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Public Act 101-0048 |
HB1471 Enrolled | LRB101 06784 LNS 51811 b |
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AN ACT concerning civil law.
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Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
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represented in the General Assembly:
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Article 1. General Provisions and Definitions. |
Section 101. Short title. This Act may be cited as the |
Illinois Trust Code. |
Section 102. Scope. Except as otherwise provided, this Code |
applies to express trusts, charitable or noncharitable, and |
trusts created pursuant to a statute, judgment, or decree that |
requires the trust to be administered in the manner of an |
express trust. This Code does not apply to any:
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(1) land trust;
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(2) voting trust;
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(3) security instrument such as a trust deed or |
mortgage;
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(4) liquidation trust;
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(5) escrow;
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(6) instrument under which a nominee, custodian for |
property, or paying or receiving agent is appointed;
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(7) trust created by a deposit arrangement in a banking |
or savings
institution, commonly known as a "Totten trust" |
unless in the trust instrument any of the provisions of |
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this Code are made applicable by specific reference; or
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(8) Grain Indemnity Trust Account or any other trust |
created under the
Grain Code.
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Section 103. Definitions. In this Code: |
(1) "Action", with respect to an act of a trustee, includes |
a failure to act.
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(2) "Ascertainable standard" means a standard relating to |
an individual's health, education, support, or maintenance |
within the meaning of Section 2041(b)(1)(A) or 2514(c)(1) of |
the Internal Revenue Code and any applicable regulations.
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(3) "Beneficiary" means a person that:
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(A) has a present or future beneficial interest in a |
trust, vested or contingent, assuming nonexercise of |
powers of appointment;
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(B) in a capacity other than that of trustee, holds a |
power of appointment over trust property; or
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(C) is an identified charitable organization that will |
or may receive distributions under the terms of the trust.
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(4) "Charitable interest" means an interest in a trust |
that:
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(A) is held by an identified charitable organization |
and makes the organization a qualified beneficiary;
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(B) benefits only charitable organizations and, if the |
interest were held by an identified charitable |
organization, would make the organization a qualified |
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beneficiary; or
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(C) is held solely for charitable purposes and, if the |
interest were held by an identified charitable |
organization, would make the organization a qualified |
beneficiary. |
(5) "Charitable organization" means:
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(A) a person, other than an individual, organized and |
operated exclusively for charitable purposes; or
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(B) a government or governmental subdivision, agency, |
or instrumentality, to the extent it holds funds |
exclusively for a charitable purpose.
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(6) "Charitable purpose" means the relief of poverty, the |
advancement of education or religion, the promotion of health, |
municipal or other governmental purpose, or another purpose the |
achievement of which is beneficial to the community.
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(7) "Charitable trust" means a trust, or portion of a |
trust, created for a charitable purpose.
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(8) "Community property" means all personal property, |
wherever situated, that was acquired as or became, and |
remained, community property under the laws of another |
jurisdiction, and all real property situated in another |
jurisdiction that is community property under the laws of that |
jurisdiction.
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(9) "Current beneficiary" means a beneficiary that on the |
date the beneficiary's qualification is determined is a |
distributee or permissible distributee of trust income or |
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principal. The term "current beneficiary" includes the holder |
of a presently exercisable general power of appointment but |
does not include a person who is a beneficiary only because the |
person holds any other power of appointment.
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(10) "Directing party" means any investment trust advisor, |
distribution trust advisor, or trust protector.
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(11) "Donor", with reference to a power of appointment, |
means a person that creates a power of appointment.
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(12) "Environmental law" means a federal, state, or local |
law, rule, regulation, or ordinance relating to protection of |
the environment.
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(13) "General power of appointment" means a power of |
appointment exercisable in favor of a powerholder, the |
powerholder's estate, a creditor of the powerholder, or a |
creditor of the powerholder's estate.
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(14) "Guardian of the estate" means a person appointed by a |
court to administer the estate of a minor or adult individual.
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(15) "Guardian of the person" means a person appointed by a |
court to make decisions regarding the support, care, education, |
health, and welfare of a minor or adult individual.
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(16) "Incapacitated" or "incapacity" means the inability |
of an individual to manage property or business affairs because |
the individual is a minor, adjudicated incompetent, has an |
impairment in the ability to receive and evaluate information |
or make or communicate decisions even with the use of |
technological assistance; or
is at a location that is unknown |
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and not reasonably ascertainable. Without limiting the ways in |
which incapacity may be established, an individual is |
incapacitated if:
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(i) a plenary guardian has been appointed for the |
individual under subsection (c) of Section 11a-12 of the |
Probate Act of 1975;
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(ii) a limited guardian has been appointed for the |
individual under subsection (b) of Section 11a-12 of the |
Probate Act of 1975 and the court has found that the |
individual lacks testamentary capacity; or |
(iii) the individual was examined by a licensed |
physician who determined that the individual was |
incapacitated and the physician made a signed written |
record of the physician's determination within 90 days |
after the examination and no licensed physician |
subsequently made a signed written record of the |
physician's determination that the individual was not |
incapacitated within 90 days after examining the |
individual. |
(17) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue |
Code of 1986 as amended from time to time and includes |
corresponding provisions of any subsequent federal tax law.
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(18) "Interested persons" means: (A) the trustee; and (B) |
all beneficiaries, or their respective representatives |
determined after giving effect to the provisions of Article 3, |
whose consent or joinder would be required in order to achieve |
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a binding settlement were the settlement to be approved by the |
court. "Interested persons" includes a trust advisor, |
investment advisor, distribution advisor, trust protector, or |
other holder, or committee of holders, of fiduciary or |
nonfiduciary powers, if the person then holds powers material |
to a particular question or dispute to be resolved or affected |
by a nonjudicial settlement in accordance with Section 111 or |
by a judicial proceeding.
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(19) "Interests of the beneficiaries" means the beneficial |
interests provided in the trust instrument.
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(20) "Jurisdiction", with respect to a geographic area, |
includes a State or country.
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(21) "Legal capacity" means that the person is not |
incapacitated.
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(22) "Nongeneral power of appointment" means a power of |
appointment that is not a general power of appointment.
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(23) "Person" means an individual, estate, business or |
nonprofit entity, public corporation, government or |
governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, or other |
legal entity.
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(24) "Power of appointment" means a power that enables a |
powerholder acting in a nonfiduciary capacity to designate a |
recipient of an ownership interest in or another power of |
appointment over the appointive property. The term "power of |
appointment" does not include a power of attorney.
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(25) "Power of withdrawal" means a presently exercisable |
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general power of appointment other than a power: |
(A) exercisable by the powerholder as trustee that is |
limited by an ascertainable standard; or |
(B) exercisable by another person only upon consent of |
the trustee or a person holding an adverse interest.
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(26) "Powerholder" means a person in which a donor creates |
a power of appointment.
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(27) "Presently exercisable power of appointment" means a |
power of appointment exercisable by the powerholder at the |
relevant time. The term "presently exercisable power of |
appointment": |
(A) includes a power of appointment exercisable only |
after the occurrence of a specified event, the satisfaction |
of an ascertainable standard, or the passage of a specified |
time only after:
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(i) the occurrence of the specified event;
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(ii) the satisfaction of the ascertainable |
standard; or
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(iii) the passage of the specified time; and
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(B) does not include a power exercisable only at the |
powerholder's death. |
(28) "Presumptive remainder beneficiary" means a |
beneficiary of a trust, as of the date of determination and |
assuming nonexercise of all powers of appointment, who either: |
(A) would be eligible to receive a distribution of income or |
principal if the trust terminated on that date; or (B) would be |
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eligible to receive a distribution of income or principal if |
the interests of all beneficiaries currently eligible to |
receive income or principal from the trust ended on that date |
without causing the trust to terminate.
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(29) "Property" means anything that may be the subject of |
ownership, whether real or personal, legal or equitable, or any |
interest therein.
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(30) "Qualified beneficiary" means a beneficiary who, on |
the date the beneficiary's qualification is determined and |
assuming nonexercise of powers of appointment:
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(A) is a distributee or permissible distributee of |
trust income or principal;
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(B) would be a distributee or permissible distributee |
of trust income or principal if the interests of the |
distributees described in subparagraph (A) terminated on |
that date without causing the trust to terminate; or
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(C) would be a distributee or permissible distributee |
of trust income or principal if the trust terminated on |
that date.
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(31) "Revocable", as applied to a trust, means revocable by |
the settlor without the consent of the trustee or a person |
holding an adverse interest. A revocable trust is deemed |
revocable during the settlor's lifetime.
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(32) "Settlor", except as otherwise provided in Sections |
113 and 1225, means a person, including a testator, who |
creates, or contributes property to, a trust. If more than one |
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person creates or contributes property to a trust, each person |
is a settlor of the portion of the trust property attributable |
to that person's contribution except to the extent another |
person has the power to revoke or withdraw that portion.
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(33) "Sign" means, with present intent to authenticate or |
adopt a record: |
(A) to execute or adopt a tangible symbol; or
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(B) to attach to or logically associate with the record |
an electronic symbol, sound, or process.
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(34) "Spendthrift provision" means a term of a trust that |
restrains both voluntary and involuntary transfer of a |
beneficiary's interest. |
(35) "State" means a State of the United States, the |
District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin |
Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the |
jurisdiction of the United States. The term "state" includes an |
Indian tribe or band recognized by federal law or formally |
acknowledged by a state.
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(36) "Terms of the trust" means: |
(A) except as otherwise provided in paragraph (B), the |
manifestation of the settlor's intent regarding a trust's |
provisions as: |
(i) expressed in the trust instrument; or |
(ii) established by other evidence that would be |
admissible in a judicial proceeding; or |
(B) the trust's provisions as established, determined, |
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or modified by: |
(i) a trustee or other person in accordance with |
applicable law; |
(ii) a court order; or |
(iii) a nonjudicial settlement agreement under |
Section 111. |
(37) "Trust" means a trust created by will, deed, |
agreement, declaration, or other written instrument.
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(38) "Trust accounting" means one or more written |
communications from the trustee with respect to the accounting |
year that describe: (A) the trust property, liabilities, |
receipts, and disbursements, including the amount of the |
trustee's compensation; (B) the value of the trust assets on |
hand at the close of the accounting period, to the extent |
feasible; and (C) all other material facts related to the |
trustee's administration of the trust. |
(39) "Trust instrument" means the written instrument |
stating the terms of a trust, including any amendment, any |
court order or nonjudicial settlement agreement establishing, |
construing, or modifying the terms of the trust in accordance |
with Section 111, Sections 410 through 416, or other applicable |
law, and any additional trust instrument under Article 12.
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(40) "Trustee" includes an original, additional, and |
successor trustee, and a co-trustee.
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(41) "Unascertainable beneficiary" means a beneficiary |
whose identity is uncertain or not reasonably ascertainable.
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Section 104. Knowledge. |
(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), a person has |
knowledge of a fact if the person:
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(1) has actual knowledge of it;
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(2) has received a notice or notification of it; or
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(3) from all the facts and circumstances known to the |
person at the time in question, has reason to know it.
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(b) An organization that conducts activities through |
employees has notice or knowledge of a fact involving a trust |
only from the time the information was received by an employee |
having responsibility to act for the trust, or would have been |
brought to the employee's attention if the organization had |
exercised reasonable diligence. An organization exercises |
reasonable diligence if it maintains reasonable routines for |
communicating significant information to the employee having |
responsibility to act for the trust and there is reasonable |
compliance with the routines. Reasonable diligence does not |
require an employee of the organization to communicate |
information unless the communication is part of the |
individual's regular duties or the individual knows a matter |
involving the trust would be materially affected by the |
information.
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Section 105. Default and mandatory rules. |
(a) The trust instrument may specify the rights, powers, |
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duties, limitations, and immunities applicable to the trustee, |
beneficiary, and others and those terms, if not otherwise |
contrary to law, shall control, except to the extent |
specifically provided otherwise in this Section. The |
provisions of this Code apply to the trust to the extent that |
they are not inconsistent with specific terms of the trust.
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(b) Specific terms of the trust prevail over any provision |
of this Code except:
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(1) the requirements for creating a trust;
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(2) the duty of a trustee to act in good faith;
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(3) the requirement that a trust have a purpose that is |
lawful and not contrary to public policy;
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(4) the rules governing designated representatives as |
provided in Section 307;
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(5) the 21-year limitation contained in subsection (a) |
of Section 409;
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(6) the power of the court to modify or terminate a |
trust under Sections 411 through 417;
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(7) the effect of a spendthrift provision and the |
rights of certain creditors and assignees to reach a trust |
as provided in Article 5;
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(8) the requirement under subsection (e) of Section 602 |
that an agent under a power of attorney must have express |
authorization in the agency to exercise a settlor's powers |
with respect to a revocable trust;
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(9) the power of the court under subsection (b) of |
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Section 708 to adjust a trustee's compensation specified in |
the trust instrument that is unreasonably low or high;
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(10) for trusts becoming irrevocable after the |
effective date of this Code, the trustee's duty under |
paragraph (b)(1) of Section 813.1 to provide information to |
the qualified beneficiaries;
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(11) for trusts becoming irrevocable after the |
effective date of this Code, the trustee's duty under |
paragraph (b)(2) of Section 813.1 to provide accountings to |
the current beneficiaries of the trust;
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(12) for trusts becoming irrevocable after the |
effective date of this Code, the trustee's duty under |
paragraph (b)(4) of Section 813.1 to provide accountings to |
beneficiaries receiving a distribution of the residue of |
the trust upon a trust's termination;
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(13) the effect of an exculpatory term under Section |
1008;
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(14) the rights under Sections 1010 through 1013 of a |
person other than a trustee or beneficiary; and
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(15) the power of the court to take such action and |
exercise such jurisdiction as may be necessary in the |
interests of equity.
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Section 106. Common law of trusts; principles of equity. |
The common law of trusts and principles of equity supplement |
this Code, except to the extent modified by this Code or |
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another statute of this State. |
Section 107. Governing law. |
(a) The meaning and effect of a trust instrument are |
determined by:
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(1) the law of the jurisdiction designated in the trust |
instrument; or
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(2) in the absence of a designation in the trust |
instrument, the law of the jurisdiction having the most |
significant relationship to the matter at issue.
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(b) Except as otherwise expressly provided by the trust |
instrument or by court order, the laws of this State govern the |
administration of a trust while the trust is administered in |
this State.
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Section 108. Principal place of administration. |
(a) Without precluding other means for establishing a |
sufficient connection with the designated jurisdiction, the |
terms of a trust designating the principal place of |
administration are valid and controlling if:
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(1) a trustee's principal place of business is located |
in or a trustee is a resident of the designated |
jurisdiction; or
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(2) all or part of the administration occurs in the |
designated jurisdiction.
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(b) A trustee is under a continuing duty to administer the |
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trust at a place appropriate to its purposes, its |
administration, and the interests of the beneficiaries. |
(c) Without precluding the right of the court to order, |
approve, or disapprove a transfer, the trustee, in furtherance |
of the duty prescribed by subsection (b), may transfer the |
trust's principal place of administration to another State or |
to a jurisdiction outside of the United States. |
(d) The trustee shall notify the qualified beneficiaries of |
a proposed transfer of a trust's principal place of |
administration not less than 60 days before initiating the |
transfer. The notice of proposed transfer must include: |
(1) the name of the jurisdiction to which the principal |
place of administration is to be transferred; |
(2) the address and telephone number at the new |
location at which the trustee can be contacted; |
(3) an explanation of the reasons for the proposed |
transfer; |
(4) the date on which the proposed transfer is |
anticipated to occur; and |
(5) the date, not less than 60 days after the giving of |
the notice, by which the qualified beneficiary must notify |
the trustee of an objection to the proposed transfer. |
(e) The authority of a trustee under this Section to |
transfer a trust's principal place of administration |
terminates if a qualified beneficiary notifies the trustee of |
an objection to the proposed transfer on or before the date |
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specified in the notice. |
(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the |
trustee has no duty to inform the beneficiaries, or any other |
interested party, about the availability of this Section and |
further has no duty to review the trust instrument to determine |
whether any action should be taken under this Section unless |
requested to do so by a qualified beneficiary. |
(g) In connection with a transfer of the trust's principal |
place of administration, the trustee may transfer some or all |
of the trust property to a successor trustee designated in the |
terms of the trust or appointed pursuant to Section 704.
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Section 109. Methods and waiver of notice. |
(a) Notice to a person under this Code or the sending of a |
document to a person under this Code must be accomplished in a |
manner reasonably suitable under the circumstances and likely |
to result in receipt of the notice or document. Permissible |
methods of notice or for sending a document include first-class |
mail, personal delivery, delivery to the person's last known |
place of residence or place of business, or a properly directed |
electronic message. |
(b) Notice otherwise required under this Code or a document |
otherwise required to be sent under this Code need not be |
provided to a person whose identity or location is unknown to |
and not reasonably ascertainable by the trustee.
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(c) Notice under this Code or the sending of a document |
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under this Code may be waived by the person to be notified or |
sent the document.
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(d) Notice of a judicial proceeding must be given as |
provided in the applicable rules of civil procedure.
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(e) Subject to subsection (d), receipt by a beneficiary or |
other person of a trustee's notice, account, or other report is |
presumed if the trustee has reasonable procedures in place |
requiring the mailing or delivery of the notice, account, or |
report to the beneficiary or other person. This presumption |
applies to the mailing or delivery of a notice, account, or |
other report, including any communication required in writing, |
by electronic means or the provision of access to the |
information by electronic means so long as the beneficiary or |
other person has agreed to receive the information by |
electronic delivery or access.
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Section 110. Others treated as qualified beneficiaries. |
(a) A person appointed to enforce a trust created for the |
care of an animal or another noncharitable purpose as provided |
in Section 408 or 409 has the rights of a qualified beneficiary |
under this Code.
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(b) The Attorney General has the rights of a qualified |
beneficiary with respect to a charitable trust having its |
principal place of administration in this State.
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Section 111. Nonjudicial settlement agreements. |
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(a) Interested persons, or their respective |
representatives determined after giving effect to Article 3, |
may enter into a binding nonjudicial settlement agreement with |
respect to any matter involving a trust as provided in this |
Section.
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(b) The following matters may be resolved by a nonjudicial |
settlement agreement:
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(1) Validity, interpretation, or construction of the |
terms of the trust.
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(2) Approval of a trustee's report or accounting.
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(3) Exercise or nonexercise of any power by a trustee.
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(4) The grant to a trustee of any necessary or |
desirable administrative power if the grant does not |
conflict with a clear material purpose of the trust.
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(5) Questions relating to property or an interest in |
property held by the trust if the resolution does not |
conflict with a clear material purpose of the trust.
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(6) Removal, appointment, or removal and appointment |
of a trustee, trust advisor, investment advisor, |
distribution advisor, trust protector, or other holder, or |
committee of holders, of fiduciary or nonfiduciary powers, |
including without limitation designation of a plan of |
succession or procedure to determine successors to any such |
office.
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(7) Determination of a trustee's or other fiduciary's |
compensation.
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(8) Transfer of a trust's principal place of |
administration, including, without limitation, to change |
the law governing administration of the trust.
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(9) Liability or indemnification of a trustee for an |
action relating to the trust.
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(10) Resolution of bona fide disputes related to trust |
administration, investment, distribution, or other |
matters.
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(11) Modification of the terms of the trust pertaining |
to the administration of the trust.
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(12) Determining whether the aggregate interests of |
each beneficiary in severed trusts are substantially |
equivalent to the beneficiary's interests in the trusts |
before severance.
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(13) Termination of the trust, except that court |
approval of the termination must be obtained in accordance |
with subsection (d), and the court must find that |
continuance of the trust is not necessary to achieve any |
clear material purpose of the trust. The court shall |
consider spendthrift provisions as a factor in making a |
decision under this subsection, but a spendthrift |
provision is not necessarily a material purpose of a trust, |
and the court is not precluded from modifying or |
terminating a trust because the trust instrument contains |
spendthrift provisions. Upon termination, the court shall |
order the distribution of the trust property as agreed by |
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the parties to the agreement, or if the parties cannot |
agree, then as the court determines is equitable and |
consistent with the purposes of the trust.
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(c) If a trust contains a charitable interest, the parties |
to any proposed nonjudicial settlement agreement affecting the |
trust shall deliver to the Attorney General written notice of |
the proposed agreement at least 60 days before its effective |
date. The Bureau is not required to take action, but if it |
objects in a writing delivered to one or more of the parties |
before the proposed effective date, the agreement shall not |
take effect unless the parties obtain court approval.
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(d) Any beneficiary or other interested person may request |
the court to approve any part or all of a nonjudicial |
settlement agreement, including, without limitation, whether |
any representation is adequate and without material conflict of |
interest, if the petition for approval is filed within 60 days |
after the effective date of the agreement.
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(e) An agreement entered into in accordance with this |
Section, or a judicial proceeding pursued in accordance with |
this Section, is final and binding on the trustee, on all |
beneficiaries of the trust, both current and future, and on all |
other interested persons as if ordered by a court with |
competent jurisdiction over the trust, the trust property, and |
all parties in interest.
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(f) In the trustee's sole discretion, the trustee may, but |
is not required to, obtain and rely upon an opinion of counsel |
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on any matter relevant to this Section, including, without |
limitation:
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(1) if required by this Section, that the agreement |
proposed to be made in accordance with this Section does |
not conflict with a clear material purpose of the trust;
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(2) in the case of a trust termination, that |
continuance of the trust is not necessary to achieve any |
clear material purpose of the trust;
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(3) that there is no material conflict of interest |
between a representative and the person represented with |
respect to the particular question or dispute; and
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(4) that the representative and the person represented |
have substantially similar interests with respect to the |
particular question or dispute.
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(g) This Section shall be construed as pertaining to the |
administration of a trust and shall be available to any trust |
that is administered in this State or that is governed by |
Illinois law with respect to the meaning and effect of its |
terms, except to the extent the trust instrument expressly |
prohibits the use of this Section by specific reference to this |
Section or a prior corresponding law. A provision in the trust |
instrument in the form: "Neither the provisions of Section 111 |
of the Illinois Trust Code nor any corresponding provision of |
future law may be used in the administration of this trust", or |
a similar provision demonstrating that intent, is sufficient to |
preclude the use of this Section.
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Section 112. Rules of construction. The rules of |
construction that apply in this State to the interpretation of |
wills and the disposition of property by will also apply as |
appropriate to the interpretation of the trust instrument and |
the disposition of the trust property. This Code shall be |
liberally construed and the rule that statutes in derogation of |
the common law shall be strictly construed does not apply. |
Section 113. Insurable interest of trustee. |
(a) A trustee of a trust has an insurable interest in the |
life of an individual insured under a life insurance policy |
that is owned by the trustee of the trust acting in a fiduciary |
capacity or that designates the trust itself as the owner if, |
on the date the policy is issued:
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(1) the insured is:
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(A) a settlor or beneficiary of the trust; or
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(B) an individual in whom a settlor of the trust |
has, or would have had if living at the time the policy |
was issued, an insurable interest; and
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(2) the trustee determines the life insurance |
proceeds:
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(A) are for the benefit of one or more trust |
beneficiaries that have an insurable interest in the |
life of the insured; or
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(B) will carry out a purpose of the trust.
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(b) If a trustee of a trust would have an insurable |
interest in the life of an individual insured as described in |
this Section, then the insurable interest includes the joint |
lives of such an individual and his or her spouse.
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(c) Nothing in this Section limits or affects any provision |
of the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.
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Section 114. Gift to a deceased beneficiary under an inter |
vivos trust. |
(a) If a gift of a present or future interest is to a |
descendant of the settlor who dies before or after the settlor, |
the descendants of the deceased beneficiary living when the |
gift is to take effect in possession or enjoyment take per |
stirpes the gift so bequeathed.
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(b) If a gift of a present or future interest is to a class |
and any member of the class dies before or after the settlor, |
the members of the class living when the gift is to take effect |
in possession or enjoyment take the share or shares that the |
deceased member would have taken if he or she were then living, |
except that, if the deceased member of the class is a |
descendant of the settlor, the descendants of the deceased |
member then living shall take per stirpes the share or shares |
that the deceased member would have taken if he or she were |
then living.
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(c) Except as provided in subsections (a) and (b), if the |
gift is not to a descendant of the settlor or is not to a class |
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as provided in subsections (a) and (b) and if the beneficiary |
dies either before or after the settlor and before the gift is |
to take effect in possession or enjoyment, then the gift shall |
lapse. If the gift lapses by reason of the death of the |
beneficiary before the gift is to take effect in possession or |
enjoyment, then the gift so given shall be included in and pass |
as part of the residue of the trust under the trust. If the |
gift is or becomes part of the residue, the gift so bequeathed |
shall pass to and be taken by the beneficiaries remaining, if |
any, of the residue in proportions and upon trusts |
corresponding to their respective interests in the residue of |
the trust. Subsections (a) and (b) do not apply to a future |
interest that is or becomes indefeasibly vested at the |
settlor's death or at any time thereafter before it takes |
effect in possession or enjoyment. This Section applies on and |
after January 1, 2005 for any gifts to a deceased beneficiary |
under an inter vivos trust if the deceased beneficiary dies |
after January 1, 2005 and before the gift is to take effect in |
possession or enjoyment.
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Section 115. Transfer of real property to trust. The |
transfer of real property to a trust requires a transfer of |
legal title to the trustee evidenced by a written instrument of |
conveyance. |
Article 2. Judicial Proceedings. |
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Section 201. Role of court in administration of trusts. |
(a) The court may adjudicate any matter arising in the |
administration of a trust to the extent its jurisdiction is |
invoked by an interested person or as provided by law.
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(b) A trust is not subject to continuing judicial |
supervision unless ordered by the court.
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(c) A judicial proceeding involving a trust may relate to |
any matter involving the trust's administration, including a |
request for instructions.
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Section 202. Jurisdiction over trustee and beneficiary. |
(a) By accepting the trusteeship of a trust having its |
principal place of administration in this State or by moving |
the principal place of administration to this State, the |
trustee is subject to the jurisdiction of the courts of this |
State regarding any matter involving the trust.
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(b) With respect to their interests in the trust, the |
beneficiaries of a trust having its principal place of |
administration in this State are subject to the jurisdiction of |
the courts of this State regarding any matter involving the |
trust. By accepting a distribution from such a trust, the |
recipient personally submits to the jurisdiction of the courts |
of this State regarding any matter involving the trust.
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(c) Service of process upon any person who is subject to |
the jurisdiction of the courts of this State, as provided in |
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this Section, may be made by personally serving the summons |
upon the defendant outside this State, as provided in the Code |
of Civil Procedure, with the same force and effect as though |
summons had been personally served within this State.
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(d) This Section does not preclude other methods of |
obtaining jurisdiction over a trustee, beneficiary, or other |
person receiving property from the trust.
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Section 203. (Reserved). |
Section 204. Venue. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), venue |
for a judicial proceeding involving a trust is in the county of |
this State in which the trust's principal place of |
administration is or will be located and, if the trust is |
created by will and the estate is not yet closed, in the county |
in which the decedent's estate is being administered.
|
(b) If a trust has no trustee, venue for a judicial |
proceeding for the appointment of a trustee is proper in a |
county of this State in which a beneficiary resides, in a |
county in which any real or tangible trust property is located, |
and if the trust is created by will, in the county in which the |
decedent's estate was or is being administered. |
(c) At the election of the Attorney General, venue for a |
judicial proceeding involving a trust with a charitable |
interest is also proper in any county where the Attorney |
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General accepts and maintains the list of registrations under |
the Charitable Trust Act. |
Article 3. Representation. |
Section 301. Representation: basic effect. |
(a) Except as provided in Section 602 and subsection (c):
|
(1) Notice, information, accountings, or reports given |
to a person who may represent and bind another person under |
this Article have the same effect as if given directly to |
the person represented.
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(2) Actions, including, but not limited to, the |
execution of an agreement, taken by a person who may |
represent and bind another person under this Article are |
binding on the person represented to the same extent as if |
the actions had been taken by the person represented.
|
(b) Except as otherwise provided in Section 602, a person |
under this Article who represents a settlor who is |
incapacitated may, on the settlor's behalf: (i) receive notice, |
information, accountings, or reports; (ii) give a binding |
consent; or (iii) enter a binding agreement.
|
(c) A settlor may not represent and bind a beneficiary |
under this Article with respect to a nonjudicial settlement |
agreement under Section 111, the termination or modification of |
a trust under subsection (a) of Section 411, or an exercise of |
the decanting power under Article 12.
|
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(d) If pursuant to this Article a person may be represented |
by 2 or more representatives, then the representative who has |
legal capacity, in the following order of priority, shall |
represent and bind the person:
|
(1) a representative or guardian ad litem appointed by |
a court under Section 305;
|
(2) the holder of a power of appointment under Section |
302;
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(3) a designated representative under Section 307;
|
(4) a court-appointed guardian of the estate, or, if |
none, a court-appointed guardian of the person under |
subsection (b) of Section 303;
|
(5) an agent under a power of attorney for property |
under subsection (c) of Section 303;
|
(6) a parent of a person under subsection (d) of |
Section 303;
|
(7) another person having a substantially similar |
interest with respect to the particular question or dispute |
under subsection (a) of Section 304; and
|
(8) a representative under this Article for a person |
who has a substantially similar interest to a person who |
has a representative under subsection (b) of Section 304.
|
(e) A trustee is not liable for giving notice, information, |
accountings, or reports to a person who is represented by |
another person under this Article, and nothing in this Article |
prohibits the trustee from giving notice, information, |
|
accountings, or reports to the person represented.
|
Section 302. Representation by holders of certain powers. |
(a) The holder of a testamentary or a presently exercisable |
power of appointment that is: (1) a general power of |
appointment; or (2) exercisable in favor of all persons other |
than the powerholder, the powerholder's estate, a creditor of |
the powerholder, or a creditor of the powerholder's estate, may |
represent and bind all persons, including permissible |
appointees and takers in default, whose interests may be |
eliminated by the exercise or nonexercise of the power.
|
(b) To the extent there is no conflict of interest between |
a holder and the persons represented with respect to the |
particular question or dispute, the holder of a testamentary or |
presently exercisable power of appointment, other than a power |
described in subsection (a), may represent and bind all |
persons, including permissible appointees and takers in |
default, whose interests may be eliminated by the exercise or |
nonexercise of the power.
|
Section 303. Representation by others. |
(a) If all qualified beneficiaries of a trust either have |
legal capacity or have representatives under this Article who |
have legal capacity, an action taken by all qualified |
beneficiaries, in each case either by the beneficiary or by the |
beneficiary's representative, shall represent and bind all |
|
other beneficiaries who have a successor, contingent, future, |
or other interest in the trust.
|
(b) If a person is represented by a court-appointed |
guardian of the estate or, if none, guardian of the person, |
then the guardian may represent and bind the person.
|
(c) If an individual is incapacitated, an agent under a |
power of attorney for property who has authority to act with |
respect to the particular question or dispute and who does not |
have a material conflict of interest with respect to the |
particular question or dispute may represent and bind the |
principal. An agent is deemed to have authority under this |
subsection if the power of attorney grants the agent the power |
to settle claims and to exercise powers with respect to trusts |
and estates, even if the powers do not include powers to make a |
will, to revoke or amend a trust, or to require the trustee to |
pay income or principal.
|
(d) If a person is incapacitated, a parent of the person |
may represent and bind the person if there is no material |
conflict of interest between the represented person and either |
of the person's parents with respect to the particular question |
or dispute. If a disagreement arises between parents who |
otherwise qualify to represent a child in accordance with this |
subsection and who are seeking to represent the same child, the |
parent who is a lineal descendant of the settlor of the trust |
that is the subject of the representation is entitled to |
represent the child; or if none, the parent who is a |
|
beneficiary of the trust is entitled to represent the child.
|
Section 304. Representation by person having substantially |
identical interest. |
(a) To the extent there is no material conflict of interest |
between the representative and the represented beneficiary |
with respect to the particular question or dispute, a |
beneficiary who is incapacitated, unborn, or unascertainable |
may, for all purposes, be represented by and bound by another |
beneficiary having a substantially similar interest with |
respect to the particular question or dispute.
|
(b) A guardian, agent, or parent who is the representative |
for a beneficiary under subsection (b), (c), or (d) of Section |
303 may, for all purposes, represent and bind any other |
beneficiary who is incapacitated, unborn, or unascertainable |
and who has an interest, with respect to the particular |
question or dispute, that is substantially similar to the |
interest of the beneficiary represented by the representative, |
but only to the extent that there is no material conflict of |
interest between the beneficiary represented by the |
representative and the other beneficiary with respect to the |
particular question or dispute.
|
Section 305. Appointment of representative. |
(a) If the court determines that representation of an |
incapacitated, unborn, or unascertainable beneficiary might |
|
otherwise be inadequate, the court may appoint a representative |
for any nonjudicial matter to receive any notice, information, |
accounting, or report on behalf of the beneficiary and to |
represent and bind the beneficiary, or may appoint a guardian |
ad litem in any judicial proceeding to represent the interests |
of, bind, and approve any order or agreement on behalf of the |
beneficiary.
|
(b) A representative may act on behalf of the individual |
represented with respect to any matter arising under this Code, |
regardless of whether a judicial proceeding concerning the |
trust or estate is pending.
|
(c) If not precluded by a conflict of interest with respect |
to the particular question or dispute, a representative or |
guardian ad litem may be appointed to represent several persons |
or interests.
|
(d) In giving any consent or agreement, a representative or |
guardian ad litem may consider general family benefit accruing |
to the living members of the family of the person represented.
|
Section 306. Representation of charity. If a trust contains |
a charitable interest, the Attorney General may, in accordance |
with this Section, represent, bind, and act on behalf of the |
charitable interest with respect to any particular question or |
dispute, including without limitation representing the |
charitable interest in a nonjudicial settlement agreement |
under Section 111, in an agreement to convert a trust to a |
|
total return trust under Article 11, or in a distribution in |
further trust under Article 12. A charitable organization that |
is specifically named as beneficiary of a trust or otherwise |
has a beneficial interest in a trust may act for itself. |
Notwithstanding any other provision, nothing in this Section |
shall be construed to limit or affect the Attorney General's |
authority to file an action or take other steps as he or she |
deems advisable at any time to enforce or protect the general |
public interest as to a trust that provides a beneficial |
interest or expectancy for one or more charitable organizations |
or charitable purposes whether or not a specific charitable |
organization is named in the trust. This Section shall be |
construed as declarative of existing law and not as a new |
enactment. |
Section 307. Designated representative. |
(a) If specifically nominated in the trust instrument, one |
or more individuals with legal capacity may be designated to |
represent and bind an individual who is a qualified |
beneficiary. The trust instrument may also authorize any person |
or persons, other than a trustee of the trust, to designate one |
or more individuals with legal capacity to represent and bind |
an individual who is a qualified beneficiary. Any person so |
nominated or designated is referred to in this Section as a |
"designated representative".
|
(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a):
|
|
(1) A designated representative may not represent and |
bind a current beneficiary who is age 30 or older and is |
not incapacitated.
|
(2) A designated representative may not represent and |
bind a qualified beneficiary while the designated |
representative is serving as a trustee.
|
(3) Subject to paragraphs (1) and (2) of this |
subsection (b), a designated representative may not |
represent and bind a qualified beneficiary if the |
designated representative is also a qualified beneficiary |
of the trust, unless: |
(A) the designated representative was specifically |
nominated in the trust instrument; or |
(B) the designated representative is the qualified |
beneficiary's spouse or a grandparent or descendant of |
a grandparent of the qualified beneficiary or of the |
qualified beneficiary's spouse.
|
(c) Each designated representative is a fiduciary of the |
trust subject to the standards applicable to a trustee of a |
trust under applicable law.
|
(d) In no event may a designated representative be relieved |
or exonerated from the duty to act, or withhold from acting, in |
good faith and as the designated representative reasonably |
believes is in the best interest of the represented qualified |
beneficiary.
|
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Article 4. Creation, Validity, Modification, and Termination |
of Trust. |
Section 401. Methods of creating trust. A trust may be |
created by: |
(1) transfer of property to another person as trustee |
during the settlor's lifetime or by will or other |
disposition taking effect upon the settlor's death; |
(2) declaration by the owner of property that the owner |
holds identifiable property as trustee; or
|
(3) exercise of a power of appointment in favor of a |
trustee.
|
Section 402. Requirements for creation. |
(a) A trust is created only if:
|
(1) the settlor has capacity to create a trust;
|
(2) the settlor indicates an intention to create the |
trust;
|
(3) the trust has a definite beneficiary or is:
|
(A) a charitable trust;
|
(B) a trust for the care of an animal, as provided |
in Section 408; or
|
(C) a trust for a noncharitable purpose, as |
provided in Section 409;
|
(4) the trustee has duties to perform; and
|
(5) the same person is not the sole trustee and sole |
|
beneficiary.
|
(b) A beneficiary is definite if the beneficiary can be |
ascertained now or in the future, subject to any applicable |
rule against perpetuities.
|
(c) A power in a trustee to select a beneficiary from an |
indefinite class is valid. If the power is not exercised within |
a reasonable time, the power fails and the property subject to |
the power passes to the persons who would have taken the |
property had the power not been conferred.
|
Section 403. Trusts created in other jurisdictions. A trust |
not created by will is validly created if its creation complies |
with the law of the jurisdiction in which the trust instrument |
was executed, or the law of the jurisdiction in which, at the |
time of creation:
|
(1) the settlor was domiciled, had a place of abode, or |
was a national;
|
(2) a trustee was domiciled or had a place of business; |
or
|
(3) any trust property was located.
|
Section 404. Trust purposes. A trust may be created only to |
the extent its purposes are lawful and not contrary to public |
policy. |
Section 405. Charitable purposes; enforcement. |
|
(a) A charitable trust may be created for any charitable |
purpose.
|
(b) If the terms of a charitable trust do not indicate a |
particular charitable purpose or beneficiary and do not |
delegate to the trustee or others willing to exercise the |
authority to select one or more charitable purposes or |
beneficiaries, then the court may select one or more charitable |
purposes or beneficiaries. The selection must be consistent |
with the settlor's intention to the extent it can be |
ascertained.
|
(c) The settlor of a charitable trust, among others, may |
maintain a proceeding to enforce the trust.
