sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Illinois Department of State Police; or (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in Section 2-7.5 of this Code the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) (Blank). Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) (Blank). Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card means (i) a Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has not expired or (ii) if the transferor is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923), an approval number issued in accordance with Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid.

(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.

(C) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or , (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or , (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) (Blank). Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.

(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5 year period.

(D) For purposes of this Section:

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 96-190, eff. 1-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.2)

Sec. 24-3.2. Unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles when he or she knowingly or recklessly uses an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell in violation of this Section.

For purposes of this Section:

"Armor piercing bullet" means any handgun bullet or handgun ammunition with projectiles or projectile cores constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other substances) from tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper or depleted uranium, or fully jacketed bullets larger than 22 caliber whose jacket has a weight of more than 25% of the total weight of the projectile, and excluding those handgun projectiles whose cores are composed of soft materials such as lead or lead alloys, zinc or zinc alloys, frangible projectiles designed primarily for sporting purposes, and any other projectiles or projectile cores that the U. S. Secretary of the Treasury finds to be primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes or industrial purposes or that otherwise does not constitute "armor piercing ammunition" as that term is defined by federal law.

"Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell that contains exothermic pyrophoric mesh metal as the projectile and is designed for the purpose of throwing or spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flame-thrower.

"Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels as projectiles 2 or more metal balls connected by solid metal wire.

"Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels 2 or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid metal wire or 2 or more solid dart-type projectiles.

(b) A person commits a Class X felony when he or she, knowing that a firearm, as defined in Section 2-7.5 of this Code 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, is loaded with an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell, intentionally or recklessly discharges such firearm and such bullet or shell strikes any other person.

(c) Any person who possesses, concealed on or about his or her person, an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell and a firearm suitable for the discharge thereof is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(d) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers;

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense;

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard while in the performance of their official duties;

(4) Federal officials required to carry firearms, while engaged in the performance of their official duties;

(5) United States Marshals, while engaged in the performance of their official duties.

(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.4)

Sec. 24-3.4. Unlawful sale of firearms by liquor licensee.

(a) It shall be unlawful for any person who holds a license to sell at retail any alcoholic liquor issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission or local liquor control commissioner under the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or an agent or employee of the licensee to sell or deliver to any other person a firearm in or on the real property of the establishment where the licensee is licensed to sell alcoholic liquors unless the sale or delivery of the firearm is otherwise lawful under this Article and under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 87-591.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.5)

Sec. 24-3.5. Unlawful purchase of a firearm.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "firearms transaction record form" means a form:

(1) executed by a transferee of a firearm stating: (i) the transferee's name and address (including county or similar political subdivision); (ii) whether the transferee is a citizen of the United States; (iii) the transferee's State of residence; and (iv) the date and place of birth, height, weight, and race of the transferee; and

(2) on which the transferee certifies that he or she is not prohibited by federal law from transporting or shipping a firearm in interstate or foreign commerce or receiving a firearm that has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce or possessing a firearm in or affecting commerce.

(b) A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm who knowingly purchases or attempts to purchase a firearm with the intent to deliver that firearm to another person who is prohibited by federal or State law from possessing a firearm.

(c) A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm when he or she, in purchasing or attempting to purchase a firearm, intentionally provides false or misleading information on a United States Department of the Treasury, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms firearms transaction record form.

(d) Exemption. It is not a violation of subsection (b) of this Section for a person to make a gift or loan of a firearm to a person who is not prohibited by federal or State law from possessing a firearm if the transfer of the firearm is made in accordance with Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(e) Sentence.

(1) A person who commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm:

(A) is guilty of a Class 2 felony for purchasing or attempting to purchase one firearm;

(B) is guilty of a Class 1 felony for purchasing or attempting to purchase not less than 2 firearms and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period;

(C) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years for purchasing or attempting to purchase not less than 6 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period.

(2) In addition to any other penalty that may be imposed for a violation of this Section, the court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of subsection (c) of this Section to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each violation.

(f) A prosecution for unlawful purchase of a firearm may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 95-882, eff. 1-1-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-4.5 new)

Sec. 24-4.5. Dial up system.

