SB2777sam001 99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

Sen. Kwame Raoul

Filed: 3/10/2016

09900SB2777sam001 LRB099 20630 RLC 46004 a

AMENDMENT TO SENATE BILL 2777

AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend Senate Bill 2777 by replacing everything after the enacting clause with the following:

"Section 5. The Sex Offender Management Board Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4026/17)

Sec. 17. Sentencing of sex offenders; treatment based upon evaluation required.

(a) Each felony sex offender sentenced by the court for a sex offense shall be required as a part of any sentence to probation, conditional release, or periodic imprisonment to undergo treatment based upon the recommendations of the evaluation made pursuant to Section 16 or based upon any subsequent recommendations by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts or the county probation department, whichever is appropriate. Beginning on January 1, 2014, the treatment shall be with a sex offender treatment provider or associate sex offender provider as defined in Section 10 of this Act and at the offender's own expense based upon the offender's ability to pay for such treatment.

(b) Beginning on January 1, 2004, each sex offender placed on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release by the Prisoner Review Board shall be required as a condition of parole or aftercare release to undergo treatment based upon any evaluation or subsequent reevaluation regarding such offender during the offender's incarceration or any period of parole or aftercare release. Beginning on January 1, 2014, the treatment shall be by a sex offender treatment provider or associate sex offender provider as defined in Section 10 of this Act and at the offender's expense based upon the offender's ability to pay for such treatment.

(Source: P.A. 97-1098, eff. 1-1-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 10. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 5-710, 5-740, and 5-745 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/5-710)

Sec. 5-710. Kinds of sentencing orders.

(1) The following kinds of sentencing orders may be made in respect of wards of the court:

(a) Except as provided in Sections 5-805, 5-810, 5-815, a minor who is found guilty under Section 5-620 may be:

(i) put on probation or conditional discharge and released to his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian, provided, however, that any such minor who is not committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under this subsection and who is found to be a delinquent for an offense which is first degree murder, a Class X felony, or a forcible felony shall be placed on probation;

(ii) placed in accordance with Section 5-740, with or without also being put on probation or conditional discharge;

(iii) required to undergo a substance abuse assessment conducted by a licensed provider and participate in the indicated clinical level of care;

(iv) on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and before January 1, 2017, placed in the guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, but only if the delinquent minor is under 16 years of age or, pursuant to Article II of this Act, a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. On and after January 1, 2017, placed in the guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, but only if the delinquent minor is under 15 years of age or, pursuant to Article II of this Act, a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency;

(v) placed in detention for a period not to exceed 30 days, either as the exclusive order of disposition or, where appropriate, in conjunction with any other order of disposition issued under this paragraph, provided that any such detention shall be in a juvenile detention home and the minor so detained shall be 10 years of age or older. However, the 30-day limitation may be extended by further order of the court for a minor under age 15 committed to the Department of Children and Family Services if the court finds that the minor is a danger to himself or others. The minor shall be given credit on the sentencing order of detention for time spent in detention under Sections 5-501, 5-601, 5-710, or 5-720 of this Article as a result of the offense for which the sentencing order was imposed. The court may grant credit on a sentencing order of detention entered under a violation of probation or violation of conditional discharge under Section 5-720 of this Article for time spent in detention before the filing of the petition alleging the violation. A minor shall not be deprived of credit for time spent in detention before the filing of a violation of probation or conditional discharge alleging the same or related act or acts. The limitation that the minor shall only be placed in a juvenile detention home does not apply as follows:

Persons 18 years of age and older who have a petition of delinquency filed against them may be confined in an adult detention facility. In making a determination whether to confine a person 18 years of age or older who has a petition of delinquency filed against the person, these factors, among other matters, shall be considered:

(A) the age of the person;

(B) any previous delinquent or criminal history of the person;

(C) any previous abuse or neglect history of the person;

(D) any mental health history of the person; and

(E) any educational history of the person;

(vi) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Minors Act;

(vii) subject to having his or her driver's license or driving privileges suspended for such time as determined by the court but only until he or she attains 18 years of age;

(viii) put on probation or conditional discharge and placed in detention under Section 3-6039 of the Counties Code for a period not to exceed the period of incarceration permitted by law for adults found guilty of the same offense or offenses for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent, and in any event no longer than upon attainment of age 21; this subdivision (viii) notwithstanding any contrary provision of the law;

(ix) ordered to undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from his or her body; or

(x) placed in electronic home detention under Part 7A of this Article.

(b) A minor found to be guilty may be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-750 if the minor is at least 13 years and under 20 years of age, provided that the commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be made only if the minor was found guilty of a felony offense or first degree murder a term of imprisonment in the penitentiary system of the Department of Corrections is permitted by law for adults found guilty of the offense for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent. The court shall include in the sentencing order any pre-custody credits the minor is entitled to under Section 5-4.5-100 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The time during which a minor is in custody before being released upon the request of a parent, guardian or legal custodian shall also be considered as time spent in custody.

(c) When a minor is found to be guilty for an offense which is a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and made a ward of the court, the court may enter a disposition order requiring the minor to undergo assessment, counseling or treatment in a substance abuse program approved by the Department of Human Services.

(2) Any sentencing order other than commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice may provide for protective supervision under Section 5-725 and may include an order of protection under Section 5-730.

(3) Unless the sentencing order expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 5-750.

(4) In addition to any other sentence, the court may order any minor found to be delinquent to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentencing hearing" referred to in that Section shall be the sentencing hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may be ordered by the court to pay some or all of the restitution on the minor's behalf, pursuant to the Parental Responsibility Law. The State's Attorney is authorized to act on behalf of any victim in seeking restitution in proceedings under this Section, up to the maximum amount allowed in Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(5) Any sentencing order where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 5-740 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of the minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. The payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the sentencing order requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, in instances in which educational services are to be provided to a minor in a residential facility where the minor has been placed by the court, costs incurred in the provision of those educational services must be allocated based on the requirements of the School Code.

(7) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for a period of time in excess of that period for which an adult could be committed for the same act. The court shall include in the sentencing order a limitation on the period of confinement not to exceed the maximum period of imprisonment the court could impose under Article V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7.5) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice or placed in detention when the act for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent would not be illegal if committed by an adult.

(8) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be ordered to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage that was caused by the violation or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(8.5) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be ordered to undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(9) In addition to any other sentencing order, the court shall order any minor found to be guilty for an act which would constitute, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or criminal sexual abuse if committed by an adult to undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agency of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the minor's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of the test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the sentencing order was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the minor of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or the legal guardian, of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at the Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed. The court shall order that the cost of any test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the minor.

(10) When a court finds a minor to be guilty the court shall, before entering a sentencing order under this Section, make a finding whether the offense committed either: (a) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the minor's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, or (b) involved a violation of subsection (a) of Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a violation of any statute that involved the wrongful use of a firearm. If the court determines the question in the affirmative, and the court does not commit the minor to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the court shall order the minor to perform community service for not less than 30 hours nor more than 120 hours, provided that community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service shall be performed in the minor's neighborhood. This order shall be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section except for an order to place the minor in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(11) If the court determines that the offense was committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in subsection (10), and that the offense involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit, the court shall notify the Secretary of State of that determination and of the period for which the minor shall be denied driving privileges. If, at the time of the determination, the minor does not hold a driver's license or permit, the court shall provide that the minor shall not be issued a driver's license or permit until his or her 18th birthday. If the minor holds a driver's license or permit at the time of the determination, the court shall provide that the minor's driver's license or permit shall be revoked until his or her 21st birthday, or until a later date or occurrence determined by the court. If the minor holds a driver's license at the time of the determination, the court may direct the Secretary of State to issue the minor a judicial driving permit, also known as a JDP. The JDP shall be subject to the same terms as a JDP issued under Section 6-206.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except that the court may direct that the JDP be effective immediately.

(12) If a minor is found to be guilty of a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act, the court may, in its discretion, and upon recommendation by the State's Attorney, order that minor and his or her parents or legal guardian to attend a smoker's education or youth diversion program as defined in that Act if that program is available in the jurisdiction where the offender resides. Attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program shall be time-credited against any community service time imposed for any first violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act. In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose for a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act, the court, upon request by the State's Attorney, may in its discretion require the offender to remit a fee for his or her attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program.

For purposes of this Section, "smoker's education program" or "youth diversion program" includes, but is not limited to, a seminar designed to educate a person on the physical and psychological effects of smoking tobacco products and the health consequences of smoking tobacco products that can be conducted with a locality's youth diversion program.

In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose under this subsection (12):

(a) If a minor violates subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act, the court may impose a sentence of 15 hours of community service or a fine of $25 for a first violation.

(b) A second violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a fine of $50 and 25 hours of community service.

(c) A third or subsequent violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a $100 fine and 30 hours of community service.

(d) Any second or subsequent violation not within the 12-month time period after the first violation is punishable as provided for a first violation.

(Source: P.A. 98-536, eff. 8-23-13; 98-803, eff. 1-1-15; 99-268, eff. 1-1-16.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-740)

Sec. 5-740. Placement; legal custody or guardianship.

(1) If the court finds that the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor adjudged a ward of the court are unfit or are unable, for some reason other than financial circumstances alone, to care for, protect, train or discipline the minor or are unwilling to do so, and that appropriate services aimed at family preservation and family reunification have been unsuccessful in rectifying the conditions which have led to a finding of unfitness or inability to care for, protect, train or discipline the minor, and that it is in the best interest of the minor to take him or her from the custody of his or her parents, guardian or custodian, the court may:

(a) place him or her in the custody of a suitable relative or other person;

(b) place him or her under the guardianship of a probation officer;

(c) commit him or her to an agency for care or placement, except an institution under the authority of the Department of Juvenile Justice Corrections or of the Department of Children and Family Services;

(d) commit him or her to some licensed training school or industrial school; or

(e) commit him or her to any appropriate institution having among its purposes the care of delinquent children, including a child protective facility maintained by a child protection district serving the county from which commitment is made, but not including any institution under the authority of the Department of Juvenile Justice Corrections or of the Department of Children and Family Services.

(2) When making such placement, the court, wherever possible, shall select a person holding the same religious belief as that of the minor or a private agency controlled by persons of like religious faith of the minor and shall require the Department of Children and Family Services to otherwise comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act in placing the child. In addition, whenever alternative plans for placement are available, the court shall ascertain and consider, to the extent appropriate in the particular case, the views and preferences of the minor.

(3) When a minor is placed with a suitable relative or other person, the court shall appoint him or her the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor. When a minor is committed to any agency, the court shall appoint the proper officer or representative of the proper officer as legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor. Legal custodians and guardians of the person of the minor have the respective rights and duties set forth in subsection (9) of Section 5-105 except as otherwise provided by order of court; but no guardian of the person may consent to adoption of the minor. An agency whose representative is appointed guardian of the person or legal custodian of the minor may place him or her in any child care facility, but the facility must be licensed under the Child Care Act of 1969 or have been approved by the Department of Children and Family Services as meeting the standards established for such licensing. Like authority and restrictions shall be conferred by the court upon any probation officer who has been appointed guardian of the person of a minor.

(4) No placement by any probation officer or agency whose representative is appointed guardian of the person or legal custodian of a minor may be made in any out of State child care facility unless it complies with the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children.

(5) The clerk of the court shall issue to the guardian or legal custodian of the person a certified copy of the order of court, as proof of his or her authority. No other process is necessary as authority for the keeping of the minor.

(6) Legal custody or guardianship granted under this Section continues until the court otherwise directs, but not after the minor reaches the age of 21 years except as set forth in Section 5-750.

(Source: P.A. 90-590, eff. 1-1-99.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-745)

Sec. 5-745. Court review.

(1) The court may require any legal custodian or guardian of the person appointed under this Act, including the Department of Juvenile Justice for youth committed under Section 5-750 of this Act, to report periodically to the court or may cite him or her into court and require him or her, or his or her agency, to make a full and accurate report of his or her or its doings in behalf of the minor, including efforts to secure post-release placement of the youth after release from the Department's facilities. The legal custodian or guardian, within 10 days after the citation, shall make the report, either in writing verified by affidavit or orally under oath in open court, or otherwise as the court directs. Upon the hearing of the report the court may remove the legal custodian or guardian and appoint another in his or her stead or restore the minor to the custody of his or her parents or former guardian or legal custodian.

(2) A guardian or legal custodian appointed by the court under Section 5-740 of this Act shall file updated case plans with the court every 6 months. Every agency which has guardianship of a child shall file a supplemental petition for court review, or review by an administrative body appointed or approved by the court and further order within 18 months of the sentencing order and each 18 months thereafter. The petition shall state facts relative to the child's present condition of physical, mental and emotional health as well as facts relative to his or her present custodial or foster care. The petition shall be set for hearing and the clerk shall mail 10 days notice of the hearing by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the person or agency having the physical custody of the child, the minor and other interested parties unless a written waiver of notice is filed with the petition.

If the minor is in the custody of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services, pursuant to an order entered under this Article, the court shall conduct permanency hearings as set out in subsections (1), (2), and (3) of Section 2-28 of Article II of this Act.

Rights of wards of the court under this Act are enforceable against any public agency by complaints for relief by mandamus filed in any proceedings brought under this Act.

(3) The minor or any person interested in the minor may apply to the court for a change in custody of the minor and the appointment of a new custodian or guardian of the person or for the restoration of the minor to the custody of his or her parents or former guardian or custodian. In the event that the minor has attained 18 years of age and the guardian or custodian petitions the court for an order terminating his or her guardianship or custody, guardianship or legal custody shall terminate automatically 30 days after the receipt of the petition unless the court orders otherwise. No legal custodian or guardian of the person may be removed without his or her consent until given notice and an opportunity to be heard by the court.

(Source: P.A. 96-178, eff. 1-1-10; 97-518, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 15. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 19-4, 21-1, 21-1.01, 21-1.3, 26-1, and 31-4 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/19-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-4)

Sec. 19-4. Criminal trespass to a residence.

