720 ILCS 5/ Criminal Code of 2012.

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 1 heading) SUBDIVISION 1. DEFINITIONS (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-0.1)

Sec. 12-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

"Bona fide labor dispute" means any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions, or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the making or maintaining of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

"Coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducts an athletic contest.

"Correctional institution employee" means a person employed by a penal institution.

"Emergency medical services personnel" has the meaning specified in Section 3.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act and shall include all ambulance crew members, including drivers or pilots.

"Family or household members" include spouses, former spouses, parents, children, stepchildren, and other persons related by blood or by present or prior marriage, persons who share or formerly shared a common dwelling, persons who have or allegedly have a child in common, persons who share or allegedly share a blood relationship through a child, persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship, persons with disabilities and their personal assistants, and caregivers as defined in Section 12-4.4a of this Code. For purposes of this Article, neither a casual acquaintanceship nor ordinary fraternization between 2 individuals in business or social contexts shall be deemed to constitute a dating relationship.

"In the presence of a child" means in the physical presence of a child or knowing or having reason to know that a child is present and may see or hear an act constituting an offense.

"Park district employee" means a supervisor, director, instructor, or other person employed by a park district.

"Person with a physical disability" means a person who suffers from a permanent and disabling physical characteristic, resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition.

"Private security officer" means a registered employee of a private security contractor agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

"Probation officer" means a person as defined in the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

"Sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee.

"Sports venue" means a publicly or privately owned sports or entertainment arena, stadium, community or convention hall, special event center, or amusement facility, or a special event center in a public park, during the 12 hours before or after the sanctioned sporting event.

"Streetgang", "streetgang member", and "criminal street gang" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

"Transit employee" means a driver, operator, or employee of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transporting the public for hire.

"Transit passenger" means a passenger of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transporting the public for hire, including a passenger using any area designated by a transportation facility or system as a vehicle boarding, departure, or transfer location.

"Utility worker" means any of the following:

(1) A person employed by a public utility as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act.

(2) An employee of a municipally owned utility.

(3) An employee of a cable television company.

(4) An employee of an electric cooperative as defined in Section 3-119 of the Public Utilities Act.

(5) An independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a cable television company, public utility, municipally owned utility, or electric cooperative.

(6) An employee of a telecommunications carrier as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, or an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a telecommunications carrier.

(7) An employee of a telephone or telecommunications cooperative as defined in Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, or an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a telephone or telecommunications cooperative.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-816, eff. 8-15-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 5 heading) SUBDIVISION 5. ASSAULT AND BATTERY (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-1)

Sec. 12-1. Assault.

(a) A person commits an assault when, without lawful authority, he or she knowingly engages in conduct which places another in reasonable apprehension of receiving a battery.

(b) Sentence. Assault is a Class C misdemeanor.

(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of assault to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

This subsection does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-2)

Sec. 12-2. Aggravated assault.

(a) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated assault when he or she commits an assault against an individual who is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, or a sports venue, or in a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place used for religious worship.

(b) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she knows the individual assaulted to be any of the following:

(1) A person with a physical disability or a person 60 years of age or older and the assault is without legal justification.

(2) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(3) A park district employee upon park grounds or grounds adjacent to a park or in any part of a building used for park purposes.

(4) A community policing volunteer, private security officer, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4.1) A peace officer, fireman, emergency management worker, or emergency medical services personnel:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A correctional officer or probation officer:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) A correctional institution employee, a county juvenile detention center employee who provides direct and continuous supervision of residents of a juvenile detention center, including a county juvenile detention center employee who supervises recreational activity for residents of a juvenile detention center, or a Department of Human Services employee, Department of Human Services officer, or employee of a subcontractor of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) An employee of the State of Illinois, a municipal corporation therein, or a political subdivision thereof, performing his or her official duties.

(8) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(9) A sports official or coach actively participating in any level of athletic competition within a sports venue, on an indoor playing field or outdoor playing field, or within the immediate vicinity of such a facility or field.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court, while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(c) Offense based on use of firearm, device, or motor vehicle. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon, an air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Act, or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm, other than by discharging a firearm.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than from a motor vehicle.

(3) Discharges a firearm from a motor vehicle.

(4) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(5) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gun sight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes near or in the immediate vicinity of any person.

(6) Uses a firearm, other than by discharging the firearm, against a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, emergency management worker, emergency medical services personnel, employee of a police department, employee of a sheriff's department, or traffic control municipal employee:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a manner which places a person, other than a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(8) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a manner which places a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(9) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(d) Sentence. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(7), (b)(8), (b)(9), (c)(1), (c)(4), or (c)(9) is a Class A misdemeanor, except that aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(4) and (b)(7) is a Class 4 felony if a Category I, Category II, or Category III weapon is used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(4.1), (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(10), (c)(2), (c)(5), (c)(6), or (c)(7) is a Class 4 felony. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (c)(3) or (c)(8) is a Class 3 felony.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, "Category I weapon", "Category II weapon", and "Category III weapon" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 33A-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 101-223, eff. 1-1-20; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-2.5)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-5.02 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-2.5. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 88-467. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-2.6)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-5.3 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-2.6. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 94-743, eff. 5-8-06. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-3)

Sec. 12-3. Battery.

(a) A person commits battery if he or she knowingly without legal justification by any means (1) causes bodily harm to an individual or (2) makes physical contact of an insulting or provoking nature with an individual.

(b) Sentence.

Battery is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.05) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4)

Sec. 12-3.05. Aggravated battery.

(a) Offense based on injury. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement.

(2) Causes severe and permanent disability, great bodily harm, or disfigurement by means of a caustic or flammable substance, a poisonous gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant or agent, a radioactive substance, or a bomb or explosive compound.

(3) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual whom the person knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual 60 years of age or older.

(5) Strangles another individual.

(b) Offense based on injury to a child or person with an intellectual disability. A person who is at least 18 years of age commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly and without legal justification by any means:

(1) causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years, or to any person with a severe or profound intellectual disability; or

(2) causes bodily harm or disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years or to any person with a severe or profound intellectual disability.

(c) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she is or the person battered is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, a sports venue, or a domestic violence shelter, or in a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place used for religious worship.

(d) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she knows the individual battered to be any of the following:

(1) A person 60 years of age or older.

(2) A person who is pregnant or has a physical disability.

(3) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A judge, emergency management worker, emergency medical services personnel, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) An officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a unit of local government, or a school district, while performing his or her official duties.

(7) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(8) A taxi driver on duty.

(9) A merchant who detains the person for an alleged commission of retail theft under Section 16-26 of this Code and the person without legal justification by any means causes bodily harm to the merchant.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(11) A nurse while in the performance of his or her duties as a nurse.

(12) A merchant: (i) while performing his or her duties, including, but not limited to, relaying directions for healthcare or safety from his or her supervisor or employer or relaying health or safety guidelines, recommendations, regulations, or rules from a federal, State, or local public health agency; and (ii) during a disaster declared by the Governor, or a state of emergency declared by the mayor of the municipality in which the merchant is located, due to a public health emergency and for a period of 6 months after such declaration.

(e) Offense based on use of a firearm. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(3) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be emergency medical services personnel:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Discharges a firearm and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be emergency medical services personnel:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, or a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(f) Offense based on use of a weapon or device. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.

(2) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(3) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of another.

(4) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(g) Offense based on certain conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled substance to another and any user experiences great bodily harm or permanent disability as a result of the injection, inhalation, or ingestion of any amount of the controlled substance.

(2) Knowingly administers to an individual or causes him or her to take, without his or her consent or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, anesthetic, or controlled substance, or gives to another person any food containing any substance or object intended to cause physical injury if eaten.

(3) Knowingly causes or attempts to cause a correctional institution employee or Department of Human Services employee to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces by throwing, tossing, or expelling the fluid or material, and the person is an inmate of a penal institution or is a sexually dangerous person or sexually violent person in the custody of the Department of Human Services.

(h) Sentence. Unless otherwise provided, aggravated battery is a Class 3 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(4), (d)(4), or (g)(3) is a Class 2 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(3) or (g)(1) is a Class 1 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony when the aggravated battery was intentional and involved the infliction of torture, as defined in paragraph (10) of subsection (b-5) of Section 5-8-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, as the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering, or agony of the victim.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 2 felony when the person causes great bodily harm or permanent disability to an individual whom the person knows to be a member of a congregation engaged in prayer or other religious activities at a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place used for religious worship.

Aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(5) is a Class 1 felony if:

(A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous instrument while committing the offense;

(B) the person caused great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to the other person while committing the offense; or

(C) the person has been previously convicted of a violation of subdivision (a)(5) under the laws of this State or laws similar to subdivision (a)(5) of any other state.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(1) is a Class X felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(2) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 6 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(5) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 12 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 15 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(6), (e)(7), or (e)(8) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 20 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (b)(1) is a Class X felony, except that:

(1) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(2) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(i) Definitions. In this Section:

"Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic Violence Shelters Act.

"Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Domestic violence shelter" means any building or other structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or any place within 500 feet of such a building or other structure in the case of a person who is going to or from such a building or other structure.

"Firearm" has the meaning provided under Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, and does not include an air rifle as defined by Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.

"Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

"Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of this Code.

"Strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.

(Source: P.A. 103-51, eff. 1-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-3.1)

Sec. 12-3.1. Battery of an unborn child; aggravated battery of an unborn child.

(a) A person commits battery of an unborn child if he or she knowingly without legal justification and by any means causes bodily harm to an unborn child.

(a-5) A person commits aggravated battery of an unborn child when, in committing a battery of an unborn child, he or she knowingly causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an unborn child.

(b) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall mean any individual of the human species from the implantation of an embryo until birth, and (2) "person" shall not include the pregnant individual whose unborn child is harmed.

(c) Sentence. Battery of an unborn child is a Class A misdemeanor. Aggravated battery of an unborn child is a Class 2 felony.

(d) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause bodily harm to an unborn child if those acts were committed during any abortion, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act, to which the pregnant individual has consented. This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-3.2)

Sec. 12-3.2. Domestic battery.

(a) A person commits domestic battery if he or she knowingly without legal justification by any means:

(1) causes bodily harm to any family or household member;

(2) makes physical contact of an insulting or provoking nature with any family or household member.

(b) Sentence. Domestic battery is a Class A misdemeanor. Domestic battery is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for violation of an order of protection (Section 12-3.4 or 12-30), or any prior conviction under the law of another jurisdiction for an offense which is substantially similar. Domestic battery is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for first degree murder (Section 9-1), attempt to commit first degree murder (Section 8-4), aggravated domestic battery (Section 12-3.3), aggravated battery (Section 12-3.05 or 12-4), heinous battery (Section 12-4.1), aggravated battery with a firearm (Section 12-4.2), aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer (Section 12-4.2-5), aggravated battery of a child (Section 12-4.3), aggravated battery of an unborn child (subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1, or Section 12-4.4), aggravated battery of a senior citizen (Section 12-4.6), stalking (Section 12-7.3), aggravated stalking (Section 12-7.4), criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.20 or 12-13), aggravated criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.30 or 12-14), kidnapping (Section 10-1), aggravated kidnapping (Section 10-2), predatory criminal sexual assault of a child (Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1), aggravated criminal sexual abuse (Section 11-1.60 or 12-16), unlawful restraint (Section 10-3), aggravated unlawful restraint (Section 10-3.1), aggravated arson (Section 20-1.1), or aggravated discharge of a firearm (Section 24-1.2), or any prior conviction under the law of another jurisdiction for any offense that is substantially similar to the offenses listed in this Section, when any of these offenses have been committed against a family or household member. Domestic battery is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has one or 2 prior convictions under this Code for domestic battery (Section 12-3.2), or one or 2 prior convictions under the law of another jurisdiction for any offense which is substantially similar. Domestic battery is a Class 3 felony if the defendant had 3 prior convictions under this Code for domestic battery (Section 12-3.2), or 3 prior convictions under the law of another jurisdiction for any offense which is substantially similar. Domestic battery is a Class 2 felony if the defendant had 4 or more prior convictions under this Code for domestic battery (Section 12-3.2), or 4 or more prior convictions under the law of another jurisdiction for any offense which is substantially similar. In addition to any other sentencing alternatives, for any second or subsequent conviction of violating this Section, the offender shall be mandatorily sentenced to a minimum of 72 consecutive hours of imprisonment. The imprisonment shall not be subject to suspension, nor shall the person be eligible for probation in order to reduce the sentence.

(c) Domestic battery committed in the presence of a child. In addition to any other sentencing alternatives, a defendant who commits, in the presence of a child, a felony domestic battery (enhanced under subsection (b)), aggravated domestic battery (Section 12-3.3), aggravated battery (Section 12-3.05 or 12-4), unlawful restraint (Section 10-3), or aggravated unlawful restraint (Section 10-3.1) against a family or household member shall be required to serve a mandatory minimum imprisonment of 10 days or perform 300 hours of community service, or both. The defendant shall further be liable for the cost of any counseling required for the child at the discretion of the court in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections. For purposes of this Section, "child" means a person under 18 years of age who is the defendant's or victim's child or step-child or who is a minor child residing within or visiting the household of the defendant or victim.

(d) Upon conviction of domestic battery, the court shall advise the defendant orally or in writing, substantially as follows: "An individual convicted of domestic battery may be subject to federal criminal penalties for possessing, transporting, shipping, or receiving any firearm or ammunition in violation of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 922(g)(8) and (9))." A notation shall be made in the court file that the admonition was given.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-187, eff. 1-1-14; 98-994, eff. 1-1-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.3)

Sec. 12-3.3. Aggravated domestic battery.

(a) A person who, in committing a domestic battery, knowingly causes great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement commits aggravated domestic battery.

(a-5) A person who, in committing a domestic battery, strangles another individual commits aggravated domestic battery. For the purposes of this subsection (a-5), "strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated domestic battery is a Class 2 felony. Any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction for an offense under this Section must include, in addition to any other condition of probation or conditional discharge, a condition that the offender serve a mandatory term of imprisonment of not less than 60 consecutive days. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section must be sentenced to a mandatory term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years or an extended term of imprisonment of not less than 7 years and not more than 14 years.

(c) Upon conviction of aggravated domestic battery, the court shall advise the defendant orally or in writing, substantially as follows: "An individual convicted of aggravated domestic battery may be subject to federal criminal penalties for possessing, transporting, shipping, or receiving any firearm or ammunition in violation of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 922(g)(8) and (9))." A notation shall be made in the court file that the admonition was given.

(Source: P.A. 96-287, eff. 8-11-09; 96-363, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.4) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-30)

Sec. 12-3.4. Violation of an order of protection.

(a) A person commits violation of an order of protection if:

(1) He or she knowingly commits an act which was prohibited by a court or fails to commit an act which was ordered by a court in violation of:

(i) a remedy in a valid order of protection authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986,

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14) or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe or United States territory,

(iii) any other remedy when the act constitutes a crime against the protected parties as the term protected parties is defined in Section 112A-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; and

(2) Such violation occurs after the offender has been served notice of the contents of the order, pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or any substantially similar statute of another state, tribe or United States territory, or otherwise has acquired actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

An order of protection issued by a state, tribal or territorial court related to domestic or family violence shall be deemed valid if the issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and matter under the law of the state, tribe or territory. There shall be a presumption of validity where an order is certified and appears authentic on its face. For purposes of this Section, an "order of protection" may have been issued in a criminal or civil proceeding.

(a-5) Failure to provide reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard shall be an affirmative defense to any charge or process filed seeking enforcement of a foreign order of protection.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to diminish the inherent authority of the courts to enforce their lawful orders through civil or criminal contempt proceedings.

(c) The limitations placed on law enforcement liability by Section 305 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 apply to actions taken under this Section.

(d) Violation of an order of protection is a Class A misdemeanor. Violation of an order of protection is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for domestic battery (Section 12-3.2) or violation of an order of protection (Section 12-3.4 or 12-30) or any prior conviction under the law of another jurisdiction for an offense that could be charged in this State as a domestic battery or violation of an order of protection. Violation of an order of protection is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for first degree murder (Section 9-1), attempt to commit first degree murder (Section 8-4), aggravated domestic battery (Section 12-3.3), aggravated battery (Section 12-3.05 or 12-4), heinous battery (Section 12-4.1), aggravated battery with a firearm (Section 12-4.2), aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer (Section 12-4.2-5), aggravated battery of a child (Section 12-4.3), aggravated battery of an unborn child (subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1, or Section 12-4.4), aggravated battery of a senior citizen (Section 12-4.6), stalking (Section 12-7.3), aggravated stalking (Section 12-7.4), criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.20 or 12-13), aggravated criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.30 or 12-14), kidnapping (Section 10-1), aggravated kidnapping (Section 10-2), predatory criminal sexual assault of a child (Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1), aggravated criminal sexual abuse (Section 11-1.60 or 12-16), unlawful restraint (Section 10-3), aggravated unlawful restraint (Section 10-3.1), aggravated arson (Section 20-1.1), aggravated discharge of a firearm (Section 24-1.2), or a violation of any former law of this State that is substantially similar to any listed offense, or any prior conviction under the law of another jurisdiction for an offense that could be charged in this State as one of the offenses listed in this Section, when any of these offenses have been committed against a family or household member as defined in Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. The court shall impose a minimum penalty of 24 hours imprisonment for defendant's second or subsequent violation of any order of protection; unless the court explicitly finds that an increased penalty or such period of imprisonment would be manifestly unjust. In addition to any other penalties, the court may order the defendant to pay a fine as authorized under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections or to make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(e) (Blank).

(f) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 100-987, eff. 7-1-19.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-6.3)

Sec. 12-3.5. Interfering with the reporting of domestic violence.

(a) A person commits interfering with the reporting of domestic violence when, after having committed an act of domestic violence, he or she knowingly prevents or attempts to prevent the victim of or a witness to the act of domestic violence from calling a 9-1-1 emergency telephone system, obtaining medical assistance, or making a report to any law enforcement official.

(b) For the purposes of this Section:

"Domestic violence" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(c) Sentence. Interfering with the reporting of domestic violence is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.6) (was 720 ILCS 5/45-1 and 5/45-2)

Sec. 12-3.6. Disclosing location of domestic violence victim.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Domestic violence" means attempting to cause or causing abuse of a family or household member or high-risk adult with disabilities, or attempting to cause or causing neglect or exploitation of a high-risk adult with disabilities which threatens the adult's health and safety.

"Family or household member" means a spouse, person living as a spouse, parent, or other adult person related by consanguinity or affinity, who is residing or has resided with the person committing domestic violence. "Family or household member" includes a high-risk adult with disabilities who resides with or receives care from any person who has the responsibility for a high-risk adult as a result of a family relationship or who has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an adult with disabilities voluntarily, by express or implied contract, or by court order.

"High-risk adult with disabilities" means a person aged 18 or over whose physical or mental disability impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation.

"Abuse", "exploitation", and "neglect" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(b) A person commits disclosure of location of domestic violence victim when he or she publishes, disseminates or otherwise discloses the location of any domestic violence victim, without that person's authorization, knowing the disclosure will result in, or has the substantial likelihood of resulting in, the threat of bodily harm.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall apply to confidential communications between an attorney and his or her client.

(d) Sentence. Disclosure of location of domestic violence victim is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.8)

Sec. 12-3.8. Violation of a civil no contact order.

(a) A person commits violation of a civil no contact order if:

(1) he or she knowingly commits an act which was prohibited by a court or fails to commit an act which was ordered in violation of:

(A) a remedy of a valid civil no contact order authorized under Section 213 of the Civil No Contact Order Act or Section 112A-14.5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; or

(B) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under Section 213 of the Civil No Contact Order Act or Section 112A-14.5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or in a valid civil no contact order, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory; and

(2) the violation occurs after the offender has been served notice of the contents of the order under the Civil No Contact Order Act, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or any substantially similar statute of another state, tribe, or United States territory, or otherwise has acquired actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

A civil no contact order issued by a state, tribal, or territorial court shall be deemed valid if the issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and matter under the law of the state, tribe, or territory. There shall be a presumption of validity when an order is certified and appears authentic on its face.

(a-3) For purposes of this Section, a "civil no contact order" may have been issued in a criminal or civil proceeding.

(a-5) Failure to provide reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard shall be an affirmative defense to any charge or process filed seeking enforcement of a foreign civil no contact order.

(b) Prosecution for a violation of a civil no contact order shall not bar a concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the civil no contact order.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to diminish the inherent authority of the courts to enforce their lawful orders through civil or criminal contempt proceedings.

(d) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(e) Sentence. A violation of a civil no contact order is a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation, and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.9)

Sec. 12-3.9. Violation of a stalking no contact order.

(a) A person commits violation of a stalking no contact order if:

(1) he or she knowingly commits an act which was prohibited by a court or fails to commit an act which was ordered by a court in violation of:

(A) a remedy in a valid stalking no contact order of protection authorized under Section 80 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act or Section 112A-14.7 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; or

(B) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under Section 80 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act or Section 112A-14.7 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or in a valid stalking no contact order, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory; and

(2) the violation occurs after the offender has been served notice of the contents of the order, under the Stalking No Contact Order Act, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or any substantially similar statute of another state, tribe, or United States territory, or otherwise has acquired actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

A stalking no contact order issued by a state, tribal, or territorial court shall be deemed valid if the issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and matter under the law of the state, tribe, or territory. There shall be a presumption of validity when an order is certified and appears authentic on its face.

(a-3) For purposes of this Section, a "stalking no contact order" may have been issued in a criminal or civil proceeding.

(a-5) Failure to provide reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard shall be an affirmative defense to any charge or process filed seeking enforcement of a foreign stalking no contact order.

(b) Prosecution for a violation of a stalking no contact order shall not bar a concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the civil no contact order.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to diminish the inherent authority of the courts to enforce their lawful orders through civil or criminal contempt proceedings.

(d) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(e) Sentence. A violation of a stalking no contact order is a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation, and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-3.05 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-4. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 97-467, eff. 1-1-12. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.1)

Sec. 12-4.1. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 91-121, eff. 7-15-99. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.2)

Sec. 12-4.2. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.2-5)

Sec. 12-4.2-5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.3)

Sec. 12-4.3. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.4)

Sec. 12-4.4. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 84-1414. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 10 heading) SUBDIVISION 10. ENDANGERMENT (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.4a)

Sec. 12-4.4a. Abuse or criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident; criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability.

(a) Abuse or criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(1) A person or an owner or licensee commits abuse of a long term care facility resident when he or she knowingly causes any physical or mental injury to, or commits any sexual offense in this Code against, a resident.

(2) A person or an owner or licensee commits criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident when he or she recklessly:

(A) performs acts that cause a resident's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate, or that create the substantial likelihood that a resident's life will be endangered, health will be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition will deteriorate;

(B) fails to perform acts that he or she knows or reasonably should know are necessary to maintain or preserve the life or health of a resident, and that failure causes the resident's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate, or that create the substantial likelihood that a resident's life will be endangered, health will be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition will deteriorate; or

(C) abandons a resident.

(3) A person or an owner or licensee commits neglect of a long term care facility resident when he or she negligently fails to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance to the resident which results in physical or mental injury or deterioration of the resident's physical or mental condition. An owner or licensee is guilty under this subdivision (a)(3), however, only if the owner or licensee failed to exercise reasonable care in the hiring, training, supervising, or providing of staff or other related routine administrative responsibilities.

(b) Criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability.

(1) A caregiver commits criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(A) performs acts that cause the person's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate;

(B) fails to perform acts that he or she knows or reasonably should know are necessary to maintain or preserve the life or health of the person, and that failure causes the person's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate;

(C) abandons the person;

(D) physically abuses, harasses, intimidates, or interferes with the personal liberty of the person; or

(E) exposes the person to willful deprivation.

(2) It is not a defense to criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability that the caregiver reasonably believed that the victim was not an elderly person or person with a disability.

(c) Offense not applicable.

(1) Nothing in this Section applies to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a duly licensed nurse providing care within the scope of his or her professional judgment and within the accepted standards of care within the community.

(2) Nothing in this Section imposes criminal liability on a caregiver who made a good faith effort to provide for the health and personal care of an elderly person or person with a disability, but through no fault of his or her own was unable to provide such care.

(3) Nothing in this Section applies to the medical supervision, regulation, or control of the remedial care or treatment of residents in a long term care facility conducted for those who rely upon treatment by prayer or spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination as described in Section 3-803 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 1-102 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, Section 3-803 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, or Section 3-803 of the MC/DD Act.

(4) Nothing in this Section prohibits a caregiver from providing treatment to an elderly person or person with a disability by spiritual means through prayer alone and care consistent therewith in lieu of medical care and treatment in accordance with the tenets and practices of any church or religious denomination of which the elderly person or person with a disability is a member.

(5) Nothing in this Section limits the remedies available to the victim under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Long term care facility. Abuse of a long term care facility resident is a Class 3 felony. Criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident is a Class 4 felony, unless it results in the resident's death in which case it is a Class 3 felony. Neglect of a long term care facility resident is a petty offense.

(2) Caregiver. Criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability is a Class 3 felony, unless it results in the person's death in which case it is a Class 2 felony, and if imprisonment is imposed it shall be for a minimum term of 3 years and a maximum term of 14 years.

(e) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Abandon" means to desert or knowingly forsake a resident or an elderly person or person with a disability under circumstances in which a reasonable person would continue to provide care and custody.

"Caregiver" means a person who has a duty to provide for an elderly person or person with a disability's health and personal care, at the elderly person or person with a disability's place of residence, including, but not limited to, food and nutrition, shelter, hygiene, prescribed medication, and medical care and treatment, and includes any of the following:

(1) A parent, spouse, adult child, or other relative by blood or marriage who resides with or resides in the same building with or regularly visits the elderly person or person with a disability, knows or reasonably should know of such person's physical or mental impairment, and knows or reasonably should know that such person is unable to adequately provide for his or her own health and personal care.

(2) A person who is employed by the elderly person or person with a disability or by another to reside with or regularly visit the elderly person or person with a disability and provide for such person's health and personal care.

(3) A person who has agreed for consideration to reside with or regularly visit the elderly person or person with a disability and provide for such person's health and personal care.

(4) A person who has been appointed by a private or public agency or by a court of competent jurisdiction to provide for the elderly person or person with a disability's health and personal care.

"Caregiver" does not include a long-term care facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility licensed or certified under the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or any administrative, medical, or other personnel of such a facility, or a health care provider who is licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and renders care in the ordinary course of his or her profession.

"Elderly person" means a person 60 years of age or older who is incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health and personal care.

"Licensee" means the individual or entity licensed to operate a facility under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

"Long term care facility" means a private home, institution, building, residence, or other place, whether operated for profit or not, or a county home for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, or any similar institution operated by the State of Illinois or a political subdivision thereof, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care, sheltered care, or nursing for 3 or more persons not related to the owner by blood or marriage. The term also includes skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities as defined in Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act and assisted living establishments and shared housing establishments licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

"Owner" means the owner of a long term care facility as provided in the Nursing Home Care Act, the owner of a facility as provided under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the owner of a facility as provided in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the owner of a facility as provided in the MC/DD Act, or the owner of an assisted living or shared housing establishment as provided in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

"Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment, resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition, which renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health and personal care.

"Resident" means a person residing in a long term care facility.

"Willful deprivation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (15) of Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(Source: P.A. 103-293, eff. 1-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.5) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.5)

Sec. 12-4.5. Tampering with food, drugs or cosmetics.

(a) A person who knowingly puts any substance capable of causing death or great bodily harm to a human being into any food, drug or cosmetic offered for sale or consumption commits tampering with food, drugs or cosmetics.

(b) Sentence. Tampering with food, drugs or cosmetics is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.6) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.6)

Sec. 12-4.6. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 85-1177. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.7) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.7)

Sec. 12-4.7. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 92-256, eff. 1-1-02. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.8)

Sec. 12-4.8. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.9)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-45 by P.A. 97-1109.)

Sec. 12-4.9. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 89-632, eff. 1-1-97. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.10)

Sec. 12-4.10. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.11)

Sec. 12-4.11. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-340, eff. 7-24-03. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.12)

Sec. 12-4.12. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-5)

Sec. 12-5. Reckless conduct.

(a) A person commits reckless conduct when he or she, by any means lawful or unlawful, recklessly performs an act or acts that:

(1) cause bodily harm to or endanger the safety of another person; or

(2) cause great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to another person.

(b) Sentence.

Reckless conduct under subdivision (a)(1) is a Class A misdemeanor. Reckless conduct under subdivision (a)(2) is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-5.01)

Sec. 12-5.01. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 97-1046, eff. 8-21-12. Repealed by P.A. 102-168, eff. 7-27-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-5.02) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-2.5)

Sec. 12-5.02. Vehicular endangerment.

(a) A person commits vehicular endangerment when he or she strikes a motor vehicle by causing an object to fall from an overpass or other elevated location in the direction of a moving motor vehicle with the intent to strike a motor vehicle while it is traveling upon a highway in this State.

(b) Sentence. Vehicular endangerment is a Class 2 felony, unless death results, in which case vehicular endangerment is a Class 1 felony.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Elevated location" means a bridge, overpass, highway ramp, building, artificial structure, hill, mound, or natural elevation above or adjacent to and above a highway.

"Object" means any object or substance that by its size, weight, or consistency is likely to cause great bodily harm to any occupant of a motor vehicle.

"Overpass" means any structure that passes over a highway.

"Motor vehicle" and "highway" have the meanings as defined in the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 99-656, eff. 1-1-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-5.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-5.1)

Sec. 12-5.1. Criminal housing management.

(a) A person commits criminal housing management when, having personal management or control of residential real estate, whether as a legal or equitable owner or as a managing agent or otherwise, he or she recklessly permits the physical condition or facilities of the residential real estate to become or remain in any condition which endangers the health or safety of a person other than the defendant.

(b) Sentence.

Criminal housing management is a Class A misdemeanor, and a subsequent conviction is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-5.1a) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-5.15)

Sec. 12-5.1a. Aggravated criminal housing management.

(a) A person commits aggravated criminal housing management when he or she commits criminal housing management and:

(1) the condition endangering the health or safety of a person other than the defendant is determined to be a contributing factor in the death of that person; and

(2) the person recklessly conceals or attempts to conceal the condition that endangered the health or safety of the person other than the defendant that is found to be a contributing factor in that death.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated criminal housing management is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-5.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-5.2)

Sec. 12-5.2. Injunction in connection with criminal housing management or aggravated criminal housing management.

(a) In addition to any other remedies, the State's Attorney of the county where the residential property which endangers the health or safety of any person exists is authorized to file a complaint and apply to the circuit court for a temporary restraining order, and such circuit court shall upon hearing grant a temporary restraining order or a preliminary or permanent injunction, without bond, restraining any person who owns, manages, or has any equitable interest in the property, from collecting, receiving or benefiting from any rents or other monies available from the property, so long as the property remains in a condition which endangers the health or safety of any person.

(b) The court may order any rents or other monies owed to be paid into an escrow account. The funds are to be paid out of the escrow account only to satisfy the reasonable cost of necessary repairs of the property which had been incurred or will be incurred in ameliorating the condition of the property as described in subsection (a), payment of delinquent real estate taxes on the property or payment of other legal debts relating to the property. The court may order that funds remain in escrow for a reasonable time after the completion of all necessary repairs to assure continued upkeep of the property and satisfaction of other outstanding legal debts of the property.

(c) The owner shall be responsible for contracting to have necessary repairs completed and shall be required to submit all bills, together with certificates of completion, to the manager of the escrow account within 30 days after their receipt by the owner.

(d) In contracting for any repairs required pursuant to this Section the owner of the property shall enter into a contract only after receiving bids from at least 3 independent contractors capable of making the necessary repairs. If the owner does not contract for the repairs with the lowest bidder, he shall file an affidavit with the court explaining why the lowest bid was not acceptable. At no time, under the provisions of this Section, shall the owner contract with anyone who is not a licensed contractor, except that a contractor need not be licensed if neither the State nor the county, township, or municipality where the residential real estate is located requires that the contractor be licensed. The court may order release of those funds in the escrow account that are in excess of the monies that the court determines to its satisfaction are needed to correct the condition of the property as described in subsection (a).

For the purposes of this Section, "licensed contractor" means: (i) a contractor licensed by the State, if the State requires the licensure of the contractor; or (ii) a contractor licensed by the county, township, or municipality where the residential real estate is located, if that jurisdiction requires the licensure of the contractor.

(e) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall maintain a separate trust account entitled "Property Improvement Trust Account", which shall serve as the depository for the escrowed funds prescribed by this Section. The Clerk of the Court shall be responsible for the receipt, disbursement, monitoring and maintenance of all funds entrusted to this account, and shall provide to the court a quarterly accounting of the activities for any property, with funds in such account, unless the court orders accountings on a more frequent basis.

The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall promulgate rules and procedures to administer the provisions of this Act.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall in any way be construed to limit or alter any existing liability incurred, or to be incurred, by the owner or manager except as expressly provided in this Act. Nor shall anything in this Section be construed to create any liability on behalf of the Clerk of the Court, the State's Attorney's office or any other governmental agency involved in this action.

Nor shall anything in this Section be construed to authorize tenants to refrain from paying rent.

(g) Costs. As part of the costs of an action under this Section, the court shall assess a reasonable fee against the defendant to be paid to the Clerk of the Circuit Court. This amount is to be used solely for the maintenance of the Property Improvement Trust Account. No money obtained directly or indirectly from the property subject to the case may be used to satisfy this cost.

(h) The municipal building department or other entity responsible for inspection of property and the enforcement of such local requirements shall, within 5 business days of a request by the State's Attorney, provide all documents requested, which shall include, but not be limited to, all records of inspections, permits and other information relating to any property.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-5.3) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-2.6)

Sec. 12-5.3. Use of a dangerous place for the commission of a controlled substance or cannabis offense.

(a) A person commits use of a dangerous place for the commission of a controlled substance or cannabis offense when that person knowingly exercises control over any place with the intent to use that place to manufacture, produce, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog in violation of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or to manufacture, produce, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver cannabis in violation of Section 5, 5.1, 5.2, 7, or 8 of the Cannabis Control Act and:

(1) the place, by virtue of the presence of the substance or substances used or intended to be used to manufacture a controlled or counterfeit substance, controlled substance analog, or cannabis, presents a substantial risk of injury to any person from fire, explosion, or exposure to toxic or noxious chemicals or gas; or

(2) the place used or intended to be used to manufacture, produce, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver a controlled or counterfeit substance, controlled substance analog, or cannabis has located within it or surrounding it devices, weapons, chemicals, or explosives designed, hidden, or arranged in a manner that would cause a person to be exposed to a substantial risk of great bodily harm.

(b) It may be inferred that a place was intended to be used to manufacture a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog if a substance containing a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog or a substance containing a chemical important to the manufacture of a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog is found at the place of the alleged illegal controlled substance manufacturing in close proximity to equipment or a chemical used for facilitating the manufacture of the controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog that is alleged to have been intended to be manufactured.

(c) As used in this Section, "place" means a premises, conveyance, or location that offers seclusion, shelter, means, or facilitation for manufacturing, producing, possessing, or possessing with intent to deliver a controlled or counterfeit substance, controlled substance analog, or cannabis.

(d) Use of a dangerous place for the commission of a controlled substance or cannabis offense is a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-5.5)

Sec. 12-5.5. Common carrier recklessness.

(a) A person commits common carrier recklessness when he or she, having personal management or control of or over a public conveyance used for the common carriage of persons, recklessly endangers the safety of others.

(b) Sentence. Common carrier recklessness is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-5.15)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-5.1a by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-5.15. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 93-852, eff. 8-2-04. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 15 heading) SUBDIVISION 15. INTIMIDATION (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-6)

Sec. 12-6. Intimidation.

(a) A person commits intimidation when, with intent to cause another to perform or to omit the performance of any act, he or she communicates to another, directly or indirectly by any means, a threat to perform without lawful authority any of the following acts:

(1) Inflict physical harm on the person threatened or any other person or on property; or

(2) Subject any person to physical confinement or restraint; or

(3) Commit a felony or Class A misdemeanor; or

(4) Accuse any person of an offense; or

(5) Expose any person to hatred, contempt or ridicule; or

(6) Take action as a public official against anyone or anything, or withhold official action, or cause such action or withholding; or

(7) Bring about or continue a strike, boycott or other collective action.

(b) Sentence.

Intimidation is a Class 3 felony for which an offender may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-6.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-6.1)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-6.5 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-6.1. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 91-696, eff. 4-13-00. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-6.2)

Sec. 12-6.2. Aggravated intimidation.

(a) A person commits aggravated intimidation when he or she commits intimidation and:

(1) the person committed the offense in furtherance of the activities of an organized gang or because of the person's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or

(2) the offense is committed with the intent to prevent any person from becoming a community policing volunteer; or

(3) the following conditions are met:

(A) the person knew that the victim was a peace officer, a correctional institution employee, a fireman, a community policing volunteer, or a civilian reporting information regarding a forcible felony to a law enforcement agency; and

(B) the offense was committed:

(i) while the victim was engaged in the execution of his or her official duties; or

(ii) to prevent the victim from performing his or her official duties;

(iii) in retaliation for the victim's performance of his or her official duties;

(iv) by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer; or

(v) because the person reported information regarding a forcible felony to a law enforcement agency.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated intimidation as defined in paragraph (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony. Aggravated intimidation as defined in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) is a Class 2 felony for which the offender may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years nor more than 14 years.

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-162, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-6.3)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-3.5 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-6.3. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 90-118, eff. 1-1-98. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-6.4)

Sec. 12-6.4. Criminal street gang recruitment on school grounds or public property adjacent to school grounds and criminal street gang recruitment of a minor.

(a) A person commits criminal street gang recruitment on school grounds or public property adjacent to school grounds when on school grounds or public property adjacent to school grounds, he or she knowingly threatens the use of physical force to coerce, solicit, recruit, or induce another person to join or remain a member of a criminal street gang, or conspires to do so.

(a-5) A person commits the offense of criminal street gang recruitment of a minor when he or she threatens the use of physical force to coerce, solicit, recruit, or induce another person to join or remain a member of a criminal street gang, or conspires to do so, whether or not such threat is communicated in person, by means of the Internet, or by means of a telecommunications device.

(b) Sentence. Criminal street gang recruitment on school grounds or public property adjacent to school grounds is a Class 1 felony and criminal street gang recruitment of a minor is a Class 1 felony.

(c) In this Section:

"School grounds" means the building or buildings or real property comprising a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university and includes a school yard, school playing field, or school playground.

"Minor" means any person under 18 years of age.

"Internet" means an interactive computer service or system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.

"Telecommunications device" means a device that is capable of receiving or transmitting speech, data, signals, text, images, sounds, codes, or other information including, but not limited to, paging devices, telephones, and cellular and mobile telephones.

(Source: P.A. 96-199, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-6.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-6.1)

Sec. 12-6.5. Compelling organization membership of persons. A person who knowingly, expressly or impliedly, threatens to do bodily harm or does bodily harm to an individual or to that individual's family or uses any other criminally unlawful means to solicit or cause any person to join, or deter any person from leaving, any organization or association regardless of the nature of such organization or association, is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

Any person of the age of 18 years or older who knowingly, expressly or impliedly, threatens to do bodily harm or does bodily harm to a person under 18 years of age or uses any other criminally unlawful means to solicit or cause any person under 18 years of age to join, or deter any person under 18 years of age from leaving, any organization or association regardless of the nature of such organization or association is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

A person convicted of an offense under this Section shall not be eligible to receive a sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or periodic imprisonment.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7)

Sec. 12-7. Compelling confession or information by force or threat.

(a) A person who, with intent to obtain a confession, statement or information regarding any offense, knowingly inflicts or threatens imminent bodily harm upon the person threatened or upon any other person commits compelling a confession or information by force or threat.

(b) Sentence.

Compelling a confession or information is a: (1) Class 4 felony if the defendant threatens imminent bodily harm to obtain a confession, statement, or information but does not inflict bodily harm on the victim, (2) Class 3 felony if the defendant inflicts bodily harm on the victim to obtain a confession, statement, or information, and (3) Class 2 felony if the defendant inflicts great bodily harm to obtain a confession, statement, or information.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.1)

Sec. 12-7.1. Hate crime.

(a) A person commits hate crime when, by reason of the actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, citizenship, immigration status, or national origin of another individual or group of individuals, regardless of the existence of any other motivating factor or factors, he or she commits assault, battery, aggravated assault, intimidation, stalking, cyberstalking, misdemeanor theft, criminal trespass to residence, misdemeanor criminal damage to property, criminal trespass to vehicle, criminal trespass to real property, mob action, disorderly conduct, transmission of obscene messages, harassment by telephone, or harassment through electronic communications as these crimes are defined in Sections 12-1, 12-2, 12-3(a), 12-7.3, 12-7.5, 16-1, 19-4, 21-1, 21-2, 21-3, 25-1, 26-1, 26.5-1, 26.5-2, paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of Section 12-6, and paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(5) of Section 26.5-3 of this Code, respectively.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (b-5), hate crime is a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(b-5) Hate crime is a Class 3 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense if committed:

(1) in, or upon the exterior or grounds of, a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place identified or associated with a particular religion or used for religious worship or other religious purpose;

(2) in a cemetery, mortuary, or other facility used for the purpose of burial or memorializing the dead;

(3) in a school or other educational facility, including an administrative facility or public or private dormitory facility of or associated with the school or other educational facility;

(4) in a public park or an ethnic or religious community center;

(5) on the real property comprising any location specified in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (b-5); or

(6) on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any location specified in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (b-5).

(b-10) Upon imposition of any sentence, the trial court shall also either order restitution paid to the victim or impose a fine in an amount to be determined by the court based on the severity of the crime and the injury or damages suffered by the victim. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours if that service is established in the county where the offender was convicted of hate crime. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes involving the protected class identified in subsection (a) that gave rise to the offense the offender committed. The educational program must be attended by the offender in-person and may be administered, as determined by the court, by a university, college, community college, non-profit organization, the Illinois Holocaust and Genocide Commission, or any other organization that provides educational programs discouraging hate crimes, except that programs administered online or that can otherwise be attended remotely are prohibited. The court may also impose any other condition of probation or conditional discharge under this Section. If the court sentences the offender to imprisonment or periodic imprisonment for a violation of this Section, as a condition of the offender's mandatory supervised release, the court shall require that the offender perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours and enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes involving the protected class identified in subsection (a) that gave rise to the offense the offender committed.

(c) Independent of any criminal prosecution or the result of a criminal prosecution, any person suffering injury to his or her person, damage to his or her property, intimidation as defined in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of Section 12-6 of this Code, stalking as defined in Section 12-7.3 of this Code, cyberstalking as defined in Section 12-7.5 of this Code, disorderly conduct as defined in paragraph (a)(1), (a)(4), (a)(5), or (a)(6) of Section 26-1 of this Code, transmission of obscene messages as defined in Section 26.5-1 of this Code, harassment by telephone as defined in Section 26.5-2 of this Code, or harassment through electronic communications as defined in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(5) of Section 26.5-3 of this Code as a result of a hate crime may bring a civil action for damages, injunction or other appropriate relief. The court may award actual damages, including damages for emotional distress, as well as punitive damages. The court may impose a civil penalty up to $25,000 for each violation of this subsection (c). A judgment in favor of a person who brings a civil action under this subsection (c) shall include attorney's fees and costs. After consulting with the local State's Attorney, the Attorney General may bring a civil action in the name of the People of the State for an injunction or other equitable relief under this subsection (c). In addition, the Attorney General may request and the court may impose a civil penalty up to $25,000 for each violation under this subsection (c). The parents or legal guardians, other than guardians appointed pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, of an unemancipated minor shall be liable for the amount of any judgment for all damages rendered against such minor under this subsection (c) in any amount not exceeding the amount provided under Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(d) "Sexual orientation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (O-1) of Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-235, eff. 1-1-22; 102-468, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.2)

Sec. 12-7.2. Educational intimidation. (a) A person commits educational intimidation when he knowingly interferes with the right of any child who is or is believed to be afflicted with a chronic infectious disease to attend or participate in the activities of an elementary or secondary school in this State:

(1) by actual or threatened physical harm to the person or property of the child or the child's family; or

(2) by impeding or obstructing the child's right of ingress to, egress from, or freedom of movement at school facilities or activities; or

(3) by exposing or threatening to expose the child, or the family or friends of the child, to public hatred, contempt or ridicule.

(b) Subsection (a) does not apply to the actions of school officials or the school's infectious disease review team who are acting within the course of their professional duties and in accordance with applicable law.

(c) Educational intimidation is a Class C misdemeanor, except that a second or subsequent offense shall be a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) Independent of any criminal prosecution or the result thereof, any person suffering injury to his person or damage to his property as a result of educational intimidation may bring a civil action for damages, injunction or other appropriate relief. The court may award actual damages, including damages for emotional distress, or punitive damages. A judgment may include attorney's fees and costs. The parents or legal guardians of an unemancipated minor, other than guardians appointed pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall be liable for the amount of any judgment for actual damages awarded against such minor under this subsection (d) in any amount not exceeding the amount provided under Section of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(Source: P.A. 86-890.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.3)

Sec. 12-7.3. Stalking.

(a) A person commits stalking when he or she knowingly engages in a course of conduct directed at a specific person, and he or she knows or should know that this course of conduct would cause a reasonable person to:

(1) fear for his or her safety or the safety of a third person; or

(2) suffer other emotional distress.

(a-3) A person commits stalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, on at least 2 separate occasions follows another person or places the person under surveillance or any combination thereof and:

(1) at any time transmits a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement or restraint and the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person; or

(2) places that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement or restraint to or of that person or a family member of that person.

(a-5) A person commits stalking when he or she has previously been convicted of stalking another person and knowingly and without lawful justification on one occasion:

(1) follows that same person or places that same person under surveillance; and

(2) transmits a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement or restraint to that person or a family member of that person.

(a-7) A person commits stalking when he or she knowingly makes threats that are a part of a course of conduct and is aware of the threatening nature of his or her speech.

(b) Sentence. Stalking is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 3 felony.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Course of conduct" means 2 or more acts, including but not limited to acts in which a defendant directly, indirectly, or through third parties, by any action, method, device, or means follows, monitors, observes, surveils, threatens, or communicates to or about, a person, engages in other non-consensual contact, or interferes with or damages a person's property or pet. A course of conduct may include contact via electronic communications.

(2) "Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writings, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric, or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions by a computer through the Internet to another computer.

(3) "Emotional distress" means significant mental suffering, anxiety or alarm.

(4) "Family member" means a parent, grandparent, brother, sister, or child, whether by whole blood, half-blood, or adoption and includes a step-grandparent, step-parent, step-brother, step-sister or step-child. "Family member" also means any other person who regularly resides in the household, or who, within the prior 6 months, regularly resided in the household.

(5) "Follows another person" means (i) to move in relative proximity to a person as that person moves from place to place or (ii) to remain in relative proximity to a person who is stationary or whose movements are confined to a small area. "Follows another person" does not include a following within the residence of the defendant.

(6) "Non-consensual contact" means any contact with the victim that is initiated or continued without the victim's consent, including but not limited to being in the physical presence of the victim; appearing within the sight of the victim; approaching or confronting the victim in a public place or on private property; appearing at the workplace or residence of the victim; entering onto or remaining on property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim; or placing an object on, or delivering an object to, property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim.

(7) "Places a person under surveillance" means: (1) remaining present outside the person's school, place of employment, vehicle, other place occupied by the person, or residence other than the residence of the defendant; or (2) placing an electronic tracking device on the person or the person's property.

(8) "Reasonable person" means a person in the victim's situation.

(9) "Transmits a threat" means a verbal or written threat or a threat implied by a pattern of conduct or a combination of verbal or written statements or conduct.

(d) Exemptions.

(1) This Section does not apply to any individual or organization (i) monitoring or attentive to compliance with public or worker safety laws, wage and hour requirements, or other statutory requirements, or (ii) picketing occurring at the workplace that is otherwise lawful and arises out of a bona fide labor dispute, including any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the making or maintaining of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

(2) This Section does not apply to an exercise of the right to free speech or assembly that is otherwise lawful.

(3) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(d-5) The incarceration of a person in a penal institution who commits the course of conduct or transmits a threat is not a bar to prosecution under this Section.

(d-10) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 102-547, eff. 1-1-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.4)

Sec. 12-7.4. Aggravated stalking.

(a) A person commits aggravated stalking when he or she commits stalking and:

(1) causes bodily harm to the victim;

(2) confines or restrains the victim; or

(3) violates a temporary restraining order, an order of protection, a stalking no contact order, a civil no contact order, or an injunction prohibiting the behavior described in subsection (b)(1) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(a-1) A person commits aggravated stalking when he or she is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act or has been previously required to register under that Act and commits the offense of stalking when the victim of the stalking is also the victim of the offense for which the sex offender is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act or a family member of the victim.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated stalking is a Class 3 felony; a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 2 felony.

(c) Exemptions.

(1) This Section does not apply to any individual or organization (i) monitoring or attentive to compliance with public or worker safety laws, wage and hour requirements, or other statutory requirements, or (ii) picketing occurring at the workplace that is otherwise lawful and arises out of a bona fide labor dispute including any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the managing or maintenance of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

(2) This Section does not apply to an exercise of the right of free speech or assembly that is otherwise lawful.

(3) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(d) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 96-686, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-311, eff. 8-11-11; 97-468, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.5)

Sec. 12-7.5. Cyberstalking.

(a) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she engages in a course of conduct using electronic communication directed at a specific person, and he or she knows or should know that would cause a reasonable person to:

(1) fear for his or her safety or the safety of a third person; or

(2) suffer other emotional distress.

(a-3) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, on at least 2 separate occasions, harasses another person through the use of electronic communication and:

(1) at any time transmits a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint and the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person; or

(2) places that person or a family member of that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint; or

(3) at any time knowingly solicits the commission of an act by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

(a-4) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she knowingly, surreptitiously, and without lawful justification, installs or otherwise places electronic monitoring software or spyware on an electronic communication device as a means to harass another person and:

(1) at any time transmits a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint and the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person;

(2) places that person or a family member of that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint; or

(3) at any time knowingly solicits the commission of an act by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

For purposes of this Section, an installation or placement is not surreptitious if:

(1) with respect to electronic software, hardware, or computer applications, clear notice regarding the use of the specific type of tracking software or spyware is provided by the installer in advance to the owners and primary users of the electronic software, hardware, or computer application; or

(2) written or electronic consent of all owners and primary users of the electronic software, hardware, or computer application on which the tracking software or spyware will be installed has been sought and obtained through a mechanism that does not seek to obtain any other approvals or acknowledgement from the owners and primary users.

(a-5) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, creates and maintains an Internet website or webpage which is accessible to one or more third parties for a period of at least 24 hours, and which contains statements harassing another person and:

(1) which communicates a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint, where the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person, or

(2) which places that person or a family member of that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint, or

(3) which knowingly solicits the commission of an act by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

(b) Sentence. Cyberstalking is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 3 felony.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

(0.5) "Anxiety" means excessive worry and apprehensive expectations, occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, about a number of events or activities, such as work or school performance and is associated with 3 or more of the following 6 symptoms with at least some symptoms present for more days than not for the past 6 months:

(1) restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge;

(2) easily fatigued;

(3) difficulty concentrating or mind going blank;

(4) irritability;

(5) muscle tension; and

(6) sleep disturbance such as difficulty falling or staying asleep, or restless and unsatisfying sleep.

The anxiety, worry, or physical symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.

(1) "Course of conduct" means 2 or more acts, including but not limited to acts in which a defendant directly, indirectly, or through third parties, by any action, method, device, or means follows, monitors, observes, surveils, threatens, or communicates to or about, a person, engages in other non-consensual contact, or interferes with or damages a person's property or pet. The incarceration in a penal institution of a person who commits the course of conduct is not a bar to prosecution under this Section.

(2) "Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writings, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric, or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions through an electronic device including, but not limited to, a telephone, cellular phone, computer, or pager, which communication includes, but is not limited to, e-mail, instant message, text message, or voice mail.

(2.1) "Electronic communication device" means an electronic device, including, but not limited to, a wireless telephone, personal digital assistant, or a portable or mobile computer.

(2.2) "Electronic monitoring software or spyware" means software or an application that surreptitiously tracks computer activity on a device and records and transmits the information to third parties with the intent to cause injury or harm. For the purposes of this paragraph (2.2), "intent to cause injury or harm" does not include activities carried out in furtherance of the prevention of fraud or crime or of protecting the security of networks, online services, applications, software, other computer programs, users, or electronic communication devices or similar devices.

(3) "Emotional distress" means significant mental suffering, anxiety or alarm.

(4) "Harass" means to engage in a knowing and willful course of conduct directed at a specific person that alarms, torments, or terrorizes that person.

(5) "Non-consensual contact" means any contact with the victim that is initiated or continued without the victim's consent, including but not limited to being in the physical presence of the victim; appearing within the sight of the victim; approaching or confronting the victim in a public place or on private property; appearing at the workplace or residence of the victim; entering onto or remaining on property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim; or placing an object on, or delivering an object to, property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim.

(6) "Reasonable person" means a person in the victim's circumstances, with the victim's knowledge of the defendant and the defendant's prior acts.

(7) "Third party" means any person other than the person violating these provisions and the person or persons towards whom the violator's actions are directed.

(d) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(e) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(f) It is not a violation of this Section to:

(1) provide, protect, maintain, update, or upgrade networks, online services, applications, software, other computer programs, electronic communication devices, or similar devices under the terms of use applicable to those networks, services, applications, software, programs, or devices;

(2) interfere with or prohibit terms or conditions in a contract or license related to networks, online services, applications, software, other computer programs, electronic communication devices, or similar devices; or

(3) create any liability by reason of terms or conditions adopted, or technical measures implemented, to prevent the transmission of unsolicited electronic mail or communications.

(Source: P.A. 103-183, eff. 1-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.6)

Sec. 12-7.6. Cross burning.

(a) A person commits cross burning when he or she, with the intent to intimidate any other person or group of persons, burns or causes to be burned a cross.

(b) Sentence. Cross burning is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, a person acts with the "intent to intimidate" when he or she intentionally places or attempts to place another person in fear of physical injury or fear of damage to that other person's property.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-8)

Sec. 12-8. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 77-2638. Repealed by P.A. 89-657, eff. 8-14-96.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-9)

Sec. 12-9. Threatening public officials; human service providers.

(a) A person commits threatening a public official or human service provider when:

(1) that person knowingly delivers or conveys, directly or indirectly, to a public official or human service provider by any means a communication:

(i) containing a threat that would place the public official or human service provider or a member of his or her immediate family in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint; or

(ii) containing a threat that would place the public official or human service provider or a member of his or her immediate family in reasonable apprehension that damage will occur to property in the custody, care, or control of the public official or his or her immediate family; and

(2) the threat was conveyed because of the performance or nonperformance of some public duty or duty as a human service provider, because of hostility of the person making the threat toward the status or position of the public official or the human service provider, or because of any other factor related to the official's public existence.

(a-5) For purposes of a threat to a sworn law enforcement officer, the threat must contain specific facts indicative of a unique threat to the person, family or property of the officer and not a generalized threat of harm.

(a-6) For purposes of a threat to a social worker, caseworker, investigator, or human service provider, the threat must contain specific facts indicative of a unique threat to the person, family or property of the individual and not a generalized threat of harm.

(b) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Public official" means a person who is elected to office in accordance with a statute or who is appointed to an office which is established, and the qualifications and duties of which are prescribed, by statute, to discharge a public duty for the State or any of its political subdivisions or in the case of an elective office any person who has filed the required documents for nomination or election to such office. "Public official" includes a duly appointed assistant State's Attorney, assistant Attorney General, or Appellate Prosecutor; a sworn law enforcement or peace officer; a social worker, caseworker, attorney, or investigator employed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Children and Family Services, or the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission; or an assistant public guardian, attorney, social worker, case manager, or investigator employed by a duly appointed public guardian.

(1.5) "Human service provider" means a social worker, case worker, or investigator employed by an agency or organization providing social work, case work, or investigative services under a contract with or a grant from the Department of Human Services, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, or the Department on Aging.

(2) "Immediate family" means a public official's spouse or child or children.

(c) Threatening a public official or human service provider is a Class 3 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(Source: P.A. 100-1, eff. 1-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 20 heading) SUBDIVISION 20. MUTILATION (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-10)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-35 by P.A. 97-1109.)

Sec. 12-10. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 94-684, eff. 1-1-06. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-10.1)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-40 by P.A. 97-1109.)

Sec. 12-10.1. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 93-449, eff. 1-1-04; 94-684, eff. 1-1-06. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-10.2)

Sec. 12-10.2. Tongue splitting.

(a) In this Section, "tongue splitting" means the cutting of a human tongue into 2 or more parts.

(b) A person may not knowingly perform tongue splitting on another person unless the person performing the tongue splitting is licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

(c) Sentence. Tongue splitting performed in violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-10.3)

Sec. 12-10.3. False representation to a tattoo or body piercing business as the parent or legal guardian of a minor.

(a) A person, other than the parent or legal guardian of a minor, commits the offense of false representation to a tattoo or body piercing business as the parent or legal guardian of a minor when he or she falsely represents himself or herself as the parent or legal guardian of the minor to an owner or employee of a tattoo or body piercing business for the purpose of:

(1) accompanying the minor to a business that provides tattooing as required under Section 12-10 of this Code (tattooing body of minor);

(2) accompanying the minor to a business that provides body piercing as required under Section 12-10.1 of this Code (piercing the body of a minor); or

(3) furnishing the written consent required under Section 12-10.1 of this Code (piercing the body of a minor).

(b) Sentence. False representation to a tattoo or body piercing business as the parent or legal guardian of a minor is a Class C misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1311, eff. 1-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-11)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 19-6 by P.A. 97-1108.)

Sec. 12-11. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 96-1113, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-11.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-11.1)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 18-6 by P.A. 97-1108.)

Sec. 12-11.1. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 86-1392. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-12) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-12)

Sec. 12-12. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 96-233, eff. 1-1-10. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-13)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.20 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-13. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 95-640, eff. 6-1-08. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-14)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.30 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-14. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-14.1)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.40 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-14.1. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 95-640, eff. 6-1-08. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-15) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-15)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.50 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-15. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 91-389, eff. 1-1-00. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-16) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-16)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.60 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-16. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-16.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-16.2)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-5.01 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-16.2. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 86-897. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-17) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-17)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.70 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-17. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 93-389, eff. 7-25-03. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-18) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-18)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.10 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-18. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 97-244, eff. 8-4-11. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-18.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-18.1)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.80 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-18.1. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, Article 2, Section 5, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-19) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-19)

Sec. 12-19. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-20) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-20)

Sec. 12-20. Sale of body parts.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), any person who knowingly buys or sells, or offers to buy or sell, a human body or any part of a human body, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first conviction and a Class 4 felony for subsequent convictions.

(b) This Section does not prohibit:

(1) An anatomical gift made in accordance with the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Reimbursement of actual expenses incurred by a living person in donating an organ, tissue or other body part or fluid for transplantation, implantation, infusion, injection, or other medical or scientific purpose, including medical costs, loss of income, and travel expenses.

(4) Payments provided under a plan of insurance or other health care coverage.

(5) Reimbursement of reasonable costs associated with the removal, storage or transportation of a human body or part thereof donated for medical or scientific purposes.

(6) Purchase or sale of blood, plasma, blood products or derivatives, other body fluids, or human hair.

(7) Purchase or sale of drugs, reagents or other substances made from human bodies or body parts, for use in medical or scientific research, treatment or diagnosis.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-20.5)

Sec. 12-20.5. Dismembering a human body.

(a) A person commits dismembering a human body when he or she knowingly dismembers, severs, separates, dissects, or mutilates any body part of a deceased's body.

(b) This Section does not apply to:

(1) an anatomical gift made in accordance with the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act;

(2) (blank);

(3) the purchase or sale of drugs, reagents, or other substances made from human body parts, for the use in medical or scientific research, treatment, or diagnosis;

(4) persons employed by a county medical examiner's office or coroner's office acting within the scope of their employment while performing an autopsy;

(5) the acts of a licensed funeral director or embalmer while performing acts authorized by the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code;

(6) the acts of emergency medical personnel or physicians performed in good faith and according to the usual and customary standards of medical practice in an attempt to resuscitate a life; or

(7) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or holding a visiting professor, physician, or resident permit under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, performing acts in accordance with usual and customary standards of medical practice, or a currently enrolled student in an accredited medical school in furtherance of his or her education at the accredited medical school.

(c) It is not a defense to a violation of this Section that the decedent died due to natural, accidental, or suicidal causes.

(d) Sentence. Dismembering a human body is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-20.6)

Sec. 12-20.6. Abuse of a corpse.

(a) In this Section:

"Corpse" means the dead body of a human being.

"Sexual conduct" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(b) A person commits abuse of a corpse if he or she intentionally:

(1) engages in sexual conduct with a corpse or involving a corpse; or

(2) removes or carries away a corpse and is not authorized by law to do so.

(c) Sentence.