|
Section 406. Creation of trust induced by fraud, duress, or |
undue influence. If the creation, amendment, or restatement of |
a trust is procured by fraud, duress, mistake, or undue |
influence, the trust or any part so procured is void. The |
remainder of the trust not procured by such means is valid if |
the remainder is not invalid for other reasons. If the |
revocation of a trust, or any part of the trust, is procured by |
fraud, duress, mistake, or undue influence, the revocation is |
void. |
Section 407. Evidence of oral trust. Except as required by |
a statute other than this Code, a trust need not be evidenced |
by a trust instrument, but the creation of an oral trust and |
|
its terms may be established only by clear and convincing |
evidence. |
Section 408. Trusts for domestic or pet animals. |
(a) A trust for the care of one or more designated domestic |
or pet animals is valid. The trust terminates when no living |
animal is covered by the trust. A trust instrument shall be |
liberally construed to bring the transfer within this Section, |
to presume against a merely precatory or honorary nature of its |
disposition, and to carry out the general intent of the |
transferor. Extrinsic evidence is admissible in determining |
the transferor's intent. |
(b) A trust for the care of one or more designated domestic |
or pet animals is subject to the following provisions:
|
(1) Except as expressly provided otherwise in the |
instrument creating the trust, no portion of the principal |
or income of the trust may be converted to the use of the |
trustee or to a use other than for the trust's purposes or |
for the benefit of a covered animal.
|
(2) Upon termination, the trustee shall transfer the |
unexpended trust property in the following order:
|
(A) as directed in the trust instrument;
|
(B) to the settlor, if then living;
|
(C) if there is no direction in the trust |
instrument and if the trust was created in a |
non-residuary clause in the transferor's will, then |
|
under the residuary clause in the transferor's will;
|
(D) to the transferor's heirs under Section 2-1 of |
the Probate Act of 1975.
|
(3) The intended use of the principal or income may be |
enforced by an individual designated for that purpose in |
the trust instrument or, if none, by an individual |
appointed by a court having jurisdiction of the matter and |
parties, upon petition to it by an individual.
|
(4) Except as ordered by the court or required by the |
trust instrument, no filing, report, registration, |
periodic accounting, separate maintenance of funds, |
appointment, or fee is required by reason of the existence |
of the fiduciary relationship of the trustee.
|
(5) The court may reduce the amount of the property |
transferred if it determines that the amount substantially |
exceeds the amount required for the intended use. The |
amount of the reduction, if any, passes as unexpended trust |
property under paragraph (2).
|
(6) If a trustee is not designated or no designated |
trustee is willing and able to serve, the court shall name |
a trustee. The court may order the transfer of the property |
to another trustee if the transfer is necessary to ensure |
that the intended use is carried out, and if a successor |
trustee is not designated in the trust instrument or if no |
designated successor trustee agrees to serve and is able to |
serve. The court may also make other orders and |
|
determinations as are advisable to carry out the intent of |
the transferor and the purpose of this Section.
|
(7) The trust is exempt from the operation of the |
common law rule against perpetuities.
|
Section 409. Noncharitable trust without ascertainable |
beneficiary.
|
(a) Except as otherwise provided in Section 408 or by |
another statute, a trust may be created for a noncharitable |
purpose without a definite or definitely ascertainable |
beneficiary or for a noncharitable but otherwise valid purpose |
to be selected by the trustee.
|
(b) The trust may not be enforced for more than 21 years. |
If the trust is still in existence after 21 years, the trust |
shall terminate. The unexpended trust property shall be |
distributed in the following order:
|
(1) as directed in the trust instrument;
|
(2) to the settlor, if then living;
|
(3) if the trust was created in a non-residuary clause |
in the settlor's will, then pursuant to the residuary |
clause in the settlor's will; |
(4) to the transferor's heirs under Section 2-1 of the |
Probate Act of 1975.
|
(c) A trust authorized by this Section may be enforced by a |
person appointed in the trust instrument or, if no person is so |
appointed, by a person appointed by the court.
|
|
(d) Property of a trust authorized by this Section may be |
applied only to its intended use, except to the extent the |
court determines that the value of the trust property exceeds |
the amount required for the intended use. Property not required |
for the intended use must be distributed as provided in |
subsection (b).
|
Section 410. Modification or termination of trust; |
proceedings for approval or disapproval. |
(a) In addition to the methods of termination prescribed by |
Sections 411 through 414, a trust terminates to the extent the |
trust is revoked or expires pursuant to the trust instrument, |
no purpose of the trust remains to be achieved, or the purposes |
of the trust have become unlawful, contrary to public policy, |
or impossible to achieve.
|
(b) A proceeding to approve or disapprove a proposed |
modification or termination under Sections 411 through 416, or |
trust combination or division under Section 417, may be |
commenced by a trustee or beneficiary or by the Attorney |
General for a trust with a charitable interest. The settlor of |
a charitable trust may maintain a proceeding to modify the |
trust under Section 413. |
Section 411. Modification or termination of noncharitable |
irrevocable trust by consent. |
(a) A noncharitable irrevocable trust may be terminated |
|
upon consent of all of the beneficiaries if the court concludes |
that continuance of the trust is not necessary to achieve any |
material purpose of the trust.
|
(b) A noncharitable irrevocable trust may be modified upon |
consent of all of the beneficiaries if the court concludes that |
modification is not inconsistent with any material purpose of |
the trust.
|
(c) The court shall consider spendthrift provisions as a |
factor in making a decision under this Section, but the court |
is not precluded from modifying or terminating a trust because |
the trust contains spendthrift provisions.
|
(d) Upon termination of a trust under subsection (a), the |
trustee shall distribute the trust property as agreed by the |
beneficiaries.
|
(e) If not all of the beneficiaries consent to a proposed |
modification or termination of the trust under subsection (a) |
or (b), the modification or termination may be approved by the |
court if the court is satisfied that:
|
(1) if all of the beneficiaries had consented, the |
trust could have been modified or terminated under this |
Section; and
|
(2) a beneficiary who does not consent is treated |
equitably and consistent with the purposes of the trust.
|
Section 412. Modification or termination because of |
unanticipated circumstances or inability to administer trust |
|
effectively. |
(a) The court may modify the administrative or dispositive |
terms of a trust or terminate the trust if, because of |
circumstances not anticipated by the settlor, modification or |
termination will further the purposes of the trust. To the |
extent practicable, the modification must be made in accordance |
with the settlor's probable intention.
|
(b) The court may modify the administrative terms of a |
trust if continuation of the trust on its existing terms would |
be impracticable or wasteful or impair the trust's |
administration.
|
(c) Upon termination of a trust under this Section, the |
court shall order the distribution of the trust property as |
agreed by the beneficiaries, or if the beneficiaries cannot |
agree, then as the court determines is equitable and consistent |
with the purposes of the trust. |
(d) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, if |
the trust contains a charitable interest, the modification |
cannot diminish the charitable interest or alter the charitable |
purpose, except as would be permitted under Section 413, and |
upon termination of a trust under this Section, any charitable |
distribution shall be made in a manner consistent with the |
settlor's charitable purpose as determined by the court. |
Section 413. Cy pres. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), if a |
|
particular charitable purpose becomes unlawful, impracticable, |
impossible to achieve, or wasteful:
|
(1) the trust does not fail, in whole or in part;
|
(2) the trust property does not revert to the settlor |
or the settlor's successors in interest; and
|
(3) the court may apply cy pres to modify or terminate |
the trust by directing that the trust property be applied |
or distributed, in whole or in part, in a manner consistent |
with the settlor's charitable purposes.
|
(b) A provision in the terms of a charitable trust that |
would result in distribution of the trust property to a |
noncharitable beneficiary prevails over the power of the court |
under subsection (a) to apply cy pres to modify or terminate |
the trust only if, when the provision takes effect:
|
(1) the trust property is to revert to the settlor and |
the settlor is still living; or
|
(2) fewer than 21 years have elapsed since the date of |
the trust's creation. |
Section 414. Modification or termination of uneconomic |
trust. |
(a) After notice to the qualified beneficiaries, the |
trustee of a trust consisting of trust property having a total |
value less than $100,000 may terminate the trust if the trustee |
concludes that the costs of continuing the trust will |
substantially impair accomplishment of the purpose of the |
|
trust.
|
(b) The court may modify or terminate a trust or remove the |
trustee and appoint a different trustee if it determines that |
the value of the trust property is insufficient to justify the |
cost of administration.
|
(c) Upon termination of a trust under this Section, the |
trustee shall distribute the trust property to the current |
beneficiaries in the proportions to which they are entitled to |
mandatory current distributions, or if their interests are |
indefinite, to the current beneficiaries per stirpes if they |
have a common ancestor, or if not, then in equal shares. The |
trustee shall give notice to the current beneficiaries at least |
30 days before the effective date of the termination.
|
(d) This Section does not apply to an easement for |
conservation or preservation.
|
(e) If a particular trustee is a current beneficiary of the |
trust or is legally obligated to a current beneficiary, then |
that particular trustee may not participate as a trustee in the |
exercise of this termination power; however, if the trust has |
one or more co-trustees who are not so disqualified from |
participating, the co-trustee or co-trustees may exercise this |
power.
|
(f) This Section does not apply to the extent that it would |
cause a trust otherwise qualifying for a federal or state tax |
benefit or other benefit not to qualify, nor does it apply to |
trusts for domestic or pet animals.
|
|
Section 415. Reformation to correct mistakes. The court may |
reform the terms of a trust, even if unambiguous, to conform |
the terms to the settlor's intention if it is proved by clear |
and convincing evidence what the settlor's intention was and |
that the terms of the trust were affected by a mistake of fact |
or law, whether in expression or inducement. |
Section 416. Modification to achieve settlor's tax |
objectives. To achieve the settlor's tax objectives, the court |
may modify the terms of a trust in a manner that is not |
contrary to the settlor's probable intention. The court may |
provide that the modification has retroactive effect. |
Section 417. Combination and division of trusts. |
(a) Subject to subsections (b), (c), and (d), after notice |
to the qualified beneficiaries, a trustee may:
|
(1) consolidate 2 or more trusts having substantially |
similar terms into a single trust;
|
(2) sever any trust estate on a fractional basis into 2 |
or more separate trusts; and
|
(3) segregate by allocation to a separate account or |
trust a specific amount or specific property.
|
(b) No consolidation, severance, or segregation may be made |
if the result impairs the rights of any beneficiary or |
adversely affects achievement of the material purposes of the |
|
subject trust or trusts.
|
(c) A severance or consolidation may be made for any reason |
including to reflect a partial disclaimer, to reflect |
differences in perpetuities periods, to reflect or result in |
differences in federal or state tax attributes, to satisfy any |
federal tax requirement or election, or to reduce potential |
generation-skipping transfer tax liability, and shall be made |
in a manner consistent with the rules governing disclaimers, |
federal tax attributes, requirements or elections, or any |
applicable federal or state tax rules or regulations.
|
(d) A separate account or trust created by severance or |
segregation:
|
(1) shall be treated as a separate trust for all |
purposes on and after the effective date of the severance |
or segregation; and
|
(2) shall be held on terms and conditions that are |
substantially equivalent to the terms of the trust from |
which it was severed or segregated so that the aggregate |
interests of each beneficiary in the several trusts are |
substantially equivalent to the beneficiary's interests in |
the trust before severance, except that any terms of the |
trust before severance that would affect the perpetuities |
period or qualification of the trust for any federal or |
state tax deduction, exclusion, election, exemption, or |
other special federal or state tax status must remain |
identical in each of the separate trusts created. |
|
(e) Income earned on a severed or segregated amount or |
property after severance or segregation occurs shall pass to |
the designated taker of the amount or property.
|
(f) In managing, investing, administering, and |
distributing the trust property of any separate account or |
trust and in making applicable federal or state tax elections, |
the trustee may consider the differences in federal or state |
tax attributes and all other factors the trustee believes |
pertinent and may make disproportionate distributions from the |
separate accounts or trusts.
|
Article 5. Creditor's Claims; Spendthrift and Discretionary |
Trusts. |
Section 501. Rights of beneficiary's creditor or assignee. |
Except as provided in Section 504, to the extent a |
beneficiary's interest is not subject to a spendthrift |
provision, the court may authorize a creditor or assignee of |
the beneficiary to reach the beneficiary's interest by |
attachment of present or future distributions to or for the |
benefit of the beneficiary or other means. The court may limit |
the award to such relief as is appropriate under the |
circumstances. |
Section 502. Spendthrift provision. |
(a) A spendthrift provision is valid only if it prohibits |
|
both voluntary and involuntary transfer of a beneficiary's |
interest.
|
(b) A term of a trust providing that the interest of a |
beneficiary is held subject to a "spendthrift trust", or words |
of similar import, is sufficient to restrain both voluntary and |
involuntary transfer of the beneficiary's interest.
|
(c) A beneficiary may not transfer an interest in a trust |
in violation of a valid spendthrift provision and, except as |
otherwise provided in this Article, a creditor or assignee of |
the beneficiary may not reach the interest or a distribution by |
the trustee before its receipt by the beneficiary.
|
(d) A valid spendthrift provision does not prevent the |
appointment of interests through the exercise of a power of |
appointment.
|
Section 503. Exceptions to spendthrift provision. |
(a) In this Section, "child" includes any person for whom |
an order or judgment for child support has been entered in this |
or another state.
|
(b) A spendthrift provision is unenforceable against:
|
(1) a beneficiary's child, spouse, or former spouse who |
has a judgment or court order against the beneficiary for |
child support obligations owed by the beneficiary as |
provided in the Income Withholding for Support Act, the |
Non-Support Punishment Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of |
2015, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage |
|
Act, and similar provisions of other Acts that provide for |
the support of a child;
|
(2) a judgment creditor who has provided services for |
the protection of a beneficiary's interest in the trust; |
and
|
(3) a claim of this State or the United States to the |
extent a statute of this State or federal law so provides.
|
(c) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection and in |
Section 504, a claimant against which a spendthrift provision |
cannot be enforced may obtain from a court an order attaching |
present or future distributions to or for the benefit of the |
beneficiary. The court may limit the award to such relief as is |
appropriate under the circumstances. Notwithstanding this |
subsection, the remedies provided in this subsection apply to a |
claim for unpaid child support obligations by a beneficiary's |
child, spouse, former spouse, judgment creditor, or claim |
described in subsection (b) only as a last resort upon an |
initial showing that traditional methods of enforcing the claim |
are insufficient.
|
Section 504. Discretionary distributions; effect of |
standard. |
(a) As used in this Section, "discretionary distribution" |
means a distribution that is subject to the trustee's |
discretion regardless of whether the discretion is expressed in |
the form of a standard of distribution and regardless of |
|
whether the trustee has abused the discretion. |
(b) Regardless of whether a trust contains a spendthrift |
provision, and regardless of whether the beneficiary is acting |
as trustee, if a trustee may make discretionary distributions |
to or for the benefit of a beneficiary, a creditor of the |
beneficiary, including a creditor described in subsection (b) |
of Section 503, may not:
|
(1) compel a distribution that is subject to the |
trustee's discretion; or
|
(2) obtain from a court an order attaching present or |
future distributions to or for the benefit of the |
beneficiary, except as provided in Section 2-1403 of the |
Code of Civil Procedure.
|
(c) If the trustee's discretion to make distributions for |
the trustee's own benefit is limited by an ascertainable |
standard, a creditor may not reach or compel distribution of |
the beneficial interest except to the extent the interest would |
be subject to the creditor's claim were the beneficiary not |
acting as trustee.
|
(d) This Section does not limit the right of a beneficiary |
to maintain a judicial proceeding against a trustee for an |
abuse of discretion or failure to comply with a standard for |
distribution.
|
Section 505. Creditor's claim against settlor. |
(a) Whether or not the terms of a trust contain a |
|
spendthrift provision, the following rules apply: |
(1) During the lifetime of the settlor, the property of |
a revocable trust is subject to claims of the settlor's |
creditors to the extent the property would not otherwise be |
exempt by law if owned directly by the settlor.
|
(2) With respect to an irrevocable trust, a creditor or |
assignee of the settlor may reach the maximum amount that |
can be distributed to or for the settlor's benefit. If a |
trust has more than one settlor, the amount the creditor or |
assignee of a particular settlor may reach may not exceed |
the settlor's interest in the portion of the trust |
attributable to that settlor's contribution.
|
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), the assets of an |
irrevocable trust may not be subject to the claims of an |
existing or subsequent creditor or assignee of the settlor, |
in whole or in part, solely because of the existence of a |
discretionary power granted to the trustee by the terms of |
the trust, or any other provision of law, to pay directly |
to the taxing authorities or to reimburse the settlor for |
any tax on trust income or principal that is payable by the |
settlor under the law imposing the tax.
|
(4) Paragraph (2) does not apply to the assets of an |
irrevocable trust established for the benefit of a person |
with a disability that meets the requirements of 42 U.S.C. |
1396p(d)(4) or similar federal law governing the transfer |
to such a trust.
|
|
(5) After the death of a settlor, and subject to the |
settlor's right to direct the source from which liabilities |
will be paid, the property of a trust that was revocable at |
the settlor's death is subject to claims of the settlor's |
creditors, costs of administration of the settlor's |
estate, the expenses of the settlor's funeral and disposal |
of remains, and statutory allowances to a surviving spouse |
and children to the extent the settlor's probate estate is |
inadequate to satisfy those claims, costs, expenses, and |
allowances. Distributees of the trust take property |
distributed after payment of such claims; subject to the |
following conditions:
|
(A) sums recovered by the personal representative |
of the settlor's estate must be administered as part of |
the decedent's probate estate, and the liability |
created by this subsection does not apply to any assets |
to the extent that the assets are otherwise exempt |
under the laws of this State or under federal law;
|
(B) with respect to claims, expenses, and taxes in |
connection with the settlement of the settlor's |
estate, any claim of a creditor that would be barred |
against the personal representative of a settlor's |
estate or the estate of the settlor is barred against |
the trust property of a trust that was revocable at the |
settlor's death, the trustee of the revocable trust, |
and the beneficiaries of the trust; and
|
|
(C) Sections 18-10 and 18-13 of the Probate Act of |
1975, detailing the classification and priority of |
payment of claims, expenses, and taxes from the probate |
estate of a decedent, or comparable provisions of the |
law of the deceased settlor's domicile at death if not |
Illinois, apply to a revocable trust to the extent the |
assets of the settlor's probate estate are inadequate |
and the personal representative or creditor or taxing |
authority of the settlor's estate has perfected its |
right to collect from the settlor's revocable trust. |
(6) After the death of a settlor, a trustee of a trust |
that was revocable at the settlor's death is released from |
liability under this Section for any assets distributed to |
the trust's beneficiaries in accordance with the governing |
trust instrument if: |
(A) the trustee made the distribution 6 months or |
later after the settlor's death; and
|
(B) the trustee did not receive a written notice |
from the decedent's personal representative asserting |
that the decedent's probate estate is or may be |
insufficient to pay allowed claims or, if the trustee |
received such a notice, the notice was withdrawn by the |
personal representative or revoked by the court before |
the distribution.
|
(b) For purposes of this Section:
|
(1) during the period the power may be exercised, the |
|
holder of a power of withdrawal is treated in the same |
manner as the settlor of a revocable trust to the extent of |
the property subject to the power; and
|
(2) upon the lapse, release, or waiver of the power, |
the holder is treated as the settlor of the trust only to |
the extent the value of the property affected by the lapse, |
release, or waiver exceeds the greater of the amount |
specified in Section 2041(b)(2) or 2514(e) of the Internal |
Revenue Code.
|
Section 506. Overdue distribution. |
(a) In this Section, "mandatory distribution" means a |
distribution of income or principal that the trustee is |
required to make to a beneficiary under the trust instrument, |
including a distribution upon termination of the trust. The |
term does not include a distribution subject to the exercise of |
the trustee's discretion even if (1) the discretion is |
expressed in the form of a standard of distribution, or (2) the |
terms of the trust authorizing a distribution couple language |
of discretion with language of direction.
|
(b) Whether or not a trust contains a spendthrift |
provision, a creditor or assignee of a beneficiary may reach a |
mandatory distribution of income or principal, including a |
distribution upon termination of the trust, if the trustee has |
not made the distribution to the beneficiary within a |
reasonable time after the designated distribution date.
|
|
Section 507. Personal obligations of trustee. Trust |
property is not subject to personal obligations of the trustee, |
even if the trustee becomes insolvent or bankrupt. |
Section 508. Lapse of power to withdraw. A beneficiary of a |
trust may not be considered to be a settlor or to have made a |
transfer to the trust merely because of a lapse, release, or |
waiver of his or her power of withdrawal to the extent that the |
value of the affected property does not exceed the greatest of |
the amounts specified in Sections 2041(b)(2), 2514(e), and |
2503(b) of the Internal Revenue Code. |
Section 509. Trust for beneficiary with a disability. |
(a) As used in this Section: |
(1) "Discretionary trust" means a trust in which the |
trustee has discretionary power to determine distributions |
to be made under the trust. |
(2) "Resources" includes, but is not limited to, any |
interest in real or personal property, judgment, |
settlement, annuity, maintenance, support for minor |
children, and support for non-minor children. |
(b) A discretionary trust for the benefit of an individual |
who has a disability that substantially impairs the |
individual's ability to provide for his or her own care or |
custody and constitutes a substantial disability, is not liable |
|
to pay or reimburse this State or any public agency for |
financial aid or services to the individual except to the |
extent the trust was created by the individual or trust |
property has been distributed directly to or is otherwise under |
the control of the individual, except that this exception does |
not apply to a trust created with the property of the |
individual with a disability or property within his or her |
control if the trust complies with Medicaid reimbursement |
requirements of federal law. Notwithstanding any other |
provisions to the contrary, a trust created with the property |
of the individual with a disability or property within his or |
her control is liable, after the reimbursement of Medicaid |
expenditures, to this State for reimbursement of any other |
service charges outstanding at the death of the individual with |
a disability. Property, goods, and services purchased or owned |
by a trust for and used or consumed by a beneficiary with a |
disability shall not be considered trust property distributed |
to or under the control of the beneficiary. |
(c) Except as otherwise prohibited by law, the court or a |
person with a disability may irrevocably assign resources of |
that person to either or both of: (i) an ABLE account, as |
defined under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act; or (ii) |
a discretionary trust that complies with the Medicaid |
reimbursement requirements of federal law. A court may reserve |
the right to determine the amount, duration, or enforcement of |
the irrevocable assignment. |
|
Article 6. Revocable Trusts. |
Section 601. Capacity of settlor of revocable trust. The |
capacity required of the settlor to create, amend, revoke in |
whole or in part, or add property to a revocable trust is the |
same as that required to make a will. |
Section 602. Revocation or amendment of revocable trust. |
(a) The settlor may revoke a trust only if the trust |
instrument expressly provides that the trust is revocable or |
that the settlor has an unrestricted power of amendment. The |
settlor may amend a trust only if the trust expressly provides |
that the trust is revocable or amendable by the settlor.
|
(b) If a revocable trust has more than one settlor:
|
(1) to the extent the trust consists of community |
property, the trust may be revoked by either spouse acting |
alone but may be amended only by joint action of both |
spouses;
|
(2) to the extent the trust consists of property other |
than community property, each settlor may revoke or amend |
the trust only with regard to the portion of the trust |
property attributable to that settlor's contribution; and
|
(3) upon the revocation or amendment of the trust by |
fewer than all of the settlors, the trustee shall promptly |
notify the other settlors of the revocation or amendment. |
|
(c) The settlor may revoke or amend a revocable trust |
instrument:
|
(1) by substantially complying with a method provided |
in the trust instrument; or
|
(2) if the trust instrument does not provide a method |
or the method provided in the terms is not expressly made |
exclusive, by a later instrument in writing other than a |
will, signed by the settlor and specifically referring to |
the trust.
|
(d) Upon revocation of a revocable trust, the trustee shall |
deliver the trust property to the settlor or as the settlor |
directs.
|
(e) A settlor's powers with respect to revocation, |
amendment, or distribution of trust property may not be |
exercised by an agent under a power of attorney unless |
expressly authorized by the power and not prohibited by the |
trust instrument.
|
(f) A guardian of the estate of the settlor, if any, or a |
guardian of the person of the settlor may not exercise a |
settlor's powers with respect to revocation, amendment, or |
distribution of trust property unless ordered by the court |
supervising the guardianship.
|
(g) A trustee who does not know that a trust has been |
revoked or amended is not liable for distributions made and |
other actions taken or not taken on the assumption that the |
trust had not been amended or revoked.
|
|
Section 603. Settlor's powers; powers of withdrawal. |
(a) To the extent a trust is revocable by a settlor, and |
the settlor personally has capacity to revoke the trust, a |
trustee may follow a direction of the settlor that is contrary |
to the terms of the trust. To the extent a trust is revocable |
by a settlor in conjunction with a person other than a trustee |
or person holding an adverse interest, and the settlor and such |
other person personally have the capacity to revoke the trust, |
the trustee may follow a direction from the settlor and the |
other person holding the power to revoke even if the direction |
is contrary to the terms of the trust. |
(b) To the extent a trust is revocable by a settlor, and |
the settlor personally has capacity to revoke the trust, rights |
of the beneficiaries are subject to the control of, and the |
duties of the trustee are owed exclusively to, the settlor. |
(c) While a trust is revocable by a settlor but the settlor |
does not personally have the capacity to revoke the trust, the |
duties of the trustee are owed only to the settlor and current |
beneficiaries. If the settlor is a beneficiary, the settlor's |
interests as a beneficiary take priority over the interests of |
all other beneficiaries.
|
(d) Except as provided in subsection (e), only the settlor, |
a representative of the settlor under Article 3 during the |
settlor's lifetime if the settlor is incapacitated, and the |
representative of the settlor's estate after the settlor's |
|
death have standing to contest, challenge, or bring any |
proceeding in any court regarding any action of the trustee of |
a revocable trust taken or not taken while the trust is |
revocable.
|
(e) An individual who is or was a current beneficiary |
during the settlor's lifetime, a representative of such an |
individual under Article 3 or the representative of such |
individual's estate after the individual's death, has standing |
to contest, challenge, or bring any proceeding in any court |
regarding any action of the trustee of a revocable trust while |
the trust is revocable but the settlor does not personally have |
capacity to revoke the trust, but only to the extent the action |
of the trustee affects the interest of the individual as a |
current beneficiary of the trust during the lifetime of the |
settlor while the settlor does not personally have the capacity |
to revoke the trust.
|
(f) The holder of a non-lapsing power of withdrawal, during |
the period the power may be exercised, has the rights of a |
settlor of a revocable trust to the extent of the property |
subject to the power.
|
Section 604. Limitation on action contesting validity of |
revocable trust; distribution of trust property. |
(a) A person may commence a judicial proceeding to contest |
the validity of a trust that was revocable at the settlor's |
death only within the earlier of:
|
|
(1) 2 years after the settlor's death; or
|
(2)(A) in the case of a trust to which a legacy is |
provided by the settlor's will that is admitted to probate, |
the time to contest the validity of the settlor's will as |
provided in the Probate Act of 1975; or
|
(B) in the case of a trust other than a trust described |
in subdivision (A), 6 months after the trustee sent the |
person a copy of the trust instrument and a notice |
informing the person of the trust's existence, of the |
trustee's name and address, and of the 6-month period |
allowed for commencing a proceeding.
|
(b) Nine months after the death of the settlor of a trust |
that was revocable at the settlor's death, the trustee may |
proceed to distribute the trust property in accordance with the |
trust instrument. The trustee is not subject to liability for |
doing so unless:
|
(1) the trustee knows of a pending judicial proceeding |
contesting the validity of the trust; or
|
(2) a potential contestant has notified the trustee of |
a possible judicial proceeding to contest the trust and a |
judicial proceeding is commenced within 60 days after the |
contestant sent the notification.
|
(c) A beneficiary of a trust that was revocable at the |
settlor's death that is determined to have been invalid is |
liable to return any distribution received and all income and |
appreciation associated with the distribution from the date of |
|
receipt until the date of return of the distribution.
|
Section 605. Revocation of provisions in revocable trust by |
divorce or annulment |
(a) As used in this Section:
|
(1) "Judicial termination of marriage" includes, but |
is not limited to, divorce, dissolution, annulment or |
declaration of invalidity of marriage.
|
(2) "Provision pertaining to the settlor's former |
spouse" includes, but is not limited to, every present or |
future gift or interest or power of appointment given to |
the settlor's former spouse or right of the settlor's |
former spouse to serve in a fiduciary capacity.
|
(3) "Trust" means a trust created by a nontestamentary |
instrument executed after January 1, 1982.
|
(4) Notwithstanding the definition of "revocable" in |
Section 103, a provision is revocable by the settlor if the |
settlor has the power at the time of the entry of the |
judgment or judicial termination of marriage of the settlor |
to revoke, modify, or amend the provision, either alone or |
in conjunction with any other person or persons.
|
(b) Unless the trust instrument or the judgment of judicial |
termination of marriage expressly provides otherwise, judicial |
termination of marriage of the settlor of a trust revokes every |
provision that is revocable by the settlor pertaining to the |
settlor's former spouse in a trust instrument or amendment |
|
executed by the settlor before the entry of the judgment of |
judicial termination of marriage of the settlor and any such |
trust shall be administered and construed as if the settlor's |
former spouse had died upon entry of the judgment of judicial |
termination of marriage.
|
(c) A trustee who has no actual knowledge of a judgment of |
judicial termination of marriage of the settlor is not liable |
for any action taken or omitted in good faith on the assumption |
that the settlor is married. The preceding sentence is intended |
to affect only the liability of the trustee and shall not |
affect the disposition of beneficial interests in any trust. |
(d) Notwithstanding Section 102, this Section may be made |
applicable by specific reference in the trust instrument to |
this Section in any (1) land trust; (2) voting trust; (3) |
security instrument such as a trust deed or mortgage; (4) |
liquidation trust; (5) escrow; (6) instrument under which a |
nominee, custodian for property or paying or receiving agent is |
appointed; or (7) trust created by a deposit arrangement in a |
bank or savings institution, commonly known as "Totten Trust".
|
(e) If provisions of a trust are revoked solely by this |
Section, they are revived by the settlor's remarriage to the |
former spouse.
|
Article 7. Office of Trustee. |
Section 701. Accepting or declining trusteeship. |
|
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), a |
person designated as trustee accepts the trusteeship:
|
(1) by substantially complying with a method of |
acceptance provided in the trust instrument; or
|
(2) if the trust instrument does not provide a method |
or the method provided in the trust instrument is not |
expressly made exclusive, by accepting delivery of the |
trust property, exercising powers or performing duties as |
trustee, or otherwise indicating acceptance of the |
trusteeship.
|
(b) A person designated as trustee who has not yet accepted |
the trusteeship may decline the trusteeship. A designated |
trustee who does not accept the trusteeship within 120 days |
after receiving notice of the designation is deemed to have |
declined the trusteeship.
|
(c) A person designated as trustee, without accepting the |
trusteeship, may, but need not:
|
(1) act to preserve the trust property if, within 120 |
days after receiving notice of the designation, the person |
sends a declination of the trusteeship to the settlor or, |
if the settlor is deceased or incapacitated, to the |
qualified beneficiaries; and
|
(2) inspect or investigate trust property to determine |
potential liability under environmental or other law or for |
any other purpose.
|
(d) A person acting under subsection (c) is not liable for |
|
actions taken in good faith.
|
Section 702. Trustee's bond. |
(a) A trustee shall give bond to secure performance of the |
trustee's duties only if the court finds that a bond is needed |
to protect the interests of the beneficiaries or is required by |
the terms of the trust and the court has not dispensed with the |
requirement. |
(b) The court may specify the amount of a bond, its |
liabilities, and whether sureties are necessary. The court may |
modify or terminate a bond at any time. |
(c) A corporate fiduciary, as defined in Section 1-5.505 of |
the Corporate Fiduciary Act, qualified to do trust business in |
this State need not give bond, even if required by the terms of |
the trust. |
Section 703. Co-trustees. |
(a) Co-trustees who are unable to reach a unanimous |
decision may act by majority decision after prior written |
notice to, or written waiver of notice by, each other |
co-trustee.
|
(b) If a vacancy occurs in a co-trusteeship, subsection (b) |
of Section 704 applies.
|
(c) A co-trustee must participate in the performance of a |
trustee's function unless the co-trustee is unavailable to |
perform the function because of absence, illness, |
|
disqualification under other law, or other temporary |
incapacity or the co-trustee has properly delegated the |
performance of the function to another trustee.
|
(d) If a co-trustee is unavailable to perform duties |
because of absence, illness, disqualification under other law, |
or other temporary incapacity, and prompt action is necessary |
to achieve the purposes of the trust or to avoid injury to the |
trust property, the remaining co-trustee or a majority of the |
remaining co-trustees may act for the trust.
|
(e) A trustee may delegate to a co-trustee for any period |
of time any or all of the trustee's rights, powers, and duties. |
Unless a delegation was irrevocable, a trustee may revoke a |
delegation previously made.
|
(f) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (g), a |
trustee who is not qualified to participate in an action or who |
does not join in an action of another trustee is not liable for |
the action.
|
(g) Each trustee who is not an excluded fiduciary under |
Section 808 shall exercise reasonable care to:
|
(1) prevent a co-trustee from committing a serious |
breach of trust; and
|
(2) compel a co-trustee to redress a serious breach of |
trust.
|
(h) A dissenting trustee who joins in an action at the |
direction of the majority of the trustees and who notified any |
co-trustee of the dissent at or before the time of the action |
|
is not liable for the action unless the action is a serious |
breach of trust. |
Section 704. Vacancy in trusteeship; appointment of |
successor. |
(a) A vacancy in a trusteeship occurs if:
|
(1) a person designated as trustee declines the |
trusteeship;
|
(2) a person designated as trustee cannot be identified |
or does not exist;
|
(3) a trustee resigns;
|
(4) a trustee is disqualified or removed;
|
(5) a trustee dies;
|
(6) a guardian is appointed for an individual serving |
as trustee; or
|
(7) an individual serving as trustee becomes |
incapacitated.
|
(b) If one or more co-trustees remain in office, a vacancy |
in a trusteeship need not be filled and the remaining |
co-trustees or trustee may act for the trust. A vacancy in a |
trusteeship must be filled if the trust has no remaining |
trustee, or if the existing vacancy impairs the administration |
of the trust as determined by the remaining trustees.
|
(c) A vacancy in a trusteeship of a trust that is required |
to be filled must be filled in the following order of priority:
|
(1) by a person designated in accordance with the trust |
|
instrument to act as successor trustee;
|
(2) by a person appointed by a majority of the |
beneficiaries who are distributees or permissible |
distributees of trust income; or
|
(3) by a person appointed by the court.
|
(d) If a trust contains a charitable interest, then the |
appointment of a successor trustee provided under paragraph (2) |
of subsection (c) shall not take effect until 30 days after |
written notice is delivered to the Attorney General's |
Charitable Trust Bureau. The Attorney General may waive this |
notice requirement.
|
Section 705. Resignation of trustee. |
(a) A trustee may resign:
|
(1) upon notice to the settlor, if living, to the |
beneficiaries who are distributees or permissible |
distributees of trust income, and all co-trustees; or
|
(2) with the approval of the court.
|
(b) In approving a resignation, the court may issue orders |
and impose conditions reasonably necessary for the protection |
of the trust property.
|
(c) Any liability of a resigning trustee or of any sureties |
on the trustee's bond for acts or omissions of the trustee is |
not discharged or affected by the trustee's resignation.
|
Section 706. Removal of trustee. |
|
(a) A settlor, a co-trustee, or a qualified beneficiary may |
request the court to remove a trustee, or a trustee may be |
removed by the court on its own initiative.
|
(b) The court may remove a trustee if:
|
(1) the trustee has committed a serious breach of |
trust;
|
(2) lack of cooperation among co-trustees |
substantially impairs the administration of the trust;
|
(3) because of unfitness, unwillingness, or persistent |
failure of the trustee to administer the trust effectively, |
the court determines that removal of the trustee best |
serves the purposes of the trust and the interests of the |
beneficiaries; or
|
(4) there has been a substantial change of |
circumstances or removal is requested by all of the |
qualified beneficiaries, the court finds that removal of |
the trustee best serves the interests of all of the |
beneficiaries and is not inconsistent with any material |
purpose of the trust, and a suitable co-trustee or |
successor trustee is available.
|
(c) Pending a final decision on a request to remove a |
trustee, or in lieu of or in addition to removing a trustee, |
the court may order such appropriate relief under subsection |
(b) of Section 1001 as may be necessary to protect the trust |
property or the interests of the beneficiaries. |
|
Section 707. Delivery of property by former trustee. |
(a) Unless a co-trustee remains in office or the court |
otherwise orders, and until the trust property is delivered to |
a successor trustee or other person entitled to it, a trustee |
who has resigned or been removed has the duties of a trustee |
and the powers necessary to protect the trust property.
|
(b) A trustee who has resigned or been removed shall |
proceed expeditiously to deliver the trust property within the |
trustee's possession to the co-trustee, successor trustee, or |
other person entitled to it.
|
Section 708. Compensation of trustee. |
(a) If the trust instrument does not specify the trustee's |
compensation, a trustee is entitled to compensation that is |
reasonable under the circumstances.
|
(b) If the trust instrument specifies the trustee's |
compensation, the trustee is entitled to be compensated as |
specified, but the court may allow more or less compensation |
if:
|
(1) the duties of the trustee are substantially |
different from those contemplated when the trust was |
created; or
|
(2) the compensation specified by the trust instrument |
would be unreasonably low or high.
|
Section 709. Reimbursement of expenses. |
|
(a) A trustee is entitled to be reimbursed out of the trust |
property, with interest as appropriate, for:
|
(1) expenses that were properly incurred in the |
administration and protection of the trust; and
|
(2) to the extent necessary to prevent unjust |
enrichment of the trust, expenses that were not properly |
incurred in the administration of the trust.
|
(b) An advance by the trustee of money for the protection |
of the trust gives rise to a right to reimbursement with |
reasonable interest.