(a) (1) A person commits criminal trespass to a residence when, without authority, he or she knowingly enters or remains within any residence, including a house trailer that is the dwelling place of another.

(2) A person commits criminal trespass to a residence when, without authority, he or she knowingly enters the residence of another and knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present or he or she knowingly enters the residence of another and remains in the residence after he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present.

(a-5) For purposes of this Section, in the case of a multi-unit residential building or complex, "residence" shall only include the portion of the building or complex which is the actual dwelling place of any person and shall not include such places as common recreational areas or lobbies.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Criminal trespass to a residence under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Criminal trespass to a residence under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and is a Class A misdemeanor when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-1)

Sec. 21-1. Criminal damage to property.

(a) A person commits criminal damage to property when he or she:

(1) knowingly damages any property of another;

(2) recklessly by means of fire or explosive damages property of another;

(3) knowingly starts a fire on the land of another;

(4) knowingly injures a domestic animal of another without his or her consent;

(5) knowingly deposits on the land or in the building of another any stink bomb or any offensive smelling compound and thereby intends to interfere with the use by another of the land or building;

(6) knowingly damages any property, other than as described in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 20-1, with intent to defraud an insurer;

(7) knowingly shoots a firearm at any portion of a railroad train;

(8) knowingly, without proper authorization, cuts, injures, damages, defaces, destroys, or tampers with any fire hydrant or any public or private fire fighting equipment, or any apparatus appertaining to fire fighting equipment; or

(9) intentionally, without proper authorization, opens any fire hydrant.

(b) When the charge of criminal damage to property exceeding a specified value is brought, the extent of the damage is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of paragraph (1), (3), or (5) of subsection (a) of this Section that the owner of the property or land damaged consented to the damage.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a) shall have the following penalties:

(A) A violation of paragraph (8) or (9) is a Class B misdemeanor.

(B) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5), or (6) is a Class A misdemeanor when the damage to property does not exceed $300.

(C) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5), or (6) is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense, the damage to property does not exceed $300 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(D) A violation of paragraph (4) is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and the damage to property does not exceed $10,000. A violation of paragraph (4) is a Class A misdemeanor when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and the damage to property does not exceed $10,000.

(E) A violation of paragraph (7) is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and is a Class A misdemeanor when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense.

(F) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5) or (6) is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and the damage to property exceeds $300 but does not exceed $10,000. A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5) or (6) is a Class A misdemeanor when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and the damage to property exceeds $300 but does not exceed $10,000.

(G) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 3 felony when the damage to property exceeds $300 but does not exceed $10,000 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(H) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 3 felony when the damage to property exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000.

(I) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 2 felony when the damage to property exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(J) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 2 felony when the damage to property exceeds $100,000. A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 1 felony when the damage to property exceeds $100,000 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(2) When the damage to property exceeds $10,000, the court shall impose upon the offender a fine equal to the value of the damages to the property.

(3) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of criminal damage to property to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

The community service requirement does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(4) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed for a violation of this Section, if a person is convicted of or placed on supervision for knowingly damaging or destroying crops of another, including crops intended for personal, commercial, research, or developmental purposes, the person is liable in a civil action to the owner of any crops damaged or destroyed for money damages up to twice the market value of the crops damaged or destroyed.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (d), "farm equipment" means machinery or other equipment used in farming.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-315, eff. 1-1-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1.01) (was 720 ILCS 5/21-4)

Sec. 21-1.01. Criminal Damage to Government Supported Property.

(a) A person commits criminal damage to government supported property when he or she knowingly:

(1) damages any government supported property without the consent of the State;

(2) by means of fire or explosive damages government supported property;

(3) starts a fire on government supported property without the consent of the State; or

(4) deposits on government supported land or in a government supported building, without the consent of the State, any stink bomb or any offensive smelling compound and thereby intends to interfere with the use by another of the land or building.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "government supported" means any property supported in whole or in part with State funds, funds of a unit of local government or school district, or federal funds administered or granted through State agencies.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense is a Class 4 felony when the damage to property is $500 or less; a Class 3 felony when the damage to property exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000; a Class 2 felony when the damage to property exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000; and a Class 1 felony when the damage to property exceeds $100,000. A violation of this Section when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense is a Class A misdemeanor when the damage to property is $500 or less; a Class 4 felony when the damage to property exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000; a Class 3 felony when the damage to property exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000; and a Class 2 felony when the damage to property exceeds $100,000. When the damage to property exceeds $10,000, the court shall impose upon the offender a fine equal to the value of the damages to the property.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1.3)

Sec. 21-1.3. Criminal defacement of property.

(a) A person commits criminal defacement of property when the person knowingly damages the property of another by defacing, deforming, or otherwise damaging the property by the use of paint or any other similar substance, or by the use of a writing instrument, etching tool, or any other similar device. It is an affirmative defense to a violation of this Section that the owner of the property damaged consented to such damage.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Criminal defacement of property is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense when the aggregate value of the damage to the property does not exceed $300. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense, the aggregate value of the damage to property does not exceed $300 and the property damaged is a school building or place of worship or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces or National Guard, or veterans. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense for a second or subsequent conviction or when the aggregate value of the damage to the property exceeds $300. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 3 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense, the aggregate value of the damage to property exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building or place of worship or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces or National Guard, or veterans. Criminal defacement of property is a Class A misdemeanor when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense for a second or subsequent conviction or when the aggregate value of the damage to the property exceeds $300. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 4 felony when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense, the aggregate value of the damage to property exceeds $300, and the property damaged is a school building or place of worship or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces or National Guard, or veterans.

(2) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed for a violation of this Section, a person convicted of criminal defacement of property shall:

(A) pay the actual costs incurred by the property owner or the unit of government to abate, remediate, repair, or remove the effect of the damage to the property. To the extent permitted by law, reimbursement for the costs of abatement, remediation, repair, or removal shall be payable to the person who incurred the costs; and

(B) if convicted of criminal defacement of property that is chargeable as a Class 3 or Class 4 felony, pay a mandatory minimum fine of $500.

(3) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of criminal defacement of property to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage to property that was caused by the offense, or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the offense occurred. When the property damaged is a school building, the community service may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (b), aggregate value shall be determined by adding the value of the damage to one or more properties if the offenses were committed as part of a single course of conduct.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-315, eff. 1-1-14; 98-466, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-1)

Sec. 26-1. Disorderly conduct.

(a) A person commits disorderly conduct when he or she knowingly:

(1) Does any act in such unreasonable manner as to alarm or disturb another and to provoke a breach of the peace;

(2) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the fire department of any city, town, village or fire protection district a false alarm of fire, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the fire exists;

(3) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to another a false alarm to the effect that a bomb or other explosive of any nature or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in a place where its explosion or release would endanger human life, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the bomb, explosive or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in the place;

(3.5) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a threat of destruction of a school building or school property, or a threat of violence, death, or bodily harm directed against persons at a school, school function, or school event, whether or not school is in session;

(4) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to any peace officer, public officer or public employee a report to the effect that an offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed;

(5) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to any public safety agency without the reasonable grounds necessary to believe that transmitting the report is necessary for the safety and welfare of the public; or

(6) Calls the number "911" for the purpose of making or transmitting a false alarm or complaint and reporting information when, at the time the call or transmission is made, the person knows there is no reasonable ground for making the call or transmission and further knows that the call or transmission could result in the emergency response of any public safety agency;

(7) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 4 of the "Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act";

(8) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act;

(9) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the police department or fire department of any municipality or fire protection district, or any privately owned and operated ambulance service, a false request for an ambulance, emergency medical technician-ambulance or emergency medical technician-paramedic knowing at the time there is no reasonable ground for believing that the assistance is required;

(10) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report under Article II of Public Act 83-1432 "An Act in relation to victims of violence and abuse", approved September 16, 1984, as amended;

(11) Enters upon the property of another and for a lewd or unlawful purpose deliberately looks into a dwelling on the property through any window or other opening in it; or

(12) While acting as a collection agency as defined in the Collection Agency Act or as an employee of the collection agency, and while attempting to collect an alleged debt, makes a telephone call to the alleged debtor which is designed to harass, annoy or intimidate the alleged debtor.

(b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a)(1) of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(5) or (a)(11) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(8) or (a)(10) of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(2), (a)(3.5), (a)(4), (a)(6), (a)(7), or (a)(9) of this Section is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and is a Class A misdemeanor when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense. A violation of subsection (a)(3) of this Section is a Class 3 felony, for which a fine of not less than $3,000 and no more than $10,000 shall be assessed in addition to any other penalty imposed.

A violation of subsection (a)(12) of this Section is a Business Offense and shall be punished by a fine not to exceed $3,000. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(7) or (a)(5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and is a Class A misdemeanor when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense. A third or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(11) of this Section is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and is a Class A misdemeanor when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense.

(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

This subsection does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(d) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) involving a false alarm of a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been placed in a school to reimburse the unit of government that employs the emergency response officer or officers that were dispatched to the school for the cost of the search for a bomb or explosive device.

(e) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (6) of subsection (a) to reimburse the public agency for the reasonable costs of the emergency response by the public agency up to $10,000. If the court determines that the person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is indigent, the provisions of this subsection (e) do not apply.

(f) For the purposes of this Section, "emergency response" means any condition that results in, or could result in, the response of a public official in an authorized emergency vehicle, any condition that jeopardizes or could jeopardize public safety and results in, or could result in, the evacuation of any area, building, structure, vehicle, or of any other place that any person may enter, or any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee, or an ambulance.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-160, eff. 1-1-16; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-16-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-4)

Sec. 31-4. Obstructing justice.

(a) A person obstructs justice when, with intent to prevent the apprehension or obstruct the prosecution or defense of any person, he or she knowingly commits any of the following acts:

(1) Destroys, alters, conceals or disguises physical evidence, plants false evidence, furnishes false information; or

(2) Induces a witness having knowledge material to the subject at issue to leave the State or conceal himself or herself; or

(3) Possessing knowledge material to the subject at issue, he or she leaves the State or conceals himself; or

(4) If a parent, legal guardian, or caretaker of a child under 13 years of age reports materially false information to a law enforcement agency, medical examiner, coroner, State's Attorney, or other governmental agency during an investigation of the disappearance or death of a child under circumstances described in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 10-10 of this Code.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Obstructing justice is a Class 4 felony when the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and is a Class A misdemeanor when the offender was under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (b).

(2) Obstructing justice in furtherance of streetgang related or gang-related activity, as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act, is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1079, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 20. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Section 509 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/509) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1509)

Sec. 509. Whenever any court in this State grants probation to any person that the court has reason to believe is or has been an addict or unlawful possessor of controlled substances, the court shall require, as a condition of probation, that the probationer submit to periodic tests by the Department of Corrections to determine by means of appropriate chemical detection tests whether the probationer is using controlled substances. The court may require as a condition of probation that the probationer enter an approved treatment program, if the court determines that the probationer is addicted to a controlled substance. Whenever the Prisoner Review Parole and Pardon Board grants parole or the Department of Juvenile Justice grants aftercare release to a person believed to have whom the Board has reason to believe has been an unlawful possessor or addict of controlled substances, the Board or Department shall require as a condition of parole or aftercare release that the parolee or aftercare releasee submit to appropriate periodic chemical tests by the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice to determine whether the parolee or aftercare releasee is using controlled substances.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 25. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Sections 4.5 and 5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Procedures to implement the rights of crime victims. To afford crime victims their rights, law enforcement, prosecutors, judges and corrections will provide information, as appropriate of the following procedures:

(a) At the request of the crime victim, law enforcement authorities investigating the case shall provide notice of the status of the investigation, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation, until such time as the alleged assailant is apprehended or the investigation is closed.

(a-5) When law enforcement authorities re-open a closed case to resume investigating, they shall provide notice of the re-opening of the case, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation.

(b) The office of the State's Attorney:

(1) shall provide notice of the filing of an information, the return of an indictment, or the filing of a petition to adjudicate a minor as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(2) shall provide timely notice of the date, time, and place of court proceedings; of any change in the date, time, and place of court proceedings; and of any cancellation of court proceedings. Notice shall be provided in sufficient time, wherever possible, for the victim to make arrangements to attend or to prevent an unnecessary appearance at court proceedings;

(3) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information of social services and financial assistance available for victims of crime, including information of how to apply for these services and assistance;

(3.5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information about available victim services, including referrals to programs, counselors, and agencies that assist a victim to deal with trauma, loss, and grief;

(4) shall assist in having any stolen or other personal property held by law enforcement authorities for evidentiary or other purposes returned as expeditiously as possible, pursuant to the procedures set out in Section 115-9 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide appropriate employer intercession services to ensure that employers of victims will cooperate with the criminal justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;

(6) shall provide, whenever possible, a secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not require victims to be in close proximity to defendants or juveniles accused of a violent crime, and their families and friends;

(7) shall provide notice to the crime victim of the right to have a translator present at all court proceedings and, in compliance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the right to communications access through a sign language interpreter or by other means;

(8) (blank);

(8.5) shall inform the victim of the right to be present at all court proceedings, unless the victim is to testify and the court determines that the victim's testimony would be materially affected if the victim hears other testimony at trial;

(9) shall inform the victim of the right to have present at all court proceedings, subject to the rules of evidence and confidentiality, an advocate and other support person of the victim's choice;

(9.3) shall inform the victim of the right to retain an attorney, at the victim's own expense, who, upon written notice filed with the clerk of the court and State's Attorney, is to receive copies of all notices, motions and court orders filed thereafter in the case, in the same manner as if the victim were a named party in the case;

(9.5) shall inform the victim of (A) the victim's right under Section 6 of this Act to make a victim impact statement at the sentencing hearing; (B) the right of the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent and other immediate family and household members under Section 6 of this Act to present an impact statement at sentencing; and (C) if a presentence report is to be prepared, the right of the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent and other immediate family and household members to submit information to the preparer of the presentence report about the effect the offense has had on the victim and the person;

(10) at the sentencing shall make a good faith attempt to explain the minimum amount of time during which the defendant may actually be physically imprisoned. The Office of the State's Attorney shall further notify the crime victim of the right to request from the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice information concerning the release of the defendant under subparagraph (d)(1) of this Section;

(11) shall request restitution at sentencing and as part of a plea agreement if the victim requests restitution;

(12) shall, upon the court entering a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, inform the victim of the notification services available from the Department of Human Services, including the statewide telephone number, under subparagraph (d)(2) of this Section;

(13) shall provide notice within a reasonable time after receipt of notice from the custodian, of the release of the defendant on bail or personal recognizance or the release from detention of a minor who has been detained;

(14) shall explain in nontechnical language the details of any plea or verdict of a defendant, or any adjudication of a juvenile as a delinquent;

(15) shall make all reasonable efforts to consult with the crime victim before the Office of the State's Attorney makes an offer of a plea bargain to the defendant or enters into negotiations with the defendant concerning a possible plea agreement, and shall consider the written victim impact statement, if prepared prior to entering into a plea agreement. The right to consult with the prosecutor does not include the right to veto a plea agreement or to insist the case go to trial. If the State's Attorney has not consulted with the victim prior to making an offer or entering into plea negotiations with the defendant, the Office of the State's Attorney shall notify the victim of the offer or the negotiations within 2 business days and confer with the victim;

(16) shall provide notice of the ultimate disposition of the cases arising from an indictment or an information, or a petition to have a juvenile adjudicated as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(17) shall provide notice of any appeal taken by the defendant and information on how to contact the appropriate agency handling the appeal, and how to request notice of any hearing, oral argument, or decision of an appellate court;

(18) shall provide timely notice of any request for post-conviction review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time and place of any hearing concerning the petition. Whenever possible, notice of the hearing shall be given within 48 hours of the court's scheduling of the hearing; and

(19) shall forward a copy of any statement presented under Section 6 to the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice to be considered by the Board in making a its determination under Section 3-2.5-85 or subsection (b) of Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(c) The court shall ensure that the rights of the victim are afforded.