(a) The Department of State Police shall provide a dial up telephone system or utilize other existing technology which shall be used by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm, stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this Code. The Department of State Police may utilize existing technology which allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2. Fees collected by the Department of State Police shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and used to provide the service.

(b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the Department of State Police shall immediately approve, or within the time period established by Section 24-3 of this Code regarding the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and tasers notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor of any objection that would disqualify the transferee from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or taser. In conducting the inquiry, the Department of State Police shall initiate and complete an automated search of its criminal history record information files and those of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, including the National Instant Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities to obtain any felony conviction or patient hospitalization information which would disqualify a person from obtaining a firearm.

(c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3 of this Code or federal law, the Department of State Police shall:

(1) assign a unique identification number to the transfer; and

(2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor with the number.

(d) Approvals issued by the Department of State Police for the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.

(e)(1) The Department of State Police must act as the Illinois Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

(2) The Department of State Police and the Department of Human Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal Background Check System in the State. The Department of State Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under this Code or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System Index, Denied Persons Files.

(f) The Department of State Police shall adopt rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.

(720 ILCS 5/24-9)

Sec. 24-9. Firearms; Child Protection.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (c), it is unlawful for any person to store or leave, within premises under his or her control, a firearm if the person knows or has reason to believe that a minor under the age of 14 years who does not have a Firearm Owners Identification Card is likely to gain access to the firearm without the lawful permission of the minor's parent, guardian, or person having charge of the minor, and the minor causes death or great bodily harm with the firearm, unless the firearm is:

(1) secured by a device or mechanism, other than the firearm safety, designed to render a firearm temporarily inoperable; or

(2) placed in a securely locked box or container; or

(3) placed in some other location that a reasonable person would believe to be secure from a minor under the age of 14 years.

(b) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $1,000. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) Subsection (a) does not apply:

(1) if the minor under 14 years of age gains access to a firearm and uses it in a lawful act of self-defense or defense of another; or

(2) to any firearm obtained by a minor under the age of 14 because of an unlawful entry of the premises by the minor or another person.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-7.5 of this Code 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-18, eff. 1-1-00.)

720 ILCS 5/24-3.1 rep.

Section 110. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by repealing Section 24-3.1.

Section 115. The Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(720 ILCS 646/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Anhydrous ammonia" has the meaning provided in subsection (d) of Section 3 of the Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961.

"Anhydrous ammonia equipment" means all items used to store, hold, contain, handle, transfer, transport, or apply anhydrous ammonia for lawful purposes.

"Booby trap" means any device designed to cause physical injury when triggered by an act of a person approaching, entering, or moving through a structure, a vehicle, or any location where methamphetamine has been manufactured, is being manufactured, or is intended to be manufactured.

"Deliver" or "delivery" has the meaning provided in subsection (h) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Director" means the Director of State Police or the Director's designated agents.

"Dispose" or "disposal" means to abandon, discharge, release, deposit, inject, dump, spill, leak, or place methamphetamine waste onto or into any land, water, or well of any type so that the waste has the potential to enter the environment, be emitted into the air, or be discharged into the soil or any waters, including groundwater.

"Emergency response" means the act of collecting evidence from or securing a methamphetamine laboratory site, methamphetamine waste site or other methamphetamine-related site and cleaning up the site, whether these actions are performed by public entities or private contractors paid by public entities.

"Emergency service provider" means a local, State, or federal peace officer, firefighter, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical or first aid personnel rendering aid, or any agent or designee of the foregoing.

"Finished methamphetamine" means methamphetamine in a form commonly used for personal consumption.

"Firearm" has the meaning provided in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

"Manufacture" means to produce, prepare, compound, convert, process, synthesize, concentrate, purify, separate, extract, or package any methamphetamine, methamphetamine precursor, methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst, methamphetamine manufacturing reagent, methamphetamine manufacturing solvent, or any substance containing any of the foregoing.

"Methamphetamine" means the chemical methamphetamine (a Schedule II controlled substance under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act) or any salt, optical isomer, salt of optical isomer, or analog thereof, with the exception of 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) or any other scheduled substance with a separate listing under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst" means any substance that has been used, is being used, or is intended to be used to activate, accelerate, extend, or improve a chemical reaction involved in the manufacture of methamphetamine.