(1) A person convicted of violating paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(2) A person convicted of violating paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(d) Paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section does not apply to:

(1) persons employed by a county medical examiner's office or coroner's office acting within the scope of their employment;

(2) the acts of a licensed funeral director or embalmer while performing acts authorized by the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code;

(3) cemeteries and cemetery personnel while performing acts pursuant to a bona fide request from the involved cemetery consumer or his or her heirs, or pursuant to an interment or disinterment permit or a court order, or as authorized under Section 14.5 of the Cemetery Protection Act, or any other actions legally authorized for cemetery employees;

(4) the acts of emergency medical personnel or physicians performed in good faith and according to the usual and customary standards of medical practice in an attempt to resuscitate a life;

(5) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or holding a visiting professor, physician, or resident permit under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, performing acts in accordance with usual and customary standards of medical practice, or a currently enrolled student in an accredited medical school in furtherance of his or her education at the accredited medical school; or

(6) removing or carrying away a corpse by the employees, independent contractors, or other persons designated by the federally designated organ procurement agency engaged in the organ and tissue procurement process.

(Source: P.A. 97-1072, eff. 8-24-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-21) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-21)

Sec. 12-21. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-21.5)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-10 by P.A. 97-1109.)

Sec. 12-21.5. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 92-408, eff. 8-17-01; 92-432, eff. 8-17-01. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-21.6)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-5 by P.A. 97-1109.)

Sec. 12-21.6. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 92-408, eff. 8-17-01; 92-432, eff. 8-17-01; 92-515, eff. 6-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02. Renumbered by 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-21.6-5)

Sec. 12-21.6-5. Parent or guardian leaving custody or control of child with child sex offender.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "minor" means a person under 18 years of age; and "child sex offender" means a sex offender who is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act and is a child sex offender as defined in Sections 11-9.3 and 11-9.4 of this Code.

(b) It is unlawful for a parent or guardian of a minor to knowingly leave that minor in the custody or control of a child sex offender, or allow the child sex offender unsupervised access to the minor.

(c) This Section does not apply to leaving the minor in the custody or control of, or allowing unsupervised access to the minor by:

(1) a child sex offender who is the parent of the minor;

(2) a person convicted of a violation of subsection (c) of Section 12-15 of this Code; or

(3) a child sex offender who is married to and living in the same household with the parent or guardian of the minor.

This subsection (c) shall not be construed to allow a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of the minor victim of the sex offense if prohibited by subsection (b-6) of Section 11-9.4 of this Code.

(d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the filing of a petition or the instituting of any proceeding under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 relating to abused minors.

(Source: P.A. 96-1094, eff. 1-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-21.7)

Sec. 12-21.7. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 94-12, eff. 1-1-06. Repealed by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-22)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-15 by P.A. 97-1109.)

Sec. 12-22. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 88-479. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-30) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-30)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-3.4 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-30. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 97-311, eff. 8-11-11. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 5, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-31) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-31)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-34.5 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 12-31. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 88-392. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-32) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-32)

Sec. 12-32. Ritual mutilation.

(a) A person commits ritual mutilation when he or she knowingly mutilates, dismembers or tortures another person as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance or practice, and the victim did not consent or under such circumstances that the defendant knew or should have known that the victim was unable to render effective consent.

(b) Ritual mutilation does not include the practice of male circumcision or a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, or performance related thereto.

(c) Sentence. Ritual mutilation is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-33) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-33)

Sec. 12-33. Ritualized abuse of a child.

(a) A person commits ritualized abuse of a child when he or she knowingly commits any of the following acts with, upon, or in the presence of a child as part of a ceremony, rite or any similar observance:

(1) actually or in simulation, tortures, mutilates, or sacrifices any warm-blooded animal or human being;

(2) forces ingestion, injection or other application of any narcotic, drug, hallucinogen or anaesthetic for the purpose of dulling sensitivity, cognition, recollection of, or resistance to any criminal activity;

(3) forces ingestion, or external application, of human or animal urine, feces, flesh, blood, bones, body secretions, nonprescribed drugs or chemical compounds;

(4) involves the child in a mock, unauthorized or unlawful marriage ceremony with another person or representation of any force or deity, followed by sexual contact with the child;

(5) places a living child into a coffin or open grave containing a human corpse or remains;

(6) threatens death or serious harm to a child, his or her parents, family, pets, or friends that instills a well-founded fear in the child that the threat will be carried out; or

(7) unlawfully dissects, mutilates, or incinerates a human corpse.

(b) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to apply to:

(1) lawful agricultural, animal husbandry, food preparation, or wild game hunting and fishing practices and specifically the branding or identification of livestock;

(2) the lawful medical practice of male circumcision or any ceremony related to male circumcision;

(3) any state or federally approved, licensed, or funded research project; or

(4) the ingestion of animal flesh or blood in the performance of a religious service or ceremony.

(b-5) For the purposes of this Section, "child" means any person under 18 years of age.

(c) Ritualized abuse of a child is a Class 1 felony for a first offense. A second or subsequent conviction for ritualized abuse of a child is a Class X felony for which an offender who has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment and an offender under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense shall be sentenced under Section 5-4.5-105 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 99-69, eff. 1-1-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-34)

Sec. 12-34. Female genital mutilation.

(a) Except as otherwise permitted in subsection (b), whoever knowingly circumcises, excises, or infibulates, in whole or in part, the labia majora, labia minora, or clitoris of another commits female genital mutilation. Consent to the procedure by a minor on whom it is performed or by the minor's parent or guardian is not a defense to a violation of this Section.

(a-5) A parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of a child who knowingly facilitates or permits the circumcision, excision, or infibulation, in whole or in part, of the labia majora, labia minora, or clitoris of the child commits female genital mutilation.

(b) A surgical procedure is not a violation of subsection (a) if the procedure is performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches and:

(1) is necessary to the health of the person on whom it is performed; or

(2) is performed on a person who is in labor or who has just given birth and is performed for medical purposes connected with that labor or birth.

(c) Sentence. Female genital mutilation as described in subsection (a) is a Class X felony. Female genital mutilation as described in subsection (a-5) is a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 101-285, eff. 1-1-20.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 25 heading) SUBDIVISION 25. OTHER HARM OFFENSES (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-34.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-31)

Sec. 12-34.5. Inducement to commit suicide.

(a) A person commits inducement to commit suicide when he or she does either of the following:

(1) Knowingly coerces another to commit suicide and the other person commits or attempts to commit suicide as a direct result of the coercion, and he or she exercises substantial control over the other person through (i) control of the other person's physical location or circumstances; (ii) use of psychological pressure; or (iii) use of actual or ostensible religious, political, social, philosophical or other principles.

(2) With knowledge that another person intends to commit or attempt to commit suicide, intentionally (i) offers and provides the physical means by which another person commits or attempts to commit suicide, or (ii) participates in a physical act by which another person commits or attempts to commit suicide.

For the purposes of this Section, "attempts to commit suicide" means any act done with the intent to commit suicide and which constitutes a substantial step toward commission of suicide.

(b) Sentence. Inducement to commit suicide under paragraph (a)(1) when the other person commits suicide as a direct result of the coercion is a Class 2 felony. Inducement to commit suicide under paragraph (a)(2) when the other person commits suicide as a direct result of the assistance provided is a Class 4 felony. Inducement to commit suicide under paragraph (a)(1) when the other person attempts to commit suicide as a direct result of the coercion is a Class 3 felony. Inducement to commit suicide under paragraph (a)(2) when the other person attempts to commit suicide as a direct result of the assistance provided is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) The lawful compliance or a good-faith attempt at lawful compliance with the Illinois Living Will Act, the Health Care Surrogate Act, or the Powers of Attorney for Health Care Law is not inducement to commit suicide under paragraph (a)(2) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-35)

Sec. 12-35. Sexual conduct or sexual contact with an animal.

(a) A person may not knowingly engage in any sexual conduct or sexual contact with an animal.

(b) A person may not knowingly cause, aid, or abet another person to engage in any sexual conduct or sexual contact with an animal.

(c) A person may not knowingly permit any sexual conduct or sexual contact with an animal to be conducted on any premises under his or her charge or control.

(d) A person may not knowingly engage in, promote, aid, or abet any activity involving any sexual conduct or sexual contact with an animal for a commercial or recreational purpose.

(e) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person who violates this Section in the presence of a person under 18 years of age or causes the animal serious physical injury or death is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(f) In addition to the penalty imposed in subsection (e), the court may order that the defendant do any of the following:

(1) Not harbor animals or reside in any household where animals are present for a reasonable period of time or permanently, if necessary.

(2) Relinquish and permanently forfeit all animals residing in the household to a recognized or duly organized animal shelter or humane society.

(3) Undergo a psychological evaluation and counseling at defendant's expense.

(4) Reimburse the animal shelter or humane society for any reasonable costs incurred for the care and maintenance of the animal involved in the sexual conduct or sexual contact in addition to any animals relinquished to the animal shelter or humane society.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit accepted animal husbandry practices or accepted veterinary medical practices by a licensed veterinarian or certified veterinary technician.

(h) If the court has reasonable grounds to believe that a violation of this Section has occurred, the court may order the seizure of all animals involved in the alleged violation as a condition of bond of a person charged with a violation of this Section.

(i) In this Section:

"Animal" means every creature, either alive or dead, other than a human being.

"Sexual conduct" means any knowing touching or fondling by a person, either directly or through clothing, of the sex organs or anus of an animal or any transfer or transmission of semen by the person upon any part of the animal, for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the person.

"Sexual contact" means any contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus of a person and the sex organ, mouth, or anus of an animal, or any intrusion, however slight, of any part of the body of the person into the sex organ or anus of an animal, for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the person. Evidence of emission of semen is not required to prove sexual contact.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-36)

Sec. 12-36. Possession of unsterilized or vicious dogs by felons prohibited.

(a) For a period of 10 years commencing upon the release of a person from incarceration, it is unlawful for a person convicted of a forcible felony, a felony violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act, a felony violation of Section 26-5 or 48-1 of this Code, a felony violation of Article 24 of this Code, a felony violation of Class 3 or higher of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, a felony violation of Class 3 or higher of the Cannabis Control Act, or a felony violation of Class 2 or higher of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, to knowingly own, possess, have custody of, or reside in a residence with, either:

(1) an unspayed or unneutered dog or puppy older than 12 weeks of age; or

(2) irrespective of whether the dog has been spayed or neutered, any dog that has been determined to be a vicious dog under Section 15 of the Animal Control Act.

(b) Any dog owned, possessed by, or in the custody of a person convicted of a felony, as described in subsection (a), must be microchipped for permanent identification.

(c) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this Section that the dog in question is neutered or spayed, or that the dog in question was neutered or spayed within 7 days of the defendant being charged with a violation of this Section. Medical records from, or the certificate of, a doctor of veterinary medicine licensed to practice in the State of Illinois who has personally examined or operated upon the dog, unambiguously indicating whether the dog in question has been spayed or neutered, shall be prima facie true and correct, and shall be sufficient evidence of whether the dog in question has been spayed or neutered. This subsection (d) is not applicable to any dog that has been determined to be a vicious dog under Section 15 of the Animal Control Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-185, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-37)

Sec. 12-37. Possession and sale of caustic and noxious substances.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), it is unlawful for any person knowingly to have in his or her possession or to carry about any of the substances which are regulated by Title 16 CFR Section 1500.129 of the Federal Caustic Poison Act and are required to contain the words "causes severe burns" as the affirmative statement of principal hazard on its label.

(b) Provided that the product is not used to threaten, intimidate, injure, or cause distress to another, the restrictions of subsection (a) do not apply to:

(1) persons while engaged in the legitimate commercial manufacture, distribution, storage, or use of the specified substances;

(2) persons while engaged in legitimate scientific or medical research, study, teaching or treatment involving the use of such substances, including without limitation physicians, pharmacists, scientists, teachers, students, and employees of regularly established laboratories, manufacturing and wholesale pharmacies, retail pharmacies, medical treatment facilities, schools, colleges, and universities;

(3) persons who have procured any of the specified substances for medicinal purposes upon a prescription of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987;

(4) commercial or consumer products that contain any of the specified substances found in subsection (a) including, but not limited to, batteries;

(5) production agriculture as defined in Section 3-5 of the Use Tax Act;

(6) persons while engaged in the possession or transportation, or both, of a commercial product containing any of the substances specified in subsection (a) for retail sale;

(7) persons while engaged in the possession, transportation, or use, unrelated to a retail sale, of any of the substances specified in subsection (a); or

(8) persons engaged in the possession, transportation, or use of a commercial product containing any of the substances specified in subsection (a).

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(d) The regulation of the possession and carrying of caustic and noxious substances under this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State. A home rule unit may not regulate the possession and carrying of caustic and noxious substances and any ordinance or local law contrary to this Section is declared void. This is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 97-565, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-38)

Sec. 12-38. Restrictions on purchase or acquisition of corrosive or caustic acid.

(a) A person seeking to purchase a substance which is regulated by Title 16 CFR Section 1500.129 of the Federal Caustic Poison Act and is required to contain the words "causes severe burns" as the affirmative statement of principal hazard on its label, must prior to taking possession:

(1) provide a valid driver's license or other government-issued identification showing the person's name, date of birth, and photograph; and

(2) sign a log documenting the name and address of the person, date and time of the transaction, and the brand, product name and net weight of the item.

(b) Exemption. The requirements of subsection (a) do not apply to batteries or household products. For the purposes of this Section, "household product" means any product which is customarily produced or distributed for sale for consumption or use, or customarily stored, by individuals in or about the household, including, but not limited to, products which are customarily produced and distributed for use in or about a household as a cleaning agent, drain cleaner, pesticide, epoxy, paint, stain, or similar substance.

(c) Rules and Regulations. The Illinois State Police shall have the authority to promulgate rules for the implementation and enforcement of this Section.

(d) Sentence. Any violation of this Section is a business offense for which a fine not exceeding $150 for the first violation, $500 for the second violation, or $1,500 for the third and subsequent violations within a 12-month period shall be imposed.

(e) Preemption. The regulation of the purchase or acquisition, or both, of a caustic or corrosive substance and any registry regarding the sale or possession, or both, of a caustic or corrosive substance is an exclusive power and function of the State. A home rule unit may not regulate the purchase or acquisition of caustic or corrosive substances and any ordinance or local law contrary to this Section is declared void. This is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12A heading) ARTICLE 12A. VIOLENT VIDEO GAMES (Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12A-1)

Sec. 12A-1. Short title. This Article may be cited as the Violent Video Games Law.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12A-5)

Sec. 12A-5. Findings.

(a) The General Assembly finds that minors who play violent video games are more likely to:

(1) Exhibit violent, asocial, or aggressive behavior.

(2) Experience feelings of aggression.

(3) Experience a reduction of activity in the frontal lobes of the brain which is responsible for controlling behavior.

(b) While the video game industry has adopted its own voluntary standards describing which games are appropriate for minors, those standards are not adequately enforced.

(c) Minors are capable of purchasing and do purchase violent video games.

(d) The State has a compelling interest in assisting parents in protecting their minor children from violent video games.

(e) The State has a compelling interest in preventing violent, aggressive, and asocial behavior.

(f) The State has a compelling interest in preventing psychological harm to minors who play violent video games.

(g) The State has a compelling interest in eliminating any societal factors that may inhibit the physiological and neurological development of its youth.

(h) The State has a compelling interest in facilitating the maturation of Illinois' children into law-abiding, productive adults.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12A-10)

Sec. 12A-10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article, the following terms have the following meanings:

(a) "Video game retailer" means a person who sells or rents video games to the public.

(b) "Video game" means an object or device that stores recorded data or instructions, receives data or instructions generated by a person who uses it, and, by processing the data or instructions, creates an interactive game capable of being played, viewed, or experienced on or through a computer, gaming system, console, or other technology.

(c) "Minor" means a person under 18 years of age.

(d) "Person" includes but is not limited to an individual, corporation, partnership, and association.

(e) "Violent" video games include depictions of or simulations of human-on-human violence in which the player kills or otherwise causes serious physical harm to another human. "Serious physical harm" includes depictions of death, dismemberment, amputation, decapitation, maiming, disfigurement, mutilation of body parts, or rape.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12A-15)

Sec. 12A-15. Restricted sale or rental of violent video games.

(a) A person who sells, rents, or permits to be sold or rented, any violent video game to any minor, commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.

(b) A person who sells, rents, or permits to be sold or rented any violent video game via electronic scanner must program the electronic scanner to prompt sales clerks to check identification before the sale or rental transaction is completed. A person who violates this subsection (b) commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.

(c) A person may not sell or rent, or permit to be sold or rented, any violent video game through a self-scanning checkout mechanism. A person who violates this subsection (c) commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.

(d) A retail sales clerk shall not be found in violation of this Section unless he or she has complete knowledge that the party to whom he or she sold or rented a violent video game was a minor and the clerk sold or rented the video game to the minor with the specific intent to do so.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12A-20)

Sec. 12A-20. Affirmative defenses. In any prosecution arising under this Article, it is an affirmative defense:

(1) that the defendant was a family member of the minor for whom the video game was purchased. "Family member" for the purpose of this Section, includes a parent, sibling, grandparent, aunt, uncle, or first cousin;

(2) that the minor who purchased the video game exhibited a draft card, driver's license, birth certificate or other official or apparently official document purporting to establish that the minor was 18 years of age or older, which the defendant reasonably relied on and reasonably believed to be authentic;

(3) for the video game retailer, if the retail sales clerk had complete knowledge that the party to whom he or she sold or rented a violent video game was a minor and the clerk sold or rented the video game to the minor with the specific intent to do so; or

(4) that the video game sold or rented was pre-packaged and rated EC, E10+, E, or T by the Entertainment Software Ratings Board.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12A-25)

Sec. 12A-25. Labeling of violent video games.

(a) Video game retailers shall label all violent video games as defined in this Article, with a solid white "18" outlined in black. The "18" shall have dimensions of no less than 2 inches by 2 inches. The "18" shall be displayed on the front face of the video game package.

(b) A retailer's failure to comply with this Section is a petty offense punishable by a fine of $500 for the first 3 violations, and $1,000 for every subsequent violation.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12B heading) ARTICLE 12B. SEXUALLY EXPLICIT VIDEO GAMES (Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12B-1)

Sec. 12B-1. Short title. This Article may be cited as the Sexually Explicit Video Games Law.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12B-5)

Sec. 12B-5. Findings. The General Assembly finds sexually explicit video games inappropriate for minors and that the State has a compelling interest in assisting parents in protecting their minor children from sexually explicit video games.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12B-10)

Sec. 12B-10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article, the following terms have the following meanings:

(a) "Video game retailer" means a person who sells or rents video games to the public.

(b) "Video game" means an object or device that stores recorded data or instructions, receives data or instructions generated by a person who uses it, and, by processing the data or instructions, creates an interactive game capable of being played, viewed, or experienced on or through a computer, gaming system, console, or other technology.

(c) "Minor" means a person under 18 years of age.

(d) "Person" includes but is not limited to an individual, corporation, partnership, and association.

(e) "Sexually explicit" video games include those that the average person, applying contemporary community standards would find, with respect to minors, is designed to appeal or pander to the prurient interest and depict or represent in a manner patently offensive with respect to minors, an actual or simulated sexual act or sexual contact, an actual or simulated normal or perverted sexual act or a lewd exhibition of the genitals or post-pubescent female breast.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12B-15)

Sec. 12B-15. Restricted sale or rental of sexually explicit video games.

(a) A person who sells, rents, or permits to be sold or rented, any sexually explicit video game to any minor, commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.

(b) A person who sells, rents, or permits to be sold or rented any sexually explicit video game via electronic scanner must program the electronic scanner to prompt sales clerks to check identification before the sale or rental transaction is completed. A person who violates this subsection (b) commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.

(c) A person may not sell or rent, or permit to be sold or rented, any sexually explicit video game through a self-scanning checkout mechanism. A person who violates this subsection (c) commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.

(d) A retail sales clerk shall not be found in violation of this Section unless he or she has complete knowledge that the party to whom he or she sold or rented a sexually explicit video game was a minor and the clerk sold or rented the video game to the minor with the specific intent to do so.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12B-20)

Sec. 12B-20. Affirmative defenses. In any prosecution arising under this Article, it is an affirmative defense:

(1) that the defendant was a family member of the minor for whom the video game was purchased. "Family member" for the purpose of this Section, includes a parent, sibling, grandparent, aunt, uncle, or first cousin;

(2) that the minor who purchased the video game exhibited a draft card, driver's license, birth certificate or other official or apparently official document purporting to establish that the minor was 18 years of age or older, which the defendant reasonably relied on and reasonably believed to be authentic;

(3) for the video game retailer, if the retail sales clerk had complete knowledge that the party to whom he or she sold or rented a violent video game was a minor and the clerk sold or rented the video game to the minor with the specific intent to do so; or

(4) that the video game sold or rented was pre-packaged and rated EC, E10+, E, or T by the Entertainment Software Ratings Board.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12B-25)

Sec. 12B-25. Labeling of sexually explicit video games.

(a) Video game retailers shall label all sexually explicit video games as defined in this Act, with a solid white "18" outlined in black. The "18" shall have dimensions of no less than 2 inches by 2 inches. The "18" shall be displayed on the front face of the video game package.

(b) A retailer who fails to comply with this Section is guilty of a petty offense punishable by a fine of $500 for the first 3 violations, and $1,000 for every subsequent violation.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12B-30)

Sec. 12B-30. Posting notification of video games rating system.

(a) A retailer who sells or rents video games shall post a sign that notifies customers that a video game rating system, created by the Entertainment Software Ratings Board, is available to aid in the selection of a game. The sign shall be prominently posted in, or within 5 feet of, the area in which games are displayed for sale or rental, at the information desk if one exists, and at the point of purchase.

(b) The lettering of each sign shall be printed, at a minimum, in 36-point type and shall be in black ink against a light colored background, with dimensions of no less than 18 by 24 inches.

(c) A retailer's failure to comply with this Section is a petty offense punishable by a fine of $500 for the first 3 violations, and $1,000 for every subsequent violation.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12B-35)

Sec. 12B-35. Availability of brochure describing rating system.

(a) A video game retailer shall make available upon request a brochure to customers that explains the Entertainment Software Ratings Board ratings system.

(b) A retailer who fails to comply with this Section shall receive the punishment described in subsection (b) of Section 12B-25.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C heading) ARTICLE 12C. HARMS TO CHILDREN (Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 1 heading) SUBDIVISION 1. ENDANGERMENT AND NEGLECT OFFENSES (Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-5) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-21.6)

Sec. 12C-5. Endangering the life or health of a child.

(a) A person commits endangering the life or health of a child when he or she knowingly: (1) causes or permits the life or health of a child under the age of 18 to be endangered; or (2) causes or permits a child to be placed in circumstances that endanger the child's life or health. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(b) A trier of fact may infer that a child 6 years of age or younger is unattended if that child is left in a motor vehicle for more than 10 minutes.

(c) "Unattended" means either: (i) not accompanied by a person 14 years of age or older; or (ii) if accompanied by a person 14 years of age or older, out of sight of that person.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class 3 felony. A violation of this Section that is a proximate cause of the death of the child is a Class 3 felony for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years. A parent, who is found to be in violation of this Section with respect to his or her child, may be sentenced to probation for this offense pursuant to Section 12C-15.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-10) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-21.5)

Sec. 12C-10. Child abandonment.

(a) A person commits child abandonment when he or she, as a parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of a child, without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that child, knowingly permits a child to engage in independent activities that were unreasonable under the circumstances or for an unreasonable period of time without regard for the minor's mental or physical health, safety, or well-being. For the purposes of this Section, no specific age shall be determinative of reasonableness. Reasonableness shall be determined by the maturity of each individual child. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(b) For the purposes of determining whether the child was left without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that child, the trier of fact shall consider the following factors:

(1) the age of the child;

(2) the number of children left at the location;

(3) special needs of the child, including whether the child is a person with a physical or mental disability, or otherwise in need of ongoing prescribed medical treatment such as periodic doses of insulin or other medications;

(4) the duration of time in which the child was left without supervision;

(5) the condition and location of the place where the child was left without supervision;

(6) the time of day or night when the child was left without supervision;

(7) the weather conditions, including whether the child was left in a location with adequate protection from the natural elements such as adequate heat or light;

(8) the location of the parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of the child at the time the child was left without supervision, the physical distance the child was from the parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of the child at the time the child was without supervision;

(9) whether the child's movement was restricted, or the child was otherwise locked within a room or other structure;

(10) whether the child was given a phone number of a person or location to call in the event of an emergency and whether the child was capable of making an emergency call;

(11) whether there was food and other provision left for the child;

(12) whether any of the conduct is attributable to economic hardship or illness and the parent, guardian or other person having physical custody or control of the child made a good faith effort to provide for the health and safety of the child;

(13) the age and physical and mental capabilities of the person or persons who provided supervision for the child;

(14) any other factor that would endanger the health or safety of that particular child;

(15) whether the child was left under the supervision of another person.

(c) Child abandonment is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent offense after a prior conviction is a Class 3 felony. A parent, who is found to be in violation of this Section with respect to his or her child, may be sentenced to probation for this offense pursuant to Section 12C-15.

(Source: P.A. 103-233, eff. 6-30-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-15) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-22)

Sec. 12C-15. Child abandonment or endangerment; probation.

(a) Whenever a parent of a child as determined by the court on the facts before it, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of, with respect to his or her child, child abandonment under Section 12C-10 of this Article or endangering the life or health of a child under Section 12C-5 of this Article, the court may, without entering a judgment of guilt and with the consent of the person, defer further proceedings and place the person upon probation upon the reasonable terms and conditions as the court may require. At least one term of the probation shall require the person to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services at the times and in the programs that the Department of Children and Family Services may require.

(b) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions imposed under subsection (a), the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings. Discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be without court adjudication of guilt and shall not be considered a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. However, a record of the disposition shall be reported by the clerk of the circuit court to the Illinois State Police under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act, and the record shall be maintained and provided to any civil authority in connection with a determination of whether the person is an acceptable candidate for the care, custody and supervision of children.

(c) Discharge and dismissal under this Section may occur only once.

(d) Probation under this Section may not be for a period of less than 2 years.

(e) If the child dies of the injuries alleged, this Section shall be inapplicable.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-20)

Sec. 12C-20. Abandonment of a school bus containing children.

(a) A school bus driver commits abandonment of a school bus containing children when he or she knowingly abandons the school bus while it contains any children who are without other adult supervision, except in an emergency where the driver is seeking help or otherwise acting in the best interests of the children.

(b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense, and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-25)

Sec. 12C-25. Contributing to the dependency and neglect of a minor.

(a) Any parent, legal guardian or person having the custody of a child under the age of 18 years commits contributing to the dependency and neglect of a minor when he or she knowingly: (1) causes, aids, or encourages such minor to be or to become a dependent and neglected minor; (2) does acts which directly tend to render any such minor so dependent and neglected; or (3) fails to do that which will directly tend to prevent such state of dependency and neglect. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(b) "Dependent and neglected minor" means any child who, while under the age of 18 years, for any reason is destitute, homeless or abandoned; or dependent upon the public for support; or has not proper parental care or guardianship; or habitually begs or receives alms; or is found living in any house of ill fame or with any vicious or disreputable person; or has a home which by reason of neglect, cruelty or depravity on the part of its parents, guardian or any other person in whose care it may be is an unfit place for such child; and any child who while under the age of 10 years is found begging, peddling or selling any articles or singing or playing any musical instrument for gain upon the street or giving any public entertainments or accompanies or is used in aid of any person so doing.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) The husband or wife of the defendant shall be a competent witness to testify in any case under this Section and to all matters relevant thereto.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-30) (was 720 ILCS 5/33D-1)

Sec. 12C-30. Contributing to the delinquency or criminal delinquency of a minor.

(a) Contributing to the delinquency of a minor. A person commits contributing to the delinquency of a minor when he or she knowingly: (1) causes, aids, or encourages a minor to be or to become a delinquent minor; or (2) does acts which directly tend to render any minor so delinquent.

(b) Contributing to the criminal delinquency of a minor. A person of the age of 21 years and upwards commits contributing to the criminal delinquency of a minor when he or she, with the intent to promote or facilitate the commission of an offense solicits, compels or directs a minor in the commission of the offense that is either: (i) a felony when the minor is under the age of 17 years; or (ii) a misdemeanor when the minor is under the age of 18 years.

(c) "Delinquent minor" means any minor who prior to his or her 17th birthday has violated or attempted to violate, regardless of where the act occurred, any federal or State law or county or municipal ordinance, and any minor who prior to his or her 18th birthday has violated or attempted to violate, regardless of where the act occurred, any federal or State law or county or municipal ordinance classified as a misdemeanor offense.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) is:

(i) a Class C misdemeanor if the offense committed is a petty offense or a business offense;

(ii) a Class B misdemeanor if the offense committed is a Class C misdemeanor;

(iii) a Class A misdemeanor if the offense committed is a Class B misdemeanor;

(iv) a Class 4 felony if the offense committed is a Class A misdemeanor;

(v) a Class 3 felony if the offense committed is a Class 4 felony;

(vi) a Class 2 felony if the offense committed is a Class 3 felony;

(vii) a Class 1 felony if the offense committed is a Class 2 felony; and

(viii) a Class X felony if the offense committed is a Class 1 felony or a Class X felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (b) incurs the same penalty as first degree murder if the committed offense is first degree murder.

(e) The husband or wife of the defendant shall be a competent witness to testify in any case under this Section and to all matters relevant thereto.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 5 heading) SUBDIVISION 5. BODILY HARM OFFENSES (Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-35) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-10)

Sec. 12C-35. Tattooing the body of a minor.

(a) A person, other than a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, commits tattooing the body of a minor when he or she knowingly or recklessly tattoos or offers to tattoo a person under the age of 18.

(b) A person who is an owner or employee of a business that performs tattooing, other than a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, may not permit a person under 18 years of age to enter or remain on the premises where tattooing is being performed unless the person under 18 years of age is accompanied by his or her parent or legal guardian.

(c) "Tattoo" means to insert pigment under the surface of the skin of a human being, by pricking with a needle or otherwise, so as to produce an indelible mark or figure visible through the skin.

(d) Subsection (a) of this Section does not apply to a person under 18 years of age who tattoos or offers to tattoo another person under 18 years of age away from the premises of any business at which tattooing is performed.

(d-5) Subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply to the removal of a tattoo from a person under 18 years of age, who is a victim of a violation of Section 10-9 of this Code or who is or has been a streetgang member as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act, if the removal of the tattoo is performed in an establishment or multi-type establishment which has received a certificate of registration from the Department of Public Health or its agent under the Tattoo and Body Piercing Establishment Registration Act and the removal of the tattoo is performed by the operator or an authorized employee of the operator of the establishment or multi-type establishment. For the purposes of this subsection (d-5), "tattoo" also means the indelible mark or figure visible through the skin created by tattooing.

(e) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-936, eff. 8-15-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-40) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-10.1)

Sec. 12C-40. Piercing the body of a minor.

(a)(1) A person commits piercing the body of a minor when he or she knowingly or recklessly pierces the body of a person under 18 years of age without written consent of a parent or legal guardian of that person. Before the oral cavity of a person under 18 years of age may be pierced, the written consent form signed by the parent or legal guardian must contain a provision in substantially the following form:

"I understand that the oral piercing of the tongue, lips, cheeks, or any other area of the oral cavity carries serious risk of infection or damage to the mouth and teeth, or both infection and damage to those areas, that could result but is not limited to nerve damage, numbness, and life threatening blood clots.".

A person who pierces the oral cavity of a person under 18 years of age without obtaining a signed written consent form from a parent or legal guardian of the person that includes the provision describing the health risks of body piercing, violates this Section.

(2) A person who is an owner or employed by a business that performs body piercing may not permit a person under 18 years of age to enter or remain on the premises where body piercing is being performed unless the person under 18 years of age is accompanied by his or her parent or legal guardian.

(b) "Pierce" means to make a hole in the body in order to insert or allow the insertion of any ring, hoop, stud, or other object for the purpose of ornamentation of the body. "Piercing" does not include tongue splitting as defined in Section 12-10.2. The term "body" includes the oral cavity.

(c) Exceptions. This Section may not be construed in any way to prohibit any injection, incision, acupuncture, or similar medical or dental procedure performed by a licensed health care professional or other person authorized to perform that procedure or the presence on the premises where that procedure is being performed by a health care professional or other person authorized to perform that procedure of a person under 18 years of age who is not accompanied by a parent or legal guardian. This Section does not prohibit ear piercing. This Section does not apply to a minor emancipated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or the Emancipation of Minors Act or by marriage. This Section does not apply to a person under 18 years of age who pierces the body or oral cavity of another person under 18 years of age away from the premises of any business at which body piercing or oral cavity piercing is performed.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-45) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4.9)

Sec. 12C-45. Drug induced infliction of harm to a child athlete.

(a) A person commits drug induced infliction of harm to a child athlete when he or she knowingly distributes a drug to or encourages the ingestion of a drug by a person under the age of 18 with the intent that the person under the age of 18 ingest the drug for the purpose of a quick weight gain or loss in connection with participation in athletics.

(b) This Section does not apply to care under usual and customary standards of medical practice by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or to the sale of drugs or products by a retail merchant.

(c) Drug induced infliction of harm to a child athlete is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-50)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-765)

Sec. 12C-50. Hazing.

(a) A person commits hazing when he or she knowingly requires the performance of any act by a student or other person in a school, college, university, or other educational institution of this State, for the purpose of induction or admission into any group, organization, or society associated or connected with that institution, if:

(1) the act is not sanctioned or authorized by that educational institution; and

(2) the act results in bodily harm to any person.

(b) Sentence. Hazing is a Class A misdemeanor, except that hazing that results in death or great bodily harm is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-765)

Sec. 12C-50. Hazing.

(a) A person commits hazing when he or she knowingly requires the performance of any act by a student or other person in a school, college, university, or other educational institution of this State, for the purpose of induction or admission into any group, organization, or society associated or connected with that institution, if:

(1) the act is not sanctioned or authorized by that educational institution; and

(2) the act results in bodily harm to any person.

(a-1) It is not a defense to a prosecution under subsection (a) that the person against whom the hazing was directed consented to or acquiesced in the hazing.

(b) Sentence. Hazing is a Class A misdemeanor, except that hazing that results in death or great bodily harm is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 103-765, eff. 1-1-25.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-50.1)

Sec. 12C-50.1. Failure to report hazing.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "school official" includes any and all paid school administrators, teachers, counselors, support staff, and coaches and any and all volunteer coaches employed by a school, college, university, or other educational institution of this State.

(b) A school official commits failure to report hazing when:

(1) while fulfilling his or her official responsibilities as a school official, he or she personally observes an act which is not sanctioned or authorized by that educational institution;

(2) the act results in bodily harm to any person; and

(3) the school official knowingly fails to report the act to supervising educational authorities or, in the event of death or great bodily harm, to law enforcement.

(c) Sentence. Failure to report hazing is a Class B misdemeanor. If the act which the person failed to report resulted in death or great bodily harm, the offense is a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of failure to report hazing under this Section that the person who personally observed the act had a reasonable apprehension that timely action to stop the act would result in the imminent infliction of death, great bodily harm, permanent disfigurement, or permanent disability to that person or another in retaliation for reporting.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow prosecution of a person who personally observes the act of hazing and assists with an investigation and any subsequent prosecution of the offender.

(Source: P.A. 98-393, eff. 8-16-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 10 heading) SUBDIVISION 10. CURFEW OFFENSES (Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-60)

Sec. 12C-60. Curfew.

(a) Curfew offenses.

(1) A minor commits a curfew offense when he or she remains in any public place or on the premises of any establishment during curfew hours.

(2) A parent or guardian of a minor or other person in custody or control of a minor commits a curfew offense when he or she knowingly permits the minor to remain in any public place or on the premises of any establishment during curfew hours.

(b) Curfew defenses. It is a defense to prosecution under subsection (a) that the minor was:

(1) accompanied by the minor's parent or guardian or other person in custody or control of the minor;

(2) on an errand at the direction of the minor's parent or guardian, without any detour or stop;

(3) in a motor vehicle involved in interstate travel;

(4) engaged in an employment activity or going to or returning home from an employment activity, without any detour or stop;

(5) involved in an emergency;

(6) on the sidewalk abutting the minor's residence or abutting the residence of a next-door neighbor if the neighbor did not complain to the police department about the minor's presence;

(7) attending an official school, religious, or other recreational activity supervised by adults and sponsored by a government or governmental agency, a civic organization, or another similar entity that takes responsibility for the minor, or going to or returning home from, without any detour or stop, an official school, religious, or other recreational activity supervised by adults and sponsored by a government or governmental agency, a civic organization, or another similar entity that takes responsibility for the minor;

(8) exercising First Amendment rights protected by the United States Constitution, such as the free exercise of religion, freedom of speech, and the right of assembly; or

(9) married or had been married or is an emancipated minor under the Emancipation of Minors Act.

(c) Enforcement. Before taking any enforcement action under this Section, a law enforcement officer shall ask the apparent offender's age and reason for being in the public place. The officer shall not issue a citation or make an arrest under this Section unless the officer reasonably believes that an offense has occurred and that, based on any response and other circumstances, no defense in subsection (b) is present.

(d) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Curfew hours" means:

(A) Between 12:01 a.m. and 6:00 a.m. on Saturday;

(B) Between 12:01 a.m. and 6:00 a.m. on Sunday; and

(C) Between 11:00 p.m. on Sunday to Thursday, inclusive, and 6:00 a.m. on the following day.

(2) "Emergency" means an unforeseen combination of circumstances or the resulting state that calls for immediate action. The term includes, but is not limited to, a fire, a natural disaster, an automobile crash, or any situation requiring immediate action to prevent serious bodily injury or loss of life.

(3) "Establishment" means any privately-owned place of business operated for a profit to which the public is invited, including, but not limited to, any place of amusement or entertainment.

(4) "Guardian" means:

(A) a person who, under court order, is the guardian of the person of a minor; or

(B) a public or private agency with whom a minor has been placed by a court.

(5) "Minor" means any person under 17 years of age.

(6) "Parent" means a person who is:

(A) a natural parent, adoptive parent, or step-parent of another person; or

(B) at least 18 years of age and authorized by a parent or guardian to have the care and custody of a minor.

(7) "Public place" means any place to which the public or a substantial group of the public has access and includes, but is not limited to, streets, highways, and the common areas of schools, hospitals, apartment houses, office buildings, transport facilities, and shops.

(8) "Remain" means to:

(A) linger or stay; or

(B) fail to leave premises when requested to do so by a police officer or the owner, operator, or other person in control of the premises.

(9) "Serious bodily injury" means bodily injury that creates a substantial risk of death or that causes death, serious permanent disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.

(e) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a petty offense with a fine of not less than $10 nor more than $500, except that neither a person who has been made a ward of the court under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, nor that person's legal guardian, shall be subject to any fine. In addition to or instead of the fine imposed by this Section, the court may order a parent, legal guardian, or other person convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of this Section to perform community service as determined by the court, except that the legal guardian of a person subject to delinquency proceedings or who has been made a ward of the court under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may not be ordered to perform community service. The dates and times established for the performance of community service by the parent, legal guardian, or other person convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of this Section shall not conflict with the dates and times that the person is employed in his or her regular occupation. Fines and assessments, such as fees or administrative costs, shall not be ordered or imposed against a minor under the age of 18 transferred to adult court or excluded from juvenile court jurisdiction under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(f) County, municipal and other local boards and bodies authorized to adopt local police laws and regulations under the constitution and laws of this State may exercise legislative or regulatory authority over this subject matter by ordinance or resolution incorporating the substance of this Section or increasing the requirements thereof or otherwise not in conflict with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 15 heading) SUBDIVISION 15. MISCELLANEOUS OFFENSES (Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-65) (was 720 ILCS 5/44-2 and 5/44-3)

Sec. 12C-65. Unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor.

(a) A person commits unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor when he or she gives, sells or otherwise transfers possession of a telecommunications device to a person under 18 years of age with the intent that the device be used to commit any offense under this Code, the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b) "Telecommunications device" or "device" means a device which is portable or which may be installed in a motor vehicle, boat or other means of transportation, and which is capable of receiving or transmitting speech, data, signals or other information, including but not limited to paging devices, cellular and mobile telephones, and radio transceivers, transmitters and receivers, but not including radios designed to receive only standard AM and FM broadcasts.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) Seizure and forfeiture of property. Any person who commits the offense of unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor as set forth in this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-70)

Sec. 12C-70. Adoption compensation prohibited.

(a) Receipt of compensation for placing out prohibited; exception. No person and no agency, association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization, except a child welfare agency as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969, shall knowingly request, receive or accept any compensation or thing of value, directly or indirectly, for providing adoption services, as defined in Section 2.24 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) Payment of compensation for placing out prohibited. No person shall knowingly pay or give any compensation or thing of value, directly or indirectly, for providing adoption services, as defined in Section 2.24 of the Child Care Act of 1969, including placing out of a child to any person or to any agency, association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization except a child welfare agency as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(c) Certain payments of salaries and medical expenses not prevented.

(1) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to prevent the payment of salaries or other compensation by a licensed child welfare agency providing adoption services, as that term is defined by the Child Care Act of 1969, to the officers, employees, agents, contractors, or any other persons acting on behalf of the child welfare agency, provided that such salaries and compensation are consistent with subsection (a) of Section 14.5 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(2) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to prevent the payment by a prospective adoptive parent of reasonable and actual medical fees or hospital charges for services rendered in connection with the birth of such child, if such payment is made to the physician or hospital who or which rendered the services or to the biological mother of the child or to prevent the receipt of such payment by such physician, hospital, or mother.

(3) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to prevent a prospective adoptive parent from giving a gift or gifts or other thing or things of value to a biological parent provided that the total value of such gift or gifts or thing or things of value does not exceed $200.

(d) Payment of certain expenses.

(1) A prospective adoptive parent shall be permitted to pay the reasonable living expenses of the biological parents of the child sought to be adopted, in addition to those expenses set forth in subsection (c), only in accordance with the provisions of this subsection (d).

"Reasonable living expenses" means those expenses related to activities of daily living and meeting basic needs, including, but not limited to, lodging, food, and clothing for the biological parents during the biological mother's pregnancy and for no more than 120 days prior to the biological mother's expected date of delivery and for no more than 60 days after the birth of the child. The term does not include expenses for lost wages, gifts, educational expenses, or other similar expenses of the biological parents.

(2)(A) The prospective adoptive parents may seek leave of the court to pay the reasonable living expenses of the biological parents. They shall be permitted to pay the reasonable living expenses of the biological parents only upon prior order of the circuit court where the petition for adoption will be filed, or if the petition for adoption has been filed in the circuit court where the petition is pending.

(B) Notwithstanding clause (2)(A) of this subsection (d), a prospective adoptive parent may advance a maximum of $1,000 for reasonable birth parent living expenses without prior order of court. The prospective adoptive parents shall present a final accounting of all expenses to the court prior to the entry of a final judgment order for adoption.

(C) If the court finds an accounting by the prospective adoptive parents to be incomplete or deceptive or to contain amounts which are unauthorized or unreasonable, the court may order a new accounting or the repayment of amounts found to be excessive or unauthorized or make any other orders it deems appropriate.

(3) Payments under this subsection (d) shall be permitted only in those circumstances where there is a demonstrated need for the payment of such expenses to protect the health of the biological parents or the health of the child sought to be adopted.

(4) Payment of their reasonable living expenses, as provided in this subsection (d), shall not obligate the biological parents to place the child for adoption. In the event the biological parents choose not to place the child for adoption, the prospective adoptive parents shall have no right to seek reimbursement from the biological parents, or from any relative or associate of the biological parents, of moneys paid to, or on behalf of, the biological parents pursuant to a court order under this subsection (d).

(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), a prospective adoptive parent may seek reimbursement of reasonable living expenses from a person who receives such payments only if the person who accepts payment of reasonable living expenses before the child's birth, as described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), knows that the person on whose behalf he or she is accepting payment is not pregnant at the time of the receipt of such payments or the person receives reimbursement for reasonable living expenses simultaneously from more than one prospective adoptive parent without the knowledge of the prospective adoptive parent.

(6) No person or entity shall offer, provide, or co-sign a loan or any other credit accommodation, directly or indirectly, with a biological parent or a relative or associate of a biological parent based on the contingency of a surrender or placement of a child for adoption.

(7) Within 14 days after the completion of all payments for reasonable living expenses of the biological parents under this subsection (d), the prospective adoptive parents shall present a final accounting of all those expenses to the court. The accounting shall also include the verified statements of the prospective adoptive parents, each attorney of record, and the biological parents or parents to whom or on whose behalf the payments were made attesting to the accuracy of the accounting.

(8) If the placement of a child for adoption is made in accordance with the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children, and if the sending state permits the payment of any expenses of biological parents that are not permitted under this Section, then the payment of those expenses shall not be a violation of this Section. In that event, the prospective adoptive parents shall file an accounting of all payments of the expenses of the biological parent or parents with the court in which the petition for adoption is filed or is to be filed. The accounting shall include a copy of the statutory provisions of the sending state that permit payments in addition to those permitted by this Section and a copy of all orders entered in the sending state that relate to expenses of the biological parents paid by the prospective adoptive parents in the sending state.

(9) The prospective adoptive parents shall be permitted to pay the reasonable attorney's fees of a biological parent's attorney in connection with proceedings under this Section or in connection with proceedings for the adoption of the child if the amount of fees of the attorney is $1,000 or less. If the amount of attorney's fees of each biological parent exceeds $1,000, the attorney's fees shall be paid only after a petition seeking leave to pay those fees is filed with the court in which the adoption proceeding is filed or to be filed. The court shall review the petition for leave to pay attorney's fees, and if the court determines that the fees requested are reasonable, the court shall permit the petitioners to pay them. If the court determines that the fees requested are not reasonable, the court shall determine and set the reasonable attorney's fees of the biological parents' attorney which may be paid by the petitioners. The prospective adoptive parents shall present a final accounting of all those fees to the court prior to the entry of a final judgment order for adoption.

(10) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem for an unborn child to represent the interests of the child in proceedings under this subsection (d).

(11) The provisions of this subsection (d) apply to a person who is a prospective adoptive parent. This subsection (d) does not apply to a licensed child welfare agency, as that term is defined in the Child Care Act of 1969, whose payments are governed by the Child Care Act of 1969 and the Department of Children and Family Services rules adopted thereunder.

(e) Injunctive relief.

(A) Whenever it appears that any person, agency, association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization is engaged or about to engage in any acts or practices that constitute or will constitute a violation of this Section, the Department of Children and Family Services shall inform the Attorney General and the State's Attorney of the appropriate county. Under such circumstances, the Attorney General or the State's Attorney may initiate injunction proceedings. Upon a proper showing, any circuit court may enter a permanent or preliminary injunction or temporary restraining order without bond to enforce this Section or any rule adopted under this Section in addition to any other penalties and other remedies provided in this Section.

(B) Whenever it appears that any person, agency, association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization is engaged or is about to engage in any act or practice that constitutes or will constitute a violation of any rule adopted under the authority of this Section, the Department of Children and Family Services may inform the Attorney General and the State's Attorney of the appropriate county. Under such circumstances, the Attorney General or the State's Attorney may initiate injunction proceedings. Upon a proper showing, any circuit court may enter a permanent or preliminary injunction or a temporary restraining order without bond to enforce this Section or any rule adopted under this Section, in addition to any other penalties and remedies provided in this Section.

(f) A violation of this Section on a first conviction is a Class 4 felony, and on a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 3 felony.

(g) "Adoption services" has the meaning given that term in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(h) "Placing out" means to arrange for the free care or placement of a child in a family other than that of the child's parent, stepparent, grandparent, brother, sister, uncle or aunt or legal guardian, for the purpose of adoption or for the purpose of providing care.

(i) "Prospective adoptive parent" means a person or persons who have filed or intend to file a petition to adopt a child under the Adoption Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 14 heading) ARTICLE 14. EAVESDROPPING

(720 ILCS 5/14-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-1)

Sec. 14-1. Definitions.

(a) Eavesdropping device.

An eavesdropping device is any device capable of being used to hear or record oral conversation or intercept, or transcribe electronic communications whether such conversation or electronic communication is conducted in person, by telephone, or by any other means; Provided, however, that this definition shall not include devices used for the restoration of the deaf or hard-of-hearing to normal or partial hearing.

(b) Eavesdropper.

An eavesdropper is any person, including any law enforcement officer and any party to a private conversation, who operates or participates in the operation of any eavesdropping device contrary to the provisions of this Article or who acts as a principal, as defined in this Article.

(c) Principal.

A principal is any person who:

(1) Knowingly employs another who illegally uses an eavesdropping device in the course of such employment; or

(2) Knowingly derives any benefit or information from the illegal use of an eavesdropping device by another; or

(3) Directs another to use an eavesdropping device illegally on his or her behalf.

(d) Private conversation.

For the purposes of this Article, "private conversation" means any oral communication between 2 or more persons, whether in person or transmitted between the parties by wire or other means, when one or more of the parties intended the communication to be of a private nature under circumstances reasonably justifying that expectation. A reasonable expectation shall include any expectation recognized by law, including, but not limited to, an expectation derived from a privilege, immunity, or right established by common law, Supreme Court rule, or the Illinois or United States Constitution.

(e) Private electronic communication.

For purposes of this Article, "private electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writing, images, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or part by a wire, radio, pager, computer, electromagnetic, photo electronic or photo optical system, when the sending or receiving party intends the electronic communication to be private under circumstances reasonably justifying that expectation. A reasonable expectation shall include any expectation recognized by law, including, but not limited to, an expectation derived from a privilege, immunity, or right established by common law, Supreme Court rule, or the Illinois or United States Constitution. Electronic communication does not include any communication from a tracking device.

(f) Bait car.

For purposes of this Article, "bait car" means any motor vehicle that is not occupied by a law enforcement officer and is used by a law enforcement agency to deter, detect, identify, and assist in the apprehension of an auto theft suspect in the act of stealing a motor vehicle.

(g) Surreptitious.

For purposes of this Article, "surreptitious" means obtained or made by stealth or deception, or executed through secrecy or concealment.

(Source: P.A. 98-1142, eff. 12-30-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-2)

Sec. 14-2. Elements of the offense; affirmative defense.

(a) A person commits eavesdropping when he or she knowingly and intentionally:

(1) Uses an eavesdropping device, in a surreptitious manner, for the purpose of overhearing, transmitting, or recording all or any part of any private conversation to which he or she is not a party unless he or she does so with the consent of all of the parties to the private conversation;

(2) Uses an eavesdropping device, in a surreptitious manner, for the purpose of transmitting or recording all or any part of any private conversation to which he or she is a party unless he or she does so with the consent of all other parties to the private conversation;

(3) Intercepts, records, or transcribes, in a surreptitious manner, any private electronic communication to which he or she is not a party unless he or she does so with the consent of all parties to the private electronic communication;

(4) Manufactures, assembles, distributes, or possesses any electronic, mechanical, eavesdropping, or other device knowing that or having reason to know that the design of the device renders it primarily useful for the purpose of the surreptitious overhearing, transmitting, or recording of private conversations or the interception, or transcription of private electronic communications and the intended or actual use of the device is contrary to the provisions of this Article; or

(5) Uses or discloses any information which he or she knows or reasonably should know was obtained from a private conversation or private electronic communication in violation of this Article, unless he or she does so with the consent of all of the parties.

(a-5) It does not constitute a violation of this Article to surreptitiously use an eavesdropping device to overhear, transmit, or record a private conversation, or to surreptitiously intercept, record, or transcribe a private electronic communication, if the overhearing, transmitting, recording, interception, or transcription is done in accordance with Article 108A or Article 108B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(b) It is an affirmative defense to a charge brought under this Article relating to the interception of a privileged communication that the person charged:

1. was a law enforcement officer acting pursuant to an order of interception, entered pursuant to Section 108A-1 or 108B-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; and

2. at the time the communication was intercepted, the officer was unaware that the communication was privileged; and

3. stopped the interception within a reasonable time after discovering that the communication was privileged; and

4. did not disclose the contents of the communication.

(c) It is not unlawful for a manufacturer or a supplier of eavesdropping devices, or a provider of wire or electronic communication services, their agents, employees, contractors, or venders to manufacture, assemble, sell, or possess an eavesdropping device within the normal course of their business for purposes not contrary to this Article or for law enforcement officers and employees of the Illinois Department of Corrections to manufacture, assemble, purchase, or possess an eavesdropping device in preparation for or within the course of their official duties.

(d) The interception, recording, or transcription of an electronic communication by an employee of a penal institution is not prohibited under this Act, provided that the interception, recording, or transcription is:

(1) otherwise legally permissible under Illinois law;

(2) conducted with the approval of the penal institution for the purpose of investigating or enforcing a State criminal law or a penal institution rule or regulation with respect to inmates in the institution; and

(3) within the scope of the employee's official duties.

For the purposes of this subsection (d), "penal institution" has the meaning ascribed to it in clause (c)(1) of Section 31A-1.1.

(e) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit any individual, not a law enforcement officer, from recording a law enforcement officer in the performance of his or her duties in a public place or in circumstances in which the officer has no reasonable expectation of privacy. However, an officer may take reasonable action to maintain safety and control, secure crime scenes and accident sites, protect the integrity and confidentiality of investigations, and protect the public safety and order.

(Source: P.A. 98-1142, eff. 12-30-14; 99-352, eff. 1-1-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-3)

Sec. 14-3. Exemptions. The following activities shall be exempt from the provisions of this Article:

(a) Listening to radio, wireless electronic communications, and television communications of any sort where the same are publicly made;

(b) Hearing conversation when heard by employees of any common carrier by wire incidental to the normal course of their employment in the operation, maintenance or repair of the equipment of such common carrier by wire so long as no information obtained thereby is used or divulged by the hearer;

(c) Any broadcast by radio, television or otherwise whether it be a broadcast or recorded for the purpose of later broadcasts of any function where the public is in attendance and the conversations are overheard incidental to the main purpose for which such broadcasts are then being made;

(d) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to any emergency communication made in the normal course of operations by any federal, state or local law enforcement agency or institutions dealing in emergency services, including, but not limited to, hospitals, clinics, ambulance services, fire fighting agencies, any public utility, emergency repair facility, civilian defense establishment or military installation;

(e) Recording the proceedings of any meeting required to be open by the Open Meetings Act, as amended;

(f) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to incoming telephone calls of phone lines publicly listed or advertised as consumer "hotlines" by manufacturers or retailers of food and drug products. Such recordings must be destroyed, erased or turned over to local law enforcement authorities within 24 hours from the time of such recording and shall not be otherwise disseminated. Failure on the part of the individual or business operating any such recording or listening device to comply with the requirements of this subsection shall eliminate any civil or criminal immunity conferred upon that individual or business by the operation of this Section;

(g) With prior notification to the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded under circumstances where the use of the device is necessary for the protection of the law enforcement officer or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, in the course of an investigation of a forcible felony, a felony offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons under Section 10-9 of this Code, an offense involving prostitution, solicitation of a sexual act, or pandering, a felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, a felony violation of the Cannabis Control Act, a felony violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, any "streetgang related" or "gang-related" felony as those terms are defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act, or any felony offense involving any weapon listed in paragraphs (1) through (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of this Code. Any recording or evidence derived as the result of this exemption shall be inadmissible in any proceeding, criminal, civil or administrative, except (i) where a party to the conversation suffers great bodily injury or is killed during such conversation, or (ii) when used as direct impeachment of a witness concerning matters contained in the interception or recording. The Director of the Illinois State Police shall issue regulations as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of tape recordings, and reports regarding their use;

(g-5) (Blank);

(g-6) With approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age. In all such cases, an application for an order approving the previous or continuing use of an eavesdropping device must be made within 48 hours of the commencement of such use. In the absence of such an order, or upon its denial, any continuing use shall immediately terminate. The Director of the Illinois State Police shall issue rules as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of recordings, and reports regarding their use. Any recording or evidence obtained or derived in the course of an investigation of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age shall, upon motion of the State's Attorney or Attorney General prosecuting any case involving child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age be reviewed in camera with notice to all parties present by the court presiding over the criminal case, and, if ruled by the court to be relevant and otherwise admissible, it shall be admissible at the trial of the criminal case. Absent such a ruling, any such recording or evidence shall not be admissible at the trial of the criminal case;

(h) Recordings made simultaneously with the use of an in-car video camera recording of an oral conversation between a uniformed peace officer, who has identified his or her office, and a person in the presence of the peace officer whenever (i) an officer assigned a patrol vehicle is conducting an enforcement stop; or (ii) patrol vehicle emergency lights are activated or would otherwise be activated if not for the need to conceal the presence of law enforcement.

For the purposes of this subsection (h), "enforcement stop" means an action by a law enforcement officer in relation to enforcement and investigation duties, including but not limited to, traffic stops, pedestrian stops, abandoned vehicle contacts, motorist assists, commercial motor vehicle stops, roadside safety checks, requests for identification, or responses to requests for emergency assistance;

(h-5) Recordings of utterances made by a person while in the presence of a uniformed peace officer and while an occupant of a police vehicle including, but not limited to, (i) recordings made simultaneously with the use of an in-car video camera and (ii) recordings made in the presence of the peace officer utilizing video or audio systems, or both, authorized by the law enforcement agency;

(h-10) Recordings made simultaneously with a video camera recording during the use of a taser or similar weapon or device by a peace officer if the weapon or device is equipped with such camera;

(h-15) Recordings made under subsection (h), (h-5), or (h-10) shall be retained by the law enforcement agency that employs the peace officer who made the recordings for a storage period of 90 days, unless the recordings are made as a part of an arrest or the recordings are deemed evidence in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding and then the recordings must only be destroyed upon a final disposition and an order from the court. Under no circumstances shall any recording be altered or erased prior to the expiration of the designated storage period. Upon completion of the storage period, the recording medium may be erased and reissued for operational use;

(i) Recording of a conversation made by or at the request of a person, not a law enforcement officer or agent of a law enforcement officer, who is a party to the conversation, under reasonable suspicion that another party to the conversation is committing, is about to commit, or has committed a criminal offense against the person or a member of his or her immediate household, and there is reason to believe that evidence of the criminal offense may be obtained by the recording;

(j) The use of a telephone monitoring device by either (1) a corporation or other business entity engaged in marketing or opinion research or (2) a corporation or other business entity engaged in telephone solicitation, as defined in this subsection, to record or listen to oral telephone solicitation conversations or marketing or opinion research conversations by an employee of the corporation or other business entity when:

(i) the monitoring is used for the purpose of service quality control of marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, the education or training of employees or contractors engaged in marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, or internal research related to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation; and

(ii) the monitoring is used with the consent of at least one person who is an active party to the marketing or opinion research conversation or telephone solicitation conversation being monitored.

No communication or conversation or any part, portion, or aspect of the communication or conversation made, acquired, or obtained, directly or indirectly, under this exemption (j), may be, directly or indirectly, furnished to any law enforcement officer, agency, or official for any purpose or used in any inquiry or investigation, or used, directly or indirectly, in any administrative, judicial, or other proceeding, or divulged to any third party.

When recording or listening authorized by this subsection (j) on telephone lines used for marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation purposes results in recording or listening to a conversation that does not relate to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation; the person recording or listening shall, immediately upon determining that the conversation does not relate to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, terminate the recording or listening and destroy any such recording as soon as is practicable.

Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall provide current and prospective employees with notice that the monitoring or recordings may occur during the course of their employment. The notice shall include prominent signage notification within the workplace.

Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall provide their employees or agents with access to personal-only telephone lines which may be pay telephones, that are not subject to telephone monitoring or telephone recording.

For the purposes of this subsection (j), "telephone solicitation" means a communication through the use of a telephone by live operators:

(i) soliciting the sale of goods or services;

(ii) receiving orders for the sale of goods or services;

(iii) assisting in the use of goods or services; or

(iv) engaging in the solicitation, administration, or collection of bank or retail credit accounts.

For the purposes of this subsection (j), "marketing or opinion research" means a marketing or opinion research interview conducted by a live telephone interviewer engaged by a corporation or other business entity whose principal business is the design, conduct, and analysis of polls and surveys measuring the opinions, attitudes, and responses of respondents toward products and services, or social or political issues, or both;

(k) Electronic recordings, including but not limited to, a motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of a custodial interrogation of an individual at a police station or other place of detention by a law enforcement officer under Section 5-401.5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or Section 103-2.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(l) Recording the interview or statement of any person when the person knows that the interview is being conducted by a law enforcement officer or prosecutor and the interview takes place at a police station that is currently participating in the Custodial Interview Pilot Program established under the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act;

(m) An electronic recording, including but not limited to, a motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of the interior of a school bus while the school bus is being used in the transportation of students to and from school and school-sponsored activities, when the school board has adopted a policy authorizing such recording, notice of such recording policy is included in student handbooks and other documents including the policies of the school, notice of the policy regarding recording is provided to parents of students, and notice of such recording is clearly posted on the door of and inside the school bus.