(c-5) The following procedures shall be followed to afford victims the rights guaranteed by Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution:

(1) Written notice. A victim may complete a written notice of intent to assert rights on a form prepared by the Office of the Attorney General and provided to the victim by the State's Attorney. The victim may at any time provide a revised written notice to the State's Attorney. The State's Attorney shall file the written notice with the court. At the beginning of any court proceeding in which the right of a victim may be at issue, the court and prosecutor shall review the written notice to determine whether the victim has asserted the right that may be at issue.

(2) Victim's retained attorney. A victim's attorney shall file an entry of appearance limited to assertion of the victim's rights. Upon the filing of the entry of appearance and service on the State's Attorney and the defendant, the attorney is to receive copies of all notices, motions and court orders filed thereafter in the case.

(3) Standing. The victim has standing to assert the rights enumerated in subsection (a) of Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and the statutory rights under Section 4 of this Act in any court exercising jurisdiction over the criminal case. The prosecuting attorney, a victim, or the victim's retained attorney may assert the victim's rights. The defendant in the criminal case has no standing to assert a right of the victim in any court proceeding, including on appeal.

(4) Assertion of and enforcement of rights.

(A) The prosecuting attorney shall assert a victim's right or request enforcement of a right by filing a motion or by orally asserting the right or requesting enforcement in open court in the criminal case outside the presence of the jury. The prosecuting attorney shall consult with the victim and the victim's attorney regarding the assertion or enforcement of a right. If the prosecuting attorney decides not to assert or enforce a victim's right, the prosecuting attorney shall notify the victim or the victim's attorney in sufficient time to allow the victim or the victim's attorney to assert the right or to seek enforcement of a right.

(B) If the prosecuting attorney elects not to assert a victim's right or to seek enforcement of a right, the victim or the victim's attorney may assert the victim's right or request enforcement of a right by filing a motion or by orally asserting the right or requesting enforcement in open court in the criminal case outside the presence of the jury.

(C) If the prosecuting attorney asserts a victim's right or seeks enforcement of a right, and the court denies the assertion of the right or denies the request for enforcement of a right, the victim or victim's attorney may file a motion to assert the victim's right or to request enforcement of the right within 10 days of the court's ruling. The motion need not demonstrate the grounds for a motion for reconsideration. The court shall rule on the merits of the motion.

(D) The court shall take up and decide any motion or request asserting or seeking enforcement of a victim's right without delay, unless a specific time period is specified by law or court rule. The reasons for any decision denying the motion or request shall be clearly stated on the record.

(5) Violation of rights and remedies.

(A) If the court determines that a victim's right has been violated, the court shall determine the appropriate remedy for the violation of the victim's right by hearing from the victim and the parties, considering all factors relevant to the issue, and then awarding appropriate relief to the victim.

(B) The appropriate remedy shall include only actions necessary to provide the victim the right to which the victim was entitled and may include reopening previously held proceedings; however, in no event shall the court vacate a conviction. Any remedy shall be tailored to provide the victim an appropriate remedy without violating any constitutional right of the defendant. In no event shall the appropriate remedy be a new trial, damages, or costs.

(6) Right to be heard. Whenever a victim has the right to be heard, the court shall allow the victim to exercise the right in any reasonable manner the victim chooses.

(7) Right to attend trial. A party must file a written motion to exclude a victim from trial at least 60 days prior to the date set for trial. The motion must state with specificity the reason exclusion is necessary to protect a constitutional right of the party, and must contain an offer of proof. The court shall rule on the motion within 30 days. If the motion is granted, the court shall set forth on the record the facts that support its finding that the victim's testimony will be materially affected if the victim hears other testimony at trial.

(8) Right to have advocate present. A party who intends to call an advocate as a witness must seek permission of the court before the subpoena is issued. The party must file a written motion and offer of proof regarding the anticipated testimony of the advocate in sufficient time to allow the court to rule and the victim to seek appellate review. The court shall rule on the motion without delay.

(9) Right to notice and hearing before disclosure of confidential or privileged information or records. A defendant who seeks to subpoena records of or concerning the victim that are confidential or privileged by law must seek permission of the court before the subpoena is issued. The defendant must file a written motion and an offer of proof regarding the relevance, admissibility and materiality of the records. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that: (A) the records are not protected by an absolute privilege and (B) the records contain relevant, admissible, and material evidence that is not available through other witnesses or evidence, the court shall issue a subpoena requiring a sealed copy of the records be delivered to the court to be reviewed in camera. If, after conducting an in camera review of the records, the court determines that due process requires disclosure of any portion of the records, the court shall provide copies of what it intends to disclose to the prosecuting attorney and the victim. The prosecuting attorney and the victim shall have 30 days to seek appellate review before the records are disclosed to the defendant. The disclosure of copies of any portion of the records to the prosecuting attorney does not make the records subject to discovery.

(10) Right to notice of court proceedings. If the victim is not present at a court proceeding in which a right of the victim is at issue, the court shall ask the prosecuting attorney whether the victim was notified of the time, place, and purpose of the court proceeding and that the victim had a right to be heard at the court proceeding. If the court determines that timely notice was not given or that the victim was not adequately informed of the nature of the court proceeding, the court shall not rule on any substantive issues, accept a plea, or impose a sentence and shall continue the hearing for the time necessary to notify the victim of the time, place and nature of the court proceeding. The time between court proceedings shall not be attributable to the State under Section 103-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(11) Right to timely disposition of the case. A victim has the right to timely disposition of the case so as to minimize the stress, cost, and inconvenience resulting from the victim's involvement in the case. Before ruling on a motion to continue trial or other court proceeding, the court shall inquire into the circumstances for the request for the delay and, if the victim has provided written notice of the assertion of the right to a timely disposition, and whether the victim objects to the delay. If the victim objects, the prosecutor shall inform the court of the victim's objections. If the prosecutor has not conferred with the victim about the continuance, the prosecutor shall inform the court of the attempts to confer. If the court finds the attempts of the prosecutor to confer with the victim were inadequate to protect the victim's right to be heard, the court shall give the prosecutor at least 3 but not more than 5 business days to confer with the victim. In ruling on a motion to continue, the court shall consider the reasons for the requested continuance, the number and length of continuances that have been granted, the victim's objections and procedures to avoid further delays. If a continuance is granted over the victim's objection, the court shall specify on the record the reasons for the continuance and the procedures that have been or will be taken to avoid further delays.

(12) Right to Restitution.

(A) If the victim has asserted the right to restitution and the amount of restitution is known at the time of sentencing, the court shall enter the judgment of restitution at the time of sentencing.

(B) If the victim has asserted the right to restitution and the amount of restitution is not known at the time of sentencing, the prosecutor shall, within 5 days after sentencing, notify the victim what information and documentation related to restitution is needed and that the information and documentation must be provided to the prosecutor within 45 days after sentencing. Failure to timely provide information and documentation related to restitution shall be deemed a waiver of the right to restitution. The prosecutor shall file and serve within 60 days after sentencing a proposed judgment for restitution and a notice that includes information concerning the identity of any victims or other persons seeking restitution, whether any victim or other person expressly declines restitution, the nature and amount of any damages together with any supporting documentation, a restitution amount recommendation, and the names of any co-defendants and their case numbers. Within 30 days after receipt of the proposed judgment for restitution, the defendant shall file any objection to the proposed judgment, a statement of grounds for the objection, and a financial statement. If the defendant does not file an objection, the court may enter the judgment for restitution without further proceedings. If the defendant files an objection and either party requests a hearing, the court shall schedule a hearing.

(13) Access to presentence reports.

(A) The victim may request a copy of the presentence report prepared under the Unified Code of Corrections from the State's Attorney. The State's Attorney shall redact the following information before providing a copy of the report:

(i) the defendant's mental history and condition;

(ii) any evaluation prepared under subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 5-3-2; and

(iii) the name, address, phone number, and other personal information about any other victim.

(B) The State's Attorney or the defendant may request the court redact other information in the report that may endanger the safety of any person.

(C) The State's Attorney may orally disclose to the victim any of the information that has been redacted if there is a reasonable likelihood that the information will be stated in court at the sentencing.

(D) The State's Attorney must advise the victim that the victim must maintain the confidentiality of the report and other information. Any dissemination of the report or information that was not stated at a court proceeding constitutes indirect criminal contempt of court.

(14) Appellate relief. If the trial court denies the relief requested, the victim, the victim's attorney or the prosecuting attorney may file an appeal within 30 days of the trial court's ruling. The trial or appellate court may stay the court proceedings if the court finds that a stay would not violate a constitutional right of the defendant. If the appellate court denies the relief sought, the reasons for the denial shall be clearly stated in a written opinion. In any appeal in a criminal case, the State may assert as error the court's denial of any crime victim's right in the proceeding to which the appeal relates.

(15) Limitation on appellate relief. In no case shall an appellate court provide a new trial to remedy the violation of a victim's right.

(d)(1) The Prisoner Review Board shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen, upon written request, of the prisoner's release on parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian, other than the Department of Juvenile Justice, of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a crime from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall provide to a victim or any other concerned citizen a recent photograph of any person convicted of a felony, upon his or her release from custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen when feasible at least 7 days prior to the prisoner's release on furlough of the times and dates of such furlough. Upon written request by the victim or any other concerned citizen, the State's Attorney shall notify the person once of the times and dates of release of a prisoner sentenced to periodic imprisonment. Notification shall be based on the most recent information as to victim's or other concerned citizen's residence or other location available to the notifying authority.

(2) When the defendant has been committed to the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 5-2-4 or any other provision of the Unified Code of Corrections, the victim may request to be notified by the releasing authority of the approval by the court of an on-grounds pass, a supervised off-grounds pass, an unsupervised off-grounds pass, or conditional release; the release on an off-grounds pass; the return from an off-grounds pass; transfer to another facility; conditional release; escape; death; or final discharge from State custody. The Department of Human Services shall establish and maintain a statewide telephone number to be used by victims to make notification requests under these provisions and shall publicize this telephone number on its website and to the State's Attorney of each county.

(3) In the event of an escape from State custody, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of the escape and the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim. The notification shall be based upon the most recent information as to the victim's residence or other location available to the Board. When no such information is available, the Board shall make all reasonable efforts to obtain the information and make the notification. When the escapee is apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board and the Board shall notify the victim.

(4) The victim of the crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced shall receive reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the parole or aftercare release hearing or target aftercare release date and may submit, in writing, on film, videotape or other electronic means or in the form of a recording prior to the parole hearing or target aftercare release date or in person at the parole hearing or aftercare release protest hearing or if a victim of a violent crime, by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section, information for consideration by the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice. The victim shall be notified within 7 days after the prisoner has been granted parole or aftercare release and shall be informed of the right to inspect the registry of parole or aftercare release decisions, established under subsection (g) of Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The provisions of this paragraph (4) are subject to the Open Parole Hearings Act.

(5) If a statement is presented under Section 6, the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice shall inform the victim of any order of discharge entered by the Board or Department pursuant to Section 3-2.5-85 or 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(6) At the written or oral request of the victim of the crime for which the prisoner was sentenced or the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted, the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice shall notify the victim and the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted of the death of the prisoner if the prisoner died while on parole or aftercare release or mandatory supervised release.

(7) When a defendant who has been committed to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Human Services is released or discharged and subsequently committed to the Department of Human Services as a sexually violent person and the victim had requested to be notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's discharge, conditional release, death, or escape from State custody, the releasing authority shall provide to the Department of Human Services such information that would allow the Department of Human Services to contact the victim.

(8) When a defendant has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act and has been sentenced to the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice shall notify the victim of the sex offense of the prisoner's eligibility for release on parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a sex offense from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The notification shall be made to the victim at least 30 days, whenever possible, before release of the sex offender.

(e) The officials named in this Section may satisfy some or all of their obligations to provide notices and other information through participation in a statewide victim and witness notification system established by the Attorney General under Section 8.5 of this Act.