"Methamphetamine manufacturing environment" means a structure or vehicle in which:

(1) methamphetamine is being or has been manufactured;

(2) chemicals that are being used, have been used, or are intended to be used to manufacture methamphetamine are stored;

(3) methamphetamine manufacturing materials that have been used to manufacture methamphetamine are stored; or

(4) methamphetamine manufacturing waste is stored.

"Methamphetamine manufacturing material" means any methamphetamine precursor, substance containing any methamphetamine precursor, methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst, substance containing any methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst, methamphetamine manufacturing reagent, substance containing any methamphetamine manufacturing reagent, methamphetamine manufacturing solvent, substance containing any methamphetamine manufacturing solvent, or any other chemical, substance, ingredient, equipment, apparatus, or item that is being used, has been used, or is intended to be used in the manufacture of methamphetamine.

"Methamphetamine manufacturing reagent" means any substance other than a methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst that has been used, is being used, or is intended to be used to react with and chemically alter any methamphetamine precursor.

"Methamphetamine manufacturing solvent" means any substance that has been used, is being used, or is intended to be used as a medium in which any methamphetamine precursor, methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst, methamphetamine manufacturing reagent, or any substance containing any of the foregoing is dissolved, diluted, or washed during any part of the methamphetamine manufacturing process.

"Methamphetamine manufacturing waste" means any chemical, substance, ingredient, equipment, apparatus, or item that is left over from, results from, or is produced by the process of manufacturing methamphetamine, other than finished methamphetamine.

"Methamphetamine precursor" means ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, benzyl methyl ketone, methyl benzyl ketone, phenylacetone, phenyl-2-propanone, P2P, or any salt, optical isomer, or salt of an optical isomer of any of these chemicals.

"Multi-unit dwelling" means a unified structure used or intended for use as a habitation, home, or residence that contains 2 or more condominiums, apartments, hotel rooms, motel rooms, or other living units.

"Package" means an item marked for retail sale that is not designed to be further broken down or subdivided for the purpose of retail sale.

"Participate" or "participation" in the manufacture of methamphetamine means to produce, prepare, compound, convert, process, synthesize, concentrate, purify, separate, extract, or package any methamphetamine, methamphetamine precursor, methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst, methamphetamine manufacturing reagent, methamphetamine manufacturing solvent, or any substance containing any of the foregoing, or to assist in any of these actions, or to attempt to take any of these actions, regardless of whether this action or these actions result in the production of finished methamphetamine.

"Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition which renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health and personal care.

"Procure" means to purchase, steal, gather, or otherwise obtain, by legal or illegal means, or to cause another to take such action.

"Second or subsequent offense" means an offense under this Act committed by an offender who previously committed an offense under this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or another Act of this State, another state, or the United States relating to methamphetamine, cannabis, or any other controlled substance.

"Standard dosage form", as used in relation to any methamphetamine precursor, means that the methamphetamine precursor is contained in a pill, tablet, capsule, caplet, gel cap, or liquid cap that has been manufactured by a lawful entity and contains a standard quantity of methamphetamine precursor.

"Unauthorized container", as used in relation to anhydrous ammonia, means any container that is not designed for the specific and sole purpose of holding, storing, transporting, or applying anhydrous ammonia. "Unauthorized container" includes, but is not limited to, any propane tank, fire extinguisher, oxygen cylinder, gasoline can, food or beverage cooler, or compressed gas cylinder used in dispensing fountain drinks. "Unauthorized container" does not encompass anhydrous ammonia manufacturing plants, refrigeration systems where anhydrous ammonia is used solely as a refrigerant, anhydrous ammonia transportation pipelines, anhydrous ammonia tankers, or anhydrous ammonia barges.

(Source: P.A. 97-434, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 120. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 110-4 and 110-10 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/110-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-4)

Sec. 110-4. Bailable Offenses.