Recordings made pursuant to this subsection (m) shall be confidential records and may only be used by school officials (or their designees) and law enforcement personnel for investigations, school disciplinary actions and hearings, proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and criminal prosecutions, related to incidents occurring in or around the school bus;

(n) Recording or listening to an audio transmission from a microphone placed by a person under the authority of a law enforcement agency inside a bait car surveillance vehicle while simultaneously capturing a photographic or video image;

(o) The use of an eavesdropping camera or audio device during an ongoing hostage or barricade situation by a law enforcement officer or individual acting on behalf of a law enforcement officer when the use of such device is necessary to protect the safety of the general public, hostages, or law enforcement officers or anyone acting on their behalf;

(p) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to incoming telephone calls of phone lines publicly listed or advertised as the "CPS Violence Prevention Hotline", but only where the notice of recording is given at the beginning of each call as required by Section 34-21.8 of the School Code. The recordings may be retained only by the Chicago Police Department or other law enforcement authorities, and shall not be otherwise retained or disseminated;

(q)(1) With prior request to and written or verbal approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which the conversation is anticipated to occur, recording or listening with the aid of an eavesdropping device to a conversation in which a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer, is a party to the conversation and has consented to the conversation being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of a qualified offense. The State's Attorney may grant this approval only after determining that reasonable cause exists to believe that inculpatory conversations concerning a qualified offense will occur with a specified individual or individuals within a designated period of time.

(2) Request for approval. To invoke the exception contained in this subsection (q), a law enforcement officer shall make a request for approval to the appropriate State's Attorney. The request may be written or verbal; however, a written memorialization of the request must be made by the State's Attorney. This request for approval shall include whatever information is deemed necessary by the State's Attorney but shall include, at a minimum, the following information about each specified individual whom the law enforcement officer believes will commit a qualified offense:

(A) his or her full or partial name, nickname or alias;

(B) a physical description; or

(C) failing either (A) or (B) of this paragraph (2), any other supporting information known to the law enforcement officer at the time of the request that gives rise to reasonable cause to believe that the specified individual will participate in an inculpatory conversation concerning a qualified offense.

(3) Limitations on approval. Each written approval by the State's Attorney under this subsection (q) shall be limited to:

(A) a recording or interception conducted by a specified law enforcement officer or person acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer;

(B) recording or intercepting conversations with the individuals specified in the request for approval, provided that the verbal approval shall be deemed to include the recording or intercepting of conversations with other individuals, unknown to the law enforcement officer at the time of the request for approval, who are acting in conjunction with or as co-conspirators with the individuals specified in the request for approval in the commission of a qualified offense;

(C) a reasonable period of time but in no event longer than 24 consecutive hours;

(D) the written request for approval, if applicable, or the written memorialization must be filed, along with the written approval, with the circuit clerk of the jurisdiction on the next business day following the expiration of the authorized period of time, and shall be subject to review by the Chief Judge or his or her designee as deemed appropriate by the court.

(3.5) The written memorialization of the request for approval and the written approval by the State's Attorney may be in any format, including via facsimile, email, or otherwise, so long as it is capable of being filed with the circuit clerk.

(3.10) Beginning March 1, 2015, each State's Attorney shall annually submit a report to the General Assembly disclosing:

(A) the number of requests for each qualified offense for approval under this subsection; and

(B) the number of approvals for each qualified offense given by the State's Attorney.

(4) Admissibility of evidence. No part of the contents of any wire, electronic, or oral communication that has been recorded or intercepted as a result of this exception may be received in evidence in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding in or before any court, grand jury, department, officer, agency, regulatory body, legislative committee, or other authority of this State, or a political subdivision of the State, other than in a prosecution of:

(A) the qualified offense for which approval was given to record or intercept a conversation under this subsection (q);

(B) a forcible felony committed directly in the course of the investigation of the qualified offense for which approval was given to record or intercept a conversation under this subsection (q); or

(C) any other forcible felony committed while the recording or interception was approved in accordance with this subsection (q), but for this specific category of prosecutions, only if the law enforcement officer or person acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer who has consented to the conversation being intercepted or recorded suffers great bodily injury or is killed during the commission of the charged forcible felony.

(5) Compliance with the provisions of this subsection is a prerequisite to the admissibility in evidence of any part of the contents of any wire, electronic or oral communication that has been intercepted as a result of this exception, but nothing in this subsection shall be deemed to prevent a court from otherwise excluding the evidence on any other ground recognized by State or federal law, nor shall anything in this subsection be deemed to prevent a court from independently reviewing the admissibility of the evidence for compliance with the Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution or with Article I, Section 6 of the Illinois Constitution.

(6) Use of recordings or intercepts unrelated to qualified offenses. Whenever any private conversation or private electronic communication has been recorded or intercepted as a result of this exception that is not related to an offense for which the recording or intercept is admissible under paragraph (4) of this subsection (q), no part of the contents of the communication and evidence derived from the communication may be received in evidence in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding in or before any court, grand jury, department, officer, agency, regulatory body, legislative committee, or other authority of this State, or a political subdivision of the State, nor may it be publicly disclosed in any way.

(6.5) The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of recordings, and reports regarding their use under this subsection (q).

(7) Definitions. For the purposes of this subsection (q) only:

"Forcible felony" includes and is limited to those offenses contained in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, and only as those offenses have been defined by law or judicial interpretation as of that date.

"Qualified offense" means and is limited to:

(A) a felony violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, except for violations of:

(i) Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act;

(ii) Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; and

(iii) Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and

(B) first degree murder, solicitation of murder for hire, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated arson, kidnapping, aggravated kidnapping, child abduction, trafficking in persons, involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or gunrunning.

"State's Attorney" includes and is limited to the State's Attorney or an assistant State's Attorney designated by the State's Attorney to provide verbal approval to record or intercept conversations under this subsection (q).

(8) Sunset. This subsection (q) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2027. No conversations intercepted pursuant to this subsection (q), while operative, shall be inadmissible in a court of law by virtue of the inoperability of this subsection (q) on January 1, 2027.

(9) Recordings, records, and custody. Any private conversation or private electronic communication intercepted by a law enforcement officer or a person acting at the direction of law enforcement shall, if practicable, be recorded in such a way as will protect the recording from editing or other alteration. Any and all original recordings made under this subsection (q) shall be inventoried without unnecessary delay pursuant to the law enforcement agency's policies for inventorying evidence. The original recordings shall not be destroyed except upon an order of a court of competent jurisdiction; and

(r) Electronic recordings, including but not limited to, motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of a lineup under Section 107A-2 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 101-80, eff. 7-12-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-918, eff. 5-27-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-3A)

Sec. 14-3A. Recordings, records, and custody.

(a) Any private oral communication intercepted in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 14-3 shall, if practicable, be recorded by tape or other comparable method. The recording shall, if practicable, be done in such a way as will protect it from editing or other alteration. During an interception, the interception shall be carried out by a law enforcement officer, and the officer shall keep a signed, written record, including:

(1) The day and hours of interception or recording;

(2) The time and duration of each intercepted communication;

(3) The parties, if known, to each intercepted communication; and

(4) A summary of the contents of each intercepted communication.

(b) Both the written record of the interception or recording and any and all recordings of the interception or recording shall immediately be inventoried and shall be maintained where the chief law enforcement officer of the county in which the interception or recording occurred directs. The written records of the interception or recording conducted under subsection (g) of Section 14-3 shall not be destroyed except upon an order of a court of competent jurisdiction and in any event shall be kept for 10 years.

(Source: P.A. 88-677, eff. 12-15-94.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-3B)

Sec. 14-3B. Notice of interception or recording.

(a) Within a reasonable time, but not later than 60 days after the termination of the investigation for which the interception or recording was conducted, or immediately upon the initiation of criminal proceedings, the person who was the subject of an interception or recording under subsection (g) of Section 14-3 shall be served with an inventory that shall include:

(1) Notice to any person who was the subject of the interception or recording;

(2) Notice of any interception or recording if the defendant was arrested or indicted or otherwise charged as a result of the interception of his or her private oral communication;

(3) The date of the interception or recording;

(4) The period of interception or recording; and

(5) Notice of whether during the period of interception or recording devices were or were not used to overhear and record various conversations and whether or not the conversations are recorded.

(b) A court of competent jurisdiction, upon filing of a motion, may in its discretion make available to those persons or their attorneys for inspection those portions of the intercepted communications as the court determines to be in the interest of justice.

(Source: P.A. 88-677, eff. 12-15-94.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-4)

Sec. 14-4. Sentence.

(a) Eavesdropping, for a first offense, is a Class 4 felony and, for a second or subsequent offense, is a Class 3 felony.

(b) The eavesdropping of an oral conversation or an electronic communication of any law enforcement officer, State's Attorney, Assistant State's Attorney, the Attorney General, Assistant Attorney General, or a judge, while in the performance of his or her official duties, if not authorized by this Article or proper court order, is a Class 3 felony, and for a second or subsequent offense, is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 98-1142, eff. 12-30-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-5)

Sec. 14-5. Evidence inadmissible. Any evidence obtained in violation of this Article is not admissible in any civil or criminal trial, or any administrative or legislative inquiry or proceeding, nor in any grand jury proceedings; provided, however, that so much of the contents of an alleged unlawfully intercepted, overheard or recorded conversation as is clearly relevant, as determined as a matter of law by the court in chambers, to the proof of such allegation may be admitted into evidence in any criminal trial or grand jury proceeding brought against any person charged with violating any provision of this Article. Nothing in this Section bars admission of evidence if all parties to the private conversation or private electronic communication consent to admission of the evidence.

(Source: P.A. 98-1142, eff. 12-30-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-6)

Sec. 14-6. Civil remedies to injured parties.

(1) Any or all parties to any conversation or electronic communication upon which eavesdropping is practiced contrary to this Article shall be entitled to the following remedies:

(a) To an injunction by the circuit court prohibiting further eavesdropping by the eavesdropper and by or on behalf of his principal, or either;

(b) To all actual damages against the eavesdropper or his principal or both;

(c) To any punitive damages which may be awarded by the court or by a jury;

(d) To all actual damages against any landlord, owner or building operator, or any common carrier by wire who aids, abets, or knowingly permits the eavesdropping concerned;

(e) To any punitive damages which may be awarded by the court or by a jury against any landlord, owner or building operator, or common carrier by wire who aids, abets, or knowingly permits the eavesdropping concerned.

(2) No cause of action shall lie in any court against any common carrier by wire or its officers, agents or employees for providing information, assistance or facilities in accordance with the terms of a court order entered under Article 108A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(3) No civil claim, cause of action, or remedy shall lie against a parent, step-parent, guardian, or grandparent for eavesdropping of electronic communications through access to their minor's electronic accounts during that parent, step-parent, guardian, or grandparent's exercise of his or her parental rights to supervise, monitor, and control the activities of a minor in his or her care, custody, or control. This provision does not diminish the protections given to electronic accounts of a minor under any existing law other than this Article.

(Source: P.A. 98-268, eff. 1-1-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-7)

Sec. 14-7. Common carrier to aid in detection.

Subject to regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission, any common carrier by wire shall, upon request of any subscriber and upon responsible offer to pay the reasonable cost thereof, furnish whatever services may be within its command for the purpose of detecting any eavesdropping involving its wires which are used by said subscriber. All such requests by subscribers shall be kept confidential unless divulgence is authorized in writing by the requesting subscriber.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-8)

Sec. 14-8. Discovery of eavesdropping device by an individual, common carrier, private investigative agency or non-governmental corporation). Any agent, officer or employee of a private investigative agency or non-governmental corporation, or of a common carrier by wire, or any individual, who discovers any physical evidence of an eavesdropping device being used which such person does not know to be a legal eavesdropping device shall, within a reasonable time after such discovery disclose the existence of such eavesdropping device to the State's Attorney of the county where such device was found. The State's Attorney shall within a reasonable time notify the person or persons apparently being eavesdropped upon of the existence of that device if the device is illegal. A violation of this Section is a Business Offense for which a fine shall be imposed not to exceed $500.

(Source: P.A. 79-984; 79-1454.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-9)

Sec. 14-9. Discovery of eavesdropping device by common carrier by wire - disclosure to subscriber.) Any agent, officer or employee of any common carrier by wire who discovers any physical evidence of an eavesdropping device which such person does not know to be a legal eavesdropping device shall, within a reasonable time after such discovery, disclose the existence of the eavesdropping device to the State's Attorney of the County where such device was found. The State's Attorney shall within a reasonable time notify the person or persons apparently being eavesdropped upon of the existence of that device if the device is illegal. A violation of this Section is a Business Offense for which a fine shall be imposed not to exceed $500.

(Source: P.A. 79-985.)

(720 ILCS 5/Tit. III Pt. C heading) PART C. OFFENSES DIRECTED AGAINST PROPERTY

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 15 heading) ARTICLE 15. DEFINITIONS

(720 ILCS 5/15-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-1)

Sec. 15-1. Property. As used in this Part C, "property" means anything of value. Property includes real estate, money, commercial instruments, admission or transportation tickets, written instruments representing or embodying rights concerning anything of value, labor, or services, or otherwise of value to the owner; things growing on, affixed to, or found on land, or part of or affixed to any building; electricity, gas and water; telecommunications services; birds, animals and fish, which ordinarily are kept in a state of confinement; food and drink; samples, cultures, microorganisms, specimens, records, recordings, documents, blueprints, drawings, maps, and whole or partial copies, descriptions, photographs, computer programs or data, prototypes or models thereof, or any other articles, materials, devices, substances and whole or partial copies, descriptions, photographs, prototypes, or models thereof which constitute, represent, evidence, reflect or record a secret scientific, technical, merchandising, production or management information, design, process, procedure, formula, invention, or improvement.

(Source: P.A. 88-75.)

(720 ILCS 5/15-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-2)

Sec. 15-2. Owner.

As used in this Part C, "owner" means a person, other than the offender, who has possession of or any other interest in the property involved, even though such interest or possession is unlawful, and without whose consent the offender has no authority to exert control over the property.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/15-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-3)

Sec. 15-3. Permanent deprivation.

As used in this Part C, to "permanently deprive" means to:

(a) Defeat all recovery of the property by the owner; or

(b) Deprive the owner permanently of the beneficial use of the property; or

(c) Retain the property with intent to restore it to the owner only if the owner purchases or leases it back, or pays a reward or other compensation for its return; or

(d) Sell, give, pledge, or otherwise transfer any interest in the property or subject it to the claim of a person other than the owner.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/15-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-4)

Sec. 15-4. Deception.

As used in this Part C "deception" means knowingly to:

(a) Create or confirm another's impression which is false and which the offender does not believe to be true; or

(b) Fail to correct a false impression which the offender previously has created or confirmed; or

(c) Prevent another from acquiring information pertinent to the disposition of the property involved; or

(d) Sell or otherwise transfer or encumber property, failing to disclose a lien, adverse claim, or other legal impediment to the enjoyment of the property, whether such impediment is or is not valid, or is or is not a matter of official record; or

(e) Promise performance which the offender does not intend to perform or knows will not be performed. Failure to perform standing alone is not evidence that the offender did not intend to perform.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/15-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-5)

Sec. 15-5. Threat.

As used in this Part C, "threat" means a menace, however communicated, to:

(a) Inflict physical harm on the person threatened or any other person or on property; or

(b) Subject any person to physical confinement or restraint; or

(c) Commit any criminal offense; or

(d) Accuse any person of a criminal offense; or

(e) Expose any person to hatred, contempt or ridicule; or

(f) Harm the credit or business repute of any person; or

(g) Reveal any information sought to be concealed by the person threatened; or

(h) Take action as an official against anyone or anything, or withhold official action, or cause such action or withholding; or

(i) Bring about or continue a strike, boycott or other similar collective action if the property is not demanded or received for the benefit of the group which he purports to represent; or

(j) Testify or provide information or withhold testimony or information with respect to another's legal claim or defense; or

(k) Inflict any other harm which would not benefit the offender.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/15-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-6)

Sec. 15-6. Stolen property. As used in this Part C, "stolen property" means property over which control has been obtained by theft.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/15-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-7)

Sec. 15-7. Obtain.

As used in this Part C, "obtain" means:

(a) In relation to property, to bring about a transfer of interest or possession, whether to the offender or to another, and

(b) In relation to labor or services, to secure the performance thereof.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/15-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-8)

Sec. 15-8. Obtains control. As used in this Part C, the phrase "obtains or exerts control" over property, includes but is not limited to the taking, carrying away, or the sale, conveyance, or transfer of title to, or interest in, or possession of property.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/15-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-9)

Sec. 15-9. Value.

As used in this Part C, the "value" of property consisting of any commercial instrument or any written instrument representing or embodying rights concerning anything of value, labor, or services or otherwise of value to the owner shall be:

(a) The "market value" of such instrument if such instrument is negotiable and has a market value; and

(b) The "actual value" of such instrument if such instrument is not negotiable or is otherwise without a market value. For the purpose of establishing such "actual value", the interest of any owner or owners entitled to part or all of the property represented by such instrument, by reason of such instrument, may be shown, even if another "owner" may be named in the complaint, information or indictment.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 2849.)

(720 ILCS 5/15-10)

Sec. 15-10. Governmental property. As used in this Part C, "governmental property" means funds or other property owned by the State, a unit of local government, or a school district.

(Source: P.A. 94-134, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16 heading) ARTICLE 16. THEFT AND RELATED OFFENSES

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 1 heading) SUBDIVISION 1. DEFINITIONS (Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-0.1)

Sec. 16-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following terms are defined as indicated:

"Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize any services of a computer.

"Coin-operated machine" includes any automatic vending machine or any part thereof, parking meter, coin telephone, coin-operated transit turnstile, transit fare box, coin laundry machine, coin dry cleaning machine, amusement machine, music machine, vending machine dispensing goods or services, or money changer.

"Communication device" means any type of instrument, device, machine, or equipment which is capable of transmitting, acquiring, decrypting, or receiving any telephonic, electronic, data, Internet access, audio, video, microwave, or radio transmissions, signals, communications, or services, including the receipt, acquisition, transmission, or decryption of all such communications, transmissions, signals, or services provided by or through any cable television, fiber optic, telephone, satellite, microwave, radio, Internet-based, data transmission, or wireless distribution network, system or facility; or any part, accessory, or component thereof, including any computer circuit, security module, smart card, software, computer chip, electronic mechanism or other component, accessory or part of any communication device which is capable of facilitating the transmission, decryption, acquisition or reception of all such communications, transmissions, signals, or services.

"Communication service" means any service lawfully provided for a charge or compensation to facilitate the lawful origination, transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals, data, writings, images, and sounds or intelligence of any nature by telephone, including cellular telephones or a wire, wireless, radio, electromagnetic, photo-electronic or photo-optical system; and also any service lawfully provided by any radio, telephone, cable television, fiber optic, satellite, microwave, Internet-based or wireless distribution network, system, facility or technology, including, but not limited to, any and all electronic, data, video, audio, Internet access, telephonic, microwave and radio communications, transmissions, signals and services, and any such communications, transmissions, signals and services lawfully provided directly or indirectly by or through any of those networks, systems, facilities or technologies.

"Communication service provider" means: (1) any person or entity providing any communication service, whether directly or indirectly, as a reseller, including, but not limited to, a cellular, paging or other wireless communications company or other person or entity which, for a fee, supplies the facility, cell site, mobile telephone switching office or other equipment or communication service; (2) any person or entity owning or operating any cable television, fiber optic, satellite, telephone, wireless, microwave, radio, data transmission or Internet-based distribution network, system or facility; and (3) any person or entity providing any communication service directly or indirectly by or through any such distribution system, network or facility.

"Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, retrieves or outputs data, and includes but is not limited to auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to computers.

"Continuing course of conduct" means a series of acts, and the accompanying mental state necessary for the crime in question, irrespective of whether the series of acts are continuous or intermittent.

"Delivery container" means any bakery basket of wire or plastic used to transport or store bread or bakery products, any dairy case of wire or plastic used to transport or store dairy products, and any dolly or cart of 2 or 4 wheels used to transport or store any bakery or dairy product.

"Document-making implement" means any implement, impression, template, computer file, computer disc, electronic device, computer hardware, computer software, instrument, or device that is used to make a real or fictitious or fraudulent personal identification document.

"Financial transaction device" means any of the following:

(1) An electronic funds transfer card.

(2) A credit card.

(3) A debit card.

(4) A point-of-sale card.

(5) Any instrument, device, card, plate, code, account number, personal identification number, or a record or copy of a code, account number, or personal identification number or other means of access to a credit account or deposit account, or a driver's license or State identification card used to access a proprietary account, other than access originated solely by a paper instrument, that can be used alone or in conjunction with another access device, for any of the following purposes:

(A) Obtaining money, cash refund or credit account, credit, goods, services, or any other thing of value.

(B) Certifying or guaranteeing to a person or business the availability to the device holder of funds on deposit to honor a draft or check payable to the order of that person or business.

(C) Providing the device holder access to a deposit account for the purpose of making deposits, withdrawing funds, transferring funds between deposit accounts, obtaining information pertaining to a deposit account, or making an electronic funds transfer.

"Full retail value" means the merchant's stated or advertised price of the merchandise. "Full retail value" includes the aggregate value of property obtained from retail thefts committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments in a single transaction or in separate transactions over a period of one year.

"Internet" means an interactive computer service or system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.

"Library card" means a card or plate issued by a library facility for purposes of identifying the person to whom the library card was issued as authorized to borrow library material, subject to all limitations and conditions imposed on the borrowing by the library facility issuing such card.

"Library facility" includes any public library or museum, or any library or museum of an educational, historical or eleemosynary institution, organization or society.

"Library material" includes any book, plate, picture, photograph, engraving, painting, sculpture, statue, artifact, drawing, map, newspaper, pamphlet, broadside, magazine, manuscript, document, letter, microfilm, sound recording, audiovisual material, magnetic or other tape, electronic data processing record or other documentary, written or printed material regardless of physical form or characteristics, or any part thereof, belonging to, or on loan to or otherwise in the custody of a library facility.

"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful access device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful access device or to modify, alter, program or re-program any instrument, device, machine, equipment or software so that it is capable of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or software used by the provider, owner or licensee of a communication service or of any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect any such communication, data, audio or video services, programs or transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, disclosure, receipt, decryption, communication, transmission or re-transmission.

"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful communication or wireless device or to modify, alter, program or reprogram a communication or wireless device to be capable of acquiring, disrupting, receiving, transmitting, decrypting, or facilitating the acquisition, disruption, receipt, transmission or decryption of, a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, or to knowingly assist others in those activities.

"Master sound recording" means the original physical object on which a given set of sounds were first recorded and which the original object from which all subsequent sound recordings embodying the same set of sounds are directly or indirectly derived.

"Merchandise" means any item of tangible personal property, including motor fuel.

"Merchant" means an owner or operator of any retail mercantile establishment or any agent, employee, lessee, consignee, officer, director, franchisee, or independent contractor of the owner or operator. "Merchant" also means a person who receives from an authorized user of a payment card, or someone the person believes to be an authorized user, a payment card or information from a payment card, or what the person believes to be a payment card or information from a payment card, as the instrument for obtaining, purchasing or receiving goods, services, money, or anything else of value from the person.

"Motor fuel" means a liquid, regardless of its properties, used to propel a vehicle, including gasoline and diesel.

"Online" means the use of any electronic or wireless device to access the Internet.

"Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit card, or any other card that is issued to an authorized card user and that allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive goods, services, money, or anything else of value from a merchant.

"Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder or congenital condition that impairs the individual's mental or physical ability to independently manage his or her property or financial resources, or both.

"Personal identification document" means a birth certificate, a driver's license, a State identification card, a public, government, or private employment identification card, a social security card, a firearm owner's identification card, a credit card, a debit card, or a passport issued to or on behalf of a person other than the offender, or any document made or issued, or falsely purported to have been made or issued, by or under the authority of the United States Government, the State of Illinois, or any other state political subdivision of any state, or any other governmental or quasi-governmental organization that is of a type intended for the purpose of identification of an individual, or any such document made or altered in a manner that it falsely purports to have been made on behalf of or issued to another person or by the authority of one who did not give that authority.

"Personal identifying information" means any of the following information:

(1) A person's name.

(2) A person's address.

(3) A person's date of birth.

(4) A person's telephone number.

(5) A person's driver's license number or State of Illinois identification card as assigned by the Secretary of State of the State of Illinois or a similar agency of another state.

(6) A person's social security number.

(7) A person's public, private, or government employer, place of employment, or employment identification number.

(8) The maiden name of a person's mother.

(9) The number assigned to a person's depository account, savings account, or brokerage account.

(10) The number assigned to a person's credit or debit card, commonly known as a "Visa Card", "MasterCard", "American Express Card", "Discover Card", or other similar cards whether issued by a financial institution, corporation, or business entity.

(11) Personal identification numbers.

(12) Electronic identification numbers.

(13) Digital signals.

(14) User names, passwords, and any other word, number, character or combination of the same usable in whole or part to access information relating to a specific individual, or to the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of a specific individual.

(15) Any other numbers or information which can be used to access a person's financial resources, or to identify a specific individual, or the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of a specific individual.

"Premises of a retail mercantile establishment" includes, but is not limited to, the retail mercantile establishment; any common use areas in shopping centers; and all parking areas set aside by a merchant or on behalf of a merchant for the parking of vehicles for the convenience of the patrons of such retail mercantile establishment.

"Public water, gas, or power supply, or other public services" mean any service subject to regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission; any service furnished by a public utility that is owned and operated by any political subdivision, public institution of higher education or municipal corporation of this State; any service furnished by any public utility that is owned by such political subdivision, public institution of higher education, or municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or operating agents; any service furnished by an electric cooperative as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act; or wireless service or other service regulated by the Federal Communications Commission.

"Publish" means to communicate or disseminate information to any one or more persons, either orally, in person, or by telephone, radio or television or in writing of any kind, including, without limitation, a letter or memorandum, circular or handbill, newspaper or magazine article or book.

"Radio frequency identification device" means any implement, computer file, computer disc, electronic device, computer hardware, computer software, or instrument that is used to activate, read, receive, or decode information stored on a RFID tag or transponder attached to a personal identification document.

"RFID tag or transponder" means a chip or device that contains personal identifying information from which the personal identifying information can be read or decoded by another device emitting a radio frequency that activates or powers a radio frequency emission response from the chip or transponder.

"Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded information from the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment card.

"Retail mercantile establishment" means any place where merchandise is displayed, held, stored or offered for sale to the public.

"Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain, memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card.

"Shopping cart" means those push carts of the type or types which are commonly provided by grocery stores, drug stores or other retail mercantile establishments for the use of the public in transporting commodities in stores and markets and, incidentally, from the stores to a place outside the store.

"Sound or audio visual recording" means any sound or audio visual phonograph record, disc, pre-recorded tape, film, wire, magnetic tape or other object, device or medium, now known or hereafter invented, by which sounds or images may be reproduced with or without the use of any additional machine, equipment or device.

"Stored value card" means any card, gift card, instrument, or device issued with or without fee for the use of the cardholder to obtain money, goods, services, or anything else of value. Stored value cards include, but are not limited to, cards issued for use as a stored value card or gift card, and an account identification number or symbol used to identify a stored value card. "Stored value card" does not include a prepaid card usable at multiple, unaffiliated merchants or at automated teller machines, or both. "Stored value card" shall only apply to Section 16-25.1 of this Act.

"Theft detection device remover" means any tool or device specifically designed and intended to be used to remove any theft detection device from any merchandise.

"Under-ring" means to cause the cash register or other sales recording device to reflect less than the full retail value of the merchandise.

"Unidentified sound or audio visual recording" means a sound or audio visual recording without the actual name and full and correct street address of the manufacturer, and the name of the actual performers or groups prominently and legibly printed on the outside cover or jacket and on the label of such sound or audio visual recording.

"Unlawful access device" means any type of instrument, device, machine, equipment, technology, or software which is primarily possessed, used, designed, assembled, manufactured, sold, distributed or offered, promoted or advertised for the purpose of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or software, or any component or part thereof, used by the provider, owner or licensee of any communication service or of any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect any such communication, audio or video services, programs or transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, receipt, decryption, disclosure, communication, transmission or re-transmission.

"Unlawful communication device" means any electronic serial number, mobile identification number, personal identification number or any communication or wireless device that is capable of acquiring or facilitating the acquisition of a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, or that has been altered, modified, programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another communication or wireless device or other equipment, to so acquire or facilitate the unauthorized acquisition of a communication service. "Unlawful communication device" also means:

(1) any phone altered to obtain service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, tumbler phone, counterfeit or clone phone, tumbler microchip, counterfeit or clone microchip, scanning receiver of wireless communication service or other instrument capable of disguising its identity or location or of gaining unauthorized access to a communications or wireless system operated by a communication service provider; and

(2) any communication or wireless device which is capable of, or has been altered, designed, modified, programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another communication or wireless device or devices, so as to be capable of, facilitating the disruption, acquisition, receipt, transmission or decryption of a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, including, but not limited to, any device, technology, product, service, equipment, computer software or component or part thereof, primarily distributed, sold, designed, assembled, manufactured, modified, programmed, reprogrammed or used for the purpose of providing the unauthorized receipt of, transmission of, disruption of, decryption of, access to or acquisition of any communication service provided by any communication service provider.

"Vehicle" means a motor vehicle, motorcycle, or farm implement that is self-propelled and that uses motor fuel for propulsion.

"Wireless device" includes any type of instrument, device, machine, or equipment that is capable of transmitting or receiving telephonic, electronic or radio communications, or any part of such instrument, device, machine, or equipment, or any computer circuit, computer chip, electronic mechanism, or other component that is capable of facilitating the transmission or reception of telephonic, electronic, or radio communications.

(Source: P.A. 102-757, eff. 5-13-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 5 heading) SUBDIVISION 5. GENERAL THEFT (Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-1)

Sec. 16-1. Theft.

(a) A person commits theft when he or she knowingly:

(1) Obtains or exerts unauthorized control over property of the owner; or

(2) Obtains by deception control over property of the owner; or

(3) Obtains by threat control over property of the owner; or

(4) Obtains control over stolen property knowing the property to have been stolen or under such circumstances as would reasonably induce him or her to believe that the property was stolen; or

(5) Obtains or exerts control over property in the custody of any law enforcement agency which any law enforcement officer or any individual acting in behalf of a law enforcement agency explicitly represents to the person as being stolen or represents to the person such circumstances as would reasonably induce the person to believe that the property was stolen, and

(A) Intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property; or

(B) Knowingly uses, conceals or abandons the property in such manner as to deprive the owner permanently of such use or benefit; or

(C) Uses, conceals, or abandons the property knowing such use, concealment or abandonment probably will deprive the owner permanently of such use or benefit.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $500 in value is a Class A misdemeanor.

(1.1) Theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $500 in value is a Class 4 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(2) A person who has been convicted of theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $500 in value who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, forgery, a violation of Section 4-103, 4-103.1, 4-103.2, or 4-103.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code relating to the possession of a stolen or converted motor vehicle, or a violation of Section 17-36 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 8 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Theft of property from the person not exceeding $500 in value, or theft of property exceeding $500 and not exceeding $10,000 in value, is a Class 3 felony.

(4.1) Theft of property from the person not exceeding $500 in value, or theft of property exceeding $500 and not exceeding $10,000 in value, is a Class 2 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(5) Theft of property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(5.1) Theft of property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(6) Theft of property exceeding $100,000 and not exceeding $500,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(6.1) Theft of property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(6.2) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value is a Class 1 non-probationable felony.

(6.3) Theft of property exceeding $1,000,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(7) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender obtained money or property valued at $5,000 or more from a victim 60 years of age or older or a person with a disability is a Class 2 felony.

(8) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 3 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained does not exceed $500.

(9) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 2 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $500 and does not exceed $10,000.

(10) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 1 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $10,000 and does not exceed $100,000.

(11) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class X felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $100,000.

(c) When a charge of theft of property exceeding a specified value is brought, the value of the property involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(d) Theft by lessee; permissive inference. The trier of fact may infer evidence that a person intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property (1) if a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner within 10 days after written demand from the owner for its return or (2) if a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner within 24 hours after written demand from the owner for its return and the lessee had presented identification to the owner that contained a materially fictitious name, address, or telephone number. A notice in writing, given after the expiration of the leasing agreement, addressed and mailed, by registered mail, to the lessee at the address given by him and shown on the leasing agreement shall constitute proper demand.

(e) Permissive inference; evidence of intent that a person obtains by deception control over property. The trier of fact may infer that a person "knowingly obtains by deception control over property of the owner" when he or she fails to return, within 45 days after written demand from the owner, the downpayment and any additional payments accepted under a promise, oral or in writing, to perform services for the owner for consideration of $3,000 or more, and the promisor knowingly without good cause failed to substantially perform pursuant to the agreement after taking a down payment of 10% or more of the agreed upon consideration. This provision shall not apply where the owner initiated the suspension of performance under the agreement, or where the promisor responds to the notice within the 45-day notice period. A notice in writing, addressed and mailed, by registered mail, to the promisor at the last known address of the promisor, shall constitute proper demand.

(f) Offender's interest in the property.

(1) It is no defense to a charge of theft of property that the offender has an interest therein, when the owner also has an interest to which the offender is not entitled.

(2) Where the property involved is that of the offender's spouse, no prosecution for theft may be maintained unless the parties were not living together as man and wife and were living in separate abodes at the time of the alleged theft.

(Source: P.A. 101-394, eff. 1-1-20.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-1.1)

Sec. 16-1.1. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 95-857, eff. 1-1-09. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-1.2)

Sec. 16-1.2. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 84-992. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-1.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-1.3)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-56 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 16-1.3. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 95-798, eff. 1-1-09. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-2)

Sec. 16-2. Theft of lost or mislaid property. A person commits theft of lost or mislaid property when he or she obtains control over the property and:

(a) Knows or learns the identity of the owner or knows, or is aware of, or learns of a reasonable method of identifying the owner, and

(b) Fails to take reasonable measures to restore the property to the owner, and

(c) Intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property.

(d) Sentence.

Theft of lost or mislaid property where:

(1) the value does not exceed $500 is a Class B misdemeanor;

(2) the value exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000 is a Class A misdemeanor; and

(3) the value exceeds $10,000 is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-3)

Sec. 16-3. Theft of labor or services or use of property.

(a) A person commits theft when he or she knowingly obtains the temporary use of property, labor or services of another which are available only for hire, by means of threat or deception or knowing that such use is without the consent of the person providing the property, labor or services. For the purposes of this subsection, library material is available for hire.

(b) A person commits theft when after (1) renting or leasing a motor vehicle, (2) obtaining a motor vehicle through a "driveaway" service mode of transportation, (3) renting or leasing equipment exceeding $500 in value including tools, construction or industry equipment, and such items as linens, tableware, tents, tables, chairs and other equipment specially rented for a party or special event, or (4) renting or leasing any other type of personal property exceeding $500 in value, under an agreement in writing which provides for the return of the vehicle, equipment, or other personal property to a particular place at a particular time, he or she without good cause knowingly fails to return the vehicle, equipment, or other personal property to that place within the time specified, and is thereafter served or sent a written demand mailed to the last known address, made by certified mail return receipt requested, to return the vehicle, equipment, or other personal property within 3 days from the mailing of the written demand, and who without good cause knowingly fails to return the vehicle, equipment, or any other personal property to any place of business of the lessor within the return period. The trier of fact may infer evidence that the person is without good cause if the person signs the agreement with a name or address other than his or her own.

(c) A person commits theft when he or she borrows from a library facility library material which has an aggregate value of $50 or more pursuant to an agreement with or procedure established by the library facility for the return of such library material, and knowingly without good cause fails to return the library material so borrowed in accordance with such agreement or procedure, and further knowingly without good cause fails to return such library material within 30 days after receiving written notice by certified mail from the library facility demanding the return of such library material.

(d) Sentence.

A person convicted of theft under subsection (a) is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, except that the theft of library material where the aggregate value exceeds $300 is a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of theft under subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of theft under subsection (c) is guilty of a petty offense for which the offender may be fined an amount not to exceed $500 and shall be ordered to reimburse the library for postage costs, attorney's fees, and actual replacement costs of the materials not returned, except that theft under subsection (c) where the aggregate value exceeds $300 is a Class 3 felony. In addition to any other penalty imposed, the court may order a person convicted under this Section to make restitution to the victim of the offense.

For the purpose of sentencing on theft of library material, separate transactions totalling more than $300 within a 90-day period shall constitute a single offense.

(Source: P.A. 99-534, eff. 1-1-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-3.1)

Sec. 16-3.1. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 83-1004. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-4)

Sec. 16-4. (Repealed).

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-5)

Sec. 16-5. Theft from coin-operated machine.

(a) A person commits theft from a coin-operated machine when he or she knowingly and without authority opens, breaks into, tampers with, triggers, or damages a coin-operated machine either:

(1) to operate or use the machine; or

(2) with the intent to commit a theft from the machine.

(b) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) is a Class B misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subdivision (a)(2) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(3) A person who has been convicted of theft from a coin-operated machine in violation of subdivision (a)(2) and who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, or home invasion is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-6)

Sec. 16-6. Theft-related devices.

(a)(1) A person commits unlawful possession of a key or device for a coin-operated machine when he or she possesses a key, drawing, print, mold of a key, device, or substance designed to open, break into, tamper with, or damage a coin-operated machine, with intent to commit a theft from the machine.

(2) A person commits unlawful use of a key or device for a coin-operated machine when he or she with the intent to commit a theft from a coin-operated machine uses a key, drawing, print, mold of a key, device, or substance and causes damage or loss to the coin-operated machine of more than $300.

(b)(1) A person commits unlawful use of a theft detection shielding device when he or she knowingly manufactures, sells, offers for sale or distributes any theft detection shielding device.

(2) A person commits unlawful possession of a theft detection shielding device when he or she knowingly possesses a theft detection shielding device with the intent to commit theft or retail theft.

(3) A person commits unlawful possession of a theft detection device remover when he or she knowingly possesses a theft detection device remover with the intent to use such tool to remove any theft detection device from any merchandise without the permission of the merchant or person owning or holding the merchandise.

(c) A person commits use of a scanning device or reencoder to defraud when the person knowingly uses:

(1) a scanning device to access, read, obtain, memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card without the permission of the authorized user of the payment card and with the intent to defraud the authorized user, the issuer of the authorized user's payment card, or a merchant; or

(2) a reencoder to place information encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different card without the permission of the authorized user of the card from which the information is being reencoded and with the intent to defraud the authorized user, the issuer of the authorized user's payment card, or a merchant.

(d) Sentence. A violation of subdivision (a)(1), (b)(1), (b)(2), or (b)(3) is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (b)(1), (b)(2), or (b)(3) is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(2), (c)(1), or (c)(2) is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (c)(1) or (c)(2) is a Class 3 felony.

(e) The owner of a coin-operated machine may maintain a civil cause of action against a person engaged in the activities covered in subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2) and may recover treble actual damages, reasonable attorney's fees, and costs.

(f) As used in this Section, "substance" means a corrosive or acidic liquid or solid but does not include items purchased through a coin-operated machine at the location or acquired as condiments at the location of the coin-operated machine.

(g) For the purposes of this Section, "theft detection shielding device" means any laminated or coated bag or device peculiar to and marketed for shielding and intended to shield merchandise from detection by an electronic or magnetic theft alarm sensor.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-7)

Sec. 16-7. Unlawful use of recorded sounds or images.

(a) A person commits unlawful use of recorded sounds or images when he or she knowingly or recklessly:

(1) transfers or causes to be transferred without the consent of the owner, any sounds or images recorded on any sound or audio visual recording with the intent of selling or causing to be sold, or using or causing to be used for profit the article to which such sounds or recordings of sound are transferred;

(2) sells, offers for sale, advertises for sale, uses or causes to be used for profit any such article described in subdivision (a)(1) without consent of the owner;

(3) offers or makes available for a fee, rental or any other form of compensation, directly or indirectly, any equipment or machinery for the purpose of use by another to reproduce or transfer, without the consent of the owner, any sounds or images recorded on any sound or audio visual recording to another sound or audio visual recording or for the purpose of use by another to manufacture any sound or audio visual recording in violation of subsection (b); or

(4) transfers or causes to be transferred without the consent of the owner, any live performance with the intent of selling or causing to be sold, or using or causing to be used for profit the sound or audio visual recording to which the performance is transferred.

(b) A person commits unlawful use of unidentified sound or audio visual recordings when he or she knowingly, recklessly, or negligently for profit manufacturers, sells, distributes, vends, circulates, performs, leases, possesses, or otherwise deals in and with unidentified sound or audio visual recordings or causes the manufacture, sale, distribution, vending, circulation, performance, lease, or other dealing in and with unidentified sound or audio visual recordings.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, "owner" means the person who owns the master sound recording on which sound is recorded and from which the transferred recorded sounds are directly or indirectly derived, or the person who owns the rights to record or authorize the recording of a live performance.

For the purposes of this Section, "manufacturer" means the person who actually makes or causes to be made a sound or audio visual recording. "Manufacturer" does not include a person who manufactures the medium upon which sounds or visual images can be recorded or stored, or who manufactures the cartridge or casing itself.

(d) Sentence. Unlawful use of recorded sounds or images or unidentified sound or audio visual recordings is a Class 4 felony; however:

(1) If the offense involves more than 100 but not exceeding 1000 unidentified sound recordings or more than 7 but not exceeding 65 unidentified audio visual recordings during any 180 day period the authorized fine is up to $100,000; and

(2) If the offense involves more than 1,000 unidentified sound recordings or more than 65 unidentified audio visual recordings during any 180 day period the authorized fine is up to $250,000.

(e) Upon conviction of any violation of subsection (b), the offender shall be sentenced to make restitution to any owner or lawful producer of a master sound or audio visual recording, or to the trade association representing such owner or lawful producer, that has suffered injury resulting from the crime. The order of restitution shall be based on the aggregate wholesale value of lawfully manufactured and authorized sound or audio visual recordings corresponding to the non-conforming recorded devices involved in the offense, and shall include investigative costs relating to the offense.

(f) Subsection (a) of this Section shall neither enlarge nor diminish the rights of parties in private litigation.

(g) Subsection (a) of this Section does not apply to any person engaged in the business of radio or television broadcasting who transfers, or causes to be transferred, any sounds (other than from the sound track of a motion picture) solely for the purpose of broadcast transmission.

(h) Each individual manufacture, distribution or sale or transfer for a consideration of such recorded devices in contravention of subsection (a) of this Section constitutes a separate violation of this Section. Each individual manufacture, sale, distribution, vending, circulation, performance, lease, possession, or other dealing in and with an unidentified sound or audio visual recording under subsection (b) of this Section constitutes a separate violation of this Section.

(i) Any sound or audio visual recordings containing transferred sounds or a performance whose transfer was not authorized by the owner of the master sound recording or performance, or any unidentified sound or audio visual recording used, in violation of this Section, or in the attempt to commit such violation as defined in Section 8-4, or in a conspiracy to commit such violation as defined in Section 8-2, or in a solicitation to commit such offense as defined in Section 8-1, may be confiscated and destroyed upon conclusion of the case or cases to which they are relevant, except that the court may enter an order preserving them as evidence for use in other cases or pending the final determination of an appeal.

(j) It is an affirmative defense to any charge of unlawful use of recorded sounds or images that the recorded sounds or images so used are public domain material. For purposes of this Section, recorded sounds are deemed to be in the public domain if the recorded sounds were copyrighted pursuant to the copyright laws of the United States, as the same may be amended from time to time, and the term of the copyright and any extensions or renewals thereof has expired.

(k) With respect to sound recordings (other than accompanying a motion picture or other audiovisual work), this Section applies only to sound recordings that were initially recorded before February 15, 1972.

(Source: P.A. 97-538, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-8)

Sec. 16-8. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 95-485, eff. 1-1-08. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-10)

Sec. 16-10. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98. Repealed by P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-11)

Sec. 16-11. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 88-466. Repealed by P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-12) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-12)

Sec. 16-12. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 88-466. Repealed by P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-13)

Sec. 16-13. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 83-519. Repealed by P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-14)

Sec. 16-14. Theft of utility services.

(a) A person commits theft of utility services when he or she knowingly, without authority, diverts or interferes with any public water, gas, power supply, or other public services or installs any device with the intent to divert or interfere with any public water, gas, power supply, or other public services without the authority of the owner or entity furnishing or transmitting such product or services.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor unless the offense was committed for remuneration, in which case it is a Class 4 felony.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(3) If the offense causes disruption of the public utility services or delay in the restoration of the public utility services to 10 or more customers or affects an area of more than one square mile, a violation of this Section is a Class 2 felony.

(c) This Section does not apply to the theft of telecommunication services.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-15)

Sec. 16-15. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-16)

Sec. 16-16. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 97-347, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-16.1)

Sec. 16-16.1. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 97-347, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-17)

Sec. 16-17. Theft of advertising services.

(a) A person commits theft of advertising services when he or she knowingly attaches or inserts an unauthorized advertisement in a newspaper or periodical, and redistributes it to the public or has the intent to redistribute it to the public.

(b) This Section applies to any newspaper or periodical that is offered for retail sale or is distributed without charge.

(c) This Section does not apply if the publisher or authorized distributor of the newspaper or periodical consents to the attachment or insertion of the advertisement.

(d) In this Section, "unauthorized advertisement" means any form of representation or communication, including any handbill, newsletter, pamphlet, or notice that contains any letters, words, or pictorial representation that is attached to or inserted in a newspaper or periodical without a contractual agreement between the publisher and an advertiser.

(e) Sentence. Theft of advertising services is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-18)

Sec. 16-18. Tampering with communication services; theft of communication services.

(a) Injury to wires or obtaining service with intent to defraud. A person commits injury to wires or obtaining service with intent to defraud when he or she knowingly:

(1) displaces, removes, injures or destroys any telegraph or telephone line, wire, cable, pole or conduit, belonging to another, or the material or property appurtenant thereto; or

(2) cuts, breaks, taps, or makes any connection with any telegraph or telephone line, wire, cable or instrument belonging to another; or

(3) reads, takes or copies any message, communication or report intended for another passing over any such telegraph line, wire or cable in this State; or

(4) prevents, obstructs or delays by any means or contrivance whatsoever, the sending, transmission, conveyance or delivery in this State of any message, communication or report by or through any telegraph or telephone line, wire or cable; or

(5) uses any apparatus to unlawfully do or cause to be done any of the acts described in subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this Section; or

(6) obtains, or attempts to obtain, any telecommunications service with the intent to deprive any person of the lawful charge, in whole or in part, for any telecommunications service:

(A) by charging such service to an existing telephone number without the authority of the subscriber thereto; or

(B) by charging such service to a nonexistent, false, fictitious, or counterfeit telephone number or to a suspended, terminated, expired, canceled, or revoked telephone number; or

(C) by use of a code, prearranged scheme, or other similar stratagem or device whereby said person, in effect, sends or receives information; or

(D) by publishing the number or code of an existing, canceled, revoked or nonexistent telephone number, credit number or other credit device or method of numbering or coding which is employed in the issuance of telephone numbers, credit numbers or other credit devices which may be used to avoid the payment of any lawful telephone toll charge; or

(E) by any other trick, stratagem, impersonation, false pretense, false representation, false statement, contrivance, device, or means.

(b) Theft of communication services. A person commits theft of communication services when he or she knowingly:

(1) obtains or uses a communication service without the authorization of, or compensation paid to, the communication service provider;

(2) possesses, uses, manufactures, assembles, distributes, leases, transfers, or sells, or offers, promotes or advertises for sale, lease, use, or distribution, an unlawful communication device:

(A) for the commission of a theft of a communication service or to receive, disrupt, transmit, decrypt, or acquire, or facilitate the receipt, disruption, transmission, decryption or acquisition, of any communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider; or

(B) to conceal or to assist another to conceal from any communication service provider or from any lawful authority the existence or place of origin or destination of any communication;

(3) modifies, alters, programs or reprograms a communication device for the purposes described in subdivision (2)(A) or (2)(B);

(4) possesses, uses, manufactures, assembles, leases, distributes, sells, or transfers, or offers, promotes or advertises for sale, use or distribution, any unlawful access device; or

(5) possesses, uses, prepares, distributes, gives or otherwise transfers to another or offers, promotes, or advertises for sale, use or distribution, any:

(A) plans or instructions for making or assembling an unlawful communication or access device, with the intent to use or employ the unlawful communication or access device, or to allow the same to be used or employed, for a purpose prohibited by this subsection (b), or knowing or having reason to know that the plans or instructions are intended to be used for manufacturing or assembling the unlawful communication or access device for a purpose prohibited by this subsection (b); or

(B) material, including hardware, cables, tools, data, computer software or other information or equipment, knowing that the purchaser or a third person intends to use the material in the manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication or access device for a purpose prohibited by this subsection (b).

(c) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor; provided, however, that any of the following is a Class 4 felony:

(A) a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of subsection (a); or

(B) an offense committed for remuneration; or

(C) an offense involving damage or destruction of property in an amount in excess of $300 or defrauding of services in excess of $500.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class A misdemeanor, except that:

(A) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 4 felony if:

(i) the violation of subsection (b) involves at least 10, but not more than 50, unlawful communication or access devices; or

(ii) the defendant engages in conduct identified in subdivision (b)(3) of this Section with the intention of substantially disrupting and impairing the ability of a communication service provider to deliver communication services to its lawful customers or subscribers; or

(iii) the defendant at the time of the commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution; or

(iv) the defendant at the time of the commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution and uses any means of electronic communication as defined in Section 26.5-0.1 of this Code for fraud, theft, theft by deception, identity theft, or any other unlawful purpose; or

(v) the aggregate value of the service obtained is $300 or more; or

(vi) the violation is for a wired communication service or device and the defendant has been convicted previously for an offense under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(B) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 3 felony if:

(i) the violation of subsection (b) involves more than 50 unlawful communication or access devices; or

(ii) the defendant at the time of the commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution and has been convicted previously of an offense under subsection (b) committed by the defendant while serving as a pre-trial detainee in a penal institution or while serving a sentence at a penal institution; or

(iii) the defendant at the time of the commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution and has been convicted previously of an offense under subsection (b) committed by the defendant while serving as a pre-trial detainee in a penal institution or while serving a sentence at a penal institution and uses any means of electronic communication as defined in Section 26.5-0.1 of this Code for fraud, theft, theft by deception, identity theft, or any other unlawful purpose; or

(iv) the violation is for a wired communication service or device and the defendant has been convicted previously on 2 or more occasions for offenses under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(C) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 2 felony if the violation is for a wireless communication service or device and the defendant has been convicted previously for an offense under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(3) Restitution. The court shall, in addition to any other sentence authorized by law, sentence a person convicted of violating subsection (b) to make restitution in the manner provided in Article 5 of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(d) Grading of offense based on prior convictions. For purposes of grading an offense based upon a prior conviction for an offense under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction under subdivisions (c)(2)(A)(i) and (c)(2)(B)(i) of this Section, a prior conviction shall consist of convictions upon separate indictments or criminal complaints for offenses under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(e) Separate offenses. For purposes of all criminal penalties or fines established for violations of subsection (b), the prohibited activity established in subsection (b) as it applies to each unlawful communication or access device shall be deemed a separate offense.

(f) Forfeiture of unlawful communication or access devices. Upon conviction of a defendant under subsection (b), the court may, in addition to any other sentence authorized by law, direct that the defendant forfeit any unlawful communication or access devices in the defendant's possession or control which were involved in the violation for which the defendant was convicted.

(g) Venue. An offense under subsection (b) may be deemed to have been committed at either the place where the defendant manufactured or assembled an unlawful communication or access device, or assisted others in doing so, or the place where the unlawful communication or access device was sold or delivered to a purchaser or recipient. It is not a defense to a violation of subsection (b) that some of the acts constituting the offense occurred outside of the State of Illinois.

(h) Civil action. For purposes of subsection (b):

(1) Bringing a civil action. Any person aggrieved by a violation may bring a civil action in any court of competent jurisdiction.

(2) Powers of the court. The court may:

(A) grant preliminary and final injunctions to prevent or restrain violations without a showing by the plaintiff of special damages, irreparable harm or inadequacy of other legal remedies;

(B) at any time while an action is pending, order the impounding, on such terms as it deems reasonable, of any unlawful communication or access device that is in the custody or control of the violator and that the court has reasonable cause to believe was involved in the alleged violation;

(C) award damages as described in subdivision (h)(3);

(D) award punitive damages;

(E) in its discretion, award reasonable attorney's fees and costs, including, but not limited to, costs for investigation, testing and expert witness fees, to an aggrieved party who prevails; and

(F) as part of a final judgment or decree finding a violation, order the remedial modification or destruction of any unlawful communication or access device involved in the violation that is in the custody or control of the violator or has been impounded under subdivision (h)(2)(B).

(3) Types of damages recoverable. Damages awarded by a court under this Section shall be computed as either of the following:

(A) Upon his or her election of such damages at any time before final judgment is entered, the complaining party may recover the actual damages suffered by him or her as a result of the violation and any profits of the violator that are attributable to the violation and are not taken into account in computing the actual damages; in determining the violator's profits, the complaining party shall be required to prove only the violator's gross revenue, and the violator shall be required to prove his or her deductible expenses and the elements of profit attributable to factors other than the violation; or

(B) Upon election by the complaining party at any time before final judgment is entered, that party may recover in lieu of actual damages an award of statutory damages of not less than $250 and not more than $10,000 for each unlawful communication or access device involved in the action, with the amount of statutory damages to be determined by the court, as the court considers just. In any case, if the court finds that any of the violations were committed with the intent to obtain commercial advantage or private financial gain, the court in its discretion may increase the award of statutory damages by an amount of not more than $50,000 for each unlawful communication or access device involved in the action.

(4) Separate violations. For purposes of all civil remedies established for violations, the prohibited activity established in this Section applies to each unlawful communication or access device and shall be deemed a separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-19)

Sec. 16-19. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-20)

Sec. 16-20. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 96-497, eff. 1-1-10. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-21)

Sec. 16-21. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-22)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-11.5 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 16-22. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 94-707, eff. 6-1-06. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 10 heading) SUBDIVISION 10. RETAIL THEFT (Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-25)

Sec. 16-25. Retail theft.

(a) A person commits retail theft when he or she knowingly:

(1) Takes possession of, carries away, transfers or causes to be carried away or transferred any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment with the intention of retaining such merchandise or with the intention of depriving the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of such merchandise without paying the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(2) Alters, transfers, or removes any label, price tag, marking, indicia of value or any other markings which aid in determining value affixed to any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment and attempts to purchase such merchandise at less than the full retail value with the intention of depriving the merchant of the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(3) Transfers any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment from the container in or on which such merchandise is displayed to any other container with the intention of depriving the merchant of the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(4) Under-rings with the intention of depriving the merchant of the full retail value of the merchandise; or

(5) Removes a shopping cart from the premises of a retail mercantile establishment without the consent of the merchant given at the time of such removal with the intention of depriving the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of such cart; or

(6) Represents to a merchant that he, she, or another is the lawful owner of property, knowing that such representation is false, and conveys or attempts to convey that property to a merchant who is the owner of the property in exchange for money, merchandise credit or other property of the merchant; or

(7) Uses or possesses any theft detection shielding device or theft detection device remover with the intention of using such device to deprive the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment without paying the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(8) Obtains or exerts unauthorized control over property of the owner and thereby intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property when a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner, or if the lessee fails to pay the full retail value of such property to the lessor in satisfaction of any contractual provision requiring such, within 10 days after written demand from the owner for its return. A notice in writing, given after the expiration of the leasing agreement, by registered mail, to the lessee at the address given by the lessee and shown on the leasing agreement shall constitute proper demand.

(b) Theft by emergency exit. A person commits theft by emergency exit when he or she commits a retail theft as defined in subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(8) of this Section and to facilitate the theft he or she leaves the retail mercantile establishment by use of a designated emergency exit.

(c) Permissive inference. If any person:

(1) conceals upon his or her person or among his or her belongings unpurchased merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment; and

(2) removes that merchandise beyond the last known station for receiving payments for that merchandise in that retail mercantile establishment,

then the trier of fact may infer that the person possessed, carried away or transferred such merchandise with the intention of retaining it or with the intention of depriving the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of such merchandise without paying the full retail value of such merchandise.

To "conceal" merchandise means that, although there may be some notice of its presence, that merchandise is not visible through ordinary observation.

(d) Venue. Multiple thefts committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct in different jurisdictions that have been aggregated in one jurisdiction may be prosecuted in any jurisdiction in which one or more of the thefts occurred.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, "theft detection shielding device" means any laminated or coated bag or device designed and intended to shield merchandise from detection by an electronic or magnetic theft alarm sensor.

(f) Sentence.

(1) A violation of any of subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(6) and (a)(8) of this Section, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300 for property other than motor fuel or $150 for motor fuel, is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subdivision (a)(7) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense. Theft by emergency exit of property, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300, is a Class 4 felony.

(2) A person who has been convicted of retail theft of property under any of subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(6) and (a)(8) of this Section, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300 for property other than motor fuel or $150 for motor fuel, and who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, unlawful use of a credit card, or forgery is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person who has been convicted of theft by emergency exit of property, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300, and who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, unlawful use of a credit card, or forgery is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any retail theft of property under any of subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(6) and (a)(8) of this Section, the full retail value of which exceeds $300 for property other than motor fuel or $150 for motor fuel in a single transaction, or in separate transactions committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments over a period of one year, is a Class 3 felony. Theft by emergency exit of property, the full retail value of which exceeds $300 in a single transaction, or in separate transactions committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments over a period of one year, is a Class 2 felony. When a charge of retail theft of property or theft by emergency exit of property, the full value of which exceeds $300, is brought, the value of the property involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding $300.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-25.1)

Sec. 16-25.1. Organized retail crime.

(a) An individual is guilty of organized retail crime when that individual, in concert with another individual or any group of individuals, knowingly commits the act of retail theft from one or more retail mercantile establishments, and in the course of or in furtherance of such crime or flight therefrom:

(1) knowingly commits assault as defined under Section 12-1 or battery as defined under Section 12-3(a)(2) on the premises of the retail mercantile establishment;

(2) knowingly commits a battery under Section 12-3(a)(1) on the premises of the retail mercantile establishment; or

(3) intentionally destroys or damages the property of the retail mercantile establishment.

(b) An individual is guilty of being a manager of the organized retail crime when that individual knowingly recruits, organizes, supervises, finances, or otherwise manages or directs any other individual or individuals to:

(1) commit the act of retail theft from one or more retail mercantile establishments, if the aggregate value of the merchandise exceeds $300, and the manager or the individual has the intent to resell the merchandise or otherwise have the merchandise reenter the stream of commerce;

(2) commit theft of merchandise, the aggregate retail value of which exceeds $300, while the merchandise is in transit from the manufacturer to the retail mercantile establishment, and the manager or the individual has the intent to resell the merchandise;

(3) obtain control over property for sale or resale, the aggregate retail value of which exceeds $300, knowing the property to have been stolen or under such circumstances as would reasonably induce the individual to believe that the property was stolen; or

(4) receive, possess, or purchase any merchandise or stored value cards, the aggregate retail value of which exceeds $300, obtained from a fraudulent return with the knowledge that the property was obtained in violation of this Section or Section 16-25.

(c) If acts or omissions constituting any part of the commission of the charged offense under the Section occurred in more than one county, each county has concurrent venue. If the charged offenses under this Section occurred in more than one county, the counties may join the offenses in a single criminal pleading and have concurrent venue as to all charged offenses. When counties have concurrent venue, the first county in which a criminal complaint, information, or indictment is issued in the case becomes the county with exclusive venue. A violation of organized retail crime may be investigated, indicted, and prosecuted pursuant to the Statewide Grand Jury Act.

(d) Sentence. A violation of paragraph (1) or (3) of subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony. A violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class 2 felony. A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 102-757, eff. 5-13-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-25.2)

Sec. 16-25.2. Retail loss prevention report and notice requirements.

(a) A retail mercantile establishment that is a victim of a violation of Section 16-25, 16-25.1, 17-10.6, or 25-4 shall have the right:

(1) to timely notification of all court proceedings as defined under subsection (e) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. Timely notice shall include 7 days' notice of any court proceedings. Timely notice shall be sent to the location of the retail mercantile establishment where the violation occurred and to the point of contact as provided by the retail mercantile establishment. The point of contact may be any employee of the retail mercantile establishment or representative as provided by the retail mercantile establishment;

(2) to communicate with the prosecution;

(3) to be reasonably heard at any post-arraignment court proceeding in which a right of the victim is at issue and any court proceeding involving a post-arraignment release decision, plea, or sentencing;

(4) to be notified of the conviction, the sentence, the imprisonment, and the release of the accused; and

(5) to have present at all court proceedings subject to the rules of evidence an advocate of the retail mercantile establishment's choice.

(b) Unless a retail mercantile establishment refuses to file a report regarding the incident, the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall file a report concerning the incident with the State's Attorney. No law enforcement agent shall discourage or attempt to discourage a retail mercantile establishment from filing a police report concerning the incident. Upon the request of the retail mercantile establishment, the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall provide a free copy of the police report concerning the incident, as soon as practicable, but in no event later than 5 business days after the request. The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall not consider any allegation of a violation of this subsection that is contained in a complaint made under Section 1-35 of the Police and Community Relations Improvement Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-757, eff. 5-13-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-26)

Sec. 16-26. Detention; affirmative defense.