|
Article 8. Duties and Powers of Trustee. |
Section 801. Duty to administer trust. Upon acceptance of a |
trusteeship, the trustee shall administer the trust in good |
faith, in accordance with its purposes and the terms of the |
trust, and in accordance with this Code. |
Section 802. Duty of loyalty. |
(a) Subject to the rights of persons dealing with or |
assisting the trustee as provided in Section 1012, a sale, |
encumbrance, or other transaction involving the investment or |
management of trust property entered into by the trustee for |
the trustee's own personal account or that is otherwise |
affected by a conflict between the trustee's fiduciary and |
personal interests is voidable by a beneficiary affected by the |
|
transaction and a trustee must disgorge to the trust any profit |
from such transaction if voided, unless: |
(1) the transaction was authorized by the trust |
instrument or applicable law;
|
(2) the transaction was approved by the court or by |
nonjudicial settlement agreement in accordance with |
Section 111;
|
(3) the beneficiary did not commence a judicial |
proceeding within the time allowed by Section 1005;
|
(4) the beneficiary consented to the trustee's |
conduct, ratified the transaction, or released the trustee |
in compliance with Section 1009; or
|
(5) the transaction involves a contract entered into or |
claim acquired by the trustee before the person became or |
contemplated becoming trustee.
|
(b) A sale, encumbrance, or other transaction involving the |
investment or management of trust property is presumed to be |
affected by a conflict between personal and fiduciary interests |
if it is entered into by the trustee with:
|
(1) the trustee's spouse; |
(2) the trustee's descendants, siblings, parents, or |
their spouses; or
|
(3) a corporation or other person or enterprise in |
which the trustee, or a person that owns a significant |
interest in the trustee, has an interest that might affect |
the trustee's best judgment, except as otherwise |
|
authorized by law.
|
(c) A transaction between a trustee and a beneficiary that |
does not concern trust property, that occurs during the |
existence of the trust and from which the trustee obtains an |
advantage, is voidable by the beneficiary unless the trustee |
establishes that the transaction was fair to the beneficiary.
|
(d) A transaction not concerning trust property in which |
the trustee engages in the trustee's individual capacity |
involves a conflict between personal and fiduciary interests if |
the transaction concerns an opportunity properly belonging to |
the trust.
|
(e) An investment by a trustee in securities of an |
investment company or investment trust to which the trustee, or |
its affiliate, provides services in a capacity other than as |
trustee is not presumed to be affected by a conflict between |
personal and fiduciary interests if the investment otherwise |
complies with the prudent investor rule. In addition to its |
compensation for acting as trustee, the trustee may be |
compensated by the investment company or investment trust for |
providing those services out of fees charged to the trust so |
long as the total compensation paid by the trust as trustee's |
fees and mutual fund or other investment fees is reasonable.
|
(f) In voting shares of stock or in exercising powers of |
control over similar interests in other forms of enterprise, |
the trustee shall act in the best interests of the |
beneficiaries.
|
|
(g) This Section does not preclude the following |
transactions, if fair to the beneficiaries:
|
(1) an agreement between a trustee and a beneficiary |
relating to the appointment or compensation of the trustee;
|
(2) payment of reasonable compensation to the trustee;
|
(3) a transaction between a trust and another trust, |
decedent's estate, or guardianship of which the trustee is |
a fiduciary or in which a beneficiary has an interest;
|
(4) the entry of an agreement for a bank or other |
deposit account, safe deposit box, custodian, agency, or |
depository arrangement for all or any part of the trust |
property, including an agreement for services provided by a |
bank operated by or affiliated with the trustee, and the |
payment of reasonable compensation for those services, |
including compensation to the bank operated by or |
affiliated with the trustee, except that nothing in this |
paragraph shall be construed as removing any depository |
arrangements from the requirements of the prudent investor |
rule; or
|
(5) an advance by the trustee of money for the |
protection of the trust.
|
(h) The court may appoint a special fiduciary to make a |
decision with respect to any proposed transaction that might |
violate this Section if entered into by the trustee.
|
Section 803. Impartiality. If a trust has 2 or more |
|
beneficiaries, the trustee shall act impartially in investing, |
managing, and distributing the trust property giving due regard |
to the beneficiaries respective interests. The trustee must |
treat the beneficiaries equitably in light of the purposes and |
terms of the trust, including any manifestation of an intention |
to favor one or more beneficiaries. |
Section 804. Prudent administration. A trustee shall |
administer the trust as a prudent person would, by considering |
the purposes, terms, distribution requirements, and other |
circumstances of the trust. In satisfying this standard, the |
trustee shall exercise reasonable care, skill, and caution. |
Section 805. Costs of administration. In administering a |
trust, the trustee may incur only costs that are reasonable in |
relation to the trust property and the purposes of the trust. |
Section 806. (Reserved). |
Section 807. Delegation by trustee. |
(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), the trustee has a |
duty not to delegate to others the performance of any acts |
involving the exercise of judgment and discretion.
|
(b) A trustee may delegate duties and powers that a prudent |
trustee of comparable skills could properly delegate under the |
circumstances. The trustee shall exercise reasonable care, |
|
skill, and caution in:
|
(1) selecting an agent;
|
(2) establishing the scope and terms of the delegation, |
consistent with the purposes of the trust and the trust |
instrument; and
|
(3) periodically reviewing the agent's actions in |
order to monitor the agent's performance and compliance |
with the terms of the delegation.
|
(c) In performing a delegated function, an agent owes a |
duty to the trust to exercise reasonable care to comply with |
the terms of the delegation.
|
(d) A trustee who complies with subsection (b) is not |
liable to the beneficiaries or to the trust for an action of |
the agent to whom the function was delegated.
|
(e) By accepting a delegation of powers or duties from the |
trustee of a trust that is subject to the law of this State, an |
agent submits to the jurisdiction of the courts of this State.
|
Section 808. Directed trusts. |
(a) In this Section:
|
(1) "Distribution trust advisor" means any one or more |
persons given authority by the trust instrument to direct, |
consent to, veto, or otherwise exercise all or any portion |
of the distribution powers and discretions of the trust, |
including, but not limited to, authority to make |
discretionary distribution of income or principal.
|
|
(2) "Excluded fiduciary" means any fiduciary that by |
the trust instrument is directed to act in accordance with |
the exercise of specified powers by a directing party, in |
which case the specified powers are deemed granted not to |
the fiduciary but to the directing party and the fiduciary |
is deemed excluded from exercising the specified powers. If |
a trust instrument provides that a fiduciary as to one or |
more specified matters is to act, omit action, or make |
decisions only with the consent of a directing party, then |
the fiduciary is an excluded fiduciary with respect to the |
matters. Notwithstanding any provision of this Section, a |
person does not fail to qualify as an excluded fiduciary |
solely by reason of having effectuated, participated in, or |
consented to a transaction, including, but not limited to, |
any transaction described in Section 111 or 411 or Article |
12 invoking this Section with respect to any new or |
existing trust.
|
(3) "Fiduciary" means any person expressly given one or |
more fiduciary duties by the trust instrument, including, |
but not limited to, a trustee.
|
(4) "Investment trust advisor" means any one or more |
persons given authority by the trust instrument to direct, |
consent to, veto, or otherwise exercise all or any portion |
of the investment powers of the trust.
|
(5) "Power" means authority to take or withhold an |
action or decision, including, but not limited to, an |
|
expressly specified power, the implied power necessary to |
exercise a specified power, and authority inherent in a |
general grant of discretion.
|
(6) "Trust protector" means any one or more persons |
given any one or more of the powers specified in subsection |
(d), regardless of whether the power is designated with the |
title of trust protector by the trust instrument.
|
(b) An investment trust advisor may be designated in the |
trust instrument of a trust. The powers of an investment trust |
advisor may be exercised or not exercised in the sole and |
absolute discretion of the investment trust advisor, and are |
binding on all other persons, including, but not limited to, |
each beneficiary, fiduciary, excluded fiduciary, and any other |
party having an interest in the trust. The trust instrument may |
use the title "investment trust advisor" or any similar name or |
description demonstrating the intent to provide for the office |
and function of an investment trust advisor. Unless the terms |
of the trust provide otherwise, the investment trust advisor |
has the authority to:
|
(1) direct the trustee with respect to the retention, |
purchase, transfer, assignment, sale, or encumbrance of |
trust property and the investment and reinvestment of |
principal and income of the trust;
|
(2) direct the trustee with respect to all management, |
control, and voting powers related directly or indirectly |
to trust assets, including, but not limited to, voting |
|
proxies for securities held in trust;
|
(3) select and determine reasonable compensation of |
one or more advisors, managers, consultants, or |
counselors, including the trustee, and to delegate to them |
any of the powers of the investment trust advisor in |
accordance with Section 807; and
|
(4) determine the frequency and methodology for |
valuing any asset for which there is no readily available |
market value.
|
(c) A distribution trust advisor may be designated in the |
trust instrument of a trust. The powers of a distribution trust |
advisor may be exercised or not exercised in the sole and |
absolute discretion of the distribution trust advisor, and are |
binding on all other persons, including, but not limited to, |
each beneficiary, fiduciary, excluded fiduciary, and any other |
party having an interest in the trust. The trust instrument may |
use the title "distribution trust advisor" or any similar name |
or description demonstrating the intent to provide for the |
office and function of a distribution trust advisor. Unless the |
terms of the trust provide otherwise, the distribution trust |
advisor has authority to direct the trustee with regard to all |
decisions relating directly or indirectly to discretionary |
distributions to or for one or more beneficiaries.
|
(d) A trust protector may be designated in the trust |
instrument of a trust. The powers of a trust protector may be |
exercised or not exercised in the sole and absolute discretion |
|
of the trust protector, and are binding on all other persons, |
including, but not limited to, each beneficiary, investment |
trust advisor, distribution trust advisor, fiduciary, excluded |
fiduciary, and any other party having an interest in the trust. |
The trust instrument may use the title "trust protector" or any |
similar name or description demonstrating the intent to provide |
for the office and function of a trust protector. The powers |
granted to a trust protector by the trust instrument may |
include but are not limited to authority to do any one or more |
of the following:
|
(1) modify or amend the trust instrument to achieve |
favorable tax status or respond to changes in the Internal |
Revenue Code, federal laws, state law, or the rulings and |
regulations under such laws;
|
(2) increase, decrease, or modify the interests of any |
beneficiary or beneficiaries of the trust;
|
(3) modify the terms of any power of appointment |
granted by the trust; however, such modification or |
amendment may not grant a beneficial interest to any |
individual, class of individuals, or other parties not |
specifically provided for under the trust instrument;
|
(4) remove, appoint, or remove and appoint, a trustee, |
investment trust advisor, distribution trust advisor, |
another directing party, investment committee member, or |
distribution committee member, including designation of a |
plan of succession for future holders of any such office;
|
|
(5) terminate the trust, including determination of |
how the trustee shall distribute the trust property to be |
consistent with the purposes of the trust;
|
(6) change the situs of the trust, the governing law of |
the trust, or both;
|
(7) appoint one or more successor trust protectors, |
including designation of a plan of succession for future |
trust protectors;
|
(8) interpret terms of the trust at the request of the |
trustee;
|
(9) advise the trustee on matters concerning a |
beneficiary; or
|
(10) amend or modify the trust instrument to take |
advantage of laws governing restraints on alienation, |
distribution of trust property, or to improve the |
administration of the trust.
|
If a trust contains a charitable interest, a trust protector |
must give notice to the Attorney General's Charitable Trust |
Bureau at least 60 days before taking any of the actions |
authorized under paragraph (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this |
subsection. The Attorney General may waive this notice |
requirement.
|
(e) A directing party is a fiduciary of the trust subject |
to the same duties and standards applicable to a trustee of a |
trust as provided by applicable law unless the trust instrument |
provides otherwise, but the trust instrument may not, however, |
|
relieve or exonerate a directing party from the duty to act or |
withhold acting as the directing party in good faith reasonably |
believes is in the best interests of the trust.
|
(f) The excluded fiduciary shall act in accordance with the |
trust instrument and comply with the directing party's exercise |
of the powers granted to the directing party by the trust |
instrument. Unless otherwise provided in the trust instrument, |
an excluded fiduciary has no duty to monitor, review, inquire, |
investigate, recommend, evaluate, or warn with respect to a |
directing party's exercise or failure to exercise any power |
granted to the directing party by the trust instrument, |
including, but not limited to, any power related to the |
acquisition, disposition, retention, management, or valuation |
of any asset or investment. Except as otherwise provided in |
this Section or the trust instrument, an excluded fiduciary is |
not liable, either individually or as a fiduciary, for any |
action, inaction, consent, or failure to consent by a directing |
party, including, but not limited to, any of the following:
|
(1) if a trust instrument provides that an excluded |
fiduciary is to follow the direction of a directing party, |
and such excluded fiduciary acts in accordance with such a |
direction, then except in cases of willful misconduct on |
the part of the excluded fiduciary in complying with the |
direction of the directing party, the excluded fiduciary is |
not liable for any loss resulting directly or indirectly |
from following any such direction, including but not |
|
limited to compliance regarding the valuation of assets for |
which there is no readily available market value;
|
(2) if a trust instrument provides that an excluded |
fiduciary is to act or omit to act only with the consent of |
a directing party, then except in cases of willful |
misconduct on the part of the excluded fiduciary, the |
excluded fiduciary is not liable for any loss resulting |
directly or indirectly from any act taken or omitted as a |
result of such directing party's failure to provide such |
consent after having been asked to do so by the excluded |
fiduciary; or
|
(3) if a trust instrument provides that, or for any |
other reason, an excluded fiduciary is required to assume |
the role or responsibilities of a directing party, or if |
the excluded fiduciary appoints a directing party or |
successor to a directing party other than in a nonjudicial |
settlement agreement under Section 111 or in a second trust |
under Article 12, then the excluded fiduciary shall also |
assume the same fiduciary and other duties and standards |
that applied to such directing party.
|
(g) By accepting an appointment to serve as a directing |
party of a trust that is subject to the laws of this State, the |
directing party submits to the jurisdiction of the courts of |
this State even if investment advisory agreements or other |
related agreements provide otherwise, and the directing party |
may be made a party to any action or proceeding if issues |
|
relate to a decision or action of the directing party.
|
(h) Each directing party shall keep the excluded fiduciary |
and any other directing party reasonably informed regarding the |
administration of the trust with respect to any specific duty |
or function being performed by the directing party to the |
extent that the duty or function would normally be performed by |
the excluded fiduciary or to the extent that providing such |
information to the excluded fiduciary or other directing party |
is reasonably necessary for the excluded fiduciary or other |
directing party to perform its duties, and the directing party |
shall provide such information as reasonably requested by the |
excluded fiduciary or other directing party. Neither the |
performance nor the failure to perform of a directing party's |
duty to inform as provided in this subsection affects |
whatsoever the limitation on the liability of the excluded |
fiduciary as provided in this Section.
|
(i) Other required notices.
|
(1) A directing party shall:
|
(A) within 90 days after becoming a directing |
party, notify each qualified beneficiary of the |
acceptance and of the directing party's name, address, |
and telephone number, except that the notice |
requirement of this subdivision (A) does not apply with |
respect to a succession of a business entity by merger |
or consolidation with another business entity or by |
transfer between holding company affiliates if there |
|
is no change in the contact information for the |
directing party, in which case the successor entity has |
discretion to determine what timing and manner of |
notice is appropriate;
|
(B) notify each qualified beneficiary in advance |
of any change in the rate of or the method of |
determining the directing party's compensation; and
|
(C) notify each qualified beneficiary of the |
directing party's resignation.
|
(2) In the event of the incapacity, death, |
disqualification, or removal of any directing party, a |
directing party who continues acting as directing party |
following such an event shall notify each qualified |
beneficiary of the incapacity, death, disqualification, or |
removal of any other directing party within 90 days after |
the event.
|
(j) An excluded fiduciary may, but is not required to, |
obtain and rely upon an opinion of counsel on any matter |
relevant to this Section.
|
(k) On and after January 1, 2013, this Section applies to:
|
(1) all existing and future trusts that appoint or |
provide for a directing party, including, but not limited |
to, a party granted power or authority effectively |
comparable in substance to that of a directing party as |
provided in this Section; or
|
(2) any existing or future trust that:
|
|
(A) is modified in accordance with applicable law |
or the terms of the trust to appoint or provide for a |
directing party; or
|
(B) is modified to appoint or provide for a |
directing party, including, but not limited to, a party |
granted power or authority effectively comparable in |
substance to that of a directing party, in accordance |
with: (i) a court order; (ii) a nonjudicial settlement |
agreement made in accordance with Section 111; or (iii) |
an exercise of decanting power under Article 12, |
regardless of whether the order, agreement, or |
second-trust instrument specifies that this Section |
governs the responsibilities, actions, and liabilities |
of a person designated as a directing party or excluded |
fiduciary.
|
Section 809. Control and protection of trust property. A |
trustee shall take reasonable steps to take control of and |
protect the trust property. If a corporation is acting as |
co-trustee with one or more individuals, the corporate trustee |
shall have custody of the trust estate unless all the trustees |
otherwise agree. |
Section 810. Recordkeeping and identification of trust |
property. |
(a) A trustee shall keep adequate records of the |
|
administration of the trust.
|
(b) A trustee shall keep trust property separate from the |
trustee's own property.
|
(c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), a |
trustee not subject to federal or state banking regulation |
shall cause the trust property to be designated so that the |
interest of the trust, to the extent feasible, appears in |
records maintained by a party other than a trustee or |
beneficiary to whom the trustee has delivered the property.
|
(d) If the trustee maintains records clearly indicating the |
respective interests, a trustee may invest as a whole the |
property of 2 or more separate trusts.
|
Section 811. Enforcement and defense of claims. A trustee |
shall take reasonable steps to enforce claims of the trust and |
to defend claims against the trust. It may be reasonable for a |
trustee not to enforce a claim, not to defend an action, to |
settle an action, or to suffer a default, depending upon the |
likelihood of recovery and the cost of suit and enforcement. |
Section 812. Powers and duties of successor; liability for |
acts of predecessor; approval of accounts. |
(a) A successor trustee shall have all the rights, powers, |
and duties that are granted to or imposed on the predecessor |
trustee.
|
(b) A successor trustee is under no duty to inquire into |
|
the acts or doings of a predecessor trustee, and is not liable |
for any act or failure to act of a predecessor trustee.
|
(c) With the approval of a majority in interest of the |
beneficiaries then entitled to receive or eligible to have the |
benefit of the income from the trust, a successor trustee may |
accept the account rendered by, and the property received from, |
the predecessor trustee as a full and complete discharge of the |
predecessor trustee without incurring any liability. |
Section 813.1. Duty to inform and account; trusts |
irrevocable and trustees accepting appointment after effective |
date of Code. |
(a) This Section is prospective only and does not apply to |
any trust that was irrevocable before the effective date of |
this Code, or to a trustee who accepts a trusteeship before the |
effective date of this Code. Subject to Section 105, this |
Section supplants any common law duty of a trustee to inform |
and account to trust beneficiaries. This Section does not apply |
to trusts that became irrevocable before the effective date of |
this Code.
|
(b) General principles.
|
(1) The trustee shall notify each qualified |
beneficiary: |
(A) of the trust's existence; |
(B) of the beneficiary's right to request a |
complete copy of the trust instrument; and |
|
(C) whether the beneficiary has a right to receive |
or request trust accountings. |
The notice required by this paragraph (1) must be |
given: (i) within 90 days of the trust becoming irrevocable |
or if no trustee is then acting within 90 days of the |
trustee's acceptance of the trusteeship; (ii) within 90 |
days of the trustee acquiring knowledge that a qualified |
beneficiary has a representative under Article 3 who did |
not previously receive notice; (iii) within 90 days of the |
trustee acquiring knowledge that a qualified beneficiary |
who previously had a representative under Article 3 no |
longer has a representative under Article 3; and (iv) |
within 90 days of the trustee acquiring knowledge that |
there is a new qualified beneficiary.
|
(2) A trustee shall send at least annually a trust |
accounting to all current beneficiaries.
|
(3) A trustee shall send at least annually a trust |
accounting to all presumptive remainder beneficiaries.
|
(4) Upon termination of a trust, a trustee shall send a |
trust accounting to all beneficiaries entitled to receive a |
distribution of the residue of the trust.
|
(5) Notwithstanding any other provision, a trustee in |
its discretion may provide notice, information, trust |
accountings, or reports to any beneficiary of the trust |
regardless of whether the communication is otherwise |
required to be provided.
|
|
(6) Upon the reasonable request of a qualified |
beneficiary, the trustee shall promptly furnish to the |
qualified beneficiary a complete copy of the trust |
instrument.
|
(7) Notwithstanding any other provision, a trustee is |
deemed to have fully and completely discharged the |
trustee's duties under this Section to inform and account |
to all beneficiaries, at common law or otherwise, if the |
trustee provides the notice required under paragraph (1) to |
each qualified beneficiary and if the trustee provides at |
least annually and on termination of the trust a trust |
accounting required by paragraph (2), (3), or (4) to each |
beneficiary entitled to a trust accounting.
|
(8) For each asset or class of assets described in a |
trust accounting
for which there is no readily available |
market value, the trustee, in the trustee's
discretion, may |
determine whether to estimate the value or use a nominal |
carrying
value for such an asset, how to estimate the value |
of such an asset, and whether and
how often to engage a |
professional appraiser to value such an asset. |
(c) Upon a vacancy in a trusteeship, unless a co-trustee |
remains in office, the trust accounting required by subsection |
(b) must be sent to the beneficiaries entitled to the |
accounting by the former trustee. A personal representative, |
guardian of the estate, or guardian of the person may send the |
trust accounting to the beneficiaries entitled to the |
|
accounting on behalf of a deceased or incapacitated trustee.
|
(d) Other required notices.
|
(1) A trustee shall:
|
(A) within 90 days after accepting a trusteeship, |
notify each qualified beneficiary of the acceptance |
and of the trustee's name, address, and telephone |
number, except that the notice requirement of this |
subdivision (A) does not apply with respect to a |
succession of a corporate trustee by merger or |
consolidation with another corporate fiduciary or by |
transfer between holding company affiliates if there |
is no change in the contact information for the |
trustee, in which case the successor trustee has |
discretion to determine what timing and manner of |
notice is appropriate;
|
(B) notify each qualified beneficiary in advance |
of any change in the rate of or the method of |
determining the trustee's compensation; and
|
(C) notify each qualified beneficiary of the |
trustee's resignation.
|
(2) In the event of the incapacity, death, |
disqualification, or removal of any trustee, a trustee who |
continues acting as trustee following such an event shall |
notify each qualified beneficiary of the incapacity, |
death, disqualification, or removal of any other trustee |
within 90 days after the event. |
|
(3) A trustee shall notify each qualified beneficiary |
of any change in the address, telephone number, or other |
contact information for the trustee no later than 90 days |
after the change goes into effect. |
(e) Each request for information under this Section must be |
with respect to a single trust that is sufficiently identified |
to enable the trustee to locate the trust's records. A trustee |
may charge a reasonable fee for providing information under |
this Section to: |
(1) a beneficiary who is not a qualified beneficiary; |
(2) a qualified beneficiary for providing information |
that was previously provided to the qualified beneficiary |
or a representative under Article 3 for the qualified |
beneficiary; or |
(3) a representative under Article 3 for a qualified |
beneficiary for information that was previously provided |
to the qualified beneficiary or a representative under |
Article 3 for the qualified beneficiary. |
(f) If a trustee is bound by any confidentiality |
restrictions regarding a trust asset, then, before receiving |
the information, a beneficiary eligible under this Section to |
receive any information about that asset must agree to be bound |
by the same confidentiality restrictions. The trustee has no |
duty or obligation to disclose to any beneficiary any |
information that is otherwise prohibited to be disclosed by |
applicable law. |
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(g) A qualified beneficiary may waive the right to receive |
information otherwise required to be furnished under this |
Section, such as a trust accounting, by an instrument in |
writing delivered to the trustee. A qualified beneficiary may |
at any time, by an instrument in writing delivered to the |
trustee, withdraw a waiver previously given with respect to |
future trust accountings. |
(h) Receipt of information, notices, or a trust accounting |
by a beneficiary is presumed if the trustee has procedures in |
place requiring the mailing or delivery of information, |
notices, or trust accountings to the beneficiary. This |
presumption applies to the mailing or delivery of information, |
notices, or trust accountings by electronic means or the |
provision of access to an account by electronic means for so |
long as the beneficiary has agreed to receive electronic |
delivery or access. |
(i) A trustee may request approval of the trustee's current |
or final trust accounting in a judicial proceeding at the |
trustee's election, with all reasonable and necessary costs of |
the proceeding payable by the trust and allocated between |
income and principal in accordance with the Principal and |
Income Act. |
(j) Notwithstanding any other provision, this Section is |
not intended to and does not impose on any trustee a duty to |
inform any beneficiary in advance of transactions relating to |
the trust property. |
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Section 813.2. Duty to inform and account; trusts |
irrevocable and trustees accepting appointment before the |
effective date of Code. |
(a) This Section applies to all trusts that were |
irrevocable before the effective date of this Code and to a |
trustee who accepts a trusteeship before the effective date of |
this Code.
|
(b) Every trustee at least annually shall furnish to the |
beneficiaries then entitled to receive or receiving the income |
from the trust estate, or, if none, then to those beneficiaries |
eligible to have the benefit of the income from the trust |
estate, a current account showing the receipts, disbursements, |
and inventory of the trust estate.
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(c) Every trustee shall on termination of the trust furnish |
to the beneficiaries then entitled to distribution of the trust |
estate a final account for the period from the date of the last |
current account to the date of distribution showing the |
inventory of the trust estate, the receipts, disbursements, and |
distributions and shall make available to the beneficiaries |
copies of prior accounts not previously furnished.
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(d) If a beneficiary is incapacitated, the account shall be |
provided to the representative of the estate of the |
beneficiary. If no representative for the estate of a |
beneficiary under legal disability has been appointed, the |
account shall be provided to a spouse, parent, adult child, or |
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guardian of the person of the beneficiary.
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(e) For each asset or class of assets described in the |
account
for which there is no readily available market value, |
the trustee, in the trustee's
discretion, may determine whether |
to estimate the value or use a nominal carrying
value for such |
an asset, how to estimate the value of such an asset, and |
whether and
how often to engage a professional appraiser to |
value such an asset. |
Section 814. Discretionary powers; tax savings. |
(a) Notwithstanding the breadth of discretion granted to a |
trustee or other fiduciary in the trust instrument, including |
the use of such terms as "absolute", "sole", or "uncontrolled", |
such fiduciary shall exercise a discretionary power in good |
faith and in accordance with the terms and purposes of the |
trust instrument.
|
(b) Subject to subsection (e), and unless the trust |
instrument expressly indicates that a rule in this subsection |
does not apply:
|
(1) a person other than a settlor who is a beneficiary |
and a trustee or other fiduciary of a trust that confers on |
that fiduciary a power to make discretionary distributions |
to or for that fiduciary's personal benefit may exercise |
the power only in accordance with an ascertainable |
standard; and
|
(2) a trustee or other fiduciary may not exercise a |
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power to make discretionary distributions to satisfy a |
legal obligation of support that such fiduciary personally |
owes another person.
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(c) Subject to subsections (d) and (e), if a beneficiary of |
a trust, in an individual, trustee, or other capacity, removes |
a fiduciary and appoints a successor fiduciary who would be |
related or subordinate to that beneficiary within the meaning |
of Section 672(c) of the Internal Revenue Code if the |
beneficiary were the grantor, that successor fiduciary's |
discretionary powers are limited as follows:
|
(1) the fiduciary's discretionary power to make |
distributions to or for the benefit of that beneficiary is |
limited to an ascertainable standard;
|
(2) the fiduciary's discretionary power may not be |
exercised to satisfy any of that beneficiary's legal |
obligations for support or other purposes; and
|
(3) the fiduciary's discretionary power may not be |
exercised to grant to that beneficiary a general power of |
appointment.
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(d) Subsection (c) does not apply if:
|
(1) the appointment of the trustee or other fiduciary |
by the beneficiary may be made only in conjunction with |
another person having a substantial interest in the |
property of the trust subject to the power that is adverse |
to the interest of the beneficiary within the meaning of |
Section 2041(b)(1)(C)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code; or
|
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(2) the appointment is in conformity with a procedure |
governing appointments approved by the court before the |
effective date of this Code.
|
(e) Subsections (b) and (c) do not apply to:
|
(1) a person other than a settlor who is a beneficiary |
and trustee or other fiduciary of a trust that confers on |
such fiduciary a power exercisable only in conjunction with |
another person having a substantial interest in the |
property subject to the power that is adverse to the |
interest of that fiduciary within the meaning of Section |
2041(b)(1)(C)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code;
|
(2) a power held by the settlor's spouse who is the |
trustee or other fiduciary of a trust for which a marital |
deduction, as defined in Section 2056(b)(5) or 2523(e) of |
the Internal Revenue Code, was previously allowed;
|
(3) any trust during any period that the trust may be |
revoked or amended by its settlor;
|
(4) a trust if contributions to the trust qualify for |
the annual exclusion under Section 2503(c) of the Internal |
Revenue Code; or
|
(5) any portion of a trust over which the trustee or |
other fiduciary is expressly granted in the trust |
instrument a presently exercisable or testamentary general |
power of appointment.
|
(f) A power whose exercise is limited or prohibited by |
subsections (b) and (c) may be exercised by a majority of the |
|
remaining trustees or other fiduciaries whose exercise of the |
power is not so limited or prohibited. If the power of all |
trustees or other fiduciaries is so limited or prohibited, the |
court may appoint a special fiduciary with authority to |
exercise the power.
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Section 815. General powers of trustee. |
(a) A trustee, without authorization by the court, may |
exercise:
|
(1) powers conferred by the trust instrument; or
|
(2) except as limited by the trust instrument: |
(A) all powers over the trust property that an |
unmarried owner with legal capacity has over |
individually owned property;
|
(B) any other powers appropriate to achieve the |
proper investment, management, and distribution of the |
trust property; and
|
(C) any other powers conferred by this Code.
|
(b) The exercise of a power is subject to the fiduciary |
duties prescribed by this Code.
|
Section 816. Specific powers of trustee. Without limiting |
the authority conferred by Section 815, a trustee may:
|
(1) collect trust property and accept or reject |
additions to the trust property from a settlor or any other |
person;
|
|
(2) acquire or sell property, for cash or on credit, at |
public or private sale;
|
(3) exchange, partition, or otherwise change the |
character of trust property;
|
(4) deposit trust money in an account in a regulated |
financial-service institution;
|
(5) borrow money, with or without security, and |
mortgage or pledge or otherwise encumber trust property for |
a period within or extending beyond the duration of the |
trust;
|
(6) with respect to an interest in a proprietorship, |
partnership, limited liability company, business trust, |
corporation, or other form of business or enterprise, |
continue the business or other enterprise and take any |
action that may be taken by shareholders, members, or |
property owners, including merging, dissolving, pledging |
other trust assets or guaranteeing a debt obligation of the |
business or enterprise, or otherwise changing the form of |
business organization or contributing additional capital;
|
(7) with respect to stocks or other securities, |
exercise the rights of an absolute owner, including the |
right to:
|
(A) vote, or give proxies to vote, with or without |
power of substitution, or enter into or continue a |
voting trust agreement;
|
(B) hold a security in the name of a nominee or in |
|
other form without disclosure of the trust so that |
title may pass by delivery;
|
(C) pay calls, assessments, and other sums |
chargeable or accruing against the securities, and |
sell or exercise stock subscription or conversion |
rights;
|
(D) deposit the securities with a depository or |
other regulated financial-service institution; and
|
(E) participate in mergers, consolidations, |
foreclosures, reorganizations, and liquidations;
|
(8) with respect to an interest in real property, |
construct, or make ordinary or extraordinary repairs to, |
alterations to, or improvements in, buildings or other |
structures, demolish improvements, raze existing or erect |
new party walls or buildings, subdivide or develop land, |
dedicate any interest in real estate, dedicate land to |
public use or grant public or private easements, enter into |
contracts relating to real estate, and make or vacate plats |
and adjust boundaries;
|
(9) enter into a lease for any purpose as lessor or |
lessee, including a lease or other arrangement for |
exploration and removal of natural resources, with or |
without the option to purchase or renew, for a period |
within or extending beyond the duration of the trust;
|
(10) grant an option involving a sale, lease, or other |
disposition of trust property or acquire an option for the |
|
acquisition of property, including an option exercisable |
beyond the duration of the trust, and exercise an option so |
acquired;
|
(11) insure the property of the trust against damage or |
loss and insure the trustee, the trustee's agents, and |
beneficiaries against liability arising from the |
administration of the trust;
|
(12) abandon or decline to administer property of no |
value or of insufficient value to justify its collection or |
continued administration;
|
(13) with respect to possible liability for violation |
of environmental law:
|
(A) inspect or investigate property the trustee |
holds or has been asked to hold, or property owned or |
operated by an organization in which the trustee holds |
or has been asked to hold an interest, for the purpose |
of determining the application of environmental law |
with respect to the property; |
(B) take action to prevent, abate, or otherwise |
remedy any actual or potential violation of any |
environmental law affecting property held directly or |
indirectly by the trustee, whether taken before or |
after the assertion of a claim or the initiation of |
governmental enforcement;
|
(C) decline to accept property into trust or |
disclaim any power with respect to property that is or |
|
may be burdened with liability for violation of |
environmental law;
|
(D) compromise claims against the trust that may be |
asserted for an alleged violation of environmental |
law; and
|
(E) pay the expense of any inspection, review, |
abatement, or remedial action to comply with |
environmental law;
|
(14) pay, contest, prosecute, or abandon any claim, |
settle a claim or charges in favor of or against the trust, |
and release, in whole or in part, a claim belonging to the |
trust;
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(15) pay taxes, assessments, compensation of the |
trustee and of employees and agents of the trust, and other |
expenses incurred in the administration of the trust;
|
(16) exercise elections with respect to federal, |
state, and local taxes;
|
(17) select a mode of payment under any employee |
benefit or retirement plan, annuity, or life insurance |
payable to the trustee, exercise rights related to the |
employee benefit or retirement plan, annuity, or life |
insurance payable to the trustee, including exercise the |
right to indemnification for expenses and against |
liabilities, and take appropriate action to collect the |
proceeds;
|
(18) make loans out of trust property, including loans |
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to a beneficiary on terms and conditions the trustee |
considers to be fair and reasonable under the |
circumstances, and the trustee has a lien on future |
distributions for repayment of those loans;
|
(19) pledge trust property to guarantee loans made by |
others to the beneficiary;
|
(20) appoint a trustee to act in another jurisdiction |
to act as sole or co-trustee with respect to any part or |
all of trust property located in the other jurisdiction, |
confer upon the appointed trustee any or all of the rights, |
powers, and duties of the appointing trustee, require that |
the appointed trustee furnish security, and remove any |
trustee so appointed;
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(21) distribute income and principal in one or more of |
the following ways, without being required to see to the |
application of any distribution, as the trustee believes to |
be for the best interests of any beneficiary who at the |
time of distribution is incapacitated or in the opinion of |
the trustee is unable to manage property or business |
affairs because of incapacity:
|
(A) directly to the beneficiary;
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(B) to the guardian of the estate, or if none, the |
guardian of the person of the beneficiary;
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(C) to a custodian for the beneficiary under any |
state's Uniform Transfers to Minors Act, Uniform Gifts |
to Minors Act or Uniform Custodial Trust Act, and, for |
|
that purpose, to create a custodianship or custodial |
trust;
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(D) to an adult relative of the beneficiary to be |
expended on the beneficiary's behalf;
|
(E) by expending the money or using the property |
directly for the benefit of the beneficiary;
|
(F) to a trust, created before the distribution |
becomes payable, for the sole benefit of the |
beneficiary and those dependent upon the beneficiary |
during his or her lifetime, to be administered as a |
part of the trust, except that any amount distributed |
to the trust under this subparagraph (F) shall be |
separately accounted for by the trustee of the trust |
and shall be indefeasibly vested in the beneficiary so |
that if the beneficiary dies before complete |
distribution of the amounts, the amounts and the |
accretions, earnings, and income, if any, shall be paid |
to the beneficiary's estate, except that this |
subparagraph (F) does not apply to the extent that it |
would cause a trust otherwise qualifying for the |
federal estate tax marital deduction not to qualify; |
and
|
(G) by managing it as a separate fund on the |
beneficiary's behalf, subject to the beneficiary's |
continuing right to withdraw the distribution;
|
(22) on distribution of trust property or the division |
|
or termination of a trust, make distributions in divided or |
undivided interests, allocate particular assets in |
proportionate or disproportionate shares, value the trust |
property for those purposes, and adjust for resulting |
differences in valuation; |
(23) resolve a dispute concerning the interpretation |
of the trust or its administration by judicial proceeding, |
nonjudicial settlement agreement under Section 111, |
mediation, arbitration, or other procedure for alternative |
dispute resolution;
|
(24) prosecute or defend an action, claim, or judicial |
proceeding in any jurisdiction to protect trust property |
and the trustee in the performance of the trustee's duties;
|
(25) execute contracts, notes, conveyances, and other |
instruments that are useful to achieve or facilitate the |
exercise of the trustee's powers, regardless of whether the |
instruments contain covenants and warranties binding upon |
and creating a charge against the trust estate or excluding |
personal liability;
|
(26) on termination of the trust, exercise the powers |
appropriate to wind up the administration of the trust and |
distribute the trust property to the persons entitled to |
it;
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(27) enter into agreements for bank or other deposit |
accounts, safe deposit boxes, or custodian, agency, or |
depository arrangements for all or any part of the trust |
|
estate, including, to the extent fair to the beneficiaries, |
agreements for services provided by a bank operated by or |
affiliated with the trustee, and to pay reasonable |
compensation for those services, including, to the extent |
fair to the beneficiaries, compensation to the bank |
operated by or affiliated with the trustee, except that |
nothing in this Section shall be construed as removing any |
depository arrangements from the requirements of the |
prudent investor rule;
|
(28) engage attorneys, auditors, financial advisors, |
and other agents and pay reasonable compensation to such |
persons;
|
(29) invest in or hold undivided interests in property;
|
(30) if fair to the beneficiaries, deal with the |
executor, trustee, or other representative of any other |
trust or estate in which a beneficiary of the trust has an |
interest, even if the trustee is an executor, trustee, or |
other representative of the other trust or estate;
|
(31) make equitable division or distribution in cash or |
in kind, or both, and for that purpose may value any |
property divided or distributed in kind;
|
(32) rely upon an affidavit, certificate, letter, or |
other evidence reasonably believed to be genuine and on the |
basis of any such evidence to make any payment or |
distribution in good faith without liability;
|
(33) except as otherwise directed by the court, have |
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all of the rights, powers, and duties given to or imposed |
upon the trustee by law and the terms of the trust during |
the period between the termination of the trust and the |
distribution of the trust assets and during any period in |
which any litigation is pending that may void or invalidate |
the trust in whole or in part or affect the rights, powers, |
duties, or discretions of the trustee;
|
(34) plant and harvest crops; breed, raise, purchase, |
and sell livestock; lease land, equipment, or livestock for |
cash or on shares, purchase and sell, exchange or otherwise |
acquire or dispose of farm equipment and farm produce of |
all kinds; make improvements, construct, repair, or |
demolish and remove any buildings, structures, or fences, |
engage agents, managers, and employees and delegate powers |
to them; engage in drainage and conservation programs; |
terrace, clear, ditch, and drain lands and install |
irrigation systems; replace improvements and equipment; |
fertilize and improve the soil; engage in the growing, |
improvement, and sale of trees and other forest crops; |
participate or decline to participate in governmental |
agricultural or land programs; and perform such acts as the |
trustee deems appropriate using such methods as are |
commonly employed by other farm owners in the community in |
which the farm property is located;
|
(35) drill, mine, and otherwise operate for the |
development of oil, gas, and other minerals; enter into |
|
contracts relating to the installation and operation of |
absorption and repressuring plants; enter into unitization |
or pooling agreements for any purpose including primary, |
secondary, or tertiary recovery; place and maintain pipe |
lines; execute oil, gas, and mineral leases, division and |
transfer orders, grants, deeds, releases and assignments, |
and other instruments; participate in a cooperative coal |
marketing association or similar entity; and perform such |
other acts as the trustee deems appropriate using such |
methods as are commonly employed by owners of similar |
interests in the community in which the interests are |
located;
|
(36) continue an unincorporated business and |
participate in its management by having the trustee or one |
or more agents of the trustee act as a manager with |
appropriate compensation from the business and incorporate |
the business;
|
(37) continue a business in the partnership form and |
participate in its management by having the trustee or one |
or more agents of the trustee act as a partner, limited |
partner, or employee with appropriate compensation from |
the business; enter into new partnership agreements and |
incorporate the business; and, with respect to activities |
under this paragraph (37), the trustee or the agent or |
agents of the trustee shall not be personally liable to |
third persons with respect to actions not sounding in tort |
|
unless the trustee or agent fails to identify the trust |
estate and disclose that the trustee or agent is acting in |
a representative capacity, except that nothing in this |
paragraph impairs in any way the liability of the trust |
estate with respect to activities under this paragraph (37) |
to the extent of the assets of the trust estate. |
(38) Release, by means of any written renunciation, |
relinquishment, surrender, refusal to accept, |
extinguishment, and any other form of release, any power |
granted to the trustee by applicable law or the terms of a |
trust and held by such trustee in its fiduciary capacity, |
including any power to invade property, any power to alter, |
amend, or revoke any instrument, whether or not such |
release causes a termination of any right or interest |
thereunder, and any power remaining where one or more |
partial releases have heretofore or hereafter been made |
with respect to such power, whether heretofore or hereafter |
created or reserved as to: (i) any property that is subject |
thereto; (ii) any one or more of the objects thereof; or |
(iii) limit in any other respect the extent to which it may |
be exercised. The release may be permanent or applicable |
only for a specific time and may apply only to the trustee |
executing the release or the trustee and all future |
trustees, successor trustees, and co-trustees of the trust |
acting at any time or from time to time. |
|
Section 817. Distribution upon termination. Upon the |
occurrence of an event terminating a trust in whole or in part, |
or upon the exercise by a beneficiary of a right to withdraw |
trust principal, the trustee shall proceed expeditiously to |
make the distribution to the beneficiary. The trustee has the |
right to require from the beneficiary a written approval of the |
trustee's accountings provided to the beneficiary and, at the |
trustee's election, a refunding agreement from the beneficiary |
for liabilities that would otherwise be payable from trust |
property to the extent of the beneficiary's share of the |
distribution. An accounting approved under this Section is |
binding on the beneficiary providing the approval and on the |
beneficiary's successors, heirs, representatives, and assigns. |
A trustee may elect to withhold a reasonable amount of a |
distribution or require a reasonable reserve for the payment of |
debts, expenses, and taxes payable from the trust pending the |
receipt of a written approval of the trustee's accountings |
provided to the beneficiary and refunding agreement from a |
beneficiary or a judicial settlement of accounts. |
Section 818. (Reserved). |
Section 819. Nominee registration. The trustee may cause |
stocks, bonds, and other real or personal property belonging to |
the trust to be registered and held in the name of a nominee |
without mention of the trust in any instrument or record |
|
constituting or evidencing title thereto. The trustee is liable |
for the acts of the nominee with respect to any investment so |
registered. The records of the trustee shall show at all times |
the ownership of the investment by the trustee, and the stocks, |
bonds, and other similar investments shall be in the possession |
and control of the trustee and be kept separate and apart from |
assets that are the individual property of the trustee. |
Section 820. Proceeds of eminent domain or partition. If a |
trustee is appointed by a court of this State to receive money |
under eminent domain or partition proceedings and to invest it |
for the benefit of the person who would be entitled to the real |
estate or its income if it had not been taken or sold, on |
petition of any interested person describing the real estate to |
be purchased, the price to be paid, the probable income to be |
derived and the state of the title, the court may authorize the |
trustee to invest all or any part of the money in other real |
estate in this State. Title to the real estate so purchased |
shall be taken in the name of the trustee. If the interest of |
the beneficiary in the real estate taken or sold was a legal |
interest, the court shall direct the trustee to convey to the |
beneficiary a legal estate upon the same conditions and |
limitations of title, but the conveyance by the trustee shall |
preserve any right of entry for condition broken, possibility |
of reverter created by the instrument of title or any reversion |
or other vested interest that arose by operation of law at the |
|
time the instrument took effect. The court shall not direct the |
conveyance by the trustee unless there is a person or class of |
persons in being who would have a vested interest in the real |
estate taken or sold under the instrument of title to the real |
estate and who would be entitled to possession of the real |
estate if it had not been taken or sold. |
Section 821. Lands or estates subject to future interest or |
power of appointment; waste; appointment of trustee. If lands |
or any estate therein are subject to any legal or equitable |
future interest of any kind or to any power of appointment, |
whether a trust is involved or not, and it is made to appear |
that such lands or estate are liable to waste or depreciation |
in value, or that the sale thereof and the safe and proper |
investment of the proceeds will inure to the benefit and |
advantage of the persons entitled thereto, or that it is |
otherwise necessary for the conservation, preservation, or |
protection of the property or estate or of any present or |
future interest therein that such lands or estate be sold, |
mortgaged, leased, converted, exchanged, improved, managed or |
otherwise dealt with, the court may, pending the happening of |
the contingency, if any, and the vesting in possession of such |
future interest, declare a trust, and appoint a trustee or |
trustees for such lands or estate and vest in a trustee or |
trustees title to the property, and authorize and direct the |
sale of such property, either at a public sale or at private |
|
sale, and upon such terms and conditions as the court may |
direct, and in such case may authorize the trustee or trustees |
to make such sale and to receive, hold and invest the proceeds |
thereof under the direction of the court for the benefit of the |
persons entitled or who may become entitled thereto according |
to their respective rights and interests, authorize and direct |
that all or any portion of the property, or the proceeds |
thereof, so subject to such future interests or powers of |
appointment, be leased, mortgaged, converted, exchanged, |
improved, managed, invested, reinvested, or otherwise dealt |
with, as the rights and interests of the parties and the |
equities of the case may require, and to that end may confer |
all necessary powers on the trustee or trustees. All orders of |
every court entered pursuant to this Section after June 30, |
1982 and before September 16, 1985 vesting title to property in |
a trustee are hereby validated and such title is vested in such |
trustee effective the day the court entered such order. |
Article 9. Illinois Prudent Investor Law; Life Insurance; |
Affiliated Investments. |
Section 900. Article title. This Article may be referred to |
as the Illinois Prudent Investor Law. |
Section 901. Prudent investor rule. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), a |
|
trustee administering a trust has a duty to invest and manage |
the trust assets to comply with the prudent investor rule set |
forth in this Article.