(a) All persons shall be bailable before conviction, except the following offenses where the proof is evident or the presumption great that the defendant is guilty of the offense: capital offenses; offenses for which a sentence of life imprisonment may be imposed as a consequence of conviction; felony offenses for which a sentence of imprisonment, without conditional and revocable release, shall be imposed by law as a consequence of conviction, where the court after a hearing, determines that the release of the defendant would pose a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person or persons; stalking or aggravated stalking, where the court, after a hearing, determines that the release of the defendant would pose a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense and denial of bail is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based; or unlawful use of weapons in violation of Section 24-0.1 or item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when that offense occurred in a school or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of real property comprising any school, where the court, after a hearing, determines that the release of the defendant would pose a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person and denial of bail is necessary to prevent fulfillment of that threat; or making a terrorist threat in violation of Section 29D-20 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or an attempt to commit the offense of making a terrorist threat, where the court, after a hearing, determines that the release of the defendant would pose a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person and denial of bail is necessary to prevent fulfillment of that threat.

(b) A person seeking release on bail who is charged with a capital offense or an offense for which a sentence of life imprisonment may be imposed shall not be bailable until a hearing is held wherein such person has the burden of demonstrating that the proof of his guilt is not evident and the presumption is not great.

(c) Where it is alleged that bail should be denied to a person upon the grounds that the person presents a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person or persons, the burden of proof of such allegations shall be upon the State.

(d) When it is alleged that bail should be denied to a person charged with stalking or aggravated stalking upon the grounds set forth in Section 110-6.3 of this Code, the burden of proof of those allegations shall be upon the State.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-10)

Sec. 110-10. Conditions of bail bond.

(a) If a person is released prior to conviction, either upon payment of bail security or on his or her own recognizance, the conditions of the bail bond shall be that he or she will:

(1) Appear to answer the charge in the court having jurisdiction on a day certain and thereafter as ordered by the court until discharged or final order of the court;

(2) Submit himself or herself to the orders and process of the court;

(3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;

(4) Not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(5) At a time and place designated by the court, surrender all firearms in his or her possession to a law enforcement officer designated by the court to take custody of and impound the firearms and physically surrender his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the clerk of the circuit court when the offense the person has been charged with is a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, or any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; the court may, however, forgo the imposition of this condition when the circumstances of the case clearly do not warrant it or when its imposition would be impractical; if the Firearm Owner's Identification Card is confiscated, the clerk of the circuit court shall mail the confiscated card to the Illinois State Police; all legally possessed firearms shall be returned to the person upon the charges being dismissed, or if the person is found not guilty, unless the finding of not guilty is by reason of insanity; and

(6) At a time and place designated by the court, submit to a psychological evaluation when the person has been charged with a violation of Section 24-0.1 or item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and that violation occurred in a school or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of real property comprising any school.

Psychological evaluations ordered pursuant to this Section shall be completed promptly and made available to the State, the defendant, and the court. As a further condition of bail under these circumstances, the court shall order the defendant to refrain from entering upon the property of the school, including any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of real property comprising any school. Upon receipt of the psychological evaluation, either the State or the defendant may request a change in the conditions of bail, pursuant to Section 110-6 of this Code. The court may change the conditions of bail to include a requirement that the defendant follow the recommendations of the psychological evaluation, including undergoing psychiatric treatment. The conclusions of the psychological evaluation and any statements elicited from the defendant during its administration are not admissible as evidence of guilt during the course of any trial on the charged offense, unless the defendant places his or her mental competency in issue.

(b) The court may impose other conditions, such as the following, if the court finds that such conditions are reasonably necessary to assure the defendant's appearance in court, protect the public from the defendant, or prevent the defendant's unlawful interference with the orderly administration of justice:

(1) Report to or appear in person before such person or agency as the court may direct;

(2) Refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) Refrain from approaching or communicating with particular persons or classes of persons;

(4) Refrain from going to certain described geographical areas or premises;

(5) Refrain from engaging in certain activities or indulging in intoxicating liquors or in certain drugs;

(6) Undergo treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(7) Undergo medical or psychiatric treatment;

(8) Work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(9) Attend or reside in a facility designated by the court;

(10) Support his or her dependents;

(11) If a minor resides with his or her parents or in a foster home, attend school, attend a non-residential program for youths, and contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home;

(12) Observe any curfew ordered by the court;