(a) Detention. Any merchant who has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed retail theft may detain the person, on or off the premises of a retail mercantile establishment, in a reasonable manner and for a reasonable length of time for all or any of the following purposes:

(1) To request identification;

(2) To verify such identification;

(3) To make reasonable inquiry as to whether such person has in his possession unpurchased merchandise and to make reasonable investigation of the ownership of such merchandise;

(4) To inform a peace officer of the detention of the person and surrender that person to the custody of a peace officer;

(5) In the case of a minor, to immediately make a reasonable attempt to inform the parents, guardian or other private person interested in the welfare of that minor and, at the merchant's discretion, a peace officer, of this detention and to surrender custody of such minor to such person.

A merchant may make a detention as permitted in this Section off the premises of a retail mercantile establishment only if such detention is pursuant to an immediate pursuit of such person.

A merchant shall be deemed to have reasonable grounds to make a detention for the purposes of this Section if the merchant detains a person because such person has in his or her possession either a theft detection shielding device or a theft detection device remover.

(b) Affirmative defense. A detention as permitted in this Section does not constitute an arrest or an unlawful restraint, as defined in Section 10-3 of this Code, nor shall it render the merchant liable to the person so detained.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, "minor" means a person who is less than 19 years of age, is unemancipated, and resides with his or her parent or parents or legal guardian.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-27)

Sec. 16-27. Civil liability.

(a) A person who commits the offense of retail theft as defined in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), or (a)(8) of Section 16-25 shall be civilly liable to the merchant of the merchandise in an amount consisting of:

(i) actual damages equal to the full retail value of the merchandise; plus

(ii) an amount not less than $100 nor more than $1,000; plus

(iii) attorney's fees and court costs.

(b) If a minor commits the offense of retail theft, the parents or guardian of the minor shall be civilly liable as provided in this Section; however, a guardian appointed pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall not be liable under this Section. Total recovery under this Section shall not exceed the maximum recovery permitted under Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law. For the purposes of this Section, "minor" means a person who is less than 19 years of age, is unemancipated, and resides with his or her parent or parents or legal guardian.

(c) A conviction or a plea of guilty to the offense of retail theft is not a prerequisite to the bringing of a civil suit under this Section.

(d) Judgments arising under this Section may be assigned.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-28)

Sec. 16-28. Delivery container theft.

(a) A person commits delivery container theft when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Uses for any purpose, when not on the premises of the owner or an adjacent parking area, a delivery container of another person which is marked by a name or mark unless the use is authorized by the owner.

(2) Sells, or offers for sale, a delivery container of another person which is marked by a name or mark unless the sale is authorized by the owner.

(3) Defaces, obliterates, destroys, covers up or otherwise removes or conceals a name or mark on a delivery container of another person without the written consent of the owner.

(4) Removes the delivery container of another person from the premises, parking area or any other area under the control of any processor, distributor or retail establishment, or from any delivery vehicle, without the consent of the owner of the delivery container. If a person possesses any marked or named delivery container without the consent of the owner and while not on the premises, parking area or other area under control of a processor, distributor or retail establishment doing business with the owner, the trier of fact may infer that the person removed the delivery container in violation of this paragraph.

(b) Any common carrier or private carrier for hire, except those engaged in transporting bakery or dairy products to and from the places where they are produced, that receives or transports any delivery container marked with a name or mark without having in its possession a bill of lading or invoice for that delivery container commits the offense of delivery container theft.

(c) Sentence. Delivery container theft is a Class B misdemeanor. An offender may be sentenced to pay a fine of $150 for the first offense and $500 for a second or subsequent offense.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 15 heading) SUBDIVISION 15. IDENTITY THEFT (Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-30)

Sec. 16-30. Identity theft; aggravated identity theft.

(a) A person commits identity theft when he or she knowingly:

(1) uses any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another person to fraudulently obtain credit, money, goods, services, or other property;

(2) uses any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony not set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a);

(3) obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony;

(4) uses, obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another knowing that such personal identifying information or personal identification documents were stolen or produced without lawful authority;

(5) uses, transfers, or possesses document-making implements to produce false identification or false documents with knowledge that they will be used by the person or another to commit any felony;

(6) uses any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another to portray himself or herself as that person, or otherwise, for the purpose of gaining access to any personal identifying information or personal identification document of that person, without the prior express permission of that person;

(7) uses any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another for the purpose of gaining access to any record of the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of that person, without the prior express permission of that person;

(7.5) uses, possesses, or transfers a radio frequency identification device capable of obtaining or processing personal identifying information from a radio frequency identification (RFID) tag or transponder with knowledge that the device will be used by the person or another to commit a felony violation of State law or any violation of this Article; or

(8) in the course of applying for a building permit with a unit of local government, provides the license number of a roofing or fire sprinkler contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the roofing or fire sprinkler portion of the project; it is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this paragraph (8) that the building permit applicant promptly informed the unit of local government that issued the building permit of any change in the roofing or fire sprinkler contractor.

(b) Aggravated identity theft. A person commits aggravated identity theft when he or she commits identity theft as set forth in subsection (a) of this Section:

(1) against a person 60 years of age or older or a person with a disability; or

(2) in furtherance of the activities of an organized gang.

A defense to aggravated identity theft does not exist merely because the accused reasonably believed the victim to be a person less than 60 years of age. For the purposes of this subsection, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) Knowledge shall be determined by an evaluation of all circumstances surrounding the use of the other person's identifying information or document.

(d) When a charge of identity theft or aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding a specified value is brought, the value of the credit, money, goods, services, or other property is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(e) Sentence.

(1) Identity theft.

(A) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) shall be sentenced as follows:

(i) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 4 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly person or person with a disability is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 3 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly person or person with a disability is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(ii) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value is a Class 3 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 2 felony.

(iii) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 1 felony.

(iv) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class X felony.

(v) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(B) A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(C) A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (5) and (7.5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (5) and (7.5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(D) A person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(E) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine is guilty of a Class 2 felony for a first offense and a Class 1 felony for a second or subsequent offense. A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony for a first offense and a Class X felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(F) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) Aggravated identity theft.

(A) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 3 felony.

(B) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(C) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 in value and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(D) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(E) Aggravated identity theft for a violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 2 felony.

(F) Aggravated identity theft when a person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) of this Section with identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is a Class 1 felony.

(G) A person who has been previously convicted of aggravated identity theft regardless of the value of the property involved who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated identity theft regardless of the value of the property involved is guilty of a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 101-324, eff. 1-1-20.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-31)

Sec. 16-31. Transmission of personal identifying information.

(a) A person commits transmission of personal identifying information if he or she is not a party to a transaction that involves the use of a financial transaction device and knowingly: (i) secretly or surreptitiously photographs, or otherwise captures or records, electronically or by any other means, personal identifying information from the transaction without the consent of the person whose information is photographed or otherwise captured, recorded, distributed, disseminated, or transmitted, or (ii) distributes, disseminates, or transmits, electronically or by any other means, personal identifying information from the transaction without the consent of the person whose information is photographed, or otherwise captured, recorded, distributed, disseminated, or transmitted.

(b) This Section does not:

(1) prohibit the capture or transmission of personal identifying information in the ordinary and lawful course of business;

(2) apply to a peace officer of this State, or of the federal government, or the officer's agent, while in the lawful performance of the officer's duties;

(3) prohibit a person from being charged with, convicted of, or punished for any other violation of law committed by that person while violating or attempting to violate this Section.

(c) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-32)

Sec. 16-32. Facilitating identity theft.

(a) A person commits facilitating identity theft when he or she, in the course of his or her employment or official duties, has access to the personal information of another person in the possession of the State of Illinois, whether written, recorded, or on computer disk, and knowingly, with the intent of committing identity theft, aggravated identity theft, or any violation of the Illinois Financial Crime Law, disposes of that written, recorded, or computerized information in any receptacle, trash can, or other container that the public could gain access to, without shredding that information, destroying the recording, or wiping the computer disk so that the information is either unintelligible or destroyed.

(b) Sentence. Facilitating identity theft is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(c) For purposes of this Section, "personal information" has the meaning provided in the Personal Information Protection Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-33)

Sec. 16-33. Civil remedies. A person who is convicted of facilitating identity theft, identity theft, or aggravated identity theft is liable in a civil action to the person who suffered damages as a result of the violation. The person suffering damages may recover court costs, attorney's fees, lost wages, and actual damages. Where a person has been convicted of identity theft in violation of subdivision (a)(6) or subdivision (a)(7) of Section 16-30, in the absence of proof of actual damages, the person whose personal identification information or personal identification documents were used in the violation in question may recover damages of $2,000.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-34)

Sec. 16-34. Offender's interest in the property; consent.

(a) It is no defense to a charge of aggravated identity theft or identity theft that the offender has an interest in the credit, money, goods, services, or other property.

(b) It is no defense to a charge of aggravated identity theft or identity theft that the offender received the consent of any person to access any personal identification information or personal identification document, other than the person described by the personal identification information or personal identification document used by the offender.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-35)

Sec. 16-35. Mandating law enforcement agencies to accept and provide reports; judicial factual determination.

(a) A person who has learned or reasonably suspects that his or her personal identifying information has been unlawfully used by another may initiate a law enforcement investigation by contacting the local law enforcement agency that has jurisdiction over his or her actual residence, which shall take a police report of the matter, provide the complainant with a copy of that report, and begin an investigation of the facts, or, if the suspected crime was committed in a different jurisdiction, refer the matter to the law enforcement agency where the suspected crime was committed for an investigation of the facts.

(b) A person who reasonably believes that he or she is the victim of financial identity theft may petition a court, or upon application of the prosecuting attorney or on its own motion, the court may move for an expedited judicial determination of his or her factual innocence, where the perpetrator of the financial identity theft was arrested for, cited for, or convicted of a crime under the victim's identity, or where a criminal complaint has been filed against the perpetrator in the victim's name, or where the victim's identity has been mistakenly associated with a criminal conviction. Any judicial determination of factual innocence made pursuant to this subsection may be heard and determined upon declarations, affidavits, police reports, or other material, relevant, and reliable information submitted by the parties or ordered to be part of the record by the court. If the court determines that the petition or motion is meritorious and that there is no reasonable cause to believe that the victim committed the offense for which the perpetrator of the identity theft was arrested, cited, convicted, or subject to a criminal complaint in the victim's name, or that the victim's identity has been mistakenly associated with a record of criminal conviction, the court shall find the victim factually innocent of that offense. If the victim is found factually innocent, the court shall issue an order certifying this determination.

(c) After a court has issued a determination of factual innocence under this Section, the court may order the name and associated personal identifying information contained in the court records, files, and indexes accessible by the public sealed, deleted, or labeled to show that the data is impersonated and does not reflect the defendant's identity.

(d) A court that has issued a determination of factual innocence under this Section may at any time vacate that determination if the petition, or any information submitted in support of the petition, is found to contain any material misrepresentation or fraud.

(e) Except for criminal and civil actions provided for by Sections 16-30 through 16-36, or for disciplinary or licensure-related proceedings involving the violation of Sections 16-30 through 16-36, no information acquired by, or as a result of, any violation of Section 16-30 shall be discoverable or admissible in any court or other proceeding, or otherwise subject to disclosure without the express permission of any person or persons identified in that information.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-36)

Sec. 16-36. Venue. In addition to any other venues provided for by statute or otherwise, venue for any criminal prosecution or civil recovery action under Sections 16-30 through 16-36 shall be proper in any county where the person described in the personal identification information or personal identification document in question resides or has his or her principal place of business. Where a criminal prosecution or civil recovery action under Sections 16-30 through 16-36 involves the personal identification information or personal identification documents of more than one person, venue shall be proper in any county where one or more of the persons described in the personal identification information or personal identification documents in question resides or has his or her principal place of business.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-37)

Sec. 16-37. Exemptions; relation to other laws.

(a) Sections 16-30 through 16-36 do not:

(1) prohibit the capture or transmission of personal identifying information in the ordinary and lawful course of business;

(2) apply to a peace officer of this State, or of the federal government, or the officer's agent, while in the lawful performance of the officer's duties;

(3) prohibit a licensed private detective or licensed private detective agency from representing himself, herself, or itself as another person, provided that he, she, or it may not portray himself, herself, or itself as the person whose information he, she, or it is seeking except as provided under Sections 16-30 through 16-36;

(4) apply to activities authorized under any other statute.

(b) No criminal prosecution or civil action brought under Sections 16-30 through 16-36 shall prohibit a person from being charged with, convicted of, or punished for any other violation of law committed by that person while violating or attempting to violate Sections 16-30 through 16-36.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 20 heading) SUBDIVISION 20. MISCELLANEOUS THEFT-RELATED OFFENSES (Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-40)

Sec. 16-40. Internet offenses.

(a) Online sale of stolen property. A person commits online sale of stolen property when he or she uses or accesses the Internet with the intent of selling property gained through unlawful means.

(b) Online theft by deception. A person commits online theft by deception when he or she uses the Internet to purchase or attempt to purchase property from a seller with a mode of payment that he or she knows is fictitious, stolen, or lacking the consent of the valid account holder.

(c) Electronic fencing. A person commits electronic fencing when he or she sells stolen property using the Internet, knowing that the property was stolen. A person who unknowingly purchases stolen property over the Internet does not violate this Section.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony if the full retail value of the stolen property or property obtained by deception does not exceed $300. A violation of this Section is a Class 2 felony if the full retail value of the stolen property or property obtained by deception exceeds $300.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16A heading) ARTICLE 16A. RETAIL THEFT (Repealed)(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16B heading) ARTICLE 16B. PROTECTION OF LIBRARY MATERIALS (Repealed)(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16C heading) ARTICLE 16C. UNLAWFUL SALE OF HOUSEHOLD APPLIANCES (Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16D heading) ARTICLE 16D. COMPUTER CRIME (Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16E heading) ARTICLE 16E. DELIVERY CONTAINER CRIME (Repealed)(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16F heading) ARTICLE 16F. WIRELESS SERVICE THEFT (Repealed)(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16G heading) ARTICLE 16G. IDENTITY THEFT LAW (Repealed)(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16H heading) ARTICLE 16H. ILLINOIS FINANCIAL CRIME LAW (Repealed)(Article repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16J heading) ARTICLE 16J. ONLINE PROPERTY OFFENSES (Repealed)(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16K heading) ARTICLE 16K. THEFT OF MOTOR FUEL(Repealed)(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17 heading) ARTICLE 17. DECEPTION AND FRAUD (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 1 heading) SUBDIVISION 1. GENERAL DEFINITIONS (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-0.5)

Sec. 17-0.5. Definitions. In this Article:

"Altered credit card or debit card" means any instrument or device, whether known as a credit card or debit card, which has been changed in any respect by addition or deletion of any material, except for the signature by the person to whom the card is issued.

"Cardholder" means the person or organization named on the face of a credit card or debit card to whom or for whose benefit the credit card or debit card is issued by an issuer.

"Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, retrieves, or outputs data and includes, but is not limited to, auxiliary storage, including cloud-based networks of remote services hosted on the Internet, and telecommunications devices connected to computers.

"Computer network" means a set of related, remotely connected devices and any communications facilities including more than one computer with the capability to transmit data between them through the communications facilities.

"Computer program" or "program" means a series of coded instructions or statements in a form acceptable to a computer which causes the computer to process data and supply the results of the data processing.

"Computer services" means computer time or services, including data processing services, Internet services, electronic mail services, electronic message services, or information or data stored in connection therewith.

"Counterfeit" means to manufacture, produce or create, by any means, a credit card or debit card without the purported issuer's consent or authorization.

"Credit card" means any instrument or device, whether known as a credit card, credit plate, charge plate or any other name, issued with or without fee by an issuer for the use of the cardholder in obtaining money, goods, services or anything else of value on credit or in consideration or an undertaking or guaranty by the issuer of the payment of a check drawn by the cardholder.

"Data" means a representation in any form of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions, including program documentation, which is prepared or has been prepared in a formalized manner and is stored or processed in or transmitted by a computer or in a system or network. Data is considered property and may be in any form, including, but not limited to, printouts, magnetic or optical storage media, punch cards, or data stored internally in the memory of the computer.

"Debit card" means any instrument or device, known by any name, issued with or without fee by an issuer for the use of the cardholder in obtaining money, goods, services, and anything else of value, payment of which is made against funds previously deposited by the cardholder. A debit card which also can be used to obtain money, goods, services and anything else of value on credit shall not be considered a debit card when it is being used to obtain money, goods, services or anything else of value on credit.

"Document" includes, but is not limited to, any document, representation, or image produced manually, electronically, or by computer.

"Electronic fund transfer terminal" means any machine or device that, when properly activated, will perform any of the following services:

(1) Dispense money as a debit to the cardholder's account; or

(2) Print the cardholder's account balances on a statement; or

(3) Transfer funds between a cardholder's accounts; or

(4) Accept payments on a cardholder's loan; or

(5) Dispense cash advances on an open end credit or a revolving charge agreement; or

(6) Accept deposits to a customer's account; or

(7) Receive inquiries of verification of checks and dispense information that verifies that funds are available to cover such checks; or

(8) Cause money to be transferred electronically from a cardholder's account to an account held by any business, firm, retail merchant, corporation, or any other organization.

"Electronic funds transfer system", hereafter referred to as "EFT System", means that system whereby funds are transferred electronically from a cardholder's account to any other account.

"Electronic mail service provider" means any person who (i) is an intermediary in sending or receiving electronic mail and (ii) provides to end-users of electronic mail services the ability to send or receive electronic mail.

"Expired credit card or debit card" means a credit card or debit card which is no longer valid because the term on it has elapsed.

"False academic degree" means a certificate, diploma, transcript, or other document purporting to be issued by an institution of higher learning or purporting to indicate that a person has completed an organized academic program of study at an institution of higher learning when the person has not completed the organized academic program of study indicated on the certificate, diploma, transcript, or other document.

"False claim" means any statement made to any insurer, purported insurer, servicing corporation, insurance broker, or insurance agent, or any agent or employee of one of those entities, and made as part of, or in support of, a claim for payment or other benefit under a policy of insurance, or as part of, or in support of, an application for the issuance of, or the rating of, any insurance policy, when the statement does any of the following:

(1) Contains any false, incomplete, or misleading information concerning any fact or thing material to the claim.

(2) Conceals (i) the occurrence of an event that is material to any person's initial or continued right or entitlement to any insurance benefit or payment or (ii) the amount of any benefit or payment to which the person is entitled.

"Financial institution" means any bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or other depository of money or medium of savings and collective investment.

"Governmental entity" means: each officer, board, commission, and agency created by the Constitution, whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of State government; each officer, department, board, commission, agency, institution, authority, university, and body politic and corporate of the State; each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of State government that is created by or pursuant to statute, including units of local government and their officers, school districts, and boards of election commissioners; and each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of the foregoing items and as may be created by executive order of the Governor.

"Incomplete credit card or debit card" means a credit card or debit card which is missing part of the matter other than the signature of the cardholder which an issuer requires to appear on the credit card or debit card before it can be used by a cardholder, and this includes credit cards or debit cards which have not been stamped, embossed, imprinted or written on.

"Institution of higher learning" means a public or private college, university, or community college located in the State of Illinois that is authorized by the Board of Higher Education or the Illinois Community College Board to issue post-secondary degrees, or a public or private college, university, or community college located anywhere in the United States that is or has been legally constituted to offer degrees and instruction in its state of origin or incorporation.

"Insurance company" means "company" as defined under Section 2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

"Issuer" means the business organization or financial institution which issues a credit card or debit card, or its duly authorized agent.

"Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of this Code.

"Person" means any individual, corporation, government, governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association or any other entity.

"Receives" or "receiving" means acquiring possession or control.

"Record of charge form" means any document submitted or intended to be submitted to an issuer as evidence of a credit transaction for which the issuer has agreed to reimburse persons providing money, goods, property, services or other things of value.

"Revoked credit card or debit card" means a credit card or debit card which is no longer valid because permission to use it has been suspended or terminated by the issuer.

"Sale" means any delivery for value.

"Scheme or artifice to defraud" includes a scheme or artifice to deprive another of the intangible right to honest services.

"Self-insured entity" means any person, business, partnership, corporation, or organization that sets aside funds to meet his, her, or its losses or to absorb fluctuations in the amount of loss, the losses being charged against the funds set aside or accumulated.

"Social networking website" means an Internet website containing profile web pages of the members of the website that include the names or nicknames of such members, photographs placed on the profile web pages by such members, or any other personal or personally identifying information about such members and links to other profile web pages on social networking websites of friends or associates of such members that can be accessed by other members or visitors to the website. A social networking website provides members of or visitors to such website the ability to leave messages or comments on the profile web page that are visible to all or some visitors to the profile web page and may also include a form of electronic mail for members of the social networking website.

"Statement" means any assertion, oral, written, or otherwise, and includes, but is not limited to: any notice, letter, or memorandum; proof of loss; bill of lading; receipt for payment; invoice, account, or other financial statement; estimate of property damage; bill for services; diagnosis or prognosis; prescription; hospital, medical, or dental chart or other record, x-ray, photograph, videotape, or movie film; test result; other evidence of loss, injury, or expense; computer-generated document; and data in any form.

"Universal Price Code Label" means a unique symbol that consists of a machine-readable code and human-readable numbers.

"With intent to defraud" means to act knowingly, and with the specific intent to deceive or cheat, for the purpose of causing financial loss to another or bringing some financial gain to oneself, regardless of whether any person was actually defrauded or deceived. This includes an intent to cause another to assume, create, transfer, alter, or terminate any right, obligation, or power with reference to any person or property.

(Source: P.A. 101-87, eff. 1-1-20.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 5 heading) SUBDIVISION 5. DECEPTION (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-1)

Sec. 17-1. Deceptive practices.

(A) General deception.

A person commits a deceptive practice when, with intent to defraud, the person does any of the following:

(1) He or she knowingly causes another, by deception or threat, to execute a document disposing of property or a document by which a pecuniary obligation is incurred.

(2) Being an officer, manager or other person participating in the direction of a financial institution, he or she knowingly receives or permits the receipt of a deposit or other investment, knowing that the institution is insolvent.

(3) He or she knowingly makes a false or deceptive statement addressed to the public for the purpose of promoting the sale of property or services.

(B) Bad checks.

A person commits a deceptive practice when:

(1) With intent to obtain control over property or to pay for property, labor or services of another, or in satisfaction of an obligation for payment of tax under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or any other tax due to the State of Illinois, he or she issues or delivers a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository. The trier of fact may infer that the defendant knows that the check or other order will not be paid by the depository and that the defendant has acted with intent to defraud when the defendant fails to have sufficient funds or credit with the depository when the check or other order is issued or delivered, or when such check or other order is presented for payment and dishonored on each of 2 occasions at least 7 days apart. In this paragraph (B)(1), "property" includes rental property (real or personal).

(2) He or she issues or delivers a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository in an amount exceeding $150 in payment of an amount owed on any credit transaction for property, labor or services, or in payment of the entire amount owed on any credit transaction for property, labor or services, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, and thereafter fails to provide funds or credit with the depository in the face amount of the check or order within 7 days of receiving actual notice from the depository or payee of the dishonor of the check or order.

(C) Bank-related fraud.

(1) False statement.

A person commits false statement bank fraud if he or she, with intent to defraud, makes or causes to be made any false statement in writing in order to obtain an account with a bank or other financial institution, or to obtain credit from a bank or other financial institution, or to obtain services from a currency exchange, knowing such writing to be false, and with the intent that it be relied upon.

For purposes of this subsection (C), a false statement means any false statement representing identity, address, or employment, or the identity, address, or employment of any person, firm, or corporation.

(2) Possession of stolen or fraudulently obtained checks.

A person commits possession of stolen or fraudulently obtained checks when he or she possesses, with the intent to obtain access to funds of another person held in a real or fictitious deposit account at a financial institution, makes a false statement or a misrepresentation to the financial institution, or possesses, transfers, negotiates, or presents for payment a check, draft, or other item purported to direct the financial institution to withdraw or pay funds out of the account holder's deposit account with knowledge that such possession, transfer, negotiation, or presentment is not authorized by the account holder or the issuing financial institution. A person shall be deemed to have been authorized to possess, transfer, negotiate, or present for payment such item if the person was otherwise entitled by law to withdraw or recover funds from the account in question and followed the requisite procedures under the law. If the account holder, upon discovery of the withdrawal or payment, claims that the withdrawal or payment was not authorized, the financial institution may require the account holder to submit an affidavit to that effect on a form satisfactory to the financial institution before the financial institution may be required to credit the account in an amount equal to the amount or amounts that were withdrawn or paid without authorization.

(3) Possession of implements of check fraud.

A person commits possession of implements of check fraud when he or she possesses, with the intent to defraud and without the authority of the account holder or financial institution, any check imprinter, signature imprinter, or "certified" stamp.

(D) Sentence.

(1) The commission of a deceptive practice in violation of this Section, except as otherwise provided by this subsection (D), is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) For purposes of paragraphs (A)(1) and (B)(1):

(a) The commission of a deceptive practice in violation of paragraph (A)(1) or (B)(1), when the value of the property so obtained, in a single transaction or in separate transactions within a 90-day period, exceeds $150, is a Class 4 felony. In the case of a prosecution for separate transactions totaling more than $150 within a 90-day period, those separate transactions shall be alleged in a single charge and prosecuted in a single prosecution.

(b) The commission of a deceptive practice in violation of paragraph (B)(1) a second or subsequent time is a Class 4 felony.

(3) For purposes of paragraph (C)(2), a person who, within any 12-month period, violates paragraph (C)(2) with respect to 3 or more checks or orders for the payment of money at the same time or consecutively, each the property of a different account holder or financial institution, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(4) For purposes of paragraph (C)(3), a person who within any 12-month period violates paragraph (C)(3) as to possession of 3 or more such devices at the same time or consecutively is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(E) Civil liability. A person who issues a check or order to a payee in violation of paragraph (B)(1) and who fails to pay the amount of the check or order to the payee within 30 days following either delivery and acceptance by the addressee of a written demand both by certified mail and by first class mail to the person's last known address or attempted delivery of a written demand sent both by certified mail and by first class mail to the person's last known address and the demand by certified mail is returned to the sender with a notation that delivery was refused or unclaimed shall be liable to the payee or a person subrogated to the rights of the payee for, in addition to the amount owing upon such check or order, damages of treble the amount so owing, but in no case less than $100 nor more than $1,500, plus attorney's fees and court costs. An action under this subsection (E) may be brought in small claims court or in any other appropriate court. As part of the written demand required by this subsection (E), the plaintiff shall provide written notice to the defendant of the fact that prior to the hearing of any action under this subsection (E), the defendant may tender to the plaintiff and the plaintiff shall accept, as satisfaction of the claim, an amount of money equal to the sum of the amount of the check and the incurred court costs, including the cost of service of process, and attorney's fees.

(Source: P.A. 96-1432, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-1a) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-1a)

Sec. 17-1a. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 90-721, eff. 1-1-99. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-1b)

Sec. 17-1b. State's Attorney's bad check diversion program.

(a) In this Section:

"Offender" means a person charged with, or for whom probable cause exists to charge the person with, deceptive practices.

"Pretrial diversion" means the decision of a prosecutor to refer an offender to a diversion program on condition that the criminal charges against the offender will be dismissed after a specified period of time, or the case will not be charged, if the offender successfully completes the program.

"Restitution" means all amounts payable to a victim of deceptive practices under the bad check diversion program created under this Section, including the amount of the check and any transaction fees payable to a victim as set forth in subsection (g) but does not include amounts recoverable under Section 3-806 of the Uniform Commercial Code and subsection (E) of Section 17-1 of this Code.

(b) A State's Attorney may create within his or her office a bad check diversion program for offenders who agree to voluntarily participate in the program instead of undergoing prosecution. The program may be conducted by the State's Attorney or by a private entity under contract with the State's Attorney. If the State's Attorney contracts with a private entity to perform any services in operating the program, the entity shall operate under the supervision, direction, and control of the State's Attorney. Any private entity providing services under this Section is not a "collection agency" as that term is defined under the Collection Agency Act.

(c) If an offender is referred to the State's Attorney, the State's Attorney may determine whether the offender is appropriate for acceptance in the program. The State's Attorney may consider, but shall not be limited to consideration of, the following factors:

(1) the amount of the check that was drawn or passed;

(2) prior referrals of the offender to the program;

(3) whether other charges of deceptive practices are pending against the offender;

(4) the evidence presented to the State's Attorney regarding the facts and circumstances of the incident;

(5) the offender's criminal history; and

(6) the reason the check was dishonored by the financial institution.

(d) The bad check diversion program may require an offender to do one or more of the following:

(i) pay for, at his or her own expense, and successfully complete an educational class held by the State's Attorney or a private entity under contract with the State's Attorney;

(ii) make full restitution for the offense;

(iii) pay a per-check administrative fee as set forth in this Section.

(e) If an offender is diverted to the program, the State's Attorney shall agree in writing not to prosecute the offender upon the offender's successful completion of the program conditions. The State's Attorney's agreement to divert the offender shall specify the offenses that will not be prosecuted by identifying the checks involved in the transactions.

(f) The State's Attorney, or private entity under contract with the State's Attorney, may collect a fee from an offender diverted to the State's Attorney's bad check diversion program. This fee may be deposited in a bank account maintained by the State's Attorney for the purpose of depositing fees and paying the expenses of the program or for use in the enforcement and prosecution of criminal laws. The State's Attorney may require that the fee be paid directly to a private entity that administers the program under a contract with the State's Attorney. The amount of the administrative fees collected by the State's Attorney under the program may not exceed $35 per check. The county board may, however, by ordinance, increase the fees allowed by this Section if the increase is justified by an acceptable cost study showing that the fees allowed by this Section are not sufficient to cover the cost of providing the service.

(g) (1) The private entity shall be required to maintain adequate general liability insurance of $1,000,000 per occurrence as well as adequate coverage for potential loss resulting from employee dishonesty. The State's Attorney may require a surety bond payable to the State's Attorney if in the State's Attorney's opinion it is determined that the private entity is not adequately insured or funded.

(2) (A) Each private entity that has a contract with the State's Attorney to conduct a bad check diversion program shall at all times maintain a separate bank account in which all moneys received from the offenders participating in the program shall be deposited, referred to as a "trust account", except that negotiable instruments received may be forwarded directly to a victim of the deceptive practice committed by the offender if that procedure is provided for by a writing executed by the victim. Moneys received shall be so deposited within 5 business days after posting to the private entity's books of account. There shall be sufficient funds in the trust account at all times to pay the victims the amount due them.

(B) The trust account shall be established in a financial institution which is federally or State insured or otherwise secured as defined by rule. If the account is interest bearing, the private entity shall pay to the victim interest earned on funds on deposit after the 60th day.

(C) Each private entity shall keep on file the name of the financial institution in which each trust account is maintained, the name of each trust account, and the names of the persons authorized to withdraw funds from each account. The private entity, within 30 days of the time of a change of depository or person authorized to make withdrawal, shall update its files to reflect that change. An examination and audit of a private entity's trust accounts may be made by the State's Attorney as the State's Attorney deems appropriate. A trust account financial report shall be submitted annually on forms acceptable to the State's Attorney.

(3) The State's Attorney may cancel a contract entered into with a private entity under this Section for any one or any combination of the following causes:

(A) Conviction of the private entity or the principals of the private entity of any crime under the laws of any U.S. jurisdiction which is a felony, a misdemeanor an essential element of which is dishonesty, or of any crime which directly relates to the practice of the profession.

(B) A determination that the private entity has engaged in conduct prohibited in item (4).

(4) The State's Attorney may determine whether the private entity has engaged in the following prohibited conduct:

(A) Using or threatening to use force or violence to cause physical harm to an offender, his or her family, or his or her property.

(B) Threatening the seizure, attachment, or sale of an offender's property where such action can only be taken pursuant to court order without disclosing that prior court proceedings are required.

(C) Disclosing or threatening to disclose information adversely affecting an offender's reputation for creditworthiness with knowledge the information is false.

(D) Initiating or threatening to initiate communication with an offender's employer unless there has been a default of the payment of the obligation for at least 30 days and at least 5 days prior written notice, to the last known address of the offender, of the intention to communicate with the employer has been given to the employee, except as expressly permitted by law or court order.

(E) Communicating with the offender or any member of the offender's family at such a time of day or night and with such frequency as to constitute harassment of the offender or any member of the offender's family. For purposes of this clause (E) the following conduct shall constitute harassment:

(i) Communicating with the offender or any member of his or her family at any unusual time or place or a time or place known or which should be known to be inconvenient to the offender. In the absence of knowledge of circumstances to the contrary, a private entity shall assume that the convenient time for communicating with a consumer is after 8 o'clock a.m. and before 9 o'clock p.m. local time at the offender's residence.

(ii) The threat of publication or publication of a list of offenders who allegedly refuse to pay restitution, except by the State's Attorney.

(iii) The threat of advertisement or advertisement for sale of any restitution to coerce payment of the restitution.

(iv) Causing a telephone to ring or engaging any person in telephone conversation repeatedly or continuously with intent to annoy, abuse, or harass any person at the called number.

(v) Using profane, obscene or abusive language in communicating with an offender, his or her family, or others.

(vi) Disclosing or threatening to disclose information relating to a offender's case to any other person except the victim and appropriate law enforcement personnel.

(vii) Disclosing or threatening to disclose information concerning the alleged criminal act which the private entity knows to be reasonably disputed by the offender without disclosing the fact that the offender disputes the accusation.

(viii) Engaging in any conduct which the State's Attorney finds was intended to cause and did cause mental or physical illness to the offender or his or her family.

(ix) Attempting or threatening to enforce a right or remedy with knowledge or reason to know that the right or remedy does not exist.

(x) Except as authorized by the State's Attorney, using any form of communication which simulates legal or judicial process or which gives the appearance of being authorized, issued or approved by a governmental agency or official or by an attorney at law when it is not.

(xi) Using any badge, uniform, or other indicia of any governmental agency or official, except as authorized by law or by the State's Attorney.

(xii) Except as authorized by the State's Attorney, conducting business under any name or in any manner which suggests or implies that the private entity is bonded if such private entity is or is a branch of or is affiliated with any governmental agency or court if such private entity is not.

(xiii) Misrepresenting the amount of the restitution alleged to be owed.

(xiv) Except as authorized by the State's Attorney, representing that an existing restitution amount may be increased by the addition of attorney's fees, investigation fees, or any other fees or charges when those fees or charges may not legally be added to the existing restitution.

(xv) Except as authorized by the State's Attorney, representing that the private entity is an attorney at law or an agent for an attorney if the entity is not.

(xvi) Collecting or attempting to collect any interest or other charge or fee in excess of the actual restitution or claim unless the interest or other charge or fee is expressly authorized by the State's Attorney, who shall determine what constitutes a reasonable collection fee.

(xvii) Communicating or threatening to communicate with an offender when the private entity is informed in writing by an attorney that the attorney represents the offender concerning the claim, unless authorized by the attorney. If the attorney fails to respond within a reasonable period of time, the private entity may communicate with the offender. The private entity may communicate with the offender when the attorney gives his consent.

(xviii) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(5) The State's Attorney shall audit the accounts of the bad check diversion program after notice in writing to the private entity.

(6) Any information obtained by a private entity that has a contract with the State's Attorney to conduct a bad check diversion program is confidential information between the State's Attorney and the private entity and may not be sold or used for any other purpose but may be shared with other authorized law enforcement agencies as determined by the State's Attorney.

(h) The State's Attorney, or private entity under contract with the State's Attorney, shall recover, in addition to the face amount of the dishonored check or draft, a transaction fee to defray the costs and expenses incurred by a victim who received a dishonored check that was made or delivered by the offender. The face amount of the dishonored check or draft and the transaction fee shall be paid by the State's Attorney or private entity under contract with the State's Attorney to the victim as restitution for the offense. The amount of the transaction fee must not exceed: $25 if the face amount of the check or draft does not exceed $100; $30 if the face amount of the check or draft is greater than $100 but does not exceed $250; $35 if the face amount of the check or draft is greater than $250 but does not exceed $500; $40 if the face amount of the check or draft is greater than $500 but does not exceed $1,000; and $50 if the face amount of the check or draft is greater than $1,000.

(i) The offender, if aggrieved by an action of the private entity contracted to operate a bad check diversion program, may submit a grievance to the State's Attorney who may then resolve the grievance. The private entity must give notice to the offender that the grievance procedure is available. The grievance procedure shall be established by the State's Attorney.

(Source: P.A. 95-41, eff. 1-1-08; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-746)

Sec. 17-2. False personation; solicitation.

(a) False personation; solicitation.

(1) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a member or representative of any veterans' or public safety personnel organization or a representative of any charitable organization, or when he or she knowingly exhibits or uses in any manner any decal, badge or insignia of any charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization when not authorized to do so by the charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization. "Public safety personnel organization" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1 of the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(2) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a veteran in seeking employment or public office. In this paragraph, "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States.

(2.1) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be:

(A) an active-duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the National Guard or a veteran of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the National Guard; and

(B) obtains money, property, or another tangible benefit through that false representation.

In this paragraph, "member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States" means a member of the United States Navy, Army, Air Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard; and "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the National Guard.

(2.5) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be:

(A) another actual person and does an act in such assumed character with intent to intimidate, threaten, injure, defraud, or to obtain a benefit from another; or

(B) a representative of an actual person or organization and does an act in such false capacity with intent to obtain a benefit or to injure or defraud another.

(3) No person shall knowingly use the words "Police", "Police Department", "Patrolman", "Sergeant", "Lieutenant", "Peace Officer", "Sheriff's Police", "Sheriff", "Officer", "Law Enforcement", "Trooper", "Deputy", "Deputy Sheriff", "State Police", or any other words to the same effect (i) in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the named public safety personnel organization's governing board or (ii) in combination with the name of any state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government without the express written authorization of that state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government.

(4) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is acting on behalf of any public safety personnel organization when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements unless the chief of the police department, fire department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff has first entered into a written agreement with the person or with an organization with which the person is affiliated and the agreement permits the activity and specifies and states clearly and fully the purpose for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(5) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", "State police", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of law enforcement personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty peace officers, retired peace officers, or injured peace officers; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or the offers to sell any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization, which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used, has been entered into.

(6) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes the term "fireman", "fire fighter", "paramedic", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of fire fighter or paramedic personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty, retired, or injured fire fighters (for the purposes of this Section, "fire fighter" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 2 of the Illinois Fire Protection Training Act) or active duty, retired, or injured emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or delivery or the offers to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization have entered into a written contract that specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(7) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport in order to obtain the uniform, identification card, license, or other identification paraphernalia of an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport.

(8) No person, firm, copartnership, or corporation (except corporations organized and doing business under the Pawners Societies Act) shall knowingly use a name that contains in it the words "Pawners' Society".

(b) False personation; public officials and employees. A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be any of the following:

(1) An attorney authorized to practice law for purposes of compensation or consideration. This paragraph (b)(1) does not apply to a person who unintentionally fails to pay attorney registration fees established by Supreme Court Rule.

(2) A public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government.

(2.3) A public officer, a public employee, or an official or employee of the federal government, and the false representation is made in furtherance of the commission of felony.

(2.7) A public officer or a public employee, and the false representation is for the purpose of effectuating identity theft as defined in Section 16-30 of this Code.

(3) A peace officer.

(4) A peace officer while carrying a deadly weapon.

(5) A peace officer in attempting or committing a felony.

(6) A peace officer in attempting or committing a forcible felony.

(7) The parent, legal guardian, or other relation of a minor child to any public official, public employee, or elementary or secondary school employee or administrator.

(7.5) The legal guardian, including any representative of a State or public guardian, of a person with a disability appointed under Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975.

(8) A fire fighter.

(9) A fire fighter while carrying a deadly weapon.

(10) A fire fighter in attempting or committing a felony.

(11) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State.

(12) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State in attempting or committing a felony. For the purposes of this subsection (b), "emergency management worker" has the meaning provided under Section 2-6.6 of this Code.

(b-5) The trier of fact may infer that a person falsely represents himself or herself to be a public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government if the person:

(1) wears or displays without authority any uniform, badge, insignia, or facsimile thereof by which a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government is lawfully distinguished; or

(2) falsely expresses by word or action that he or she is a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government and is acting with approval or authority of a public agency or department.

(c) Fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name.

(1) A company, association, or individual commits fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name if he, she, or it, not being incorporated, puts forth a sign or advertisement and assumes, for the purpose of soliciting business, a corporate name.

(2) Nothing contained in this subsection (c) prohibits a corporation, company, association, or person from using a divisional designation or trade name in conjunction with its corporate name or assumed name under Section 4.05 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or, if it is a member of a partnership or joint venture, from doing partnership or joint venture business under the partnership or joint venture name. The name under which the joint venture or partnership does business may differ from the names of the members. Business may not be conducted or transacted under that joint venture or partnership name, however, unless all provisions of the Assumed Business Name Act have been complied with. Nothing in this subsection (c) permits a foreign corporation to do business in this State without complying with all Illinois laws regulating the doing of business by foreign corporations. No foreign corporation may conduct or transact business in this State as a member of a partnership or joint venture that violates any Illinois law regulating or pertaining to the doing of business by foreign corporations in Illinois.

(3) The provisions of this subsection (c) do not apply to limited partnerships formed under the Revised Uniform Limited Partnership Act or under the Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001).

(d) False law enforcement badges.

(1) A person commits false law enforcement badges if he or she knowingly produces, sells, or distributes a law enforcement badge without the express written consent of the law enforcement agency represented on the badge or, in case of a reorganized or defunct law enforcement agency, its successor law enforcement agency.

(2) It is a defense to false law enforcement badges that the law enforcement badge is used or is intended to be used exclusively: (i) as a memento or in a collection or exhibit; (ii) for decorative purposes; or (iii) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production.

(e) False medals.

(1) A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a recipient of, or wears on his or her person, any of the following medals if that medal was not awarded to that person by the United States Government, irrespective of branch of service: The Congressional Medal of Honor, The Distinguished Service Cross, The Navy Cross, The Air Force Cross, The Silver Star, The Bronze Star, or the Purple Heart.

(2) It is a defense to a prosecution under paragraph (e)(1) that the medal is used, or is intended to be used, exclusively:

(A) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production, or a historical re-enactment; or

(B) for a costume worn, or intended to be worn, by a person under 18 years of age.

(f) Sentence.

(1) A violation of paragraph (a)(8) is a petty offense subject to a fine of not less than $5 nor more than $100, and the person, firm, copartnership, or corporation commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of paragraph (c)(1) is a petty offense, and the company, association, or person commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of paragraph (a)(2.1) or subsection (e) is a petty offense for which the offender shall be fined at least $100 and not more than $200.

(2) A violation of paragraph (a)(1), (a)(3), or (b)(7.5) is a Class C misdemeanor.

(3) A violation of paragraph (a)(2), (a)(2.5), (a)(7), (b)(2), or (b)(7) or subsection (d) is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A violation of paragraph (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (b)(1), (b)(2.3), (b)(2.7), (b)(3), (b)(8), or (b)(11) is a Class 4 felony.

(5) A violation of paragraph (b)(4), (b)(9), or (b)(12) is a Class 3 felony.

(6) A violation of paragraph (b)(5) or (b)(10) is a Class 2 felony.

(7) A violation of paragraph (b)(6) is a Class 1 felony.

(g) A violation of subsection (a)(1) through (a)(7) or subsection (e) of this Section may be accomplished in person or by any means of communication, including but not limited to the use of an Internet website or any form of electronic communication.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-561, eff. 7-15-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-746)

Sec. 17-2. False personation; solicitation.

(a) False personation; solicitation.

(1) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a member or representative of any veterans' or public safety personnel organization or a representative of any charitable organization, or when he or she knowingly exhibits or uses in any manner any decal, badge or insignia of any charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization when not authorized to do so by the charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization. "Public safety personnel organization" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1 of the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(2) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a veteran in seeking employment or public office. In this paragraph, "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States.

(2.1) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be:

(A) an active-duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the National Guard or a veteran of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the National Guard; and

(B) obtains money, property, or another tangible benefit through that false representation.

In this paragraph, "member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States" means a member of the United States Navy, Army, Air Force, Space Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard; and "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the National Guard.

(2.5) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be:

(A) another actual person and does an act in such assumed character with intent to intimidate, threaten, injure, defraud, or to obtain a benefit from another; or

(B) a representative of an actual person or organization and does an act in such false capacity with intent to obtain a benefit or to injure or defraud another.

(3) No person shall knowingly use the words "Police", "Police Department", "Patrolman", "Sergeant", "Lieutenant", "Peace Officer", "Sheriff's Police", "Sheriff", "Officer", "Law Enforcement", "Trooper", "Deputy", "Deputy Sheriff", "State Police", or any other words to the same effect (i) in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the named public safety personnel organization's governing board or (ii) in combination with the name of any state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government without the express written authorization of that state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government.

(4) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is acting on behalf of any public safety personnel organization when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements unless the chief of the police department, fire department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff has first entered into a written agreement with the person or with an organization with which the person is affiliated and the agreement permits the activity and specifies and states clearly and fully the purpose for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(5) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", "State police", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of law enforcement personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty peace officers, retired peace officers, or injured peace officers; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or the offers to sell any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization, which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used, has been entered into.

(6) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes the term "fireman", "fire fighter", "paramedic", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of fire fighter or paramedic personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty, retired, or injured fire fighters (for the purposes of this Section, "fire fighter" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 2 of the Illinois Fire Protection Training Act) or active duty, retired, or injured emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or delivery or the offers to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization have entered into a written contract that specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(7) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport in order to obtain the uniform, identification card, license, or other identification paraphernalia of an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport.

(8) No person, firm, copartnership, or corporation (except corporations organized and doing business under the Pawners Societies Act) shall knowingly use a name that contains in it the words "Pawners' Society".

(b) False personation; public officials and employees. A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be any of the following:

(1) An attorney authorized to practice law for purposes of compensation or consideration. This paragraph (b)(1) does not apply to a person who unintentionally fails to pay attorney registration fees established by Supreme Court Rule.

(2) A public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government.

(2.3) A public officer, a public employee, or an official or employee of the federal government, and the false representation is made in furtherance of the commission of felony.

(2.7) A public officer or a public employee, and the false representation is for the purpose of effectuating identity theft as defined in Section 16-30 of this Code.

(3) A peace officer.

(4) A peace officer while carrying a deadly weapon.

(5) A peace officer in attempting or committing a felony.

(6) A peace officer in attempting or committing a forcible felony.

(7) The parent, legal guardian, or other relation of a minor child to any public official, public employee, or elementary or secondary school employee or administrator.

(7.5) The legal guardian, including any representative of a State or public guardian, of a person with a disability appointed under Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975.

(8) A fire fighter.

(9) A fire fighter while carrying a deadly weapon.

(10) A fire fighter in attempting or committing a felony.

(11) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State.

(12) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State in attempting or committing a felony. For the purposes of this subsection (b), "emergency management worker" has the meaning provided under Section 2-6.6 of this Code.

(b-5) The trier of fact may infer that a person falsely represents himself or herself to be a public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government if the person:

(1) wears or displays without authority any uniform, badge, insignia, or facsimile thereof by which a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government is lawfully distinguished; or

(2) falsely expresses by word or action that he or she is a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government and is acting with approval or authority of a public agency or department.

(c) Fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name.

(1) A company, association, or individual commits fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name if he, she, or it, not being incorporated, puts forth a sign or advertisement and assumes, for the purpose of soliciting business, a corporate name.

(2) Nothing contained in this subsection (c) prohibits a corporation, company, association, or person from using a divisional designation or trade name in conjunction with its corporate name or assumed name under Section 4.05 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or, if it is a member of a partnership or joint venture, from doing partnership or joint venture business under the partnership or joint venture name. The name under which the joint venture or partnership does business may differ from the names of the members. Business may not be conducted or transacted under that joint venture or partnership name, however, unless all provisions of the Assumed Business Name Act have been complied with. Nothing in this subsection (c) permits a foreign corporation to do business in this State without complying with all Illinois laws regulating the doing of business by foreign corporations. No foreign corporation may conduct or transact business in this State as a member of a partnership or joint venture that violates any Illinois law regulating or pertaining to the doing of business by foreign corporations in Illinois.

(3) The provisions of this subsection (c) do not apply to limited partnerships formed under the Revised Uniform Limited Partnership Act or under the Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001).

(d) False law enforcement badges.

(1) A person commits false law enforcement badges if he or she knowingly produces, sells, or distributes a law enforcement badge without the express written consent of the law enforcement agency represented on the badge or, in case of a reorganized or defunct law enforcement agency, its successor law enforcement agency.

(2) It is a defense to false law enforcement badges that the law enforcement badge is used or is intended to be used exclusively: (i) as a memento or in a collection or exhibit; (ii) for decorative purposes; or (iii) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production.

(e) False medals.

(1) A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a recipient of, or wears on his or her person, any of the following medals if that medal was not awarded to that person by the United States Government, irrespective of branch of service: The Congressional Medal of Honor, The Distinguished Service Cross, The Navy Cross, The Air Force Cross, The Silver Star, The Bronze Star, or the Purple Heart.

(2) It is a defense to a prosecution under paragraph (e)(1) that the medal is used, or is intended to be used, exclusively:

(A) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production, or a historical re-enactment; or

(B) for a costume worn, or intended to be worn, by a person under 18 years of age.

(f) Sentence.

(1) A violation of paragraph (a)(8) is a petty offense subject to a fine of not less than $5 nor more than $100, and the person, firm, copartnership, or corporation commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of paragraph (c)(1) is a petty offense, and the company, association, or person commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of paragraph (a)(2.1) or subsection (e) is a petty offense for which the offender shall be fined at least $100 and not more than $200.

(2) A violation of paragraph (a)(1), (a)(3), or (b)(7.5) is a Class C misdemeanor.

(3) A violation of paragraph (a)(2), (a)(2.5), (a)(7), (b)(2), or (b)(7) or subsection (d) is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A violation of paragraph (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (b)(1), (b)(2.3), (b)(2.7), (b)(3), (b)(8), or (b)(11) is a Class 4 felony.

(5) A violation of paragraph (b)(4), (b)(9), or (b)(12) is a Class 3 felony.

(6) A violation of paragraph (b)(5) or (b)(10) is a Class 2 felony.

(7) A violation of paragraph (b)(6) is a Class 1 felony.

(g) A violation of subsection (a)(1) through (a)(7) or subsection (e) of this Section may be accomplished in person or by any means of communication, including but not limited to the use of an Internet website or any form of electronic communication.

(Source: P.A. 103-746, eff. 1-1-25.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-2.5)

Sec. 17-2.5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-239, eff. 7-22-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-3)

Sec. 17-3. Forgery.

(a) A person commits forgery when, with intent to defraud, he or she knowingly:

(1) makes a false document or alters any document to make it false and that document is apparently capable of defrauding another; or

(2) issues or delivers such document knowing it to have been thus made or altered; or

(3) possesses, with intent to issue or deliver, any such document knowing it to have been thus made or altered; or

(4) unlawfully uses the digital signature, as defined in the Financial Institutions Electronic Documents and Digital Signature Act, of another; or

(5) unlawfully creates an electronic signature of another person, as that term is defined in the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act.

(b) (Blank).

(c) A document apparently capable of defrauding another includes, but is not limited to, one by which any right, obligation or power with reference to any person or property may be created, transferred, altered or terminated. A document includes any record or electronic record as those terms are defined in the Electronic Commerce Security Act. For purposes of this Section, a document also includes a Universal Price Code Label or coin.

(c-5) For purposes of this Section, "false document" or "document that is false" includes, but is not limited to, a document whose contents are false in some material way, or that purports to have been made by another or at another time, or with different provisions, or by authority of one who did not give such authority.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), forgery is a Class 3 felony.

(2) Forgery is a Class 4 felony when only one Universal Price Code Label is forged.

(3) Forgery is a Class A misdemeanor when an academic degree or coin is forged.

(e) It is not a violation of this Section if a false academic degree explicitly states "for novelty purposes only".

(Source: P.A. 102-38, eff. 6-25-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-3.5)

Sec. 17-3.5. Deceptive sale of gold or silver.

(a) Whoever makes for sale, or sells, or offers to sell or dispose of, or has in his or her possession with intent to sell or dispose of, any article or articles construed in whole or in part, of gold or any alloy or imitation thereof, having thereon or on any box, package, cover, wrapper or other thing enclosing or encasing such article or articles for sale, any stamp, brand, engraving, printed label, trade mark, imprint or other mark, indicating or designed, or intended to indicate, that the gold, alloy or imitation thereof, in such article or articles, is different from or better than the actual kind and quality of such gold, alloy or imitation, shall be guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined in any sum not less than $50 nor more than $100.

(b) Whoever makes for sale, sells or offers to sell or dispose of or has in his or her possession, with intent to sell or dispose of, any article or articles constructed in whole or in part of silver or any alloy or imitation thereof, having thereon--or on any box, package, cover, wrapper or other thing enclosing or encasing such article or articles for sale--any stamp, brand, engraving, printed label, trademark, imprint or other mark, containing the words "sterling" or "sterling silver," referring, or designed or intended to refer, to the silver, alloy or imitation thereof in such article or articles, when such silver, alloy or imitation thereof shall contain less than nine hundred and twenty-five one-thousandths thereof of pure silver, shall be guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined in any sum not less than $50 nor more than $100.

(c) Whoever makes for sale, sells or offers to sell or dispose of or has in his or her possession, with intent to sell or dispose of, any article or articles constructed in whole or in part of silver or any alloy or imitation thereof, having thereon--or on any box, package, cover, wrapper or other thing enclosing or encasing such article or articles for sale--any stamp, brand, engraving, printed label, trademark, imprint, or other mark, containing the words "coin" or "coin silver," referring to or designed or intended to refer to, the silver, alloy or imitation thereof, in such article or articles, when such silver, alloy or imitation shall contain less than nine-tenths thereof pure silver, shall be guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined in any sum not less than $50 and not more than $100.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-4)

Sec. 17-4. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 77-2638. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-5)

Sec. 17-5. Deceptive collection practices. A collection agency as defined in the Collection Agency Act or any employee of such collection agency commits a deceptive collection practice when, with the intent to collect a debt owed to an individual or a corporation or other entity, he, she, or it does any of the following:

(a) Represents falsely that he or she is an attorney, a policeman, a sheriff or deputy sheriff, a bailiff, a county clerk or employee of a county clerk's office, or any other person who by statute is authorized to enforce the law or any order of a court.

(b) While attempting to collect an alleged debt, misrepresents to the alleged debtor or to his or her immediate family the corporate, partnership or proprietary name or other trade or business name under which the debt collector is engaging in debt collections and which he, she, or it is legally authorized to use.

(c) While attempting to collect an alleged debt, adds to the debt any service charge, interest or penalty which he, she, or it is not entitled by law to add.

(d) Threatens to ruin, destroy, or otherwise adversely affect an alleged debtor's credit rating unless, at the same time, a disclosure is made in accordance with federal law that the alleged debtor has a right to inspect his or her credit rating.

(e) Accepts from an alleged debtor a payment which he, she, or it knows is not owed.

Sentence. The commission of a deceptive collection practice is a Business Offense punishable by a fine not to exceed $3,000.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-5.5)

Sec. 17-5.5. Unlawful attempt to collect compensated debt against a crime victim.

(a) A person or a vendor commits unlawful attempt to collect a compensated debt against a crime victim when, with intent to collect funds for a debt incurred by or on behalf of a crime victim, which debt has been approved for payment by the Court of Claims under the Crime Victims Compensation Act, but the funds are involuntarily withheld from the person or vendor by the Comptroller by virtue of an outstanding obligation owed by the person or vendor to the State under the Uncollected State Claims Act, the person or vendor:

(1) communicates with, harasses, or intimidates the crime victim for payment;

(2) contacts or distributes information to affect the compensated crime victim's credit rating as a result of the compensated debt; or

(3) takes any other action adverse to the crime victim or his or her family on account of the compensated debt.

(b) Sentence. Unlawful attempt to collect a compensated debt against a crime victim is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) Nothing in this Code prevents the attempt to collect an uncompensated debt or an uncompensated portion of a compensated debt incurred by or on behalf of a crime victim and not covered under the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(d) As used in this Section, "crime victim" means a victim of a violent crime or applicant as defined in the Crime Victims Compensation Act. "Compensated debt" means a debt incurred by or on behalf of a crime victim and approved for payment by the Court of Claims under the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-5.7)

Sec. 17-5.7. Deceptive advertising.

(a) Any person, firm, corporation or association or agent or employee thereof, who, with intent to sell, purchase, or in any wise dispose of, or to contract with reference to merchandise, securities, real estate, service, employment, money, credit or anything offered by such person, firm, corporation or association, or agent or employee thereof, directly or indirectly, to the public for sale, purchase, loan, distribution, or the hire of personal services, or with intent to increase the consumption of or to contract with reference to any merchandise, real estate, securities, money, credit, loan, service or employment, or to induce the public in any manner to enter into any obligation relating thereto, or to acquire title thereto, or an interest therein, or to make any loan, makes, publishes, disseminates, circulates, or places before the public, or causes, directly or indirectly, to be made, published, disseminated, circulated, or placed before the public, in this State, in a newspaper, magazine, or other publication, or in the form of a book, notice, handbill, poster, sign, bill, circular, pamphlet, letter, placard, card, label, or over any radio or television station, or in any other way similar or dissimilar to the foregoing, an advertisement, announcement, or statement of any sort regarding merchandise, securities, real estate, money, credit, service, employment, or anything so offered for use, purchase, loan or sale, or the interest, terms or conditions upon which such loan will be made to the public, which advertisement contains any assertion, representation or statement of fact which is untrue, misleading or deceptive, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) Any person, firm or corporation offering for sale merchandise, commodities or service by making, publishing, disseminating, circulating or placing before the public within this State in any manner an advertisement of merchandise, commodities, or service, with the intent, design or purpose not to sell the merchandise, commodities, or service so advertised at the price stated therein, or otherwise communicated, or with intent not to sell the merchandise, commodities, or service so advertised, may be enjoined from such advertising upon application for injunctive relief by the State's Attorney or Attorney General, and shall also be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) Any person, firm or corporation who makes, publishes, disseminates, circulates or places before the public, or causes, directly or indirectly to be made, published, disseminated, circulated or placed before the public, in this State, in a newspaper, magazine or other publication published in this State, or in the form of a book, notice, handbill, poster, sign, bill, circular, pamphlet, letter, placard, card, or label distributed in this State, or over any radio or television station located in this State or in any other way in this State similar or dissimilar to the foregoing, an advertisement, announcement, statement or representation of any kind to the public relating to the sale, offering for sale, purchase, use or lease of any real estate in a subdivision located outside the State of Illinois may be enjoined from such activity upon application for injunctive relief by the State's Attorney or Attorney General and shall also be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless such advertisement, announcement, statement or representation contains or is accompanied by a clear, concise statement of the proximity of such real estate in common units of measurement to public schools, public highways, fresh water supply, public sewers, electric power, stores and shops, and telephone service or contains a statement that one or more of such facilities are not readily available, and name those not available.

(d) Subsections (a), (b), and (c) do not apply to any medium for the printing, publishing, or disseminating of advertising, or any owner, agent or employee thereof, nor to any advertising agency or owner, agent or employee thereof, nor to any radio or television station, or owner, agent, or employee thereof, for printing, publishing, or disseminating, or causing to be printed, published, or disseminated, such advertisement in good faith and without knowledge of the deceptive character thereof.

(e) No person, firm or corporation owning or operating a service station shall advertise or hold out or state to the public the per gallon price of gasoline, upon any sign on the premises of such station, unless such price includes all taxes, and unless the price, as so advertised, corresponds with the price appearing on the pump from which such gasoline is dispensed. Also, the identity of the product must be included with the price in any such advertisement, holding out or statement to the public. Any person who violates this subsection (e) shall be guilty of a petty offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 10 heading) SUBDIVISION 10. FRAUD ON A GOVERNMENTAL ENTITY (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-6)

Sec. 17-6. State benefits fraud.

(a) A person commits State benefits fraud when he or she obtains or attempts to obtain money or benefits from the State of Illinois, from any political subdivision thereof, or from any program funded or administered in whole or in part by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof through the knowing use of false identification documents or through the knowing misrepresentation of his or her age, place of residence, number of dependents, marital or family status, employment status, financial status, or any other material fact upon which his eligibility for or degree of participation in any benefit program might be based.

(b) Notwithstanding any provision of State law to the contrary, every application or other document submitted to an agency or department of the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof to establish or determine eligibility for money or benefits from the State of Illinois or from any political subdivision thereof, or from any program funded or administered in whole or in part by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof, shall be made available upon request to any law enforcement agency for use in the investigation or prosecution of State benefits fraud or for use in the investigation or prosecution of any other crime arising out of the same transaction or occurrence. Except as otherwise permitted by law, information disclosed pursuant to this subsection shall be used and disclosed only for the purposes provided herein. The provisions of this Section shall be operative only to the extent that they do not conflict with any federal law or regulation governing federal grants to this State.

(c) Any employee of the State of Illinois or any agency or political subdivision thereof may seize as evidence any false or fraudulent document presented to him or her in connection with an application for or receipt of money or benefits from the State of Illinois, from any political subdivision thereof, or from any program funded or administered in whole or in part by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof.