|
(b) The prudent investor rule, a default rule, may be |
expanded, restricted, eliminated, or otherwise altered by |
express terms of the trust. A trustee is not liable to a |
beneficiary for the trustee's reasonable and good faith |
reliance on those express provisions.
|
Section 902. Standard of care; portfolio strategy; risk and |
return objectives. |
(a) A trustee has a duty to invest and manage trust assets |
as a prudent investor would, considering the purposes, terms, |
distribution requirements, and other circumstances of the |
trust. This standard requires the exercise of reasonable care, |
skill, and caution and applies not in isolation, but in the |
context of the trust portfolio as a whole and as a part of an |
overall investment strategy that incorporates risk and return |
objectives reasonably suitable to the trust.
|
(b) A trustee has a duty to pursue an investment strategy |
that considers both the reasonable production of income and |
safety of capital, consistent with the trustee's duty of |
impartiality and the purposes of the trust. Whether investments |
are underproductive or overproductive of income shall be judged |
by the portfolio as a whole and not as to any particular asset.
|
(c) The circumstances that a trustee may consider in making |
|
investment decisions include, without limitation:
|
(1) the general economic conditions;
|
(2) the possible effect of inflation or deflation;
|
(3) the expected tax consequences of investment |
decisions or strategies;
|
(4) the role each investment or course of action plays |
within the overall portfolio;
|
(5) the expected total return including both income |
yield and appreciation of capital;
|
(6) the duty to incur only reasonable and appropriate |
costs;
|
(7) environmental and social considerations;
|
(8) governance policies of the entities in which the |
trustee may invest; |
(9) needs for liquidity, regularity of income, and |
preservation or appreciation of capital; and
|
(10) an asset's special relationship or value, if any, |
to the purpose of the trust or to one or more of the |
beneficiaries.
|
(d) In addition to the circumstances listed in subsection |
(c), a trustee may, but need not, consider related trusts and |
the assets of beneficiaries known to the trustee when making |
investment decisions.
|
Section 903. Diversification. A trustee has a duty to |
diversify the investments of the trust unless, under the |
|
circumstances, the trustee reasonably believes it is in the |
interests of the beneficiaries and furthers the purposes of the |
trust not to diversify. |
Section 904. Duties at inception of trusteeship. A trustee |
has a duty, within a reasonable time after the acceptance of a |
trusteeship, to review trust assets and to make and implement |
decisions concerning the retention and disposition of original |
preexisting investments, in order to conform to this Article. A |
trustee's decision to retain or dispose of an asset may |
properly be influenced by the asset's special relationship or |
value to the purposes of the trust or to some or all of the |
beneficiaries, consistent with the trustee's duty of |
impartiality. |
Section 905. Court action. Nothing in this Article |
abrogates or restricts the power of an appropriate court in |
proper cases to: (i) direct or permit the trustee to deviate |
from the terms of the trust; or (ii) to direct or permit the |
trustee to take, or to restrain the trustee from taking, any |
action regarding the making or retention of investments. |
Section 906. (Reserved). |
Section 907. (Reserved). |
|
Section 908. Reviewing compliance. No specific investment |
course of action is, taken alone, prudent or imprudent. The |
trustee may invest in every kind of property and type of |
investment, subject to this Article. A trustee's investment |
decisions and actions are to be judged in terms of the |
trustee's reasonable business judgment regarding the |
anticipated effect on the trust portfolio as a whole under the |
facts and circumstances prevailing at the time of the decision |
or action. This Article is a test of conduct and not of |
resulting performance. |
Section 909. Delegation of investment and management |
functions. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, |
before delegating any investment functions to an agent in |
accordance with subsection (b) of Section 807, a trustee shall |
conduct an inquiry into the experience, performance history, |
professional licensing or registration, if any, and financial |
stability of the investment agent. |
Section 910. Language invoking standard of Article. The |
following terms or comparable language in the investment powers |
and related provisions of a trust instrument, unless otherwise |
limited or modified by that instrument, shall be construed as |
authorizing any investment or strategy permitted under this |
Article: "investments permissible by law for investment of |
trust funds", "legal investments", "authorized investments", |
|
"using the judgment and care under the circumstances then |
prevailing that persons of prudence, discretion, and |
intelligence exercise in the management of their own affairs, |
not in regard to speculation but in regard to the permanent |
disposition of their funds, considering the probable income as |
well as the probable safety of their capital", "prudent man |
rule", "prudent trustee rule", "prudent person rule", and |
"prudent investor rule". |
Section 911. (See Section 900 for short title.) |
Section 912. Application to existing trusts. The Sections |
of this Article that precede this Section apply to all existing |
and future trusts, but only as to actions or inactions |
occurring on or after January 1, 1992. |
Section 913. Life insurance. |
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision, the duties of a |
trustee with respect to acquiring or retaining as a trust asset |
a contract of insurance upon the life of the settlor, upon the |
lives of the settlor and the settlor's spouse, or upon the life |
of any person for which the trustee has an insurable interest |
in accordance with Section 113, do not include any of the |
following duties:
|
(1) to determine whether any contract of life insurance |
in the trust, or to be acquired by the trust, is or remains |
|
a proper investment, including, without limitation, with |
respect to:
|
(A) the type of insurance contract;
|
(B) the quality of the insurance contract;
|
(C) the quality of the insurance company;
or |
(D) the investments held within the insurance |
contract. |
(2) to diversify the investment among different |
policies or insurers, among available asset classes, or |
within an insurance contract;
|
(3) to inquire about or investigate into the health or |
financial condition of an insured;
|
(4) to prevent the lapse of a life insurance contract |
if the trust does not receive contributions or hold other |
readily marketable assets to pay the life insurance |
contract premiums; or
|
(5) to exercise any policy options, rights, or |
privileges available under any contract of life insurance |
in the trust, including any right to borrow the cash value |
or reserve of the policy, acquire a paid-up policy, or |
convert to a different policy.
|
(b) The trustee is not liable to the beneficiaries of the |
trust, the beneficiaries of the contract of insurance, or to |
any other party for loss arising from the absence of these |
duties regarding insurance contracts under this Section.
|
(c) This Section applies to an irrevocable trust created |
|
after the effective date of this Code or to a revocable trust |
that becomes irrevocable after the effective date of this Code. |
The trustee of a trust described under this Section established |
before the effective date of this Code shall notify the settlor |
in writing that, unless the settlor provides written notice to |
the contrary to the trustee within 90 days of the trustee's |
notice, this Section applies to the trust. This Section does |
not apply if, within 90 days of the trustee's notice, the |
settlor notifies the trustee in writing that this Section does |
not apply. If the settlor is deceased, then the trustee shall |
give notice to all of the legally competent current |
beneficiaries, and this Section applies to the trust unless the |
majority of the beneficiaries notify the trustee to the |
contrary in writing within 90 days of the trustee's notice.
|
Section 914. Investments in affiliated investments; |
transactions with affiliates. |
(a) As used in this Section:
|
(1) "Affiliate" means any corporation or other entity |
that directly or indirectly is controlled by a financial |
institution acting in a fiduciary capacity, or is related |
to the financial institution by shareholding or other means |
of common ownership and control.
|
(2) "Affiliated investment" means an investment for |
which the fiduciary or an affiliate of the fiduciary acts |
as advisor, administrator, distributor, placement agent, |
|
underwriter, broker, or in any other capacity for which the |
fiduciary or an affiliate of the fiduciary receives or has |
received compensation from the investment.
|
(3) "Fiduciary capacity" includes an agent with |
investment discretion to determine what securities or |
other assets to purchase or sell on behalf of a fiduciary |
account.
|
(b) A financial institution acting in any fiduciary |
capacity may purchase any affiliated investment, including, |
but not limited to, insurance, equity derivatives, or |
securities underwritten or otherwise distributed by the |
financial institution or by an affiliate, through or directly |
from the financial institution or an affiliate or from a |
syndicate or selling group that includes the financial |
institution or an affiliate, if the purchase is otherwise |
prudent under the applicable fiduciary investment standard.
|
(c) The compensation paid to a financial institution acting |
in any fiduciary capacity or an affiliate of the financial |
institution for any affiliated investment under this Section |
must be reasonable and may not be prohibited by the instrument |
governing the fiduciary relationship. The compensation for the |
affiliated investment may be in addition to the compensation |
that the financial institution is otherwise entitled to receive |
from the fiduciary account.
|
(d) A financial institution shall disclose, at least |
annually:
|
|
(1) any purchase of an affiliated investment |
authorized by this Section, including all compensation |
paid or to be paid by the fiduciary account or to be |
received by an affiliate arising from the affiliated |
investment;
|
(2) the capacities in which the financial institution |
or an affiliate acts for the issuer of the securities or |
the provider of the products or services; and
|
(3) that the financial institution or an affiliate may |
have an interest in the affiliated investment.
|
(e) The disclosure shall be given, in writing or |
electronically by any document prepared for an affiliated |
investment under federal or state securities laws or in a |
written summary that includes all compensation received or to |
be received by the financial institution or any affiliate and |
an explanation of the manner in which the compensation is |
calculated (either as a percentage of the assets invested or by |
some other formula or method), to each principal in an agency |
relationship and to all persons entitled to receive account |
statements of any other fiduciary account.
|
(f) This Section applies to the purchase of securities made |
at the time of the initial offering of the securities or at any |
time thereafter.
|
(g) A financial institution that has complied with the |
terms of this Section has full authority to administer an |
affiliated investment, including the authority to vote proxies |
|
on the affiliated investment.
|
Article 10. Liability of Trustees and Rights of Persons Dealing |
with Trustee. |
Section 1001. Remedies for breach of trust. |
(a) A violation by a trustee of a duty the trustee owes to |
a beneficiary is a breach of trust.
|
(b) To remedy a breach of trust that has occurred or may |
occur, the court may:
|
(1) compel the trustee to perform the trustee's duties;
|
(2) enjoin the trustee from committing a breach of |
trust;
|
(3) compel the trustee to redress a breach of trust by |
paying money, restoring property, or other means;
|
(4) order a trustee to account;
|
(5) appoint a special fiduciary to take possession of |
the trust property and administer the trust;
|
(6) suspend the trustee;
|
(7) remove the trustee as provided in Section 706; |
(8) reduce or deny compensation to the trustee; or |
(9) subject to Section 1012, void an act of the |
trustee, impose a lien or a constructive trust on trust |
property, or trace trust property wrongfully disposed of |
and recover the property or its proceeds.
|
(c) Nothing in this Section limits the equitable powers of |
|
the court to order other appropriate relief.
|
Section 1002. Damages for breach of trust. |
(a) A trustee who commits a breach of trust is liable to |
the beneficiaries affected for the greater of:
|
(1) the amount required to restore the value of the |
trust property and trust distributions to what they would |
have been had the breach not occurred; or
|
(2) the value of any benefit received by the trustee by |
reason of the breach.
|
(b) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, if |
more than one trustee is liable to the beneficiaries for a |
breach of trust, a trustee is entitled to contribution from the |
other trustee or trustees liable for the breach. A trustee is |
not entitled to contribution if the trustee was substantially |
more at fault than another trustee or if the trustee committed |
the breach of trust in bad faith or with reckless indifference |
to the purposes of the trust or the interests of the |
beneficiaries. A trustee who received a benefit from the breach |
of trust is not entitled to contribution from another trustee |
to the extent of the benefit received.
|
Section 1003. No damages in absence of breach. Except as |
provided in Section 802, absent a breach of trust, a trustee is |
not liable to a beneficiary for a loss or depreciation in the |
value of trust property or for any benefit received by the |
|
trustee by reason of the administration of the trust. |
Section 1004. Attorney's fees and costs. In a judicial |
proceeding involving the administration of a trust, the court, |
as equity may require, may award costs and expenses, including |
reasonable attorney's fees, to any party, to be paid by another |
party or from the trust that is the subject of the controversy. |
Section 1005. Limitation on action against trustee. |
(a) A beneficiary may not commence a proceeding against a |
trustee for breach of trust for any matter disclosed in writing |
by a trust accounting, or otherwise as provided in Sections |
813.1, 813.2, and Section 1102, after the date on which the |
disclosure becomes binding upon the beneficiary as provided |
below:
|
(1) With respect to a trust that becomes irrevocable |
after the effective date of this Code and to trustees |
accepting appointment after the effective date of this |
Code, a matter disclosed in writing by a trust accounting |
or otherwise pursuant to Section 813.1 and Section 1102 is |
binding on each person who receives the information and |
each person represented as provided in Article 3 by a |
person who receives the information, and all of the |
person's respective successors, representatives, heirs, |
and assigns, unless an action against the trustee is |
instituted within 2 years after the date the information is |
|
furnished. A trust accounting or other communication |
adequately discloses the existence of a potential claim for |
breach of trust if it provides sufficient information so |
that the person entitled to receive the information knows |
of the potential claim or should have inquired into its |
existence.
|
(2) With respect to a trust that became irrevocable |
before the effective date of this Code or a trustee that |
accepted appointment before the effective date of this |
Code, a current account is binding on each beneficiary |
receiving the account and on the beneficiary's heirs and |
assigns unless an action against the trustee is instituted |
by the beneficiary or the beneficiary's heirs and assigns |
within 3 years after the date the current account is |
furnished, and a final accounting is binding on each |
beneficiary receiving the final accounting and all persons |
claiming by or through the beneficiary, unless an action |
against the trustee is instituted by the beneficiary or |
person claiming by or through him or her within 3 years |
after the date the final account is furnished. If the |
account is provided to the representative of the estate of |
the beneficiary or to a spouse, parent, adult child, or |
guardian of the person of the beneficiary, the account is |
binding on the beneficiary unless an action is instituted |
against the trustee by the representative of the estate of |
the beneficiary or by the spouse, parent, adult child, or |
|
guardian of the person to whom the account is furnished |
within 3 years after the date it is furnished. |
(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2), with |
respect to trust estates that terminated and were |
distributed 10 years or less before January 1, 1988, the |
final account furnished to the beneficiaries entitled to |
distribution of the trust estate is binding on the |
beneficiaries receiving the final account, and all persons |
claiming by or through them, unless an action against the |
trustee is instituted by the beneficiary or person claiming |
by or through him or her within 5 years after January 1, |
1988 or within 10 years after the date the final account |
was furnished, whichever is longer.
|
(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1), (2) and (3), with |
respect to trust estates that terminated and were |
distributed more than 10 years before January 1, 1988, the |
final account furnished to the beneficiaries entitled to |
distribution of the trust estate is binding on the |
beneficiaries receiving the final account, and all persons |
claiming by or through them, unless an action against the |
trustee is instituted by the beneficiary or person claiming |
by or through him or her within 2 years after January 1, |
1988.
|
(b) Unless barred earlier under subsection (a), a judicial |
proceeding by a beneficiary against a trustee for breach of |
trust must be commenced within 5 years after the first to occur |
|
of:
|
(1) the removal, resignation, or death of the trustee;
|
(2) the termination of the beneficiary's interest in |
the trust; or
|
(3) the termination of the trust.
|
(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a |
beneficiary may bring any action against the trustee for |
fraudulent concealment within the time limit set forth in |
Section 13-215 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
|
Section 1006. Reliance on trust instrument. A trustee who |
acts in reasonable reliance on the express language of the |
trust instrument is not liable to a beneficiary for a breach of |
trust to the extent the breach resulted from the reliance. |
Section 1007. Event affecting administration or |
distribution. If the happening of an event, including, but not |
limited to, marriage, divorce, performance of educational |
requirements, or death, affects the administration or |
distribution of a trust, a trustee who has exercised reasonable |
care to ascertain the happening of the event is not liable for |
a loss resulting from the trustee's lack of knowledge. |
Section 1008. Exculpation of trustee. |
(a) A term of a trust relieving a trustee of liability for |
breach of trust is unenforceable to the extent that it:
|
|
(1) relieves the trustee of liability for breach of |
trust committed in bad faith or with reckless indifference |
to the purposes of the trust or the interests of the |
beneficiaries; or
|
(2) was inserted as the result of an abuse by the |
trustee of a fiduciary or confidential relationship to the |
settlor.
|
(b) An exculpatory term drafted or caused to be drafted by |
the trustee is invalid as an abuse of a fiduciary or |
confidential relationship unless the trustee proves that the |
exculpatory term is fair under the circumstances and that its |
existence and contents were adequately communicated to the |
settlor. These conditions are satisfied if the settlor was |
represented by independent counsel.
|
Section 1009. Beneficiary's consent, release, or |
ratification. |
(a) A trustee is not liable to a beneficiary, or to anyone |
claiming by or through the beneficiary, for breach of trust if |
the beneficiary consented to the conduct constituting the |
breach, released the trustee from liability for the breach, or |
ratified the transaction constituting the breach, unless:
|
(1) the consent, release, or ratification of the |
beneficiary was induced by improper conduct of the trustee; |
or
|
(2) at the time of the consent, release, or |
|
ratification, the beneficiary did not know of the |
beneficiary's rights or of the material facts relating to |
the breach.
|
(b) If the beneficiary's consent, release, or ratification |
involves a self-dealing transaction, the consent, release, or |
ratification is binding only if the transaction was fair and |
reasonable. The condition that a self-dealing transaction must |
be fair and reasonable is satisfied if the beneficiary was |
represented by independent counsel. No consideration is |
required for the consent, release, or ratification to be valid. |
Section 1010. Limitation on personal liability of trustee. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in the contract, a trustee |
is not personally liable on a contract properly entered into in |
the trustee's fiduciary capacity in the course of administering |
the trust if the trustee in the contract disclosed the |
fiduciary capacity.
|
(b) A trustee is personally liable for torts committed in |
the course of administering a trust, or for obligations arising |
from ownership or control of trust property, including |
liability for violation of environmental law, only if the |
trustee is personally at fault.
|
(c) A claim based on a contract entered into by a trustee |
in the trustee's fiduciary capacity, on an obligation arising |
from ownership or control of trust property, or on a tort |
committed in the course of administering a trust, may be |
|
asserted in a judicial proceeding against the trustee in the |
trustee's fiduciary capacity, whether or not the trustee is |
personally liable for the claim.
|
Section 1011. Interest as general partner. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c) or |
unless personal liability is imposed in the contract, a trustee |
who holds an interest as a general partner in a general or |
limited partnership is not personally liable on a contract |
entered into by the partnership after the trust's acquisition |
of the interest if the fiduciary capacity was disclosed in the |
contract or in a statement previously filed pursuant to the |
Uniform Partnership Act (1997) or Uniform Limited Partnership |
Act (2001) or any other similar state law.
|
(b) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), a |
trustee who holds an interest as a general partner is not |
personally liable for torts committed by the partnership or for |
obligations arising from ownership or control of the interest |
unless the trustee is personally at fault.
|
(c) The immunity provided by this Section does not apply if |
an interest in the partnership is held by the trustee in a |
capacity other than that of trustee or is held by the trustee's |
spouse or one or more of the trustee's descendants, siblings, |
or parents, or the spouse of any of them.
|
(d) If the trustee of a revocable trust holds an interest |
as a general partner, the settlor is personally liable for |
|
contracts and other obligations of the partnership as if the |
settlor were a general partner.
|
Section 1012. Protection of person dealing with trustee. |
(a) A person other than a beneficiary or a beneficiary's |
representative under Article 3 acting in a representative |
capacity who in good faith assists a trustee, or who in good |
faith and for value deals with a trustee, without knowledge |
that the trustee is exceeding or improperly exercising the |
trustee's powers is protected from liability as if the trustee |
properly exercised the power.
|
(b) A person other than a beneficiary or a beneficiary's |
representative under Article 3 acting in a representative |
capacity who in good faith deals with a trustee is not required |
to inquire into the extent of the trustee's powers or the |
propriety of their exercise.
|
(c) A person, including a beneficiary, who in good faith |
delivers assets to a trustee need not ensure their proper |
application.
|
(d) A person other than a beneficiary who in good faith |
assists a former trustee, or who in good faith and for value |
deals with a former trustee, without knowledge that the |
trusteeship has terminated is protected from liability as if |
the former trustee were still a trustee.
|
(e) Comparable protective provisions of other laws |
relating to commercial transactions or transfer of securities |
|
by fiduciaries prevail over the protection provided by this |
Section.
|
Section 1013. Certification of trust. |
(a) Instead of furnishing a copy of the trust instrument to |
a person other than a beneficiary, the trustee may furnish to |
the person a certification of trust containing the following |
information:
|
(1) a statement that the trust exists and the date the |
trust instrument was executed;
|
(2) the identity of the settlor;
|
(3) the identity and address of the currently acting |
trustee;
|
(4) the powers of the trustee; |
(5) the revocability or irrevocability of the trust, |
whether the trust is amendable or unamendable, and the |
identity of any person holding a power to revoke the trust;
|
(6) the authority of co-trustees to sign or otherwise |
authenticate and whether all or less than all are required |
in order to exercise powers of the trustee;
|
(7) the trust's taxpayer identification number; and
|
(8) the manner of taking title to trust property.
|
(b) A certification of trust must be signed or otherwise |
authenticated by one or more of the trustees. A third party may |
require that the certification of trust be acknowledged.
|
(c) A certification of trust must state that the trust has |
|
not been revoked, modified, or amended in any manner that would |
cause the representations contained in the certification of |
trust to be incorrect.
|
(d) A certification of trust need not contain the |
dispositive terms of a trust.
|
(e) A recipient of a certification of trust may require the |
trustee to furnish copies of those excerpts from the original |
trust instrument and later amendments that designate the |
trustee and confer upon the trustee the power to act in the |
pending transaction.
|
(f) A person who acts in reliance upon a certification of |
trust without actual knowledge that the representations |
contained therein are incorrect is not liable to any person for |
so acting and may assume without inquiry the existence of the |
facts contained in the certification. Knowledge of the trust |
instrument may not be inferred solely from the fact that a copy |
of all or part of the trust instrument is held by the person |
relying upon the certification.
|
(g) A person who in good faith enters into a transaction in |
reliance upon a certification of trust may enforce the |
transaction against the trust property as if the |
representations contained in the certification were correct.
|
(h) A person making a demand for the trust instrument in |
addition to a certification of trust or excerpts is liable for |
damages if the court determines that the person did not act in |
good faith in demanding the trust instrument. A person required |
|
to examine a complete copy of the trust instrument for purposes |
of complying with applicable federal, state, or local law, a |
person acting in a fiduciary capacity with respect to a trust, |
and the Attorney General's Charitable Trust Bureau are deemed |
to be acting in good faith when demanding a copy of the trust |
instrument. This Section does not modify or limit any |
obligation a trustee may have to furnish a copy of a trust |
instrument to the Attorney General under the Charitable Trust |
Act or the Solicitation for Charity Act.
|
(i) This Section does not limit the right of a person to |
obtain a copy of the trust instrument in a judicial proceeding |
concerning the trust.
|
(j) A certification of trust may be substantially as |
follows, but nothing in this subsection invalidates or bars the |
use of a certification of trust in any other or different form:
|
CERTIFICATION OF TRUST |
Name of trust: ...............................................
|
Date trust instrument was executed: ..........................
|
Tax Identification Number of trust (SSN or EIN): .............
|
Name(s) of settlor(s) of trust: ..............................
|
Name(s) of currently acting trustee(s): ......................
|
Address(es) of currently acting trustee(s): ..................
|
.... This trust states that .... of .... co-trustee(s) are |
required to exercise the powers of the trustee.
|
.... The co-trustees authorized to sign or otherwise |
authenticate on behalf of the trust are: .....................
|
|
.... There are no co-trustees authorized to sign or otherwise |
authenticate on behalf of the trust. |
Name(s) of successor trustee(s): .............................
|
The trustee(s) has (have) the power to (state, synopsize, or |
describe relevant powers): . |
Title to the trust property shall be taken as follows (for |
example, "John Doe and Jane Doe, co-trustees of the Doe Family |
Living Trust, dated January 4, 1999"): .......................
|
.... This is an irrevocable trust.
|
.... This is a revocable trust. Name(s) of person(s) holding |
power to revoke the trust: ...................................
|
.... This is an unamendable trust.
|
.... This trust is amendable. Name(s) of person(s) holding |
power to amend the trust: .................................... |
I (we) certify that the above-named trust is in full force and |
has not been revoked, modified, or amended in any manner that |
would cause the representations in this Certification of Trust |
to be incorrect. |
IN WITNESS THEREOF, each of the undersigned, being a trustee of |
the above-named trust with the authority to execute this |
Certification of Trust, does hereby execute it this ..... day |
of .........., ....... |
Trustee Signature: ............. |
|
Printed Name: .................. |
Trustee Signature: .............
|
Printed Name: .................. |
[OPTIONAL: |
State of .................) |
County of ................) |
This instrument was signed and acknowledged before me on |
.........., ...... (date) by (name/s of
person/s): ......... |
(Signature of Notary Public): |
............................ |
(SEAL)] |
Section 1014. Reliance on Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation. No trustee or other person is liable |
under this Code for any act done or omitted in good faith in |
conformity with any rule, interpretation, or opinion issued by |
the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, |
notwithstanding that after the act or omission has occurred, |
the rule, opinion, or interpretation upon which reliance is |
placed is amended, rescinded, or determined by judicial or |
other authority to be invalid for any reason. |
|
Article 11. Total Return Trusts. |
Section 1101. Total return trust defined; trustee duty to |
inform. |
(a) In this Article, "total return trust" means a trust |
converted in accordance with this Article that the trustee |
shall manage and invest seeking a total return without regard |
to whether the return is from income or appreciation of |
principal.
|
(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, a |
trustee has no duty to inform beneficiaries about the |
availability of this Article and has no duty to review the |
trust to determine whether any action should be taken under |
this Article unless requested to do so in writing by a |
qualified beneficiary.
|
Section 1102. Conversion by trustee. A trustee may convert |
a trust to a total return trust as described in this Article if |
all of the following apply:
|
(1) The trust describes the amount that may or must be |
distributed to a beneficiary by referring to the trust's |
income, and the trustee determines that conversion to a |
total return trust will enable the trustee to better carry |
out the purposes of the trust and the conversion is in the |
best interests of the beneficiaries; |
(2) the trustee sends a written notice of the trustee's |
|
decision to convert the trust to a total return trust, |
specifying a prospective effective date for the conversion |
and including a copy of this Article, to all of the |
qualified beneficiaries; and |
(3) no qualified beneficiary objects to the conversion |
to a total return trust in a writing delivered to the |
trustee within 60 days after the notice is sent.
|
Section 1103. Conversion by agreement. Conversion to a |
total return trust may be made by agreement between a trustee |
and all qualified beneficiaries. The agreement may include any |
actions a court could properly order under Section 1108; |
however, any distribution percentage determined by the |
agreement may not be less than 3% nor greater than 5%. |
Section 1104. Conversion or reconversion by court. |
(a) The trustee may for any reason elect to petition the |
court to order conversion to a total return trust, including |
without limitation the reason that conversion under Section |
1102 is unavailable because a beneficiary timely objects to the |
conversion to a total return trust.
|
(b) A beneficiary may request the trustee to convert to a |
total return trust or adjust the distribution percentage. If |
the trustee declines or fails to act within 6 months after |
receiving a written request to do so, the beneficiary may |
petition the court to order the conversion or adjustment.
|
|
(c) The trustee may petition the court prospectively to |
reconvert from a total return trust or adjust the distribution |
percentage if the trustee determines that the reconversion or |
adjustment will enable the trustee to better carry out the |
purposes of the trust. A beneficiary may request the trustee to |
petition the court prospectively to reconvert from a total |
return trust or adjust the distribution percentage. If the |
trustee declines or fails to act within 6 months after |
receiving a written request to do so, the beneficiary may |
petition the court to order the reconversion or adjustment.
|
(d) In a judicial proceeding under this Section, the |
trustee may, but need not, present the trustee's opinions and |
reasons (1) for supporting or opposing conversion to (or |
reconversion from or adjustment of the distribution percentage |
of) a total return trust, including whether the trustee |
believes conversion (or reconversion or adjustment of the |
distribution percentage) would enable the trustee to better |
carry out the purposes of the trust, and (2) about any other |
matters relevant to the proposed conversion (or reconversion or |
adjustment of the distribution percentage). A trustee's |
actions in accordance with this Section shall not be deemed |
improper or inconsistent with the trustee's duty of |
impartiality unless the court finds from all the evidence that |
the trustee acted in bad faith.
|
(e) The court shall order conversion to (or reconversion |
prospectively from or adjustment of the distribution |
|
percentage of) a total return trust if the court determines |
that the conversion (or reconversion or adjustment of the |
distribution percentage) will enable the trustee to better |
carry out the purposes of the trust and the conversion (or |
reconversion or adjustment of the distribution percentage) is |
in the best interests of the beneficiaries.
|
(f) The court may order any of the following actions in a |
proceeding brought by a trustee or a beneficiary under this |
Section:
|
(1) select a distribution percentage other than 4%;
|
(2) average the valuation of the trust's net assets |
over a period other than 3 years;
|
(3) reconvert prospectively from or adjust the |
distribution percentage of a total return trust;
|
(4) direct the distribution of net income (determined |
as if the trust were not a total return trust) in excess of |
the distribution amount as to any or all trust assets if |
the distribution is necessary to preserve a tax benefit; or
|
(5) change or direct any administrative procedure as |
the court determines necessary or helpful for the proper |
functioning of the total return trust.
|
(g) Nothing in this Section limits the equitable powers of |
the court to grant other relief.
|
Section 1105. Post conversion. While a trust is a total |
return trust, all of the following apply to the trust:
|
|
(1) the trustee shall make income distributions in |
accordance with the trust instrument subject to this |
Article; |
(2) the term "income" in the trust instrument means an |
annual amount (the "distribution amount") equal to a |
percentage (the "distribution percentage") of the net fair |
market value of the trust's assets, whether the assets are |
considered income or principal under the Principal and |
Income Act, averaged over the lesser of:
|
(A) the 3 preceding years; or
|
(B) the period during which the trust has been in |
existence;
|
(3) the distribution percentage for any trust |
converted to a total return trust by a trustee in |
accordance with Section 1102 shall be 4%;
|
(4) the trustee shall pay to a beneficiary (in the case |
of an underpayment) and shall recover from a beneficiary |
(in the case of an overpayment) an amount equal to the |
difference between the amount properly payable and the |
amount actually paid, plus interest compounded annually at |
a rate per annum equal to the distribution percentage in |
the year or years while the underpayment or overpayment |
exists; and
|
(5) a change in the method of determining a reasonable |
current return by converting to a total return trust in |
accordance with this Article and substituting the |
|
distribution amount for net trust accounting income is a |
proper change in the definition of trust income |
notwithstanding any contrary provision of the Principal |
and Income Act, and the distribution amount shall be deemed |
a reasonable current return that fairly apportions the |
total return of a total return trust.