(f) To permit a crime victim of a violent crime to provide information to the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice for consideration by the Board or Department at a parole hearing or before an aftercare release decision hearing of a person who committed the crime against the victim in accordance with clause (d)(4) of this Section or at a proceeding to determine the conditions of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence or at a hearing on revocation of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence, the Board shall establish a toll-free number that may be accessed by the victim of a violent crime to present that information to the Board.

(Source: P.A. 98-372, eff. 1-1-14; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-413, eff. 8-20-15.)

(725 ILCS 120/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1405)

Sec. 5. Rights of Witnesses.

(a) Witnesses as defined in subsection (b) of Section 3 of this Act shall have the following rights:

(1) to be notified by the Office of the State's Attorney of all court proceedings at which the witness' presence is required in a reasonable amount of time prior to the proceeding, and to be notified of the cancellation of any scheduled court proceeding in sufficient time to prevent an unnecessary appearance in court, where possible;

(2) to be provided with appropriate employer intercession services by the Office of the State's Attorney or the victim advocate personnel to ensure that employers of witnesses will cooperate with the criminal justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;

(3) to be provided, whenever possible, a secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not require witnesses to be in close proximity to defendants and their families and friends;

(4) to be provided with notice by the Office of the State's Attorney, where necessary, of the right to have a translator present whenever the witness' presence is required and, in compliance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, to be provided with notice of the right to communications access through a sign language interpreter or by other means.

(b) At the written request of the witness, the witness shall:

(1) receive notice from the office of the State's Attorney of any request for post-conviction review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time, and place of any hearing concerning the petition for post-conviction review; whenever possible, notice of the hearing on the petition shall be given in advance;

(2) receive notice by the releasing authority of the defendant's discharge from State custody if the defendant was committed to the Department of Human Services under Section 5-2-4 or any other provision of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(3) receive notice from the Prisoner Review Board of the prisoner's escape from State custody, after the Board has been notified of the escape by the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice; when the escapee is apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice shall immediately notify the Prisoner Review Board and the Board shall notify the witness;

(4) receive notice from the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice of the prisoner's release on parole, aftercare release, electronic detention, work release or mandatory supervised release and of the prisoner's final discharge from parole, aftercare release, electronic detention, work release, or mandatory supervised release.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 30. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(725 ILCS 207/15)

Sec. 15. Sexually violent person petition; contents; filing.

(a) A petition alleging that a person is a sexually violent person must be filed before the release or discharge of the person or within 30 days of placement onto parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for an offense enumerated in paragraph (e) of Section 5 of this Act. A petition may be filed by the following:

(1) The Attorney General on his or her own motion, after consulting with and advising the State's Attorney of the county in which the person was convicted of a sexually violent offense, adjudicated delinquent for a sexually violent offense or found not guilty of or not responsible for a sexually violent offense by reason of insanity, mental disease, or mental defect; or

(2) The State's Attorney of the county referenced in paragraph (1)(a)(1) of this Section, on his or her own motion; or

(3) The Attorney General and the State's Attorney of the county referenced in paragraph (1)(a)(1) of this Section may jointly file a petition on their own motion; or

(4) A petition may be filed at the request of the agency with jurisdiction over the person, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 10 of this Act, by:

(a) the Attorney General;

(b) the State's Attorney of the county referenced in paragraph (1)(a)(1) of this Section; or

(c) the Attorney General and the State's Attorney jointly.

(b) A petition filed under this Section shall allege that all of the following apply to the person alleged to be a sexually violent person:

(1) The person satisfies any of the following criteria:

(A) The person has been convicted of a sexually violent offense;

(B) The person has been found delinquent for a sexually violent offense; or

(C) The person has been found not guilty of a sexually violent offense by reason of insanity, mental disease, or mental defect.

(2) (Blank).

(3) (Blank).

(4) The person has a mental disorder.

(5) The person is dangerous to others because the person's mental disorder creates a substantial probability that he or she will engage in acts of sexual violence.

(b-5) The petition must be filed no more than 90 days before discharge or entry into mandatory supervised release from a Department of Corrections or aftercare release from the Department of Juvenile Justice correctional facility for a sentence that was imposed upon a conviction for a sexually violent offense. For inmates sentenced under the law in effect prior to February 1, 1978, the petition shall be filed no more than 90 days after the Prisoner Review Board's order granting parole pursuant to Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b-6) The petition must be filed no more than 90 days before discharge or release:

(1) from a Department of Juvenile Justice juvenile correctional facility if the person was placed in the facility for being adjudicated delinquent under Section 5-20 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or found guilty under Section 5-620 of that Act on the basis of a sexually violent offense; or

(2) from a commitment order that was entered as a result of a sexually violent offense.

(b-7) A person convicted of a sexually violent offense remains eligible for commitment as a sexually violent person pursuant to this Act under the following circumstances: (1) the person is in custody for a sentence that is being served concurrently or consecutively with a sexually violent offense; (2) the person returns to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice for any reason during the term of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release being served for a sexually violent offense; or (3) the person is convicted or adjudicated delinquent for any offense committed during the term of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release being served for a sexually violent offense, regardless of whether that conviction or adjudication was for a sexually violent offense.

(c) A petition filed under this Section shall state with particularity essential facts to establish probable cause to believe the person is a sexually violent person. If the petition alleges that a sexually violent offense or act that is a basis for the allegation under paragraph (b)(1) of this Section was an act that was sexually motivated as provided under paragraph (e)(2) of Section 5 of this Act, the petition shall state the grounds on which the offense or act is alleged to be sexually motivated.

(d) A petition under this Section shall be filed in either of the following:

(1) The circuit court for the county in which the person was convicted of a sexually violent offense, adjudicated delinquent for a sexually violent offense or found not guilty of a sexually violent offense by reason of insanity, mental disease or mental defect.

(2) The circuit court for the county in which the person is in custody under a sentence, a placement to a Department of Corrections correctional facility or a Department of Juvenile Justice juvenile correctional facility, or a commitment order.

(e) The filing of a petition under this Act shall toll the running of the term of parole or mandatory supervised release until:

(1) dismissal of the petition filed under this Act;

(2) a finding by a judge or jury that the respondent is not a sexually violent person; or

(3) the sexually violent person is discharged under Section 65 of this Act.

(f) The State has the right to have the person evaluated by experts chosen by the State. The agency with jurisdiction as defined in Section 10 of this Act shall allow the expert reasonable access to the person for purposes of examination, to the person's records, and to past and present treatment providers and any other staff members relevant to the examination.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 35. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2-3.1, 3-2-5, 3-2.5-20, 3-2.5-70, 3-2.5-80, 3-3-1, 3-3-2, 3-3-3, 3-3-4, 3-3-5, 3-3-7, 3-3-8, 3-3-9, 3-3-10, 3-10-7, 5-8-6, 5-8A-3, 5-8A-5, and 5-8A-7 and by adding Sections 3-2.5-85, 3-2.5-90, 3-2.5-95, 3-2.5-100, and 3-3-9.5 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-2-3.1)

Sec. 3-2-3.1. Treaties. If a treaty in effect between the United States and a foreign country provides for the transfer or exchange of convicted offenders to the country of which they are citizens or nationals, the Governor may, on behalf of the State and subject to the terms of the treaty, authorize the Director of Corrections or the Director of Juvenile Justice to consent to the transfer or exchange of offenders and take any other action necessary to initiate the participation of this State in the treaty. Before any transfer or exchange may occur, the Director of Corrections shall notify in writing the Prisoner Review Board and the Office of the State's Attorney which obtained the defendant's conviction, or the Director of Juvenile Justice shall notify in writing the Office of the State's Attorney which obtained the youth's conviction.

(Source: P.A. 95-317, eff. 8-21-07.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-2-5)

Sec. 3-2-5. Organization of the Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(a) There shall be a Department of Corrections which shall be administered by a Director and an Assistant Director appointed by the Governor under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. The Assistant Director shall be under the direction of the Director. The Department of Corrections shall be responsible for all persons committed or transferred to the Department under Sections 3-10-7 or 5-8-6 of this Code.

(b) There shall be a Department of Juvenile Justice which shall be administered by a Director appointed by the Governor under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall be responsible for all persons under 18 17 years of age when sentenced to imprisonment and committed to the Department under subsection (c) of Section 5-8-6 of this Code, Section 5-10 of the Juvenile Court Act, or Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Persons under 18 17 years of age committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice pursuant to this Code shall be sight and sound separate from adult offenders committed to the Department of Corrections.

(c) The Department shall create a gang intelligence unit under the supervision of the Director. The unit shall be specifically designed to gather information regarding the inmate gang population, monitor the activities of gangs, and prevent the furtherance of gang activities through the development and implementation of policies aimed at deterring gang activity. The Director shall appoint a Corrections Intelligence Coordinator.

All information collected and maintained by the unit shall be highly confidential, and access to that information shall be restricted by the Department. The information shall be used to control and limit the activities of gangs within correctional institutions under the jurisdiction of the Illinois Department of Corrections and may be shared with other law enforcement agencies in order to curb gang activities outside of correctional institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department and to assist in the investigations and prosecutions of gang activity. The Department shall establish and promulgate rules governing the release of information to outside law enforcement agencies. Due to the highly sensitive nature of the information, the information is exempt from requests for disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act as the information contained is highly confidential and may be harmful if disclosed.

(Source: P.A. 97-800, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-20)

Sec. 3-2.5-20. General powers and duties.

(a) In addition to the powers, duties, and responsibilities which are otherwise provided by law or transferred to the Department as a result of this Article, the Department, as determined by the Director, shall have, but are not limited to, the following rights, powers, functions and duties:

(1) To accept juveniles committed to it by the courts of this State for care, custody, treatment, and rehabilitation.

(2) To maintain and administer all State juvenile correctional institutions previously under the control of the Juvenile and Women's & Children Divisions of the Department of Corrections, and to establish and maintain institutions as needed to meet the needs of the youth committed to its care.

(3) To identify the need for and recommend the funding and implementation of an appropriate mix of programs and services within the juvenile justice continuum, including but not limited to prevention, nonresidential and residential commitment programs, day treatment, and conditional release programs and services, with the support of educational, vocational, alcohol, drug abuse, and mental health services where appropriate.

(3.5) To assist youth committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 with successful reintegration into society, the Department shall retain custody and control of all adjudicated delinquent juveniles released under Section 3-2.5-85 3-3-10 of this Code, shall provide a continuum of post-release treatment and services to those youth, and shall supervise those youth during their release period in accordance with the conditions set by the Department Prisoner Review Board.

(4) To establish and provide transitional and post-release treatment programs for juveniles committed to the Department. Services shall include but are not limited to:

(i) family and individual counseling and treatment placement;

(ii) referral services to any other State or local agencies;

(iii) mental health services;

(iv) educational services;

(v) family counseling services; and

(vi) substance abuse services.

(5) To access vital records of juveniles for the purposes of providing necessary documentation for transitional services such as obtaining identification, educational enrollment, employment, and housing.

(6) To develop staffing and workload standards and coordinate staff development and training appropriate for juvenile populations.

(7) To develop, with the approval of the Office of the Governor and the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, annual budget requests.

(8) To administer the Interstate Compact for Juveniles, with respect to all juveniles under its jurisdiction, and to cooperate with the Department of Human Services with regard to all non-offender juveniles subject to the Interstate Compact for Juveniles.

(9) To decide the date of release on aftercare for youth committed to the Department under Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, except those committed for first degree murder.

(10) To set conditions of aftercare release for all youth committed to the Department under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(b) The Department may employ personnel in accordance with the Personnel Code and Section 3-2.5-15 of this Code, provide facilities, contract for goods and services, and adopt rules as necessary to carry out its functions and purposes, all in accordance with applicable State and federal law.

(c) On and after the date 6 months after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-488), as provided in the Executive Order 1 (2012) Implementation Act, all of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were transferred from the Department of Corrections to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services by Executive Order 3 (2005) are transferred back to the Department of Corrections; however, powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were exercised by the Department of Corrections before the effective date of Executive Order 3 (2005) but that pertain to individuals resident in facilities operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice are transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(Source: P.A. 98-488, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-70)

Sec. 3-2.5-70. Aftercare.

(a) The Department shall implement an aftercare program that includes, at a minimum, the following program elements:

(1) A process for developing and implementing a case management plan for timely and successful reentry into the community beginning upon commitment.

(2) A process for reviewing committed youth for recommendation for aftercare release.

(3) Supervision in accordance with the conditions set by the Department Prisoner Review Board and referral to and facilitation of community-based services including education, social and mental health services, substance abuse treatment, employment and vocational training, individual and family counseling, financial counseling, and other services as appropriate; and assistance in locating appropriate residential placement and obtaining suitable employment. The Department may purchase necessary services for a releasee if they are otherwise unavailable and the releasee is unable to pay for the services. It may assess all or part of the costs of these services to a releasee in accordance with his or her ability to pay for the services.

(4) Standards for sanctioning violations of conditions of aftercare release that ensure that juvenile offenders face uniform and consistent consequences that hold them accountable taking into account aggravating and mitigating factors and prioritizing public safety.

(5) A process for reviewing youth on aftercare release for discharge.

(b) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall have the following rights, powers, functions, and duties:

(1) To investigate alleged violations of an aftercare releasee's conditions of release; and for this purpose it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents only if there is reason to believe that the procedures would provide evidence that the violations have occurred. If any person fails to obey a subpoena issued under this subsection, the Director may apply to any circuit court to secure compliance with the subpoena. The failure to comply with the order of the court issued in response thereto shall be punishable as contempt of court.

(2) To issue a violation warrant for the apprehension of an aftercare releasee for violations of the conditions of aftercare release. Aftercare specialists and supervisors have the full power of peace officers in the retaking of any youth alleged to have violated the conditions of aftercare release.

(c) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall designate aftercare specialists qualified in juvenile matters to perform case management and post-release programming functions under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-80)

Sec. 3-2.5-80. Supervision on Aftercare Release.

(a) The Department shall retain custody of all youth placed on aftercare release or released under Section 3-2.5-85 or 3-3-10 of this Code. The Department shall supervise those youth during their aftercare release period in accordance with the conditions set by the Department Prisoner Review Board.