(d) Sentence.

(1) State benefits fraud is a Class 4 felony except when more than $300 is obtained, in which case State benefits fraud is a Class 3 felony.

(2) If a person knowingly misrepresents oneself as a veteran or as a dependent of a veteran with the intent of obtaining benefits or privileges provided by the State or its political subdivisions to veterans or their dependents, then State benefits fraud is a Class 3 felony when $300 or less is obtained and a Class 2 felony when more than $300 is obtained. For the purposes of this paragraph (2), benefits and privileges include, but are not limited to, those benefits and privileges available under the Veterans' Employment Act, the Viet Nam Veterans Compensation Act, the Prisoner of War Bonus Act, the War Bonus Extension Act, the Military Veterans Assistance Act, the Veterans' Employment Representative Act, the Veterans Preference Act, Service Member Employment and Reemployment Rights Act, the Service Member's Tenure Act, the Housing for Veterans with Disabilities Act, the Under Age Veterans Benefits Act, the Survivors Compensation Act, the Children of Deceased Veterans Act, the Veterans Burial Places Act, the Higher Education Student Assistance Act, or any other loans, assistance in employment, monetary payments, or tax exemptions offered by the State or its political subdivisions for veterans or their dependents.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-1101, eff. 1-1-19.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-6.3)

Sec. 17-6.3. WIC fraud.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, the Special Supplemental Food Program for Women, Infants and Children administered by the Illinois Department of Public Health or Department of Human Services shall be referred to as "WIC".

(b) A person commits WIC fraud if he or she knowingly (i) uses, acquires, possesses, or transfers WIC Food Instruments or authorizations to participate in WIC in any manner not authorized by law or the rules of the Illinois Department of Public Health or Department of Human Services or (ii) uses, acquires, possesses, or transfers altered WIC Food Instruments or authorizations to participate in WIC.

(c) Administrative malfeasance.

(1) A person commits administrative malfeasance if he or she knowingly or recklessly misappropriates, misuses, or unlawfully withholds or converts to his or her own use or to the use of another any public funds made available for WIC.

(2) An official or employee of the State or a unit of local government who knowingly aids, abets, assists, or participates in a known violation of this Section is subject to disciplinary proceedings under the rules of the applicable State agency or unit of local government.

(d) Unauthorized possession of identification document. A person commits unauthorized possession of an identification document if he or she knowingly possesses, with intent to commit a misdemeanor or felony, another person's identification document issued by the Illinois Department of Public Health or Department of Human Services. For purposes of this Section, "identification document" includes, but is not limited to, an authorization to participate in WIC or a card or other document that identifies a person as being entitled to WIC benefits.

(e) Penalties.

(1) If an individual, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity is found by a court to have engaged in an act, practice, or course of conduct declared unlawful under subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section and:

(A) the total amount of money involved in the violation, including the monetary value of the WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is less than $150, the violation is a Class A misdemeanor; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony;

(B) the total amount of money involved in the violation, including the monetary value of the WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is $150 or more but less than $1,000, the violation is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony;

(C) the total amount of money involved in the violation, including the monetary value of the WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is $1,000 or more but less than $5,000, the violation is a Class 3 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 2 felony;

(D) the total amount of money involved in the violation, including the monetary value of the WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is $5,000 or more but less than $10,000, the violation is a Class 2 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 1 felony; or

(E) the total amount of money involved in the violation, including the monetary value of the WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is $10,000 or more, the violation is a Class 1 felony and the defendant shall be permanently ineligible to participate in WIC.

(2) A violation of subsection (d) is a Class 4 felony.

(3) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation of this Section occurred or the Attorney General shall bring actions arising under this Section in the name of the People of the State of Illinois.

(4) For purposes of determining the classification of an offense under this subsection (e), all of the money received as a result of the unlawful act, practice, or course of conduct, including the value of any WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, shall be aggregated.

(f) Seizure and forfeiture of property.

(1) A person who commits a felony violation of this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(2) Property subject to forfeiture under this subsection (f) may be seized by the Director of the Illinois State Police or any local law enforcement agency upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. The Director or a local law enforcement agency may seize property under this subsection (f) without process under any of the following circumstances:

(A) If the seizure is incident to inspection under an administrative inspection warrant.

(B) If the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding under Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(C) If there is probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety.

(D) If there is probable cause to believe that the property is subject to forfeiture under this subsection (f) and Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable.

(E) In accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(g) Future participation as WIC vendor. A person who has been convicted of a felony violation of this Section is prohibited from participating as a WIC vendor for a minimum period of 3 years following conviction and until the total amount of money involved in the violation, including the value of WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is repaid to WIC. This prohibition shall extend to any person with management responsibility in a firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity that has been convicted of a violation of this Section and to an officer or person owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-6.5)

Sec. 17-6.5. Persons under deportation order; ineligibility for benefits.

(a) An individual against whom a United States Immigration Judge has issued an order of deportation which has been affirmed by the Board of Immigration Review, as well as an individual who appeals such an order pending appeal, under paragraph 19 of Section 241(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act relating to persecution of others on account of race, religion, national origin or political opinion under the direction of or in association with the Nazi government of Germany or its allies, shall be ineligible for the following benefits authorized by State law:

(1) The homestead exemptions and homestead improvement exemption under Sections 15-170, 15-175, 15-176, and 15-180 of the Property Tax Code.

(2) Grants under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act.

(3) The double income tax exemption conferred upon persons 65 years of age or older by Section 204 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(4) Grants provided by the Department on Aging.

(5) Reductions in vehicle registration fees under Section 3-806.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(6) Free fishing and reduced fishing license fees under Sections 20-5 and 20-40 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(7) Tuition free courses for senior citizens under the Senior Citizen Courses Act.

(8) Any benefits under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(b) If a person has been found by a court to have knowingly received benefits in violation of subsection (a) and:

(1) the total monetary value of the benefits received is less than $150, the person is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony;

(2) the total monetary value of the benefits received is $150 or more but less than $1,000, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony;

(3) the total monetary value of the benefits received is $1,000 or more but less than $5,000, the person is guilty of a Class 3 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 2 felony;

(4) the total monetary value of the benefits received is $5,000 or more but less than $10,000, the person is guilty of a Class 2 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 1 felony; or

(5) the total monetary value of the benefits received is $10,000 or more, the person is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(c) For purposes of determining the classification of an offense under this Section, all of the monetary value of the benefits received as a result of the unlawful act, practice, or course of conduct may be accumulated.

(d) Any grants awarded to persons described in subsection (a) may be recovered by the State of Illinois in a civil action commenced by the Attorney General in the circuit court of Sangamon County or the State's Attorney of the county of residence of the person described in subsection (a).

(e) An individual described in subsection (a) who has been deported shall be restored to any benefits which that individual has been denied under State law pursuant to subsection (a) if (i) the Attorney General of the United States has issued an order cancelling deportation and has adjusted the status of the individual to that of a person lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States or (ii) the country to which the individual has been deported adjudicates or exonerates the individual in a judicial or administrative proceeding as not being guilty of the persecution of others on account of race, religion, national origin, or political opinion under the direction of or in association with the Nazi government of Germany or its allies.

(Source: P.A. 102-1030, eff. 5-27-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-7)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-60 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 17-7. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 83-808. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-8)

Sec. 17-8. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 84-418. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-8.3) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-22)

Sec. 17-8.3. False information on an application for employment with certain public or private agencies; use of false academic degree.

(a) It is unlawful for an applicant for employment with a public or private agency that provides State funded services to persons with mental illness or developmental disabilities to knowingly furnish false information regarding professional certification, licensing, criminal background, or employment history for the 5 years immediately preceding the date of application on an application for employment with the agency if the position of employment requires or provides opportunity for contact with persons with mental illness or developmental disabilities.

(b) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly use a false academic degree for the purpose of obtaining employment or admission to an institution of higher learning or admission to an advanced degree program at an institution of higher learning or for the purpose of obtaining a promotion or higher compensation in employment.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-8.5)

Sec. 17-8.5. Fraud on a governmental entity.

(a) Fraud on a governmental entity. A person commits fraud on a governmental entity when he or she knowingly obtains, attempts to obtain, or causes to be obtained, by deception, control over the property of any governmental entity by the making of a false claim of bodily injury or of damage to or loss or theft of property or by causing a false claim of bodily injury or of damage to or loss or theft of property to be made against the governmental entity, intending to deprive the governmental entity permanently of the use and benefit of that property.

(b) Aggravated fraud on a governmental entity. A person commits aggravated fraud on a governmental entity when he or she commits fraud on a governmental entity 3 or more times within an 18-month period arising out of separate incidents or transactions.

(c) Conspiracy to commit fraud on a governmental entity. If aggravated fraud on a governmental entity forms the basis for a charge of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code against a person, the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have agreed to commit the 3 or more violations of this Section need not be the same person or persons for each violation, as long as the accused was a part of the common scheme or plan to engage in each of the 3 or more alleged violations.

(d) Organizer of an aggravated fraud on a governmental entity conspiracy. A person commits being an organizer of an aggravated fraud on a governmental entity conspiracy if aggravated fraud on a governmental entity forms the basis for a charge of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code and the person occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management within the conspiracy.

For the purposes of this Section, the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have agreed to commit the 3 or more violations of subdivision (a)(1) of Section 17-10.5 or subsection (a) of Section 17-8.5 of this Code need not be the same person or persons for each violation, as long as the accused occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management in each of the 3 or more alleged violations.

Notwithstanding Section 8-5 of this Code, a person may be convicted and sentenced both for the offense of being an organizer of an aggravated fraud conspiracy and for any other offense that is the object of the conspiracy.

(e) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a) in which the value of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is $300 or less is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subsection (a) in which the value of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is more than $300 but not more than $10,000 is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (a) in which the value of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is more than $10,000 but not more than $100,000 is a Class 2 felony.

(4) A violation of subsection (a) in which the value of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is more than $100,000 is a Class 1 felony.

(5) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 1 felony, regardless of the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained.

(6) The offense of being an organizer of an aggravated fraud conspiracy is a Class X felony.

(7) Notwithstanding Section 8-5 of this Code, a person may be convicted and sentenced both for the offense of conspiracy to commit fraud and for any other offense that is the object of the conspiracy.

(f) Civil damages for fraud on a governmental entity. A person who knowingly obtains, attempts to obtain, or causes to be obtained, by deception, control over the property of a governmental entity by the making of a false claim of bodily injury or of damage to or loss or theft of property, intending to deprive the governmental entity permanently of the use and benefit of that property, shall be civilly liable to the governmental entity that paid the claim or against whom the claim was made or to the subrogee of the governmental entity in an amount equal to either 3 times the value of the property wrongfully obtained or, if property was not wrongfully obtained, twice the value of the property attempted to be obtained, whichever amount is greater, plus reasonable attorney's fees.

(g) Determination of property value. For the purposes of this Section, if the exact value of the property attempted to be obtained is either not alleged by the claimant or not otherwise specifically set, the value of the property shall be the fair market replacement value of the property claimed to be lost, the reasonable costs of reimbursing a vendor or other claimant for services to be rendered, or both.

(h) Actions by State licensing agencies.

(1) All State licensing agencies, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall coordinate enforcement efforts relating to acts of fraud on a governmental entity.

(2) If a person who is licensed or registered under the laws of the State of Illinois to engage in a business or profession is convicted of or pleads guilty to engaging in an act of fraud on a governmental entity, the Illinois State Police must forward to each State agency by which the person is licensed or registered a copy of the conviction or plea and all supporting evidence.

(3) Any agency that receives information under this Section shall, not later than 6 months after the date on which it receives the information, publicly report the final action taken against the convicted person, including but not limited to the revocation or suspension of the license or any other disciplinary action taken.

(i) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section, "obtain", "obtains control", "deception", "property", and "permanent deprivation" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Article 15 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-9)

Sec. 17-9. Public aid wire and mail fraud.

(a) Whoever knowingly (i) makes or transmits any communication by means of telephone, wire, radio, or television or (ii) places any communication with the United States Postal Service, or with any private or other mail, package, or delivery service or system, such communication being made, transmitted, placed, or received within the State of Illinois, intending that such communication be made, transmitted, or delivered in furtherance of any plan, scheme, or design to obtain, unlawfully, any benefit or payment under the Illinois Public Aid Code, commits public aid wire and mail fraud.

(b) Whoever knowingly directs or causes any communication to be (i) made or transmitted by means of telephone, wire, radio, or television or (ii) placed with the United States Postal Service, or with any private or other mail, package, or delivery service or system, intending that such communication be made, transmitted, or delivered in furtherance of any plan, scheme, or design to obtain, unlawfully, any benefit or payment under the Illinois Public Aid Code, commits public aid wire and mail fraud.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-10)

Sec. 17-10. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 84-1438. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-10.2) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-29)

Sec. 17-10.2. Businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities; fraudulent contracts with governmental units.

(a) In this Section:

"Minority person" means a person who is any of the following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa).

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

"Female" means a person who is of the female gender.

"Person with a disability" means a person who is a person qualifying as having a disability.

"Disability" means a severe physical or mental disability that: (1) results from: amputation, arthritis, autism, blindness, burn injury, cancer, cerebral palsy, cystic fibrosis, deafness, head injury, heart disease, hemiplegia, hemophilia, respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction, an intellectual disability, mental illness, multiple sclerosis, muscular dystrophy, musculoskeletal disorders, neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy, paraplegia, quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions, sickle cell anemia, specific learning disabilities, or end stage renal failure disease; and (2) substantially limits one or more of the person's major life activities.

"Minority owned business" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own it.

"Female owned business" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more females; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the females who own it.

"Business owned by a person with a disability" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more persons with a disability and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".

"Governmental unit" means the State, a unit of local government, or school district.

(b) In addition to any other penalties imposed by law or by an ordinance or resolution of a unit of local government or school district, any individual or entity that knowingly obtains, or knowingly assists another to obtain, a contract with a governmental unit, or a subcontract or written commitment for a subcontract under a contract with a governmental unit, by falsely representing that the individual or entity, or the individual or entity assisted, is a minority owned business, female owned business, or business owned by a person with a disability is guilty of a Class 2 felony, regardless of whether the preference for awarding the contract to a minority owned business, female owned business, or business owned by a person with a disability was established by statute or by local ordinance or resolution.

(c) In addition to any other penalties authorized by law, the court shall order that an individual or entity convicted of a violation of this Section must pay to the governmental unit that awarded the contract a penalty equal to one and one-half times the amount of the contract obtained because of the false representation.

(Source: P.A. 102-465, eff. 1-1-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-10.3)

Sec. 17-10.3. Deception relating to certification of disadvantaged business enterprises.

(a) Fraudulently obtaining or retaining certification. A person who, in the course of business, fraudulently obtains or retains certification as a minority-owned business, women-owned business, service-disabled veteran-owned small business, or veteran-owned small business commits a Class 2 felony.

(b) Willfully making a false statement. A person who, in the course of business, willfully makes a false statement whether by affidavit, report or other representation, to an official or employee of a State agency or the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities for the purpose of influencing the certification or denial of certification of any business entity as a minority-owned business, women-owned business, service-disabled veteran-owned small business, or veteran-owned small business commits a Class 2 felony.

(c) Willfully obstructing or impeding an official or employee of any agency in his or her investigation. Any person who, in the course of business, willfully obstructs or impedes an official or employee of any State agency or the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities who is investigating the qualifications of a business entity which has requested certification as a minority-owned business, women-owned business, service-disabled veteran-owned small business, or veteran-owned small business commits a Class 2 felony.

(d) Fraudulently obtaining public moneys reserved for disadvantaged business enterprises. Any person who, in the course of business, fraudulently obtains public moneys reserved for, or allocated or available to, minority-owned businesses, women-owned businesses, service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses, or veteran-owned small businesses commits a Class 2 felony.

(e) Definitions. As used in this Article, "minority-owned business", "women-owned business", "State agency" with respect to minority-owned businesses and women-owned businesses, and "certification" with respect to minority-owned businesses and women-owned businesses shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act. As used in this Article, "service-disabled veteran-owned small business", "veteran-owned small business", "State agency" with respect to service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses and veteran-owned small businesses, and "certification" with respect to service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses and veteran-owned small businesses have the same meanings as in Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-391, eff. 8-25-17; 101-170, eff. 1-1-20; 101-601, eff. 1-1-20.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 15 heading) SUBDIVISION 15. FRAUD ON A PRIVATE ENTITY (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-10.5)

Sec. 17-10.5. Insurance fraud.

(a) Insurance fraud.

(1) A person commits insurance fraud when he or she knowingly obtains, attempts to obtain, or causes to be obtained, by deception, control over the property of an insurance company or self-insured entity by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made on any policy of insurance issued by an insurance company or by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made to a self-insured entity, intending to deprive an insurance company or self-insured entity permanently of the use and benefit of that property.

(2) A person commits health care benefits fraud against a provider, other than a governmental unit or agency, when he or she knowingly obtains or attempts to obtain, by deception, health care benefits and that obtaining or attempt to obtain health care benefits does not involve control over property of the provider.

(b) Aggravated insurance fraud.

(1) A person commits aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity when he or she commits insurance fraud 3 or more times within an 18-month period arising out of separate incidents or transactions.

(2) A person commits being an organizer of an aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity conspiracy if aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity forms the basis for a charge of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code and the person occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management within the conspiracy.

(c) Conspiracy to commit insurance fraud. If aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity forms the basis for charges of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code, the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have agreed to commit the 3 or more violations of this Section need not be the same person or persons for each violation, as long as the accused was a part of the common scheme or plan to engage in each of the 3 or more alleged violations.

If aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity forms the basis for a charge of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code, and the accused occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management within the conspiracy, the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have agreed to commit the 3 or more violations of this Section need not be the same person or persons for each violation as long as the accused occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management in each of the 3 or more alleged violations.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is $300 or less is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is more than $300 but not more than $10,000 is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is more than $10,000 but not more than $100,000 is a Class 2 felony.

(4) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is more than $100,000 is a Class 1 felony.

(5) A violation of paragraph (a)(2) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(6) A violation of paragraph (b)(1) is a Class 1 felony, regardless of the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained.

(7) A violation of paragraph (b)(2) is a Class X felony.

(8) A person convicted of insurance fraud, vendor fraud, or a federal criminal violation associated with defrauding the Medicaid program shall be ordered to pay monetary restitution to the insurance company or self-insured entity or any other person for any financial loss sustained as a result of a violation of this Section, including any court costs and attorney's fees. An order of restitution shall include expenses incurred and paid by the State of Illinois or an insurance company or self-insured entity in connection with any medical evaluation or treatment services.

(9) Notwithstanding Section 8-5 of this Code, a person may be convicted and sentenced both for the offense of conspiracy to commit insurance fraud or the offense of being an organizer of an aggravated insurance fraud conspiracy and for any other offense that is the object of the conspiracy.

(e) Civil damages for insurance fraud.

(1) A person who knowingly obtains, attempts to obtain, or causes to be obtained, by deception, control over the property of any insurance company by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made on a policy of insurance issued by an insurance company, or by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made to a self-insured entity, intending to deprive an insurance company or self-insured entity permanently of the use and benefit of that property, shall be civilly liable to the insurance company or self-insured entity that paid the claim or against whom the claim was made or to the subrogee of that insurance company or self-insured entity in an amount equal to either 3 times the value of the property wrongfully obtained or, if no property was wrongfully obtained, twice the value of the property attempted to be obtained, whichever amount is greater, plus reasonable attorney's fees.

(2) An insurance company or self-insured entity that brings an action against a person under paragraph (1) of this subsection in bad faith shall be liable to that person for twice the value of the property claimed, plus reasonable attorney's fees. In determining whether an insurance company or self-insured entity acted in bad faith, the court shall relax the rules of evidence to allow for the introduction of any facts or other information on which the insurance company or self-insured entity may have relied in bringing an action under paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(f) Determination of property value. For the purposes of this Section, if the exact value of the property attempted to be obtained is either not alleged by the claimant or not specifically set by the terms of a policy of insurance, the value of the property shall be the fair market replacement value of the property claimed to be lost, the reasonable costs of reimbursing a vendor or other claimant for services to be rendered, or both.

(g) Actions by State licensing agencies.

(1) All State licensing agencies, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall coordinate enforcement efforts relating to acts of insurance fraud.

(2) If a person who is licensed or registered under the laws of the State of Illinois to engage in a business or profession is convicted of or pleads guilty to engaging in an act of insurance fraud, the Illinois State Police must forward to each State agency by which the person is licensed or registered a copy of the conviction or plea and all supporting evidence.

(3) Any agency that receives information under this Section shall, not later than 6 months after the date on which it receives the information, publicly report the final action taken against the convicted person, including but not limited to the revocation or suspension of the license or any other disciplinary action taken.

(h) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section, "obtain", "obtains control", "deception", "property", and "permanent deprivation" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Article 15 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-10.6)

Sec. 17-10.6. Financial institution fraud.

(a) Misappropriation of financial institution property. A person commits misappropriation of a financial institution's property whenever he or she knowingly obtains or exerts unauthorized control over any of the moneys, funds, credits, assets, securities, or other property owned by or under the custody or control of a financial institution, or under the custody or care of any agent, officer, director, or employee of such financial institution.

(b) Commercial bribery of a financial institution.

(1) A person commits commercial bribery of a financial institution when he or she knowingly confers or offers or agrees to confer any benefit upon any employee, agent, or fiduciary without the consent of the latter's employer or principal, with the intent to influence his or her conduct in relation to his or her employer's or principal's affairs.

(2) An employee, agent, or fiduciary of a financial institution commits commercial bribery of a financial institution when, without the consent of his or her employer or principal, he or she knowingly solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept any benefit from another person upon an agreement or understanding that such benefit will influence his or her conduct in relation to his or her employer's or principal's affairs.

(c) Financial institution fraud. A person commits financial institution fraud when he or she knowingly executes or attempts to execute a scheme or artifice:

(1) to defraud a financial institution; or

(2) to obtain any of the moneys, funds, credits, assets, securities, or other property owned by or under the custody or control of a financial institution, by means of pretenses, representations, or promises he or she knows to be false.

(d) Loan fraud. A person commits loan fraud when he or she knowingly, with intent to defraud, makes any false statement or report, or overvalues any land, property, or security, with the intent to influence in any way the action of a financial institution to act upon any application, advance, discount, purchase, purchase agreement, repurchase agreement, commitment, or loan, or any change or extension of any of the same, by renewal, deferment of action, or otherwise, or the acceptance, release, or substitution of security.

(e) Concealment of collateral. A person commits concealment of collateral when he or she, with intent to defraud, knowingly conceals, removes, disposes of, or converts to the person's own use or to that of another any property mortgaged or pledged to or held by a financial institution.

(f) Financial institution robbery. A person commits robbery when he or she knowingly, by force or threat of force, or by intimidation, takes, or attempts to take, from the person or presence of another, or obtains or attempts to obtain by extortion, any property or money or any other thing of value belonging to, or in the care, custody, control, management, or possession of, a financial institution.

(g) Conspiracy to commit a financial crime.

(1) A person commits conspiracy to commit a financial crime when, with the intent that any violation of this Section be committed, he or she agrees with another person to the commission of that offense.

(2) No person may be convicted of conspiracy to commit a financial crime unless an overt act or acts in furtherance of the agreement is alleged and proved to have been committed by that person or by a co-conspirator and the accused is a part of a common scheme or plan to engage in the unlawful activity.

(3) It shall not be a defense to conspiracy to commit a financial crime that the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have conspired:

(A) has not been prosecuted or convicted;

(B) has been convicted of a different offense;

(C) is not amenable to justice;

(D) has been acquitted; or

(E) lacked the capacity to commit the offense.

(h) Continuing financial crimes enterprise. A person commits a continuing financial crimes enterprise when he or she knowingly, within an 18-month period, commits 3 or more separate offenses constituting any combination of the following:

(1) an offense under this Section;

(2) a felony offense in violation of Section 16A-3 or subsection (a) of Section 16-25 or paragraph (4) or (5) of subsection (a) of Section 16-1 of this Code for the purpose of reselling or otherwise re-entering the merchandise in commerce, including conveying the merchandise to a merchant in exchange for anything of value; or

(3) if involving a financial institution, any other felony offense under this Code.

(i) Organizer of a continuing financial crimes enterprise.

(1) A person commits being an organizer of a continuing financial crimes enterprise when he or she:

(A) with the intent to commit any offense, agrees with another person to the commission of any combination of the following offenses on 3 or more separate occasions within an 18-month period:

(i) an offense under this Section;

(ii) a felony offense in violation of Section 16A-3 or subsection (a) of Section 16-25 or paragraph (4) or (5) of subsection (a) of Section 16-1 of this Code for the purpose of reselling or otherwise re-entering the merchandise in commerce, including conveying the merchandise to a merchant in exchange for anything of value; or

(iii) if involving a financial institution, any other felony offense under this Code; and

(B) with respect to the other persons within the conspiracy, occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, or financier or other position of management.

(2) The person with whom the accused agreed to commit the 3 or more offenses under this Section, or, if involving a financial institution, any other felony offenses under this Code, need not be the same person or persons for each offense, as long as the accused was a part of the common scheme or plan to engage in each of the 3 or more alleged offenses.

(j) Sentence.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, a violation of this Section, the full value of which:

(A) does not exceed $500, is a Class A misdemeanor;

(B) does not exceed $500, and the person has been previously convicted of a financial crime or any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, or home invasion, is guilty of a Class 4 felony;

(C) exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000, is a Class 3 felony;

(D) exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000, is a Class 2 felony;

(E) exceeds $100,000 but does not exceed $500,000, is a Class 1 felony;

(F) exceeds $500,000 but does not exceed $1,000,000, is a Class 1 non-probationable felony; when a charge of financial crime, the full value of which exceeds $500,000 but does not exceed $1,000,000, is brought, the value of the financial crime involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding $500,000;

(G) exceeds $1,000,000, is a Class X felony; when a charge of financial crime, the full value of which exceeds $1,000,000, is brought, the value of the financial crime involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding $1,000,000.

(2) A violation of subsection (f) is a Class 1 felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (h) is a Class 1 felony.

(4) A violation for subsection (i) is a Class X felony.

(k) A "financial crime" means an offense described in this Section.

(l) Period of limitations. The period of limitations for prosecution of any offense defined in this Section begins at the time when the last act in furtherance of the offense is committed.

(m) Forfeiture. Any violation of subdivision (2) of subsection (h) or subdivision (i)(1)(A)(ii) shall be subject to the remedies, procedures, and forfeiture as set forth in Article 29B of this Code.

Property seized or forfeited under this Section is subject to reporting under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-10.7)

Sec. 17-10.7. Insurance claims for excessive charges.

(a) A person who sells goods or services commits insurance claims for excessive charges if:

(1) the person knowingly advertises or promises to provide the goods or services and to pay:

(A) all or part of any applicable insurance deductible; or

(B) a rebate in an amount equal to all or part of any applicable insurance deductible;

(2) the goods or services are paid for by the consumer from proceeds of a property or casualty insurance policy; and

(3) the person knowingly charges an amount for the goods or services that exceeds the usual and customary charge by the person for the goods or services by an amount equal to or greater than all or part of the applicable insurance deductible paid by the person to an insurer on behalf of an insured or remitted to an insured by the person as a rebate.

(b) A person who is insured under a property or casualty insurance policy commits insurance claims for excessive charges if the person knowingly:

(1) submits a claim under the policy based on charges that are in violation of subsection (a) of this Section; or

(2) knowingly allows a claim in violation of subsection (a) of this Section to be submitted, unless the person promptly notifies the insurer of the excessive charges.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 20 heading) SUBDIVISION 20. FRAUDULENT TAMPERING (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-11)

Sec. 17-11. Odometer or hour meter fraud. A person commits odometer or hour meter fraud when he or she disconnects, resets, or alters, or causes to be disconnected, reset, or altered, the odometer of any used motor vehicle or the hour meter of any used farm implement to conceal or change the actual miles driven or hours of operation with the intent to defraud another. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony. This Section does not apply to legitimate practices of automotive or implement parts recyclers who recycle used odometers or hour meters for resale.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-11.1)

Sec. 17-11.1. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 89-626, eff. 8-9-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-11.2)

Sec. 17-11.2. Airbag fraud.

(a) Definitions. In this Section:

"Airbag" means a motor vehicle inflatable occupant restraint system device that is part of a vehicle's supplemental restraint system.

"Counterfeit supplemental restraint system component" means a replacement supplemental restraint system component, including but not limited to an airbag, that displays a mark identical to, or substantially similar to, the genuine mark of a motor vehicle manufacturer or a supplier of parts to the manufacturer of a motor vehicle without authorization from that manufacturer or supplier, respectively.

"Non-functional airbag" means a replacement airbag that meets any of the following criteria:

(1) the airbag was previously deployed or damaged;

(2) the airbag has an electric fault that is detected by the vehicle's diagnostic system when the installation procedure is completed and the vehicle is returned to the customer who requested the work to be performed or when ownership is intended to be transferred;

(3) the airbag includes a part or object, including a supplemental restraint system component, that is installed in a motor vehicle to mislead the owner or operator of the motor vehicle into believing that a functional airbag has been installed; or

(4) the airbag is subject to the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 30120(j).

"Supplemental restraint system" means a passive inflatable motor vehicle occupant crash protection system designed for use in conjunction with a seat belt assembly as defined in 49 CFR 571.209. "Supplemental restraint system" includes one or more airbags and all components required to ensure that an air bag works as designed by the vehicle manufacturer, including both of the following:

(1) the airbag operates as designed in the event of a crash; and

(2) the airbag is designed to meet federal motor vehicle safety standards for the specific make, model, and year of the vehicle in which it is or will be installed.

(b) A person commits airbag fraud when he or she, for consideration, knowingly:

(1) imports, manufactures, sells, offers for sale, installs or reinstalls in a vehicle a counterfeit supplemental restraint system component, a non-functional airbag, or an object that does not comply with federal safety regulations for the make, model, and year of the vehicle in which it is or will be installed;

(2) sells, offers for sale, installs, or reinstalls in any motor vehicle a device that causes a motor vehicle's diagnostic system to inaccurately indicate that the motor vehicle is equipped with a properly functioning airbag; or

(3) sells, leases, trades, or transfers a motor vehicle if the person knows that a counterfeit supplemental restraint system component, a non-functional airbag, or an object that does not comply with federal safety regulations for the make, model, and year of the vehicle as part of a vehicle inflatable restraint system.

(c) This Section does not apply to an owner or employee of a motor vehicle dealership or the owner of a vehicle, who, before the sale of the vehicle, does not have knowledge that the vehicle's airbag, or another component of the vehicle's supplemental restraint system, is counterfeit or non-functioning.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 103-900, eff. 8-9-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-11.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/16-22)

Sec. 17-11.5. Tampering with a security, fire, or life safety system.

(a) A person commits tampering with a security, fire, or life safety system when he or she knowingly damages, sabotages, destroys, or causes a permanent or temporary malfunction in any physical or electronic security, fire, or life safety system or any component part of any of those systems including, but not limited to, card readers, magnetic stripe readers, Wiegand card readers, smart card readers, proximity card readers, digital keypads, keypad access controls, digital locks, electromagnetic locks, electric strikes, electronic exit hardware, exit alarm systems, delayed egress systems, biometric access control equipment, intrusion detection systems and sensors, burglar alarm systems, wireless burglar alarms, silent alarms, duress alarms, hold-up alarms, glass break detectors, motion detectors, seismic detectors, glass shock sensors, magnetic contacts, closed circuit television (CCTV), security cameras, digital cameras, dome cameras, covert cameras, spy cameras, hidden cameras, wireless cameras, network cameras, IP addressable cameras, CCTV camera lenses, video cassette recorders, CCTV monitors, CCTV consoles, CCTV housings and enclosures, CCTV pan-and-tilt devices, CCTV transmission and signal equipment, wireless video transmitters, wireless video receivers, radio frequency (RF) or microwave components, or both, infrared illuminators, video motion detectors, video recorders, time lapse CCTV recorders, digital video recorders (DVRs), digital image storage systems, video converters, video distribution amplifiers, video time-date generators, multiplexers, switchers, splitters, fire alarms, smoke alarm systems, smoke detectors, flame detectors, fire detection systems and sensors, fire sprinklers, fire suppression systems, fire extinguishing systems, public address systems, intercoms, emergency telephones, emergency call boxes, emergency pull stations, telephone entry systems, video entry equipment, annunciators, sirens, lights, sounders, control panels and components, and all associated computer hardware, computer software, control panels, wires, cables, connectors, electromechanical components, electronic modules, fiber optics, filters, passive components, and power sources including batteries and back-up power supplies.

(b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-12)

Sec. 17-12. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-967, eff. 1-1-05. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-13)

Sec. 17-13. Fraud in transfers of real and personal property.

(a) Conditional sale; sale without consent of title holder. No person purchasing personal property under a conditional sales contract shall, during the existence of such conditional sales contract and before the conditions thereof have been fulfilled, knowingly sell, transfer, conceal, or in any manner dispose of such property, or cause or allow the same to be done, without the written consent of the holder of title.

(b) Acknowledgment of fraudulent conveyance. No officer authorized to take the proof and acknowledgment of a conveyance of real or personal property or other instrument shall knowingly certify that the conveyance or other instrument was duly proven or acknowledged by a party to the conveyance or other instrument when no such acknowledgment or proof was made, or was not made at the time it was certified to have been made, with intent to injure or defraud or to enable any other person to injure or defraud.

(c) Fraudulent land sales. No person, after once selling, bartering, or disposing of a tract or tracts of land or a town lot or lots, or executing a bond or agreement for the sale of lands or a town lot or lots, shall again knowingly and with intent to defraud sell, barter, or dispose of the same tract or tracts of land or town lot or lots, or any part of those tracts of land or town lot or lots, or knowingly and with intent to defraud execute a bond or agreement to sell, barter, or dispose of the same land or lot or lots, or any part of that land or lot or lots, to any other person for a valuable consideration.

(d) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (b) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subsection (c) of this Section is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-14)

Sec. 17-14. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-15)

Sec. 17-15. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-16)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-58 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 17-16. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-17)

Sec. 17-17. Fraud in stock transactions.

(a) No officer, director, or agent of a bank, railroad, or other corporation, nor any other person, shall knowingly, and with intent to defraud, issue, sell, transfer, assign, or pledge, or cause or procure to be issued, sold, transferred, assigned, or pledged, any false, fraudulent, or simulated certificate or other evidence of ownership of a share or shares of the capital stock of a bank, railroad, or other corporation.

(b) No officer, director, or agent of a bank, railroad, or other corporation shall knowingly sign, with intent to issue, sell, pledge, or cause to be issued, sold, or pledged, any false, fraudulent, or simulated certificate or other evidence of the ownership or transfer of a share or shares of the capital stock of that corporation, or an instrument purporting to be a certificate or other evidence of the ownership or transfer, the signing, issuing, selling, or pledging of which by the officer, director, or agent is not authorized by law.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-18)

Sec. 17-18. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-19)

Sec. 17-19. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-20)

Sec. 17-20. Obstructing gas, water, or electric current meters. A person commits obstructing gas, water, or electric current meters when he or she knowingly, and with intent to injure or defraud a company, body corporate, copartnership, or individual, injures, alters, obstructs, or prevents the action of a meter provided for the purpose of measuring and registering the quantity of gas, water, or electric current consumed by or at a burner, orifice, or place, or supplied to a lamp, motor, machine, or appliance, or causes, procures, or aids the injuring or altering of any such meter or the obstruction or prevention of its action, or makes or causes to be made with a gas pipe, water pipe, or electrical conductor any connection so as to conduct or supply illumination or inflammable gas, water, or electric current to any burner, orifice, lamp, motor, or other machine or appliance from which the gas, water, or electricity may be consumed or utilized without passing through or being registered by a meter or without the consent or acquiescence of the company, municipal corporation, body corporate, copartnership, or individual furnishing or transmitting the gas, water, or electric current through the gas pipe, water pipe, or electrical conductor. A violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-21)

Sec. 17-21. Obstructing service meters. A person commits obstructing service meters when he or she knowingly, and, with the intent to defraud, tampers with, alters, obstructs or prevents the action of a meter, register, or other counting device that is a part of a mechanical or electrical machine, equipment, or device that measures service, without the consent of the owner of the machine, equipment, or device. A violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-22)

(This Section renumbered as Section 17-8.3 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 17-22. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 90-390, eff. 1-1-98. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-23)

Sec. 17-23. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-24)

Sec. 17-24. Mail fraud and wire fraud.

(a) Mail fraud. A person commits mail fraud when he or she:

(1) devises or intends to devise any scheme or artifice to defraud, or to obtain money or property by means of false or fraudulent pretenses, representations, or promises, or to sell, dispose of, loan, exchange, alter, give away, distribute, supply, or furnish or procure for unlawful use any counterfeit obligation, security, or other article, or anything represented to be or intimated or held out to be such a counterfeit or spurious article; and

(2) with the intent to execute such scheme or artifice or to attempt to do so, does any of the following:

(A) Places in any post office or authorized depository for mail matter within this State any matter or thing to be delivered by the United States Postal Service, according to the direction on the matter or thing.

(B) Deposits or causes to be deposited in this State any matter or thing to be sent or delivered by mail or by private or commercial carrier, according to the direction on the matter or thing.

(C) Takes or receives from mail or from a private or commercial carrier any such matter or thing at the place at which it is directed to be delivered by the person to whom it is addressed.

(D) Knowingly causes any such matter or thing to be delivered by mail or by private or commercial carrier, according to the direction on the matter or thing.

(b) Wire fraud. A person commits wire fraud when he or she:

(1) devises or intends to devise a scheme or artifice to defraud or to obtain money or property by means of false pretenses, representations, or promises; and

(2) for the purpose of executing the scheme or artifice, transmits or causes to be transmitted any writings, signals, pictures, sounds, or electronic or electric impulses by means of wire, radio, or television communications:

(A) from within this State; or

(B) so that the transmission is received by a person within this State; or

(C) so that the transmission may be accessed by a person within this State.

(c) Jurisdiction.

(1) Mail fraud using a government or private carrier occurs in the county in which mail or other matter is deposited with the United States Postal Service or a private commercial carrier for delivery, if deposited with the United States Postal Service or a private or commercial carrier within this State, and the county in which a person within this State receives the mail or other matter from the United States Postal Service or a private or commercial carrier.

(2) Wire fraud occurs in the county from which a transmission is sent, if the transmission is sent from within this State, the county in which a person within this State receives the transmission, and the county in which a person who is within this State is located when the person accesses a transmission.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 3 felony.

The period of limitations for prosecution of any offense defined in this Section begins at the time when the last act in furtherance of the scheme or artifice is committed.

(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-25)

Sec. 17-25. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 92-818, eff. 8-21-02. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-26)

Sec. 17-26. Misconduct by a corporate official.

(a) A person commits misconduct by a corporate official when:

(1) being a director of a corporation, he or she knowingly, with the intent to defraud, concurs in any vote or act of the directors of the corporation, or any of them, which has the purpose of:

(A) making a dividend except in the manner provided by law;

(B) dividing, withdrawing or in any manner paying any stockholder any part of the capital stock of the corporation except in the manner provided by law;

(C) discounting or receiving any note or other evidence of debt in payment of an installment of capital stock actually called in and required to be paid, or with purpose of providing the means of making such payment;

(D) receiving or discounting any note or other evidence of debt with the purpose of enabling any stockholder to withdraw any part of the money paid in by him or her on his or her stock; or

(E) applying any portion of the funds of such corporation, directly or indirectly, to the purchase of shares of its own stock, except in the manner provided by law; or

(2) being a director or officer of a corporation, he or she, with the intent to defraud:

(A) issues, participates in issuing, or concurs in a vote to issue any increase of its capital stock beyond the amount of the capital stock thereof, duly authorized by or in pursuance of law;

(B) sells, or agrees to sell, or is directly interested in the sale of any share of stock of such corporation, or in any agreement to sell such stock, unless at the time of the sale or agreement he or she is an actual owner of such share, provided that the foregoing shall not apply to a sale by or on behalf of an underwriter or dealer in connection with a bona fide public offering of shares of stock of such corporation;

(C) executes a scheme or attempts to execute a scheme to obtain any share of stock of such corporation by means of false representation; or

(3) being a director or officer of a corporation, he or she with the intent to defraud or evade a financial disclosure reporting requirement of this State or of Section 13(A) or 15(D) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, 15 U. S. C. 78M(A) or 78O(D):

(A) causes or attempts to cause a corporation or accounting firm representing the corporation or any other individual or entity to fail to file a financial disclosure report as required by State or federal law; or

(B) causes or attempts to cause a corporation or accounting firm representing the corporation or any other individual or entity to file a financial disclosure report, as required by State or federal law, that contains a material omission or misstatement of fact.

(b) Sentence. If the benefit derived from a violation of this Section is $500,000 or more, the violation is a Class 2 felony. If the benefit derived from a violation of this Section is less than $500,000, the violation is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-27)

Sec. 17-27. Fraud on creditors.

(a) Fraud in insolvency. A person commits fraud in insolvency when, knowing that proceedings have or are about to be instituted for the appointment of a receiver or other person entitled to administer property for the benefit of creditors, or that any other composition or liquidation for the benefit of creditors has been or is about to be made, he or she:

(1) destroys, removes, conceals, encumbers, transfers, or otherwise deals with any property or obtains any substantial part of or interest in the debtor's estate with the intent to defeat or obstruct the claim of any creditor, or otherwise to obstruct the operation of any law relating to administration of property for the benefit of creditors;

(2) knowingly falsifies any writing or record relating to the property; or

(3) knowingly misrepresents or refuses to disclose to a receiver or other person entitled to administer property for the benefit of creditors, the existence, amount, or location of the property, or any other information which the actor could be legally required to furnish in relation to such administration.

Sentence. If the benefit derived from a violation of this subsection (a) is $500,000 or more, the violation is a Class 2 felony. If the benefit derived from a violation of this subsection (a) is less than $500,000, the violation is a Class 3 felony.

(b) Fraud in property transfer. A person commits fraud in property transfer when he or she transfers or conveys any interest in property with the intent to defraud, defeat, hinder, or delay his or her creditors. A violation of this subsection (b) is a business offense subject to a fine not to exceed $1,000.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-28)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-57 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 17-28. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 93-691, eff. 7-9-04. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-29)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-10.2 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 17-29. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 97-396, eff. 1-1-12. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-30) (was 720 ILCS 5/16C-2)

Sec. 17-30. Defaced, altered, or removed manufacturer or owner identification number.

(a) Unlawful sale of household appliances. A person commits unlawful sale of household appliances when he or she knowingly, with the intent to defraud or deceive another, keeps for sale, within any commercial context, any household appliance with a missing, defaced, obliterated, or otherwise altered manufacturer's identification number.

(b) Construction equipment identification defacement. A person commits construction equipment identification defacement when he or she knowingly changes, alters, removes, mutilates, or obliterates a permanently affixed serial number, product identification number, part number, component identification number, owner-applied identification, or other mark of identification attached to or stamped, inscribed, molded, or etched into a machine or other equipment, whether stationary or mobile or self-propelled, or a part of such machine or equipment, used in the construction, maintenance, or demolition of buildings, structures, bridges, tunnels, sewers, utility pipes or lines, ditches or open cuts, roads, highways, dams, airports, or waterways or in material handling for such projects.

The trier of fact may infer that the defendant has knowingly changed, altered, removed, or obliterated the serial number, product identification number, part number, component identification number, owner-applied identification number, or other mark of identification, if the defendant was in possession of any machine or other equipment or a part of such machine or equipment used in the construction, maintenance, or demolition of buildings, structures, bridges, tunnels, sewers, utility pipes or lines, ditches or open cuts, roads, highways, dams, airports, or waterways or in material handling for such projects upon which any such serial number, product identification number, part number, component identification number, owner-applied identification number, or other mark of identification has been changed, altered, removed, or obliterated.

(c) Defacement of manufacturer's serial number or identification mark. A person commits defacement of a manufacturer's serial number or identification mark when he or she knowingly removes, alters, defaces, covers, or destroys the manufacturer's serial number or any other manufacturer's number or distinguishing identification mark upon any machine or other article of merchandise, other than a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a firearm as defined in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, with the intent of concealing or destroying the identity of such machine or other article of merchandise.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony if the value of the appliance or appliances exceeds $1,000 and a Class B misdemeanor if the value of the appliance or appliances is $1,000 or less.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(3) A violation of subsection (c) of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.

(e) No liability shall be imposed upon any person for the unintentional failure to comply with subsection (a).

(f) Definitions. In this Section:

"Commercial context" means a continuing business enterprise conducted for profit by any person whose primary business is the wholesale or retail marketing of household appliances, or a significant portion of whose business or inventory consists of household appliances kept or sold on a wholesale or retail basis.

"Household appliance" means any gas or electric device or machine marketed for use as home entertainment or for facilitating or expediting household tasks or chores. The term shall include but not necessarily be limited to refrigerators, freezers, ranges, radios, television sets, vacuum cleaners, toasters, dishwashers, and other similar household items.

"Manufacturer's identification number" means any serial number or other similar numerical or alphabetical designation imprinted upon or attached to or placed, stamped, or otherwise imprinted upon or attached to a household appliance or item by the manufacturer for purposes of identifying a particular appliance or item individually or by lot number.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 25 heading) SUBDIVISION 25. CREDIT AND DEBIT CARD FRAUD (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-31)

Sec. 17-31. False statement to procure credit or debit card. A person commits false statement to procure credit or debit card when he or she makes or causes to be made, either directly or indirectly, any false statement in writing, knowing it to be false and with the intent that it be relied on, respecting his or her identity, his or her address, or his or her employment, or that of any other person, firm, or corporation, with the intent to procure the issuance of a credit card or debit card. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-32)

Sec. 17-32. Possession of another's credit, debit, or identification card.

(a) Possession of another's identification card. A person commits possession of another's identification card when he or she, with the intent to defraud, possesses any check guarantee card or key card or identification card for cash dispensing machines without the authority of the account holder or financial institution.

(b) Possession of another's credit or debit card. A person commits possession of another's credit or debit card when he or she receives a credit card or debit card from the person, possession, custody, or control of another without the cardholder's consent or if he or she, with knowledge that it has been so acquired, receives the credit card or debit card with the intent to use it or to sell it, or to transfer it to a person other than the issuer or the cardholder. The trier of fact may infer that a person who has in his or her possession or under his or her control 2 or more such credit cards or debit cards each issued to a cardholder other than himself or herself has violated this Section.

(c) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A person who, within any 12-month period, violates subsection (a) of this Section at the same time or consecutively with respect to 3 or more cards, each the property of different account holders, is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted under subsection (a) of this Section, when the value of property so obtained, in a single transaction or in separate transactions within any 90-day period, exceeds $150 is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A person who, in any 12-month period, violates subsection (b) of this Section with respect to 3 or more credit cards or debit cards each issued to a cardholder other than himself or herself is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-33)

Sec. 17-33. Possession of lost or mislaid credit or debit card. A person who receives a credit card or debit card that he or she knows to have been lost or mislaid and who retains possession with intent to use it or to sell it or to transfer it to a person other than the issuer or the cardholder is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

A person who, in a single transaction, violates this Section with respect to 3 or more credit cards or debit cards each issued to different cardholders other than himself or herself is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-34)

Sec. 17-34. Sale of credit or debit card. A person other than the issuer who sells a credit card or debit card, without the consent of the issuer, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

A person who knowingly purchases a credit card or debit card from a person other than the issuer, without the consent of the issuer, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

A person who, in a single transaction, makes a sale or purchase prohibited by this Section with respect to 3 or more credit cards or debit cards each issued to a cardholder other than himself or herself is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-35)

Sec. 17-35. Use of credit or debit card as security for debt. A person who, with intent to defraud either the issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, obtains control over a credit card or debit card as security for debt or transfers, conveys, or gives control over a credit card or debit card as security for debt is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-36)

Sec. 17-36. Use of counterfeited, forged, expired, revoked, or unissued credit or debit card. A person who, with intent to defraud either the issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, (i) uses, with the intent to obtain an item or items of value, a credit card or debit card obtained or retained in violation of this Subdivision 25 or without the cardholder's consent, or a credit card or debit card which he or she knows is counterfeited, or forged, or expired, or revoked or (ii) obtains or attempts to obtain an item or items of value by representing without the consent of the cardholder that he or she is the holder of a specified card or by representing that he or she is the holder of a card and such card has not in fact been issued is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the value of all items of value obtained or sought in violation of this Section does not exceed $300 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 3 felony if the value exceeds $300 in any 6-month period. The trier of fact may infer that knowledge of revocation has been received by a cardholder 4 days after it has been mailed to him or her at the address set forth on the credit card or debit card or at his or her last known address by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, and, if the address is more than 500 miles from the place of mailing, by air mail. The trier of fact may infer that notice was received 10 days after mailing by registered or certified mail if the address is located outside the United States, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, the Canal Zone, and Canada.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-37)

Sec. 17-37. Use of credit or debit card with intent to defraud.

(a) A cardholder who uses a credit card or debit card issued to him or her, or allows another person to use a credit card or debit card issued to him or her, with intent to defraud the issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor if the value of all items of value does not exceed $150 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the value exceeds $150 in any 6-month period.

(b) Where an investigation into an intent to defraud under subsection (a) occurs, issuers shall consider a merchant's timely submission of compelling evidence under the applicable dispute management guidelines of the card association with whom the merchant maintains an agreement. A merchant shall comply with merchant responsibilities under any such agreement.

(Source: P.A. 102-757, eff. 5-13-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-38)

Sec. 17-38. Use of account number or code with intent to defraud; possession of record of charge forms.

(a) A person who, with intent to defraud either an issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, utilizes an account number or code or enters information on a record of charge form with the intent to obtain an item or items of value is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the value of the item or items of value obtained does not exceed $150 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 3 felony if the value exceeds $150 in any 6-month period.

(b) A person who, with intent to defraud either an issuer or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, possesses, without the consent of the issuer or purported issuer, record of charge forms bearing the printed impression of a credit card or debit card is guilty of a Class 4 felony. The trier of fact may infer intent to defraud from the possession of such record of charge forms by a person other than the issuer or a person authorized by the issuer to possess record of charge forms.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-39)

Sec. 17-39. Receipt of goods or services. A person who receives an item or items of value obtained in violation of this Subdivision 25, knowing that it was so obtained or under such circumstances as would reasonably induce him or her to believe that it was so obtained, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor if the value of all items of value obtained does not exceed $150 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the value exceeds $150 in any 6-month period.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-40)

Sec. 17-40. Signing another's card with intent to defraud. A person other than the cardholder or a person authorized by him or her who, with intent to defraud either the issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, signs a credit card or debit card is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-41)

Sec. 17-41. Altered or counterfeited card.

(a) A person commits an offense under this Section when he or she, with intent to defraud either a purported issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, commits an offense under this Section if he or she: (i) alters a credit card or debit card or a purported credit card or debit card, or possesses a credit card or debit card or a purported credit card or debit card with knowledge that the same has been altered; or (ii) counterfeits a purported credit card or debit card, or possesses a purported credit card or debit card with knowledge that the card has been counterfeited.

(b) Sentence. A violation of item (i) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony. A violation of item (ii) of subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony. The trier of fact may infer that possession of 2 or more credit cards or debit cards by a person other than the issuer in violation of subsection (a) is evidence that the person intended to defraud or that he or she knew the credit cards or debit cards to have been so altered or counterfeited.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-42)

Sec. 17-42. Possession of incomplete card. A person other than the cardholder possessing an incomplete credit card or debit card, with intent to complete it without the consent of the issuer or a person possessing, with knowledge of its character, machinery, plates, or any other contrivance designed to reproduce instruments purporting to be credit cards or debit cards of an issuer who has not consented to the preparation of such credit cards or debit cards is guilty of a Class 3 felony. The trier of fact may infer that a person other than the cardholder or issuer who possesses 2 or more incomplete credit cards or debit cards possesses those cards without the consent of the issuer.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-43)

Sec. 17-43. Prohibited deposits.

(a) A person who, with intent to defraud the issuer of a credit card or debit card or any person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, deposits into his or her account or any account, via an electronic fund transfer terminal, a check, draft, money order, or other such document, knowing such document to be false, fictitious, forged, altered, counterfeit, or not his or her lawful or legal property, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(b) A person who receives value as a result of a false, fictitious, forged, altered, or counterfeit check, draft, money order, or other such document having been deposited into an account via an electronic fund transfer terminal, knowing at the time of receipt of the value that the document so deposited was false, fictitious, forged, altered, counterfeit, or not his or her lawful or legal property, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-44)

Sec. 17-44. Fraudulent use of electronic transmission.

(a) A person who, with intent to defraud the issuer of a credit card or debit card, the cardholder, or any other person, intercepts, taps, or alters electronic information between an electronic fund transfer terminal and the issuer, or originates electronic information to an electronic fund transfer terminal or to the issuer, via any line, wire, or other means of electronic transmission, at any junction, terminal, or device, or at any location within the EFT System, with the intent to obtain value, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(b) Any person who, with intent to defraud the issuer of a credit card or debit card, the cardholder, or any other person, intercepts, taps, or alters electronic information between an electronic fund transfer terminal and the issuer, or originates electronic information to an electronic fund transfer terminal or to the issuer, via any line, wire, or other means of electronic transmission, at any junction, terminal, or device, or at any location within the EFT System, and thereby causes funds to be transferred from one account to any other account, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-45)

Sec. 17-45. Payment of charges without furnishing item of value.

(a) No person shall process, deposit, negotiate, or obtain payment of a credit card charge through a retail seller's account with a financial institution or through a retail seller's agreement with a financial institution, card issuer, or organization of financial institutions or card issuers if that retail seller did not furnish or agree to furnish the item or items of value that are the subject of the credit card charge.

(b) No retail seller shall permit any person to process, deposit, negotiate, or obtain payment of a credit card charge through the retail seller's account with a financial institution or the retail seller's agreement with a financial institution, card issuer, or organization of financial institutions or card issuers if that retail seller did not furnish or agree to furnish the item or items of value that are the subject of the credit card charge.

(c) Subsections (a) and (b) do not apply to any of the following:

(1) A person who furnishes goods or services on the business premises of a general merchandise retail seller and who processes, deposits, negotiates, or obtains payment of a credit card charge through that general merchandise retail seller's account or agreement.

(2) A general merchandise retail seller who permits a person described in paragraph (1) to process, deposit, negotiate, or obtain payment of a credit card charge through that general merchandise retail seller's account or agreement.

(3) A franchisee who furnishes the cardholder with an item or items of value that are provided in whole or in part by the franchisor and who processes, deposits, negotiates, or obtains payment of a credit card charge through that franchisor's account or agreement.

(4) A franchisor who permits a franchisee described in paragraph (3) to process, deposit, negotiate, or obtain payment of a credit card charge through that franchisor's account or agreement.

(5) The credit card issuer or a financial institution or a parent, subsidiary, or affiliate of the card issuer or a financial institution.

(6) A person who processes, deposits, negotiates, or obtains payment of less than $500 of credit card charges in any one-year period through a retail seller's account or agreement. The person has the burden of producing evidence that the person transacted less than $500 in credit card charges during any one-year period.

(7) A telecommunications carrier that includes charges of other parties in its billings to its subscribers and those other parties whose charges are included in the billings of the telecommunications carrier to its subscribers.

(d) A person injured by a violation of this Section may bring an action for the recovery of damages, equitable relief, and reasonable attorney's fees and costs.

(e) A person who violates this Section is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined $10,000 for each offense. Each occurrence in which a person processes, deposits, negotiates, or otherwise seeks to obtain payment of a credit card charge in violation of subsection (a) constitutes a separate offense.

(f) The penalties and remedies provided in this Section are in addition to any other remedies or penalties provided by law.

(g) As used in this Section:

"Franchisor" and "franchisee" have the same meanings as in Section 3 of the Franchise Disclosure Act of 1987.

"Retail seller" has the same meaning as in Section 2.4 of the Retail Installment Sales Act.

"Telecommunications carrier" has the same meaning as in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-46)

Sec. 17-46. Furnishing items of value with intent to defraud. A person who is authorized by an issuer to furnish money, goods, property, services or anything else of value upon presentation of a credit card or debit card by the cardholder, or any agent or employee of such person, who, with intent to defraud the issuer or the cardholder, furnishes money, goods, property, services or anything else of value upon presentation of a credit card or debit card obtained or retained in violation of this Code or a credit card or debit card which he knows is counterfeited, or forged, or expired, or revoked is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, if the value furnished in violation of this Section does not exceed $150 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 4 felony if such value exceeds $150 in any 6-month period.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-47)

Sec. 17-47. Failure to furnish items of value. A person who is authorized by an issuer to furnish money, goods, property, services or anything else of value upon presentation of a credit card or debit card by the cardholder, or any agent or employee of such person, who, with intent to defraud the issuer or the cardholder, fails to furnish money, goods, property, services or anything else of value which he represents in writing to the issuer that he has furnished is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor if the difference between the value of all money, goods, property, services and anything else of value actually furnished and the value represented to the issuer to have been furnished does not exceed $150 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 4 felony if such difference exceeds $150 in any 6-month period.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-48)

Sec. 17-48. Repeat offenses. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent offense under this Subdivision 25 is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

For purposes of this Section, an offense is considered a second or subsequent offense if, prior to his or her conviction of the offense, the offender has at any time been convicted under this Subdivision 25, or under any prior Act, or under any law of the United States or of any state relating to credit card or debit card offenses.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-49)

Sec. 17-49. Severability. If any provision of this Subdivision 25 or its application to any person or circumstances is held invalid, the invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this Subdivision 25 which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this Subdivision 25 are declared to be severable.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-49.5)

Sec. 17-49.5. Telephone Charge Fraud Act unaffected. Nothing contained in this Subdivision 25 shall be construed to repeal, amend, or otherwise affect the Telephone Charge Fraud Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 30 heading) SUBDIVISION 30. COMPUTER FRAUD (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-50) (was 720 ILCS 5/16D-5 and 5/16D-6)

Sec. 17-50. Computer fraud.

(a) A person commits computer fraud when he or she knowingly:

(1) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or any part thereof, or a program or data, with the intent of devising or executing any scheme or artifice to defraud, or as part of a deception;

(2) Obtains use of, damages, or destroys a computer or any part thereof, or alters, deletes, or removes any program or data contained therein, in connection with any scheme or artifice to defraud, or as part of a deception; or

(3) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or any part thereof, or a program or data, and obtains money or control over any such money, property, or services of another in connection with any scheme or artifice to defraud, or as part of a deception.

(b) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(2) A violation of subdivision (a)(2) of this Section is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A violation of subdivision (a)(3) of this Section:

(i) is a Class 4 felony if the value of the money, property, or services is $1,000 or less; or

(ii) is a Class 3 felony if the value of the money, property, or services is more than $1,000 but less than $50,000; or

(iii) is a Class 2 felony if the value of the money, property, or services is $50,000 or more.

(c) Forfeiture of property. Any person who commits computer fraud as set forth in subsection (a) is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-51) (was 720 ILCS 5/16D-3)

Sec. 17-51. Computer tampering.

(a) A person commits computer tampering when he or she knowingly and without the authorization of a computer's owner or in excess of the authority granted to him or her:

(1) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or any part thereof, a computer network, or a program or data;

(2) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or any part thereof, a computer network, or a program or data, and obtains data or services;

(3) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or any part thereof, a computer network, or a program or data, and damages or destroys the computer or alters, deletes, or removes a computer program or data;

(4) Inserts or attempts to insert a program into a computer or computer program knowing or having reason to know that such program contains information or commands that will or may:

(A) damage or destroy that computer, or any other computer subsequently accessing or being accessed by that computer;

(B) alter, delete, or remove a computer program or data from that computer, or any other computer program or data in a computer subsequently accessing or being accessed by that computer; or

(C) cause loss to the users of that computer or the users of a computer which accesses or which is accessed by such program; or

(5) Falsifies or forges electronic mail transmission information or other routing information in any manner in connection with the transmission of unsolicited bulk electronic mail through or into the computer network of an electronic mail service provider or its subscribers.

(a-5) Distributing software to falsify routing information. It is unlawful for any person knowingly to sell, give, or otherwise distribute or possess with the intent to sell, give, or distribute software which:

(1) is primarily designed or produced for the purpose of facilitating or enabling the falsification of electronic mail transmission information or other routing information;

(2) has only a limited commercially significant purpose or use other than to facilitate or enable the falsification of electronic mail transmission information or other routing information; or

(3) is marketed by that person or another acting in concert with that person with that person's knowledge for use in facilitating or enabling the falsification of electronic mail transmission information or other routing information.

(a-10) For purposes of subsection (a), accessing a computer network is deemed to be with the authorization of a computer's owner if:

(1) the owner authorizes patrons, customers, or guests to access the computer network and the person accessing the computer network is an authorized patron, customer, or guest and complies with all terms or conditions for use of the computer network that are imposed by the owner;

(2) the owner authorizes the public to access the computer network and the person accessing the computer network complies with all terms or conditions for use of the computer network that are imposed by the owner; or

(3) the person accesses the computer network in compliance with the Revised Uniform Fiduciary Access to Digital Assets Act (2015).