(13) Remain in the custody of such designated person or organization agreeing to supervise his release. Such third party custodian shall be responsible for notifying the court if the defendant fails to observe the conditions of release which the custodian has agreed to monitor, and shall be subject to contempt of court for failure so to notify the court;

(14) Be placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with or without the use of an approved electronic monitoring device subject to Article 8A of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(14.1) The court shall impose upon a defendant who is charged with any alcohol, cannabis, methamphetamine, or controlled substance violation and is placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with the use of an approved monitoring device, as a condition of such bail bond, a fee that represents costs incidental to the electronic monitoring for each day of such bail supervision ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code;

(14.2) The court shall impose upon all defendants, including those defendants subject to paragraph (14.1) above, placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with the use of an approved monitoring device, as a condition of such bail bond, a fee which shall represent costs incidental to such electronic monitoring for each day of such bail supervision ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be;

(14.3) The Chief Judge of the Judicial Circuit may establish reasonable fees to be paid by a person receiving pretrial services while under supervision of a pretrial services agency, probation department, or court services department. Reasonable fees may be charged for pretrial services including, but not limited to, pretrial supervision, diversion programs, electronic monitoring, victim impact services, drug and alcohol testing, DNA testing, GPS electronic monitoring, assessments and evaluations related to domestic violence and other victims, and victim mediation services. The person receiving pretrial services may be ordered to pay all costs incidental to pretrial services in accordance with his or her ability to pay those costs;

(14.4) For persons charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, refrain from operating a motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device, as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, pursuant to the rules promulgated by the Secretary of State for the installation of ignition interlock devices. Under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment;

(15) Comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory;

(16) Under Section 110-6.5 comply with the conditions of the drug testing program; and

(17) Such other reasonable conditions as the court may impose.

(c) When a person is charged with an offense under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, involving a victim who is a minor under 18 years of age living in the same household with the defendant at the time of the offense, in granting bail or releasing the defendant on his own recognizance, the judge shall impose conditions to restrict the defendant's access to the victim which may include, but are not limited to conditions that he will:

1. Vacate the Household.

2. Make payment of temporary support to his dependents.

3. Refrain from contact or communication with the child victim, except as ordered by the court.

(d) When a person is charged with a criminal offense and the victim is a family or household member as defined in Article 112A, conditions shall be imposed at the time of the defendant's release on bond that restrict the defendant's access to the victim. Unless provided otherwise by the court, the restrictions shall include requirements that the defendant do the following:

(1) refrain from contact or communication with the victim for a minimum period of 72 hours following the defendant's release; and

(2) refrain from entering or remaining at the victim's residence for a minimum period of 72 hours following the defendant's release.

(e) Local law enforcement agencies shall develop standardized bond forms for use in cases involving family or household members as defined in Article 112A, including specific conditions of bond as provided in subsection (d). Failure of any law enforcement department to develop or use those forms shall in no way limit the applicability and enforcement of subsections (d) and (f).

(f) If the defendant is admitted to bail after conviction the conditions of the bail bond shall be that he will, in addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b) hereof:

(1) Duly prosecute his appeal;

(2) Appear at such time and place as the court may direct;

(3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;

(4) Comply with such other reasonable conditions as the court may impose; and

(5) If the judgment is affirmed or the cause reversed and remanded for a new trial, forthwith surrender to the officer from whose custody he was bailed.

(g) Upon a finding of guilty for any felony offense, the defendant shall physically surrender, at a time and place designated by the court, any and all firearms in his or her possession and his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card as a condition of remaining on bond pending sentencing.

(Source: P.A. 96-340, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-401, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 125. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 5-5-3 and 5-5-3.2 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (1) (Blank).

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1.5) or (c)(2) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing cocaine, fentanyl, or an analog thereof.

(D-5) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which relates to 3 or more grams of a substance containing heroin or an analog thereof.

(E) A violation of Section 5.1 or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(F) A Class 2 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 2 or greater felony) classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(F-5) A violation of Section 24-0.1, 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) (Blank). A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Q) A violation of subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 20-1, Section 20-1.2, or Section 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(S) (Blank).