(b) A copy of youth's conditions of aftercare release shall be signed by the youth and given to the youth and to his or her aftercare specialist who shall report on the youth's progress under the rules of the Department Prisoner Review Board. Aftercare specialists and supervisors shall have the full power of peace officers in the retaking of any releasee who has allegedly violated his or her aftercare release conditions. The aftercare specialist may request the Department of Juvenile Justice to issue a warrant for the arrest of any releasee who has allegedly violated his or her aftercare release conditions.

(c) The aftercare supervisor shall request the Department of Juvenile Justice to issue an aftercare release violation warrant, and the Department of Juvenile Justice shall issue an aftercare release violation warrant, under the following circumstances:

(1) if the releasee has a subsequent delinquency petition filed against him or her alleging commission of an act that constitutes a felony using a firearm or knife;

(2) if the releasee is required to and fails to comply with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) (blank); or

(4) if the releasee is on aftercare release for a murder, a Class X felony or a Class 1 felony violation of the Criminal Code of 2012, or any felony that requires registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act and a subsequent delinquency petition is filed against him or her alleging commission of an act that constitutes first degree murder, a Class X felony, a Class 1 felony, a Class 2 felony, or a Class 3 felony.

Personnel designated by the Department of Juvenile Justice or another peace officer may detain an alleged aftercare release violator until a warrant for his or her return to the Department of Juvenile Justice can be issued. The releasee may be delivered to any secure place until he or she can be transported to the Department of Juvenile Justice. The aftercare specialist or the Department of Juvenile Justice shall file a violation report with notice of charges with the Department Prisoner Review Board.

(d) The aftercare specialist shall regularly advise and consult with the releasee and assist the youth in adjusting to community life in accord with this Section.

(e) If the aftercare releasee has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the aftercare specialist shall periodically, but not less than once a month, verify that the releasee is in compliance with paragraph (7.6) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7.

(f) The aftercare specialist shall keep those records as the Prisoner Review Board or Department may require. All records shall be entered in the master file of the youth.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 99-268, eff. 1-1-16.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-85 new)

Sec. 3-2.5-85. Eligibility for release; determination.

(a) Every youth committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, except those committed for first degree murder, shall be:

(1) Eligible for aftercare release without regard to the length of time the youth has been confined or whether the youth has served any minimum term imposed.

(2) Unless sooner released, the youth shall be released on aftercare on or before his or her 20th birthday or upon completion of the maximum term of confinement ordered by the court under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whichever is sooner, to begin serving a period of aftercare release under Section 3-3-8.

(3) Considered for release on aftercare at least 30 days prior to the expiration of the first year of confinement.

(b) This Section shall not apply to the initial release of youth committed to the Department for first degree murder under Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or as a habitual or violent juvenile offender under Sections 5-815 or 5-820 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. A youth committed for first degree murder shall be released by the Department upon completion of the determinate sentence established under this Act. Youth who have been tried as an adult and committed to the Department under Section 5-8-6 of this Code are eligible for mandatory supervised release as an adult under Section 3-3-3 of this Code.

(c) The Department shall establish a process for deciding the date of release on aftercare for every youth committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, except those committed for first-degree murder. The processes shall include establishing a target release date upon commitment to the Department, the regular review and appropriate adjustment of the target release date, and the final release consideration at least 30 days prior to the youth's target release date. The establishment, adjustment, and final consideration of the target release date shall include consideration of the following factors:

(1) the nature and seriousness of the youth's offense;

(2) the likelihood the youth will reoffend or will pose a danger to the community based on an assessment of the youth's risks, strengths, and behavior; and

(3) the youth's progress since being committed to the Department.

(d) If the youth being considered for aftercare release has a petition or any written submissions prepared on his or her behalf by an attorney or other representative, the attorney or representative for the youth must serve by certified mail the State's Attorney of the county where the youth was prosecuted with the petition or any written submissions 15 days prior to the youth's target release date.

(e) The prosecuting State's Attorney's office shall receive from the Department reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the target release date and may submit relevant information by oral argument or testimony of victims and concerned citizens, or both, in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means or in the form of a recording to the Department for its consideration. The State's Attorney may waive the written notice of the target release date at any time. Upon written request of the State's Attorney's office, provided the request is received within 15 days of receipt of the written notice of the target release date, the Department shall hear protests to aftercare release. If a State's Attorney requests a protest hearing, the committed youth's attorney or other representative shall also receive notice of the request. This hearing shall take place prior to the youth's aftercare release. The Department shall schedule the protest hearing date, providing at least 15 days' notice to the State's Attorney. If the protest hearing is rescheduled, the Department shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the new date.

(f) The victim of the violent crime for which the youth has been sentenced shall receive notice of the target release date as provided in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of Section 4.5 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(g) In making its determination of aftercare release, the Department shall consider:

(1) material transmitted to the Department by the clerk of the committing court under Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(2) the report under Section 3-10-2;

(3) a report by the Department and any report by the chief administrative officer of the institution or facility;

(4) an aftercare release progress report;

(5) a medical and psychological report, if available;

(6) material in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means in the form of a recording submitted by the youth whose aftercare release is being considered;

(7) material in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means in the form of a recording or testimony submitted by the State's Attorney and the victim or a concerned citizen under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act; and

(8) the youth's eligibility for commitment under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(h) Any recording considered under the provisions of subsection (e), paragraph (6) of subsection (g), or paragraph (7) of subsection (g) of this Section shall be in the form designated by the Department. The recording shall be both visual and aural. Every voice on the recording and person present shall be identified and the recording shall contain either a visual or aural statement of the person submitting the recording, the date of the recording, and the name of the youth whose aftercare release is being considered. The recordings shall be retained by the Department and shall be considered during any subsequent aftercare release decision if the victim or State's Attorney submits in writing a declaration clearly identifying the recording as representing the position of the victim or State's Attorney regarding the release of the youth.

(i) The Department shall not release any material to the youth, the youth's attorney, any third party, or any other person containing any information from the victim or from a person related to the victim by blood, adoption, or marriage who has written objections, testified at any hearing, or submitted audio or visual objections to the youth's aftercare release, unless provided with a waiver from that objecting party. The Department shall not release the names or addresses of any person on its victim registry to any other person except the victim, a law enforcement agency, or other victim notification system.

(j) The Department shall not release a youth eligible for aftercare release if it determines that:

(1) there is a substantial risk that he or she will not conform to reasonable conditions of aftercare release;

(2) his or her release at that time would deprecate the seriousness of his or her offense or promote disrespect for the law; or

(3) his or her release would have a substantially adverse effect on institutional discipline.

(k) The Department shall render its release decision and shall state the basis therefor both in the records of the Department and in written notice to the youth who was considered for aftercare release. In its decision, the Department shall set the youth's time for aftercare release, or if it denies aftercare release it shall provide for reconsideration of aftercare release not less frequently than once each year.

(l) If the Department releases a youth who is eligible for commitment as a sexually violent person, the effective date of the Department's order shall be stayed for 90 days for the purpose of evaluation and proceedings under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(m) Any youth whose aftercare release has been revoked by the Prisoner Review Board under Section 3-3-9.5 of this Code, including youth committed to the Department for first degree murder under Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or as a habitual or violent juvenile offender under Sections 5-815 or 5-820 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, may be rereleased to the full aftercare release term by the Department at any time in accordance with this Section.

(n) The Department shall adopt rules regarding the exercise of its discretion under this Section.

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-90 new)

Sec. 3-2.5-90. Release to warrant or detainer.

(a) If a warrant or detainer is placed against a youth by the court or other authority of this or any other jurisdiction, the Department of Juvenile Justice shall inquire before the youth is considered for aftercare release whether the authority concerned intends to execute or withdraw the process if the youth is released.

(b) If the authority notifies the Department that it intends to execute the process when the youth is released, the Department shall advise the authority concerned of the sentence or disposition under which the youth is held, the time of eligibility for release, any decision of the Department relating to the youth and the nature of his or her adjustment during confinement, and shall give reasonable notice to the authority of the youth's release date.

(c) The Department may release a youth to a warrant or detainer. The Department may provide, as a condition of aftercare release, that if the charge or charges on which the warrant or detainer is based are dismissed or satisfied, prior to the expiration of the youth's aftercare release term, the authority to whose warrant or detainer he or she was released shall return him or her to serve the remainder of his or her aftercare release term.

(d) If a youth released to a warrant or detainer is thereafter sentenced to probation, or released on parole in another jurisdiction prior to the expiration of his or her aftercare release term in this State, the Department may permit the youth to serve the remainder of his or her term in either of the jurisdictions.

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-95 new)

Sec. 3-2.5-95. Conditions of aftercare release.

(a) The conditions of aftercare release for all youth committed to the Department under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be such as the Department of Juvenile Justice deems necessary to assist the youth in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every aftercare release are that the youth:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the aftercare release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department;

(4) permit the agent or aftercare specialist to visit the youth at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent or aftercare specialist to discharge his or her duties;

(5) reside at a Department-approved host site;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody and immediately report service or notification of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order to an agent of the Department;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by an agent of the Department;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her aftercare specialist and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on aftercare release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by an agent of the Department;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Department or by law to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her aftercare release or to protect the public; these instructions by the agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory; a no contact order issued under the Civil No Contact Order Act; or a no contact order issued under the Stalking No Contact Order Act;

(17) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, and a sex offender treatment provider has evaluated and recommended further sex offender treatment while on aftercare release, the youth shall undergo treatment by a sex offender treatment provider or associate sex offender provider as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act at his or her expense based on his or her ability to pay for the treatment;

(18) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(19) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the offender as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the youth's aftercare release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the offender used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the youth's aftercare release term;

(20) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the offender as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the offender and whom the offender reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (20), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the offender if the person is not: (A) the spouse, brother, or sister of the offender; (B) a descendant of the offender; (C) a first or second cousin of the offender; or (D) a step-child or adopted child of the offender;

(21) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(22) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the offender as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act, not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(23) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses:

(A) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(B) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the youth's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the youth's aftercare specialist, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of the information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(C) submit to the installation on the youth's computer or device with Internet capability, at the youth's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(D) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the youth's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Department or the youth's aftercare specialist;

(24) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act, refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(25) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that requires the youth to register as a sex offender under that Act, not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the youth uses;

(26) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the youth is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(27) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code; and

(28) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense, be:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Department may in addition to other conditions require that the youth:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or aftercare release;

(4) support his or her dependents;

(5) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the youth as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the youth and whom the youth reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the youth if the person is: (A) the spouse, brother, or sister of the youth; (B) a descendant of the youth; (C) a first or second cousin of the youth; or (D) a step-child or adopted child of the youth;

(6) if convicted for an offense that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(A) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(B) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the youth's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the youth's aftercare specialist, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of the information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(C) submit to the installation on the youth's computer or device with Internet capability, at the youth's offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(D) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the youth's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Department or the youth's aftercare specialist; and

(7) in addition to other conditions:

(A) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(B) attend school;

(C) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(D) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(c) In addition to the conditions under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, youths required to register as sex offenders under the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice, may be required by the Department to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department;

(6) be electronically monitored for a specified period of time from the date of release as determined by the Department;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department; these terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the youth;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including, but not limited to, visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the youth from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of an agent of the Department before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(d) The conditions under which the aftercare release is to be served shall be communicated to the youth in writing prior to his or her release, and he or she shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection if one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the youth and another copy forwarded to the officer or aftercare specialist in charge of his or her supervision.

(e) After a revocation hearing under Section 3-3-9.5, the Department of Juvenile Justice may modify or enlarge the conditions of aftercare release.

(f) The Department shall inform all youth of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist youth in availing themselves of the optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-100 new)

Sec. 3-2.5-100. Length of aftercare release; discharge.

(a) The aftercare release period of a youth committed to the Department under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be as set out in Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, unless sooner terminated under paragraph (b) of this Section or under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(b) Provided that the youth is in compliance with the terms and conditions of his or her aftercare release, the Department of Juvenile Justice may reduce the period of a releasee's aftercare release by 90 days upon the releasee receiving a high school diploma or upon passage of high school equivalency testing during the period of his or her aftercare release. This reduction in the period of a youth's term of aftercare release shall be available only to youth who have not previously earned a high school diploma or who have not previously passed high school equivalency testing.

(c) The Department of Juvenile Justice may discharge a youth from aftercare release and his or her commitment to the Department in accordance with subsection (3) of Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, if it determines that he or she is likely to remain at liberty without committing another offense.

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-1)

Sec. 3-3-1. Establishment and Appointment of Prisoner Review Board.

(a) There shall be a Prisoner Review Board independent of the Department of Corrections which shall be:

(1) the paroling authority for persons sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977;

(1.5) (blank); the authority for hearing and deciding the time of aftercare release for persons adjudicated delinquent under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(2) the board of review for cases involving the revocation of sentence credits or a suspension or reduction in the rate of accumulating the credit;

(3) the board of review and recommendation for the exercise of executive clemency by the Governor;

(4) the authority for establishing release dates for certain prisoners sentenced under the law in existence prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, in accordance with Section 3-3-2.1 of this Code;

(5) the authority for setting conditions for parole and , mandatory supervised release under Section 5-8-1(a) of this Code, and aftercare release, and determining whether a violation of those conditions warrant revocation of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release or the imposition of other sanctions; and .

(6) the authority for determining whether a violation of aftercare release conditions warrant revocation of aftercare release.

(b) The Board shall consist of 15 persons appointed by the Governor by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. One member of the Board shall be designated by the Governor to be Chairman and shall serve as Chairman at the pleasure of the Governor. The members of the Board shall have had at least 5 years of actual experience in the fields of penology, corrections work, law enforcement, sociology, law, education, social work, medicine, psychology, other behavioral sciences, or a combination thereof. At least 6 members so appointed must have had at least 3 years experience in the field of juvenile matters. No more than 8 Board members may be members of the same political party.