(b) Sentence.

(1) A person who commits computer tampering as set forth in subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(5) or subsection (a-5) of this Section is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(2) A person who commits computer tampering as set forth in subdivision (a)(2) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and a Class 4 felony for the second or subsequent offense.

(3) A person who commits computer tampering as set forth in subdivision (a)(3) or (a)(4) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and a Class 3 felony for the second or subsequent offense.

(4) If an injury arises from the transmission of unsolicited bulk electronic mail, the injured person, other than an electronic mail service provider, may also recover attorney's fees and costs, and may elect, in lieu of actual damages, to recover the lesser of $10 for each unsolicited bulk electronic mail message transmitted in violation of this Section, or $25,000 per day. The injured person shall not have a cause of action against the electronic mail service provider that merely transmits the unsolicited bulk electronic mail over its computer network.

(5) If an injury arises from the transmission of unsolicited bulk electronic mail, an injured electronic mail service provider may also recover attorney's fees and costs, and may elect, in lieu of actual damages, to recover the greater of $10 for each unsolicited electronic mail advertisement transmitted in violation of this Section, or $25,000 per day.

(6) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to limit any person's right to pursue any additional civil remedy otherwise allowed by law.

(c) Whoever suffers loss by reason of a violation of subdivision (a)(4) of this Section may, in a civil action against the violator, obtain appropriate relief. In a civil action under this Section, the court may award to the prevailing party reasonable attorney's fees and other litigation expenses.

(Source: P.A. 99-775, eff. 8-12-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-52) (was 720 ILCS 5/16D-4)

Sec. 17-52. Aggravated computer tampering.

(a) A person commits aggravated computer tampering when he or she commits computer tampering as set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of Section 17-51 and he or she knowingly:

(1) causes disruption of or interference with vital services or operations of State or local government or a public utility; or

(2) creates a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to one or more individuals.

(b) Sentence.

(1) A person who commits aggravated computer tampering as set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who commits aggravated computer tampering as set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-52.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/16D-5.5)

Sec. 17-52.5. Unlawful use of encryption.

(a) For the purpose of this Section:

"Computer" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 17-0.5.

"Encryption" means the use of any protective or disruptive measure, including, without limitation, cryptography, enciphering, encoding, or a computer contaminant, to: (1) prevent, impede, delay, or disrupt access to any data, information, image, program, signal, or sound; (2) cause or make any data, information, image, program, signal, or sound unintelligible or unusable; or (3) prevent, impede, delay, or disrupt the normal operation or use of any component, device, equipment, system, or network.

"Network" means a set of related, remotely connected devices and facilities, including more than one system, with the capability to transmit data among any of the devices and facilities. The term includes, without limitation, a local, regional, or global computer network.

"Program" means an ordered set of data representing coded instructions or statements which can be executed by a computer and cause the computer to perform one or more tasks.

"System" means a set of related equipment, whether or not connected, which is used with or for a computer.

(b) A person shall not knowingly use or attempt to use encryption, directly or indirectly, to:

(1) commit, facilitate, further, or promote any criminal offense;

(2) aid, assist, or encourage another person to commit any criminal offense;

(3) conceal evidence of the commission of any criminal offense; or

(4) conceal or protect the identity of a person who has committed any criminal offense.

(c) Telecommunications carriers and information service providers are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, for providing encryption services used by others in violation of this Section.

(d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless the encryption was used or attempted to be used to commit an offense for which a greater penalty is provided by law. If the encryption was used or attempted to be used to commit an offense for which a greater penalty is provided by law, the person shall be punished as prescribed by law for that offense.

(e) A person who violates this Section commits a criminal offense that is separate and distinct from any other criminal offense and may be prosecuted and convicted under this Section whether or not the person or any other person is or has been prosecuted or convicted for any other criminal offense arising out of the same facts as the violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-87, eff. 1-1-20.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-54) (was 720 ILCS 5/16D-7)

Sec. 17-54. Evidence of lack of authority. For the purposes of Sections 17-50 through 17-52, the trier of fact may infer that a person accessed a computer without the authorization of its owner or in excess of the authority granted if the person accesses or causes to be accessed a computer, which access requires a confidential or proprietary code which has not been issued to or authorized for use by that person. This Section does not apply to a person who acquires access in compliance with the Revised Uniform Fiduciary Access to Digital Assets Act (2015).

(Source: P.A. 99-775, eff. 8-12-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-55)

Sec. 17-55. Definitions. For the purposes of this subdivision 30:

In addition to its meaning as defined in Section 15-1 of this Code, "property" means: (1) electronic impulses; (2) electronically produced data; (3) confidential, copyrighted, or proprietary information; (4) private identification codes or numbers which permit access to a computer by authorized computer users or generate billings to consumers for purchase of goods and services, including but not limited to credit card transactions and telecommunications services or permit electronic fund transfers; (5) software or programs in either machine or human readable form; or (6) any other tangible or intangible item relating to a computer or any part thereof.

"Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize any services of, a computer, a network, or data.

"Services" includes but is not limited to computer time, data manipulation, or storage functions.

"Vital services or operations" means those services or operations required to provide, operate, maintain, and repair network cabling, transmission, distribution, or computer facilities necessary to ensure or protect the public health, safety, or welfare. Those services or operations include, but are not limited to, services provided by medical personnel or institutions, fire departments, emergency services agencies, national defense contractors, armed forces or militia personnel, private and public utility companies, or law enforcement agencies.

(Source: P.A. 101-87, eff. 1-1-20.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 35 heading) SUBDIVISION 35. MISCELLANEOUS SPECIAL FRAUD (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-56) (was 720 ILCS 5/16-1.3)

Sec. 17-56. Financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability.

(a) A person commits financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability when he or she stands in a position of trust or confidence with the elderly person or a person with a disability and he or she knowingly:

(1) by deception or intimidation obtains control over the property of an elderly person or a person with a disability; or

(2) illegally uses the assets or resources of an elderly person or a person with a disability.

(b) Sentence. Financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability is: (1) a Class 4 felony if the value of the property is $300 or less, (2) a Class 3 felony if the value of the property is more than $300 but less than $5,000, (3) a Class 2 felony if the value of the property is $5,000 or more but less than $50,000, and (4) a Class 1 felony if the value of the property is $50,000 or more or if the elderly person is 70 years of age or older and the value of the property is $15,000 or more or if the elderly person is 80 years of age or older and the value of the property is $5,000 or more.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Elderly person" means a person 60 years of age or older.

(2) "Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder or congenital condition that impairs the individual's mental or physical ability to independently manage his or her property or financial resources, or both.

(3) "Intimidation" means the communication to an elderly person or a person with a disability that he or she shall be deprived of food and nutrition, shelter, prescribed medication or medical care and treatment or conduct as provided in Section 12-6 of this Code.

(4) "Deception" means, in addition to its meaning as defined in Section 15-4 of this Code, a misrepresentation or concealment of material fact relating to the terms of a contract or agreement entered into with the elderly person or person with a disability or to the existing or pre-existing condition of any of the property involved in such contract or agreement; or the use or employment of any misrepresentation, false pretense or false promise in order to induce, encourage or solicit the elderly person or person with a disability to enter into a contract or agreement.

The illegal use of the assets or resources of an elderly person or a person with a disability includes, but is not limited to, the misappropriation of those assets or resources by undue influence, breach of a fiduciary relationship, fraud, deception, extortion, or use of the assets or resources contrary to law.

A person stands in a position of trust and confidence with an elderly person or person with a disability when he (i) is a parent, spouse, adult child or other relative by blood or marriage of the elderly person or person with a disability, (ii) is a joint tenant or tenant in common with the elderly person or person with a disability, (iii) has a legal or fiduciary relationship with the elderly person or person with a disability, (iv) is a financial planning or investment professional, (v) is a paid or unpaid caregiver for the elderly person or person with a disability, or (vi) is a friend or acquaintance in a position of trust.

(d) Limitations. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the remedies available to the victim under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(e) Good faith efforts. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to impose criminal liability on a person who has made a good faith effort to assist the elderly person or person with a disability in the management of his or her property, but through no fault of his or her own has been unable to provide such assistance.

(f) Not a defense. It shall not be a defense to financial exploitation of an elderly person or person with a disability that the accused reasonably believed that the victim was not an elderly person or person with a disability. Consent is not a defense to financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability if the accused knew or had reason to know that the elderly person or a person with a disability lacked capacity to consent.

(g) Civil Liability. A civil cause of action exists for financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability as described in subsection (a) of this Section. A person against whom a civil judgment has been entered for financial exploitation of an elderly person or person with a disability shall be liable to the victim or to the estate of the victim in damages of treble the amount of the value of the property obtained, plus reasonable attorney fees and court costs. In a civil action under this subsection, the burden of proof that the defendant committed financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability as described in subsection (a) of this Section shall be by a preponderance of the evidence. This subsection shall be operative whether or not the defendant has been charged or convicted of the criminal offense as described in subsection (a) of this Section. This subsection (g) shall not limit or affect the right of any person to bring any cause of action or seek any remedy available under the common law, or other applicable law, arising out of the financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability.

(h) If a person is charged with financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability that involves the taking or loss of property valued at more than $5,000, a prosecuting attorney may file a petition with the circuit court of the county in which the defendant has been charged to freeze the assets of the defendant in an amount equal to but not greater than the alleged value of lost or stolen property in the defendant's pending criminal proceeding for purposes of restitution to the victim. The burden of proof required to freeze the defendant's assets shall be by a preponderance of the evidence.

(Source: P.A. 102-244, eff. 1-1-22; 103-293, eff. 1-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-57) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-28)

Sec. 17-57. Defrauding drug and alcohol screening tests.

(a) It is unlawful for a person to:

(1) manufacture, sell, give away, distribute, or market synthetic or human substances or other products in this State or transport urine into this State with the intent of using the synthetic or human substances or other products to defraud a drug or alcohol screening test;

(2) substitute or spike a sample or advertise a sample substitution or other spiking device or measure, with the intent of attempting to foil or defeat a drug or alcohol screening test;

(3) adulterate synthetic or human substances with the intent to defraud a drug or alcohol screening test; or

(4) manufacture, sell, or possess adulterants that are intended to be used to adulterate synthetic or human substances with the intent of defrauding a drug or alcohol screening test.

(b) The trier of fact may infer intent to violate this Section if a heating element or any other device used to thwart a drug or alcohol screening test accompanies the sale, giving, distribution, or marketing of synthetic or human substances or other products or instructions that provide a method for thwarting a drug or alcohol screening test accompany the sale, giving, distribution, or marketing of synthetic or human substances or other products.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony for which the court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "drug or alcohol screening test" includes, but is not limited to, urine testing, hair follicle testing, perspiration testing, saliva testing, blood testing, fingernail testing, and eye drug testing.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-58) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-16)

Sec. 17-58. Fraudulent production of infant. A person who fraudulently produces an infant, falsely pretending it to have been born of parents whose child would be entitled to a share of a personal estate, or to inherit real estate, with the intent of intercepting the inheritance of the real estate, or the distribution of the personal property from a person lawfully entitled to the personal property, is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-59) (was 720 ILCS 5/39-1)

Sec. 17-59. Criminal usury.

(a) A person commits criminal usury when, in exchange for either a loan of money or other property or forbearance from the collection of such a loan, he or she knowingly contracts for or receives from an individual, directly or indirectly, interest, discount, or other consideration at a rate greater than 20% per annum either before or after the maturity of the loan.

(b) When a person has in his or her personal or constructive possession records, memoranda, or other documentary record of usurious loans, the trier of fact may infer that he or she has violated subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) Sentence. Criminal usury is a Class 4 felony.

(d) Non-application to licensed persons. This Section does not apply to any loan authorized to be made by any person licensed under the Consumer Installment Loan Act or to any loan permitted by Sections 4, 4.2 and 4a of the Interest Act or by any other law of this State.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-60) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-7)

Sec. 17-60. Promotion of pyramid sales schemes.

(a) A person who knowingly sells, offers to sell, or attempts to sell the right to participate in a pyramid sales scheme commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) The term "pyramid sales scheme" means any plan or operation whereby a person, in exchange for money or other thing of value, acquires the opportunity to receive a benefit or thing of value, which is primarily based upon the inducement of additional persons, by himself or others, regardless of number, to participate in the same plan or operation and is not primarily contingent on the volume or quantity of goods, services, or other property sold or distributed or to be sold or distributed to persons for purposes of resale to consumers. For purposes of this subsection, "money or other thing of value" shall not include payments made for sales demonstration equipment and materials furnished on a nonprofit basis for use in making sales and not for resale.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-61)

Sec. 17-61. Unauthorized use of university stationery.

(a) No person, firm or corporation shall use the official stationery or seal or a facsimile thereof, of any State supported university, college or other institution of higher education or any organization thereof unless approved in writing in advance by the university, college or institution of higher education affected, for any private promotional scheme wherein it is made to appear that the organization or university, college or other institution of higher education is endorsing the private promotional scheme.

(b) A violation of this Section is a petty offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-62)

Sec. 17-62. Unlawful possession of device for manufacturing a false universal price code label. It is unlawful for a person to knowingly possess a device the purpose of which is to manufacture a false, counterfeit, altered, or simulated universal price code label. A violation of this Section is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17A heading) ARTICLE 17A. DISQUALIFICATION FOR STATE BENEFITS (Repealed)(Article repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17B heading) ARTICLE 17B. WIC FRAUD (Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 18 heading) ARTICLE 18. ROBBERY

(720 ILCS 5/18-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 18-1)

Sec. 18-1. Robbery; aggravated robbery.

(a) Robbery. A person commits robbery when he or she knowingly takes property, except a motor vehicle covered by Section 18-3 or 18-4, from the person or presence of another by the use of force or by threatening the imminent use of force.

(b) Aggravated robbery.

(1) A person commits aggravated robbery when he or she violates subsection (a) while indicating verbally or by his or her actions to the victim that he or she is presently armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon, including a knife, club, ax, or bludgeon. This offense shall be applicable even though it is later determined that he or she had no firearm or other dangerous weapon, including a knife, club, ax, or bludgeon, in his or her possession when he or she committed the robbery.

(2) A person commits aggravated robbery when he or she knowingly takes property from the person or presence of another by delivering (by injection, inhalation, ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) to the victim without his or her consent, or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any controlled substance.

(c) Sentence.

Robbery is a Class 2 felony, unless the victim is 60 years of age or over or is a person with a physical disability, or the robbery is committed in a school, day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility, or place of worship, in which case robbery is a Class 1 felony. Aggravated robbery is a Class 1 felony.

(d) Regarding penalties prescribed in subsection (c) for violations committed in a day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility, the time of day, time of year, and whether children under 18 years of age were present in the day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility are irrelevant.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/18-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 18-2)

Sec. 18-2. Armed robbery.

(a) A person commits armed robbery when he or she violates Section 18-1; and

(1) he or she carries on or about his or her person or is otherwise armed with a dangerous weapon other than a firearm; or

(2) he or she carries on or about his or her person or is otherwise armed with a firearm; or

(3) he or she, during the commission of the offense, personally discharges a firearm; or

(4) he or she, during the commission of the offense, personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

(b) Sentence.

Armed robbery in violation of subsection (a)(1) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(2) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(3) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(4) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(Source: P.A. 91-404, eff. 1-1-00.)

(720 ILCS 5/18-3)

Sec. 18-3. Vehicular hijacking.

(a) A person commits vehicular hijacking when he or she knowingly takes a motor vehicle from the person or the immediate presence of another by the use of force or by threatening the imminent use of force.

(b) Sentence. Vehicular hijacking is a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/18-4)

Sec. 18-4. Aggravated vehicular hijacking.

(a) A person commits aggravated vehicular hijacking when he or she violates Section 18-3; and

(1) the person from whose immediate presence the motor vehicle is taken is a person with a physical disability or a person 60 years of age or over; or

(2) a person under 16 years of age is a passenger in the motor vehicle at the time of the offense; or

(3) he or she carries on or about his or her person, or is otherwise armed with a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm; or

(4) he or she carries on or about his or her person or is otherwise armed with a firearm; or

(5) he or she, during the commission of the offense, personally discharges a firearm; or

(6) he or she, during the commission of the offense, personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated vehicular hijacking in violation of subsections (a)(1) or (a)(2) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) is a Class X felony for which a term of imprisonment of not less than 7 years shall be imposed. A violation of subsection (a)(4) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(5) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(6) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/18-5)

Sec. 18-5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/18-6) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-11.1)

Sec. 18-6. Vehicular invasion.

(a) A person commits vehicular invasion when he or she knowingly, by force and without lawful justification, enters or reaches into the interior of a motor vehicle while the motor vehicle is occupied by another person or persons, with the intent to commit therein a theft or felony.

(b) Sentence. Vehicular invasion is a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 19 heading) ARTICLE 19. BURGLARY

(720 ILCS 5/19-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-1)

Sec. 19-1. Burglary.

(a) A person commits burglary when without authority he or she knowingly enters or without authority remains within a building, housetrailer, watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, freight container, or any part thereof, with intent to commit therein a felony or theft. This offense shall not include the offenses set out in Section 4-102 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(b) Sentence.

Burglary committed in, and without causing damage to, a watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, freight container, or any part thereof is a Class 3 felony. Burglary committed in a building, housetrailer, or any part thereof or while causing damage to a watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, freight container, or any part thereof is a Class 2 felony. A burglary committed in a school, day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility, or place of worship is a Class 1 felony, except that this provision does not apply to a day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility operated in a private residence used as a dwelling.

(c) Regarding penalties prescribed in subsection (b) for violations committed in a day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility, the time of day, time of year, and whether children under 18 years of age were present in the day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility are irrelevant.

(Source: P.A. 102-546, eff. 1-1-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/19-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-2)

Sec. 19-2. Possession of burglary tools.

(a) A person commits possession of burglary tools when he or she possesses any key, tool, instrument, device, or any explosive, suitable for use in breaking into a building, housetrailer, watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, or any depository designed for the safekeeping of property, or any part thereof, with intent to enter that place and with intent to commit therein a felony or theft. The trier of fact may infer from the possession of a key designed for lock bumping an intent to commit a felony or theft; however, this inference does not apply to any peace officer or other employee of a law enforcement agency, or to any person or agency licensed under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. For the purposes of this Section, "lock bumping" means a lock picking technique for opening a pin tumbler lock using a specially-crafted bumpkey.

(a-5) A person also commits possession of burglary tools when he or she, knowingly and with the intent to enter the motor vehicle and with the intent to commit therein a felony or theft, possesses a device designed to:

(1) unlock or start a motor vehicle without the use or possession of the key to the motor vehicle; or

(2) capture or duplicate a signal from the key fob of a motor vehicle to unlock or start the motor vehicle without the use or possession of the key to the motor vehicle.

(b) Sentence. Possession of burglary tools is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 102-903, eff. 1-1-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/19-2.5)

Sec. 19-2.5. Unlawful sale of burglary tools.

(a) For the purposes of this Section:

"Lock bumping" means a lock picking technique for opening a pin tumbler lock using a specially-crafted bumpkey.

"Motor vehicle" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(b) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale of burglary tools when he or she knowingly sells or transfers any key, including a key designed for lock bumping, or a lock pick specifically manufactured or altered for use in breaking into a building, housetrailer, watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, or any depository designed for the safekeeping of property, or any part of that property.

(c) This Section does not apply to the sale or transfer of any item described in subsection (b) to any peace officer or other employee of a law enforcement agency, or to any person or agency licensed as a locksmith under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, or to any person engaged in the business of towing vehicles, or to any person engaged in the business of lawful repossession of property who possesses a valid Repossessor-ICC Authorization Card.

(d) Sentence. Unlawful sale of burglary tools is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1307, eff. 1-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/19-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-3)

Sec. 19-3. Residential burglary.

(a) A person commits residential burglary when he or she knowingly and without authority enters or knowingly and without authority remains within the dwelling place of another, or any part thereof, with the intent to commit therein a felony or theft. This offense includes the offense of burglary as defined in Section 19-1.

(a-5) A person commits residential burglary when he or she falsely represents himself or herself, including but not limited to falsely representing himself or herself to be a representative of any unit of government or a construction, telecommunications, or utility company, for the purpose of gaining entry to the dwelling place of another, with the intent to commit therein a felony or theft or to facilitate the commission therein of a felony or theft by another.

(b) Sentence. Residential burglary is a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1113, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/19-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-4)

Sec. 19-4. Criminal trespass to a residence.

(a) (1) A person commits criminal trespass to a residence when, without authority, he or she knowingly enters or remains within any residence, including a house trailer that is the dwelling place of another.

(2) A person commits criminal trespass to a residence when, without authority, he or she knowingly enters the residence of another and knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present or he or she knowingly enters the residence of another and remains in the residence after he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present.

(a-5) For purposes of this Section, in the case of a multi-unit residential building or complex, "residence" shall only include the portion of the building or complex which is the actual dwelling place of any person and shall not include such places as common recreational areas or lobbies.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Criminal trespass to a residence under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Criminal trespass to a residence under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/19-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-5)

Sec. 19-5. Criminal fortification of a residence or building.

(a) A person commits criminal fortification of a residence or building when, with the intent to prevent the lawful entry of a law enforcement officer or another, he or she maintains a residence or building in a fortified condition, knowing that the residence or building is used for the unlawful manufacture, storage with intent to deliver or manufacture, delivery, or trafficking of cannabis, controlled substances, or methamphetamine as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b) "Fortified condition" means preventing or impeding entry through the use of steel doors, wooden planking, crossbars, alarm systems, dogs, video surveillance, motion sensing devices, booby traps, or other similar means. If video surveillance is the sole component of the fortified condition, the video surveillance must be with the intent to alert an occupant to the presence of a law enforcement officer for the purpose of interfering with the official duties of a law enforcement officer, allowing removal or destruction of evidence, or facilitating the infliction of harm to a law enforcement officer. For the purposes of this Section, "booby trap" means any device, including but not limited to any explosive device, designed to cause physical injury or the destruction of evidence, when triggered by an act of a person approaching, entering, or moving through a structure.

(c) Sentence. Criminal fortification of a residence or building is a Class 3 felony.

(d) This Section does not apply to the fortification of a residence or building used in the manufacture of methamphetamine as described in Sections 10 and 15 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-897, eff. 1-1-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/19-6) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-11)

Sec. 19-6. Home Invasion.

(a) A person who is not a peace officer acting in the line of duty commits home invasion when without authority he or she knowingly enters the dwelling place of another when he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present or he or she knowingly enters the dwelling place of another and remains in the dwelling place until he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present or who falsely represents himself or herself, including but not limited to, falsely representing himself or herself to be a representative of any unit of government or a construction, telecommunications, or utility company, for the purpose of gaining entry to the dwelling place of another when he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons are present and

(1) While armed with a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, uses force or threatens the imminent use of force upon any person or persons within the dwelling place whether or not injury occurs, or

(2) Intentionally causes any injury, except as provided in subsection (a)(5), to any person or persons within the dwelling place, or

(3) While armed with a firearm uses force or threatens the imminent use of force upon any person or persons within the dwelling place whether or not injury occurs, or

(4) Uses force or threatens the imminent use of force upon any person or persons within the dwelling place whether or not injury occurs and during the commission of the offense personally discharges a firearm, or

(5) Personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person within the dwelling place, or

(6) Commits, against any person or persons within that dwelling place, a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code.

(b) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of home invasion that the accused who knowingly enters the dwelling place of another and remains in the dwelling place until he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present either immediately leaves the premises or surrenders to the person or persons lawfully present therein without either attempting to cause or causing serious bodily injury to any person present therein.

(c) Sentence. Home invasion in violation of subsection (a)(1), (a)(2) or (a)(6) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(4) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(5) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(d) For purposes of this Section, "dwelling place of another" includes a dwelling place where the defendant maintains a tenancy interest but from which the defendant has been barred by a divorce decree, judgment of dissolution of marriage, order of protection, or other court order.

(Source: P.A. 96-1113, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 20 heading) ARTICLE 20. ARSON

(720 ILCS 5/20-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 20-1)

Sec. 20-1. Arson; residential arson; place of worship arson.

(a) A person commits arson when, by means of fire or explosive, he or she knowingly:

(1) Damages any real property, or any personal property having a value of $150 or more, of another without his or her consent; or

(2) With intent to defraud an insurer, damages any property or any personal property having a value of $150 or more.

Property "of another" means a building or other property, whether real or personal, in which a person other than the offender has an interest which the offender has no authority to defeat or impair, even though the offender may also have an interest in the building or property.

(b) A person commits residential arson when he or she, in the course of committing arson, knowingly damages, partially or totally, any building or structure that is the dwelling place of another.

(b-5) A person commits place of worship arson when he or she, in the course of committing arson, knowingly damages, partially or totally, any place of worship.

(c) Sentence.

Arson is a Class 2 felony. Residential arson or place of worship arson is a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/20-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 20-1.1)

Sec. 20-1.1. Aggravated Arson.

(a) A person commits aggravated arson when in the course of committing arson he or she knowingly damages, partially or totally, any building or structure, including any adjacent building or structure, including all or any part of a school building, house trailer, watercraft, motor vehicle, or railroad car, and (1) he knows or reasonably should know that one or more persons are present therein or (2) any person suffers great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement as a result of the fire or explosion or (3) a fireman, policeman, or correctional officer who is present at the scene acting in the line of duty is injured as a result of the fire or explosion. For purposes of this Section, property "of another" means a building or other property, whether real or personal, in which a person other than the offender has an interest that the offender has no authority to defeat or impair, even though the offender may also have an interest in the building or property; and "school building" means any public or private preschool, elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated arson is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 93-335, eff. 7-24-03; 94-127, eff. 7-7-05; 94-393, eff. 8-1-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/20-1.2)

Sec. 20-1.2. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 90-787, eff. 8-14-98. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/20-1.3)

Sec. 20-1.3. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-169, eff. 7-10-03. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/20-1.4)

Sec. 20-1.4. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-969, eff. 1-1-05. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-2005.)

(720 ILCS 5/20-1.5)

Sec. 20-1.5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-969, eff. 1-1-05. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-2005.)

(720 ILCS 5/20-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 20-2)

Sec. 20-2. Possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices.

(a) A person commits possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices in violation of this Section when he or she possesses, manufactures or transports any explosive compound, timing or detonating device for use with any explosive compound or incendiary device and either intends to use the explosive or device to commit any offense or knows that another intends to use the explosive or device to commit a felony.

(b) Sentence.

Possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices is a Class 1 felony for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than 4 years and not more than 30 years.

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 20.5 heading) ARTICLE 20.5. CAUSING A CATASTROPHE; DEADLY SUBSTANCES

(720 ILCS 5/20.5-5)

Sec. 20.5-5. (Renumbered).

(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/20.5-6)

Sec. 20.5-6. (Renumbered).

(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21 heading) ARTICLE 21. DAMAGE AND TRESPASS TO PROPERTY

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21, Subdiv. 1 heading) SUBDIVISION 1. DAMAGE TO PROPERTY (Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-1)

Sec. 21-1. Criminal damage to property.

(a) A person commits criminal damage to property when he or she:

(1) knowingly damages any property of another;

(2) recklessly by means of fire or explosive damages property of another;

(3) knowingly starts a fire on the land of another;

(4) knowingly injures a domestic animal of another without his or her consent;

(5) knowingly deposits on the land or in the building of another any stink bomb or any offensive smelling compound and thereby intends to interfere with the use by another of the land or building;

(6) knowingly damages any property, other than as described in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 20-1, with intent to defraud an insurer;

(7) knowingly shoots a firearm at any portion of a railroad train;

(8) knowingly, without proper authorization, cuts, injures, damages, defaces, destroys, or tampers with any fire hydrant or any public or private fire fighting equipment, or any apparatus appertaining to fire fighting equipment; or

(9) intentionally, without proper authorization, opens any fire hydrant.

(b) When the charge of criminal damage to property exceeding a specified value is brought, the extent of the damage is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of paragraph (1), (3), or (5) of subsection (a) of this Section that the owner of the property or land damaged consented to the damage.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a) shall have the following penalties:

(A) A violation of paragraph (8) or (9) is a Class B misdemeanor.

(B) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5), or (6) is a Class A misdemeanor when the damage to property does not exceed $500.

(C) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5), or (6) is a Class 4 felony when the damage to property does not exceed $500 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(D) A violation of paragraph (4) is a Class 4 felony when the damage to property does not exceed $10,000.

(E) A violation of paragraph (7) is a Class 4 felony.

(F) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5) or (6) is a Class 4 felony when the damage to property exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000.

(G) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 3 felony when the damage to property exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(H) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 3 felony when the damage to property exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000.

(I) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 2 felony when the damage to property exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(J) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 2 felony when the damage to property exceeds $100,000. A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 1 felony when the damage to property exceeds $100,000 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(2) When the damage to property exceeds $10,000, the court shall impose upon the offender a fine equal to the value of the damages to the property.

(3) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of criminal damage to property to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

The community service requirement does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(4) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed for a violation of this Section, if a person is convicted of or placed on supervision for knowingly damaging or destroying crops of another, including crops intended for personal, commercial, research, or developmental purposes, the person is liable in a civil action to the owner of any crops damaged or destroyed for money damages up to twice the market value of the crops damaged or destroyed.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (d), "farm equipment" means machinery or other equipment used in farming.

(Source: P.A. 98-315, eff. 1-1-14; 99-631, eff. 1-1-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1.01) (was 720 ILCS 5/21-4)

Sec. 21-1.01. Criminal Damage to Government Supported Property.

(a) A person commits criminal damage to government supported property when he or she knowingly:

(1) damages any government supported property without the consent of the State;

(2) by means of fire or explosive damages government supported property;

(3) starts a fire on government supported property without the consent of the State; or

(4) deposits on government supported land or in a government supported building, without the consent of the State, any stink bomb or any offensive smelling compound and thereby intends to interfere with the use by another of the land or building.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "government supported" means any property supported in whole or in part with State funds, funds of a unit of local government or school district, or federal funds administered or granted through State agencies.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony when the damage to property is $500 or less; a Class 3 felony when the damage to property exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000; a Class 2 felony when the damage to property exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000; and a Class 1 felony when the damage to property exceeds $100,000. When the damage to property exceeds $10,000, the court shall impose upon the offender a fine equal to the value of the damages to the property.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-1.1)

Sec. 21-1.1. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 78-255. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-1.2)

Sec. 21-1.2. Institutional vandalism.

(a) A person commits institutional vandalism when, by reason of the actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin of another individual or group of individuals, regardless of the existence of any other motivating factor or factors, he or she knowingly and without consent inflicts damage to any of the following properties:

(1) A church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure or place used for religious worship or other religious purpose;

(2) A cemetery, mortuary, or other facility used for the purpose of burial or memorializing the dead;

(3) A school, educational facility or community center;

(4) The grounds adjacent to, and owned or rented by, any institution, facility, building, structure or place described in paragraphs (1), (2) or (3) of this subsection (a); or

(5) Any personal property contained in any institution, facility, building, structure or place described in paragraphs (1), (2) or (3) of this subsection (a).

(b) Sentence.

(1) Institutional vandalism is a Class 3 felony when the damage to the property does not exceed $500. Institutional vandalism is a Class 2 felony when the damage to the property exceeds $500. Institutional vandalism is a Class 2 felony for any second or subsequent offense.

(2) Upon imposition of any sentence, the trial court shall also either order restitution paid to the victim or impose a fine up to $1,000. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours if that service is established in the county where the offender was convicted of institutional vandalism. The court may also impose any other condition of probation or conditional discharge under this Section.

(c) Independent of any criminal prosecution or the result of that prosecution, a person suffering damage to property or injury to his or her person as a result of institutional vandalism may bring a civil action for damages, injunction or other appropriate relief. The court may award actual damages, including damages for emotional distress, or punitive damages. A judgment may include attorney's fees and costs. The parents or legal guardians of an unemancipated minor, other than guardians appointed under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall be liable for the amount of any judgment for actual damages rendered against the minor under this subsection in an amount not exceeding the amount provided under Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(d) As used in this Section, "sexual orientation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (O-1) of Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-77, eff. 1-1-16; 99-631, eff. 1-1-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1.3)

Sec. 21-1.3. Criminal defacement of property.

(a) A person commits criminal defacement of property when the person knowingly damages the property of another by defacing, deforming, or otherwise damaging the property by the use of paint or any other similar substance, or by the use of a writing instrument, etching tool, or any other similar device. It is an affirmative defense to a violation of this Section that the owner of the property damaged consented to such damage.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Criminal defacement of property is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense when the aggregate value of the damage to the property does not exceed $500. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 4 felony when the aggregate value of the damage to property does not exceed $500 and the property damaged is a school building or place of worship or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces or National Guard, or veterans. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent conviction or when the aggregate value of the damage to the property exceeds $500. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 3 felony when the aggregate value of the damage to property exceeds $500 and the property damaged is a school building or place of worship or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces or National Guard, or veterans.

(2) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed for a violation of this Section, a person convicted of criminal defacement of property shall:

(A) pay the actual costs incurred by the property owner or the unit of government to abate, remediate, repair, or remove the effect of the damage to the property. To the extent permitted by law, reimbursement for the costs of abatement, remediation, repair, or removal shall be payable to the person who incurred the costs; and

(B) if convicted of criminal defacement of property that is chargeable as a Class 3 or Class 4 felony, pay a mandatory minimum fine of $500.

(3) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of criminal defacement of property to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage to property that was caused by the offense, or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the offense occurred. When the property damaged is a school building, the community service may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (b), aggregate value shall be determined by adding the value of the damage to one or more properties if the offenses were committed as part of a single course of conduct.

(Source: P.A. 98-315, eff. 1-1-14; 98-466, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-631, eff. 1-1-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1.4)

Sec. 21-1.4. Jackrocks violation.

(a) A person commits a jackrocks violation when he or she knowingly:

(1) sells, gives away, manufactures, purchases, or possesses a jackrock; or

(2) places, tosses, or throws a jackrock on public or private property.

(b) As used in this Section, "jackrock" means a caltrop or other object manufactured with one or more rounded or sharpened points, which when placed or thrown present at least one point at such an angle that it is peculiar to and designed for use in puncturing or damaging vehicle tires. It does not include a device designed to puncture or damage the tires of a vehicle driven over it in a particular direction, if a conspicuous and clearly visible warning is posted at the device's location, alerting persons to its presence.

(c) This Section does not apply to the possession, transfer, or use of jackrocks by any law enforcement officer in the course of his or her official duties.

(d) Sentence. A jackrocks violation is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1.5)

Sec. 21-1.5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-596, eff. 8-26-03. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21, Subdiv. 5 heading) SUBDIVISION 5. TRESPASS (Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-2)

Sec. 21-2. Criminal trespass to vehicles.

(a) A person commits criminal trespass to vehicles when he or she knowingly and without authority enters any part of or operates any vehicle, aircraft, watercraft or snowmobile.

(b) Sentence. Criminal trespass to vehicles is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-2.5)

Sec. 21-2.5. Electronic tracking devices prohibited.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Electronic tracking device" means any device attached to a vehicle that reveals its location or movement by the transmission of electronic signals.

"State agency" means all departments, officers, commissions, boards, institutions, and bodies politic and corporate of the State. The term, however, does not mean the judicial branch, including, without limitation, the several courts of the State, the offices of the clerk of the supreme court and the clerks of the appellate court, and the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, nor does it mean the legislature or its committees or commissions.

"Telematics" includes, but is not limited to, automatic airbag deployment and crash notification, remote diagnostics, navigation, stolen vehicle location, remote door unlock, transmitting emergency and vehicle location information to public safety answering points, and any other service integrating vehicle location technology and wireless communications.

"Vehicle" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1-217 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(b) A person or entity in this State may not use an electronic tracking device to determine the location or movement of a person.

(c) This Section does not apply:

(1) when the registered owner, lessor, or lessee of a vehicle has consented to the use of the electronic tracking device with respect to that vehicle;

(2) to the lawful use of an electronic tracking device by a law enforcement agency;

(3) when the vehicle is owned or leased by a business that is authorized to transact business in this State and the tracking device is used by the business for the purpose of tracking vehicles driven by employees of that business, its affiliates, or contractors of that business or its affiliates;

(4) when the vehicle is under the control of a State agency and the electronic tracking device is used by the agency, or the Inspector General appointed under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act who has jurisdiction over that State agency, for the purpose of tracking vehicles driven by employees or contractors of that State agency; or

(5) telematic services that were installed by the manufacturer, or installed by or with the consent of the owner or lessee of the vehicle and to which the owner or lessee has subscribed. Consent by the owner or lessee of the vehicle constitutes consent for any other driver or passenger of that vehicle.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 98-381, eff. 1-1-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-3)

Sec. 21-3. Criminal trespass to real property.

(a) A person commits criminal trespass to real property when he or she:

(1) knowingly and without lawful authority enters or remains within or on a building;

(2) enters upon the land of another, after receiving, prior to the entry, notice from the owner or occupant that the entry is forbidden;

(3) remains upon the land of another, after receiving notice from the owner or occupant to depart;

(3.5) presents false documents or falsely represents his or her identity orally to the owner or occupant of a building or land in order to obtain permission from the owner or occupant to enter or remain in the building or on the land;

(3.7) intentionally removes a notice posted on residential real estate as required by subsection (l) of Section 15-1505.8 of Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure before the date and time set forth in the notice; or

(4) enters a field used or capable of being used for growing crops, an enclosed area containing livestock, an agricultural building containing livestock, or an orchard in or on a motor vehicle (including an off-road vehicle, motorcycle, moped, or any other powered two-wheel vehicle) after receiving, prior to the entry, notice from the owner or occupant that the entry is forbidden or remains upon or in the area after receiving notice from the owner or occupant to depart.

For purposes of item (1) of this subsection, this Section shall not apply to being in a building which is open to the public while the building is open to the public during its normal hours of operation; nor shall this Section apply to a person who enters a public building under the reasonable belief that the building is still open to the public.

(b) A person has received notice from the owner or occupant within the meaning of Subsection (a) if he or she has been notified personally, either orally or in writing including a valid court order as defined by subsection (7) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 granting remedy (2) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of that Code, or if a printed or written notice forbidding such entry has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance to the land or the forbidden part thereof.

(b-5) Subject to the provisions of subsection (b-10), as an alternative to the posting of real property as set forth in subsection (b), the owner or lessee of any real property may post the property by placing identifying purple marks on trees or posts around the area to be posted. Each purple mark shall be:

(1) A vertical line of at least 8 inches in length and the bottom of the mark shall be no less than 3 feet nor more than 5 feet high. Such marks shall be placed no more than 100 feet apart and shall be readily visible to any person approaching the property; or

(2) A post capped or otherwise marked on at least its top 2 inches. The bottom of the cap or mark shall be not less than 3 feet but not more than 5 feet 6 inches high. Posts so marked shall be placed not more than 36 feet apart and shall be readily visible to any person approaching the property. Prior to applying a cap or mark which is visible from both sides of a fence shared by different property owners or lessees, all such owners or lessees shall concur in the decision to post their own property.

Nothing in this subsection (b-5) shall be construed to authorize the owner or lessee of any real property to place any purple marks on any tree or post or to install any post or fence if doing so would violate any applicable law, rule, ordinance, order, covenant, bylaw, declaration, regulation, restriction, contract, or instrument.

(b-10) Any owner or lessee who marks his or her real property using the method described in subsection (b-5) must also provide notice as described in subsection (b) of this Section. The public of this State shall be informed of the provisions of subsection (b-5) of this Section by the Illinois Department of Agriculture and the Illinois Department of Natural Resources. These Departments shall conduct an information campaign for the general public concerning the interpretation and implementation of subsection (b-5). The information shall inform the public about the marking requirements and the applicability of subsection (b-5) including information regarding the size requirements of the markings as well as the manner in which the markings shall be displayed. The Departments shall also include information regarding the requirement that, until the date this subsection becomes inoperative, any owner or lessee who chooses to mark his or her property using paint, must also comply with one of the notice requirements listed in subsection (b). The Departments may prepare a brochure or may disseminate the information through agency websites. Non-governmental organizations including, but not limited to, the Illinois Forestry Association, Illinois Tree Farm and the Walnut Council may help to disseminate the information regarding the requirements and applicability of subsection (b-5) based on materials provided by the Departments. This subsection (b-10) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2013.

(b-15) Subsections (b-5) and (b-10) do not apply to real property located in a municipality of over 2,000,000 inhabitants.

(c) This Section does not apply to any person, whether a migrant worker or otherwise, living on the land with permission of the owner or of his or her agent having apparent authority to hire workers on this land and assign them living quarters or a place of accommodations for living thereon, nor to anyone living on the land at the request of, or by occupancy, leasing or other agreement or arrangement with the owner or his or her agent, nor to anyone invited by the migrant worker or other person so living on the land to visit him or her at the place he is so living upon the land.

(d) A person shall be exempt from prosecution under this Section if he or she beautifies unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial properties located within any municipality. For the purpose of this subsection, "unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial property" means any real estate (1) in which the taxes have not been paid for a period of at least 2 years; and (2) which has been left unoccupied and abandoned for a period of at least one year; and "beautifies" means to landscape, clean up litter, or to repair dilapidated conditions on or to board up windows and doors.

(e) No person shall be liable in any civil action for money damages to the owner of unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial property which that person beautifies pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section.

(e-5) Mortgagee or agent of the mortgagee exceptions.

(1) A mortgagee or agent of the mortgagee shall be exempt from prosecution for criminal trespass for entering, securing, or maintaining an abandoned residential property.

(2) No mortgagee or agent of the mortgagee shall be liable to the mortgagor or other owner of an abandoned residential property in any civil action for negligence or civil trespass in connection with entering, securing, or maintaining the abandoned residential property.

(3) For the purpose of this subsection (e-5) only, "abandoned residential property" means mortgaged real estate that the mortgagee or agent of the mortgagee determines in good faith meets the definition of abandoned residential property set forth in Section 15-1200.5 of Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(f) This Section does not prohibit a person from entering a building or upon the land of another for emergency purposes. For purposes of this subsection (f), "emergency" means a condition or circumstance in which an individual is or is reasonably believed by the person to be in imminent danger of serious bodily harm or in which property is or is reasonably believed to be in imminent danger of damage or destruction.

(g) Paragraph (3.5) of subsection (a) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters a building or land in the performance of his or her official duties.

(h) Sentence. A violation of subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), or (a)(3.5) is a Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subdivision (a)(4) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(i) Civil liability. A person may be liable in any civil action for money damages to the owner of the land he or she entered upon with a motor vehicle as prohibited under paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section. A person may also be liable to the owner for court costs and reasonable attorney's fees. The measure of damages shall be: (i) the actual damages, but not less than $250, if the vehicle is operated in a nature preserve or registered area as defined in Sections 3.11 and 3.14 of the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act; (ii) twice the actual damages if the owner has previously notified the person to cease trespassing; or (iii) in any other case, the actual damages, but not less than $50. If the person operating the vehicle is under the age of 16, the owner of the vehicle and the parent or legal guardian of the minor are jointly and severally liable. For the purposes of this subsection (i):

"Land" includes, but is not limited to, land used for crop land, fallow land, orchard, pasture, feed lot, timber land, prairie land, mine spoil nature preserves and registered areas. "Land" does not include driveways or private roadways upon which the owner allows the public to drive.

"Owner" means the person who has the right to possession of the land, including the owner, operator or tenant.

"Vehicle" has the same meaning as provided under Section 1-217 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(j) This Section does not apply to the following persons while serving process:

(1) a person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(2) a special process server appointed by the circuit court.

(Source: P.A. 97-184, eff. 7-22-11; 97-477, eff. 8-22-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1164, eff. 6-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-4)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 21-1.01 by P.A. 97-1108.)

Sec. 21-4. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 89-30, eff. 1-1-96. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-5)

Sec. 21-5. Criminal trespass to State supported land.

(a) A person commits criminal trespass to State supported land when he or she enters upon land supported in whole or in part with State funds, or federal funds administered or granted through State agencies or any building on the land, after receiving, prior to the entry, notice from the State or its representative that the entry is forbidden, or remains upon the land or in the building after receiving notice from the State or its representative to depart, and who thereby interferes with another person's lawful use or enjoyment of the building or land.

A person has received notice from the State within the meaning of this subsection if he or she has been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or if a printed or written notice forbidding entry to him or her or a group of which he or she is a part, has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance to the land or the forbidden part thereof.

(a-5) A person commits criminal trespass to State supported land when he or she enters upon a right of way, including facilities and improvements thereon, owned, leased, or otherwise used by a public body or district organized under the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act, the Local Mass Transit District Act, or the Regional Transportation Authority Act, after receiving, prior to the entry, notice from the public body or district, or its representative, that the entry is forbidden, or the person remains upon the right of way after receiving notice from the public body or district, or its representative, to depart, and in either of these instances intends to compromise public safety by causing a delay in transit service lasting more than 15 minutes or destroying property.

A person has received notice from the public body or district within the meaning of this subsection if he or she has been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or if a printed or written notice forbidding entry to him or her has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at any point of entrance to the right of way or the forbidden part of the right of way.

As used in this subsection (a-5), "right of way" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 18c-7502 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(b) A person commits criminal trespass to State supported land when he or she enters upon land supported in whole or in part with State funds, or federal funds administered or granted through State agencies or any building on the land by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the State or its representative in order to obtain permission from the State or its representative to enter the building or land; or remains upon the land or in the building by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the State or its representative in order to remain upon the land or in the building, and who thereby interferes with another person's lawful use or enjoyment of the building or land.

This subsection does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters upon land supported in whole or in part with State funds, or federal funds administered or granted through State agencies or any building on the land in the performance of his or her official duties.

(c) Sentence. Criminal trespass to State supported land is a Class A misdemeanor, except a violation of subsection (a-5) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-748, eff. 1-1-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-5.5)

Sec. 21-5.5. Criminal trespass to a safe school zone.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a school whose relationship with that agency constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor. "Employee" includes, but is not limited to, a teacher, student teacher, aide, secretary, custodial engineer, coach, or his or her designee.

"School administrator" means the school's principal, or his or her designee.

"Safe school zone" means an area that encompasses any of the following places during regular school hours or within 60 minutes before or after the school day or 60 minutes before or after a school-sponsored activity. This shall include any school property, ground, or street, sidewalk, or public way immediately adjacent thereto and any public right-of-way situated immediately adjacent to school property. The safe school zone shall not include any portion of the highway not actually on school property.

"School activity" means and includes any school session, any extracurricular activity or event sponsored by or participated in by the school, and the 60-minute periods immediately preceding and following any session, activity, or event.

"Student" means any person enrolled or previously enrolled in a school.

(b) A person commits the offense of criminal trespass to a safe school zone when he or she knowingly:

(1) enters or remains in a safe school zone without lawful business, when as a student or employee, who has been suspended, expelled, or dismissed for disrupting the orderly operation of the school, and as a condition of the suspension or dismissal, has been denied access to the safe school zone for the period of the suspension or in the case of dismissal for a period not to exceed the term of expulsion, and has been served in person or by registered or certified mail, at the last address given by that person, with a written notice of the suspension or dismissal and condition; or

(2) enters or remains in a safe school zone without lawful business, once being served either in person or by registered or certified mail that his or her presence has been withdrawn by the school administrator, or his or her designee, and whose presence or acts interfere with, or whenever there is reasonable suspicion to believe, such person will disrupt the orderly operation, or the safety, or peaceful conduct of the school or school activities. This clause (b)(2) has no application to conduct protected by the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act or any other law applicable to labor relations. This clause (b)(2) has no application to conduct protected by the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States or Article I of the Illinois Constitution, including the exercise of free speech, free expression, and the free exercise of religion or expression of religiously based views.

(c) Sentence. Criminal trespass to a safe school zone is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-547, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-6)

Sec. 21-6. Unauthorized Possession or Storage of Weapons.

(a) Whoever possesses or stores any weapon enumerated in Section 33A-1 in any building or on land supported in whole or in part with public funds or in any building on such land without prior written permission from the chief security officer for such land or building commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) The chief security officer must grant any reasonable request for permission under paragraph (a).

(Source: P.A. 89-685, eff. 6-1-97.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-7)

Sec. 21-7. Criminal trespass to restricted areas and restricted landing areas at airports; aggravated criminal trespass to restricted areas and restricted landing areas at airports.

(a) A person commits criminal trespass to restricted areas and restricted landing areas at airports when he or she enters upon, or remains in, any:

(1) restricted area or restricted landing area used in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in this State, after the person has received notice from the airport authority that the entry is forbidden;

(2) restricted area or restricted landing area used in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in this State by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the airport authority;

(3) restricted area or restricted landing area as prohibited in paragraph (1) of this subsection, while dressed in the uniform of, improperly wearing the identification of, presenting false credentials of, or otherwise physically impersonating an airman, employee of an airline, employee of an airport, or contractor at an airport.

(b) A person commits aggravated criminal trespass to restricted areas and restricted landing areas at airports when he or she enters upon, or remains in, any restricted area or restricted landing area used in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in this State, while in possession of a weapon, replica of a weapon, or ammunition, after the person has received notice from the airport authority that the entry is forbidden.

(c) Notice that the area is "restricted" and entry thereto "forbidden", for purposes of this Section, means that the person or persons have been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or by a printed or written notice forbidding the entry to him or her or a group or an organization of which he or she is a member, which has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at every usable entrance to the area or the forbidden part thereof.

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) The terms "Restricted area" or "Restricted landing area" in this Section are defined to incorporate the meaning ascribed to those terms in Section 8 of the "Illinois Aeronautics Act", approved July 24, 1945, as amended, and also include any other area of the airport that has been designated such by the airport authority.

The terms "airman" and "airport" in this Section are defined to incorporate the meaning ascribed to those terms in Sections 6 and 12 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act.

(g) Paragraph (2) of subsection (a) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters a restricted area or a restricted landing area used in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in the performance of his or her official duties.

(h) Sentence.

(1) A violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of paragraph (1) or (3) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-8)

Sec. 21-8. Criminal trespass to a nuclear facility.

(a) A person commits criminal trespass to a nuclear facility when he or she knowingly and without lawful authority:

(1) enters or remains within a nuclear facility or on the grounds of a nuclear facility, after receiving notice before entry that entry to the nuclear facility is forbidden;

(2) remains within the facility or on the grounds of the facility after receiving notice from the owner or manager of the facility or other person authorized by the owner or manager of the facility to give that notice to depart from the facility or grounds of the facility; or

(3) enters or remains within a nuclear facility or on the grounds of a nuclear facility, by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the owner or manager of the facility. This paragraph (3) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters or remains in the facility in the performance of his or her official duties.

(b) A person has received notice from the owner or manager of the facility or other person authorized by the owner or manager of the facility within the meaning of paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) if he or she has been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or if a printed or written notice forbidding the entry has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance to the facility or grounds of the facility or the forbidden part of the facility.

(c) In this Section, "nuclear facility" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3 of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness Act.

(d) Sentence. Criminal trespass to a nuclear facility is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-9)

Sec. 21-9. Criminal trespass to a place of public amusement.

(a) A person commits criminal trespass to a place of public amusement when he or she knowingly and without lawful authority enters or remains on any portion of a place of public amusement after having received notice that the general public is restricted from access to that portion of the place of public amusement. These areas may include, but are not limited to: a playing field, an athletic surface, a stage, a locker room, or a dressing room located at the place of public amusement.

(a-5) A person commits the offense of criminal trespass to a place of public amusement when he or she knowingly and without lawful authority gains access to or remains on any portion of a place of public amusement by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the property owner, a lessee, an agent of either the owner or lessee, or a performer or participant. This subsection (a-5) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters or remains in the place of public amusement in the performance of his or her official duties.

(b) A property owner, a lessee, an agent of either the owner or lessee, or a performer or participant may use reasonable force to restrain a trespasser and remove him or her from the restricted area; however, any use of force beyond reasonable force may subject that person to any applicable criminal penalty.

(c) A person has received notice within the meaning of subsection (a) if he or she has been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or if a printed or written notice forbidding such entry has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the entrance to the portion of the place of public amusement that is restricted or an oral warning has been broadcast over the public address system of the place of public amusement.

(d) In this Section, "place of public amusement" means a stadium, a theater, or any other facility of any kind, whether licensed or not, where a live performance, a sporting event, or any other activity takes place for other entertainment and where access to the facility is made available to the public, regardless of whether admission is charged.

(e) Sentence. Criminal trespass to a place of public amusement is a Class 4 felony. Upon imposition of any sentence, the court shall also impose a fine of not less than $1,000. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction shall include a condition that the offender perform public or community service of not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offender was convicted. The court may also impose any other condition of probation or conditional discharge under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21, Subdiv. 10 heading) SUBDIVISION 10. MISCELLANEOUS OFFENSES (Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-10)

Sec. 21-10. Criminal use of a motion picture exhibition facility.

(a) A person commits criminal use of a motion picture exhibition facility, when he or she, where a motion picture is being exhibited, knowingly operates an audiovisual recording function of a device without the consent of the owner or lessee of that exhibition facility and of the licensor of the motion picture being exhibited.

(b) Sentence. Criminal use of a motion picture exhibition facility is a Class 4 felony.

(c) The owner or lessee of a facility where a motion picture is being exhibited, the authorized agent or employee of that owner or lessee, or the licensor of the motion picture being exhibited or his or her agent or employee, who alerts law enforcement authorities of an alleged violation of this Section is not liable in any civil action arising out of measures taken by that owner, lessee, licensor, agent, or employee in the course of subsequently detaining a person that the owner, lessee, licensor, agent, or employee, in good faith believed to have violated this Section while awaiting the arrival of law enforcement authorities, unless the plaintiff in such an action shows by clear and convincing evidence that such measures were manifestly unreasonable or the period of detention was unreasonably long.

(d) This Section does not prevent any lawfully authorized investigative, law enforcement, protective, or intelligence gathering employee or agent of the State or federal government from operating any audiovisual recording device in any facility where a motion picture is being exhibited as part of lawfully authorized investigative, protective, law enforcement, or intelligence gathering activities.

(e) This Section does not apply to a person who operates an audiovisual recording function of a device in a retail establishment solely to demonstrate the use of that device for sales and display purposes.

(f) Nothing in this Section prevents the prosecution for conduct that constitutes a violation of this Section under any other provision of law providing for a greater penalty.

(g) In this Section, "audiovisual recording function" means the capability of a device to record or transmit a motion picture or any part of a motion picture by means of any technology now known or later developed and "facility" does not include a personal residence.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-11)

Sec. 21-11. Distributing or delivering written or printed solicitation on school property.

(a) Distributing or delivering written or printed solicitation on school property or within 1,000 feet of school property, for the purpose of inviting students to any event when a significant purpose of the event is to commit illegal acts or to solicit attendees to commit illegal acts, or to be held in or around abandoned buildings, is prohibited.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "school property" is defined as the buildings or grounds of any public or private elementary or secondary school.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21.1 heading) ARTICLE 21.1. RESIDENTIAL PICKETING

(720 ILCS 5/21.1-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.1-1)

Sec. 21.1-1. Legislative finding and declaration.

The Legislature finds and declares that men in a free society have the right to quiet enjoyment of their homes; that the stability of community and family life cannot be maintained unless the right to privacy and a sense of security and peace in the home are respected and encouraged; that residential picketing, however just the cause inspiring it, disrupts home, family and communal life; that residential picketing is inappropriate in our society, where the jealously guarded rights of free speech and assembly have always been associated with respect for the rights of others. For these reasons the Legislature finds and declares this Article to be necessary.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 940.)

(720 ILCS 5/21.1-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.1-2)

Sec. 21.1-2. Residential picketing. A person commits residential picketing when he or she pickets before or about the residence or dwelling of any person, except when the residence or dwelling is used as a place of business. This Article does not apply to a person peacefully picketing his own residence or dwelling and does not prohibit the peaceful picketing of the place of holding a meeting or assembly on premises commonly used to discuss subjects of general public interest.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21.1-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.1-3)

Sec. 21.1-3. Sentence. Violation of Section 21.1-2 is a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21.2 heading) ARTICLE 21.2. INTERFERENCE WITH A PUBLIC INSTITUTION OF EDUCATION (Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/21.2-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-1)

Sec. 21.2-1. The General Assembly, in recognition of unlawful campus and school disorders across the nation which are disruptive of the educational process, dangerous to the health and safety of persons, damaging to public and private property, and which divert the use of institutional facilities from the primary function of education, establishes by this Act criminal penalties for conduct declared in this Article to be unlawful. However, this Article does not modify or supersede any other law relating to damage to persons or property, nor does it prevent a public institution of education from establishing restrictions upon the availability or use of any building or other facility owned, operated or controlled by the institution to preserve their dedication to education, nor from establishing standards of scholastic and behavioral conduct reasonably relevant to the missions, processes and functions of the institution, nor from invoking appropriate discipline or expulsion for violations of such standards.

(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/21.2-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-2)

Sec. 21.2-2. Interference with a public institution of education. A person commits interference with a public institution of education when he or she, on the campus of a public institution of education, or at or in any building or other facility owned, operated or controlled by the institution, without authority from the institution he or she, through force or violence, actual or threatened:

(1) knowingly denies to a trustee, school board member, superintendent, principal, employee, student or invitee of the institution:

(A) Freedom of movement at that place; or

(B) Use of the property or facilities of the institution; or

(C) The right of ingress or egress to the property or facilities of the institution; or

(2) knowingly impedes, obstructs, interferes with or disrupts:

(A) the performance of institutional duties by a trustee, school board member, superintendent, principal, or employee of the institution; or

(B) the pursuit of educational activities, as determined or prescribed by the institution, by a trustee, school board member, superintendent, principal, employee, student or invitee of the institution; or

(3) knowingly occupies or remains in or at any building, property or other facility owned, operated or controlled by the institution after due notice to depart.

(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21.2-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-3)

Sec. 21.2-3. Nothing in this Article prevents lawful assembly of the trustees, school board members, superintendent, principal, employees, students or invitees of a public institution of education, or prevents orderly petition for redress of grievances.

(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/21.2-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-4)

Sec. 21.2-4. Sentence. A person convicted of violation of this Article commits a Class C misdemeanor for the first offense and for a second or subsequent offense commits a Class B misdemeanor. If the interference with the public institution of education is accompanied by a threat of personal injury or property damage, the person commits a Class 3 felony and may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years and may be prosecuted for intimidation in accordance with Section 12-6 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/21.2-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-5)

Sec. 21.2-5. For the purposes of this Article the words and phrases described in this Section have the meanings designated in this Section, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

"Public institution of education" means an educational organization located in this State which provides an organized elementary, secondary, or post-high school educational program, and which is supported in whole or in part by appropriations of the General Assembly, a unit of local government or school district.

A person has received "due notice" if he, or the group of which he is a part, has been given oral or written notice from an authorized representative of the public institution of education in a manner reasonably designated to inform him, or the group of which he is a part, that he or they should cease such action or depart from such premises. The notice may also be given by a printed or written notice forbidding entry conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance of the building or other facility, or the forbidden part thereof.

"Force or violence" includes, but is not limited to, use of one's person, individually or in concert with others, to impede access to or movement within or otherwise to interfere with the conduct of the authorized activities of the public institution of education, its trustees, school board members, superintendent, principal, employees, students or invitees.

(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/21.2-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-6)

Sec. 21.2-6. If any provision of this Act or the application thereof to any person or circumstances is held invalid, such invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of the Act which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this Act are declared severable.

(Source: P.A. 76-1582.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21.3 heading) ARTICLE 21.3. SOLICITATION ON SCHOOL PROPERTY (Repealed)Source: P.A. 88-357. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.

(720 ILCS 5/Tit. III Pt. D heading) PART D. OFFENSES AFFECTING PUBLIC HEALTH, SAFETY AND DECENCY

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 24 heading) ARTICLE 24. DEADLY WEAPONS

(720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-1. Unlawful use of weapons.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons when he knowingly:

(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or

(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or

(2.5) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, any firearm in a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place used for religious worship; or

(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or

(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on or about his person except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a)(4) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(5) Sets a spring gun; or

(6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm; or

(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries:

(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;

(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or

(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.

This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or

(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about his or her person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he or she is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his or her identity; or

(10) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village, or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun, or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a)(10) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) means (i) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or

(11) Sells, manufactures, delivers, imports, possesses, or purchases any assault weapon attachment or .50 caliber cartridge in violation of Section 24-1.9 or any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or

(12) (Blank); or

(13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, or other instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a short stick or club commonly carried by police officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece of wood or other man-made material; or

(14) Manufactures, possesses, sells, or offers to sell, purchase, manufacture, import, transfer, or use any device, part, kit, tool, accessory, or combination of parts that is designed to and functions to increase the rate of fire of a semiautomatic firearm above the standard rate of fire for semiautomatic firearms that is not equipped with that device, part, or combination of parts; or

(15) Carries or possesses any assault weapon or .50 caliber rifle in violation of Section 24-1.9; or

(16) Manufactures, sells, delivers, imports, or purchases any assault weapon or .50 caliber rifle in violation of Section 24-1.9.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), subsection 24-1(a)(11), subsection 24-1(a)(13), or 24-1(a)(15) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7)(ii), 24-1(a)(7)(iii), or 24-1(a)(16) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), or 24-1(a)(15) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(2.5) or 24-1(a)(14) commits a Class 2 felony. The possession of each weapon or device in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Violations in specific places.