(T) A second or subsequent violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(U) A second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(V) A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.1B or paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim is under 13 years of age and the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(W) A violation of Section 24-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(X) A violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-1a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Y) A conviction for unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition.

(Z) A Class 1 felony committed while he or she was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(AA) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value.

(BB) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000.

(CC) Knowingly selling, offering for sale, holding for sale, or using 2,000 or more counterfeit items or counterfeit items having a retail value in the aggregate of $500,000 or more.

(DD) A conviction for aggravated assault under paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the firearm is aimed toward the person against whom the firearm is being used.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) (Blank).

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.3) and (4.8) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.5), (4.6), and (4.9) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.10) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.7) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 30 consecutive days, or 300 hours of community service, shall be imposed for a violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (b-5) of that Section.

(4.8) A mandatory prison sentence shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (c-5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for a period of not less than 5 years from the date of his or her release from prison.

(4.9) A mandatory prison sentence of not less than 4 and not more than 15 years shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-2.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(4.10) A mandatory prison sentence for a Class 1 felony shall be imposed, and the person shall be eligible for an extended term sentence, for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-3.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(5) The court may sentence a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(5.4) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(5.5) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges were suspended for a previous violation of that Section shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for an additional 6 months after the expiration of the original 3-month suspension and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(6) (Blank).

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) (Blank).

(11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports official or coach was an active participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.

(12) A person may not receive a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of that Section.

(13) A person convicted of or placed on court supervision for an assault or aggravated assault when the victim and the offender are family or household members as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or convicted of domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery may be required to attend a Partner Abuse Intervention Program under protocols set forth by the Illinois Department of Human Services under such terms and conditions imposed by the court. The costs of such classes shall be paid by the offender.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan including but not limited to the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 11-40, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substance Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of the GED test. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) (Blank).

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional sentence credit for good conduct as provided under Section 3-6-3.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person is an addict or alcoholic, as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, to a substance or alcohol abuse program licensed under that Act.

(o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 96-348, eff. 8-12-09; 96-400, eff. 8-13-09; 96-829, eff. 12-3-09; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-159, eff. 7-21-11; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-917, eff. 8-9-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation and Extended-Term Sentencing.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who is physically handicapped or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was released on bail or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act before its repeal by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly, disabled, or infirm by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly, disabled, or infirm person;

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and possessed 100 or more images;

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation;

(26) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1B or Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;

(27) the defendant committed the offense of first degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person who was a veteran and the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the person was a veteran performing duties as a representative of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization" means an organization comprised of members of which substantially all are individuals who are veterans or spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to confer a public benefit; or

(28) the defendant committed the offense of assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person that the defendant knew or reasonably should have known was a letter carrier or postal worker while that person was performing his or her duties delivering mail for the United States Postal Service.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person physically handicapped at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-7 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40 or 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-0.1 or 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been convicted of a felony violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and, during the commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the victim had consumed alcohol.

(Source: P.A. 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1228, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1390, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11, 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-693, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 130. The Stalking No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Section 80 as follows:

(740 ILCS 21/80)

Sec. 80. Stalking no contact orders; remedies.

(a) If the court finds that the petitioner has been a victim of stalking, a stalking no contact order shall issue; provided that the petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of Section 95 on emergency orders or Section 100 on plenary orders. The petitioner shall not be denied a stalking no contact order because the petitioner or the respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue a stalking no contact order, may not require physical injury on the person of the petitioner. Modification and extension of prior stalking no contact orders shall be in accordance with this Act.

(b) A stalking no contact order shall order one or more of the following:

(1) prohibit the respondent from threatening to commit or committing stalking;

(2) order the respondent not to have any contact with the petitioner or a third person specifically named by the court;

(3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within a specified distance of the petitioner or the petitioner's residence, school, daycare, or place of employment, or any specified place frequented by the petitioner; however, the court may order the respondent to stay away from the respondent's own residence, school, or place of employment only if the respondent has been provided actual notice of the opportunity to appear and be heard on the petition;

(4) prohibit the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owners Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; and

(5) order other injunctive relief the court determines to be necessary to protect the petitioner or third party specifically named by the court.