Each member of the Board shall serve on a full-time basis and shall not hold any other salaried public office, whether elective or appointive, nor any other office or position of profit, nor engage in any other business, employment, or vocation. The Chairman of the Board shall receive $35,000 a year, or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater, and each other member $30,000, or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the term of each member of the Board who was appointed by the Governor and is in office on June 30, 2003 shall terminate at the close of business on that date or when all of the successor members to be appointed pursuant to this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later. As soon as possible, the Governor shall appoint persons to fill the vacancies created by this amendatory Act.

Of the initial members appointed under this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Governor shall appoint 5 members whose terms shall expire on the third Monday in January 2005, 5 members whose terms shall expire on the third Monday in January 2007, and 5 members whose terms shall expire on the third Monday in January 2009. Their respective successors shall be appointed for terms of 6 years from the third Monday in January of the year of appointment. Each member shall serve until his or her successor is appointed and qualified.

Any member may be removed by the Governor for incompetence, neglect of duty, malfeasance or inability to serve.

(d) The Chairman of the Board shall be its chief executive and administrative officer. The Board may have an Executive Director; if so, the Executive Director shall be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. The salary and duties of the Executive Director shall be fixed by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-2)

Sec. 3-3-2. Powers and Duties.

(a) The Parole and Pardon Board is abolished and the term "Parole and Pardon Board" as used in any law of Illinois, shall read "Prisoner Review Board." After the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, the Prisoner Review Board shall provide by rule for the orderly transition of all files, records, and documents of the Parole and Pardon Board and for such other steps as may be necessary to effect an orderly transition and shall:

(1) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, cases of prisoners who were sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, and who are eligible for parole;

(2) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of parole and the time of discharge from parole, impose sanctions for violations of parole, and revoke parole for those sentenced under the law in effect prior to this amendatory Act of 1977; provided that the decision to parole and the conditions of parole for all prisoners who were sentenced for first degree murder or who received a minimum sentence of 20 years or more under the law in effect prior to February 1, 1978 shall be determined by a majority vote of the Prisoner Review Board. One representative supporting parole and one representative opposing parole will be allowed to speak. Their comments shall be limited to making corrections and filling in omissions to the Board's presentation and discussion;

(3) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of mandatory supervised release and the time of discharge from mandatory supervised release, impose sanctions for violations of mandatory supervised release, and revoke mandatory supervised release for those sentenced under the law in effect after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977;

(3.5) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of mandatory supervised release and the time of discharge from mandatory supervised release, to impose sanctions for violations of mandatory supervised release and revoke mandatory supervised release for those serving extended supervised release terms pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1;

(3.6) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide whether to , the time of aftercare release, the conditions of aftercare release and the time of discharge from aftercare release, impose sanctions for violations of aftercare release, and revoke aftercare release for those committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice adjudicated delinquent under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(4) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members, decide cases brought by the Department of Corrections against a prisoner in the custody of the Department for alleged violation of Department rules with respect to sentence credits under Section 3-6-3 of this Code in which the Department seeks to revoke sentence credits, if the amount of time at issue exceeds 30 days or when, during any 12 month period, the cumulative amount of credit revoked exceeds 30 days except where the infraction is committed or discovered within 60 days of scheduled release. In such cases, the Department of Corrections may revoke up to 30 days of sentence credit. The Board may subsequently approve the revocation of additional sentence credit, if the Department seeks to revoke sentence credit in excess of thirty days. However, the Board shall not be empowered to review the Department's decision with respect to the loss of 30 days of sentence credit for any prisoner or to increase any penalty beyond the length requested by the Department;

(5) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the release dates for certain prisoners sentenced under the law in existence prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, in accordance with Section 3-3-2.1 of this Code;

(6) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, all requests for pardon, reprieve or commutation, and make confidential recommendations to the Governor;

(7) comply with the requirements of the Open Parole Hearings Act;

(8) hear by at least one member and, through a panel of at least 3 members, decide cases brought by the Department of Corrections against a prisoner in the custody of the Department for court dismissal of a frivolous lawsuit pursuant to Section 3-6-3(d) of this Code in which the Department seeks to revoke up to 180 days of sentence credit, and if the prisoner has not accumulated 180 days of sentence credit at the time of the dismissal, then all sentence credit accumulated by the prisoner shall be revoked;

(9) hear by at least 3 members, and, through a panel of at least 3 members, decide whether to grant certificates of relief from disabilities or certificates of good conduct as provided in Article 5.5 of Chapter V;

(10) upon a petition by a person who has been convicted of a Class 3 or Class 4 felony and who meets the requirements of this paragraph, hear by at least 3 members and, with the unanimous vote of a panel of 3 members, issue a certificate of eligibility for sealing recommending that the court order the sealing of all official records of the arresting authority, the circuit court clerk, and the Department of State Police concerning the arrest and conviction for the Class 3 or 4 felony. A person may not apply to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for sealing:

(A) until 5 years have elapsed since the expiration of his or her sentence;

(B) until 5 years have elapsed since any arrests or detentions by a law enforcement officer for an alleged violation of law, other than a petty offense, traffic offense, conservation offense, or local ordinance offense;

(C) if convicted of a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Precursor Tracking Act unless the petitioner has completed a drug abuse program for the offense on which sealing is sought and provides proof that he or she has completed the program successfully;

(D) if convicted of:

(i) a sex offense described in Article 11 or Sections 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) aggravated assault;

(iii) aggravated battery;

(iv) domestic battery;

(v) aggravated domestic battery;

(vi) violation of an order of protection;

(vii) an offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 involving a firearm;

(viii) driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof;

(ix) aggravated driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof; or

(x) any crime defined as a crime of violence under Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

If a person has applied to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for sealing and the Board denies the certificate, the person must wait at least 4 years before filing again or filing for pardon from the Governor unless the Chairman of the Prisoner Review Board grants a waiver.

The decision to issue or refrain from issuing a certificate of eligibility for sealing shall be at the Board's sole discretion, and shall not give rise to any cause of action against either the Board or its members.

The Board may only authorize the sealing of Class 3 and 4 felony convictions of the petitioner from one information or indictment under this paragraph (10). A petitioner may only receive one certificate of eligibility for sealing under this provision for life; and

(11) upon a petition by a person who after having been convicted of a Class 3 or Class 4 felony thereafter served in the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other state and had received an honorable discharge from the United States Armed Forces or National Guard or who at the time of filing the petition is enlisted in the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other state and served one tour of duty and who meets the requirements of this paragraph, hear by at least 3 members and, with the unanimous vote of a panel of 3 members, issue a certificate of eligibility for expungement recommending that the court order the expungement of all official records of the arresting authority, the circuit court clerk, and the Department of State Police concerning the arrest and conviction for the Class 3 or 4 felony. A person may not apply to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for expungement:

(A) if convicted of:

(i) a sex offense described in Article 11 or Sections 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) an offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012 involving a firearm; or

(iii) a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act; or

(B) if the person has not served in the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other state or has not received an honorable discharge from the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other state or who at the time of the filing of the petition is serving in the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other state and has not completed one tour of duty.

If a person has applied to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for expungement and the Board denies the certificate, the person must wait at least 4 years before filing again or filing for a pardon with authorization for expungement from the Governor unless the Governor or Chairman of the Prisoner Review Board grants a waiver.

(a-5) The Prisoner Review Board, with the cooperation of and in coordination with the Department of Corrections and the Department of Central Management Services, shall implement a pilot project in 3 correctional institutions providing for the conduct of hearings under paragraphs (1) and (4) of subsection (a) of this Section through interactive video conferences. The project shall be implemented within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996. Within 6 months after the implementation of the pilot project, the Prisoner Review Board, with the cooperation of and in coordination with the Department of Corrections and the Department of Central Management Services, shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the use, costs, effectiveness, and future viability of interactive video conferences for Prisoner Review Board hearings.

(b) Upon recommendation of the Department the Board may restore sentence credit previously revoked.

(c) The Board shall cooperate with the Department in promoting an effective system of parole, aftercare release, and mandatory supervised release.

(d) The Board shall promulgate rules for the conduct of its work, and the Chairman shall file a copy of such rules and any amendments thereto with the Director and with the Secretary of State.

(e) The Board shall keep records of all of its official actions and shall make them accessible in accordance with law and the rules of the Board.

(f) The Board or one who has allegedly violated the conditions of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release may require by subpoena the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of documentary evidence relating to any matter under investigation or hearing. The Chairman of the Board may sign subpoenas which shall be served by any agent or public official authorized by the Chairman of the Board, or by any person lawfully authorized to serve a subpoena under the laws of the State of Illinois. The attendance of witnesses, and the production of documentary evidence, may be required from any place in the State to a hearing location in the State before the Chairman of the Board or his or her designated agent or agents or any duly constituted Committee or Subcommittee of the Board. Witnesses so summoned shall be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the circuit courts of the State, and witnesses whose depositions are taken and the persons taking those depositions are each entitled to the same fees as are paid for like services in actions in the circuit courts of the State. Fees and mileage shall be vouchered for payment when the witness is discharged from further attendance.

In case of disobedience to a subpoena, the Board may petition any circuit court of the State for an order requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of documentary evidence or both. A copy of such petition shall be served by personal service or by registered or certified mail upon the person who has failed to obey the subpoena, and such person shall be advised in writing that a hearing upon the petition will be requested in a court room to be designated in such notice before the judge hearing motions or extraordinary remedies at a specified time, on a specified date, not less than 10 nor more than 15 days after the deposit of the copy of the written notice and petition in the U.S. mails addressed to the person at his last known address or after the personal service of the copy of the notice and petition upon such person. The court upon the filing of such a petition, may order the person refusing to obey the subpoena to appear at an investigation or hearing, or to there produce documentary evidence, if so ordered, or to give evidence relative to the subject matter of that investigation or hearing. Any failure to obey such order of the circuit court may be punished by that court as a contempt of court.

Each member of the Board and any hearing officer designated by the Board shall have the power to administer oaths and to take the testimony of persons under oath.

(g) Except under subsection (a) of this Section, a majority of the members then appointed to the Prisoner Review Board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of all business of the Board.

(h) The Prisoner Review Board shall annually transmit to the Director a detailed report of its work for the preceding calendar year. The annual report shall also be transmitted to the Governor for submission to the Legislature.

(Source: P.A. 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-399, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-3)

Sec. 3-3-3. Eligibility for Parole or Release.

(a) Except for those offenders who accept the fixed release date established by the Prisoner Review Board under Section 3-3-2.1, every person serving a term of imprisonment under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977 shall be eligible for parole when he or she has served:

(1) the minimum term of an indeterminate sentence less time credit for good behavior, or 20 years less time credit for good behavior, whichever is less; or

(2) 20 years of a life sentence less time credit for good behavior; or

(3) 20 years or one-third of a determinate sentence, whichever is less, less time credit for good behavior.

(b) No person sentenced under this amendatory Act of 1977 or who accepts a release date under Section 3-3-2.1 shall be eligible for parole.

(c) Except for those sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment, every person sentenced to imprisonment under this amendatory Act of 1977 or given a release date under Section 3-3-2.1 of this Act shall serve the full term of a determinate sentence less time credit for good behavior and shall then be released under the mandatory supervised release provisions of paragraph (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code.

(d) No person serving a term of natural life imprisonment may be paroled or released except through executive clemency.

(e) Every person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-10 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or Section 5-8-6 of this Code and confined in the State correctional institutions or facilities if such juvenile has not been tried as an adult shall be eligible for aftercare release under Section 3-2.5-85 of this Code without regard to the length of time the person has been confined or whether the person has served any minimum term imposed. However, if a juvenile has been tried as an adult he or she shall only be eligible for parole or mandatory supervised release as an adult under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-4)

Sec. 3-3-4. Preparation for Parole Hearing.

(a) The Prisoner Review Board shall consider the parole of each eligible person committed to the Department of Corrections at least 30 days prior to the date he or she shall first become eligible for parole, and shall consider the aftercare release of each person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice as a delinquent at least 30 days prior to the expiration of the first year of confinement.

(b) A person eligible for parole or aftercare release shall, no less than 15 days in advance of his or her parole interview, prepare a parole or aftercare release plan in accordance with the rules of the Prisoner Review Board. The person shall be assisted in preparing his or her parole or aftercare release plan by personnel of the Department of Corrections, or the Department of Juvenile Justice in the case of a person committed to that Department, and may, for this purpose, be released on furlough under Article 11 or on authorized absence under Section 3-9-4. The appropriate Department shall also provide assistance in obtaining information and records helpful to the individual for his or her parole hearing. If the person eligible for parole or aftercare release has a petition or any written submissions prepared on his or her behalf by an attorney or other representative, the attorney or representative for the person eligible for parole or aftercare release must serve by certified mail the State's Attorney of the county where he or she was prosecuted with the petition or any written submissions 15 days after his or her parole interview. The State's Attorney shall provide the attorney for the person eligible for parole or aftercare release with a copy of his or her letter in opposition to parole or aftercare release via certified mail within 5 business days of the en banc hearing.

(c) Any member of the Board shall have access at all reasonable times to any committed person and to his or her master record file within the Department, and the Department shall furnish such a report to the Board concerning the conduct and character of any such person prior to his or her parole interview.

(d) In making its determination of parole or aftercare release, the Board shall consider:

(1) (blank); material transmitted to the Department of Juvenile Justice by the clerk of the committing court under Section 5-4-1 or Section 5-10 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(2) the report under Section 3-8-2 or 3-10-2;

(3) a report by the Department and any report by the chief administrative officer of the institution or facility;

(4) a parole or aftercare release progress report;

(5) a medical and psychological report, if requested by the Board;

(6) material in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means in the form of a recording submitted by the person whose parole or aftercare release is being considered;

(7) material in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means in the form of a recording or testimony submitted by the State's Attorney and the victim or a concerned citizen pursuant to the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act; and

(8) the person's eligibility for commitment under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(e) The prosecuting State's Attorney's office shall receive from the Board reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the parole or aftercare release interview and may submit relevant information by oral argument or testimony of victims and concerned citizens, or both, in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means or in the form of a recording to the Board for its consideration. Upon written request of the State's Attorney's office, the Prisoner Review Board shall hear protests to parole, or aftercare release, except in counties of 1,500,000 or more inhabitants where there shall be standing objections to all such petitions. If a State's Attorney who represents a county of less than 1,500,000 inhabitants requests a protest hearing, the inmate's counsel or other representative shall also receive notice of such request. This hearing shall take place the month following the inmate's parole or aftercare release interview. If the inmate's parole or aftercare release interview is rescheduled then the Prisoner Review Board shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the new date. The person eligible for parole or aftercare release shall be heard at the next scheduled en banc hearing date. If the case is to be continued, the State's Attorney's office and the attorney or representative for the person eligible for parole or aftercare release will be notified of any continuance within 5 business days. The State's Attorney may waive the written notice.