(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.

(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public transportation agency" means a public or private agency that provides for the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, except for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance of the general public as passengers; and "public transportation facility" means a terminal or other place where one may obtain public transportation.

(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his or her trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.

(e) Exemptions.

(1) Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The provision of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibiting the sale, manufacture, purchase, possession, or carrying of any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, does not apply to a person who possesses a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police or to a person or an entity engaged in the business of selling or manufacturing switchblade knives.

(Source: P.A. 101-223, eff. 1-1-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-1. Unlawful possession of weapons.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of weapons when he knowingly:

(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or

(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or

(2.5) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, any firearm in a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place used for religious worship; or

(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or

(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on or about his person except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a)(4) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(5) Sets a spring gun; or

(6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm; or

(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries:

(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;

(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or

(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.

This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or

(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about his or her person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he or she is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his or her identity; or

(10) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village, or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun, or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a)(10) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) means (i) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or

(11) Sells, manufactures, delivers, imports, possesses, or purchases any assault weapon attachment or .50 caliber cartridge in violation of Section 24-1.9 or any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or

(12) (Blank); or

(13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, or other instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a short stick or club commonly carried by police officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece of wood or other man-made material; or

(14) Manufactures, possesses, sells, or offers to sell, purchase, manufacture, import, transfer, or use any device, part, kit, tool, accessory, or combination of parts that is designed to and functions to increase the rate of fire of a semiautomatic firearm above the standard rate of fire for semiautomatic firearms that is not equipped with that device, part, or combination of parts; or

(15) Carries or possesses any assault weapon or .50 caliber rifle in violation of Section 24-1.9; or

(16) Manufactures, sells, delivers, imports, or purchases any assault weapon or .50 caliber rifle in violation of Section 24-1.9.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), subsection 24-1(a)(11), subsection 24-1(a)(13), or 24-1(a)(15) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7)(ii), 24-1(a)(7)(iii), or 24-1(a)(16) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), or 24-1(a)(15) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(2.5) or 24-1(a)(14) commits a Class 2 felony. The possession of each weapon or device in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Violations in specific places.

(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.

(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public transportation agency" means a public or private agency that provides for the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, except for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance of the general public as passengers; and "public transportation facility" means a terminal or other place where one may obtain public transportation.

(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his or her trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.

(e) Exemptions.

(1) Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The provision of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibiting the sale, manufacture, purchase, possession, or carrying of any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, does not apply to a person who possesses a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police or to a person or an entity engaged in the business of selling or manufacturing switchblade knives.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-1.1. Unlawful use or possession of weapons by felons or persons in the custody of the Department of Corrections facilities.

(a) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly possess on or about his person or on his land or in his own abode or fixed place of business any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Act or any firearm or any firearm ammunition if the person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction. This Section shall not apply if the person has been granted relief by the Director of the Illinois State Police under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(b) It is unlawful for any person confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, to possess any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code or any firearm or firearm ammunition, regardless of the intent with which he possesses it.

(c) It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of subsection (b), that such possession was specifically authorized by rule, regulation, or directive of the Illinois Department of Corrections or order issued pursuant thereto.

(d) The defense of necessity is not available to a person who is charged with a violation of subsection (b) of this Section.

(e) Sentence. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution shall be a Class 3 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to no less than 2 years and no more than 10 years. A second or subsequent violation of this Section shall be a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution who has been convicted of a forcible felony, a felony violation of Article 24 of this Code or of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, stalking or aggravated stalking, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of this Section by a person who is on parole or mandatory supervised release is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution is a Class X felony when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. Any person who violates this Section while confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, is guilty of a Class 1 felony, if he possesses any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code regardless of the intent with which he possesses it, a Class X felony if he possesses any firearm, firearm ammunition or explosive, and a Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. A violation of this Section while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 is a Class X felony punishable by a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more than 40 years. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-1.1. Unlawful possession of weapons by felons or persons in the custody of the Department of Corrections facilities.

(a) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly possess on or about his person or on his land or in his own abode or fixed place of business any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Act or any firearm or any firearm ammunition if the person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction. This Section shall not apply if the person has been granted relief by the Director of the Illinois State Police under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(b) It is unlawful for any person confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, to possess any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code or any firearm or firearm ammunition, regardless of the intent with which he possesses it.

(c) It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of subsection (b), that such possession was specifically authorized by rule, regulation, or directive of the Illinois Department of Corrections or order issued pursuant thereto.

(d) The defense of necessity is not available to a person who is charged with a violation of subsection (b) of this Section.

(e) Sentence. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution shall be a Class 3 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to no less than 2 years and no more than 10 years. A second or subsequent violation of this Section shall be a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution who has been convicted of a forcible felony, a felony violation of Article 24 of this Code or of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, stalking or aggravated stalking, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of this Section by a person who is on parole or mandatory supervised release is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution is a Class X felony when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. Any person who violates this Section while confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, is guilty of a Class 1 felony, if he possesses any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code regardless of the intent with which he possesses it, a Class X felony if he possesses any firearm, firearm ammunition or explosive, and a Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. A violation of this Section while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 is a Class X felony punishable by a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more than 40 years. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1.2)

Sec. 24-1.2. Aggravated discharge of a firearm.

(a) A person commits aggravated discharge of a firearm when he or she knowingly or intentionally:

(1) Discharges a firearm at or into a building he or she knows or reasonably should know to be occupied and the firearm is discharged from a place or position outside that building;

(2) Discharges a firearm in the direction of another person or in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows or reasonably should know to be occupied by a person;

(3) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, a community policing volunteer, a correctional institution employee, or a fireman while the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;

(4) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional institution employee or a fireman while the officer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;

(5) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be emergency medical services personnel who is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical services personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical services personnel performing his or her official duties;

(6) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by emergency medical services personnel while the emergency medical services personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical services personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical services personnel performing his or her official duties;

(7) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and the teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes;

(8) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties; or

(9) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties.

(b) A violation of subsection (a)(1) or subsection (a)(2) of this Section is a Class 1 felony. A violation of subsection (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this Section committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year that the offense was committed is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7), (a)(8), or (a)(9) of this Section is a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 10 years and not more than 45 years.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

"Emergency medical services personnel" has the meaning specified in Section 3.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act and shall include all ambulance crew members, including drivers or pilots.

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(Source: P.A. 99-816, eff. 8-15-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.2-5)

Sec. 24-1.2-5. Aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm.

(a) A person commits aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm when he or she knowingly or intentionally:

(1) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm at or into a building he or she knows to be occupied and the machine gun or the firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm is discharged from a place or position outside that building;

(2) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of another person or in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied;

(3) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional institution employee, or a fireman while the officer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;

(4) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional institution employee or a fireman while the officer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;

(5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be emergency medical services personnel while the emergency medical services personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical services personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical services personnel performing his or her official duties;

(6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by emergency medical services personnel, while the emergency medical services personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical services personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical services personnel performing his or her official duties;

(7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties; or

(8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties.

(b) A violation of subsection (a) (1) or subsection (a) (2) of this Section is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a) (3), (a) (4), (a) (5), (a) (6), (a) (7), or (a) (8) of this Section is a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 12 years and no more than 50 years.

(c) For the purpose of this Section:

"Emergency medical services personnel" has the meaning specified in Section 3.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act and shall include all ambulance crew members, including drivers or pilots.

"Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in clause (i) of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of this Code.

(d) This Section does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.

(Source: P.A. 99-816, eff. 8-15-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.5)

Sec. 24-1.5. Reckless discharge of a firearm.

(a) A person commits reckless discharge of a firearm by discharging a firearm in a reckless manner which endangers the bodily safety of an individual.

(b) If the conduct described in subsection (a) is committed by a passenger of a moving motor vehicle with the knowledge and consent of the driver of the motor vehicle the driver is accountable for such conduct.

(c) Reckless discharge of a firearm is a Class 4 felony.

(d) This Section does not apply to a peace officer while in the performance of his or her official duties.

(Source: P.A. 88-217.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.6)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon when he or she knowingly:

(1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; or

(2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; and

(3) One of the following factors is present:

(A) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or handgun, possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(A-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(B) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or handgun, possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(B-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(C) the person possessing the firearm has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(D) the person possessing the weapon was previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or

(E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(F) (blank); or

(G) the person possessing the weapon had an order of protection issued against him or her within the previous 2 years; or

(H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in the commission or attempted commission of a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence against the person or property of another; or

(I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21 years of age and in possession of a handgun, unless the person under 21 is engaged in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f).

(a-5) "Handgun" as used in this Section has the meaning given to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the transportation or possession of weapons that:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (d), a first offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon committed with a firearm by a person 18 years of age or older where the factors listed in both items (A) and (C) or both items (A-5) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are present is a Class 4 felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than 3 years.

(3) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon by a person who has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(4) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X felony.

(e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 100-3, eff. 1-1-18; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon when he or she knowingly:

(1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; or

(2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; and

(3) One of the following factors is present:

(A) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or handgun, possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(A-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(B) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or handgun, possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(B-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(C) the person possessing the firearm has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(D) the person possessing the weapon was previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or

(E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(F) (blank); or

(G) the person possessing the weapon had an order of protection issued against him or her within the previous 2 years; or

(H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in the commission or attempted commission of a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence against the person or property of another; or

(I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21 years of age and in possession of a handgun, unless the person under 21 is engaged in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f).

(a-5) "Handgun" as used in this Section has the meaning given to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the transportation or possession of weapons that:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (d), a first offense of aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon committed with a firearm by a person 18 years of age or older where the factors listed in both items (A) and (C) or both items (A-5) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are present is a Class 4 felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than 3 years.

(3) Aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon by a person who has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(4) Aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X felony.

(e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.7)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-1.7. Armed habitual criminal.

(a) A person commits the offense of being an armed habitual criminal if he or she receives, sells, possesses, or transfers any firearm after having been convicted a total of 2 or more times of any combination of the following offenses:

(1) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of this Code;

(2) unlawful use of a weapon by a felon; aggravated unlawful use of a weapon; aggravated discharge of a firearm; vehicular hijacking; aggravated vehicular hijacking; aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05; intimidation; aggravated intimidation; gunrunning; home invasion; or aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05; or

(3) any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Cannabis Control Act that is punishable as a Class 3 felony or higher.

(b) Sentence. Being an armed habitual criminal is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-1.7. Unlawful possession of a firearm by a repeat felony offender.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of a firearm by a repeat felony offender if he or she receives, sells, possesses, or transfers any firearm after having been convicted a total of 2 or more times of any combination of the following offenses:

(1) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of this Code;

(2) unlawful possession of a weapon by a felon; aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon; aggravated discharge of a firearm; vehicular hijacking; aggravated vehicular hijacking; aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05; intimidation; aggravated intimidation; gunrunning; home invasion; or aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05; or

(3) any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Cannabis Control Act that is punishable as a Class 3 felony or higher.

(b) Sentence. Unlawful possession of a firearm by a repeat felony offender is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.8)

Sec. 24-1.8. Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member.

(a) A person commits unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when he or she knowingly:

(1) possesses, carries, or conceals on or about his or her person a firearm and firearm ammunition while on any street, road, alley, gangway, sidewalk, or any other lands, except when inside his or her own abode or inside his or her fixed place of business, and has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is a member of a street gang; or

(2) possesses or carries in any vehicle a firearm and firearm ammunition which are both immediately accessible at the time of the offense while on any street, road, alley, or any other lands, except when inside his or her own abode or garage, and has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is a member of a street gang.

(b) Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member is a Class 2 felony for which the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to no less than 3 years and no more than 10 years. A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the offense of unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition and the court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment authorized for the Class 2 felony.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

"Street gang" or "gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

"Street gang member" or "gang member" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-829, eff. 12-3-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.9)

Sec. 24-1.9. Manufacture, possession, delivery, sale, and purchase of assault weapons, .50 caliber rifles, and .50 caliber cartridges.

(a) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Assault weapon" means any of the following, except as provided in subdivision (2) of this subsection:

(A) A semiautomatic rifle that has the capacity to accept a detachable magazine or that may be readily modified to accept a detachable magazine, if the firearm has one or more of the following:

(i) a pistol grip or thumbhole stock;

(ii) any feature capable of functioning as a protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger hand;

(iii) a folding, telescoping, thumbhole, or detachable stock, or a stock that is otherwise foldable or adjustable in a manner that operates to reduce the length, size, or any other dimension, or otherwise enhances the concealability of, the weapon;

(iv) a flash suppressor;

(v) a grenade launcher;

(vi) a shroud attached to the barrel or that partially or completely encircles the barrel, allowing the bearer to hold the firearm with the non-trigger hand without being burned, but excluding a slide that encloses the barrel.

(B) A semiautomatic rifle that has a fixed magazine with the capacity to accept more than 10 rounds, except for an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition.

(C) A semiautomatic pistol that has the capacity to accept a detachable magazine or that may be readily modified to accept a detachable magazine, if the firearm has one or more of the following:

(i) a threaded barrel;

(ii) a second pistol grip or another feature capable of functioning as a protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger hand;

(iii) a shroud attached to the barrel or that partially or completely encircles the barrel, allowing the bearer to hold the firearm with the non-trigger hand without being burned, but excluding a slide that encloses the barrel;

(iv) a flash suppressor;

(v) the capacity to accept a detachable magazine at some location outside of the pistol grip; or

(vi) a buffer tube, arm brace, or other part that protrudes horizontally behind the pistol grip and is designed or redesigned to allow or facilitate a firearm to be fired from the shoulder.

(D) A semiautomatic pistol that has a fixed magazine with the capacity to accept more than 15 rounds.

(E) Any shotgun with a revolving cylinder.

(F) A semiautomatic shotgun that has one or more of the following:

(i) a pistol grip or thumbhole stock;

(ii) any feature capable of functioning as a protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger hand;

(iii) a folding or thumbhole stock;

(iv) a grenade launcher;

(v) a fixed magazine with the capacity of more than 5 rounds; or

(vi) the capacity to accept a detachable magazine.

(G) Any semiautomatic firearm that has the capacity to accept a belt ammunition feeding device.

(H) Any firearm that has been modified to be operable as an assault weapon as defined in this Section.

(I) Any part or combination of parts designed or intended to convert a firearm into an assault weapon, including any combination of parts from which an assault weapon may be readily assembled if those parts are in the possession or under the control of the same person.

(J) All of the following rifles, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon:

(i) All AK types, including the following:

(I) AK, AK47, AK47S, AK-74, AKM, AKS, ARM, MAK90, MISR, NHM90, NHM91, SA85, SA93, Vector Arms AK-47, VEPR, WASR-10, and WUM.

(II) IZHMASH Saiga AK.

(III) MAADI AK47 and ARM.

(IV) Norinco 56S, 56S2, 84S, and 86S.

(V) Poly Technologies AK47 and AKS.

(VI) SKS with a detachable magazine.

(ii) all AR types, including the following:

(I) AR-10.

(II) AR-15.

(III) Alexander Arms Overmatch Plus 16.

(IV) Armalite M15 22LR Carbine.

(V) Armalite M15-T.

(VI) Barrett REC7.

(VII) Beretta AR-70.

(VIII) Black Rain Ordnance Recon Scout.

(IX) Bushmaster ACR.

(X) Bushmaster Carbon 15.

(XI) Bushmaster MOE series.

(XII) Bushmaster XM15.

(XIII) Chiappa Firearms MFour rifles.

(XIV) Colt Match Target rifles.

(XV) CORE Rifle Systems CORE15 rifles.

(XVI) Daniel Defense M4A1 rifles.

(XVII) Devil Dog Arms 15 Series rifles.

(XVIII) Diamondback DB15 rifles.

(XIX) DoubleStar AR rifles.

(XX) DPMS Tactical rifles.

(XXI) DSA Inc. ZM-4 Carbine.

(XXII) Heckler & Koch MR556.

(XXIII) High Standard HSA-15 rifles.

(XXIV) Jesse James Nomad AR-15 rifle.

(XXV) Knight's Armament SR-15.

(XXVI) Lancer L15 rifles.

(XXVII) MGI Hydra Series rifles.

(XXVIII) Mossberg MMR Tactical rifles.

(XXIX) Noreen Firearms BN 36 rifle.

(XXX) Olympic Arms.

(XXXI) POF USA P415.

(XXXII) Precision Firearms AR rifles.

(XXXIII) Remington R-15 rifles.

(XXXIV) Rhino Arms AR rifles.

(XXXV) Rock River Arms LAR-15 or Rock River Arms LAR-47.

(XXXVI) Sig Sauer SIG516 rifles and MCX rifles.

(XXXVII) Smith & Wesson M&P15 rifles.

(XXXVIII) Stag Arms AR rifles.

(XXXIX) Sturm, Ruger & Co. SR556 and AR-556 rifles.

(XL) Uselton Arms Air-Lite M-4 rifles.

(XLI) Windham Weaponry AR rifles.

(XLII) WMD Guns Big Beast.

(XLIII) Yankee Hill Machine Company, Inc. YHM-15 rifles.

(iii) Barrett M107A1.

(iv) Barrett M82A1.

(v) Beretta CX4 Storm.

(vi) Calico Liberty Series.

(vii) CETME Sporter.

(viii) Daewoo K-1, K-2, Max 1, Max 2, AR 100, and AR 110C.

(ix) Fabrique Nationale/FN Herstal FAL, LAR, 22 FNC, 308 Match, L1A1 Sporter, PS90, SCAR, and FS2000.

(x) Feather Industries AT-9.

(xi) Galil Model AR and Model ARM.

(xii) Hi-Point Carbine.

(xiii) HK-91, HK-93, HK-94, HK-PSG-1, and HK USC.

(xiv) IWI TAVOR, Galil ACE rifle.

(xv) Kel-Tec Sub-2000, SU-16, and RFB.

(xvi) SIG AMT, SIG PE-57, Sig Sauer SG 550, Sig Sauer SG 551, and SIG MCX.

(xvii) Springfield Armory SAR-48.

(xviii) Steyr AUG.

(xix) Sturm, Ruger & Co. Mini-14 Tactical Rifle M-14/20CF.

(xx) All Thompson rifles, including the following:

(I) Thompson M1SB.

(II) Thompson T1100D.

(III) Thompson T150D.

(IV) Thompson T1B.

(V) Thompson T1B100D.

(VI) Thompson T1B50D.

(VII) Thompson T1BSB.

(VIII) Thompson T1-C.

(IX) Thompson T1D.

(X) Thompson T1SB.

(XI) Thompson T5.

(XII) Thompson T5100D.

(XIII) Thompson TM1.

(XIV) Thompson TM1C.

(xxi) UMAREX UZI rifle.

(xxii) UZI Mini Carbine, UZI Model A Carbine, and UZI Model B Carbine.

(xxiii) Valmet M62S, M71S, and M78.

(xxiv) Vector Arms UZI Type.

(xxv) Weaver Arms Nighthawk.

(xxvi) Wilkinson Arms Linda Carbine.

(K) All of the following pistols, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon thereof:

(i) All AK types, including the following:

(I) Centurion 39 AK pistol.

(II) CZ Scorpion pistol.

(III) Draco AK-47 pistol.

(IV) HCR AK-47 pistol.

(V) IO Inc. Hellpup AK-47 pistol.

(VI) Krinkov pistol.

(VII) Mini Draco AK-47 pistol.

(VIII) PAP M92 pistol.

(IX) Yugo Krebs Krink pistol.

(ii) All AR types, including the following:

(I) American Spirit AR-15 pistol.

(II) Bushmaster Carbon 15 pistol.

(III) Chiappa Firearms M4 Pistol GEN II.

(IV) CORE Rifle Systems CORE15 Roscoe pistol.

(V) Daniel Defense MK18 pistol.

(VI) DoubleStar Corporation AR pistol.

(VII) DPMS AR-15 pistol.

(VIII) Jesse James Nomad AR-15 pistol.

(IX) Olympic Arms AR-15 pistol.

(X) Osprey Armament MK-18 pistol.

(XI) POF USA AR pistols.

(XII) Rock River Arms LAR 15 pistol.

(XIII) Uselton Arms Air-Lite M-4 pistol.

(iii) Calico pistols.

(iv) DSA SA58 PKP FAL pistol.

(v) Encom MP-9 and MP-45.

(vi) Heckler & Koch model SP-89 pistol.

(vii) Intratec AB-10, TEC-22 Scorpion, TEC-9, and TEC-DC9.

(viii) IWI Galil Ace pistol, UZI PRO pistol.

(ix) Kel-Tec PLR 16 pistol.

(x) All MAC types, including the following:

(I) MAC-10.

(II) MAC-11.

(III) Masterpiece Arms MPA A930 Mini Pistol, MPA460 Pistol, MPA Tactical Pistol, and MPA Mini Tactical Pistol.

(IV) Military Armament Corp. Ingram M-11.

(V) Velocity Arms VMAC.

(xi) Sig Sauer P556 pistol.

(xii) Sites Spectre.

(xiii) All Thompson types, including the following:

(I) Thompson TA510D.

(II) Thompson TA5.

(xiv) All UZI types, including Micro-UZI.

(L) All of the following shotguns, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon thereof:

(i) DERYA Anakon MC-1980, Anakon SD12.

(ii) Doruk Lethal shotguns.

(iii) Franchi LAW-12 and SPAS 12.

(iv) All IZHMASH Saiga 12 types, including the following:

(I) IZHMASH Saiga 12.

(II) IZHMASH Saiga 12S.

(III) IZHMASH Saiga 12S EXP-01.

(IV) IZHMASH Saiga 12K.

(V) IZHMASH Saiga 12K-030.

(VI) IZHMASH Saiga 12K-040 Taktika.

(v) Streetsweeper.

(vi) Striker 12.

(2) "Assault weapon" does not include:

(A) Any firearm that is an unserviceable firearm or has been made permanently inoperable.

(B) An antique firearm or a replica of an antique firearm.

(C) A firearm that is manually operated by bolt, pump, lever or slide action, unless the firearm is a shotgun with a revolving cylinder.

(D) Any air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.

(E) Any handgun, as defined under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise listed in this Section.

(3) "Assault weapon attachment" means any device capable of being attached to a firearm that is specifically designed for making or converting a firearm into any of the firearms listed in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a).

(4) "Antique firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(16).

(5) ".50 caliber rifle" means a centerfire rifle capable of firing a .50 caliber cartridge. The term does not include any antique firearm, any shotgun including a shotgun that has a rifle barrel, or any muzzle-loader which uses black powder for hunting or historical reenactments.

(6) ".50 caliber cartridge" means a cartridge in .50 BMG caliber, either by designation or actual measurement, that is capable of being fired from a centerfire rifle. The term ".50 caliber cartridge" does not include any memorabilia or display item that is filled with a permanent inert substance or that is otherwise permanently altered in a manner that prevents ready modification for use as live ammunition or shotgun ammunition with a caliber measurement that is equal to or greater than .50 caliber.

(7) "Detachable magazine" means an ammunition feeding device that may be removed from a firearm without disassembly of the firearm action, including an ammunition feeding device that may be readily removed from a firearm with the use of a bullet, cartridge, accessory, or other tool, or any other object that functions as a tool, including a bullet or cartridge.

(8) "Fixed magazine" means an ammunition feeding device that is permanently attached to a firearm, or contained in and not removable from a firearm, or that is otherwise not a detachable magazine, but does not include an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition.

(b) Except as provided in subsections (c), (d), and (e), on or after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116), it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly manufacture, deliver, sell, import, or purchase or cause to be manufactured, delivered, sold, imported, or purchased by another, an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), beginning January 1, 2024, it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly possess an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

(d) This Section does not apply to a person's possession of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge device if the person lawfully possessed that assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge prohibited by subsection (c) of this Section, if the person has provided in an endorsement affidavit, prior to January 1, 2024, under oath or affirmation and in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police, no later than October 1, 2023:

(1) the affiant's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number;

(2) an affirmation that the affiant: (i) possessed an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge before January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116); or (ii) inherited the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge from a person with an endorsement under this Section or from a person authorized under subdivisions (1) through (5) of subsection (e) to possess the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge; and

(3) the make, model, caliber, and serial number of the .50 caliber rifle or assault weapon or assault weapons listed in paragraphs (J), (K), and (L) of subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of this Section possessed by the affiant prior to January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) and any assault weapons identified and published by the Illinois State Police pursuant to this subdivision (3). No later than October 1, 2023, and every October 1 thereafter, the Illinois State Police shall, via rulemaking, identify, publish, and make available on its website, the list of assault weapons subject to an endorsement affidavit under this subsection (d). The list shall identify, but is not limited to, the copies, duplicates, variants, and altered facsimiles of the assault weapons identified in paragraphs (J), (K), and (L) of subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of this Section and shall be consistent with the definition of "assault weapon" identified in this Section. The Illinois State Police may adopt emergency rulemaking in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and this paragraph is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

The affidavit form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this form is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Entering false information on this form is a violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act."

In any administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding in this State, a completed endorsement affidavit submitted to the Illinois State Police by a person under this Section creates a rebuttable presumption that the person is entitled to possess and transport the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

Beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116), a person authorized under this Section to possess an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge shall possess such items only:

(1) on private property owned or immediately controlled by the person;

(2) on private property that is not open to the public with the express permission of the person who owns or immediately controls such property;

(3) while on the premises of a licensed firearms dealer or gunsmith for the purpose of lawful repair;

(4) while engaged in the legal use of the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge at a properly licensed firing range or sport shooting competition venue; or

(5) while traveling to or from these locations, provided that the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, or .50 caliber rifle is unloaded and the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge is enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, the person with the endorsement for an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge or a person authorized under subdivisions (1) through (5) of subsection (e) to possess an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge may transfer the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge only to an heir, an individual residing in another state maintaining it in another state, or a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968. Within 10 days after transfer of the weapon except to an heir, the person shall notify the Illinois State Police of the name and address of the transferee and comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The person to whom the weapon or ammunition is transferred shall, within 60 days of the transfer, complete an affidavit required under this Section. A person to whom the weapon is transferred may transfer it only as provided in this subsection.

Except as provided in subsection (e) and beginning on January 1, 2024, any person who moves into this State in possession of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge shall, within 60 days, apply for a Firearm Owners Identification Card and complete an endorsement application as outlined in subsection (d).

Notwithstanding any other law, information contained in the endorsement affidavit shall be confidential, is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, and shall not be disclosed, except to law enforcement agencies acting in the performance of their duties.

(e) The provisions of this Section regarding the purchase or possession of assault weapons, assault weapon attachments, .50 caliber rifles, and .50 cartridges, as well as the provisions of this Section that prohibit causing those items to be purchased or possessed, do not apply to:

(1) Peace officers, as defined in Section 2-13 of this Code.

(2) Qualified law enforcement officers and qualified retired law enforcement officers as defined in the Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004 (18 U.S.C. 926B and 926C) and as recognized under Illinois law.

(3) Acquisition and possession by a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency for the purpose of equipping the agency's peace officers as defined in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (e).

(4) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(5) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while performing their official duties or while traveling to or from their places of duty.

(6) Any company that employs armed security officers in this State at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and any person employed as an armed security force member at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and while performing official duties.

(7) Any private security contractor agency licensed under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 that employs private security contractors and any private security contractor who is licensed and has been issued a firearm control card under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 while performing official duties.

The provisions of this Section do not apply to the manufacture, delivery, sale, import, purchase, or possession of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge or causing the manufacture, delivery, sale, importation, purchase, or possession of those items:

(A) for sale or transfer to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (7) of this subsection (e) to possess those items;

(B) for sale or transfer to the United States or any department or agency thereof; or

(C) for sale or transfer in another state or for export.

This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(i) Possession of any firearm if that firearm is sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee and by USA Shooting, the national governing body for international shooting competition in the United States, but only when the firearm is in the actual possession of an Olympic target shooting competitor or target shooting coach for the purpose of storage, transporting to and from Olympic target shooting practice or events if the firearm is broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms, and when the Olympic target shooting competitor or target shooting coach is engaging in those practices or events. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "firearm" has the meaning provided in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(ii) Any nonresident who transports, within 24 hours, a weapon for any lawful purpose from any place where the nonresident may lawfully possess and carry that weapon to any other place where the nonresident may lawfully possess and carry that weapon if, during the transportation, the weapon is unloaded, and neither the weapon nor any ammunition being transported is readily accessible or is directly accessible from the passenger compartment of the transporting vehicle. In the case of a vehicle without a compartment separate from the driver's compartment, the weapon or ammunition shall be contained in a locked container other than the glove compartment or console.

(iii) Possession of a weapon at an event taking place at the World Shooting and Recreational Complex at Sparta, only while engaged in the legal use of the weapon, or while traveling to or from that location if the weapon is broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms.

(iv) Possession of a weapon only for hunting use expressly permitted under the Wildlife Code, or while traveling to or from a location authorized for this hunting use under the Wildlife Code if the weapon is broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms. By October 1, 2023, the Illinois State Police, in consultation with the Department of Natural Resources, shall adopt rules concerning the list of applicable weapons approved under this subparagraph (iv). The Illinois State Police may adopt emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and this paragraph is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(v) The manufacture, transportation, possession, sale, or rental of blank-firing assault weapons and .50 caliber rifles, or the weapon's respective attachments, to persons authorized or permitted, or both authorized and permitted, to acquire and possess these weapons or attachments for the purpose of rental for use solely as props for a motion picture, television, or video production or entertainment event.

Any person not subject to this Section may submit an endorsement affidavit if the person chooses.

(f) Any sale or transfer with a background check initiated to the Illinois State Police on or before January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) is allowed to be completed after January 10, 2023 once an approval is issued by the Illinois State Police and any applicable waiting period under Section 24-3 has expired.

(g) The Illinois State Police shall take all steps necessary to carry out the requirements of this Section by October 1, 2023.

(h) The Illinois State Police shall also develop and implement a public notice and public outreach campaign to promote awareness about the provisions of Public Act 102-1116 and to increase compliance with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.10)

Sec. 24-1.10. Manufacture, delivery, sale, and possession of large capacity ammunition feeding devices.

(a) In this Section:

"Handgun" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

"Long gun" means a rifle or shotgun.

"Large capacity ammunition feeding device" means:

(1) a magazine, belt, drum, feed strip, or similar device that has a capacity of, or that can be readily restored or converted to accept, more than 10 rounds of ammunition for long guns and more than 15 rounds of ammunition for handguns; or

(2) any combination of parts from which a device described in paragraph (1) can be assembled.

"Large capacity ammunition feeding device" does not include an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition. "Large capacity ammunition feeding device" does not include a tubular magazine that is contained in a lever-action firearm or any device that has been made permanently inoperable.

(b) Except as provided in subsections (e) and (f), it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly manufacture, deliver, sell, purchase, or cause to be manufactured, delivered, sold, or purchased a large capacity ammunition feeding device.

(c) Except as provided in subsections (d), (e), and (f), and beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116), it is unlawful to knowingly possess a large capacity ammunition feeding device.

(d) Subsection (c) does not apply to a person's possession of a large capacity ammunition feeding device if the person lawfully possessed that large capacity ammunition feeding device before January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116), provided that the person shall possess such device only:

(1) on private property owned or immediately controlled by the person;

(2) on private property that is not open to the public with the express permission of the person who owns or immediately controls such property;

(3) while on the premises of a licensed firearms dealer or gunsmith for the purpose of lawful repair;

(4) while engaged in the legal use of the large capacity ammunition feeding device at a properly licensed firing range or sport shooting competition venue; or

(5) while traveling to or from these locations, provided that the large capacity ammunition feeding device is stored unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container.

A person authorized under this Section to possess a large capacity ammunition feeding device may transfer the large capacity ammunition feeding device only to an heir, an individual residing in another state maintaining it in another state, or a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968. Within 10 days after transfer of the large capacity ammunition feeding device except to an heir, the person shall notify the Illinois State Police of the name and address of the transferee and comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The person to whom the large capacity ammunition feeding device is transferred shall, within 60 days of the transfer, notify the Illinois State Police of the person's acquisition and comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. A person to whom the large capacity ammunition feeding device is transferred may transfer it only as provided in this subsection.

Except as provided in subsections (e) and (f) and beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116), any person who moves into this State in possession of a large capacity ammunition feeding device shall, within 60 days, apply for a Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(e) The provisions of this Section regarding the purchase or possession of large capacity ammunition feeding devices, as well as the provisions of this Section that prohibit causing those items to be purchased or possessed, do not apply to:

(1) Peace officers as defined in Section 2-13 of this Code.

(2) Qualified law enforcement officers and qualified retired law enforcement officers as defined in the Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004 (18 U.S.C. 926B and 926C) and as recognized under Illinois law.

(3) A federal, State, or local law enforcement agency for the purpose of equipping the agency's peace officers as defined in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (e).

(4) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(5) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while performing their official duties or while traveling to or from their places of duty.

(6) Any company that employs armed security officers in this State at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and any person employed as an armed security force member at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and while performing official duties.

(7) Any private security contractor agency licensed under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 that employs private security contractors and any private security contractor who is licensed and has been issued a firearm control card under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 while performing official duties.

(f) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Manufacture, delivery, sale, importation, purchase, or possession or causing to be manufactured, delivered, sold, imported, purchased, or possessed a large capacity ammunition feeding device:

(A) for sale or transfer to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (7) of subsection (e) to possess those items;

(B) for sale or transfer to the United States or any department or agency thereof; or

(C) for sale or transfer in another state or for export.

(2) Sale or rental of large capacity ammunition feeding devices for blank-firing assault weapons and .50 caliber rifles, to persons authorized or permitted, or both authorized and permitted, to acquire these devices for the purpose of rental for use solely as props for a motion picture, television, or video production or entertainment event.

(g) Sentence. A person who knowingly manufactures, delivers, sells, purchases, possesses, or causes to be manufactured, delivered, sold, possessed, or purchased in violation of this Section a large capacity ammunition feeding device capable of holding more than 10 rounds of ammunition for long guns or more than 15 rounds of ammunition for handguns commits a petty offense with a fine of $1,000 for each violation.

(h) The Illinois State Police shall also develop and implement a public notice and public outreach campaign to promote awareness about the provisions of Public Act 102-1116 and to increase compliance with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of a licensed private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency and 28 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force registered with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 48 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 28 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution as a security guard for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force registered with the Department; provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 48 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 28 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed, if they have received weapons training according to requirements of the Peace Officer and Probation Officer Firearm Training Act.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(a-5) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver, or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of the commission of the offense.

(a-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply to or affect a qualified current or retired law enforcement officer or a current or retired deputy, county correctional officer, or correctional officer of the Department of Corrections qualified under the laws of this State or under the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers, or fishermen while engaged in lawful hunting, trapping, or fishing under the provisions of the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

(7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B) the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the modification is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26 inches.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.

(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordnance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordnance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.

(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.

(g-10) (Blank).

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 102-152, eff. 1-1-22; 102-779, eff. 1-1-23; 102-837, eff. 5-13-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-2.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-2.1. Unlawful use of firearm projectiles.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of firearm projectiles when he or she knowingly manufactures, sells, purchases, possesses, or carries any armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell.

For the purposes of this Section:

"Armor piercing bullet" means any handgun bullet or handgun ammunition with projectiles or projectile cores constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other substances) from tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper or depleted uranium, or fully jacketed bullets larger than 22 caliber designed and intended for use in a handgun and whose jacket has a weight of more than 25% of the total weight of the projectile, and excluding those handgun projectiles whose cores are composed of soft materials such as lead or lead alloys, zinc or zinc alloys, frangible projectiles designed primarily for sporting purposes, and any other projectiles or projectile cores that the U. S. Secretary of the Treasury finds to be primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes or industrial purposes or that otherwise does not constitute "armor piercing ammunition" as that term is defined by federal law.

The definition contained herein shall not be construed to include shotgun shells.

"Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell that contains exothermic pyrophoric mesh metal as the projectile and is designed for the purpose of throwing or spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flame-thrower.

"Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels as projectiles 2 or more metal balls connected by solid metal wire.

"Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels 2 or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid metal wire or 2 or more solid dart-type projectiles.

(b) Exemptions. This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard while in the performance of their official duties.

(4) Federal officials required to carry firearms, while engaged in the performance of their official duties.

(5) United States Marshals, while engaged in the performance of their official duties.

(6) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture, import, or sell firearms and firearm ammunition, and actually engaged in any such business, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such bullets or ammunition.

This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell, but only such possession and activities which are within the lawful scope of a licensed business described in this paragraph.

(7) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordnance.

(8) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of armor piercing bullets, dragon's breath shotgun shells, bolo shells, or flechette shells to persons specifically authorized under paragraphs (1) through (7) of this subsection to possess such bullets or shells.

(c) An information or indictment based upon a violation of this Section need not negate any exemption herein contained. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(d) Sentence. A person convicted of unlawful use of armor piercing bullets shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-2.1. Unlawful possession of firearm projectiles.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of firearm projectiles when he or she knowingly manufactures, sells, purchases, possesses, or carries any armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell.

For the purposes of this Section:

"Armor piercing bullet" means any handgun bullet or handgun ammunition with projectiles or projectile cores constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other substances) from tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper or depleted uranium, or fully jacketed bullets larger than 22 caliber designed and intended for use in a handgun and whose jacket has a weight of more than 25% of the total weight of the projectile, and excluding those handgun projectiles whose cores are composed of soft materials such as lead or lead alloys, zinc or zinc alloys, frangible projectiles designed primarily for sporting purposes, and any other projectiles or projectile cores that the U. S. Secretary of the Treasury finds to be primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes or industrial purposes or that otherwise does not constitute "armor piercing ammunition" as that term is defined by federal law.

The definition contained herein shall not be construed to include shotgun shells.

"Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell that contains exothermic pyrophoric mesh metal as the projectile and is designed for the purpose of throwing or spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flame-thrower.

"Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels as projectiles 2 or more metal balls connected by solid metal wire.

"Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels 2 or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid metal wire or 2 or more solid dart-type projectiles.

(b) Exemptions. This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard while in the performance of their official duties.

(4) Federal officials required to carry firearms, while engaged in the performance of their official duties.

(5) United States Marshals, while engaged in the performance of their official duties.

(6) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture, import, or sell firearms and firearm ammunition, and actually engaged in any such business, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such bullets or ammunition.

This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell, but only such possession and activities which are within the lawful scope of a licensed business described in this paragraph.

(7) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordnance.

(8) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of armor piercing bullets, dragon's breath shotgun shells, bolo shells, or flechette shells to persons specifically authorized under paragraphs (1) through (7) of this subsection to possess such bullets or shells.

(c) An information or indictment based upon a violation of this Section need not negate any exemption herein contained. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(d) Sentence. A person convicted of unlawful possession of armor piercing bullets shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-2.2)

Sec. 24-2.2. Manufacture, sale or transfer of bullets or shells represented to be armor piercing bullets, dragon's breath shotgun shells, bolo shells, or flechette shells.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly manufacture, sell, offer to sell, or transfer any bullet or shell which is represented to be an armor piercing bullet, a dragon's breath shotgun shell, a bolo shell, or a flechette shell as defined in Section 24-2.1 of this Code.

(b) Exemptions. This Section does not apply to or affect any person authorized under Section 24-2.1 to manufacture, sell, purchase, possess, or carry any armor piercing bullet or any dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of the exemption therein granted.

(c) An information or indictment based upon a violation of this Section need not negate any exemption herein contained. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption and that the activities forming the basis of any criminal charge brought pursuant to this Section were within the lawful scope of such exemption.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)

Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.

(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.

(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years. In this subsection (e):

"Mental institution" means any hospital, institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness.

(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is a person with an intellectual disability.

(g) Delivers any firearm, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of the firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of the stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm from a federally licensed firearms dealer to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a federally licensed firearms dealer outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) (blank); (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923); or (5) the transfer or sale of any rifle, shotgun, or other long gun to a resident registered competitor or attendee or non-resident registered competitor or attendee by any dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 at competitive shooting events held at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. For purposes of transfers or sales under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph (g), the Department of Natural Resources shall give notice to the Illinois State Police at least 30 calendar days prior to any competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. The notification shall be made on a form prescribed by the Illinois State Police. The sanctioning body shall provide a list of all registered competitors and attendees at least 24 hours before the events to the Illinois State Police. Any changes to the list of registered competitors and attendees shall be forwarded to the Illinois State Police as soon as practicable. The Illinois State Police must destroy the list of registered competitors and attendees no later than 30 days after the date of the event. Nothing in this paragraph (g) relieves a federally licensed firearm dealer from the requirements of conducting a NICS background check through the Illinois Point of Contact under 18 U.S.C. 922(t). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm. For purposes of this paragraph (g), "national governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm either: (1) a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Illinois State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; or (2) a currently valid license to carry a concealed firearm that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Illinois State Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card or license to carry a concealed firearm means receipt of an approval number issued in accordance with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 or Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(1) In addition to the other requirements of this paragraph (k), all persons who are not federally licensed firearms dealers must also have complied with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by determining the validity of a purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(2) All sellers or transferors who have complied with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in any civil action arising from the use or misuse by the transferee of the firearm transferred, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller or transferor.

(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.

(C) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony, except that a violation of subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) shall not be punishable as a crime or petty offense. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.

(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one-year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2-year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3-year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4-year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5-year period.

(D) For purposes of this Section:

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3A)

Sec. 24-3A. Gunrunning.

(a) A person commits gunrunning when he or she transfers 3 or more firearms in violation of any of the paragraphs of Section 24-3 of this Code.

(b) Sentence. A person who commits gunrunning:

(1) is guilty of a Class 1 felony;

(2) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of not less than 8 years and not more than 40 years if the transfer is of not less than 11 firearms and not more than 20 firearms;

(3) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more than 50 years if the transfer is of more than 20 firearms.

A person who commits gunrunning by transferring firearms to a person who, at the time of the commission of the offense, is under 18 years of age is guilty of a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 93-906, eff. 8-11-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3B)

Sec. 24-3B. Firearms trafficking.

(a) A person commits firearms trafficking when he or she has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and knowingly:

(1) brings, or causes to be brought, into this State, a firearm or firearm ammunition for the purpose of sale, delivery, or transfer to any other person or with the intent to sell, deliver, or transfer the firearm or firearm ammunition to any other person; or

(2) brings, or causes to be brought, into this State, a firearm and firearm ammunition for the purpose of sale, delivery, or transfer to any other person or with the intent to sell, deliver, or transfer the firearm and firearm ammunition to any other person.

(a-5) This Section does not apply to:

(1) a person exempt under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act from the requirement of having possession of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police in order to acquire or possess a firearm or firearm ammunition;

(2) a common carrier under subsection (i) of Section 24-2 of this Code; or

(3) a non-resident who may lawfully possess a firearm in his or her resident state.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Firearms trafficking is a Class 1 felony for which the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than 4 years and not more than 20 years.

(2) Firearms trafficking by a person who has been previously convicted of firearms trafficking, gunrunning, or a felony offense for the unlawful sale, delivery, or transfer of a firearm or firearm ammunition in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.1)

Sec. 24-3.1. Unlawful possession of firearms and firearm ammunition.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of firearms or firearm ammunition when:

(1) He is under 18 years of age and has in his possession any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person; or

(2) He is under 21 years of age, has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(3) He is a narcotic addict and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(4) He has been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession. For purposes of this paragraph (4):

"Mental institution" means any hospital, institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or

(5) He is a person with an intellectual disability and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(6) He has in his possession any explosive bullet.

For purposes of this paragraph "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap.

(b) Sentence.

Unlawful possession of firearms, other than handguns, and firearm ammunition is a Class A misdemeanor. Unlawful possession of handguns is a Class 4 felony. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Nothing in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibits a person under 18 years of age from participating in any lawful recreational activity with a firearm such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at targets upon established public or private target ranges or hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.2)

Sec. 24-3.2. Unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles when he or she knowingly or recklessly uses an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell in violation of this Section.

For purposes of this Section:

"Armor piercing bullet" means any handgun bullet or handgun ammunition with projectiles or projectile cores constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other substances) from tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper or depleted uranium, or fully jacketed bullets larger than 22 caliber whose jacket has a weight of more than 25% of the total weight of the projectile, and excluding those handgun projectiles whose cores are composed of soft materials such as lead or lead alloys, zinc or zinc alloys, frangible projectiles designed primarily for sporting purposes, and any other projectiles or projectile cores that the U. S. Secretary of the Treasury finds to be primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes or industrial purposes or that otherwise does not constitute "armor piercing ammunition" as that term is defined by federal law.

"Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell that contains exothermic pyrophoric mesh metal as the projectile and is designed for the purpose of throwing or spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flame-thrower.

"Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels as projectiles 2 or more metal balls connected by solid metal wire.

"Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels 2 or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid metal wire or 2 or more solid dart-type projectiles.

(b) A person commits a Class X felony when he or she, knowing that a firearm, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, is loaded with an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell, intentionally or recklessly discharges such firearm and such bullet or shell strikes any other person.

(c) Any person who possesses, concealed on or about his or her person, an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell and a firearm suitable for the discharge thereof is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(d) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers;

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense;

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard while in the performance of their official duties;

(4) Federal officials required to carry firearms, while engaged in the performance of their official duties;

(5) United States Marshals, while engaged in the performance of their official duties.

(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.3)

Sec. 24-3.3. Unlawful Sale or Delivery of Firearms on the Premises of Any School, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, or any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency. Any person 18 years of age or older who sells, gives or delivers any firearm to any person under 18 years of age in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year or residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year or residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony. School is defined, for the purposes of this Section, as any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college or university. This does not apply to peace officers or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in school training courses, parades, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded and enclosed in a suitable case, box or transportation package.

(Source: P.A. 91-673, eff. 12-22-99.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.4)

Sec. 24-3.4. Unlawful sale of firearms by liquor licensee.

(a) It shall be unlawful for any person who holds a license to sell at retail any alcoholic liquor issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission or local liquor control commissioner under the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or an agent or employee of the licensee to sell or deliver to any other person a firearm in or on the real property of the establishment where the licensee is licensed to sell alcoholic liquors unless the sale or delivery of the firearm is otherwise lawful under this Article and under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 87-591.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.5)

Sec. 24-3.5. Unlawful purchase of a firearm.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "firearms transaction record form" means a form:

(1) executed by a transferee of a firearm stating: (i) the transferee's name and address (including county or similar political subdivision); (ii) whether the transferee is a citizen of the United States; (iii) the transferee's State of residence; and (iv) the date and place of birth, height, weight, and race of the transferee; and

(2) on which the transferee certifies that he or she is not prohibited by federal law from transporting or shipping a firearm in interstate or foreign commerce or receiving a firearm that has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce or possessing a firearm in or affecting commerce.

(b) A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm who knowingly purchases or attempts to purchase a firearm with the intent to deliver that firearm to another person who is prohibited by federal or State law from possessing a firearm.

(c) A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm when he or she, in purchasing or attempting to purchase a firearm, intentionally provides false or misleading information on a United States Department of the Treasury, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms firearms transaction record form.

(d) Exemption. It is not a violation of subsection (b) of this Section for a person to make a gift or loan of a firearm to a person who is not prohibited by federal or State law from possessing a firearm if the transfer of the firearm is made in accordance with Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(e) Sentence.

(1) A person who commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm:

(A) is guilty of a Class 2 felony for purchasing or attempting to purchase one firearm;

(B) is guilty of a Class 1 felony for purchasing or attempting to purchase not less than 2 firearms and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period;

(C) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years for purchasing or attempting to purchase not less than 6 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period.

(2) In addition to any other penalty that may be imposed for a violation of this Section, the court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of subsection (c) of this Section to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each violation.

(f) A prosecution for unlawful purchase of a firearm may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 95-882, eff. 1-1-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.6)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-3.6. Unlawful use of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "wireless telephone" means a device that is capable of transmitting or receiving telephonic communications without a wire connecting the device to the telephone network.

(b) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone when he or she manufactures, sells, transfers, purchases, possesses, or carries a firearm shaped or designed to appear as a wireless telephone.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the sale to or possession of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone by a peace officer.

(d) Sentence. Unlawful use of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 92-155, eff. 1-1-02.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 24-3.6. Unlawful possession of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "wireless telephone" means a device that is capable of transmitting or receiving telephonic communications without a wire connecting the device to the telephone network.

(b) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone when he or she manufactures, sells, transfers, purchases, possesses, or carries a firearm shaped or designed to appear as a wireless telephone.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the sale to or possession of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone by a peace officer.

(d) Sentence. Unlawful possession of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.7)

Sec. 24-3.7. Use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense.

(a) A person commits the offense of use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense when he or she knowingly uses a stolen firearm in the commission of any offense and the person knows that the firearm was stolen.

(b) Sentence. Use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-190, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.8)

Sec. 24-3.8. Possession of a stolen firearm.

(a) A person commits possession of a stolen firearm when he or she, not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, possesses the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. The trier of fact may infer that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(b) Possession of a stolen firearm is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.9)

Sec. 24-3.9. Aggravated possession of a stolen firearm.

(a) A person commits aggravated possession of a stolen firearm when he or she:

(1) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a one-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(2) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 2-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(3) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 3-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(4) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 4-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(5) Not being entitled to the possession of more than 30 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 5-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(b) The trier of fact may infer that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(c) Sentence.

(1) A person who violates paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class 1 felony.

(2) A person who violates paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years.

(3) A person who violates paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years.

(4) A person who violates paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years.

(5) A person who violates paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-4)

Sec. 24-4. Register of sales by dealer.

(a) Any seller of firearms of a size which may be concealed upon the person, other than a manufacturer selling to a bona fide wholesaler or retailer or a wholesaler selling to a bona fide retailer, shall keep a register of all firearms sold or given away.

(b) Such register shall contain the date of the sale or gift, the name, address, age and occupation of the person to whom the weapon is sold or given, the price of the weapon, the kind, description and number of the weapon, and the purpose for which it is purchased and obtained.

(c) Such seller on demand of a peace officer shall produce for inspection the register and allow such peace officer to inspect such register and all stock on hand.

(d) Sentence.

Violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-4.1)

Sec. 24-4.1. Report of lost or stolen firearms.

(a) If a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and who possesses or acquires a firearm thereafter loses the firearm, or if the firearm is stolen from the person, the person must report the loss or theft to the local law enforcement agency within 72 hours after obtaining knowledge of the loss or theft.

(b) A law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall take a written report and shall, as soon as practical, enter the firearm's serial number as stolen into the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS).

(c) A person shall not be in violation of this Section if:

(1) the failure to report is due to an act of God, act of war, or inability of a law enforcement agency to receive the report;

(2) the person is hospitalized, in a coma, or is otherwise seriously physically or mentally impaired as to prevent the person from reporting; or

(3) the person's designee makes a report if the person is unable to make the report.

(d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a petty offense for a first violation. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-5)

Sec. 24-5. Defacing identification marks of firearms.

(a) Any person who shall knowingly or intentionally change, alter, remove or obliterate the name of the importer's or manufacturer's serial number of any firearm commits a Class 2 felony.

(b) A person who possesses any firearm upon which any such importer's or manufacturer's serial number has been changed, altered, removed or obliterated commits a Class 3 felony.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall prevent a person from making repairs, replacement of parts, or other changes to a firearm if those repairs, replacement of parts, or changes cause the removal of the name of the maker, model, or other marks of identification other than the serial number on the firearm's frame or receiver.

(d) A prosecution for a violation of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 93-906, eff. 8-11-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-5.1)

Sec. 24-5.1. Serialization of unfinished frames or receivers; prohibition on unserialized firearms; exceptions; penalties.

(a) In this Section:

"Bona fide supplier" means an established business entity engaged in the development and sale of firearms parts to one or more federal firearms manufacturers or federal firearms importers.

"Federal firearms dealer" means a licensed manufacturer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(11).

"Federal firearms importer" means a licensed importer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(9).

"Federal firearms manufacturer" means a licensed manufacturer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(10).

"Frame or receiver" means a part of a firearm that, when the complete weapon is assembled, is visible from the exterior and provides housing or a structure designed to hold or integrate one or more fire control components, even if pins or other attachments are required to connect those components to the housing or structure. For models of firearms in which multiple parts provide such housing or structure, the part or parts that the Director of the federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives has determined are a frame or receiver constitute the frame or receiver. For purposes of this definition, "fire control component" means a component necessary for the firearm to initiate, complete, or continue the firing sequence, including any of the following: hammer, bolt, bolt carrier, breechblock, cylinder, trigger mechanism, firing pin, striker, or slide rails.

"Security exemplar" means an object to be fabricated at the direction of the United States Attorney General that is (1) constructed of 3.7 ounces of material type 17-4 PH stainless steel in a shape resembling a handgun and (2) suitable for testing and calibrating metal detectors.

"Three-dimensional printer" means a computer or computer-drive machine capable of producing a three-dimensional object from a digital model.

"Undetectable firearm" means (1) a firearm constructed entirely of non-metal substances; (2) a firearm that, after removal of all parts but the major components of the firearm, is not detectable by walk-through metal detectors calibrated and operated to detect the security exemplar; or (3) a firearm that includes a major component of a firearm, which, if subject to the types of detection devices commonly used at airports for security screening, would not generate an image that accurately depicts the shape of the component. "Undetectable firearm" does not include a firearm subject to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 922(p)(3) through (6).

"Unfinished frame or receiver" means any forging, casting, printing, extrusion, machined body, or similar article that:

(1) has reached a stage in manufacture where it may readily be completed, assembled, or converted to be a functional firearm; or

(2) is marketed or sold to the public to become or be used as the frame or receiver of a functional firearm once completed, assembled, or converted.

"Unserialized" means lacking a serial number imprinted by:

(1) a federal firearms manufacturer, federal firearms importer, federal firearms dealer, or other federal licensee authorized to provide marking services, pursuant to a requirement under federal law; or

(2) a federal firearms dealer or other federal licensee authorized to provide marking services pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section.

(b) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly sell, offer to sell, or transfer an unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm, including those produced using a three-dimensional printer, unless the party purchasing or receiving the unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm is a federal firearms importer, federal firearms manufacturer, or federal firearms dealer.

(c) Beginning 180 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-889), it is unlawful for any person to knowingly possess, transport, or receive an unfinished frame or receiver, unless:

(1) the party possessing or receiving the unfinished frame or receiver is a federal firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer;

(2) the unfinished frame or receiver is possessed or transported by a person for transfer to a federal firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer; or

(3) the unfinished frame or receiver has been imprinted with a serial number issued by a federal firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer in compliance with subsection (f) of this Section.

(d) Beginning 180 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-889), unless the party receiving the firearm is a federal firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly possess, purchase, transport, or receive a firearm that is not imprinted with a serial number by (1) a federal firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer in compliance with all federal laws and regulations regulating the manufacture and import of firearms or (2) a federal firearms manufacturer, federal firearms dealer, or other federal licensee authorized to provide marking services in compliance with the unserialized firearm serialization process under subsection (f) of this Section.

(e) Any firearm or unfinished frame or receiver manufactured using a three-dimensional printer must also be serialized in accordance with the requirements of subsection (f) within 30 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-889), or prior to reaching a stage of manufacture where it may be readily completed, assembled, or converted to be a functional firearm.

(f) Unserialized unfinished frames or receivers and unserialized firearms serialized pursuant to this Section shall be serialized in compliance with all of the following:

(1) An unserialized unfinished frame or receiver and unserialized firearm shall be serialized by a federally licensed firearms dealer or other federal licensee authorized to provide marking services with the licensee's abbreviated federal firearms license number as a prefix (which is the first 3 and last 5 digits) followed by a hyphen, and then followed by a number as a suffix, such as 12345678-(number). The serial number or numbers must be placed in a manner that accords with the requirements under federal law for affixing serial numbers to firearms, including the requirements that the serial number or numbers be at the minimum size and depth, and not susceptible to being readily obliterated, altered, or removed, and the licensee must retain records that accord with the requirements under federal law in the case of the sale of a firearm. The imprinting of any serial number upon an undetectable firearm must be done on a steel plaque in compliance with 18 U.S.C. 922(p).

(2) Every federally licensed firearms dealer or other federal licensee that engraves, casts, stamps, or otherwise conspicuously and permanently places a unique serial number pursuant to this Section shall maintain a record of such indefinitely. Licensees subject to the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act shall make all records accessible for inspection upon the request of the Illinois State Police or a law enforcement agency in accordance with Section 5-35 of the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act.

(3) Every federally licensed firearms dealer or other federal licensee that engraves, casts, stamps, or otherwise conspicuously and permanently places a unique serial number pursuant to this Section shall record it at the time of every transaction involving the transfer of a firearm, rifle, shotgun, finished frame or receiver, or unfinished frame or receiver that has been so marked in compliance with the federal guidelines set forth in 27 CFR 478.124.

(4) Every federally licensed firearms dealer or other federal licensee that engraves, casts, stamps, or otherwise conspicuously and permanently places a unique serial number pursuant to this Section shall review and confirm the validity of the owner's Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act prior to returning the firearm to the owner.

(g) Within 30 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-889), the Director of the Illinois State Police shall issue a public notice regarding the provisions of this Section. The notice shall include posting on the Illinois State Police website and may include written notification or any other means of communication statewide to all Illinois-based federal firearms manufacturers, federal firearms dealers, or other federal licensees authorized to provide marking services in compliance with the serialization process in subsection (f) in order to educate the public.

(h) Exceptions. This Section does not apply to an unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or an unserialized firearm that:

(1) has been rendered permanently inoperable;

(2) is an antique firearm, as defined in 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(16);

(3) was manufactured prior to October 22, 1968;

(4) is an unfinished frame or receiver and is possessed by a bona fide supplier exclusively for transfer to a federal firearms manufacturer or federal firearms importer, or is possessed by a federal firearms manufacturer or federal firearms importer in compliance with all federal laws and regulations regulating the manufacture and import of firearms; except this exemption does not apply if an unfinished frame or receiver is possessed for transfer or is transferred to a person other than a federal firearms manufacturer or federal firearms importer; or

(5) is possessed by a person who received the unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm through inheritance, and is not otherwise prohibited from possessing the unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm, for a period not exceeding 30 days after inheriting the unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm.

(i) Penalties.

(1) A person who violates subsection (c) or (d) is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and is guilty of a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(2) A person who violates subsection (b) is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation and is guilty of a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(Source: P.A. 102-889, eff. 5-18-22; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-6)

Sec. 24-6. Confiscation and disposition of weapons.

(a) Upon conviction of an offense in which a weapon was used or possessed by the offender, any weapon seized shall be confiscated by the trial court.

(b) Any stolen weapon so confiscated, when no longer needed for evidentiary purposes, shall be returned to the person entitled to possession, if known. After the disposition of a criminal case or in any criminal case where a final judgment in the case was not entered due to the death of the defendant, and when a confiscated weapon is no longer needed for evidentiary purposes, and when in due course no legitimate claim has been made for the weapon, the court may transfer the weapon to the sheriff of the county who may proceed to destroy it, or may in its discretion order the weapon preserved as property of the governmental body whose police agency seized the weapon, or may in its discretion order the weapon to be transferred to the Illinois State Police for use by the crime laboratory system, for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the Department. If, after the disposition of a criminal case, a need still exists for the use of the confiscated weapon for evidentiary purposes, the court may transfer the weapon to the custody of the State Department of Corrections for preservation. The court may not order the transfer of the weapon to any private individual or private organization other than to return a stolen weapon to its rightful owner.

The provisions of this Section shall not apply to violations of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code or the Wildlife Code. Confiscation of weapons for Fish and Aquatic Life Code and Wildlife Code violations shall be only as provided in those Codes.

(c) Any mental hospital that admits a person as an inpatient pursuant to any of the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall confiscate any firearms in the possession of that person at the time of admission, or at any time the firearms are discovered in the person's possession during the course of hospitalization. The hospital shall, as soon as possible following confiscation, transfer custody of the firearms to the appropriate law enforcement agency. The hospital shall give written notice to the person from whom the firearm was confiscated of the identity and address of the law enforcement agency to which it has given the firearm.

The law enforcement agency shall maintain possession of any firearm it obtains pursuant to this subsection for a minimum of 90 days. Thereafter, the firearm may be disposed of pursuant to the provisions of subsection (b) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-7)

Sec. 24-7. Weapons offenses; community service. In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of a violation of this Article to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Article, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

This Section does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(Source: P.A. 88-558, eff. 1-1-95; 89-8, eff. 3-21-95.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-8)

Sec. 24-8. Firearm evidence.

(a) Upon recovering a firearm from the possession of anyone who is not permitted by federal or State law to possess a firearm, a law enforcement agency shall use the best available information, including a firearms trace when necessary, to determine how and from whom the person gained possession of the firearm. Upon recovering a firearm that was used in the commission of any offense classified as a felony or upon recovering a firearm that appears to have been lost, mislaid, stolen, or otherwise unclaimed, a law enforcement agency shall use the best available information, including a firearms trace, to determine prior ownership of the firearm.