|
Section 1106. Administration. |
(a) As used in this Section, "excluded asset" means an |
asset for which there is no readily available market value and |
that the trustee determines in accordance with subsection (d) |
shall be excluded from the net fair market value of the trust's |
assets for purposes of determining the distribution amount |
under paragraph (2) of Section 1105.
|
(b) The trustee, in the trustee's discretion, may determine |
any of the following matters in administering a total return |
trust as the trustee from time to time determines necessary or |
helpful for the proper functioning of the trust:
|
(1) the effective date of a conversion to a total |
return trust;
|
(2) the manner of prorating the distribution amount for |
a short year in which a beneficiary's interest commences or |
ceases;
|
(3) whether distributions are made in cash or in kind;
|
(4) the manner of adjusting valuations and |
calculations of the distribution amount to account for |
|
other payments from or contributions to the trust;
|
(5) whether to value the trust's assets annually or |
more frequently;
|
(6) what valuation dates and how many valuation dates |
to use;
|
(7) valuation decisions about any asset for which there |
is no readily available market value, including:
|
(A) how frequently to value such an asset; and
|
(B) whether and how often to engage a professional |
appraiser to value such an asset; |
(8) which trust assets are excluded assets; and
|
(9) any other administrative matters as the trustee |
determines necessary or helpful for the proper functioning |
of the total return trust.
|
(c) The trustee shall distribute any net income received |
from excluded assets as provided in the trust instrument.
|
(d) Unless the trustee determines there are compelling |
reasons to the contrary considering all relevant factors |
including the best interests of the beneficiaries, the trustee |
shall treat each asset for which there is no readily available |
market value as an excluded asset. Examples of assets for which |
there is a readily available market value include: cash and |
cash equivalents; stocks, bonds, and other securities and |
instruments for which there is an established market on a stock |
exchange, in an over-the-counter market, or otherwise; and any |
other property that can reasonably be expected to be sold |
|
within one week of the decision to sell without extraordinary |
efforts by the seller. Examples of assets for which there is no |
readily available market value include: stocks, bonds, and |
other securities and instruments for which there is no |
established market on a stock exchange, in an over-the-counter |
market, or otherwise; real property; tangible personal |
property; and artwork and other collectibles.
|
(e) If tangible personal property or real property is |
possessed or occupied by a beneficiary, the trustee shall not |
limit or restrict any right of the beneficiary to use the |
property in accordance with the trust instrument regardless of |
whether the trustee treats the property as an excluded asset.
|
Section 1107. Allocations. |
(a) Expenses, taxes, and other charges that would be |
deducted from income if the trust were not a total return trust |
shall not be deducted from the distribution amount.
|
(b) Unless otherwise provided by the trust instrument, the |
trustee shall fund the distribution amount each year from the |
following sources for that year in the order listed:
|
(1) first from net income (as the term would be |
determined if the trust were not a total return trust);
|
(2) then from other ordinary income as determined for |
federal income tax purposes;
|
(3) then from net realized short-term capital gains as |
determined for federal income tax purposes;
|
|
(4) then from net realized long-term capital gains as |
determined for federal income tax purposes;
|
(5) then from trust principal comprised of assets for |
which there is a readily available market value; and
|
(6) then from other trust principal.
|
Section 1108. Restrictions. Conversion to a total return |
trust does not affect any provision in the trust instrument:
|
(1) directing or authorizing the trustee to distribute |
principal;
|
(2) directing or authorizing the trustee to distribute |
a fixed annuity or a fixed fraction of the value of trust |
assets;
|
(3) authorizing a beneficiary to withdraw a portion or |
all of the principal; or
|
(4) in any manner that would diminish an amount |
permanently set aside for charitable purposes under the |
trust instrument unless both income and principal are so |
set aside.
|
Section 1109. Tax limitations. |
(a) If a particular trustee is a beneficiary of the trust |
and conversion or failure to convert would enhance or diminish |
the beneficial interest of the trustee, or if possession or |
exercise of the conversion power by a particular trustee would |
alone cause any individual to be treated as owner of a part of |
|
the trust for income tax purposes or cause a part of the trust |
to be included in the gross estate of any individual for estate |
tax purposes, then the particular trustee may not participate |
as a trustee in the exercise of the conversion power except |
that the particular trustee may petition the court under |
subsection (a) of Section 1104 to order conversion in |
accordance with this Article.
|
(b) If the particular trustee has one or more co-trustees |
to whom subsection (a) does not apply, the co-trustee or |
co-trustees may convert the trust to a total return trust in |
accordance with this Article.
|
Section 1110. Releases. A trustee may irrevocably release |
the power granted by this Article if the trustee reasonably |
believes the release is in the best interests of the trust and |
its beneficiaries. The release may be personal to the releasing |
trustee or may apply generally to some or all subsequent |
trustees, and the release may be for any specified period, |
including a period measured by the life of an individual. |
Section 1111. Remedies. A trustee who reasonably and in |
good faith takes any action under this Article is not liable to |
any interested person. If a trustee reasonably and in good |
faith takes any action under this Article and an interested |
person opposes the action, the person's exclusive remedy is to |
obtain an order of the court directing the trustee to convert |
|
the trust to a total return trust, to reconvert from a total |
return trust, to change the distribution percentage, or to |
order any administrative procedures the court determines |
necessary or helpful for the proper functioning of the trust. |
An action by a trustee under this Article is presumed taken or |
omitted reasonably and in good faith unless it is determined by |
the court to have been an abuse of discretion. |
Section 1112. Application. This Article is available to |
trusts in existence on or after August 22, 2002. This Article |
shall be construed as pertaining to the administration of a |
trust and shall be available to any trust that is administered |
in Illinois or that is governed by Illinois law with respect to |
the meaning and effect of its terms unless one of the following |
apply:
|
(1) The trust is a trust described in Section |
642(c)(5), 664(d), 2702(a)(3), or 2702(b) of the Internal |
Revenue Code. |
(2) The trust instrument expressly prohibits use of |
this Article by specific reference to this Article or a |
prior corresponding law. A provision in the trust |
instrument in the form: "Neither the provisions of Article |
11 of the Illinois Trust Code nor any corresponding |
provision of future law may be used in the administration |
of this trust" or a similar provision demonstrating that |
intent is sufficient to preclude the use of this Article.
|
|
Section 1113. Application to express trusts. |
(a) In this Section:
|
(1) "Unitrust" means a trust the terms of which require |
distribution of a unitrust amount, without regard to |
whether the trust has been converted to a total return |
trust in accordance with this Article or whether the trust |
is established by express terms of the trust.
|
(2) "Unitrust amount" means an amount equal to a |
percentage of a trust's assets that may or must be |
distributed to one or more beneficiaries annually in |
accordance with the terms of the trust. The unitrust amount |
may be determined by reference to the net fair market value |
of the trust's assets as of a particular date or as an |
average determined on a multiple-year basis. |
(b) A unitrust changes the definition of income by |
substituting the unitrust amount for net trust accounting |
income as the method of determining current return and shall be |
given effect notwithstanding any contrary provision of the |
Principal and Income Act. By way of example and not limitation, |
a unitrust amount determined by a percentage of not less than |
3% nor greater than 5% is conclusively presumed a reasonable |
current return that fairly apportions the total return of a |
unitrust.
|
(c) Subsection (b) of Section 1107 applies to a unitrust |
except to the extent its trust instrument expressly provides |
|
otherwise.
|
(d) This Section does not apply to a charitable remainder |
unitrust as defined by Section 664(d) of the Internal Revenue |
Code.
|
Article 12.
Trust Decanting. |
Section 1201. Article title. This Article may be referred |
to as the Trust Decanting Law. |
Section 1202. Definitions. In this Article:
|
(1) "Appointive property" means the property or property |
interest subject to a power of appointment.
|
(2) "Authorized fiduciary" means:
|
(A) a trustee or other fiduciary, other than a settlor, |
that has discretion to distribute or direct a trustee to |
distribute part or all of the principal of the first trust |
to one or more current beneficiaries;
|
(B) a special fiduciary appointed under Section 1209; |
or
|
(C) a special-needs fiduciary under Section 1213.
|
(3) "Court" means the court in this State having |
jurisdiction in matters relating to trusts.
|
(4) "Decanting power" or "the decanting power" means the |
power of an authorized fiduciary under this Article to |
distribute property of a first trust to one or more second |
|
trusts or to modify the terms of the first trust.
|
(5) "Expanded distributive discretion" means a |
discretionary power of distribution that is not limited to an |
ascertainable standard or a reasonably definite standard.
|
(6) "First trust" means a trust over which an authorized |
fiduciary may exercise the decanting power.
|
(7) "First-trust instrument" means the trust instrument |
for a first trust.
|
(8) "Reasonably definite standard" means a clearly |
measurable standard under which a holder of a power of |
distribution is legally accountable within the meaning of |
Section 674(b)(5)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended, |
and any applicable regulations.
|
(9) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a |
tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other |
medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.
|
(10) "Second trust" means:
|
(A) a first trust after modification under this |
Article; or
|
(B) a trust to which a distribution of property from a |
first trust is or may be made under this Article.
|
(11) "Second-trust instrument" means the trust instrument |
for a second trust.
|
Section 1203. Scope. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b) and |
|
(c), this Article applies to an express trust that is |
irrevocable or revocable by the settlor only with the consent |
of the trustee or a person holding an adverse interest.
|
(b) This Article does not apply to a trust held solely for |
charitable purposes.
|
(c) Subject to Section 1215, a trust instrument may |
restrict or prohibit exercise of the decanting power.
|
(d) This Article does not limit the power of a trustee, |
powerholder, or other person to distribute or appoint property |
in further trust or to modify a trust under the trust |
instrument, law of this State other than this Article, common |
law, a court order, or a nonjudicial settlement agreement.
|
(e) This Article does not affect the ability of a settlor |
to provide in a trust instrument for the distribution or |
appointment in further trust of the trust property or for |
modification of the trust instrument.
|
Section 1204. Fiduciary duty. |
(a) In exercising the decanting power, an authorized |
fiduciary shall act in accordance with its fiduciary duties, |
including the duty to act in accordance with the purposes of |
the first trust.
|
(b) This Article does not create or imply a duty to |
exercise the decanting power or to inform beneficiaries about |
the applicability of this Article.
|
(c) Except as otherwise provided in a first-trust |
|
instrument, for purposes of this Article and Section 801, the |
terms of the first trust are deemed to include the decanting |
power.
|
Section 1205. Application; governing law. This Article |
applies to a trust created before, on, or after the effective |
date of this Code that:
|
(1) has its principal place of administration in this |
State, including a trust whose principal place of |
administration has been changed to this State; or
|
(2) provides by its trust instrument that it is |
governed by the law of this State or is governed by the law |
of this State for the purpose of:
|
(A) administration, including administration of a |
trust whose governing law for purposes of |
administration has been changed to the law of this |
State;
|
(B) construction of terms of the trust; or
|
(C) determining the meaning or effect of terms of |
the trust.
|
Section 1206. Reasonable reliance. A trustee or other |
person that reasonably relies on the validity of a distribution |
of part or all of the property of a trust to another trust, or a |
modification of a trust, under this Article, law of this State |
other than this Article or the law of another jurisdiction is |
|
not liable to any person for any action or failure to act as a |
result of the reliance. |
Section 1207. Notice. |
(a) In this Section, a notice period begins on the day |
notice is given under subsection (c) and ends 59 days after the |
day notice is given. |
(b) Except as otherwise provided in this Article, an |
authorized fiduciary may exercise the decanting power without |
the consent of any person and without court approval.
|
(c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (f), an |
authorized fiduciary shall give notice in a record of the |
intended exercise of the decanting power not later than 60 days |
before the exercise to:
|
(1) each settlor of the first trust, if living or then |
in existence;
|
(2) each qualified beneficiary of the first trust;
|
(3) each holder of a presently exercisable power of |
appointment over any part or all of the first trust;
|
(4) each person that currently has the right to remove |
or replace the authorized fiduciary;
|
(5) each other fiduciary of the first trust;
|
(6) each fiduciary of the second trust; and
|
(7) the Attorney General's Charitable Trust Bureau, if |
the first trust contains a charitable interest.
|
(d) An authorized fiduciary is not required to give notice |
|
under subsection (c) to a qualified beneficiary who is a minor |
and has no representative. The authorized fiduciary is not |
required to give notice under subsection (c) to a person that |
is not known to the fiduciary or is known to the fiduciary but |
cannot be located by the fiduciary after reasonable diligence.
|
(e) A notice under subsection (c) must:
|
(1) specify the manner in which the authorized |
fiduciary intends to exercise the decanting power;
|
(2) specify the proposed effective date for exercise of |
the power;
|
(3) include a copy of the first-trust instrument; and
|
(4) include a copy of all second-trust instruments.
|
(f) The decanting power may be exercised before expiration |
of the notice period under subsection (a) if all persons |
entitled to receive notice waive the period in a signed record.
|
(g) The receipt of notice, waiver of the notice period, or |
expiration of the notice period does not affect the right of a |
person to file an application under Section 1209 with the court |
asserting that:
|
(1) an attempted exercise of the decanting power is |
ineffective because it did not comply with this Article or |
was an abuse of discretion or breach of fiduciary duty; or
|
(2) Section 1222 applies to the exercise of the |
decanting power.
|
(h) An exercise of the decanting power is not ineffective |
because of the failure to give notice to one or more persons |
|
under subsection (c) if the authorized fiduciary acted with |
reasonable care to comply with subsection (c). |
(i) If the first trust contains a charitable interest and |
the Attorney General objects to the proposed exercise of the |
decanting power in writing delivered to the authorized |
fiduciary before the end of the notice period, the authorized |
fiduciary may proceed with the proposed exercise of the |
decanting power only with either court approval or the later |
written consent of the Attorney General. |
Section 1208. (Reserved). |
Section 1209. Court involvement. |
(a) On application of an authorized fiduciary, a person |
entitled to notice under Section 1207(c), a beneficiary, or, |
with respect to a charitable interest, the Attorney General or |
any other person that has standing to enforce the charitable |
interest, the court may:
|
(1) provide instructions to the authorized fiduciary |
regarding whether a proposed exercise of the decanting |
power is permitted under this Article and consistent with |
the fiduciary duties of the authorized fiduciary;
|
(2) appoint a special fiduciary and authorize the |
special fiduciary to determine whether the decanting power |
should be exercised under this Article and to exercise the |
decanting power;
|
|
(3) approve an exercise of the decanting power;
|
(4) determine that a proposed or attempted exercise of |
the decanting power is ineffective because:
|
(A) after applying Section 1222, the proposed or |
attempted exercise does not or did not comply with this |
Article; or
|
(B) the proposed or attempted exercise would be or |
was an abuse of the fiduciary's discretion or a breach |
of fiduciary duty;
|
(5) determine the extent to which Section 1222 applies |
to a prior exercise of the decanting power;
|
(6) provide instructions to the trustee regarding the |
application of Section 1222 to a prior exercise of the |
decanting power; or
|
(7) order other appropriate relief to carry out the |
purposes of this Article.
|
(b) On application of an authorized fiduciary, the court |
may approve:
|
(1) an increase in the fiduciary's compensation under |
Section 1216; or
|
(2) a modification under Section 1218 of a provision |
granting a person the right to remove or replace the |
fiduciary.
|
Section 1210. Formalities. An exercise of the decanting |
power must be made in a record signed by an authorized |
|
fiduciary. The signed record must, directly or by reference to |
the notice required by Section 1207, identify the first trust |
and the second trust or trusts and state the property of the |
first trust being distributed to each second trust and the |
property, if any, that remains in the first trust. |
Section 1211. Decanting power under expanded distributive |
discretion. |
(a) In this Section:
|
(1) "Noncontingent" right means a right that is not |
subject to the exercise of discretion or the occurrence of |
a specified event that is not certain to occur. The term |
does not include a right held by a beneficiary if any |
person has discretion to distribute property subject to the |
right of any person other than the beneficiary or the |
beneficiary's estate.
|
(2) "Successor beneficiary" means a beneficiary that |
on the date the beneficiary's qualification is determined |
is not a qualified beneficiary. The term does not include a |
person that is a beneficiary only because the person holds |
a nongeneral power of appointment.
|
(3) "Vested interest" means:
|
(A) a right to a mandatory distribution that is a |
noncontingent right as of the date of the exercise of |
the decanting power;
|
(B) a current and noncontingent right, annually or |
|
more frequently, to a mandatory distribution of |
income, a specified dollar amount, or a percentage of |
value of some or all of the trust property;
|
(C) a current and noncontingent right, annually or |
more frequently, to withdraw income, a specified |
dollar amount, or a percentage of value of some or all |
of the trust property;
|
(D) a presently exercisable general power of |
appointment; or
|
(E) a right to receive an ascertainable part of the |
trust property on the trust's termination that is not |
subject to the exercise of discretion or to the |
occurrence of a specified event that is not certain to |
occur.
|
(b) Subject to subsection (c) and Section 1214, an |
authorized fiduciary that has expanded distributive discretion |
to distribute the principal of a first trust to one or more |
current beneficiaries may exercise the decanting power over the |
principal of the first trust.
|
(c) Subject to Section 1213, in an exercise of the |
decanting power under this Section, a second trust may not:
|
(1) include as a current beneficiary a person that is |
not a current beneficiary of the first trust, except as |
otherwise provided in subsection (d);
|
(2) include as a presumptive remainder beneficiary or |
successor beneficiary a person that is not a current |
|
beneficiary, presumptive remainder beneficiary, or |
successor beneficiary of the first trust, except as |
otherwise provided in subsection (d); or
|
(3) reduce or eliminate a vested interest. |
(d) Subject to subsection (c)(3) and Section 1214, in an |
exercise of the decanting power under this Section, a second |
trust may be a trust created or administered under the law of |
any jurisdiction and may:
|
(1) retain a power of appointment granted in the first |
trust;
|
(2) omit a power of appointment granted in the first |
trust, other than a presently exercisable general power of |
appointment;
|
(3) create or modify a power of appointment if the |
powerholder is a current beneficiary of the first trust and |
the authorized fiduciary has expanded distributive |
discretion to distribute principal to the beneficiary;
and |
(4) create or modify a power of appointment if the |
powerholder is a presumptive remainder beneficiary or |
successor beneficiary of the first trust, but the exercise |
of the power may take effect only after the powerholder |
becomes, or would have become if then living, a current |
beneficiary.
|
(e) A power of appointment described in subsection (d)(1) |
through (4) of subsection (d) may be general or nongeneral. The |
class of permissible appointees in favor of which the power may |
|
be exercised may be broader than or different from the |
beneficiaries of the first trust.
|
(f) If an authorized fiduciary has expanded distributive |
discretion to distribute part but not all of the principal of a |
first trust, the fiduciary may exercise the decanting power |
under this Section over that part of the principal over which |
the authorized fiduciary has expanded distributive discretion.
|
Section 1212. Decanting power under limited distributive |
discretion. |
(a) In this Section, "limited distributive discretion" |
means a discretionary power of distribution that is limited to |
an ascertainable standard or a reasonably definite standard.
|
(b) An authorized fiduciary that has limited distributive |
discretion over the principal of the first trust for the |
benefit of one or more current beneficiaries may exercise the |
decanting power over the principal of the first trust.
|
(c) Under this Section and subject to Section 1214, a |
second trust may be created or administered under the law of |
any jurisdiction. Under this Section, the second trusts, in the |
aggregate, must grant each beneficiary of the first trust |
beneficial interests that are substantially similar to the |
beneficial interests of the beneficiary in the first trust.
|
(d) A power to make a distribution under a second trust for |
the benefit of a beneficiary who is an individual is |
substantially similar to a power under the first trust to make |
|
a distribution directly to the beneficiary. A distribution is |
for the benefit of a beneficiary if:
|
(1) the distribution is applied for the benefit of the |
beneficiary;
|
(2) the beneficiary is incapacitated or in the opinion |
of the trustee is unable to manage property or business |
affairs, and the distribution is made as permitted under |
this Code; or
|
(3) the distribution is made as permitted under the |
terms of the first-trust instrument and the second-trust |
instrument for the benefit of the beneficiary.
|
(e) If an authorized fiduciary has limited distributive |
discretion over part but not all of the principal of a first |
trust, the fiduciary may exercise the decanting power under |
this Section over that part of the principal over which the |
authorized fiduciary has limited distributive discretion.
|
Section 1213. Trust for beneficiary with disability. |
(a) In this Section:
|
(1) "Beneficiary with a disability" means a |
beneficiary of the first trust who the special-needs |
fiduciary believes may qualify for governmental benefits |
based on disability, whether or not the beneficiary |
currently receives those benefits or is an individual who |
has been adjudicated incompetent.
|
(2) "Best interests" of a beneficiary with a disability |
|
include, without limitation, consideration of the |
financial impact to the family of the beneficiary who has a |
disability.
|
(3) "Governmental benefits" means financial aid or |
services from a state, federal, or other public agency.
|
(4) "Special-needs fiduciary" means, with respect to a |
trust that has a beneficiary with a disability:
|
(A) a trustee or other fiduciary, other than a |
settlor, that has discretion to distribute part or all |
of the principal of a first trust to one or more |
current beneficiaries;
|
(B) if no trustee or fiduciary has discretion under |
subparagraph (A), a trustee or other fiduciary, other |
than a settlor, that has discretion to distribute part |
or all of the income of the first trust to one or more |
current beneficiaries; or
|
(C) if no trustee or fiduciary has discretion under |
subparagraphs (A) and (B), a trustee or other |
fiduciary, other than a settlor, that is required to |
distribute part or all of the income or principal of |
the first trust to one or more current beneficiaries.
|
(5) "Special-needs trust" means a trust the trustee |
believes would not be considered a resource for purposes of |
determining whether the beneficiary with a disability is |
eligible for governmental benefits.
|
(b) A special-needs fiduciary may exercise the decanting |
|
power under Section 1211 over the principal of a first trust as |
if the fiduciary had authority to distribute principal to a |
beneficiary with a disability subject to expanded distributive |
discretion if:
|
(1) a second trust is a special-needs trust that |
benefits the beneficiary with a disability; and
|
(2) the special-needs fiduciary determines that |
exercise of the decanting power will further the purposes |
of the first trust or the best interests of the beneficiary |
with a disability.
|
(c) In an exercise of the decanting power under this |
Section, the following rules apply:
|
(1) If the first trust was created by the beneficiary |
with a disability, or to the extent the first trust was |
funded by the beneficiary with a disability, then |
notwithstanding paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section |
1211, the interest in the second trust of a beneficiary |
with a disability may:
|
(A) be a pooled trust as defined by Medicaid law |
for the benefit of the beneficiary with a disability |
under 42 U.S.C. 1396p(d)(4)(C), as amended; or
|
(B) contain payback provisions complying with |
reimbursement requirements of Medicaid law under 42 |
U.S.C. 1396p(d)(4)(A), as amended.
|
(2) Paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 1211 |
does not apply to the interests of the beneficiary with a |
|
disability.
|
(3) Except as affected by any change to the interests |
of the beneficiary with a disability, the second trusts, in |
the aggregate, must grant each other beneficiary of the |
first trust beneficial interests in the second trusts that |
are substantially similar to the beneficiary's beneficial |
interests in the first trust.
|
Section 1214. Protection of charitable interests. |
(a) In this Section:
|
(1) "Determinable charitable interest" means a |
charitable interest that is a right to a mandatory |
distribution currently, periodically, on the occurrence of |
a specified event, or after the passage of a specified time |
and that is unconditional or that will in all events be |
held for charitable purposes.
|
(2) "Unconditional" means not subject to the |
occurrence of a specified event that is not certain to |
occur, other than a requirement in a trust instrument that |
a charitable organization be in existence or qualify under |
a particular provision of the Internal Revenue Code on the |
date of the distribution if the charitable organization |
meets the requirement on the date of determination.
|
(b) If a first trust contains a determinable charitable |
interest, the Attorney General has the rights of a qualified |
beneficiary and may represent and bind the charitable interest.
|
|
(c) If a first trust contains a charitable interest, the |
second trusts in the aggregate may not:
|
(1) diminish the charitable interest;
|
(2) diminish the interest of an identified charitable |
organization that holds the charitable interest;
|
(3) alter any charitable purpose stated in the |
first-trust instrument; or
|
(4) alter any condition or restriction related to the |
charitable interest. |
(d) If there are 2 or more second trusts, the second trusts |
shall be treated as one trust for purposes of determining |
whether the exercise of the decanting power diminishes the |
charitable interest or diminishes the interest of an identified |
charitable organization for purposes of subsection (c).
|
(e) If a first trust contains a determinable charitable |
interest, the second trusts that include charitable interests |
pursuant to subsection (c) must be administered under the law |
of this State unless:
|
(1) the Attorney General, after receiving notice under |
Section 1207, fails to object in a signed record delivered |
to the authorized fiduciary within the notice period;
|
(2) the Attorney General consents in a signed record to |
the second trusts being administered under the law of |
another jurisdiction; or
|
(3) the court approves the exercise of the decanting |
power.
|
|
(f) This Article does not limit the powers and duties of |
the Attorney General under Illinois law.
|
Section 1215. Trust limitation on decanting. |
(a) An authorized fiduciary may not exercise the decanting |
power to the extent the first-trust instrument expressly |
prohibits exercise of:
|
(1) the decanting power; or
|
(2) a power granted by state law to the fiduciary to |
distribute part or all of the principal of the trust to |
another trust or to modify the trust.
|
(b) Exercise of the decanting power is subject to any |
restriction in the first-trust instrument that expressly |
applies to exercise of:
|
(1) the decanting power; or
|
(2) a power granted by state law to a fiduciary to |
distribute part or all of the principal of the trust to |
another trust or to modify the trust.
|
(c) A general prohibition of the amendment or revocation of |
a first trust, a spendthrift clause, or a clause restraining |
the voluntary or involuntary transfer of a beneficiary's |
interest does not preclude exercise of the decanting power.
|
(d) Subject to subsections (a) and (b), an authorized |
fiduciary may exercise the decanting power under this Article |
even if the first-trust instrument permits the authorized |
fiduciary or another person to modify the first-trust |
|
instrument or to distribute part or all of the principal of the |
first trust to another trust.
|
(e) If a first-trust instrument contains an express |
prohibition described in subsection (a) or an express |
restriction described in subsection (b), that provision must be |
included in the second-trust instrument.
|
Section 1216. Change in compensation. |
(a) If a first-trust instrument specifies an authorized |
fiduciary's compensation, the fiduciary may not exercise the |
decanting power to increase the fiduciary's compensation |
beyond the specified compensation unless:
|
(1) all qualified beneficiaries of the second trust |
consent to the increase in a signed record; or
|
(2) the increase is approved by the court.
|
(b) If a first-trust instrument does not specify an |
authorized fiduciary's compensation, the fiduciary may not |
exercise the decanting power to increase the fiduciary's |
compensation above the compensation permitted by Section 708 |
unless:
|
(1) all qualified beneficiaries of the second trust |
consent to the increase in a signed record; or
|
(2) the increase is approved by the court.
|
(c) A change in an authorized fiduciary's compensation that |
is incidental to other changes made by the exercise of the |
decanting power is not an increase in the fiduciary's |
|
compensation for purposes of subsections (a) and (b).
|
Section 1217. Relief from liability and indemnification. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a |
second-trust instrument may not relieve an authorized |
fiduciary from liability for breach of trust to a greater |
extent than the first-trust instrument.
|
(b) A second-trust instrument may provide for |
indemnification of an authorized fiduciary of the first trust |
or another person acting in a fiduciary capacity under the |
first trust for any liability or claim that would have been |
payable from the first trust if the decanting power had not |
been exercised.
|
(c) A second-trust instrument may not reduce fiduciary |
liability in the aggregate.
|
(d) Subject to subsection (c), a second-trust instrument |
may divide and reallocate fiduciary powers among fiduciaries, |
including one or more trustees, distribution advisors, |
investment advisors, trust protectors, or other persons, and |
relieve a fiduciary from liability for an act or failure to act |
of another fiduciary as permitted by law of this State other |
than this Article.
|
Section 1218. Removal or replacement of authorized |
fiduciary. An authorized fiduciary may not exercise the |
decanting power to modify a provision in the first-trust |
|
instrument granting another person power to remove or replace |
the fiduciary unless:
|
(1) the person holding the power consents to the |
modification in a signed record and the modification |
applies only to the person;
|
(2) the person holding the power and the qualified |
beneficiaries of the second trust consent to the |
modification in a signed record and the modification grants |
a substantially similar power to another person; or
|
(3) the court approves the modification and the |
modification grants a substantially similar power to |
another person.
|
Section 1219. Tax-related limitations. |
(a) In this Section:
|
(1) "Grantor trust" means a trust as to which a settlor |
of a first trust is considered the owner under Sections 671 |
through 677 of the Internal Revenue Code or Section 679 of |
the Internal Revenue Code.
|
(2) "Nongrantor trust" means a trust that is not a |
grantor trust.
|
(3) "Qualified benefits property" means property |
subject to the minimum distribution requirements of |
Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code, and any |
applicable regulations, or to any similar requirements |
that refer to Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue |
|
Code or the regulations.
|
(b) An exercise of the decanting power is subject to the |
following limitations:
|
(1) If a first trust contains property that qualified, |
or would have qualified but for provisions of this Article |
other than this Section, for a marital deduction for |
purposes of the gift or estate tax under the Internal |
Revenue Code or a state gift, estate, or inheritance tax, |
the second-trust instrument must not include or omit any |
term that, if included in or omitted from the trust |
instrument for the trust to which the property was |
transferred, would have prevented the transfer from |
qualifying for the deduction, or would have reduced the |
amount of the deduction, under the same provisions of the |
Internal Revenue Code or state law under which the transfer |
qualified.
|
(2) If the first trust contains property that |
qualified, or would have qualified but for provisions of |
this Article other than this Section, for a charitable |
deduction for purposes of the income, gift, or estate tax |
under the Internal Revenue Code or a state income, gift, |
estate, or inheritance tax, the second-trust instrument |
must not include or omit any term that, if included in or |
omitted from the trust instrument for the trust to which |
the property was transferred, would have prevented the |
transfer from qualifying for the deduction, or would have |
|
reduced the amount of the deduction, under the same |
provisions of the Internal Revenue Code or state law under |
which the transfer qualified.
|
(3) If the first trust contains property that |
qualified, or would have qualified but for provisions of |
this Article other than this Section, for the exclusion |
from the gift tax described in Section 2503(b) of the |
Internal Revenue Code, the second-trust instrument must |
not include or omit a term that, if included in or omitted |
from the trust instrument for the trust to which the |
property was transferred, would have prevented the |
transfer from qualifying under the same provision of |
Section 2503 of the Internal Revenue Code. If the first |
trust contains property that qualified, or would have |
qualified but for provisions of this Article other than |
this Section, for the exclusion from the gift tax described |
in Section 2503(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, by |
application of Section 2503(c) of the Internal Revenue |
Code, the second-trust instrument must not include or omit |
a term that, if included or omitted from the trust |
instrument for the trust to which the property was |
transferred, would have prevented the transfer from |
qualifying under Section 2503(c) of the Internal Revenue |
Code.
|
(4) If the property of the first trust includes shares |
of stock in an S corporation, as defined in Section 1361 of |
|
the Internal Revenue Code and the first trust is, or but |
for provisions of this Article other than this Section |
would be, a permitted shareholder under any provision of |
Section 1361 of the Internal Revenue Code, an authorized |
fiduciary may exercise the power with respect to part or |
all of the S-corporation stock only if any second trust |
receiving the stock is a permitted shareholder under |
Section 1361(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code. If the |
property of the first trust includes shares of stock in an |
S corporation and the first trust is, or but for provisions |
of this Article other than this Section, would be, a |
qualified subchapter-S trust within the meaning of Section |
1361(d) of the Internal Revenue Code, the second-trust |
instrument must not include or omit a term that prevents |
the second trust from qualifying as a qualified |
subchapter-S trust.
|
(5) If the first trust contains property that |
qualified, or would have qualified but for provisions of |
this Article other than this Section, for a zero inclusion |
ratio for purposes of the generation-skipping transfer tax |
under Section 2642(c) of the Internal Revenue Code the |
second-trust instrument must not include or omit a term |
that, if included in or omitted from the first-trust |
instrument, would have prevented the transfer to the first |
trust from qualifying for a zero inclusion ratio under |
Section 2642(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.
|
|
(6) If the first trust is directly or indirectly the |
beneficiary of qualified benefits property, the |
second-trust instrument may not include or omit any term |
that, if included in or omitted from the first-trust |
instrument, would have increased the minimum distributions |
required with respect to the qualified benefits property |
under Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code and |
any applicable regulations, or any similar requirements |
that refer to Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue |
Code or the regulations. If an attempted exercise of the |
decanting power violates the preceding sentence, the |
trustee is deemed to have held the qualified benefits |
property and any reinvested distributions of the property |
as a separate share from the date of the exercise of the |
power and Section 1222 applies to the separate share.
|
(7) If the first trust qualifies as a grantor trust |
because of the application of Section 672(f)(2)(A) of the |
Internal Revenue Code the second trust may not include or |
omit a term that, if included in or omitted from the |
first-trust instrument, would have prevented the first |
trust from qualifying under Section 672(f)(2)(A) of the |
Internal Revenue Code.
|
(8) In this paragraph (8), "tax benefit" means a |
federal or state tax deduction, exemption, exclusion, or |
other benefit not otherwise listed in this Section, except |
for a benefit arising from being a grantor trust. Subject |
|
to paragraph (9) of this subsection (b), a second-trust |
instrument may not include or omit a term that, if included |
in or omitted from the first-trust instrument, would have |
prevented qualification for a tax benefit if: |
(A) the first-trust instrument expressly indicates |
an intent to qualify for the benefit or the first-trust |
instrument clearly is designed to enable the first |
trust to qualify for the benefit; and |
(B) the transfer of property held by the first |
trust or the first trust qualified, or but for |
provisions of this Article other than this Section, |
would have qualified for the tax benefit.
|
(9) Subject to paragraph (4) of this subsection (b):
|
(A) except as otherwise provided in paragraph (7) |
of this subsection (b), the second trust may be a |
nongrantor trust, even if the first trust is a grantor |
trust; and
|
(B) except as otherwise provided in paragraph (10) |
of this subsection (b), the second trust may be a |
grantor trust, even if the first trust is a nongrantor |
trust.
|
(10) An authorized fiduciary may not exercise the |
decanting power if a settlor objects in a signed record |
delivered to the fiduciary within the notice period and: |
(A) the first trust and second trusts are both |
grantor trusts, in whole or in part, the first trust |
|
grants the settlor or another person the power to cause |
the second trust to cease to be a grantor trust, and |
the second trust does not grant an equivalent power to |
the settlor or other person; or
|
(B) the first trust is a nongrantor trust and the |
second trust is a grantor trust, in whole or in part, |
with respect to the settlor, unless:
|
(i) the settlor has the power at all times to |
cause the second trust to cease to be a grantor |
trust; or
|
(ii) the first-trust instrument contains a |
provision granting the settlor or another person a |
power that would cause the first trust to cease to |
be a grantor trust and the second-trust instrument |
contains the same provision.
|
Section 1220. Duration of second trust. |
(a) Subject to subsection (b), a second trust may have a |
duration that is the same as or different from the duration of |
the first trust.
|
(b) To the extent that property of a second trust is |
attributable to property of the first trust, the second trust |
is subject to any rules governing maximum perpetuity, |
accumulation, or suspension of the power of alienation |
applicable to property of the first trust.
|
|
Section 1221. Need to distribute not required. An |
authorized fiduciary may exercise the decanting power whether |
or not under the first trust's discretionary distribution |
standard the fiduciary would have made or could have been |
compelled to make a discretionary distribution of principal at |
the time of the exercise. |
Section 1222. Savings provision. |
(a) If exercise of the decanting power would be effective |
under this Article except that the second-trust instrument in |
part does not comply with this Article, the exercise of the |
power is effective and the following rules apply to the |
principal of the first trust subject to the exercise of the |
power:
|
(1) A provision in the second-trust instrument that is |
not permitted under this Article is void to the extent |
necessary to comply with this Article.
|
(2) A provision required by this Article to be in the |
second-trust instrument that is not contained in the |
instrument is deemed to be included in the instrument to |
the extent necessary to comply with this Article.
|
(b) If a trustee or other fiduciary of a second trust |
discovers that subsection (a) applies to a prior exercise of |
the decanting power, the fiduciary shall take such appropriate |
corrective action as is consistent with the fiduciary's duties.
|
|
Section 1223. Trust for care of animal. |
(a) In this Section:
|
(1) "Animal trust" means a trust or an interest in a |
trust created to provide for the care of one or more |
designated domestic or pet animals.
|
(2) "Protector" means a person described in paragraph |
(3) of subsection (b) of Section 408.
|
(b) The decanting power may be exercised over an animal |
trust that has a protector to the extent the trust could be |
decanted under this Article as if each animal that benefits |
from the trust were an individual, if the protector consents in |
a signed record to the exercise of the decanting power.
|
(c) A protector for an animal has the rights under this |
Article of a qualified beneficiary.
|
(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, if |
a first trust is an animal trust, in an exercise of the |
decanting power, the second trust must provide that trust |
property may be applied only to its intended purpose for the |
period the first trust benefited the animal.
|
Section 1224. (Reserved). |
Section 1225. Settlor. |
(a) For purposes of the laws of this State other than this |
Article and subject to subsection (b), a settlor of a first |
trust is deemed to be the settlor of the second trust with |
|
respect to the portion of the principal of the first trust |
subject to the exercise of the decanting power.
|
(b) In determining settlor intent with respect to a second |
trust, the intent of a settlor of the first trust, the intent |
of a settlor of the second trust, and the intent of the |
authorized fiduciary may be considered.
|
Section 1226. Later-discovered property. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), if |
exercise of the decanting power was intended to distribute all |
the principal of the first trust to one or more second trusts, |
later-discovered property otherwise belonging to the first |
trust and property paid to or acquired by the first trust after |
the exercise of the power is part of the trust estate of the |
second trust.
|
(b) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), if |
exercise of the decanting power was intended to distribute less |
than all the principal of the first trust to one or more second |
trusts, later-discovered property belonging to the first trust |
or property paid to or acquired by the first trust after |
exercise of the decanting power remains part of the trust |
estate of the first trust.
|
(c) An authorized fiduciary may provide in an exercise of |
the decanting power or by the terms of a second trust for |
disposition of later-discovered property belonging to the |
first trust or property paid to or acquired by the first trust |
|
after exercise of the decanting power.
|
Section 1227. Obligations. A debt, liability, or other |
obligation enforceable against property of a first trust is |
enforceable to the same extent against that property when held |
by the second trust after exercise of the decanting power. |
Article 13.