(f) The victim of the violent crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced shall receive notice of a parole or aftercare release hearing as provided in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of Section 4.5 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(g) Any recording considered under the provisions of subsection (d)(6), (d)(7) or (e) of this Section shall be in the form designated by the Board. Such recording shall be both visual and aural. Every voice on the recording and person present shall be identified and the recording shall contain either a visual or aural statement of the person submitting such recording, the date of the recording and the name of the person whose parole or aftercare release eligibility is being considered. Such recordings shall be retained by the Board and shall be deemed to be submitted at any subsequent parole or aftercare release hearing if the victim or State's Attorney submits in writing a declaration clearly identifying such recording as representing the present position of the victim or State's Attorney regarding the issues to be considered at the parole or aftercare release hearing.

(h) The Board shall not release any material to the inmate, the inmate's attorney, any third party, or any other person containing any information from the victim or from a person related to the victim by blood, adoption, or marriage who has written objections, testified at any hearing, or submitted audio or visual objections to the inmate's parole, or aftercare release, unless provided with a waiver from that objecting party. The Board shall not release the names or addresses of any person on its victim registry to any other person except the victim, a law enforcement agency, or other victim notification system.

(Source: P.A. 97-523, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1075, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-717, eff. 1-1-15.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-5)

Sec. 3-3-5. Hearing and Determination.

(a) The Prisoner Review Board shall meet as often as need requires to consider the cases of persons eligible for parole and aftercare release. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of this Act, the Prisoner Review Board may meet and order its actions in panels of 3 or more members. The action of a majority of the panel shall be the action of the Board. In consideration of persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the panel shall have at least a majority of members experienced in juvenile matters.

(b) If the person under consideration for parole or aftercare release is in the custody of the Department, at least one member of the Board shall interview him or her, and a report of that interview shall be available for the Board's consideration. However, in the discretion of the Board, the interview need not be conducted if a psychiatric examination determines that the person could not meaningfully contribute to the Board's consideration. The Board may in its discretion parole or release on aftercare a person who is then outside the jurisdiction on his or her record without an interview. The Board need not hold a hearing or interview a person who is paroled or released on aftercare under paragraphs (d) or (e) of this Section or released on Mandatory release under Section 3-3-10.

(c) The Board shall not parole or release a person eligible for parole or aftercare release if it determines that:

(1) there is a substantial risk that he or she will not conform to reasonable conditions of parole or aftercare release; or

(2) his or her release at that time would deprecate the seriousness of his or her offense or promote disrespect for the law; or

(3) his or her release would have a substantially adverse effect on institutional discipline.

(d) (Blank). A person committed under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 who has not been sooner released shall be released on aftercare on or before his or her 20th birthday or upon completion of the maximum term of confinement ordered by the court under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whichever is sooner, to begin serving a period of aftercare release under Section 3-3-8.

(e) A person who has served the maximum term of imprisonment imposed at the time of sentencing less time credit for good behavior shall be released on parole to serve a period of parole under Section 5-8-1.

(f) The Board shall render its decision within a reasonable time after hearing and shall state the basis therefor both in the records of the Board and in written notice to the person on whose application it has acted. In its decision, the Board shall set the person's time for parole or aftercare release, or if it denies parole or aftercare release it shall provide for a rehearing not less frequently than once every year, except that the Board may, after denying parole, schedule a rehearing no later than 5 years from the date of the parole denial, if the Board finds that it is not reasonable to expect that parole would be granted at a hearing prior to the scheduled rehearing date. If the Board shall parole or release a person, and, if he or she is not released within 90 days from the effective date of the order granting parole or aftercare release, the matter shall be returned to the Board for review.

(f-1) If the Board paroles or releases a person who is eligible for commitment as a sexually violent person, the effective date of the Board's order shall be stayed for 90 days for the purpose of evaluation and proceedings under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(g) The Board shall maintain a registry of decisions in which parole has been granted, which shall include the name and case number of the prisoner, the highest charge for which the prisoner was sentenced, the length of sentence imposed, the date of the sentence, the date of the parole, and the basis for the decision of the Board to grant parole and the vote of the Board on any such decisions. The registry shall be made available for public inspection and copying during business hours and shall be a public record pursuant to the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act.

(h) The Board shall promulgate rules regarding the exercise of its discretion under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 99-268, eff. 1-1-16.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-7)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of Parole or , Mandatory Supervised Release, or Aftercare Release.

(a) The conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole, aftercare release, and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole, aftercare release, or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections or to the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(4) permit the agent or aftercare specialist to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent or aftercare specialist to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections or to the Department of Juvenile Justice as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody and immediately report service or notification of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-988), wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child committed on or after August 11, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-236) when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the defendant used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the person's parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-640), not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(7.11) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, aftercare specialist, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent or aftercare specialist;

(7.12) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(7.13) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections or an aftercare specialist of the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent or aftercare specialist and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections or by his or her aftercare specialist or of the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent or aftercare specialist that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent or aftercare specialist may be modified at any time, as the agent or aftercare specialist deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code;

(18) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory; a no contact order issued pursuant to the Civil No Contact Order Act; or a no contact order issued pursuant to the Stalking No Contact Order Act; and

(19) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense, be:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Board may in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his or her dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) (blank);

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.6) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent or aftercare specialist, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent or aftercare specialist; and

(8) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer or aftercare specialist before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his or her release, and he or she shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer or aftercare specialist in charge of his or her supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-50, eff. 6-28-11; 97-531, eff. 1-1-12; 97-560, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-8)

Sec. 3-3-8. Length of parole, aftercare release, and mandatory supervised release; discharge.)

(a) The length of parole for a person sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977 and the length of mandatory supervised release for those sentenced under the law in effect on and after such effective date shall be as set out in Section 5-8-1 unless sooner terminated under paragraph (b) of this Section. The aftercare release period of a juvenile committed to the Department under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be as set out in Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 unless sooner terminated under paragraph (b) of this Section or under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(b) The Prisoner Review Board may enter an order releasing and discharging one from parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, and his or her commitment to the Department, when it determines that he or she is likely to remain at liberty without committing another offense.

(b-1) Provided that the subject is in compliance with the terms and conditions of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, the Prisoner Review Board may reduce the period of a parolee or releasee's parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release by 90 days upon the parolee or releasee receiving a high school diploma or upon passage of high school equivalency testing during the period of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. This reduction in the period of a subject's term of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall be available only to subjects who have not previously earned a high school diploma or who have not previously passed high school equivalency testing.

(c) The order of discharge shall become effective upon entry of the order of the Board. The Board shall notify the clerk of the committing court of the order. Upon receipt of such copy, the clerk shall make an entry on the record judgment that the sentence or commitment has been satisfied pursuant to the order.

(d) Rights of the person discharged under this Section shall be restored under Section 5-5-5. This Section is subject to Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 99-268, eff. 1-1-16.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-9)

Sec. 3-3-9. Violations; changes of conditions; preliminary hearing; revocation of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release; revocation hearing.

(a) If prior to expiration or termination of the term of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, a person violates a condition set by the Prisoner Review Board or a condition of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release under Section 3-3-7 of this Code to govern that term, the Board may:

(1) continue the existing term, with or without modifying or enlarging the conditions; or

(2) parole or release the person to a half-way house; or

(3) revoke the parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release and reconfine the person for a term computed in the following manner:

(i) (A) For those sentenced under the law in effect prior to this amendatory Act of 1977, the recommitment shall be for any portion of the imposed maximum term of imprisonment or confinement which had not been served at the time of parole and the parole term, less the time elapsed between the parole of the person and the commission of the violation for which parole was revoked;

(B) Except as set forth in paragraph (C), for those subject to mandatory supervised release under paragraph (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code, the recommitment shall be for the total mandatory supervised release term, less the time elapsed between the release of the person and the commission of the violation for which mandatory supervised release is revoked. The Board may also order that a prisoner serve up to one year of the sentence imposed by the court which was not served due to the accumulation of sentence credit;

(C) For those subject to sex offender supervision under clause (d)(4) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code, the reconfinement period for violations of clauses (a)(3) through (b-1)(15) of Section 3-3-7 shall not exceed 2 years from the date of reconfinement;

(ii) the person shall be given credit against the term of reimprisonment or reconfinement for time spent in custody since he or she was paroled or released which has not been credited against another sentence or period of confinement;

(iii) (blank); persons committed under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may be continued under the existing term of aftercare release with or without modifying the conditions of aftercare release, released on aftercare release to a group home or other residential facility, or recommitted until the age of 21 unless sooner terminated;

(iv) this Section is subject to the release under supervision and the reparole and rerelease provisions of Section 3-3-10.

(b) The Board may revoke parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for violation of a condition for the duration of the term and for any further period which is reasonably necessary for the adjudication of matters arising before its expiration. The issuance of a warrant of arrest for an alleged violation of the conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall toll the running of the term until the final determination of the charge. When parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release is not revoked that period shall be credited to the term, unless a community-based sanction is imposed as an alternative to revocation and reincarceration, including a diversion established by the Illinois Department of Corrections Parole Services Unit prior to the holding of a preliminary parole revocation hearing. Parolees who are diverted to a community-based sanction shall serve the entire term of parole or mandatory supervised release, if otherwise appropriate.

(b-5) The Board shall revoke parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for violation of the conditions prescribed in paragraph (7.6) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7.

(c) A person charged with violating a condition of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall have a preliminary hearing before a hearing officer designated by the Board to determine if there is cause to hold the person for a revocation hearing. However, no preliminary hearing need be held when revocation is based upon new criminal charges and a court finds probable cause on the new criminal charges or when the revocation is based upon a new criminal conviction and a certified copy of that conviction is available.

(d) Parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall not be revoked without written notice to the offender setting forth the violation of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release charged against him or her.

(e) A hearing on revocation shall be conducted before at least one member of the Prisoner Review Board. The Board may meet and order its actions in panels of 3 or more members. The action of a majority of the panel shall be the action of the Board. In consideration of persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the member hearing the matter and at least a majority of the panel shall be experienced in juvenile matters. A record of the hearing shall be made. At the hearing the offender shall be permitted to:

(1) appear and answer the charge; and

(2) bring witnesses on his or her behalf.

(f) The Board shall either revoke parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release or order the person's term continued with or without modification or enlargement of the conditions.

(g) Parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release shall not be revoked for failure to make payments under the conditions of parole or release unless the Board determines that such failure is due to the offender's willful refusal to pay.

(Source: P.A. 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-9.5 new)

Sec. 3-3-9.5. Revocation of aftercare release; revocation hearing.

(a) If prior to expiration or termination of the aftercare release, a juvenile committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 violates a condition of release set by the Department under Section 3-2.5-95 of this Code, the Department may initiate revocation proceedings by issuing a violation warrant under Section 3-2.5-70 of this Code or by retaking of the release and returning him or her to a Department facility.

(b) The Department shall provide the releasee and the Prisoner Review Board with written notice of the alleged violation of aftercare release charged against him or her.

(c) The issuance of a warrant of arrest for an alleged violation of the conditions aftercare release until the final determination of the charge or expiration of the maximum commitment permitted under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(d) A person charged with violating a condition of aftercare release shall have a preliminary hearing before a hearing officer designated by the Board to determine if there is probable cause to hold the person for a revocation hearing. However, no preliminary hearing need be held when revocation is based upon new criminal charges and a court finds probable cause on the new criminal charges or when the revocation is based upon a new criminal conviction and a certified copy of that conviction is available.

(e) At the preliminary hearing, the Board may order the releasee held in Department custody or released under supervision pending a final revocation decision of the Board. A youth who is held in Department custody, shall be released and discharged upon the expiration of the maximum term permitted under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(f) A hearing on revocation shall be conducted before at least one member of the Prisoner Review Board. The Board may meet and order its actions in panels of 3 or more members. The action of a majority of the panel shall be the action of the Board. The member hearing the matter and at least a majority of the panel shall be experienced in juvenile matters. A record of the hearing shall be made. At the hearing the releasee shall be permitted to:

(1) appear and answer the charge; and

(2) bring witnesses on his or her behalf.

(g) If the Board finds that the juvenile has not violated a condition of aftercare release, the Board shall order the juvenile rereleased and aftercare release continued under the existing term and may make specific recommendations to the Department regarding appropriate conditions of release. If the Board finds that juvenile has violated a condition of aftercare release, the Board shall either:

(1) revoke aftercare release and order the juvenile reconfined; or

(2) order the juvenile rereleased to serve a specified aftercare release term up to a full aftercare release term under Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1897 and may make specific recommendations to the Department regarding appropriate conditions of release.

(h) Aftercare release shall not be revoked for failure to make payments under the conditions of release unless the Board determines that the failure is due to the juvenile's willful refusal to pay.

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-10)

Sec. 3-3-10. Eligibility after Revocation; Release under Supervision.

(a) A person whose parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release has been revoked may be reparoled or rereleased by the Board at any time to the full parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release term under Section 3-3-8, except that the time which the person shall remain subject to the Board shall not exceed (1) the imposed maximum term of imprisonment or confinement and the parole term for those sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977 or (2) the term of imprisonment imposed by the court and the mandatory supervised release term for those sentenced under the law in effect on and after such effective date.

(b) If the Board sets no earlier release date:

(1) A person sentenced for any violation of law which occurred before January 1, 1973, shall be released under supervision 6 months prior to the expiration of his or her maximum sentence of imprisonment less good time credit under Section 3-6-3.