(b-5) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a stalking no contact order and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(b-6) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent are responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(b-7) The court shall not hold a school district or private or non-public school or any of its employees in civil or criminal contempt unless the school district or private or non-public school has been allowed to intervene.

(b-8) The court may hold the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent in civil or criminal contempt for a violation of any provision of any order entered under this Act for conduct of the minor respondent in violation of this Act if the parents, guardian, or legal custodian directed, encouraged, or assisted the respondent minor in such conduct.

(c) The court may award the petitioner costs and attorneys fees if a stalking no contact order is granted.

(d) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.

(e) If the stalking no contact order prohibits the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; the court shall confiscate the respondent's Firearm Owner's Identification Card and immediately return the card to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10; 97-294, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 135. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/12) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812)

Sec. 12. (a) If the United States Secret Service or the Department of State Police requests information from a mental health or developmental disability facility, as defined in Section 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, relating to a specific recipient and the facility director determines that disclosure of such information may be necessary to protect the life of, or to prevent the infliction of great bodily harm to, a public official, or a person under the protection of the United States Secret Service, only the following information may be disclosed: the recipient's name, address, and age and the date of any admission to or discharge from a facility; and any information which would indicate whether or not the recipient has a history of violence or presents a danger of violence to the person under protection. Any information so disclosed shall be used for investigative purposes only and shall not be publicly disseminated. Any person participating in good faith in the disclosure of such information in accordance with this provision shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, if such information is disclosed relying upon the representation of an officer of the United States Secret Service or the Department of State Police that a person is under the protection of the United States Secret Service or is a public official.

For the purpose of this subsection (a), the term "public official" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller, State Treasurer, member of the General Assembly, member of the United States Congress, Judge of the United States as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451, Justice of the United States as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451, United States Magistrate Judge as defined in 28 U.S.C. 639, Bankruptcy Judge appointed under 28 U.S.C. 152, or Supreme, Appellate, Circuit, or Associate Judge of the State of Illinois. The term shall also include the spouse, child or children of a public official.

(b) The Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) and all public or private hospitals and mental health facilities are required, as hereafter described in this subsection, to furnish the Department of State Police only such information as may be required for the sole purpose of determining whether an individual who may be or may have been a patient is disqualified because of that status from receiving or retaining a firearm under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 24-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 Firearm Owner's Identification Card under subsection (e) or (f) of Section 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n). All public or private hospitals and mental health facilities shall, in the form and manner required by the Department, provide the such information as shall be necessary for the Department to comply with the reporting requirements to the Department of State Police. The Such information shall be furnished within 7 days after admission to a public or private hospital or mental health facility or the provision of services to a patient described in clause (2) of this subsection (b). Any such information disclosed under this subsection shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required by clause (e)(2) of Section 24-4.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor utilized for any other purpose. The method of requiring the providing of this such information shall guarantee that no information is released beyond what is necessary for this purpose. In addition, the information disclosed shall be provided by the Department within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms. The method used shall be sufficient to provide the necessary information within the prescribed time period, which may include periodically providing lists to the Department of Human Services or any public or private hospital or mental health facility of Firearm Owner's Identification Card applicants for firearm purchases on which the Department or hospital shall indicate the identities of those individuals who are to its knowledge disqualified from having a firearm Firearm Owner's Identification Card for reasons described herein. The Department may provide for a centralized source of information for the State on this subject under its jurisdiction.

Any person, institution, or agency, under this Act, participating in good faith in the reporting or disclosure of records and communications otherwise in accordance with this provision or with rules, regulations or guidelines issued by the Department shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the action. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal, arising out of a report or disclosure in accordance with this provision, the good faith of any person, institution, or agency so reporting or disclosing shall be presumed. The full extent of the immunity provided in this subsection (b) shall apply to any person, institution or agency that fails to make a report or disclosure in the good faith belief that the report or disclosure would violate federal regulations governing the confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records implementing 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3 and 290ee-3.

For purposes of this subsection (b) only, the following terms shall have the meaning prescribed:

(1) "Hospital" means only that type of institution which is providing full-time residential facilities and treatment.