Uniform Powers of Appointment Law. |
Section 1301. Article title. This Article may be referred |
to as the Uniform Powers of Appointment Law. |
Section 1302. Definitions. In this Article:
|
(1) "Appointee" means a person to which a powerholder makes |
an appointment of appointive property.
|
(2) "Appointive property" means the property or property |
interest subject to a power of appointment.
|
(3) "Blanket-exercise clause" means a clause in an |
instrument that exercises a power of appointment and is not a |
specific-exercise clause. The term includes a clause that:
|
(A) expressly uses the words "any power" in exercising |
any power of appointment the powerholder has;
|
(B) expressly uses the words "any property" in |
appointing any property over which the powerholder has a |
power of appointment; or
|
(C) disposes of all property subject to disposition by |
|
the powerholder.
|
(4) "Exclusionary power of appointment" means a power of |
appointment exercisable in favor of any one or more of the |
permissible appointees to the exclusion of the other |
permissible appointees.
|
(5) "Gift-in-default clause" means a clause identifying a |
taker in default of appointment.
|
(6) "Impermissible appointee" means a person that is not a |
permissible appointee.
|
(7) "Instrument" means a writing.
|
(8) "Permissible appointee" means a person in whose favor a |
powerholder may exercise a power of appointment.
|
(9) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a |
tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other |
medium and is retrievable in perceivable form. |
(10) "Specific-exercise clause" means a clause in an |
instrument that specifically refers to and exercises a |
particular power of appointment.
|
(11) "Taker in default of appointment" means a person that |
takes part or all of the appointive property to the extent the |
powerholder does not effectively exercise the power of |
appointment.
|
(12) "Terms of the instrument" means the manifestation of |
the intent of the maker of the instrument regarding the |
instrument's provisions as expressed in the instrument or as |
may be established by other evidence that would be admissible |
|
in a legal proceeding. |
Section 1303. Governing law. Unless the terms of the |
instrument creating a power of appointment manifest a contrary |
intent: |
(1) the creation, revocation, or amendment of the power is |
governed by the law of the donor's domicile at the relevant |
time; and
|
(2) the exercise, release, or disclaimer of the power, or |
the revocation or amendment of the exercise, release, or |
disclaimer of the power, is governed by the law of the |
powerholder's domicile at the relevant time.
|
Section 1304. Creation of power of appointment. |
(a) A power of appointment is created only if:
|
(1) the instrument creating the power:
|
(A) is valid under applicable law; and
|
(B) except as otherwise provided in subsection |
(b), transfers the appointive property; and
|
(2) the terms of the instrument creating the power |
manifest the donor's intent to create, in a powerholder, a |
power of appointment over the appointive property |
exercisable in favor of a permissible appointee.
|
(b) Subdivision (a)(1)(B) does not apply to the creation of |
a power of appointment by the exercise of a power of |
appointment.
|
|
(c) A power of appointment may not be created in a deceased |
individual.
|
(d) Subject to an applicable rule against perpetuities, a |
power of appointment may be created in an unborn or |
unascertained powerholder. |
Section 1305. Nontransferability. A powerholder may not |
transfer a power of appointment. If the powerholder dies |
without exercising or releasing the power, the power lapses. |
Section 1306. Presumption of unlimited authority. Subject |
to Section 1308, and unless the terms of the instrument |
creating a power of appointment manifest a contrary intent, the |
power is:
|
(1) presently exercisable;
|
(2) exclusionary; and
|
(3) except as otherwise provided in Section 1307, |
general.
|
Section 1307. Exception to presumption of unlimited |
authority. Unless the terms of the instrument creating a power |
of appointment manifest a contrary intent, the power is |
nongeneral if:
|
(1) the power is exercisable only at the powerholder's |
death; and
|
(2) the permissible appointees of the power are a |
|
defined and limited class that does not include the |
powerholder's estate, the powerholder's creditors, or the |
creditors of the powerholder's estate.
|
Section 1308. Rules of classification. |
(a) In this Section, "adverse party" means a person with a |
substantial beneficial interest in property that would be |
affected adversely by a powerholder's exercise or nonexercise |
of a power of appointment in favor of the powerholder, the |
powerholder's estate, a creditor of the powerholder, or a |
creditor of the powerholder's estate.
|
(b) If a powerholder may exercise a power of appointment |
only with the consent or joinder of an adverse party, the power |
is nongeneral.
|
(c) If the permissible appointees of a power of appointment |
are not defined and limited, the power is exclusionary.
|
Section 1309. Power to revoke or amend. A donor may revoke |
or amend a power of appointment only to the extent that:
|
(1) the instrument creating the power is revocable by |
the donor; or |
(2) the donor reserves a power of revocation or |
amendment in the instrument creating the power of |
appointment.
|
Section 1310. Requisites for exercise of power of |
|
appointment.
A power of appointment is exercised only:
|
(1) if the instrument exercising the power is valid |
under applicable law;
|
(2) if the terms of the instrument exercising the |
power:
|
(A) manifest the powerholder's intent to exercise |
the power; and
|
(B) subject to Section 1313, satisfy the |
requirements of exercise, if any, imposed by the donor; |
and
|
(3) to the extent the appointment is a permissible |
exercise of the power.
|
Section 1311. Intent to exercise: determining intent from |
residuary clause. |
(a) In this Section:
|
(1) "Residuary clause" does not include a residuary |
clause containing a blanket-exercise clause or a |
specific-exercise clause.
|
(2) "Will" includes a codicil and a testamentary |
instrument that revises another will.
|
(b) A residuary clause in a powerholder's will, or a |
comparable clause in the powerholder's revocable trust, |
manifests the powerholder's intent to exercise a power of |
appointment only if:
|
(1) the terms of the instrument containing the |
|
residuary clause do not manifest a contrary intent;
|
(2) the power is a general power exercisable in favor |
of the powerholder's estate;
|
(3) there is no gift-in-default clause or it is |
ineffective; and
|
(4) the powerholder did not release the power.
|
Section 1312. Intent to exercise: after-acquired power. |
Unless the terms of the instrument exercising a power of |
appointment manifest a contrary intent:
|
(1) except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2), a |
blanket-exercise clause extends to a power acquired by the |
powerholder after executing the instrument containing the |
clause; and
|
(2) if the powerholder is also the donor of the power, |
the clause does not extend to the power unless there is no |
gift-in-default clause or it is ineffective.
|
Section 1313. Substantial compliance with donor-imposed |
formal requirement. A powerholder's substantial compliance |
with a formal requirement of an appointment imposed by the |
donor, including a requirement that the instrument exercising |
the power of appointment make reference or specific reference |
to the power, is sufficient if:
|
(1) the powerholder knows of and intends to exercise |
the power; and
|
|
(2) the powerholder's manner of attempted exercise of |
the power does not impair a material purpose of the donor |
in imposing the requirement.
|
Section 1314. Permissible appointment. |
(a) A powerholder of a general power of appointment that |
permits appointment to the powerholder or the powerholder's |
estate may make any appointment, including an appointment in |
trust or creating a new power of appointment, that the |
powerholder could make in disposing of the powerholder's own |
property.
|
(b) A powerholder of a general power of appointment that |
permits appointment only to the creditors of the powerholder or |
of the powerholder's estate is restricted to appointing to |
those creditors.
|
(c) Unless the terms of the instrument creating a power of |
appointment manifest a contrary intent, the powerholder of a |
nongeneral power may:
|
(1) make an appointment in any form, with any |
conditions and limitations, including an appointment in |
trust to any trustee, in favor of a permissible appointee;
|
(2) create a general or nongeneral power in a |
permissible appointee that may be exercisable in favor of |
persons other than permissible appointees of the original |
nongeneral power; or |
(3) create a nongeneral power in any person to appoint |
|
to one or more of the permissible appointees of the |
original nongeneral power.
|
Section 1315. Appointment to deceased appointee. Subject |
to Section 4-11 of the Probate Act of 1975, an appointment to a |
deceased appointee is ineffective. |
Section 1316. Impermissible appointment. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in Section 1315, an |
exercise of a power of appointment in favor of an impermissible |
appointee is ineffective.
|
(b) An exercise of a power of appointment in favor of a |
permissible appointee is ineffective to the extent the |
appointment is a fraud on the power.
|
Section 1317. Selective allocation doctrine. If a |
powerholder exercises a power of appointment in a disposition |
that also disposes of property the powerholder owns, the owned |
property and the appointive property must be allocated in the |
permissible manner that best carries out the powerholder's |
intent. |
Section 1318. Capture doctrine: disposition of |
ineffectively appointed property under general power. To the |
extent a powerholder of a general power of appointment, other |
than a power to revoke, amend, or withdraw property from a |
|
trust, makes an ineffective appointment:
|
(1) the gift-in-default clause controls the |
disposition of the ineffectively appointed property; or
|
(2) if there is no gift-in-default clause or to the |
extent the clause is ineffective, the ineffectively |
appointed property:
|
(A) passes to:
|
(i) the powerholder if the powerholder is a |
permissible appointee and living; or
|
(ii) if the powerholder is an impermissible |
appointee or not living, the powerholder's estate |
if the estate is a permissible appointee; or
|
(B) if there is no taker under subparagraph (A), |
passes under a reversionary interest to the donor or |
the donor's transferee or successor in interest.
|
Section 1319. Disposition of unappointed property under |
released or unexercised general power.
To the extent a |
powerholder releases or fails to exercise a general power of |
appointment other than a power to revoke, amend, or withdraw |
property from a trust:
|
(1) the gift-in-default clause controls the |
disposition of the unappointed property; or |
(2) if there is no gift-in-default clause or to the |
extent the clause is ineffective:
|
(A) except as otherwise provided in subparagraph |
|
(B), the unappointed property passes to:
|
(i) the powerholder if the powerholder is a |
permissible appointee and living; or
|
(ii) if the powerholder is an impermissible |
appointee or not living, the powerholder's estate |
if the estate is a permissible appointee; or
|
(B) to the extent the powerholder released the |
power, or if there is no taker under subparagraph (A), |
the unappointed property passes under a reversionary |
interest to the donor or the donor's transferee or |
successor in interest.
|
Section 1320. Disposition of unappointed property under |
released or unexercised nongeneral power. To the extent a |
powerholder releases, ineffectively exercises, or fails to |
exercise a nongeneral power of appointment:
|
(1) the gift-in-default clause controls the disposition of |
the unappointed property; or
|
(2) if there is no gift-in-default clause or to the extent |
the clause is ineffective, the unappointed property:
|
(A) passes to the permissible appointees if:
|
(i) the permissible appointees are defined and |
limited; and
|
(ii) the terms of the instrument creating the power |
do not manifest a contrary intent; or
|
(B) if there is no taker under subparagraph (A), passes |
|
under a reversionary interest to the donor or the donor's |
transferee or successor in interest.
|
Section 1321. Disposition of unappointed property if |
partial appointment to taker in default. Unless the terms of |
the instrument creating or exercising a power of appointment |
manifest a contrary intent, if the powerholder makes a valid |
partial appointment to a taker in default of appointment, the |
taker in default of appointment may share fully in unappointed |
property. |
Section 1322. Appointment to taker in default. If a |
powerholder of a general power makes an appointment to a taker |
in default of appointment and the appointee would have taken |
the property under a gift-in-default clause had the property |
not been appointed, the power of appointment is deemed not to |
have been exercised, and the appointee takes under the |
gift-in-default clause. |
Section 1323. Powerholder's authority to revoke or amend |
exercise. A powerholder may revoke or amend an exercise of a |
power of appointment only to the extent that:
|
(1) the powerholder reserves a power of revocation or |
amendment in the instrument exercising the power of |
appointment and, if the power is nongeneral, the terms of |
the instrument creating the power of appointment do not |
|
prohibit the reservation; or
|
(2) the terms of the instrument creating the power of |
appointment provide that the exercise is revocable or |
amendable.
|
Section 1324. Disposition of trust property subject to |
power. In disposing of trust property subject to a power of |
appointment exercisable by an instrument other than a will, a |
trustee acting in good faith shall have no liability to any |
appointee or taker in default of appointment for relying upon |
an instrument believed to be genuine purporting to exercise a |
power of appointment or for assuming that there is no |
instrument exercising the power of appointment in the absence |
of actual knowledge thereof within 3 months of the last date on |
which the power of appointment may be exercised. |
Section 1325. Disclaimer. As provided by Section 2-7 of the |
Probate Act of 1975:
|
(1) A powerholder may disclaim all or part of a power |
of appointment.
|
(2) A permissible appointee, appointee, or taker in |
default of appointment may disclaim all or part of an |
interest in appointive property.
|
Section 1326. Authority to release. A powerholder may |
release a power of appointment, in whole or in part, except to |
|
the extent the terms of the instrument creating the power |
prevent the release. |
Section 1327. Method of release. A powerholder of a |
releasable power of appointment may release the power in whole |
or in part:
|
(1) by substantial compliance with a method provided in |
the terms of the instrument creating the power; or
|
(2) if the terms of the instrument creating the power |
do not provide a method or the method provided in the terms |
of the instrument is not expressly made exclusive, by an |
instrument manifesting the powerholder's intent by clear |
and convincing evidence.
|
Section 1328. Revocation or amendment of release. A |
powerholder may revoke or amend a release of a power of |
appointment only to the extent that:
|
(1) the instrument of release is revocable by the |
powerholder; or
|
(2) the powerholder reserves a power of revocation or |
amendment in the instrument of release.
|
Section 1329. Power to contract: presently exercisable |
power of appointment. A powerholder of a presently exercisable |
power of appointment may contract:
|
(1) not to exercise the power; or
|
|
(2) to exercise the power if the contract when made |
does not confer a benefit on an impermissible appointee.
|
Section 1330. Power to contract: power of appointment not |
presently exercisable. A powerholder of a power of appointment |
that is not presently exercisable may contract to exercise or |
not to exercise the power only if the powerholder: |
(1) is also the donor of the power; and
|
(2) has reserved the power in a revocable trust.
|
Section 1331. Remedy for breach of contract to appoint or |
not to appoint. The remedy for a powerholder's breach of a |
contract to appoint or not to appoint is limited to damages |
payable out of the appointive property or, if appropriate, |
specific performance of the contract. |
Section 1332. Creditor claim: general power created by |
powerholder. |
(a) In this Section, "power of appointment created by the |
powerholder" includes a power of appointment created in a |
transfer by another person to the extent the powerholder |
contributed value to the transfer.
|
(b) Appointive property subject to a general power of |
appointment created by the powerholder is subject to a claim of |
a creditor of the powerholder or of the powerholder's estate to |
the extent provided in the Uniform Fraudulent Transfer Act.
|
|
(c) Subject to subsection (b), appointive property subject |
to a general power of appointment created by the powerholder is |
not subject to a claim of a creditor of the powerholder or the |
powerholder's estate to the extent the powerholder irrevocably |
appointed the property in favor of a person other than the |
powerholder or the powerholder's estate.
|
(d) Subject to subsections (b) and (c), and notwithstanding |
the presence of a spendthrift provision or whether the claim |
arose before or after the creation of the power of appointment, |
appointive property subject to a general power of appointment |
created by the powerholder is subject to a claim of a creditor |
of:
|
(1) the powerholder, to the same extent as if the |
powerholder owned the appointive property, if the power is |
presently exercisable; and
|
(2) the powerholder's estate, to the extent the estate |
is insufficient to satisfy the claim and subject to the |
right of a decedent to direct the source from which |
liabilities are paid, if the power is exercisable at the |
powerholder's death.
|
Section 1333. Creditor claim: general power not created by |
powerholder. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), |
appointive property subject to a general power of appointment |
created by a person other than the powerholder is subject to a |
|
claim of a creditor of:
|
(1) the powerholder, to the extent the powerholder's |
property is insufficient, if the power is presently |
exercisable; and
|
(2) the powerholder's estate if the power is exercised |
at the powerholder's death, to the extent the estate is |
insufficient, subject to the right of the deceased |
powerholder to direct the source from which liabilities are |
paid.
|
(b) Subject to subsection (c) of Section 1335, a power of |
appointment created by a person other than the powerholder that |
is subject to an ascertainable standard relating to an |
individual's health, education, support, or maintenance within |
the meaning of Section 2041(b)(1)(A) of the Internal Revenue |
Code or Section 2514(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, as |
amended, is treated for purposes of this Article as a |
nongeneral power.
|
Section 1334. Power to withdraw. |
(a) For purposes of Sections 1333 through 1336, and except |
as otherwise provided in subsection (b), a power to withdraw |
property from a trust is treated, during the time the power may |
be exercised, as a presently exercisable general power of |
appointment to the extent of the property subject to the power |
to withdraw.
|
(b) A power to withdraw property from a trust ceases to be |
|
treated as a presently exercisable general power of appointment |
upon its lapse, release, or waiver.
|
Section 1335. Creditor claim: nongeneral power. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b) and |
(c), appointive property subject to a nongeneral power of |
appointment is exempt from a claim of a creditor of the |
powerholder or the powerholder's estate.
|
(b) Appointive property subject to a nongeneral power of |
appointment is subject to a claim of a creditor of the |
powerholder or the powerholder's estate to the extent that the |
powerholder owned the property and, reserving the nongeneral |
power, transferred the property in violation of the Uniform |
Fraudulent Transfer Act.
|
(c) If the initial gift in default of appointment is to the |
powerholder or the powerholder's estate, a nongeneral power of |
appointment is treated for purposes of this Section as a |
general power.
|
Section 1336. Application to existing relationships. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Article, on and |
after the effective date of this Code:
|
(1) this Article applies to a power of appointment |
created before, on, or after its effective date;
|
(2) this Article applies to a judicial proceeding |
concerning a power of appointment commenced on or after its |
|
effective date;
|
(3) this Article applies to a judicial proceeding |
concerning a power of appointment commenced before its |
effective date unless the court finds that application of a |
particular provision of this Article would substantially |
interfere with the effective conduct of the judicial |
proceeding or prejudice a right of a party, in which case |
the particular provision of this Article does not apply and |
the superseded law applies;
|
(4) a rule of construction or presumption provided in |
this Article applies to an instrument executed before the |
effective date of the Article unless there is a clear |
indication of a contrary intent in the terms of the |
instrument; and
|
(5) an act done before the effective date of this Code |
is not affected by this Article.
|
(b) If a right is acquired, extinguished, or barred on the |
expiration of a prescribed period that commenced under law of |
this State other than this Article before the effective date of |
this Code, the law continues to apply to the right.
|
(c) No trustee is liable to any person in whose favor a |
power of appointment may have been exercised for any |
distribution of property made to persons entitled to take in |
default of the effective exercise of the power of appointment |
to the extent that the distribution shall have been completed |
before the effective date of this Code.
|
|
Article 14.
Perpetuities. |
Section 1401. Article title. Except for Section 1407, this |
Article may be referred to as the Law Concerning Perpetuities. |
Section 1402. Purpose. This Article modifies the common law |
rule of property known as the rule against perpetuities, that, |
except as modified by statutes in force at the effective date |
of this Article and by this Article, shall remain in full force |
and effect. |
Section 1403. Definitions and terms. As used in this |
Article unless the context otherwise requires:
|
(a) Any reference in this Article to income to be "paid" or |
to income "payments" or to "receiving" income includes income |
payable or distributable to or applicable for the benefit of a |
beneficiary.
|
(b) "Instrument" means any writing pursuant to which any |
legal or equitable interest in property or in the income |
therefrom is affected, disposed of, or created.
|
(c) "Qualified perpetual trust" means any trust created by |
any written instrument executed on or after January 1, 1998, |
including an amendment to an instrument in existence before |
that date and the exercise of a power of appointment granted by |
an instrument executed or amended on or after that date: |
|
(1) to which, by the specific terms governing the |
trust, the rule against perpetuities does not apply; and
|
(2) the power of the trustee (or other person to whom |
the power is properly granted or delegated) to sell |
property of which is not limited by the trust instrument or |
any provision of law for any period of time beyond the |
period of the rule against perpetuities.
|
Section 1404. Application of rule against perpetuities. |
(a) The rule against perpetuities does not apply:
|
(1) to any disposition of property or interest therein |
that, at the effective date of this Code, does not violate, |
or is exempted by statute from the operation of, the common |
law rule against perpetuities;
|
(2) to powers of a trustee to sell, lease, or mortgage |
property or to powers that relate to the administration or |
management of trust assets, including, but not limited to, |
discretionary powers of a trustee to determine what |
receipts constitute principal and what receipts constitute |
income and powers to appoint a successor trustee;
|
(3) to mandatory powers of a trustee to distribute |
income, or to discretionary powers of a trustee to |
distribute principal before termination of a trust, to a |
beneficiary having an interest in the principal that is |
irrevocably vested in quality and quantity;
|
(4) to discretionary powers of a trustee to allocate |
|
income and principal among beneficiaries, but no exercise |
of any such power after the expiration of the period of the |
rule against perpetuities is valid;
|
(5) to leases to commence in the future or upon the |
happening of a future event, but no such lease is valid |
unless the term of the lease actually commences in |
possession within 40 years from the date of execution of |
the lease;
|
(6) to commitments (A) by a lessor to enter into a |
lease with a subtenant or with the holder of a leasehold |
mortgage or (B) by a lessee or sublessee to enter into a |
lease with the holder of a mortgage;
|
(7) to options in gross or to preemptive rights in the |
nature of a right of first refusal, but no option in gross |
shall be valid for more than 40 years from the date of its |
creation; or
|
(8) to qualified perpetual trusts as defined in Section |
1403.
|
(b) The period of the rule against perpetuities shall not |
commence to run in connection with any disposition of property |
or interest therein, and no instrument shall be regarded as |
becoming effective for purposes of the rule against |
perpetuities, and no interest or power shall be deemed to be |
created for purposes of the rule against perpetuities as long |
as, by the terms of the instrument, the maker of the instrument |
has the power to revoke the instrument or to transfer or direct |
|
to be transferred to himself or herself the entire legal and |
equitable ownership of the property or interest therein.
|
(c) In determining whether an interest violates the rule |
against perpetuities:
|
(1) it is presumed:
|
(A) that the interest was intended to be valid;
|
(B) in the case of an interest conditioned upon the |
probate of a will, the appointment of an executor, |
administrator or trustee, the completion of the |
administration of an estate, the payment of debts, the |
sale or distribution of property, the determination of |
federal or state tax liabilities or the happening of |
any administrative contingency, that the contingency |
must occur, if at all, within the period of the rule |
against perpetuities; and
|
(C) if the instrument creates an interest in the |
"widow", "widower", or "spouse" of another person, |
that the maker of the instrument intended to refer to a |
person who was living at the date that the period of |
the rule against perpetuities commences to run;
|
(2) if any interest, but for this subsection, would be |
invalid because it is made to depend upon any person |
attaining or failing to attain an age in excess of 21 |
years, the age specified shall be reduced to 21 years as to |
every person to whom the age contingency applies;
|
(3) notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2), if the |
|
validity of any interest depends upon the possibility of |
the birth or adoption of a child, the following apply: |
(A) no person shall be deemed capable of having a |
child until he or she has attained the age of 13 years; |
(B) any person who has attained the age of 65 years |
shall be deemed incapable of having a child; |
(C) evidence is admissible as to the incapacity of |
having a child by a living person who has not attained |
the age of 65 years; and |
(D) the possibility of having a child or more |
remote descendant by adoption shall be disregarded.
|
(d) Paragraphs (2), (3), and (6) of subsection (a) and |
subsection (b) are declaratory of existing law.
|
Section 1405. Trusts. |
(a) Subject to subsections (e) and (f), a trust containing |
any limitation that, but for this subsection, would violate the |
rule against perpetuities as modified by Section 1404 shall |
terminate at the expiration of a period of: |
(1) 21 years after the death of the last to die of all |
of the beneficiaries of the instrument who were living at |
the date when the period of the rule against perpetuities |
commenced to run; or |
(2) 21 years after that date if no beneficiary of the |
instrument was then living, unless events occur that cause |
an earlier termination in accordance with the terms of the |
|
instrument and then the principal shall be distributed as |
provided by the instrument.
|
(b) Subject to subsections (c), (d) and (e), when a trust |
terminates because of the application of subsection (a), the |
trustee shall distribute the principal to those persons who |
would be the heirs at law of the maker of the instrument if he |
or she died at the expiration of the period specified in |
subsection (a) and in the proportions then specified by |
statute, unless the trust was created by the exercise of a |
power of appointment and then the principal shall be |
distributed to the person who would have received it if the |
power had not been exercised.
|
(c) Before any distribution of principal is made pursuant |
to subsection (b), the trustee shall distribute, out of |
principal, to each living beneficiary who, but for termination |
of the trust because of the application of subsection (a), |
would have been entitled to be paid income after the expiration |
of the period specified in subsection (a), an amount equal to |
the present value (determined as provided in subsection (d)) of |
the income that the beneficiary would have been entitled to be |
paid after the expiration of that period.
|
(d) In determining the present value of income for purposes |
of any distribution to a beneficiary pursuant to subsection |
(c): |
(1) when income payments would have been subject in |
whole or in part to any discretionary power, it shall be |
|
assumed:
|
(A) that the income that would have been paid to an |
individual income beneficiary would have been the |
maximum amount of income that could have been paid to |
him or her in the exercise of the power;
|
(B) if the income would or might have been payable |
to more than one beneficiary, that (except as |
hereinafter provided) each beneficiary would have |
received an equal share of the income, unless the |
instrument specifies less than an equal share as the |
maximum amount or proportion of income that would have |
been paid to any beneficiary in the exercise of the |
power, in which event the maximum specified shall |
control; and
|
(C) if the income would or might have been payable |
to the descendants of the maker of the instrument or of |
another person, that, unless the instrument provides |
otherwise, the descendants would have received the |
income per stirpes; |
(2)(A) present value shall be computed on an actuarial |
basis and there shall be assumed a return of 5%, at simple |
interest, on the value of the principal from which the |
beneficiary would have been entitled to receive income; and
|
(B) if the interest in income was to be for the life of |
the beneficiary or for the life of another, the computation |
shall be made on the expectancy set forth in the most |
|
recently published American Experience Tables of Mortality |
and no other evidence of duration or expectancy shall be |
considered;
|
(3) if the trustee cannot determine the present value |
of any income interest in accordance with the provisions of |
the instrument and the foregoing rules concerning income |
payments, the present value of the interest shall be deemed |
to be zero.
|
(e) This Section applies only when a trust would violate |
the rule against perpetuities as modified by Section 1404 and |
does not apply to any trust that would have been valid apart |
from this Article.
|
(f) This Section does not apply when a trust violates the |
rule against perpetuities because the trust estate may not vest |
in the trustee within the period of the rule.
|
Section 1406. Applicability. Sections 1401 through 1405 |
apply only to instruments, including instruments that exercise |
a power of appointment, that become effective after September |
22, 1969. |
Section 1407. Vesting of any limitation of property. |
(a) This Section may be referred to as the Perpetuities |
Vesting Law. |
(b) The vesting of any limitation of property, whether |
created in the exercise of a power of appointment or in any |
|
other manner, shall not be regarded as deferred for purposes of |
the rule against perpetuities merely because the limitation is |
made to the estate of a person or to a personal representative, |
or to a trustee under a will, or to take effect on the probate |
of a will. |
(c) This Section applies only to limitations created after |
July 1, 1952. |
Article 15.
Miscellaneous Provisions. |
Section 1501. Uniformity of application and construction. |
In applying and construing this Code, consideration must be |
given to the need to promote uniformity of the law with respect |
to its subject matter among states that enact comparable |
provisions of the Uniform Trust Code. |
Section 1502. Severability. If any provision of this Code |
or its application to any person or circumstances is held |
invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or |
applications of this Code which can be given effect without the |
invalid provision or application, and to this end the |
provisions of this Code are severable. |
Section 1503. Rights retained by Attorney General. Nothing |
in this Code is intended to derogate any right the Attorney |
General has under the common law of this State to represent a |
|
charitable interest in trust. Nothing in this Code relieves a |
trustee of duties to file documents under, and otherwise comply |
with, the Charitable Trust Act or the Solicitation for Charity |
Act. |
Section 1504. (See Section 9999 for effective date.) |
(760 ILCS 5/Act rep.) |
Section 1505. The Trusts and Trustees Act is repealed. |
(760 ILCS 35/Act rep.) |
Section 1505.1. The Trusts and Dissolutions of Marriage Act |
is repealed. |
(760 ILCS 105/Act rep.) |
Section 1505.2. The Uniform Powers of Appointment Act is |
repealed. |
(765 ILCS 305/Act rep.) |
Section 1505.3. The Statute Concerning Perpetuities is |
repealed. |
(765 ILCS 310/Act rep.) |
Section 1505.4. The Perpetuities Vesting Act is repealed. |
(765 ILCS 315/Act rep.) |
|
Section 1505.5. The Trust Accumulation Act is repealed. |
Section 1506. Application to existing relationships. |
Except as otherwise provided in this Code, on the effective |
date of this Code:
|
(1) This Code applies to all trusts created before, on, |
or after its effective date.
|
(2) This Code applies to all judicial proceedings |
concerning trusts commenced on or after its effective date. |
As used in this Section, "judicial proceedings" includes |
any proceeding before a court or administrative tribunal of |
this State and any arbitration or mediation proceedings.
|
(3) this Code applies to all nonjudicial matters |
concerning trusts commenced before, on, or after its |
effective date. As used in this Section, "nonjudicial |
matters" includes, but is not limited to, nonjudicial |
settlement agreements entered into under Section 111 and |
the grant of any consent, release, ratification, or |
indemnification.
|
(4) This Code applies to judicial proceedings |
concerning trusts commenced before its effective date |
unless the court finds that application of a particular |
provision of this Code would substantially interfere with |
the effective conduct of the judicial proceedings or |
prejudice the rights of the parties, in which case the |
particular provision of this Code does not apply and the |
|
superseded law applies.
|
(5) Any rule of construction or presumption provided in |
this Code applies to trust instruments executed before the |
effective date of this Code unless there is a clear |
indication of a contrary intent in the trust instrument. |
(6) An act done before the effective date of this Code |
is not affected by this Code.
|
(7) If a right is acquired, extinguished, or barred |
upon the expiration of a prescribed period that has |
commenced to run under any other statute before the |
effective date of this Code, that statute continues to |
apply to the right even if it has been repealed or |
superseded.
|
(8) This Code shall be construed as pertaining to |
administration of a trust and applies to any trust that is |
administered in Illinois under Illinois law or that is |
governed by Illinois law with respect to the meaning and |
effect of its terms, except to the extent the trust |
instrument expressly prohibits use of this Code by specific |
reference to this Code. |
Article 16. Amendatory Provisions. |
Section 1601. The Public Use Trust Act is amended by |
changing Section 2 as follows:
|
|
(30 ILCS 160/2) (from Ch. 127, par. 4002)
|
Sec. 2.
(a) The Department of Agriculture and the |
Department of Natural
Resources have the
power to enter into a |
trust agreement with a person or group of persons under
which |
the State agency may receive or collect money or other property |
from the
person or group of persons and may expend such money |
or property solely for a
public purpose within the powers and |
duties of that State agency and stated in
the trust agreement. |
The State agency shall be the trustee under any such
trust |
agreement.
|
(b) Money or property received under a trust agreement |
shall not be
deposited in the State treasury and is not subject |
to appropriation by the
General Assembly, but shall be held and |
invested by the trustee separate
and apart from the State |
treasury. The trustee shall invest money or
property received |
under a trust agreement as provided for trustees under
the |
Illinois Trust Code Trusts and Trustees Act or as otherwise |
provided in the trust agreement.
|
(c) The trustee shall maintain detailed records of all |
receipts and
disbursements in the same manner as required for |
trustees under the Illinois Trust Code Trusts
and Trustees Act . |
The trustee shall provide an annual accounting of all
receipts, |
disbursements, and inventory to all donors to the trust and the
|
Auditor General. The annual accounting shall be made available |
to any
member of the public upon request.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-695, eff. 8-3-18.)
|
|
Section 1602. The Township Code is amended by changing |
Section 135-20 as follows:
|
(60 ILCS 1/135-20)
|
Sec. 135-20. Powers of board of managers. The board of |
managers shall
control and manage the cemeteries jointly |
acquired by the townships or road
districts. The board of |
managers may receive in trust from the proprietors or
owners of |
any lot in the cemeteries, or any person, corporation, |
association,
or society interested in the maintenance of those |
cemeteries, any gift or
legacy of money or real, personal, or |
mixed property that is donated or
bequeathed to the board of |
managers for the use and maintenance of the lot or
cemeteries. |
The board of managers may convert the property into money, may
|
invest the money in securities in which trust funds may be |
invested under the Illinois Trust Code
Trusts and Trustees Act , |
and may apply the income perpetually for the care of
the lot or |
the care and maintenance of the cemeteries as specified in the |
gift
or legacy or as provided by the board of managers if the |
gift or legacy does
not specify the manner in which the income |
is to be expended.
|
(Source: P.A. 83-1362; 88-62.)
|
Section 1603. The Corporate Fiduciary Act is amended by |
changing Sections 1-6, 6-10, and 9-5 as follows:
|
|
(205 ILCS 620/1-6) (from Ch. 17, par. 1551-6)
|
Sec. 1-6. General Corporate Powers. A corporate
fiduciary |
shall have the powers:
|
(a) if it is a State bank, those powers granted under
|
Sections 3 and 5 of the Illinois Banking Act;
and
|
(b) if it is a State savings and loan association, |
those
powers granted under Sections 1-6 through 1-8 of the |
Illinois
Savings and Loan Act of 1985; and
|
(c) if it is a State savings bank, those powers granted |
under the
Savings Bank Act; and
|
(d) if it is a corporation organized under the Business
|
Corporation Act of 1983, as now or hereafter amended, or a |
limited liability
company organized under the Limited |
Liability Company Act, those powers
granted in Article 8 |
Sections 4.01
through 4.24 of the Illinois Trust Code |
Trusts and Trustees Act , as now or hereafter
amended, to |
the extent the
exercise of such powers by the corporate |
fiduciary are not
contrary to the instrument containing the |
appointment of the
corporate fiduciary, the court order |
appointing the corporate
fiduciary or any other statute |
specifically limiting the power of
the corporate fiduciary |
under the circumstances; and
|
(e) subject to Article XLIV of the Illinois Insurance |
Code, to
act as the
agent for any fire, life, or other |
insurance company
authorized by the State of Illinois, by |
|
soliciting and selling insurance and
collecting premiums |
on policies issued by such company; and may receive for
|
services so rendered such fees or commissions as may be |
agreed upon between the
said corporate fiduciary and the |
insurance company for which it may act as
agent; provided, |
however, that no such corporate fiduciary shall in any case
|
assume or guarantee the payment of any premium on insurance |
policies issued
through its agency by its principal; and |
provided further, that the corporate
fiduciary shall not |
guarantee the truth of any statement made by an assured in
|
filing his application for insurance.
|
The Commissioner may specify powers of corporate |
fiduciaries generally
or of a particular corporate fiduciary |
and
by rule or order limit or restrict such powers of corporate
|
fiduciaries or a particular corporate fiduciary if he finds the |
exercise of
such power by corporate fiduciaries generally or of |
the corporate
fiduciary in particular may tend to be an unsafe |
or unsound practice, or if
such power is otherwise not in the |
interest of beneficiaries of
any fiduciary appointment.
|
(Source: P.A. 90-41, eff. 10-1-97; 90-424, eff. 1-1-98; 90-655, |
eff.
7-30-98; 91-97, eff. 7-9-99.)
|
(205 ILCS 620/6-10) (from Ch. 17, par. 1556-10)
|
Sec. 6-10.
The receiver for a corporate fiduciary, under
|
the direction of the Commissioner, shall have the power and
|
authority and is charged with the duties and responsibilities |
|
as
follows:
|
(1) To take possession of, and for the purpose
of the |
receivership, the title to the books, records and assets
of |
every description of the corporate fiduciary.
|
(2) To proceed to collect all debts, dues and
claims |
belonging to the corporate fiduciary.
|
(3) To file with the Commissioner a copy of
each report |
which he makes to the court, together with such other
|
reports and records as the Commissioner may require.
|
(4) The receiver shall have authority to sue and
defend |
in the receiver's own name and with respect to the affairs,
|
assets, claims,
debts and choses chooses in action of the |
corporate fiduciary.
|
(5) The receiver shall have authority, and it shall be
|
the receiver's duty, to surrender to the customers of such |
corporate
fiduciary, when requested in writing directed to |
the receiver by such
customers, the assets, private papers |
and valuables left with the
corporate fiduciary for |
safekeeping, under a
custodial or agency agreement, upon |
satisfactory proof of
ownership.
|
(6) As soon as can reasonably be done, the receiver |
shall
resign on behalf of the corporate fiduciary, all |
trusteeships,
guardianships, and all appointments as |
executor and
administrator, or as custodian under the |
Illinois Uniform Transfers to
Minors Act, as now or |
hereafter amended, or as fiduciary under custodial or
|
|
agency agreements or under the terms of any other written |
agreement or
court order whereunder the corporate |
fiduciary is holding property in a
fiduciary capacity for |
the benefit of another person, making in each
case, from |
the records and documents available to the receiver, a |
proper
accounting, in the
manner and scope as determined by |
the Commissioner to be practical and
advisable under the |
circumstances,
on behalf of the corporate fiduciary.