(2) Any person who has violated the conditions of his or her parole and been reconfined under Section 3-3-9 shall be released under supervision 6 months prior to the expiration of the term of his or her reconfinement under paragraph (a) of Section 3-3-9 less good time credit under Section 3-6-3. This paragraph shall not apply to persons serving terms of mandatory supervised release or aftercare release.

(3) Nothing herein shall require the release of a person who has violated his or her parole within 6 months of the date when his or her release under this Section would otherwise be mandatory.

(c) Persons released under this Section shall be subject to Sections 3-3-6, 3-3-7, 3-3-9, 3-14-1, 3-14-2, 3-14-2.5, 3-14-3, and 3-14-4.

(d) This Section shall not apply to a juvenile committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 serving terms of aftercare release.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 99-268, eff. 1-1-16.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-10-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-10-7)

Sec. 3-10-7. Interdepartment Interdivisional Transfers.

(a) (Blank). In any case where a minor was originally prosecuted under the provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and sentenced under the provisions of this Act pursuant to Section 2-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-8-6, the Department of Juvenile Justice shall, within 30 days of the date that the minor reaches the age of 17, send formal notification to the sentencing court and the State's Attorney of the county from which the minor was sentenced indicating the day upon which the minor offender will achieve the age of 17. Within 90 days of receipt of that notice, the sentencing court shall conduct a hearing, pursuant to the provisions of subsection (c) of this Section to determine whether or not the minor shall continue to remain under the auspices of the Department of Juvenile Justice or be transferred to the Department of Corrections.

The minor shall be served with notice of the date of the hearing, shall be present at the hearing, and has the right to counsel at the hearing. The minor, with the consent of his or her counsel or guardian may waive his presence at hearing.

(b) (Blank). Unless sooner paroled under Section 3-3-3, the confinement of a minor person committed for an indeterminate sentence in a criminal proceeding shall terminate at the expiration of the maximum term of imprisonment, and he shall thereupon be released to serve a period of parole under Section 5-8-1, but if the maximum term of imprisonment does not expire until after his 21st birthday, he shall continue to be subject to the control and custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice, and on his 21st birthday, he shall be transferred to the Department of Corrections. If such person is on parole on his 21st birthday, his parole supervision may be transferred to the Department of Corrections.

(c) (Blank). Any interdivisional transfer hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section shall consider all available information which may bear upon the issue of transfer. All evidence helpful to the court in determining the question of transfer, including oral and written reports containing hearsay, may be relied upon to the extent of its probative value, even though not competent for the purposes of an adjudicatory hearing. The court shall consider, along with any other relevant matter, the following:

1. The nature of the offense for which the minor was found guilty and the length of the sentence the minor has to serve and the record and previous history of the minor.

2. The record of the minor's adjustment within the Department of Juvenile Justice, including, but not limited to, reports from the minor's counselor, any escapes, attempted escapes or violent or disruptive conduct on the part of the minor, any tickets received by the minor, summaries of classes attended by the minor, and any record of work performed by the minor while in the institution.

3. The relative maturity of the minor based upon the physical, psychological and emotional development of the minor.

4. The record of the rehabilitative progress of the minor and an assessment of the vocational potential of the minor.

5. An assessment of the necessity for transfer of the minor, including, but not limited to, the availability of space within the Department of Corrections, the disciplinary and security problem which the minor has presented to the Department of Juvenile Justice and the practicability of maintaining the minor in a juvenile facility, whether resources have been exhausted within the Department of Juvenile Justice, the availability of rehabilitative and vocational programs within the Department of Corrections, and the anticipated ability of the minor to adjust to confinement within an adult institution based upon the minor's physical size and maturity.

All relevant factors considered under this subsection need not be resolved against the juvenile in order to justify such transfer. Access to social records, probation reports or any other reports which are considered by the court for the purpose of transfer shall be made available to counsel for the juvenile at least 30 days prior to the date of the transfer hearing. The Sentencing Court, upon granting a transfer order, shall accompany such order with a statement of reasons.

(d) (Blank). Whenever the Director of Juvenile Justice or his designee determines that the interests of safety, security and discipline require the transfer to the Department of Corrections of a person 17 years or older who was prosecuted under the provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and sentenced under the provisions of this Act pursuant to Section 2-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-8-6, the Director or his designee may authorize the emergency transfer of such person, unless the transfer of the person is governed by subsection (e) of this Section. The sentencing court shall be provided notice of any emergency transfer no later than 3 days after the emergency transfer. Upon motion brought within 60 days of the emergency transfer by the sentencing court or any party, the sentencing court may conduct a hearing pursuant to the provisions of subsection (c) of this Section in order to determine whether the person shall remain confined in the Department of Corrections.

(e) The Director of Juvenile Justice or his designee may authorize the permanent transfer to the Department of Corrections of any person 18 years or older who was prosecuted under the provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and sentenced under the provisions of this Act pursuant to Section 2-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-8-6 of this Act. The Director of Juvenile Justice or his designee shall be governed by the following factors in determining whether to authorize the permanent transfer of the person to the Department of Corrections:

1. The nature of the offense for which the person was found guilty and the length of the sentence the person has to serve and the record and previous history of the person.

2. The record of the person's adjustment within the Department of Juvenile Justice, including, but not limited to, reports from the person's counselor, any escapes, attempted escapes or violent or disruptive conduct on the part of the person, any tickets received by the person, summaries of classes attended by the person, and any record of work performed by the person while in the institution.

3. The relative maturity of the person based upon the physical, psychological and emotional development of the person.

4. The record of the rehabilitative progress of the person and an assessment of the vocational potential of the person.

5. An assessment of the necessity for transfer of the person, including, but not limited to, the availability of space within the Department of Corrections, the disciplinary and security problem which the person has presented to the Department of Juvenile Justice and the practicability of maintaining the person in a juvenile facility, whether resources have been exhausted within the Department of Juvenile Justice, the availability of rehabilitative and vocational programs within the Department of Corrections, and the anticipated ability of the person to adjust to confinement within an adult institution based upon the person's physical size and maturity.

(Source: P.A. 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-6)

Sec. 5-8-6. Place of Confinement.

(a) Offenders sentenced to a term of imprisonment for a felony shall be committed to the penitentiary system of the Department of Corrections. However, such sentence shall not limit the powers of the Department of Children and Family Services in relation to any child under the age of one year in the sole custody of a person so sentenced, nor in relation to any child delivered by a female so sentenced while she is so confined as a consequence of such sentence. A person sentenced for a felony may be assigned by the Department of Corrections to any of its institutions, facilities or programs.

(b) Offenders sentenced to a term of imprisonment for less than one year shall be committed to the custody of the sheriff. A person committed to the Department of Corrections, prior to July 14, 1983, for less than one year may be assigned by the Department to any of its institutions, facilities or programs.

(c) All offenders under 18 17 years of age when sentenced to imprisonment shall be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice and the court in its order of commitment shall set a definite term. Such order of commitment shall be the sentence of the court which may be amended by the court while jurisdiction is retained; and such sentence shall apply whenever the offender sentenced is in the control and custody of the Department of Corrections. The provisions of Section 3-3-3 shall be a part of such commitment as fully as though written in the order of commitment. The place of confinement for sentences imposed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly are not affected or abated by this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. The committing court shall retain jurisdiction of the subject matter and the person until he or she reaches the age of 21 unless earlier discharged. However, the Department of Juvenile Justice shall, after a juvenile has reached 17 years of age, petition the court to conduct a hearing pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 3-10-7 of this Code.

(d) No defendant shall be committed to the Department of Corrections for the recovery of a fine or costs.

(e) When a court sentences a defendant to a term of imprisonment concurrent with a previous and unexpired sentence of imprisonment imposed by any district court of the United States, it may commit the offender to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States. The Attorney General of the United States, or the authorized representative of the Attorney General of the United States, shall be furnished with the warrant of commitment from the court imposing sentence, which warrant of commitment shall provide that, when the offender is released from federal confinement, whether by parole or by termination of sentence, the offender shall be transferred by the Sheriff of the committing county to the Department of Corrections. The court shall cause the Department to be notified of such sentence at the time of commitment and to be provided with copies of all records regarding the sentence.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8A-3)

Sec. 5-8A-3. Application.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (d), a person charged with or convicted of an excluded offense may not be placed in an electronic home detention program, except for bond pending trial or appeal or while on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.

(b) A person serving a sentence for a conviction of a Class 1 felony, other than an excluded offense, may be placed in an electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 90 days of incarceration.

(c) A person serving a sentence for a conviction of a Class X felony, other than an excluded offense, may be placed in an electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 90 days of incarceration, provided that the person was sentenced on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993 and provided that the court has not prohibited the program for the person in the sentencing order.

(d) A person serving a sentence for conviction of an offense other than for predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse, may be placed in an electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 12 months of incarceration, provided that (i) the person is 55 years of age or older; (ii) the person is serving a determinate sentence; (iii) the person has served at least 25% of the sentenced prison term; and (iv) placement in an electronic home detention program is approved by the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(e) A person serving a sentence for conviction of a Class 2, 3 or 4 felony offense which is not an excluded offense may be placed in an electronic home detention program pursuant to Department administrative directives.

(f) Applications for electronic home detention may include the following:

(1) pretrial or pre-adjudicatory detention;

(2) probation;

(3) conditional discharge;

(4) periodic imprisonment;

(5) parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release;

(6) work release;

(7) furlough; or

(8) post-trial incarceration.

(g) A person convicted of an offense described in clause (4) or (5) of subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code shall be placed in an electronic home detention program for at least the first 2 years of the person's mandatory supervised release term.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8A-5)

Sec. 5-8A-5. Consent of the participant. Before entering an order for commitment for electronic home detention, the supervising authority shall inform the participant and other persons residing in the home of the nature and extent of the approved electronic monitoring devices by doing the following:

(A) Securing the written consent of the participant in the program to comply with the rules and regulations of the program as stipulated in subsections (A) through (I) of Section 5-8A-4.

(B) Where possible, securing the written consent of other persons residing in the home of the participant, including the person in whose name the telephone is registered, at the time of the order or commitment for electronic home detention is entered and acknowledge the nature and extent of approved electronic monitoring devices.

(C) Insure that the approved electronic devices be minimally intrusive upon the privacy of the participant and other persons residing in the home while remaining in compliance with subsections (B) through (D) of Section 5-8A-4.

(D) This Section does not apply to persons subject to Electronic Home Monitoring as a term or condition of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-7)

Sec. 5-8A-7. Domestic violence surveillance program. If the Prisoner Review Board, Department of Corrections, Department of Juvenile Justice, or court (the supervising authority) orders electronic surveillance as a condition of parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, early release, probation, or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection or as a condition of bail for a person charged with a violation of an order of protection, the supervising authority shall use the best available global positioning technology to track domestic violence offenders. Best available technology must have real-time and interactive capabilities that facilitate the following objectives: (1) immediate notification to the supervising authority of a breach of a court ordered exclusion zone; (2) notification of the breach to the offender; and (3) communication between the supervising authority, law enforcement, and the victim, regarding the breach.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 40. The Open Parole Hearings Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 10, 15, and 20 as follows:

(730 ILCS 105/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1655)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Applicant" means an inmate who is being considered for parole or aftercare release by the Prisoner Review Board.

(a-1) "Aftercare releasee" means a person released from the Department of Juvenile Justice on aftercare release subject to aftercare revocation proceedings.

(b) "Board" means the Prisoner Review Board as established in Section 3-3-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(c) "Parolee" means a person subject to parole revocation proceedings.

(d) "Parole or aftercare release hearing" means the formal hearing and determination of an inmate being considered for release from incarceration on parole community supervision.

(e) "Parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release revocation hearing" means the formal hearing and determination of allegations that a parolee, aftercare releasee, or mandatory supervised releasee has violated the conditions of his or her release agreement.

(f) "Victim" means a victim or witness of a violent crime as defined in subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act, or any person legally related to the victim by blood, marriage, adoption, or guardianship, or any friend of the victim, or any concerned citizen.

(g) "Violent crime" means a crime defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-299, eff. 8-11-11; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 105/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 1660)

Sec. 10. Victim's statements.

(a) Upon request of the victim, the State's Attorney shall forward a copy of any statement presented at the time of trial to the Prisoner Review Board to be considered at the time of a parole or aftercare release hearing.

(b) The victim may enter a statement either oral, written, on video tape, or other electronic means in the form and manner described by the Prisoner Review Board to be considered at the time of a parole or aftercare release consideration hearing.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 105/15) (from Ch. 38, par. 1665)

Sec. 15. Open hearings.

(a) The Board may restrict the number of individuals allowed to attend parole or aftercare release, or parole or aftercare release revocation hearings in accordance with physical limitations, security requirements of the hearing facilities or those giving repetitive or cumulative testimony. The Board may also restrict attendance at an aftercare release or aftercare release revocation hearing in order to protect the confidentiality of the youth.

(b) The Board may deny admission or continued attendance at parole or aftercare release hearings, or parole or aftercare release revocation hearings to individuals who:

(1) threaten or present danger to the security of the institution in which the hearing is being held;

(2) threaten or present a danger to other attendees or participants; or

(3) disrupt the hearing.

(c) Upon formal action of a majority of the Board members present, the Board may close parole or aftercare release hearings and parole or aftercare release revocation hearings in order to:

(1) deliberate upon the oral testimony and any other relevant information received from applicants, parolees, releasees, victims, or others; or

(2) provide applicants, releasees, and parolees the opportunity to challenge information other than that which if the person's identity were to be exposed would possibly subject them to bodily harm or death, which they believe detrimental to their parole or aftercare release determination hearing or revocation proceedings.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 105/20) (from Ch. 38, par. 1670)

Sec. 20. Finality of Board decisions. A Board decision concerning parole or aftercare release, or parole or aftercare release revocation shall be final at the time the decision is delivered to the inmate, subject to any rehearing granted under Board rules.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)".