(2) "Patient" shall include only: (i) a person who is an in-patient or resident of any public or private hospital or mental health facility or (ii) a person who is an out-patient or provided services by a public or private hospital or mental health facility whose mental condition is of such a nature that it is manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening, or assaultive behavior or reported behavior, for which there is a reasonable belief by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner that the condition poses a clear and present or imminent danger to the patient, any other person or the community meaning the patient's condition poses a clear and present danger in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The terms physician, clinical psychologist, and qualified examiner are defined in Sections 1-120, 1-103, and 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(3) "Mental health facility" is defined by Section 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(c) Upon the request of a peace officer who takes a person into custody and transports such person to a mental health or developmental disability facility pursuant to Section 3-606 or 4-404 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or who transports a person from such facility, a facility director shall furnish said peace officer the name, address, age and name of the nearest relative of the person transported to or from the mental health or developmental disability facility. In no case shall the facility director disclose to the peace officer any information relating to the diagnosis, treatment or evaluation of the person's mental or physical health.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), the terms "mental health or developmental disability facility", "peace officer" and "facility director" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(d) Upon the request of a peace officer or prosecuting authority who is conducting a bona fide investigation of a criminal offense, or attempting to apprehend a fugitive from justice, a facility director may disclose whether a person is present at the facility. Upon request of a peace officer or prosecuting authority who has a valid forcible felony warrant issued, a facility director shall disclose: (1) whether the person who is the subject of the warrant is present at the facility and (2) the date of that person's discharge or future discharge from the facility. The requesting peace officer or prosecuting authority must furnish a case number and the purpose of the investigation or an outstanding arrest warrant at the time of the request. Any person, institution, or agency participating in good faith in disclosing such information in accordance with this subsection (d) is immune from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the action.

(Source: P.A. 96-193, eff. 8-10-09; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 140. The Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(765 ILCS 1025/1) (from Ch. 141, par. 101)

Sec. 1. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Banking organization" means any bank, trust company, savings bank, industrial bank, land bank, safe deposit company, or a private banker.

(b) "Business association" means any corporation, joint stock company, business trust, partnership, or any association, limited liability company, or other business entity consisting of one or more persons, whether or not for profit.

(c) "Financial organization" means any savings and loan association, building and loan association, credit union, currency exchange, co-operative bank, mutual funds, or investment company.

(d) "Holder" means any person in possession of property subject to this Act belonging to another, or who is trustee in case of a trust, or is indebted to another on an obligation subject to this Act.

(e) "Life insurance corporation" means any association or corporation transacting the business of insurance on the lives of persons or insurance appertaining thereto, including, but not by way of limitation, endowments and annuities.

(f) "Owner" means a depositor in case of a deposit, a beneficiary in case of a trust, a creditor, claimant, or payee in case of other property, or any person having a legal or equitable interest in property subject to this Act, or his legal representative.

(g) "Person" means any individual, business association, financial organization, government or political subdivision or agency, public authority, estate, trust, or any other legal or commercial entity.

(h) "Utility" means any person who owns or operates, for public use, any plant, equipment, property, franchise, or license for the transmission of communications or the production, storage, transmission, sale, delivery, or furnishing of electricity, water, steam, oil or gas.

(i) (Blank).

(j) "Insurance company" means any person transacting the kinds of business enumerated in Section 4 of the Illinois Insurance Code other than life insurance.

(k) "Economic loss", as used in Sections 2a and 9 of this Act includes, but is not limited to, delivery charges, mark-downs and write-offs, carrying costs, restocking charges, lay-aways, special orders, issuance of credit memos, and the costs of special services or goods provided that reduce the property value or that result in lost sales opportunity.

(l) "Reportable property" means property, tangible or intangible, presumed abandoned under this Act that must be appropriately and timely reported and remitted to the Office of the State Treasurer under this Act. Interest, dividends, stock splits, warrants, or other rights that become reportable property under this Act include the underlying security or commodity giving rise to the interest, dividend, split, warrant, or other right to which the owner would be entitled.

(m) "Firearm" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-167, eff. 7-23-97; 91-16, eff. 7-1-99; 91-748, eff. 6-2-00.)

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.