The |
receiver, prior to resigning, shall cause a successor |
trustee or
fiduciary to be appointed pursuant to the terms |
set forth in the governing
instrument or
pursuant to the |
provisions of the Illinois Trust Code Trusts and Trustees |
Act , as now or
hereafter amended, if applicable,
then the |
receiver shall make application to the court having
|
jurisdiction over the liquidation or winding up of the |
corporate fiduciary,
for the appointment of a successor. |
The receiver, if a corporate
fiduciary, shall not be |
disqualified from acting as successor trustee or
fiduciary |
if appointed under the terms of the governing instrument, |
by court
order or by the customer of the corporate |
fiduciary whose affairs are being
liquidated or wound up |
and, in such case, no guardian ad litem need be
appointed |
to review the accounting of the receiver unless the |
beneficiaries
or customers of the corporate fiduciary so |
request in writing.
|
(7) The receiver shall have authority to redeem or take |
|
down
collateral hypothecated by the corporate fiduciary to |
secure its
notes and other evidence of indebtedness |
whenever the
Commissioner deems it to be in the best |
interest of the creditors of
the corporate fiduciary and |
directs the receiver so to do.
|
(8) Whenever the receiver shall find it necessary in
|
the receiver's opinion to use and employ money of the |
corporate fiduciary,
in order to protect fully and benefit |
the corporate fiduciary, by
the purchase or redemption of |
any property, real or personal, in
which the corporate |
fiduciary may have any rights by reason of
any bond, |
mortgage, assignment, or other claim thereto, the receiver
|
may certify the facts together with the receiver's opinions |
as to the
value of the property involved, and the value of |
the equity the
corporate fiduciary may have in the property |
to the Commissioner,
together with a request for the right |
and authority to use and
employ so much of the money of the |
corporate fiduciary as may be
necessary to purchase the |
property, or to redeem the same from a
sale if there was a |
sale, and if such request is granted, the
receiver may use |
so much of the money of the corporate fiduciary
as the |
Commissioner may have authorized to purchase said property
|
at such sale.
|
(9) The receiver shall deposit daily all monies |
collected by
the receiver in any State or national bank |
selected by the
Commissioner, who may require (and the bank |
|
so selected may
furnish) of such depository satisfactory |
securities or
satisfactory surety bond for the safekeeping |
and prompt payment
of the money so deposited. The deposits |
shall be made in the
name of the Commissioner in trust for |
the receiver and be subject to
withdrawal upon the |
receiver's order or upon the order of such
persons as the |
Commissioner may designate. Such monies may be
deposited |
without interest, unless otherwise agreed. However, if
any |
interest was paid by such depository, it shall accrue to |
the
benefit of the particular trust or fiduciary account to |
which the deposit
belongs. Except as
otherwise directed by |
the Commissioner, notwithstanding any other provision
of |
this paragraph, the receiver's investment and other powers |
shall be
those under the governing instrument or under the |
Illinois Trust Code Trusts and Trustees Act,
as now or |
hereafter amended , and shall include the power to pay out |
income
and principal in accordance with the terms of the |
governing instrument.
|
(10) The receiver shall do such things and take such |
steps from
time to time under the direction and approval of |
the Commissioner
as may reasonably appear to be necessary |
to conserve the
corporate fiduciary's assets and secure the |
best interests of the
creditors of the corporate fiduciary.
|
(11) The receiver shall record any judgment of |
dissolution
entered in a dissolution proceeding and |
thereupon turn over to
the Commissioner a certified copy |
|
thereof, together with all
books of accounts and ledgers of |
such corporate fiduciary for
preservation, as |
distinguished from the books of accounts and ledgers of
the |
corporate fiduciary relating to the assets of the |
beneficiaries of such
fiduciary relations, all of which |
books of accounts and ledgers shall be
turned over by the |
receiver to the successor trustee or fiduciary.
|
(12) The receiver may cause all assets of the |
beneficiaries of such
fiduciary relations to be registered |
in the name of the receiver or in the
name of the |
receiver's nominee.
|
(13) The receiver shall have a reasonable period of |
time in which to
review all of the trust accounts, |
executorships, administrationships,
guardianships, or |
other fiduciary relationships, in order to ascertain that
|
the investments by the corporate fiduciary of the assets of |
such trust
accounts, executorships, administrationships, |
guardianships , or other
fiduciary relationships comply |
with the terms of the governing instrument,
the prudent |
person rule governing the investment of such funds, or any
|
other law regulating the investment of such funds.
|
(14) For its services in administering the trusts and |
other fiduciary
accounts of the corporate fiduciary during |
the period of winding up the
affairs of the corporate |
fiduciary, the receiver shall be entitled to be
reimbursed |
for all costs and expenses incurred by the receiver and |
|
shall
also be entitled to receive out of the assets of the |
individual fiduciary
accounts being administered by the |
receiver during the period of winding up
the affairs of the |
corporate fiduciary and prior to the appointment of a
|
successor trustee or fiduciary, the usual and customary |
fees charged by the
receiver in the administration of its |
own fiduciary accounts or reasonable
fees approved by the |
Commissioner.
|
(15) The receiver, during its administration of the |
trusts and other
fiduciary accounts of the corporate |
fiduciary during the winding up of the
affairs of the |
corporate fiduciary, shall have all of the powers which are
|
vested in trustees under the terms and provisions of the |
Illinois Trust Code Trusts and
Trustees Act, as now or |
hereafter amended .
|
(16) Upon the appointment of a successor trustee or |
fiduciary, the
receiver shall deliver to such successor |
trustee or fiduciary all of the
assets belonging to the |
individual trust or fiduciary account as to which
the |
successor trustee or fiduciary succeeds, and the receiver |
shall
thereupon be relieved of any further duties or |
obligations with respect
thereto.
|
(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 10-18-18.)
|
(205 ILCS 620/9-5) (from Ch. 17, par. 1559-5)
|
Sec. 9-5. Applicability of other Acts by reference. |
|
Corporate fiduciaries subject to the provisions of this Act |
shall
continue to be subject to the provisions of other Acts |
which
govern actions of trustees including, but not limited to:
|
(a) "An Act to provide for the appointment of successor
|
trustees in land trust agreements", approved August 13, 1965, |
as amended.
|
(b) "An Act to require disclosure, under certification of
|
perjury, of all beneficial interests in real property held in a
|
land trust, in certain cases", approved September 21, 1973, as |
amended.
|
(c) "An Act in relation to land trusts and the power and
|
authority of trustees of land trusts to deal with trust
|
property", approved August 6, 1982, as amended.
|
(d) "An Act concerning the powers of corporations
|
authorized to accept and execute trusts, to register and hold
|
securities of fiduciary accounts in bulk and to deposit same |
with
a depository", approved September 1, 1972, as amended.
|
(e) the "Common Trust Fund Act", approved July 29, 1943, as |
amended.
|
(f) the Illinois Trust Code "Trusts and Trustees Act", |
approved September 10, 1973, as amended .
|
(g) "An Act concerning liability for participation in
|
breaches of fiduciary obligations", approved July 7, 1931, as |
amended.
|
(Source: P.A. 85-858.)
|
|
Section 1604. The Community-Integrated Living Arrangements |
Licensure and
Certification Act is amended by changing Section |
3 as follows:
|
(210 ILCS 135/3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1703)
|
Sec. 3. As used in this Act, unless the context requires |
otherwise:
|
(a) "Applicant" means a person, group of persons, |
association, partnership
or corporation that applies for a |
license as a community mental health or
developmental services |
agency under this Act.
|
(b) "Community mental health or developmental services |
agency" or "agency"
means a public or private agency, |
association, partnership, corporation or
organization which, |
pursuant to this Act, certifies community-integrated living
|
arrangements for persons with mental illness or persons with a |
developmental
disability.
|
(c) "Department" means the Department of Human Services (as |
successor to
the Department of Mental Health and Developmental |
Disabilities).
|
(d) "Community-integrated living arrangement" means a |
living arrangement
certified by a community mental health or |
developmental services agency
under this Act where 8 or fewer |
recipients with mental illness or recipients
with a |
developmental disability who reside under the supervision of |
the agency.
Examples of community-integrated community |
|
integrated living arrangements include but are not
limited to |
the following:
|
(1) "Adult foster care", a living arrangement for |
recipients in residences
of families unrelated to them, for |
the purpose of providing family care for the
recipients on |
a full-time basis;
|
(2) "Assisted residential care", an independent living |
arrangement where
recipients are intermittently supervised |
by off-site staff;
|
(3) "Crisis residential care", a non-medical living |
arrangement where
recipients in need of non-medical, |
crisis services are supervised by
on-site staff 24 hours a |
day;
|
(4) "Home individual programs", living arrangements |
for 2 unrelated adults
outside the family home;
|
(5) "Supported residential care", a living arrangement |
where recipients
are supervised by on-site staff and such |
supervision is provided less than 24
hours
a day;
|
(6) "Community residential alternatives", as defined |
in the Community
Residential Alternatives Licensing Act; |
and
|
(7) "Special needs trust-supported residential care", |
a living
arrangement
where recipients are supervised by |
on-site staff and that supervision is
provided
24 hours per |
day or less, as dictated by the needs of the recipients, |
and
determined
by service providers. As used in this item |
|
(7), "special needs trust" means a
trust
for the benefit of |
a beneficiary with a disability as described in Section |
1213 15.1 of the
Illinois Trust Code Trusts
and Trustees |
Act .
|
(e) "Recipient" means a person who has received, is |
receiving, or is in need
of treatment or habilitation as those |
terms are defined in the Mental Health
and Developmental |
Disabilities Code.
|
(f) "Unrelated" means that persons residing together in |
programs or
placements certified by a community mental health |
or developmental services
agency under this Act do not have any |
of the following relationships by blood,
marriage or adoption: |
parent, son, daughter, brother, sister, grandparent,
uncle, |
aunt, nephew, niece, great grandparent, great uncle, great |
aunt,
stepbrother, stepsister, stepson, stepdaughter, |
stepparent or first cousin.
|
(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
|
Section 1605. The Title Insurance Act is amended by |
changing Section 21.1 as follows: |
(215 ILCS 155/21.1) |
Sec. 21.1. Receiver and involuntary liquidation. |
(a) The Secretary's proceedings under this Section shall be |
the exclusive remedy and the only proceedings commenced in any |
court for the dissolution of, the winding up of the affairs of, |
|
or the appointment of a receiver for a title insurance company. |
(b) If the Secretary, with respect to a title insurance |
company, finds that (i) its capital is impaired or it is |
otherwise in an unsound condition, (ii) its business is being |
conducted in an unlawful, fraudulent, or unsafe manner, (iii) |
it is unable to continue operations, or (iv) its examination |
has been obstructed or impeded, the Secretary may give notice |
to the board of directors of the title insurance company of his |
or her finding or findings. If the Secretary's findings are not |
corrected to his or her satisfaction within 60 days after the |
company receives the notice, the Secretary shall take |
possession and control of the title insurance company, its |
assets, and assets held by it for any person for the purpose of |
examination, reorganization, or liquidation through |
receivership. |
If, in addition to making a finding as provided in this |
subsection (b), the Secretary is of the opinion and finds that |
an emergency that may result in serious losses to any person |
exists, the Secretary may, in his or her discretion, without |
having given the notice provided for in this subsection, and |
whether or not proceedings under subsection (a) of this Section |
have been instituted or are then pending, take possession and |
control of the title insurance company and its assets for the |
purpose of examination, reorganization, or liquidation through |
receivership. |
(c) The Secretary may take possession and control of a |
|
title insurance company, its assets, and assets held by it for |
any person by posting upon the premises of each office located |
in the State of Illinois at which it transacts its business as |
a title insurance company a notice reciting that the Secretary |
is assuming possession pursuant to this Act and the time when |
the possession shall be deemed to commence. |
(d) Promptly after taking possession and control of a title |
insurance company the Secretary, represented by the Attorney |
General, shall file a copy of the notice posted upon the |
premises in the Circuit Court of either Cook County or Sangamon |
County, which cause shall be entered as a court action upon the |
dockets of the court under the name and style of "In the matter |
of the possession and control by the Secretary of the |
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of (insert |
the name of the title insurance company)". If the Secretary |
determines (which determination may be made at the time of, or |
at any time subsequent to, taking possession and control of a |
title insurance company) that no practical possibility exists |
to reorganize the title insurance company after reasonable |
efforts have been made, the Secretary, represented by the |
Attorney General, shall also file a complaint, if it has not |
already been done, for the appointment of a receiver or other |
proceeding as is appropriate under the circumstances. The court |
where the cause is docketed shall be vested with the exclusive |
jurisdiction to hear and determine all issues and matters |
pertaining to or connected with the Secretary's possession and |
|
control of the title insurance company as provided in this Act, |
and any further issues and matters pertaining to or connected |
with the Secretary's possession and control as may be submitted |
to the court for its adjudication. |
The Secretary, upon taking possession and control of a |
title insurance company, may, and if not previously done shall, |
immediately upon filing a complaint for dissolution make an |
examination of the affairs of the title insurance company or |
appoint a suitable person to make the examination as the |
Secretary's agent. The examination shall be conducted in |
accordance with and pursuant to the authority granted under |
Section 12 of this Act. The person conducting the examination |
shall have and may exercise on behalf of the Secretary all of |
the powers and authority granted to the Secretary under Section |
12. A copy of the report shall be filed in any dissolution |
proceeding filed by the Secretary. The reasonable fees and |
necessary expenses of the examining person, as approved by the |
Secretary or as recommended by the Secretary and approved by |
the court if a dissolution proceeding has been filed, shall be |
borne by the subject title insurance company and shall have the |
same priority for payment as the reasonable and necessary |
expenses of the Secretary in conducting an examination. The |
person appointed to make the examination shall make a proper |
accounting, in the manner and scope as determined by the |
Secretary to be practical and advisable under the |
circumstances, on behalf of the title insurance company and no |
|
guardian ad litem need be appointed to review the accounting. |
(e) The Secretary, upon taking possession and control of a |
title insurance company and its assets, shall be vested with |
the full powers of management and control including, but not |
limited to, the following: |
(1) the power to continue or to discontinue the |
business; |
(2) the power to stop or to limit the payment of its |
obligations; |
(3) the power to collect and to use its assets and to |
give valid receipts and acquittances therefor; |
(4) the power to transfer title and liquidate any bond |
or deposit made under Section 4 of this Act; |
(5) the power to employ and to pay any necessary |
assistants; |
(6) the power to execute any instrument in the name of |
the title insurance company; |
(7) the power to commence, defend, and conduct in the |
title insurance company's name any action or proceeding in |
which it may be a party; |
(8) the power, upon the order of the court, to sell and |
convey the title insurance company's assets, in whole or in |
part, and to sell or compound bad or doubtful debts upon |
such terms and conditions as may be fixed in that order; |
(9) the power, upon the order of the court, to make and |
to carry out agreements with other title insurance |
|
companies, financial institutions, or with the United |
States or any agency of the United States for the payment |
or assumption of the title insurance company's |
liabilities, in whole or in part, and to transfer assets |
and to make guaranties, in whole or in part, in connection |
therewith; |
(10) the power, upon the order of the court, to borrow |
money in the name of the title insurance company and to |
pledge its assets as security for the loan; |
(11) the power to terminate his or her possession and |
control by restoring the title insurance company to its |
board of directors; |
(12) the power to appoint a receiver which may be the |
Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional |
Regulation, another title insurance company, or another |
suitable person and to order liquidation of the title |
insurance company as provided in this Act; and |
(13) the power, upon the order of the court and without |
the appointment of a receiver, to determine that the title |
insurance company has been closed for the purpose of |
liquidation without adequate provision being made for |
payment of its obligations, and thereupon the title |
insurance company shall be deemed to have been closed on |
account of inability to meet its obligations to its |
insureds or escrow depositors. |
(f) Upon taking possession, the Secretary shall make an |
|
examination of the condition of the title insurance company, an |
inventory of the assets and, unless the time shall be extended |
by order of the court or unless the Secretary shall have |
otherwise settled the affairs of the title insurance company |
pursuant to the provisions of this Act, within 90 days after |
the time of taking possession and control of the title |
insurance company, the Secretary shall either terminate his or |
her possession and control by restoring the title insurance |
company to its board of directors or appoint a receiver, which |
may be the Secretary of the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation, another title insurance company, or |
another suitable person and order the liquidation of the title |
insurance company as provided in this Act. All necessary and |
reasonable expenses of the Secretary's possession and control |
shall be a priority claim and shall be borne by the title |
insurance company and may be paid by the Secretary from the |
title insurance company's own assets as distinguished from |
assets held for any other person. |
(g) If the Secretary takes possession and control of a |
title insurance company and its assets, any period of |
limitation fixed by a statute or agreement that would otherwise |
expire on a claim or right of action of the title insurance |
company, on its own behalf or on behalf of its insureds or |
escrow depositors, or upon which an appeal must be taken or a |
pleading or other document filed by the title insurance company |
in any pending action or proceeding, shall be tolled until 6 |
|
months after the commencement of the possession, and no |
judgment, lien, levy, attachment, or other similar legal |
process may be enforced upon or satisfied, in whole or in part, |
from any asset of the title insurance company or from any asset |
of an insured or escrow depositor while it is in the possession |
of the Secretary. |
(h) If the Secretary appoints a receiver to take possession |
and control of the assets of insureds or escrow depositors for |
the purpose of holding those assets as fiduciary for the |
benefit of the insureds or escrow depositors pending the |
winding up of the affairs of the title insurance company being |
liquidated and the appointment of a successor escrowee for |
those assets, any period of limitation fixed by statute, rule |
of court, or agreement that would otherwise expire on a claim |
or right of action in favor of or against the insureds or |
escrow depositors of those assets or upon which an appeal must |
be taken or a pleading or other document filed by a title |
insurance company on behalf of an insured or escrow depositor |
in any pending action or proceeding shall be tolled for a |
period of 6 months after the appointment of a receiver, and no |
judgment, lien, levy, attachment, or other similar legal |
process shall be enforced upon or satisfied, in whole or in |
part, from any asset of the insured or escrow depositor while |
it is in the possession of the receiver. |
(i) If the Secretary determines at any time that no |
reasonable possibility exists for the title insurance company |
|
to be operated by its board of directors in accordance with the |
provisions of this Act after reasonable efforts have been made |
and that it should be liquidated through receivership, he or |
she shall appoint a receiver. The Secretary may require of the |
receiver such bond and security as the Secretary deems proper. |
The Secretary, represented by the Attorney General, shall file |
a complaint for the dissolution or winding up of the affairs of |
the title insurance company in a court of the county in which |
the principal office of the title insurance company is located |
and shall cause notice to be given in a newspaper of general |
circulation once each week for 4 consecutive weeks so that |
persons who may have claims against the title insurance company |
may present them to the receiver and make legal proof thereof |
and notifying those persons and all to whom it may concern of |
the filing of a complaint for the dissolution or winding up of |
the affairs of the title insurance company and stating the name |
and location of the court. All persons who may have claims |
against the assets of the title insurance company, as |
distinguished from the assets of insureds and escrow depositors |
held by the title insurance company, and the receiver to whom |
those persons have presented their claims may present the |
claims to the clerk of the court, and the allowance or |
disallowance of the claims by the court in connection with the |
proceedings shall be deemed an adjudication in a court of |
competent jurisdiction. Within a reasonable time after |
completion of publication, the receiver shall file with the |
|
court a correct list of all creditors of the title insurance |
company as shown by its books, who have not presented their |
claims and the amount of their respective claims after allowing |
adjusted credit, deductions, and set-offs as shown by the books |
of the title insurance company. The claims so filed shall be |
deemed proven unless objections are filed thereto by a party or |
parties interested therein within the time fixed by the court. |
(j) The receiver for a title insurance company has the |
power and authority and is charged with the duties and |
responsibilities as follows: |
(1) To take possession of and, for the purpose of the |
receivership, title to the books, records, and assets of |
every description of the title insurance company. |
(2) To proceed to collect all debts, dues, and claims |
belonging to the title insurance company. |
(3) To sell and compound all bad and doubtful debts on |
such terms as the court shall direct. |
(4) To sell the real and personal property of the title |
insurance company, as distinguished from the real and |
personal property of the insureds or escrow depositors, on |
such terms as the court shall direct. |
(5) To file with the Secretary a copy of each report |
that he or she makes to the court, together with such other |
reports and records as the Secretary may require. |
(6) To sue and defend in his or her own name and with |
respect to the affairs, assets, claims, debts, and choses |
|
in action of the title insurance company. |
(7) To surrender to the insureds and escrow depositors |
of the title insurance company, when requested in writing |
directed to the receiver by them, the escrowed funds (on a |
pro rata basis), and escrowed documents in the receiver's |
possession upon satisfactory proof of ownership and |
determination by the receiver of available escrow funds. |
(8) To redeem or take down collateral hypothecated by |
the title insurance company to secure its notes and other |
evidence of indebtedness whenever the court deems it to be |
in the best interest of the creditors of the title |
insurance company and directs the receiver so to do. |
(k) Whenever the receiver finds it necessary in his or her |
opinion to use and employ money of the title insurance company |
in order to protect fully and benefit the title insurance |
company by the purchase or redemption of property, real or |
personal, in which the title insurance company may have any |
rights by reason of any bond, mortgage, assignment, or other |
claim thereto, the receiver may certify the facts together with |
the receiver's opinions as to the value of the property |
involved and the value of the equity the title insurance |
company may have in the property to the court, together with a |
request for the right and authority to use and employ so much |
of the money of the title insurance company as may be necessary |
to purchase the property, or to redeem the property from a sale |
if there was a sale, and if the request is granted, the |
|
receiver may use so much of the money of the title insurance |
company as the court may have authorized to purchase the |
property at the sale. |
The receiver shall deposit daily all moneys collected by |
him or her in any State or national bank approved by the court. |
The deposits shall be made in the name of the Secretary, in |
trust for the receiver, and be subject to withdrawal upon the |
receiver's order or upon the order of those persons the |
Secretary may designate. The moneys may be deposited without |
interest, unless otherwise agreed. The receiver shall do the |
things and take the steps from time to time under the direction |
and approval of the court that may reasonably appear to be |
necessary to conserve the title insurance company's assets and |
secure the best interests of the creditors, insureds, and |
escrow depositors of the title insurance company. The receiver |
shall record any judgment of dissolution entered in a |
dissolution proceeding and thereupon turn over to the Secretary |
a certified copy of the judgment. |
The receiver may cause all assets of the insureds and |
escrow depositors of the title insurance company to be |
registered in the name of the receiver or in the name of the |
receiver's nominee. |
For its services in administering the escrows held by the |
title insurance company during the period of winding up the |
affairs of the title insurance company, the receiver is |
entitled to be reimbursed for all costs and expenses incurred |
|
by the receiver and shall also be entitled to receive out of |
the assets of the individual escrows being administered by the |
receiver during the period of winding up the affairs of the |
title insurance company and prior to the appointment of a |
successor escrowee the usual and customary fees charged by an |
escrowee for escrows or reasonable fees approved by the court. |
The receiver, during its administration of the escrows of |
the title insurance company during the winding up of the |
affairs of the title insurance company, shall have all of the |
powers that are vested in trustees under the terms and |
provisions of the Illinois Trust Code Trusts and Trustees Act . |
Upon the appointment of a successor escrowee, the receiver |
shall deliver to the successor escrowee all of the assets |
belonging to each individual escrow to which the successor |
escrowee succeeds, and the receiver shall thereupon be relieved |
of any further duties or obligations with respect thereto. |
(l) The receiver shall, upon approval by the court, pay all |
claims against the assets of the title insurance company |
allowed by the court pursuant to subsection (i) of this |
Section, as well as claims against the assets of insureds and |
escrow depositors of the title insurance company in accordance |
with the following priority: |
(1) All necessary and reasonable expenses of the |
Secretary's possession and control and of its receivership |
shall be paid from the assets of the title insurance |
company. |
|
(2) All usual and customary fees charged for services |
in administering escrows shall be paid from the assets of |
the individual escrows being administered. If the assets of |
the individual escrows being administered are |
insufficient, the fees shall be paid from the assets of the |
title insurance company. |
(3) Secured claims, including claims for taxes and |
debts due the federal or any state or local government, |
that are secured by liens perfected prior to the date of |
filing of the complaint for dissolution, shall be paid from |
the assets of the title insurance company. |
(4) Claims by policyholders, beneficiaries, insureds, |
and escrow depositors of the title insurance company shall |
be paid from the assets of the insureds and escrow |
depositors. If there are insufficient assets of the |
insureds and escrow depositors, claims shall be paid from |
the assets of the title insurance company. |
(5) Any other claims due the federal government shall |
be paid from the assets of the title insurance company. |
(6) Claims for wages or salaries, excluding vacation, |
severance, and sick leave pay earned by employees for |
services rendered within 90 days prior to the date of |
filing of the complaint for dissolution, shall be paid from |
the assets of the title insurance company. |
(7) All other claims of general creditors not falling |
within any priority under this subsection (l) including |
|
claims for taxes and debts due any state or local |
government which are not secured claims and claims for |
attorney's fees incurred by the title insurance company in |
contesting the dissolution shall be paid from the assets of |
the title insurance company. |
(8) Proprietary claims asserted by an owner, member, or |
stockholder of the title insurance company in receivership |
shall be paid from the assets of the title insurance |
company. |
The receiver shall pay all claims of equal priority |
according to the schedule set out in this subsection, and shall |
not pay claims of lower priority until all higher priority |
claims are satisfied. If insufficient assets are available to |
meet all claims of equal priority, those assets shall be |
distributed pro rata among those claims. All unclaimed assets |
of the title insurance company shall be deposited with the |
receiver to be paid out by him or her when such claims are |
submitted and allowed by the court. |
(m) At the termination of the receiver's administration, |
the receiver shall petition the court for the entry of a |
judgment of dissolution. After a hearing upon the notice as the |
court may prescribe, the court may enter a judgment of |
dissolution whereupon the title insurance company's corporate |
existence shall be terminated and the receivership concluded. |
(n) The receiver shall serve at the pleasure of the |
Secretary and upon the death, inability to act, resignation, or |
|
removal by the Secretary of a receiver, the Secretary may |
appoint a successor, and upon the appointment, all rights and |
duties of the predecessor shall at once devolve upon the |
appointee. |
(o) Whenever the Secretary shall have taken possession and |
control of a title insurance company or a title insurance agent |
and its assets for the purpose of examination, reorganization , |
or liquidation through receivership, or whenever the Secretary |
shall have appointed a receiver for a title insurance company |
or title insurance agent and filed a complaint for the |
dissolution or winding up of its affairs, and the title |
insurance company or title insurance agent denies the grounds |
for such actions, it may at any time within 10 days apply to |
the Circuit Court of Cook or Sangamon County to enjoin further |
proceedings in the premises; and the Court shall cite the |
Secretary to show cause why further proceedings should not be |
enjoined, and if the Court shall find that grounds do not |
exist, the Court shall make an order enjoining the Secretary or |
any receiver acting under his direction from all further |
proceedings on account of the alleged grounds.
|
(Source: P.A. 94-893, eff. 6-20-06.) |
Section 1606. The Illinois Funeral or Burial Funds Act is |
amended by changing Sections 4a and 5 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 45/4a)
|
|
Sec. 4a. Investment of funds.
|
(a) A trustee has a duty to invest and manage the trust |
assets pursuant to the Illinois Prudent Investor Law Rule under |
Article 9 of the Illinois Trust Code Trusts and Trustees Act .
|
(b) The trust shall be a single-purpose trust fund. In the |
event of the
seller's bankruptcy, insolvency or assignment for |
the benefit of creditors, or
an adverse judgment, the trust |
funds shall not be available to any creditor as
assets of the |
seller or to pay any expenses of any bankruptcy or similar
|
proceeding, but shall be distributed to the purchasers or |
managed for their
benefit by the trustee holding the funds. |
Except in an action by the
Comptroller to revoke a license |
issued pursuant
to this Act and for creation of a receivership |
as provided in this Act, the
trust shall not be subject to |
judgment, execution, garnishment, attachment,
or other seizure |
by process in bankruptcy or otherwise, nor to sale, pledge,
|
mortgage, or other alienation, and shall not be assignable |
except as
approved by the Comptroller. The changes made by |
Public Act 91-7 are intended to clarify existing law regarding |
the
inability of licensees to pledge the trust.
|
(c) Because it is not known at the time of deposit or at |
the time that
income is earned on the trust account to whom the |
principal and the accumulated
earnings will be distributed for |
the purpose of determining the Illinois income
tax due on these |
trust funds, the principal and any accrued earnings or losses
|
related to each individual account shall be held in suspense |
|
until the final
determination is made as to whom the account |
shall be paid. The beneficiary's
estate shall not be |
responsible for any funeral and burial purchases listed in
a |
pre-need contract if the pre-need contract is entered into on a |
guaranteed
price basis.
|
If a pre-need contract is not a guaranteed price contract, |
then to the extent
the proceeds of a non-guaranteed price |
pre-need contract cover the funeral and
burial expenses for the |
beneficiary, no claim may be made against the estate of
the |
beneficiary. A claim may be made against the beneficiary's |
estate if the
charges for the funeral services and merchandise |
at the time of use exceed the
amount of the amount in trust |
plus the percentage of the sale proceeds
initially retained by |
the seller or the face value of the life insurance policy
or |
tax-deferred annuity.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-879, eff. 2-2-10.)
|
(225 ILCS 45/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73.105)
|
Sec. 5.
This Act shall not be construed to prohibit the |
trustee and
trustee's depositary from being reimbursed and |
receiving from such funds
their reasonable compensation and |
expenses in the custody and
administration of such funds |
pursuant to the Illinois Trust Code Trusts and Trustees Act .
|
(Source: P.A. 96-879, eff. 2-2-10.)
|
Section 1607. The Mental Health and Developmental |
|
Disabilities Code is amended by changing Sections 3-605, 5-105, |
and 3-819 as follows:
|
(405 ILCS 5/3-605) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 3-605)
|
Sec. 3-605. (a) In counties with a population of 3,000,000 |
or more, upon receipt of a petition and certificate prepared
|
pursuant to this Article, the county sheriff of the county in |
which a
respondent is found shall take a respondent into
|
custody and transport him to a mental health facility, or may |
make
arrangements
with another public or private entity |
including a licensed ambulance service to
transport the |
respondent to the mental health facility.
In the event it
is |
determined by such facility that the respondent is in need of |
commitment
or treatment at another mental health facility, the |
county sheriff
shall transport the respondent to the |
appropriate mental health facility,
or the county sheriff may |
make arrangements with another public or private
entity |
including a licensed
ambulance service to transport the |
respondent to the mental health facility.
|
(b) The county
sheriff
may delegate his duties under |
subsection (a) to another law enforcement body within
that |
county if that law enforcement body agrees.
|
(b-5) In counties with a population under 3,000,000, upon |
receipt of a petition and certificate prepared pursuant to this |
Article, the Department shall make arrangements to |
appropriately transport the respondent to a mental health |
|
facility. In the event it is determined by the facility that |
the respondent is in need of commitment or treatment at another |
mental health facility, the Department shall make arrangements |
to appropriately transport the respondent to another mental |
health facility. The making of such arrangements and agreements |
with public or private entities is independent of the |
Department's role as a provider of mental health services and |
does not indicate that the respondent is admitted to any |
Department facility. In making such arrangements and |
agreements with other public or private entities, the |
Department shall include provisions to ensure (i) the provision |
of trained personnel and the use of an appropriate vehicle for |
the safe transport of the respondent and (ii) that the |
respondent's insurance carrier as well as other programs, both |
public and private, that provide payment for such |
transportation services are fully utilized to the maximum |
extent possible. |
The Department may not make arrangements with an existing |
hospital or grant-in-aid or fee-for-service community provider |
for transportation services under this Section unless the |
hospital or provider has voluntarily submitted a proposal for |
its transportation services. This requirement does not |
eliminate or reduce any responsibility on the part of a |
hospital or community provider to ensure transportation that |
may arise independently through other State or federal law or |
regulation.
|
|
(c) The transporting authority acting in good faith and |
without negligence
in connection with the transportation of |
respondents shall incur no liability,
civil or criminal, by |
reason of such transportation.
|
(d) The respondent
and the estate of that respondent are |
liable for the payment
of transportation costs for transporting |
the respondent to a mental health
facility. If the respondent
|
is a beneficiary of a trust described in Section 1213 15.1 of |
the Illinois Trust Code Trusts and
Trustees Act , the trust |
shall not be considered a part of the respondent's
estate and |
shall not be subject to payment for transportation costs for
|
transporting the respondent to a mental health facility
under |
this Section except to the extent permitted under Section 1213 |
15.1 of the Illinois Trust Code
Trusts and Trustees Act . If the |
respondent is unable to pay or if the estate
of the respondent |
is insufficient, the responsible relatives are severally
|
liable for the payment of those sums or for the balance due in |
case less
than the amount owing has been paid.
If the |
respondent is covered by insurance, the insurance carrier shall |
be
liable for payment to the extent authorized by the |
respondent's insurance
policy.
|
(Source: P.A. 93-770, eff. 1-1-05.)
|
(405 ILCS 5/3-819) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 3-819)
|
Sec. 3-819. (a) In counties with a population of 3,000,000 |
or more, when a recipient is hospitalized upon court order, the |
|
order
may authorize a relative or friend of the recipient to |
transport the recipient
to the facility if such person is able |
to do so safely and humanely. When
the Department indicates |
that it has transportation to the facility available,
the order |
may authorize the Department to transport the recipient there.
|
The court may order the sheriff of the county in which such |
proceedings
are held to transport the recipient to the |
facility. When a recipient is
hospitalized upon court order, |
and the recipient has been transported to a
mental health |
facility, other than a state-operated mental health facility, |
and
it is determined by the facility that the recipient is in |
need of commitment or
treatment at another mental health |
facility, the court shall determine whether
a relative or |
friend of the recipient or the Department is authorized to
|
transport the recipient between facilities, or whether the |
county sheriff
is responsible for transporting the recipient |
between facilities. The sheriff
may make arrangements with |
another public or private entity including a
licensed ambulance |
service to transport the recipient to the facility. The
|
transporting entity acting in good faith and without negligence |
in connection
with the transportation of recipients shall incur |
no liability, civil or
criminal, by reason of such |
transportation.
|
(a-5) In counties with a population under 3,000,000, when a |
recipient is hospitalized upon court order, the order may |
authorize a relative or friend of the recipient to transport |
|
the recipient to the facility if the person is able to do so |
safely and humanely. The court may order the Department to |
transport the recipient to the facility. When a recipient is |
hospitalized upon court order, and the recipient has been |
transported to a mental health facility other than a |
State-operated mental health facility, and it is determined by |
the facility that the recipient is in need of commitment or |
treatment at another mental health facility, the court shall |
determine whether a relative or friend of the recipient is |
authorized to transport the recipient between facilities, or |
whether the Department is responsible for transporting the |
recipient between facilities. If the court determines that the |
Department is responsible for the transportation, the |
Department shall make arrangements either directly or through |
agreements with another public or private entity, including a |
licensed ambulance service, to appropriately transport the |
recipient to the facility. The making of such arrangements and |
agreements with public or private entities is independent of |
the Department's role as a provider of mental health services |
and does not indicate that the recipient is admitted to any |
Department facility. In making such arrangements and |
agreements with other public or private entities, the |
Department shall include provisions to ensure (i) the provision |
of trained personnel and the use of an appropriate vehicle for |
the safe transport of the recipient and (ii) that the |
recipient's insurance carrier as well as other programs, both |
|
public and private, that provide payment for such |
transportation services are fully utilized to the maximum |
extent possible. |
The Department may not make arrangements with an existing |
hospital or grant-in-aid or fee-for-service community provider |
for transportation services under this Section unless the |
hospital or provider has voluntarily submitted a proposal for |
its transportation services. This requirement does not |
eliminate or reduce any responsibility on the part of a |
hospital or community provider to ensure transportation that |
may arise independently through other State or federal law or |
regulation. |
A transporting entity acting in good faith and without |
negligence in connection with the transportation of a recipient |
incurs no liability, civil or criminal, by reason of that |
transportation.
|
(b) The transporting entity may
bill the recipient,
the |
estate of the recipient, legally responsible relatives, or |
insurance
carrier for the cost of providing transportation of |
the recipient to a mental
health facility. The recipient and |
the estate of the recipient are liable
for the payment of |
transportation costs for transporting the recipient to a
mental |
health facility. If the recipient is a beneficiary of a trust
|
described in Section 1213 15.1 of the Illinois Trust Code |
Trusts and Trustees Act , the trust shall
not be considered a |
part of the recipient's estate and shall not be subject
to |
|
payment for transportation costs for transporting the |
recipient to a
mental health facility under this section, |
except to the extent permitted
under Section 1213 15.1 of the |
Illinois Trust Code Trusts and Trustees Act . If the recipient |
is
unable to pay or if the estate of the recipient is |
insufficient, the
responsible relatives are severally liable |
for the payment of those sums or
for the balance due in case |
less than the amount owing has been paid. If
the recipient is |
covered by insurance, the insurance carrier shall be
liable for |
payment to the extent authorized by the recipient's insurance
|
policy.
|
(c) Upon the delivery of a recipient to a facility, in |
accordance with the
procedure set forth in this Article, the |
facility director of the facility
shall sign a receipt |
acknowledging custody of the recipient and for any
personal |
property belonging to him, which receipt shall be filed with |
the clerk
of the court entering the hospitalization order.
|
(Source: P.A. 93-770, eff. 1-1-05.)
|
(405 ILCS 5/5-105) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 5-105)
|
Sec. 5-105.
Each recipient of services provided directly or |
funded by
the Department and the estate of that recipient is |
liable for the payment
of sums representing charges for |
services to the recipient at a rate to be
determined by the |
Department in accordance with this Act. If a recipient
is a |
beneficiary of a trust described in Section 1213 15.1 of the |
|
Illinois Trust Code Trusts and
Trustees Act , the trust shall |
not be considered a part of the recipient's
estate and shall |
not be subject to payment for services to the recipient
under |
this Section except to the extent permitted under Section 1213 |
15.1 of the Illinois Trust Code
Trusts and Trustees Act . If the |
recipient is unable to pay or if the estate
of the recipient is |
insufficient, the responsible relatives are severally
liable |
for the payment of those sums or for the balance due in case |
less
than the amount prescribed under this Act has been paid. |
If the recipient
is under the age of 18, the recipient and |
responsible relative shall be liable
for medical costs on a |
case-by-case basis for services for the diagnosis
and treatment |
of conditions other than that child's disabling condition.
The |
liability shall be the lesser of the cost of medical care or |
the
amount of responsible relative liability established by the |
Department
under Section 5-116. Any person 18 through 21 years |
of age who is
receiving services under the Education for All |
Handicapped Children Act of
1975 (Public Law 94-142) or that |
person's responsible relative shall only
be liable for medical |
costs on a case-by-case basis for services for the
diagnosis |
and treatment of conditions other than the person's disabling
|
condition. The liability shall be the lesser of the cost of |
medical care
or the amount of responsible relative liability |
established by the
Department under Section 5-116. In the case |
of any person who has received
residential services from the |
Department, whether directly from the
Department or through a |
|
public or private agency or entity funded by the
Department, |
the liability shall be the same regardless of the source of
|
services. The maximum services charges for each recipient |
assessed against
responsible relatives collectively may not |
exceed financial liability
determined from income in |
accordance with Section 5-116. Where the
recipient is placed in |
a nursing home or other facility outside the
Department, the |
Department may pay the actual cost of services in that
facility |
and may collect reimbursement for the entire amount paid from |
the
recipient or an amount not to exceed those amounts |
determined under Section
5-116 from responsible relatives |
according to their proportionate ability
to contribute to those |
charges. The liability of each responsible relative
for payment |
of services charges ceases when payments on the basis of
|
financial ability have been made for a total of 12 years for |
any recipient,
and any portion of that 12 year period during |
which a responsible relative
has been determined by the |
Department to be financially unable to pay any
services charges |
must be included in fixing the total period of liability.
No |
child is liable under this Act for services to a parent. No |
spouse is
liable under this Act for the services to the other |
spouse who willfully wilfully
failed to contribute to the |
spouse's support for a period of 5 years
immediately preceding |
his or her admission. Any spouse claiming exemption
because of |
willful wilful failure to support during any such 5 year period |
must
furnish the Department with clear and convincing evidence |
|
substantiating
the claim. No parent is liable under this Act |
for the services charges
incurred by a child after the child |
reaches the age of majority. Nothing
in this Section shall |
preclude the Department from applying federal
benefits that are |
specifically provided for the care and treatment of a
person |
with a disability toward the cost of care provided by a State |
facility or
private agency.
|
(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
|
Section 1608. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of |
Marriage Act is amended by changing Section 513.5 as follows: |
(750 ILCS 5/513.5) |
Sec. 513.5. Support for a non-minor child with a |
disability. |
(a) The court may award sums of money out of the property |
and income of either or both parties or the estate of a |
deceased parent, as equity may require, for the support of a |
child of the parties who has attained majority when the child |
is mentally or physically disabled and not otherwise |
emancipated. The sums awarded may be paid to one of the |
parents, to a trust created by the parties for the benefit of |
the non-minor child with a disability, or irrevocably to a |
special needs trust, established by the parties and for the |
sole benefit of the non-minor child with a disability, pursuant |
to subdivisions (d)(4)(A) or (d)(4)(C) of 42 U.S.C. 1396p, |
|
Section 1213 15.1 of the Illinois Trust Code Trusts and |
Trustees Act , and applicable provisions of the Social Security |
Administration Program Operating Manual System. An application |
for support for a non-minor disabled child may be made before |
or after the child has attained majority. Unless an application |
for educational expenses is made for a mentally or physically |
disabled child under Section 513, the disability that is the |
basis for the application for support must have arisen while |
the child was eligible for support under Section 505 or 513 of |
this Act. |
(b) In making awards under this Section, or pursuant to a |
petition or motion to decrease, modify, or terminate any such |
award, the court shall consider all relevant factors that |
appear reasonable and necessary, including: |
(1) the present and future financial resources of both |
parties to meet their needs, including, but not limited to, |
savings for retirement; |
(2) the standard of living the child would have enjoyed |
had the marriage not been dissolved. The court may consider |
factors that are just and equitable; |
(3) the financial resources of the child; and |
(4) any financial or other resource provided to or for |
the child including, but not limited to, any Supplemental |
Security Income, any home-based support provided pursuant |
to the Home-Based Support Services Law for Mentally |
Disabled Adults, and any other State, federal, or local |
|
benefit available to the non-minor disabled child. |
(c) As used in this Section: |
A "disabled" individual means an individual who has a |
physical or
mental impairment that substantially limits a major |
life activity, has a record
of such an impairment, or is |
regarded as having such an impairment. |
"Disability" means a mental or physical impairment that |
substantially limits a major life activity.
|
(Source: P.A. 99-90, eff. 1-1-16 .) |
Section 1609. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by |
changing Sections 2-7 and 28-8 as follows:
|
(755 ILCS 5/2-7) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 2-7)
|
Sec. 2-7. Disclaimer. |
(a) Right to Disclaim Interest in Property. A person
to |
whom any property or interest therein passes, by whatever |
means,
may disclaim the property or interest in whole or in |
part by delivering
or filing a written disclaimer as |
hereinafter provided. A disclaimer may
be of a fractional share |
or undivided interest, a specifically identifiable
asset, |
portion or amount, any limited interest or estate or any |
property
or interest derived through right of survivorship. A |
powerholder, as that term is defined in Section 103 of the |
Illinois Trust Code 102 of the Uniform Powers of Appointment |
Act , with respect to property shall be deemed to
be a holder of |
|
an interest in such property.
|
The representative of a decedent or ward may disclaim on |
behalf of the
decedent or ward with leave of court. The court |
may approve the disclaimer
by a representative of a decedent if |
it finds that the disclaimer benefits
the estate as a whole and |
those interested in the estate generally even
if the disclaimer |
alters the distribution of the property, part or interest
|
disclaimed. The court may approve the disclaimer by a |
representative of
a ward if it finds that it benefits those |
interested in the estate generally
and is not materially |
detrimental to the interests of the ward. A disclaimer
by a |
representative of a decedent or ward may be made without leave |
of court
if a will or other instrument signed by the decedent |
or ward designating
the representative specifically authorizes |
the representative to disclaim
without court approval.
|
The right to disclaim granted by this Section exists |
irrespective of any
limitation on the interest of the |
disclaimant in the nature of a spendthrift
provision or similar |
restriction.
|
(b) Form of Disclaimer. The disclaimer shall (1) describe |
the property
or part or interest disclaimed, (2) be signed by |
the disclaimant or his
representative and (3) declare the |
disclaimer and the extent thereof.
|
(c) Delivery of Disclaimer. The disclaimer shall be |
delivered to the
transferor or donor or his representative, or |
to the trustee or other person
who has legal title to the |
|
property, part or interest disclaimed, or, if
none of the |
foregoing is readily determinable, shall be either delivered
to |
a person having possession of the property, part or interest or |
who is
entitled thereto by reason of the disclaimer, or filed |
or recorded as hereinafter
provided. In the case of an interest |
passing by reason of the death of
any person, an executed |
counterpart of the disclaimer may be filed with
the clerk of |
the circuit court in the county in which the estate of the
|
decedent is administered, or, if administration has not been |
commenced,
in which it could be commenced. If an interest in |
real property is disclaimed,
an executed counterpart of the |
disclaimer may be recorded in the office
of the recorder in the |
county in which the real estate lies,
or, if the title to the |
real estate is registered under "An Act concerning
land |
titles", approved May 1, 1897, as amended, may
be filed in the |
office of the registrar of titles of such county.
|
(d) Effect of Disclaimer. Unless expressly provided |
otherwise in an instrument
transferring the property or |
creating the interest disclaimed, the property,
part or |
interest disclaimed shall descend or be distributed (1) if a |
present
interest (a) in the case of a transfer by reason of the |
death of any person,
as if the disclaimant had predeceased the |
decedent; (b) in the case of a
transfer by revocable instrument |
or contract, as if the disclaimant had predeceased
the date the |
maker no longer has the power to transfer to himself or another
|
the entire legal and equitable ownership of the property or |
|
interest; or
(c) in the case of any other inter vivos transfer, |
as if the disclaimant
had predeceased the date of the transfer; |
and (2) if a future interest,
as if the disclaimant had |
predeceased the event that determines that the
taker of the |
property or interest has become finally ascertained and his
|
interest has become indefeasibly fixed both in quality and |
quantity; and
in each case the disclaimer shall relate back to |
such date for all purposes.
|
A disclaimer of property or an interest in property shall |
not preclude
any disclaimant from receiving the same property |
in another capacity or
from receiving other interests in the |
property to which the disclaimer relates.
|
Unless expressly provided otherwise in an instrument |
transferring the property
or creating the interest disclaimed, |
a future interest limited to take effect
at or after the |
termination of the estate or interest disclaimed shall |
accelerate
and take effect in possession and enjoyment to the |
same extent as if the
disclaimant had died before the date to |
which the disclaimer relates back.
|
A disclaimer made pursuant to this Section shall be |
irrevocable and shall
be binding upon the disclaimant and all |
persons claiming by, through or
under the disclaimant.
|
(e) Waiver and Bar. The right to disclaim property or a |
part thereof or
an interest therein shall be barred by (1) a |
judicial sale of the property,
part or interest before the |
disclaimer is effected; (2) an assignment, conveyance,
|
|
encumbrance, pledge, sale or other transfer of the property, |
part or interest,
or a contract therefor, by the disclaimant or |
his representative; (3) a
written waiver of the right to |
disclaim; or (4) an acceptance of the property,
part or |
interest by the disclaimant or his representative. Any person |
may
presume, in the absence of actual knowledge to the |
contrary, that a disclaimer
delivered or filed as provided in |
this Section is a valid disclaimer that
is not barred by the |
preceding provisions of this paragraph.
|
A written waiver of the right to disclaim may be made by |
any person or
his representative and an executed counterpart of |
a waiver of the right
to disclaim may be recorded or filed, all |
in the same manner as provided
in this Section with respect to |
a disclaimer.
|
In every case, acceptance must be affirmatively proved in |
order to constitute
a bar to a disclaimer. An acceptance of |
property or an interest in property
shall include the taking of |
possession, the acceptance of delivery or the
receipt of |
benefits of the property or interest; except that (1) in the
|
case of an interest in joint tenancy with right of survivorship |
such acceptance
shall extend only to the fractional share of |
such property or interest determined
by dividing the number one |
by the number of joint tenants, and (2) in the
case of a ward, |
such acceptance shall extend only to property actually received
|
by or on behalf of the ward or his representative during his |
minority or
incapacity. The mere lapse of time or creation of |
|
an interest, in joint
tenancy with right of survivorship or |
otherwise, with or without knowledge
of the interest on the |
part of the disclaimant, shall not constitute acceptance
for |
purposes of this Section.
|
This Section does not abridge the right of any person to |
assign, convey,
release, renounce or disclaim any property or |
interest therein arising
under any other statute or that arose |
under prior law.
|
Any interest in real or personal property that exists on or |
after the
effective date of this Section may be disclaimed |
after that date in the
manner provided herein, but no interest |
that has arisen prior to that date
in any person other than the |
disclaimant shall be destroyed or diminished
by any action of |
the disclaimant taken pursuant to this Section.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-1044, eff. 1-1-19 .)
|
(755 ILCS 5/28-8) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 28-8)
|
Sec. 28-8. Administrative powers. An independent |
representative
acting reasonably for the best interests of the |
estate has the powers
granted in the will and the following |
powers, all exercisable without
court order, except to the |
extent that the following powers are
inconsistent with the |
will:
|
(a) To lease, sell at public or private sale, for cash or |
on credit,
mortgage or pledge the personal estate of the |
decedent and to distribute
in kind any personal estate the sale |
|
of which is not necessary;
|
(b) To borrow money with or without security;
|
(c) To mortgage or pledge agricultural commodities as |
provided in
Section 19-3;
|
(d) To continue the decedent's unincorporated business |
without
personal liability except for malfeasance or |
misfeasance for losses
incurred; and obligations incurred or |
contracts entered into by the
independent representative with |
respect to the business are entitled to
priority of payment out |
of the assets of the business but, without
approval of the |
court first obtained, do not involve the estate beyond
those |
assets;
|
(e) To settle, compound or compromise any claim or interest |
of the
decedent in any property or exchange any such claim or |
interest for
other claims or property; and to settle compound |
or compromise and pay
all claims against the estate as provided |
in Sections 18-11 and 18-13,
but claims of the independent |
representative or his attorney shall be
subject to Section |
18-8;
|
(f) To perform any contract of the decedent;
|
(g) To employ agents, accountants and counsel, including |
legal and investment
counsel; to delegate to them the
|
performance of any act of administration, whether or not |
discretionary;
and to pay them reasonable compensation;
|
(h) To hold stocks, bonds and other personal property in |
the name of
a nominee as provided in Section 19-12;
|
|
(i) To take possession, administer and grant possession of |
the
decedent's real estate, which term in this subsection |
includes oil, gas,
coal and other mineral interests therein; to |
pay taxes on decedent's
real estate whether or not in |
possession of the representative; to lease
the decedent's real |
estate upon such terms and for such length of time
as he deems |
advisable; to sell at public or private sale, for cash or on
|
credit, or mortgage any real estate or interest therein to |
which the
decedent had claim or title, but real estate |
specifically bequeathed
shall not be leased, sold or mortgaged |
without the written consent of
the legatee; and to confirm the |
title of any heir or legatee to real
estate by recording and |
delivering to the heir or legatee an instrument
releasing the |
estate's interest; and
|
(j) To retain property properly acquired, without regard to |
its
suitability for original purchase; and to invest money of |
the estate (1)
in any one or more of the investments described |
in Section 21-1 or (2)
if the independent representative |
determines that the estate is solvent
and all interested |
persons other than creditors approve, in any
investments |
authorized for trustees under the prudent investor man rule |
stated in Article 9
Section 5 of the Illinois Trust Code |
"Trusts and Trustees Act", as now or hereafter amended .
|
(Source: P.A. 81-213.)
|
Section 1610. The Illinois Power of Attorney Act is amended |
|
by changing Section 3-4 as follows:
|
(755 ILCS 45/3-4) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 803-4)
|
Sec. 3-4. Explanation of powers granted in the statutory |
short form power
of attorney for property. This Section defines |
each category of powers
listed in the statutory short form |
power of attorney for property and the
effect of granting |
powers to an agent, and is incorporated by reference into the |
statutory short form. Incorporation by reference does not |
require physical attachment of a copy of this Section 3-4 to |
the statutory short form power of attorney for property. When |
the title of any of the
following categories is retained (not |
struck out) in a statutory property
power form, the effect will |
be to grant the agent all of the principal's
rights, powers and |
discretions with respect to the types of property and
|
transactions covered by the retained category, subject to any |
limitations
on the granted powers that appear on the face of |
the form. The agent will
have authority to exercise each |
granted power for and in the name of the
principal with respect |
to all of the principal's interests in every type of
property |
or transaction covered by the granted power at the time of
|
exercise, whether the principal's interests are direct or |
indirect, whole
or fractional, legal, equitable or |
contractual, as a joint tenant or tenant
in common or held in |
any other form; but the agent will not have power under
any of |
the statutory categories (a) through (o) to make gifts of the
|
|
principal's property, to exercise powers to appoint to others |
or to change
any beneficiary whom the principal has designated |
to take the principal's
interests at death under any will, |
trust, joint tenancy, beneficiary form
or contractual |
arrangement. The agent will be under no duty to exercise
|
granted powers or to assume control of or responsibility for |
the
principal's property or affairs; but when granted powers |
are exercised, the
agent will be required to act in good faith |
for the benefit of
the principal using due care, competence, |
and diligence in accordance with the terms of the statutory |
property power
and will be liable for negligent exercise. The |
agent may act in person or
through others reasonably employed |
by the agent for that purpose and will
have authority to sign |
and deliver all instruments, negotiate and enter
into all |
agreements and do all other acts reasonably necessary to |
implement
the exercise of the powers granted to the agent.
|
(a) Real estate transactions. The agent is authorized to: |
buy,
sell, exchange, rent and lease real estate (which term |
includes, without
limitation, real estate subject to a land |
trust and all beneficial
interests in and powers of direction |
under any land trust); collect all
rent, sale proceeds and |
earnings from real estate; convey, assign and
accept title to |
real estate; grant easements, create conditions and release
|
rights of homestead with respect to real estate; create land |
trusts and
exercise all powers under land trusts; hold, |
possess, maintain, repair,
improve, subdivide, manage, operate |
|
and insure real estate; pay, contest,
protest and compromise |
real estate taxes and assessments; and, in general,
exercise |
all powers with respect to real estate which the principal |
could
if present and under no disability.
|
(b) Financial institution transactions. The agent is |
authorized to:
open, close, continue and control all accounts |
and deposits in any type of
financial institution (which term |
includes, without limitation, banks,
trust companies, savings |
and building and loan associations, credit unions
and brokerage |
firms); deposit in and withdraw from and write checks on any
|
financial institution account or deposit; and, in general, |
exercise all
powers with respect to financial institution |
transactions which the
principal could if present and under no |
disability. This authorization shall also apply to any Totten |
Trust, Payable on Death Account, or comparable trust account |
arrangement where the terms of such trust are contained |
entirely on the financial institution's signature card, |
insofar as an agent shall be permitted to withdraw income or |
principal from such account, unless this authorization is |
expressly limited or withheld under paragraph 2 of the form |
prescribed under Section 3-3. This authorization shall not |
apply to accounts titled in the name of any trust subject to |
the provisions of the Illinois Trust Code Trusts and Trustees |
Act , for which specific reference to the trust and a specific |
grant of authority to the agent to withdraw income or principal |
from such trust is required pursuant to Section 2-9 of the |
|
Illinois Power of Attorney Act and subsection (n) of this |
Section.
|
(c) Stock and bond transactions. The agent is authorized |
to: buy
and sell all types of securities (which term includes, |
without limitation,
stocks, bonds, mutual funds and all other |
types of investment securities
and financial instruments); |
collect, hold and safekeep all dividends,
interest, earnings, |
proceeds of sale, distributions, shares, certificates
and |
other evidences of ownership paid or distributed with respect |
to
securities; exercise all voting rights with respect to |
securities in person
or by proxy, enter into voting trusts and |
consent to limitations on the
right to vote; and, in general, |
exercise all powers with respect to
securities which the |
principal could if present and under no disability.
|
(d) Tangible personal property transactions. The agent is
|
authorized to: buy and sell, lease, exchange, collect, possess |
and take
title to all tangible personal property; move, store, |
ship, restore,
maintain, repair, improve, manage, preserve, |
insure and safekeep tangible
personal property; and, in |
general, exercise all powers with respect to
tangible personal |
property which the principal could if present and under no |
disability.
|
(e) Safe deposit box transactions. The agent is authorized |
to:
open, continue and have access to all safe deposit boxes; |
sign, renew,
release or terminate any safe deposit contract; |
drill or surrender any safe
deposit box; and, in general, |
|
exercise all powers with respect to safe
deposit matters which |
the principal could if present and under no disability.
|
(f) Insurance and annuity transactions. The agent is |
authorized to:
procure, acquire, continue, renew, terminate or |
otherwise deal with any
type of insurance or annuity contract |
(which terms include, without
limitation, life, accident, |
health, disability, automobile casualty,
property or liability |
insurance); pay premiums or assessments on or
surrender and |
collect all distributions, proceeds or benefits payable under
|
any insurance or annuity contract; and, in general, exercise |
all powers
with respect to insurance and annuity contracts |
which the principal could
if present and under no disability.
|
(g) Retirement plan transactions. The agent is authorized |
to:
contribute to, withdraw from and deposit funds in any type |
of retirement
plan (which term includes, without limitation, |
any tax qualified or
nonqualified pension, profit sharing, |
stock bonus, employee savings and
other retirement plan, |
individual retirement account, deferred compensation
plan and |
any other type of employee benefit plan); select and change
|
payment options for the principal under any retirement plan; |
make rollover
contributions from any retirement plan to other |
retirement plans or
individual retirement accounts; exercise |
all investment powers available
under any type of self-directed |
retirement plan; and, in general, exercise
all powers with |
respect to retirement plans and retirement plan account
|
balances which the principal could if present and under no |
|
disability.
|
(h) Social Security, unemployment and military service |
benefits.
The agent is authorized to: prepare, sign and file |
any claim or application
for Social Security, unemployment or |
military service benefits; sue for,
settle or abandon any |
claims to any benefit or assistance under any
federal, state, |
local or foreign statute or regulation; control, deposit to
any |
account, collect, receipt for, and take title to and hold all |
benefits
under any Social Security, unemployment, military |
service or other state,
federal, local or foreign statute or |
regulation; and, in general, exercise
all powers with respect |
to Social Security, unemployment, military service
and |
governmental benefits which the principal could if present and |
under no disability.
|
(i) Tax matters. The agent is authorized to: sign, verify |
and file
all the principal's federal, state and local income, |
gift, estate, property
and other tax returns, including joint |
returns and declarations of
estimated tax; pay all taxes; |
claim, sue for and receive all tax refunds;
examine and copy |
all the principal's tax returns and records; represent the
|
principal before any federal, state or local revenue agency or |
taxing body
and sign and deliver all tax powers of attorney on |
behalf of the principal
that may be necessary for such |
purposes; waive rights and sign all
documents on behalf of the |
principal as required to settle, pay and
determine all tax |
liabilities; and, in general, exercise all powers with
respect |
|
to tax matters which the principal could if present and under |
no disability.
|
(j) Claims and litigation. The agent is authorized to: |
institute,
prosecute, defend, abandon, compromise, arbitrate, |
settle and dispose of
any claim in favor of or against the |
principal or any property interests of
the principal; collect |
and receipt for any claim or settlement proceeds and
waive or |
release all rights of the principal; employ attorneys and |
others
and enter into contingency agreements and other |
contracts as necessary in
connection with litigation; and, in |
general, exercise all powers with
respect to claims and |
litigation which the principal could if present and
under no |
disability. The statutory short form power
of attorney for |
property does not authorize the agent to appear in court or any |
tribunal as an attorney-at-law for the principal or otherwise |
to engage in the practice of law without being a licensed |
attorney who is authorized to practice law in Illinois under |
applicable Illinois Supreme Court Rules.
|
(k) Commodity and option transactions. The agent is |
authorized to:
buy, sell, exchange, assign, convey, settle and |
exercise commodities
futures contracts and call and put options |
on stocks and stock indices
traded on a regulated options |
exchange and collect and receipt for all
proceeds of any such |
transactions; establish or continue option accounts
for the |
principal with any securities or futures broker; and, in |
general,
exercise all powers with respect to commodities and |
|
options which the
principal could if present and under no |
disability.
|
(l) Business operations. The agent is authorized to: |
organize or
continue and conduct any business (which term |
includes, without limitation,
any farming, manufacturing, |
service, mining, retailing or other type of
business operation) |
in any form, whether as a proprietorship, joint
venture, |
partnership, corporation, trust or other legal entity; |
operate,
buy, sell, expand, contract, terminate or liquidate |
any business; direct,
control, supervise, manage or |
participate in the operation of any business
and engage, |
compensate and discharge business managers, employees, agents,
|
attorneys, accountants and consultants; and, in general, |
exercise all
powers with respect to business interests and |
operations which the principal
could if present and under no |
disability.
|
(m) Borrowing transactions. The agent is authorized to: |
borrow
money; mortgage or pledge any real estate or tangible or |
intangible
personal property as security for such purposes; |
sign, renew, extend, pay
and satisfy any notes or other forms |
of obligation; and, in general,
exercise all powers with |
respect to secured and unsecured borrowing which
the principal |
could if present and under no disability.
|
(n) Estate transactions. The agent is authorized to: |
accept,
receipt for, exercise, release, reject, renounce, |
assign, disclaim, demand,
sue for, claim and recover any |
|
legacy, bequest, devise, gift or other
property interest or |
payment due or payable to or for the principal; assert
any |
interest in and exercise any power over any trust, estate or |
property
subject to fiduciary control; establish a revocable |
trust solely for the
benefit of the principal that terminates |
at the death of the principal and
is then distributable to the |
legal representative of the estate of the
principal; and, in |
general, exercise all powers with respect to estates and
trusts |
which the principal could if present and under no disability;
|
provided, however, that the agent may not make or change a will |
and may not
revoke or amend a trust revocable or amendable by |
the principal or require
the trustee of any trust for the |
benefit of the principal to pay income or
principal to the |
agent unless specific authority to that end is given, and
|
specific reference to the trust is made, in the statutory |
property power form.
|
(o) All other property transactions. The agent is
|
authorized to: exercise all possible authority of the principal |
with respect
to all possible types of property and interests in |
property, except to the
extent limited in subsections (a) |
through (n) of this Section 3-4 and to the extent that the |
principal otherwise limits the generality of this category (o) |
by striking
out one or more of categories (a) through (n) or by |
specifying other
limitations in the statutory property power |
form.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-1195, eff. 7-1-11 .)
|
|
Section 1611. The Common Trust Fund Act is amended by |
changing Section 3 as follows:
|
(760 ILCS 45/3) (from Ch. 17, par. 2103)
|
Sec. 3. Establishment of common trust fund. Any bank or |
trust company
may, at and during such time as it is qualified |
to act as a fiduciary in
this State, establish, maintain, and |
administer one or more common trust
funds for the purpose of |
furnishing investments to itself as a fiduciary,
or to itself |
and another or others as co-fiduciaries. An investment in a
|
common trust fund does not constitute an investment in the |
various
securities composing the common trust fund, but is an |
investment in the
fund as an entity. A bank or trust company, |
in its capacity as a fiduciary
or co-fiduciary, whether that |
fiduciary capacity arose before or is created
after this Act |
takes effect, may invest funds that it holds for investment
in |
that capacity in interests in one or more common trust funds, |
subject to
the following limitations:
|
(1) In the case of a fiduciary other than an |
administrator, the
investment may be made in a common trust |
fund if such an investment is not
expressly prohibited by |
the instrument, judgment, or order creating the
fiduciary |
relationship, or by an amendment thereof, and if, under the
|
instrument, judgment, or order creating the fiduciary |
relationship, or an
amendment thereof, the funds so held |
|
for investment might properly be
invested in an investment |
with the overall investment characteristics of
the common |
trust fund, considered as an entity, and if, in the case of
|
co-fiduciaries, the bank or trust company procures the |
consent of its
co-fiduciary or co-fiduciaries to the |
investment in those interests. If the
instrument creating |
the fiduciary relationship gives to the bank or trust
|
company the exclusive right to select investments, the |
consent of the
co-fiduciary shall not be required. Any |
person acting as co-fiduciary with
any such bank or trust |
company is hereby authorized to consent to the
investment |
in those interests.
|
(2) In the case of an administrator, the
investment may |
be made upon approval by the court.
|
(3) A bank or trust company in establishing, |
maintaining and
administering one or more common trust |
funds for the purpose of furnishing
investments to itself |
as fiduciary shall have a duty to invest and manage
such |
common trust fund assets as follows:
|
(A) The bank or trust company has a duty to invest |
and manage common
trust fund assets as a prudent |
investor would considering the purposes,
terms, |
distribution requirements, and other circumstances of |
the common
trust fund. This standard requires the |
exercise of reasonable care, skill,
and caution and is |
to be applied to investments not in isolation, but in
|
|
the context of the common trust fund portfolio as a |
whole and as a part of
an overall investment strategy |
that should incorporate risk and return
objectives |
reasonably suitable to the common trust fund.
|
(B) No specific investment or course of action is, |
taken alone,
prudent or imprudent. The bank or trust |
company may invest in every kind of
property and type |
of investment, subject to this Section. The bank or |
trust
company's investment decisions and actions are |
to be judged in terms of the
bank or trust company's |
reasonable business judgment regarding the
anticipated |
effect on the common trust fund portfolio as a whole |
under the
facts and circumstances prevailing at the |
time of the decision or action.
The standard set forth |
in this paragraph (3) is a test of conduct and not
of |
resulting performance.
|
(C) The circumstances that the bank or trust |
company may consider in
making investment decisions |
include, without limitation, the general economic
|
conditions, the possible effect of inflation, the role |
each investment or
course of action plays within the |
overall portfolio, and the expected total
return.
|
(D) The bank or trust company may invest and |
reinvest common trust
fund
assets in interests in any |
open-end or closed-end management type investment
|
company or investment trust (hereafter referred to as a |
|
"mutual fund")
registered under the Investment
Company |
Act of 1940 or may retain, sell, or exchange those |
interests, provided
that the portfolio of the mutual |
fund, as an entity, is appropriate under the
provisions |
of this Act. The bank or trust company is not |
prohibited from
investing, reinvesting, retaining, or |
exchanging as common fund assets any
interests in any |
mutual fund for which the bank or trust company or an
|
affiliate acts as advisor or manager solely on the |
basis that the bank or
trust company (or its affiliate) |
provides services to the mutual fund and
receives |
reasonable remuneration for those services. A bank or |
trust
company or its affiliate is not required to |
reduce or waive its compensation
for services provided |
in connection with the administration, investment, and
|
management of the common trust fund or a participant in |
the common trust fund
because the bank
or trust company |
invests, reinvests, or retains common trust
fund |
assets in a mutual fund, if the total compensation paid |
by a
participant to the bank or trust company and its |
affiliates, directly or
indirectly, including any |
common trust fund fees, mutual fund fees, advisory
|
fees, and management fees, is reasonable. However, a |
bank or trust
company may receive fees equal to the |
amount of those fees that
would be paid to any other |
party under Securities and Exchange Commission Rule
|
|
12b-1.
|
(4) A bank or trust company may not delegate the |
investment functions of
a common trust fund established or |
operating under Section 584 of the
Internal Revenue Code |
pursuant to Section 807 5.1 of the Illinois Trust Code |
Trusts and Trustees
Act except as authorized by the Bureau |
of the Comptroller of the Currency
of the U. S. Department |
of the Treasury. A bank or trust company may hire
one or |
more agents to give the trustee advice with respect to |
investments
of a common trust fund and pay reasonable and |
appropriate compensation to
the agent provided that the |
final investment decisions and the exclusive
management of |
the common trust fund remain with the bank or trust |
company.
|
(5) On or after the effective date of this amendatory |
Act of 1991, this
Section applies to all existing and |
future common trust funds, but only as
to actions or |
inactions occurring after that effective date.
|
(Source: P.A. 89-344, eff. 8-17-95.)
|
Section 1612. The Religious Corporation Act is amended by |
changing Section 46j as follows:
|
(805 ILCS 110/46j) (from Ch. 32, par. 185)
|
Sec. 46j. Any church, congregation, society or |
corporation, heretofore or
hereafter formed for religious |
|
purposes or for the purpose of religious
worship under any of |
the provisions of this Act or under any law of this
State |
incorporating or for the incorporation of religious |
corporations or
societies, may receive land by gift, legacy or |
purchase and make, erect,
and build thereon such houses, |
buildings, or other improvements as may be
necessary for the |
convenience, comfort and welfare of such church,
congregation, |
society or corporation, and may lay out and maintain thereon
a |
cemetery or cemeteries, or a burying ground or grounds and may |
maintain
and build thereon schools, orphan asylums, or such |
other improvements or
buildings as may be necessary for the |
educational, eleemosynary, cemetery
and religious purposes of |
such congregation, church, society or
corporation; but no such |
property shall be used except in the
manner expressed in the |
gift, grant or legacy. However, this
limitation on
the |
disposition of real property does not apply to the extent that |
a
restriction imposed by a donor on the use of an institutional |
fund may be
released by the governing board of an institution |
under the Uniform Prudent Management of Institutional Funds |
Act. Or
if no use or trust is so expressed, no such property |
shall be
used except for the benefit of the congregation, |
corporation, church or
society, for which it was intended, or |
for such religious, educational or
eleemosynary purpose as may |
be approved by such congregation, church,
society or |
corporation or the ecclesiastical body having jurisdiction or
|
patronage of or charge over such congregation, corporation, |
|
church or
society.
|
Any corporation, heretofore or hereafter formed for |
religious purposes
under any of the provisions of this Act or |
under any other law of this
State incorporating or for the |
incorporation of religious corporations or
societies, which |
now or hereafter owns, operates, maintains or controls a
|
cemetery or cemeteries, or a burial ground or grounds, is |
hereby authorized
and empowered to accept by gift, grant, |
contribution, payment, or
legacy, or pursuant to contract, any |
sum of money, funds, securities or
property of any kind, or the |
income or avails thereof, and to hold the same
in trust in |
perpetuity for the care of such cemetery or cemeteries, burial
|
ground or grounds, or for the care of any lot, grave or crypt |
therein; or
for the special care of any lot, grave or crypt or |
of any family mausoleum
or memorial, marker, or monument in |
such cemetery or cemeteries, burial
ground or grounds. No gift, |
grant, legacy, payment or other
contribution shall be invalid |
by reason of any indefiniteness or
uncertainty as to the |
beneficiary designated in the instrument creating the
gift, |
grant, legacy, payment or other contribution. If any gift,
|
grant, legacy, payment or other contribution consists of
|
non-income producing property, such corporation is authorized |
and empowered
to sell such property and to invest the funds |
obtained in accordance with
the provisions of the Uniform |
Prudent Management of Institutional Funds Act,
or the |
provisions of the next
succeeding paragraph.
|
|
The trust funds authorized by this Section shall be held |
intact and,
unless otherwise restricted by the terms of the |
gift, grant, legacy, contribution,
payment, contract or other |
payment shall be
invested, from time to time reinvested, and |
kept invested by such
corporation in such investments as are |
authorized by the Uniform Prudent
Management of Institutional |
Funds Act , and according to such standards as
are prescribed , |
for trustees under that Act and the Illinois Trust Code "Trusts |
and Trustees
Act", approved September 10, 1973, as amended , and |
the net income only from
such investments shall be allocated |
and used for the purposes set forth in
the paragraph |
immediately preceding; but the trust
funds authorized by this |
Section may be commingled and may also be
commingled with any |
other trust funds received by such corporation for the
care of |
the cemetery or cemeteries, or burial ground or grounds, or for |
the
care or special care of any lot, grave, crypt, private |
mausoleum, memorial,
marker, or monument whether received by |
gift, grant, legacy,
contribution, payment, contract or other |
conveyance heretofore or hereafter
made to such corporation.
|
The trust funds authorized by this Section, and the income |
therefrom,
shall be exempt from taxation and exempt from the |
operation of the laws
against perpetuities and accumulations.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-29, eff. 6-30-09.)
|
Section 1613. The Illinois Pre-Need Cemetery Sales Act is |
amended by changing Section 16 as follows:
|
|
(815 ILCS 390/16) (from Ch. 21, par. 216)
|
Sec. 16. Trust funds; disbursements.
|
(a) A trustee shall make no disbursements from the trust |
fund
except as provided in this Act.
|
(b) A trustee has a duty to invest and manage the trust |
assets pursuant to the Illinois Prudent Investor Law Rule under |
Article 9 of the Illinois Trust Code Trusts and Trustees Act . |
Whenever the seller changes trustees pursuant to this Act, the |
trustee must provide written notice of the change in trustees |
to the Comptroller no less than 28 days prior to the effective |
date of such a change in trustee. The trustee has an ongoing |
duty to provide the Comptroller with a current and true copy of |
the trust agreement under which the trust funds are held |
pursuant to this Act.
|
(c) The trustee may rely upon certifications and affidavits |
made to it
under the provisions of this Act, and shall not be |
liable to any person
for such reliance.
|
(d) A trustee shall be allowed to withdraw from the trust |
funds maintained
pursuant to this Act a reasonable fee pursuant |
to the Illinois Trust Code Trusts and Trustees Act .
|
(e) The trust shall be a single-purpose trust fund. In the |
event of the
seller's bankruptcy, insolvency or assignment for |
the
benefit of creditors,
or an adverse judgment, the trust |
funds shall not be available to any creditor
as assets of the |
seller or to pay any expenses of any
bankruptcy or similar
|
|
proceeding, but shall be distributed to the purchasers or |
managed for their
benefit by the trustee holding the funds.
|
Except in an action by the Comptroller to revoke a license |
issued pursuant
to this Act and for creation of a receivership |
as provided in this Act, the
trust shall not be subject to |
judgment, execution, garnishment, attachment,
or other seizure |
by process in bankruptcy or otherwise, nor to sale, pledge,
|
mortgage, or other alienation, and shall not be assignable |
except as
approved by the Comptroller. The changes made by this |
amendatory Act of
the 91st General Assembly are intended to |
clarify existing law regarding the
inability of licensees to |
pledge the trust.
|
(f) Because it is not known at the time of deposit or at |
the time that
income is earned on the trust account to whom the |
principal and the accumulated
earnings will be distributed, for |
purposes of determining the Illinois Income
Tax due on these |
trust funds, the principal and any accrued earnings or
losses |
relating to each individual account shall be held in suspense |
until
the final determination is made as to whom the account |
shall be paid.
|
(g) A trustee shall at least annually furnish to each |
purchaser a statement identifying: (1) the receipts, |
disbursements, and inventory of the trust, including an |
explanation of any fees or expenses charged by the trustee |
under paragraph (d) of this Section or otherwise, (2) an |
explanation of the purchaser's right to a refund, if any, under |
|
this Act, and (3) the primary regulator of the trust as a |
corporate fiduciary under state or federal law. |
(Source: P.A. 96-879, eff. 2-2-10.)
|
Article 99. Effective Date. |
Section 9999. Effective date. This Act takes effect January |
1, 2020.
|
|
INDEX
|
Statutes amended in order of appearance
| | New Act | | | 760 ILCS 5/Act rep. | | | 760 ILCS 35/Act rep. | | | 760 ILCS 105/Act rep. | | | 765 ILCS 305/Act rep. | | | 765 ILCS 310/Act rep. | | | 765 ILCS 315/Act rep. | | | 30 ILCS 160/2 | from Ch. 127, par. 4002 | | 60 ILCS 1/135-20 | | | 205 ILCS 620/1-6 | from Ch. 17, par. 1551-6 | | 205 ILCS 620/6-10 | from Ch. 17, par. 1556-10 | | 205 ILCS 620/9-5 | from Ch. 17, par. 1559-5 | | 210 ILCS 135/3 | from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1703 | | 215 ILCS 155/21.1 | | | 225 ILCS 45/4a | | | 225 ILCS 45/5 | from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73.105 | | 405 ILCS 5/3-605 | from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 3-605 | | 405 ILCS 5/3-819 | from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 3-819 | | 405 ILCS 5/5-105 | from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 5-105 | | 750 ILCS 5/513.5 | | | 755 ILCS 5/2-7 | from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 2-7 | | 755 ILCS 5/28-8 | from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 28-8 | | 755 ILCS 45/3-4 | from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 803-4 | |
| 760 ILCS 45/3 | from Ch. 17, par. 2103 | | 805 ILCS 110/46j | from Ch. 32, par. 185 | | 815 ILCS 390/16 | from Ch. 21, par. 216 |
|
|