(b) Law enforcement shall, when appropriate, use the National Tracing Center of the Federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms and the National Crime Information Center of the Federal Bureau of Investigation in complying with subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) Law enforcement agencies shall use the Illinois State Police Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) Gun File to enter all stolen, seized, or recovered firearms as prescribed by LEADS regulations and policies.

(d) Whenever a law enforcement agency recovers a fired cartridge case at a crime scene or has reason to believe that the recovered fired cartridge case is related to or associated with the commission of a crime, the law enforcement agency shall submit the evidence to the National Integrated Ballistics Information Network (NIBIN) or an Illinois State Police laboratory for NIBIN processing. Whenever a law enforcement agency seizes or recovers a semiautomatic firearm that is deemed suitable to be entered into the NIBIN that was: (i) unlawfully possessed, (ii) used for any unlawful purpose, (iii) recovered from the scene of a crime, (iv) is reasonably believed to have been used or associated with the commission of a crime, or (v) is acquired by the law enforcement agency as an abandoned or discarded firearm, the law enforcement agency shall submit the evidence to the NIBIN or an Illinois State Police laboratory for NIBIN processing. When practicable, all NIBIN-suitable evidence and NIBIN-suitable test fires from recovered firearms shall be entered into the NIBIN within 2 business days of submission to Illinois State Police laboratories that have NIBIN access or another NIBIN site. Exceptions to this may occur if the evidence in question requires analysis by other forensic disciplines. The Illinois State Police laboratory, submitting agency, and relevant court representatives shall determine whether the request for additional analysis outweighs the 2 business-day requirement. Illinois State Police laboratories that do not have NIBIN access shall submit NIBIN-suitable evidence and test fires to an Illinois State Police laboratory with NIBIN access. Upon receipt at the laboratory with NIBIN access, when practicable, the evidence and test fires shall be entered into the NIBIN within 2 business days. Exceptions to this 2 business-day requirement may occur if the evidence in question requires analysis by other forensic disciplines. The Illinois State Police laboratory, submitting agency, and relevant court representatives shall determine whether the request for additional analysis outweighs the 2 business-day requirement. Nothing in this Section shall be interpreted to conflict with standards and policies for NIBIN sites as promulgated by the federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives or successor agencies.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-9)

Sec. 24-9. Firearms; Child Protection.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (c), it is unlawful for any person to store or leave, within premises under his or her control, a firearm if the person knows or has reason to believe that a minor under the age of 14 years who does not have a Firearm Owners Identification Card is likely to gain access to the firearm without the lawful permission of the minor's parent, guardian, or person having charge of the minor, and the minor causes death or great bodily harm with the firearm, unless the firearm is:

(1) secured by a device or mechanism, other than the firearm safety, designed to render a firearm temporarily inoperable; or

(2) placed in a securely locked box or container; or

(3) placed in some other location that a reasonable person would believe to be secure from a minor under the age of 14 years.

(b) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $1,000. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) Subsection (a) does not apply:

(1) if the minor under 14 years of age gains access to a firearm and uses it in a lawful act of self-defense or defense of another; or

(2) to any firearm obtained by a minor under the age of 14 because of an unlawful entry of the premises by the minor or another person.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-18, eff. 1-1-00.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-9.5)

Sec. 24-9.5. Handgun safety devices.

(a) It is unlawful for a person licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923) to offer for sale, sell, or transfer a handgun to a person not licensed under that Act, unless he or she sells or includes with the handgun a device or mechanism, other than the firearm safety, designed to render the handgun temporarily inoperable or inaccessible. This includes but is not limited to:

(1) An external device that is:

(i) attached to the handgun with a key or combination lock; and

(ii) designed to prevent the handgun from being discharged unless the device has been deactivated.

(2) An integrated mechanical safety, disabling, or locking device that is:

(i) built into the handgun; and

(ii) designed to prevent the handgun from being discharged unless the device has been deactivated.

(b) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $1,000. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, "handgun" has the meaning ascribed to it in clause (h)(2) of subsection (A) of Section 24-3 of this Code.

(d) This Section does not apply to:

(1) the purchase, sale, or transportation of a handgun to or by a federally licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer that provides or services a handgun for:

(i) personnel of any unit of the federal government;

(ii) members of the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard;

(iii) law enforcement personnel of the State or any local law enforcement agency in the State while acting within the scope of their official duties; and

(iv) an organization that is required by federal law governing its specific business or activity to maintain handguns and applicable ammunition;

(2) a firearm modified to be permanently inoperative;

(3) the sale or transfer of a handgun by a federally licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer described in item (1) of this subsection (d);

(4) the sale or transfer of a handgun by a federally licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer to a lawful customer outside the State; or

(5) an antique firearm.

(Source: P.A. 94-390, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-10)

Sec. 24-10. Municipal ordinance regulating firearms; affirmative defense to a violation. It is an affirmative defense to a violation of a municipal ordinance that prohibits, regulates, or restricts the private ownership of firearms if the individual who is charged with the violation used the firearm in an act of self-defense or defense of another as defined in Sections 7-1 and 7-2 of this Code when on his or her land or in his or her abode or fixed place of business.

(Source: P.A. 93-1048, eff. 11-16-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 24.5 heading) ARTICLE 24.5. NITROUS OXIDE

(720 ILCS 5/24.5-5)

Sec. 24.5-5. Unlawful possession. Any person who possesses nitrous oxide or any substance containing nitrous oxide, with the intent to breathe, inhale, or ingest for the purpose of causing a condition of intoxication, elation, euphoria, dizziness, stupefaction, or dulling of the senses or for the purpose of, in any manner, changing, distorting, or disturbing the audio, visual, or mental processes, or who knowingly and with the intent to do so is under the influence of nitrous oxide or any material containing nitrous oxide is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A person who commits a second or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. This Section shall not apply to any person who is under the influence of nitrous oxide or any material containing nitrous oxide pursuant to an administration for the purpose of medical, surgical, or dental care by a person duly licensed to administer such an agent.

(Source: P.A. 91-366, eff. 1-1-00.)

(720 ILCS 5/24.5-10)

Sec. 24.5-10. Unlawful manufacture or delivery. Any person, firm, corporation, co-partnership, limited liability company, or association that intentionally manufactures, delivers, or possesses with intent to manufacture or deliver nitrous oxide for any purpose prohibited under Section 24.5-5 is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 91-366, eff. 1-1-00.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 24.6 heading) ARTICLE 24.6. LASERS AND LASER POINTERS (Repealed) (Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 24.8 heading) ARTICLE 24.8. AIR RIFLES (Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24.8-0.1)

Sec. 24.8-0.1. Definitions. As used in this Article:

"Air rifle" means and includes any air gun, air pistol, spring gun, spring pistol, B-B gun, paint ball gun, pellet gun or any implement that is not a firearm which impels a breakable paint ball containing washable marking colors or, a pellet constructed of hard plastic, steel, lead or other hard materials with a force that reasonably is expected to cause bodily harm.

"Dealer" means any person, copartnership, association or corporation engaged in the business of selling at retail or renting any of the articles included in the definition of "air rifle".

"Municipalities" include cities, villages, incorporated towns and townships.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24.8-1)

Sec. 24.8-1. Selling, renting, or transferring air rifles to children.

(a) A dealer commits selling, renting, or transferring air rifles to children when he or she sells, lends, rents, gives or otherwise transfers an air rifle to any person under the age of 13 years where the dealer knows or has cause to believe the person to be under 13 years of age or where the dealer has failed to make reasonable inquiry relative to the age of the person and the person is under 13 years of age.

(b) A person commits selling, renting, or transferring air rifles to children when he or she sells, gives, lends, or otherwise transfers any air rifle to any person under 13 years of age except where the relationship of parent and child, guardian and ward or adult instructor and pupil, exists between this person and the person under 13 years of age, or where the person stands in loco parentis to the person under 13 years of age.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24.8-2)

Sec. 24.8-2. Carrying or discharging air rifles on public streets.

(a) A person under 13 years of age commits carrying or discharging air rifles on public streets when he or she carries any air rifle on the public streets, roads, highways or public lands within this State, unless the person under 13 years of age carries the air rifle unloaded.

(b) A person commits carrying or discharging air rifles on public streets when he or she discharges any air rifle from or across any street, sidewalk, road, highway or public land or any public place except on a safely constructed target range.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24.8-3)

Sec. 24.8-3. Permissive possession of an air rifle by a person under 13 years of age. Notwithstanding any provision of this Article, it is lawful for any person under 13 years of age to have in his or her possession any air rifle if it is:

(1) Kept within his or her house of residence or other private enclosure;

(2) Used by the person and he or she is a duly enrolled member of any club, team or society organized for educational purposes and maintaining as part of its facilities or having written permission to use an indoor or outdoor rifle range under the supervision guidance and instruction of a responsible adult and then only if the air rifle is actually being used in connection with the activities of the club team or society under the supervision of a responsible adult; or

(3) Used in or on any private grounds or residence under circumstances when the air rifle is fired, discharged or operated in a manner as not to endanger persons or property and then only if it is used in a manner as to prevent the projectile from passing over any grounds or space outside the limits of the grounds or residence.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24.8-4)

Sec. 24.8-4. Permissive sales. The provisions of this Article do not prohibit sales of air rifles:

(1) By wholesale dealers or jobbers;

(2) To be shipped out of the State; or

(3) To be used at a target range operated in accordance with Section 24.8-3 of this Article or by members of the Armed Services of the United States or Veterans' organizations.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24.8-5)

Sec. 24.8-5. Sentence. A violation of this Article is a petty offense. The Illinois State Police or any sheriff or police officer shall seize, take, remove or cause to be removed at the expense of the owner, any air rifle sold or used in any manner in violation of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/24.8-6)

Sec. 24.8-6. Municipal regulation. The provisions of any ordinance enacted by any municipality which impose greater restrictions or limitations in respect to the sale and purchase, use or possession of air rifles as herein defined than are imposed by this Article, are not invalidated nor affected by this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 25 heading) ARTICLE 25. MOB ACTION AND RELATED OFFENSES

(720 ILCS 5/25-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 25-1)

Sec. 25-1. Mob action.

(a) A person commits mob action when he or she engages in any of the following:

(1) the knowing or reckless use of force or violence disturbing the public peace by 2 or more persons acting together and without authority of law;

(2) the knowing assembly of 2 or more persons with the intent to commit or facilitate the commission of a felony or misdemeanor; or

(3) the knowing assembly of 2 or more persons, without authority of law, for the purpose of doing violence to the person or property of anyone supposed to have been guilty of a violation of the law, or for the purpose of exercising correctional powers or regulative powers over any person by violence.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Mob action in violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony.

(2) Mob action in violation of paragraphs (2) and (3) of subsection (a) is a Class C misdemeanor.

(3) A participant in a mob action that by violence inflicts injury to the person or property of another commits a Class 4 felony.

(4) A participant in a mob action who does not withdraw when commanded to do so by a peace officer commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(5) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of mob action to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service. This paragraph does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/25-1.1)

Sec. 25-1.1. (Renumbered).

(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/25-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 25-2)

Sec. 25-2. (Renumbered).

(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/25-4)

Sec. 25-4. Looting by individuals.

(a) A person commits looting when he or she knowingly without authority of law or the owner enters any home or dwelling or upon any premises of another, or enters any commercial, mercantile, business, or industrial building, plant, or establishment, in which normal security of property is not present by virtue of a hurricane, fire, or vis major of any kind or by virtue of a riot, mob, or other human agency, and obtains or exerts control over property of the owner.

(b) Sentence. Looting is a Class 4 felony. In addition to any other penalty imposed, the court shall impose a sentence of at least 100 hours of community service as determined by the court and shall require the defendant to make restitution to the owner of the property looted pursuant to Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/25-5) (was 720 ILCS 5/25-1.1)

Sec. 25-5. Unlawful participation in streetgang related activity.

(a) A person commits unlawful participation in streetgang related activity when he or she knowingly commits any act in furtherance of streetgang related activity as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act after having been:

(1) sentenced to probation, conditional discharge, or supervision for a criminal offense with a condition of that sentence being to refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members;

(2) released on bond for any criminal offense with a condition of that bond being to refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members;

(3) ordered by a judge in any non-criminal proceeding to refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members; or

(4) released from the Illinois Department of Corrections on a condition of parole or mandatory supervised release that he or she refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members.

(b) Unlawful participation in streetgang related activity is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 100-279, eff. 1-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/25-6) (was 720 ILCS 5/25-2)

Sec. 25-6. Removal of chief of police or sheriff for allowing a person in his or her custody to be lynched.

(a) If a prisoner is taken from the custody of any policeman or chief of police of any municipality and lynched, it shall be prima facie evidence of wrong-doing on the part of that chief of police and he or she shall be suspended. The mayor or chief executive of the municipality shall appoint an acting chief of police until he or she has ascertained whether the suspended chief of police had done all in his or her power to protect the life of the prisoner. If, upon hearing all evidence and argument, the mayor or chief executive finds that the chief of police had done his or her utmost to protect the prisoner, he or she may reinstate the chief of police; but, if he or she finds the chief of police guilty of not properly protecting the prisoner, a new chief of police shall be appointed. Any chief of police replaced is not be eligible to serve again in that office.

(b) If a prisoner is taken from the custody of any sheriff or his or her deputy and lynched, it is prima facie evidence of wrong-doing on the part of that sheriff and he or she shall be suspended. The Governor shall appoint an acting sheriff until he or she has ascertained whether the suspended sheriff had done all in his or her power to protect the life of the prisoner. If, upon hearing all evidence and argument, the Governor finds that the sheriff had done his or her utmost to protect the prisoner, he or she shall reinstate the sheriff; but, if he or she finds the sheriff guilty of not properly protecting the prisoner, a new sheriff shall be duly elected or appointed, pursuant to the existing law provided for the filling of vacancies in that office. Any sheriff replaced is not eligible to serve again in that office.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 26 heading) ARTICLE 26. DISORDERLY CONDUCT

(720 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-1)

Sec. 26-1. Disorderly conduct.

(a) A person commits disorderly conduct when he or she knowingly:

(1) Does any act in such unreasonable manner as to alarm or disturb another and to provoke a breach of the peace;

(2) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the fire department of any city, town, village or fire protection district a false alarm of fire, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the fire exists;

(3) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to another a false alarm to the effect that a bomb or other explosive of any nature or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in a place where its explosion or release would endanger human life, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the bomb, explosive or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in the place;

(3.5) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner a threat of destruction of a school building or school property, or a threat of violence, death, or bodily harm directed against persons at a school, school function, or school event, whether or not school is in session;

(4) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to any peace officer, public officer or public employee a report to the effect that an offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed;

(5) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner a false report to any public safety agency without the reasonable grounds necessary to believe that transmitting the report is necessary for the safety and welfare of the public;

(6) Calls or texts the number "911" or transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to a public safety agency or public safety answering point for the purpose of making or transmitting a false alarm or complaint and reporting information when, at the time the call, text, or transmission is made, the person knows there is no reasonable ground for making the call, text, or transmission and further knows that the call, text, or transmission could result in the emergency response of any public safety agency;

(7) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner a false report to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(8) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner a false report to the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act;

(9) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the police department or fire department of any municipality or fire protection district, or any privately owned and operated ambulance service, a false request for an ambulance, emergency medical technician-ambulance or emergency medical technician-paramedic knowing at the time there is no reasonable ground for believing that the assistance is required;

(10) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner a false report under Article II of Public Act 83-1432;

(11) Enters upon the property of another and for a lewd or unlawful purpose deliberately looks into a dwelling on the property through any window or other opening in it; or

(12) While acting as a collection agency as defined in the Collection Agency Act or as an employee of the collection agency, and while attempting to collect an alleged debt, makes a telephone call to the alleged debtor which is designed to harass, annoy or intimidate the alleged debtor.

(b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a)(1) of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(5) or (a)(11) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(8) or (a)(10) of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(2), (a)(3.5), (a)(4), (a)(6), (a)(7), or (a)(9) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) of this Section is a Class 3 felony, for which a fine of not less than $3,000 and no more than $10,000 shall be assessed in addition to any other penalty imposed.

A violation of subsection (a)(12) of this Section is a Business Offense and shall be punished by a fine not to exceed $3,000. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(7) or (a)(5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(11) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

This subsection does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(d) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) involving a false alarm of a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been placed in a school that requires an emergency response to reimburse the unit of government that employs the emergency response officer or officers that were dispatched to the school for the cost of the response. If the court determines that the person convicted of disorderly conduct that requires an emergency response to a school is indigent, the provisions of this subsection (d) do not apply.

(e) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (3.5) or (6) of subsection (a) to reimburse the public agency for the reasonable costs of the emergency response by the public agency up to $10,000. If the court determines that the person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (3.5) or (6) of subsection (a) is indigent, the provisions of this subsection (e) do not apply.

(f) For the purposes of this Section, "emergency response" means any condition that results in, or could result in, the response of a public official in an authorized emergency vehicle, any condition that jeopardizes or could jeopardize public safety and results in, or could result in, the evacuation of any area, building, structure, vehicle, or of any other place that any person may enter, or any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee, or an ambulance.

(Source: P.A. 103-366, eff. 1-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-1.1)

Sec. 26-1.1. False report of theft and other losses.

(a) A person who knowingly makes a false report of a theft, destruction, damage or conversion of any property to a law enforcement agency or other governmental agency with the intent to defraud an insurer is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) A person convicted of a violation of this Section a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-2)

Sec. 26-2. Interference with emergency communication.

(a) A person commits interference with emergency communication when he or she knowingly, intentionally and without lawful justification interrupts, disrupts, impedes, or otherwise interferes with the transmission of a communication over a citizens band radio channel, the purpose of which communication is to inform or inquire about an emergency.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, "emergency" means a condition or circumstance in which an individual is or is reasonably believed by the person transmitting the communication to be in imminent danger of serious bodily injury or in which property is or is reasonably believed by the person transmitting the communication to be in imminent danger of damage or destruction.

(c) Sentence.

(1) Interference with emergency communication is a Class B misdemeanor, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2).

(2) Interference with emergency communication, where serious bodily injury or property loss in excess of $1,000 results, is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-3)

Sec. 26-3. Use of a facsimile machine in unsolicited advertising or fund-raising.

(a) Definitions:

(1) "Facsimile machine" means a device which is capable of sending or receiving facsimiles of documents through connection with a telecommunications network.

(2) "Person" means an individual, public or private corporation, unit of government, partnership or unincorporated association.

(b) A person commits use of a facsimile machine in unsolicited advertising or fund-raising when he or she knowingly uses a facsimile machine to send or cause to be sent to another person a facsimile of a document containing unsolicited advertising or fund-raising material, except to a person which the sender knows or under all of the circumstances reasonably believes has given the sender permission, either on a case by case or continuing basis, for the sending of the material.

(c) Sentence. Any person who violates subsection (b) is guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined an amount not to exceed $500.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-4)

Sec. 26-4. Unauthorized video recording and live video transmission.

(a) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person without that person's consent in a restroom, tanning bed, tanning salon, locker room, changing room, or hotel bedroom.

(a-5) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person in that other person's residence without that person's consent.

(a-6) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person in that other person's residence without that person's consent when the recording or transmission is made outside that person's residence by use of an audio or video device that records or transmits from a remote location.

(a-10) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person's intimate parts for the purpose of viewing the body of or the undergarments worn by that other person without that person's consent. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "intimate parts" means the fully unclothed, partially unclothed, or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, anus, or if the person is female, a partially or fully exposed nipple, including exposure through transparent clothing.

(a-15) It is unlawful for any person to place or cause to be placed a device that makes a video record or transmits a live video in a restroom, tanning bed, tanning salon, locker room, changing room, or hotel bedroom with the intent to make a video record or transmit live video of another person without that person's consent.

(a-20) It is unlawful for any person to place or cause to be placed a device that makes a video record or transmits a live video with the intent to make a video record or transmit live video of another person in that other person's residence without that person's consent.

(a-25) It is unlawful for any person to, by any means, knowingly disseminate, or permit to be disseminated, a video record or live video that he or she knows to have been made or transmitted in violation of (a), (a-5), (a-6), (a-10), (a-15), or (a-20).

(b) Exemptions. The following activities shall be exempt from the provisions of this Section:

(1) The making of a video record or transmission of live video by law enforcement officers pursuant to a criminal investigation, which is otherwise lawful;

(2) The making of a video record or transmission of live video by correctional officials for security reasons or for investigation of alleged misconduct involving a person committed to the Department of Corrections; and

(3) The making of a video record or transmission of live video in a locker room by a reporter or news medium, as those terms are defined in Section 8-902 of the Code of Civil Procedure, where the reporter or news medium has been granted access to the locker room by an appropriate authority for the purpose of conducting interviews.

(c) The provisions of this Section do not apply to any sound recording or transmission of an oral conversation made as the result of the making of a video record or transmission of live video, and to which Article 14 of this Code applies.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a-15) or (a-20) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subsection (a), (a-5), (a-6), or (a-10) is a Class 4 felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (a-25) is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A violation of subsection (a), (a-5), (a-6), (a-10), (a-15) or (a-20) is a Class 3 felony if the victim is a person under 18 years of age or if the violation is committed by an individual who is required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(5) A violation of subsection (a-25) is a Class 2 felony if the victim is a person under 18 years of age or if the violation is committed by an individual who is required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(e) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Residence" includes a rental dwelling, but does not include stairwells, corridors, laundry facilities, or additional areas in which the general public has access.

(2) "Video record" means and includes any videotape, photograph, film, or other electronic or digital recording of a still or moving visual image; and "live video" means and includes any real-time or contemporaneous electronic or digital transmission of a still or moving visual image.

(Source: P.A. 102-567, eff. 1-1-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-4.5)

Sec. 26-4.5. Consumer communications privacy.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "communications company" means any person or organization which owns, controls, operates or manages any company which provides information or entertainment electronically to a household, including but not limited to a cable or community antenna television system.

(b) It shall be unlawful for a communications company to:

(1) install and use any equipment which would allow a communications company to visually observe or listen to what is occurring in an individual subscriber's household without the knowledge or permission of the subscriber;

(2) provide any person or public or private organization with a list containing the name of a subscriber, unless the communications company gives notice thereof to the subscriber;

(3) disclose the television viewing habits of any individual subscriber without the subscriber's consent; or

(4) install or maintain a home-protection scanning device in a dwelling as part of a communication service without the express written consent of the occupant.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a business offense, punishable by a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each violation.

(d) Civil liability. Any person who has been injured by a violation of this Section may commence an action in the circuit court for damages against any communications company which has committed a violation. If the court awards damages, the plaintiff shall be awarded costs.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-5)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 48-1 by P.A. 97-1108.)

Sec. 26-5. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 96-226, eff. 8-11-09; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1091, eff. 1-1-11. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-6)

Sec. 26-6. Disorderly conduct at a funeral or memorial service.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares that due to the unique nature of funeral and memorial services and the heightened opportunity for extreme emotional distress on such occasions, the purpose of this Section is to protect the privacy and ability to mourn of grieving families directly before, during, and after a funeral or memorial service.

(b) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Funeral" means the ceremonies, rituals, processions, and memorial services held at a funeral site in connection with the burial, cremation, or memorial of a deceased person.

(2) "Funeral site" means a church, synagogue, mosque, funeral home, mortuary, cemetery, gravesite, mausoleum, or other place at which a funeral is conducted or is scheduled to be conducted within the next 30 minutes or has been conducted within the last 30 minutes.

(c) A person commits the offense of disorderly conduct at a funeral or memorial service when he or she:

(1) engages, with knowledge of the existence of a funeral site, in any loud singing, playing of music, chanting, whistling, yelling, or noisemaking with, or without, noise amplification including, but not limited to, bullhorns, auto horns, and microphones within 300 feet of any ingress or egress of that funeral site, where the volume of such singing, music, chanting, whistling, yelling, or noisemaking is likely to be audible at and disturbing to the funeral site;

(2) displays, with knowledge of the existence of a funeral site and within 300 feet of any ingress or egress of that funeral site, any visual images that convey fighting words or actual or veiled threats against any other person; or

(3) with knowledge of the existence of a funeral site, knowingly obstructs, hinders, impedes, or blocks another person's entry to or exit from that funeral site or a facility containing that funeral site, except that the owner or occupant of property may take lawful actions to exclude others from that property.

(d) Disorderly conduct at a funeral or memorial service is a Class C misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(e) If any clause, sentence, section, provision, or part of this Section or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is adjudged to be unconstitutional, the remainder of this Section or its application to persons or circumstances other than those to which it is held invalid, is not affected thereby.

(Source: P.A. 97-359, eff. 8-15-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-7)

Sec. 26-7. Disorderly conduct with a laser or laser pointer.

(a) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Aircraft" means any contrivance now known or hereafter invented, used, or designed for navigation of or flight in the air, but excluding parachutes.

"Laser" means both of the following:

(1) any device that utilizes the natural oscillations of atoms or molecules between energy levels for generating coherent electromagnetic radiation in the ultraviolet, visible, or infrared region of the spectrum and when discharged exceeds one milliwatt continuous wave;

(2) any device designed or used to amplify electromagnetic radiation by simulated emission that is visible to the human eye.

"Laser pointer" means a hand-held device that emits light amplified by the stimulated emission of radiation that is visible to the human eye.

"Laser sight" means a laser pointer that can be attached to a firearm and can be used to improve the accuracy of the firearm.

(b) A person commits disorderly conduct with a laser or laser pointer when he or she intentionally or knowingly:

(1) aims an operating laser pointer at a person he or she knows or reasonably should know to be a peace officer; or

(2) aims and discharges a laser or other device that creates visible light into the cockpit of an aircraft that is in the process of taking off, landing, or is in flight.

(c) Paragraph (2) of subsection (b) does not apply to the following individuals who aim and discharge a laser or other device at an aircraft:

(1) an authorized individual in the conduct of research and development or flight test operations conducted by an aircraft manufacturer, the Federal Aviation Administration, or any other person authorized by the Federal Aviation Administration to conduct this research and development or flight test operations; or

(2) members or elements of the Department of Defense or Department of Homeland Security acting in an official capacity for the purpose of research, development, operations, testing, or training.

(d) Sentence. Disorderly conduct with a laser or laser pointer is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 26.5 heading) ARTICLE 26.5. HARASSING AND OBSCENE COMMUNICATIONS (Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26.5-0.1)

Sec. 26.5-0.1. Definitions. As used in this Article:

"Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writings, images, sounds, data or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions through an electronic device including, but not limited to, a telephone, cellular phone, computer, or pager, which communication includes, but is not limited to, e-mail, instant message, text message, or voice mail.

"Family or household member" includes spouses, former spouses, parents, children, stepchildren and other persons related by blood or by present or prior marriage, persons who share or formerly shared a common dwelling, persons who have or allegedly share a blood relationship through a child, persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship, and persons with disabilities and their personal assistants. For purposes of this Article, neither a casual acquaintanceship nor ordinary fraternization between 2 individuals in business or social contexts shall be deemed to constitute a dating relationship.

"Harass" or "harassing" means knowing conduct which is not necessary to accomplish a purpose that is reasonable under the circumstances, that would cause a reasonable person emotional distress and does cause emotional distress to another.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26.5-1)

Sec. 26.5-1. Transmission of obscene messages.

(a) A person commits transmission of obscene messages when he or she sends messages or uses language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral with the intent to offend by means of or while using a telephone or telegraph facilities, equipment or wires of any person, firm or corporation engaged in the transmission of news or messages between states or within the State of Illinois.

(b) The trier of fact may infer intent to offend from the use of language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26.5-2)

Sec. 26.5-2. Harassment by telephone.

(a) A person commits harassment by telephone when he or she uses telephone communication for any of the following purposes:

(1) Making any comment, request, suggestion or proposal which is obscene, lewd, lascivious, filthy or indecent with an intent to offend;

(2) Making a telephone call, whether or not conversation ensues, with intent to abuse, threaten or harass any person at the called number;

(3) Making or causing the telephone of another repeatedly to ring, with intent to harass any person at the called number;

(4) Making repeated telephone calls, during which conversation ensues, solely to harass any person at the called number;

(5) Making a telephone call or knowingly inducing a person to make a telephone call for the purpose of harassing another person who is under 13 years of age, regardless of whether the person under 13 years of age consents to the harassment, if the defendant is at least 16 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense; or

(6) Knowingly permitting any telephone under one's control to be used for any of the purposes mentioned herein.

(b) Every telephone directory published for distribution to members of the general public shall contain a notice setting forth a summary of the provisions of this Section. The notice shall be printed in type which is no smaller than any other type on the same page and shall be preceded by the word "WARNING". All telephone companies in this State shall cooperate with law enforcement agencies in using their facilities and personnel to detect and prevent violations of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26.5-3)

Sec. 26.5-3. Harassment through electronic communications.

(a) A person commits harassment through electronic communications when he or she uses electronic communication for any of the following purposes:

(1) Making any comment, request, suggestion or proposal which is obscene with an intent to offend;

(2) Interrupting, with the intent to harass, the telephone service or the electronic communication service of any person;

(3) Transmitting to any person, with the intent to harass and regardless of whether the communication is read in its entirety or at all, any file, document, or other communication which prevents that person from using his or her telephone service or electronic communications device;

(4) Transmitting an electronic communication or knowingly inducing a person to transmit an electronic communication for the purpose of harassing another person who is under 13 years of age, regardless of whether the person under 13 years of age consents to the harassment, if the defendant is at least 16 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense;

(5) Threatening injury to the person or to the property of the person to whom an electronic communication is directed or to any of his or her family or household members; or

(6) Knowingly permitting any electronic communications device to be used for any of the purposes mentioned in this subsection (a).

(b) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26.5-4)

Sec. 26.5-4. Evidence inference. Evidence that a defendant made additional telephone calls or engaged in additional electronic communications after having been requested by a named complainant or by a family or household member of the complainant to stop may be considered as evidence of an intent to harass unless disproved by evidence to the contrary.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26.5-5)

Sec. 26.5-5. Sentence.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), a person who violates any of the provisions of Section 26.5-1, 26.5-2, or 26.5-3 of this Article is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Except as provided in subsection (b), a second or subsequent violation of Section 26.5-1, 26.5-2, or 26.5-3 of this Article is a Class A misdemeanor, for which the court shall impose a minimum of 14 days in jail or, if public or community service is established in the county in which the offender was convicted, 240 hours of public or community service.

(b) In any of the following circumstances, a person who violates Section 26.5-1, 26.5-2, or 26.5-3 of this Article shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony:

(1) The person has 3 or more prior violations in the last 10 years of harassment by telephone, harassment through electronic communications, or any similar offense of any other state;

(2) The person has previously violated the harassment by telephone provisions, or the harassment through electronic communications provisions, or committed any similar offense in any other state with the same victim or a member of the victim's family or household;

(3) At the time of the offense, the offender was under conditions of pretrial release, probation, conditional discharge, mandatory supervised release or was the subject of an order of protection, in this or any other state, prohibiting contact with the victim or any member of the victim's family or household;

(4) In the course of the offense, the offender threatened to kill the victim or any member of the victim's family or household;

(5) The person has been convicted in the last 10 years of a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(6) The person violates paragraph (5) of Section 26.5-2 or paragraph (4) of Section 26.5-3; or

(7) The person was at least 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense.

(c) The court may order any person convicted under this Article to submit to a psychiatric examination.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 28 heading) ARTICLE 28. GAMBLING AND RELATED OFFENSES

(720 ILCS 5/28-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-1)

Sec. 28-1. Gambling.

(a) A person commits gambling when he or she:

(1) knowingly plays a game of chance or skill for money or other thing of value, unless excepted in subsection (b) of this Section;

(2) knowingly makes a wager upon the result of any game, contest, or any political nomination, appointment or election;

(3) knowingly operates, keeps, owns, uses, purchases, exhibits, rents, sells, bargains for the sale or lease of, manufactures or distributes any gambling device;

(4) contracts to have or give himself or herself or another the option to buy or sell, or contracts to buy or sell, at a future time, any grain or other commodity whatsoever, or any stock or security of any company, where it is at the time of making such contract intended by both parties thereto that the contract to buy or sell, or the option, whenever exercised, or the contract resulting therefrom, shall be settled, not by the receipt or delivery of such property, but by the payment only of differences in prices thereof; however, the issuance, purchase, sale, exercise, endorsement or guarantee, by or through a person registered with the Secretary of State pursuant to Section 8 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953, or by or through a person exempt from such registration under said Section 8, of a put, call, or other option to buy or sell securities which have been registered with the Secretary of State or which are exempt from such registration under Section 3 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 is not gambling within the meaning of this paragraph (4);

(5) knowingly owns or possesses any book, instrument or apparatus by means of which bets or wagers have been, or are, recorded or registered, or knowingly possesses any money which he has received in the course of a bet or wager;

(6) knowingly sells pools upon the result of any game or contest of skill or chance, political nomination, appointment or election;

(7) knowingly sets up or promotes any lottery or sells, offers to sell or transfers any ticket or share for any lottery;

(8) knowingly sets up or promotes any policy game or sells, offers to sell or knowingly possesses or transfers any policy ticket, slip, record, document or other similar device;

(9) knowingly drafts, prints or publishes any lottery ticket or share, or any policy ticket, slip, record, document or similar device, except for such activity related to lotteries, bingo games and raffles authorized by and conducted in accordance with the laws of Illinois or any other state or foreign government;

(10) knowingly advertises any lottery or policy game, except for such activity related to lotteries, bingo games and raffles authorized by and conducted in accordance with the laws of Illinois or any other state;

(11) knowingly transmits information as to wagers, betting odds, or changes in betting odds by telephone, telegraph, radio, semaphore or similar means; or knowingly installs or maintains equipment for the transmission or receipt of such information; except that nothing in this subdivision (11) prohibits transmission or receipt of such information for use in news reporting of sporting events or contests; or

(12) knowingly establishes, maintains, or operates an Internet site that permits a person to play a game of chance or skill for money or other thing of value by means of the Internet or to make a wager upon the result of any game, contest, political nomination, appointment, or election by means of the Internet. This item (12) does not apply to activities referenced in items (6), (6.1), (8), (8.1), and (15) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(b) Participants in any of the following activities shall not be convicted of gambling:

(1) Agreements to compensate for loss caused by the happening of chance including without limitation contracts of indemnity or guaranty and life or health or accident insurance.

(2) Offers of prizes, award or compensation to the actual contestants in any bona fide contest for the determination of skill, speed, strength or endurance or to the owners of animals or vehicles entered in such contest.

(3) Pari-mutuel betting as authorized by the law of this State.

(4) Manufacture of gambling devices, including the acquisition of essential parts therefor and the assembly thereof, for transportation in interstate or foreign commerce to any place outside this State when such transportation is not prohibited by any applicable Federal law; or the manufacture, distribution, or possession of video gaming terminals, as defined in the Video Gaming Act, by manufacturers, distributors, and terminal operators licensed to do so under the Video Gaming Act.

(5) The game commonly known as "bingo", when conducted in accordance with the Bingo License and Tax Act.

(6) Lotteries when conducted by the State of Illinois in accordance with the Illinois Lottery Law. This exemption includes any activity conducted by the Department of Revenue to sell lottery tickets pursuant to the provisions of the Illinois Lottery Law and its rules.

(6.1) The purchase of lottery tickets through the Internet for a lottery conducted by the State of Illinois under the program established in Section 7.12 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(7) Possession of an antique slot machine that is neither used nor intended to be used in the operation or promotion of any unlawful gambling activity or enterprise. For the purpose of this subparagraph (b)(7), an antique slot machine is one manufactured 25 years ago or earlier.

(8) Raffles and poker runs when conducted in accordance with the Raffles and Poker Runs Act.

(8.1) The purchase of raffle chances for a raffle conducted in accordance with the Raffles and Poker Runs Act.

(9) Charitable games when conducted in accordance with the Charitable Games Act.

(10) Pull tabs and jar games when conducted under the Illinois Pull Tabs and Jar Games Act.

(11) Gambling games when authorized by the Illinois Gambling Act.

(12) Video gaming terminal games at a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed large truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment when conducted in accordance with the Video Gaming Act.

(13) Games of skill or chance where money or other things of value can be won but no payment or purchase is required to participate.

(14) Savings promotion raffles authorized under Section 5g of the Illinois Banking Act, Section 7008 of the Savings Bank Act, Section 42.7 of the Illinois Credit Union Act, Section 5136B of the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 25a), or Section 4 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1463).

(15) Sports wagering when conducted in accordance with the Sports Wagering Act.

(c) Sentence.

Gambling is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent conviction under subsections (a)(3) through (a)(12), is a Class 4 felony.

(d) Circumstantial evidence.

In prosecutions under this Section circumstantial evidence shall have the same validity and weight as in any criminal prosecution.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, Article 25, Section 25-915, eff. 6-28-19; 101-31, Article 35, Section 35-80, eff. 6-28-19; 101-109, eff. 7-19-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/28-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-1.1)

Sec. 28-1.1. Syndicated gambling.

(a) Declaration of Purpose. Recognizing the close relationship between professional gambling and other organized crime, it is declared to be the policy of the legislature to restrain persons from engaging in the business of gambling for profit in this State. This Section shall be liberally construed and administered with a view to carrying out this policy.

(b) A person commits syndicated gambling when he or she operates a "policy game" or engages in the business of bookmaking.

(c) A person "operates a policy game" when he or she knowingly uses any premises or property for the purpose of receiving or knowingly does receive from what is commonly called "policy":

(1) money from a person other than the bettor or player whose bets or plays are represented by the money; or

(2) written "policy game" records, made or used over any period of time, from a person other than the bettor or player whose bets or plays are represented by the written record.

(d) A person engages in bookmaking when he or she knowingly receives or accepts more than five bets or wagers upon the result of any trials or contests of skill, speed or power of endurance or upon any lot, chance, casualty, unknown or contingent event whatsoever, which bets or wagers shall be of such size that the total of the amounts of money paid or promised to be paid to the bookmaker on account thereof shall exceed $2,000. Bookmaking is the receiving or accepting of bets or wagers regardless of the form or manner in which the bookmaker records them.

(e) Participants in any of the following activities shall not be convicted of syndicated gambling:

(1) Agreements to compensate for loss caused by the happening of chance including without limitation contracts of indemnity or guaranty and life or health or accident insurance;

(2) Offers of prizes, award or compensation to the actual contestants in any bona fide contest for the determination of skill, speed, strength or endurance or to the owners of animals or vehicles entered in the contest;

(3) Pari-mutuel betting as authorized by law of this State;

(4) Manufacture of gambling devices, including the acquisition of essential parts therefor and the assembly thereof, for transportation in interstate or foreign commerce to any place outside this State when the transportation is not prohibited by any applicable Federal law;

(5) Raffles and poker runs when conducted in accordance with the Raffles and Poker Runs Act;

(6) Gambling games conducted on riverboats, in casinos, or at organization gaming facilities when authorized by the Illinois Gambling Act;

(7) Video gaming terminal games at a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed large truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment when conducted in accordance with the Video Gaming Act; and

(8) Savings promotion raffles authorized under Section 5g of the Illinois Banking Act, Section 7008 of the Savings Bank Act, Section 42.7 of the Illinois Credit Union Act, Section 5136B of the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 25a), or Section 4 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1463).

(f) Sentence. Syndicated gambling is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19.)

(720 ILCS 5/28-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-2)

Sec. 28-2. Definitions.

(a) A "gambling device" is any clock, tape machine, slot machine or other machines or device for the reception of money or other thing of value on chance or skill or upon the action of which money or other thing of value is staked, hazarded, bet, won, or lost; or any mechanism, furniture, fixture, equipment, or other device designed primarily for use in a gambling place. A "gambling device" does not include:

(1) A coin-in-the-slot operated mechanical device played for amusement which rewards the player with the right to replay such mechanical device, which device is so constructed or devised as to make such result of the operation thereof depend in part upon the skill of the player and which returns to the player thereof no money, property, or right to receive money or property.

(2) Vending machines by which full and adequate return is made for the money invested and in which there is no element of chance or hazard.

(3) A crane game. For the purposes of this paragraph (3), a "crane game" is an amusement device involving skill, if it rewards the player exclusively with merchandise contained within the amusement device proper and limited to toys, novelties, and prizes other than currency, each having a wholesale value which is not more than $25.

(4) A redemption machine. For the purposes of this paragraph (4), a "redemption machine" is a single-player or multi-player amusement device involving a game, the object of which is throwing, rolling, bowling, shooting, placing, or propelling a ball or other object that is either physical or computer generated on a display or with lights into, upon, or against a hole or other target that is either physical or computer generated on a display or with lights, or stopping, by physical, mechanical, or electronic means, a moving object that is either physical or computer generated on a display or with lights into, upon, or against a hole or other target that is either physical or computer generated on a display or with lights, provided that all of the following conditions are met:

(A) The outcome of the game is predominantly determined by the skill of the player.

(B) The award of the prize is based solely upon the player's achieving the object of the game or otherwise upon the player's score.

(C) Only merchandise prizes are awarded.

(D) The wholesale value of prizes awarded in lieu of tickets or tokens for single play of the device does not exceed $25.

(E) The redemption value of tickets, tokens, and other representations of value, which may be accumulated by players to redeem prizes of greater value, for a single play of the device does not exceed $25.

(5) Video gaming terminals at a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed large truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment licensed in accordance with the Video Gaming Act.

(a-5) "Internet" means an interactive computer service or system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.

(a-6) "Access" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 17-55.

(a-7) "Computer" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 17-0.5.

(b) A "lottery" is any scheme or procedure whereby one or more prizes are distributed by chance among persons who have paid or promised consideration for a chance to win such prizes, whether such scheme or procedure is called a lottery, raffle, gift, sale, or some other name, excluding savings promotion raffles authorized under Section 5g of the Illinois Banking Act, Section 7008 of the Savings Bank Act, Section 42.7 of the Illinois Credit Union Act, Section 5136B of the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 25a), or Section 4 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1463).

(c) A "policy game" is any scheme or procedure whereby a person promises or guarantees by any instrument, bill, certificate, writing, token, or other device that any particular number, character, ticket, or certificate shall in the event of any contingency in the nature of a lottery entitle the purchaser or holder to receive money, property, or evidence of debt.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 101-87, eff. 1-1-20; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/28-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-3)

Sec. 28-3. Keeping a gambling place. A "gambling place" is any real estate, vehicle, boat, or any other property whatsoever used for the purposes of gambling other than gambling conducted in the manner authorized by the Illinois Gambling Act, the Sports Wagering Act, or the Video Gaming Act. Any person who knowingly permits any premises or property owned or occupied by him or under his control to be used as a gambling place commits a Class A misdemeanor. Each subsequent offense is a Class 4 felony. When any premises is determined by the circuit court to be a gambling place:

(a) Such premises is a public nuisance and may be proceeded against as such, and

(b) All licenses, permits or certificates issued by the State of Illinois or any subdivision or public agency thereof authorizing the serving of food or liquor on such premises shall be void; and no license, permit or certificate so cancelled shall be reissued for such premises for a period of 60 days thereafter; nor shall any person convicted of keeping a gambling place be reissued such license for one year from his conviction and, after a second conviction of keeping a gambling place, any such person shall not be reissued such license, and

(c) Such premises of any person who knowingly permits thereon a violation of any Section of this Article shall be held liable for, and may be sold to pay any unsatisfied judgment that may be recovered and any unsatisfied fine that may be levied under any Section of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, Article 25, Section 25-915, eff. 6-28-19; 101-31, Article 35, Section 35-80, eff. 6-28-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/28-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-4)

Sec. 28-4. Registration of Federal Gambling Stamps.

(a) Every person who has purchased a Federal Wagering Occupational Tax Stamp, as required by the United States under the applicable provisions of the Internal Revenue Code, or a Federal Gaming Device Tax Stamp, as required by the United States under the applicable provisions of the Internal Revenue Code, shall register forthwith such stamp or stamps with the county clerk's office in which he resides and the county clerk's office of each and every county in which he conducts any business. A violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor. A subsequent violation is a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) To register a stamp as required by this Section, each individual stamp purchaser and each member of a firm or association which is a stamp purchaser and, if such purchaser is corporate, the registered agent of the purchasing corporation shall deliver the stamp to the county clerk for inspection and shall under oath or affirmation complete and sign a registration form which shall state the full name and residence and business address of each purchaser and of each member of a purchasing firm or association and of each person employed or engaged in gambling on behalf of such purchaser, shall state the registered agent and registered address of a corporate purchaser, shall state each place where gambling is to be performed by or on behalf of the purchaser, and shall state the duration of validity of the stamp and the federal registration number and tax return number thereof. Any false statement in the registration form is material and is evidence of perjury.

(c) Within 3 days after such registration the county clerk shall by registered mail forward notice of such registration and a duplicate copy of each registration form to the Attorney General of this State, to the Chairman of the Illinois Liquor Control Commission, to the State's Attorney and Sheriff of each county wherein the stamp is registered, and to the principal official of the department of police of each city, village and incorporated town in this State wherein the stamp is registered or wherein the registrant maintains a business address.

(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)

(720 ILCS 5/28-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-5)

Sec. 28-5. Seizure of gambling devices and gambling funds.

(a) Every device designed for gambling which is incapable of lawful use or every device used unlawfully for gambling shall be considered a "gambling device", and shall be subject to seizure, confiscation and destruction by the Illinois State Police or by any municipal, or other local authority, within whose jurisdiction the same may be found. As used in this Section, a "gambling device" includes any slot machine, and includes any machine or device constructed for the reception of money or other thing of value and so constructed as to return, or to cause someone to return, on chance to the player thereof money, property or a right to receive money or property. With the exception of any device designed for gambling which is incapable of lawful use, no gambling device shall be forfeited or destroyed unless an individual with a property interest in said device knows of the unlawful use of the device.

(b) Every gambling device shall be seized and forfeited to the county wherein such seizure occurs. Any money or other thing of value integrally related to acts of gambling shall be seized and forfeited to the county wherein such seizure occurs.

(c) If, within 60 days after any seizure pursuant to subparagraph (b) of this Section, a person having any property interest in the seized property is charged with an offense, the court which renders judgment upon such charge shall, within 30 days after such judgment, conduct a forfeiture hearing to determine whether such property was a gambling device at the time of seizure. Such hearing shall be commenced by a written petition by the State, including material allegations of fact, the name and address of every person determined by the State to have any property interest in the seized property, a representation that written notice of the date, time and place of such hearing has been mailed to every such person by certified mail at least 10 days before such date, and a request for forfeiture. Every such person may appear as a party and present evidence at such hearing. The quantum of proof required shall be a preponderance of the evidence, and the burden of proof shall be on the State. If the court determines that the seized property was a gambling device at the time of seizure, an order of forfeiture and disposition of the seized property shall be entered: a gambling device shall be received by the State's Attorney, who shall effect its destruction, except that valuable parts thereof may be liquidated and the resultant money shall be deposited in the general fund of the county wherein such seizure occurred; money and other things of value shall be received by the State's Attorney and, upon liquidation, shall be deposited in the general fund of the county wherein such seizure occurred. However, in the event that a defendant raises the defense that the seized slot machine is an antique slot machine described in subparagraph (b) (7) of Section 28-1 of this Code and therefore he is exempt from the charge of a gambling activity participant, the seized antique slot machine shall not be destroyed or otherwise altered until a final determination is made by the Court as to whether it is such an antique slot machine. Upon a final determination by the Court of this question in favor of the defendant, such slot machine shall be immediately returned to the defendant. Such order of forfeiture and disposition shall, for the purposes of appeal, be a final order and judgment in a civil proceeding.

(d) If a seizure pursuant to subparagraph (b) of this Section is not followed by a charge pursuant to subparagraph (c) of this Section, or if the prosecution of such charge is permanently terminated or indefinitely discontinued without any judgment of conviction or acquittal (1) the State's Attorney shall commence an in rem proceeding for the forfeiture and destruction of a gambling device, or for the forfeiture and deposit in the general fund of the county of any seized money or other things of value, or both, in the circuit court and (2) any person having any property interest in such seized gambling device, money or other thing of value may commence separate civil proceedings in the manner provided by law.

(e) Any gambling device displayed for sale to a riverboat gambling operation, casino gambling operation, or organization gaming facility or used to train occupational licensees of a riverboat gambling operation, casino gambling operation, or organization gaming facility as authorized under the Illinois Gambling Act is exempt from seizure under this Section.

(f) Any gambling equipment, devices, and supplies provided by a licensed supplier in accordance with the Illinois Gambling Act which are removed from a riverboat, casino, or organization gaming facility for repair are exempt from seizure under this Section.

(g) The following video gaming terminals are exempt from seizure under this Section:

(1) Video gaming terminals for sale to a licensed distributor or operator under the Video Gaming Act.

(2) Video gaming terminals used to train licensed technicians or licensed terminal handlers.

(3) Video gaming terminals that are removed from a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed large truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment for repair.

(h) Property seized or forfeited under this Section is subject to reporting under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(i) Any sports lottery terminals provided by a central system provider that are removed from a lottery retailer for repair under the Sports Wagering Act are exempt from seizure under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, Article 25, Section 25-915, eff. 6-28-19; 101-31, Article 35, Section 35-80, eff. 6-28-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/28-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-7)

Sec. 28-7. Gambling contracts void.

(a) All promises, notes, bills, bonds, covenants, contracts, agreements, judgments, mortgages, or other securities or conveyances made, given, granted, drawn, or entered into, or executed by any person whatsoever, where the whole or any part of the consideration thereof is for any money or thing of value, won or obtained in violation of any Section of this Article are null and void.

(b) Any obligation void under this Section may be set aside and vacated by any court of competent jurisdiction, upon a complaint filed for that purpose, by the person so granting, giving, entering into, or executing the same, or by his executors or administrators, or by any creditor, heir, legatee, purchaser or other person interested therein; or if a judgment, the same may be set aside on motion of any person stated above, on due notice thereof given.

(c) No assignment of any obligation void under this Section may in any manner affect the defense of the person giving, granting, drawing, entering into or executing such obligation, or the remedies of any person interested therein.

(d) This Section shall not prevent a licensed owner of a riverboat gambling operation, a casino gambling operation, or an organization gaming licensee under the Illinois Gambling Act and the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 from instituting a cause of action to collect any amount due and owing under an extension of credit to a gambling patron as authorized under Section 11.1 of the Illinois Gambling Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19.)

(720 ILCS 5/28-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-8)

Sec. 28-8. Gambling losses recoverable.

(a) Any person who by gambling shall lose to any other person, any sum of money or thing of value, amounting to the sum of $50 or more and shall pay or deliver the same or any part thereof, may sue for and recover the money or other thing of value, so lost and paid or delivered, in a civil action against the winner thereof, with costs, in the circuit court. No person who accepts from another person for transmission, and transmits, either in his own name or in the name of such other person, any order for any transaction to be made upon, or who executes any order given to him by another person, or who executes any transaction for his own account on, any regular board of trade or commercial, commodity or stock exchange, shall, under any circumstances, be deemed a "winner" of any moneys lost by such other person in or through any such transactions.

(b) If within 6 months, such person who under the terms of Subsection 28-8(a) is entitled to initiate action to recover his losses does not in fact pursue his remedy, any person may initiate a civil action against the winner. The court or the jury, as the case may be, shall determine the amount of the loss. After such determination, the court shall enter a judgment of triple the amount so determined.

(c) Gambling losses as a result of gambling conducted on a video gaming terminal licensed under the Video Gaming Act are not recoverable under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-31, eff. 6-24-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/28-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-9)

Sec. 28-9. At the option of the prosecuting attorney any prosecution under this Article may be commenced by an information as defined in Section 102-12 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 76-1131.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 29 heading) ARTICLE 29. BRIBERY IN CONTESTS

(720 ILCS 5/29-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 29-1)

Sec. 29-1. Offering a bribe.

(a) Any person who, with intent to influence any person participating in, officiating or connected with any professional or amateur athletic contest, sporting event or exhibition, gives, offers or promises any money, bribe or other thing of value or advantage to induce such participant, official or other person not to use his best efforts in connection with such contest, event or exhibition commits a Class 4 felony.

(b) Any person who, with the intent to influence the decision of any individual, offers or promises any money, bribe or other thing of value or advantage to induce such individual to attend, refrain from attending or continue to attend a particular public or private institution of secondary education or higher education for the purpose of participating or not participating in interscholastic athletic competition for such institution commits a Class A misdemeanor. This Section does not apply to the: (1) offering or awarding to an individual any type of scholarship, grant or other bona fide financial aid or employment; (2) offering of any type of financial assistance by such individual's family; or (3) offering of any item of de minimis value by such institution's authorities if such item is of the nature of an item that is commonly provided to any or all students or prospective students.

(c) Any person who gives any money, goods or other thing of value to an individual enrolled in an institution of higher education who participates in interscholastic competition and represents or attempts to represent such individual in future negotiations for employment with any professional sports team commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 85-665.)

(720 ILCS 5/29-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 29-2)

Sec. 29-2. Accepting a bribe.

Any person participating in, officiating or connected with any professional or amateur athletic contest, sporting event or exhibition who accepts or agrees to accept any money, bribe or other thing of value or advantage with the intent, understanding or agreement that he will not use his best efforts in connection with such contest, event or exhibition commits a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)

(720 ILCS 5/29-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 29-3)

Sec. 29-3. Failure to report offer of bribe.

Any person participating, officiating or connected with any professional or amateur athletic contest, sporting event or exhibition who fails to report forthwith to his employer, the promoter of such contest, event or exhibition, a peace officer, or the local State's Attorney any offer or promise made to him in violation of Section 29-1 commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 29A heading) ARTICLE 29A. COMMERCIAL BRIBERY

(720 ILCS 5/29A-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 29A-1)

Sec. 29A-1. A person commits commercial bribery when he confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any benefit upon any employee, agent or fiduciary without the consent of the latter's employer or principal, with intent to influence his conduct in relation to his employer's or principal's affairs.

(Source: P.A. 76-1129.)

(720 ILCS 5/29A-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 29A-2)

Sec. 29A-2. An employee, agent or fiduciary commits commercial bribe receiving when, without consent of his employer or principal, he solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any benefit from another person upon an agreement or understanding that such benefit will influence his conduct in relation to his employer's or principal's affairs.

(Source: P.A. 76-1129.)

(720 ILCS 5/29A-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 29A-3)

Sec. 29A-3. Sentence.

(a) If the benefit offered, conferred, or agreed to be conferred, solicited, accepted or agreed to be accepted is less than $500,000, commercial bribery or commercial bribe receiving is a Class A misdemeanor and the sentence shall include, but not be limited to, a fine not to exceed $5,000.

(b) If the benefit offered, conferred, or agreed to be conferred, solicited, accepted, or agreed to be accepted in violation of this Article is $500,000 or more, the offender is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 93-496, eff. 1-1-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/29A-4)

Sec. 29A-4. Corporate Crime Fund.

(a) In addition to any fines, penalties, and assessments otherwise authorized under this Code, any person convicted of a violation of this Article or Section 17-26 or 17-27 of this Code shall be assessed a penalty of not more than 3 times the value of all property involved in the criminal activity.

(b) The penalties assessed under subsection (a) shall be deposited into the Corporate Crime Fund, a special fund hereby created in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund shall be used to make restitution to a person who has suffered property loss as a result of violations of this Article. The court may determine the reasonable amount, terms, and conditions of the restitution. In determining the amount and method of payment of restitution, the court shall take into account all financial resources of the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 93-496, eff. 1-1-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 29B heading) ARTICLE 29B. MONEY LAUNDERING

(720 ILCS 5/29B-0.5)

Sec. 29B-0.5. Definitions. In this Article:

"Conduct" or "conducts" includes, in addition to its ordinary meaning, initiating, concluding, or participating in initiating or concluding a transaction.

"Criminally derived property" means: (1) any property, real or personal, constituting or derived from proceeds obtained, directly or indirectly, from activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law; or (2) any property represented to be property constituting or derived from proceeds obtained, directly or indirectly, from activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.

"Financial institution" means any bank; savings and loan association; trust company; agency or branch of a foreign bank in the United States; currency exchange; credit union; mortgage banking institution; pawnbroker; loan or finance company; operator of a credit card system; issuer, redeemer, or cashier of travelers checks, checks, or money orders; dealer in precious metals, stones, or jewels; broker or dealer in securities or commodities; investment banker; or investment company.

"Financial transaction" means a purchase, sale, loan, pledge, gift, transfer, delivery, or other disposition utilizing criminally derived property, and with respect to financial institutions, includes a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of currency, loan, extension of credit, purchase or sale of any stock, bond, certificate of deposit or other monetary instrument, use of safe deposit box, or any other payment, transfer or delivery by, through, or to a financial institution. "Financial transaction" also means a transaction which without regard to whether the funds, monetary instruments, or real or personal property involved in the transaction are criminally derived, any transaction which in any way or degree: (1) involves the movement of funds by wire or any other means; (2) involves one or more monetary instruments; or (3) the transfer of title to any real or personal property. The receipt by an attorney of bona fide fees for the purpose of legal representation is not a financial transaction for purposes of this Article.

"Form 4-64" means the Illinois State Police Notice/Inventory of Seized Property (Form 4-64).

"Knowing that the property involved in a financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form of unlawful activity" means that the person knew the property involved in the transaction represented proceeds from some form, though not necessarily which form, of activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law.

"Monetary instrument" means United States coins and currency; coins and currency of a foreign country; travelers checks; personal checks, bank checks, and money orders; investment securities; bearer negotiable instruments; bearer investment securities; or bearer securities and certificates of stock in a form that title passes upon delivery.

"Specified criminal activity" means any violation of Section 29D-15.1 and any violation of Article 29D of this Code.

"Transaction reporting requirement under State law" means any violation as defined under the Currency Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 29B-1)

Sec. 29B-1. Money laundering.

(a) A person commits the offense of money laundering:

(1) when, knowing that the property involved in a financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form of unlawful activity, he or she conducts or attempts to conduct the financial transaction which in fact involves criminally derived property:

(A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of the unlawful activity from which the criminally derived property was obtained; or

(B) where he or she knows or reasonably should know that the financial transaction is designed in whole or in part:

(i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the ownership or the control of the criminally derived property; or

(ii) to avoid a transaction reporting requirement under State law; or

(1.5) when he or she transports, transmits, or transfers, or attempts to transport, transmit, or transfer a monetary instrument:

(A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of the unlawful activity from which the criminally derived property was obtained; or

(B) knowing, or having reason to know, that the financial transaction is designed in whole or in part:

(i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the ownership or the control of the criminally derived property; or

(ii) to avoid a transaction reporting requirement under State law; or

(2) when, with the intent to:

(A) promote the carrying on of a specified criminal activity as defined in this Article; or

(B) conceal or disguise the nature, location, source, ownership, or control of property believed to be the proceeds of a specified criminal activity as defined in this Article; or

(C) avoid a transaction reporting requirement under State law,

he or she conducts or attempts to conduct a financial transaction involving property he or she believes to be the proceeds of specified criminal activity or property used to conduct or facilitate specified criminal activity as defined in this Article.

(b) (Blank).

(c) Sentence.

(1) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value not exceeding $10,000 is a Class 3 felony;

(2) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a Class 2 felony;

(3) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 felony;

(4) Money laundering in violation of subsection (a)(2) of this Section is a Class X felony;

(5) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 non-probationable felony;

(6) In a prosecution under clause (a)(1.5)(B)(ii) of this Section, the sentences are as follows:

(A) Laundering of property of a value not exceeding $10,000 is a Class 3 felony;

(B) Laundering of property of a value exceeding $10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a Class 2 felony;

(C) Laundering of property of a value exceeding $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 felony;

(D) Laundering of property of a value exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 non-probationable felony.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-2)

Sec. 29B-2. Evidence in money laundering prosecutions. In a prosecution under this Article, either party may introduce the following evidence pertaining to the issue of whether the property or proceeds were known to be some form of criminally derived property or from some form of unlawful activity:

(1) a financial transaction was conducted or structured or attempted in violation of the reporting requirements of any State or federal law;

(2) a financial transaction was conducted or attempted with the use of a false or fictitious name or a forged instrument;

(3) a falsely altered or completed written instrument or a written instrument that contains any materially false personal identifying information was made, used, offered, or presented, whether accepted or not, in connection with a financial transaction;

(4) a financial transaction was structured or attempted to be structured so as to falsely report the actual consideration or value of the transaction;

(5) a money transmitter, a person engaged in a trade or business, or any employee of a money transmitter or a person engaged in a trade or business, knows or reasonably should know that false personal identifying information has been presented and incorporates the false personal identifying information into any report or record;

(6) the criminally derived property is transported or possessed in a fashion inconsistent with the ordinary or usual means of transportation or possession of the property and where the property is discovered in the absence of any documentation or other indicia of legitimate origin or right to the property;

(7) a person pays or receives substantially less than face value for one or more monetary instruments; or

(8) a person engages in a transaction involving one or more monetary instruments, where the physical condition or form of the monetary instrument or instruments makes it apparent that they are not the product of bona fide business or financial transactions.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-3)

Sec. 29B-3. Duty to enforce this Article.

(a) It is the duty of the Illinois State Police, and its agents, officers, and investigators, to enforce this Article, except those provisions otherwise specifically delegated, and to cooperate with all agencies charged with the enforcement of the laws of the United States, or of any state, relating to money laundering. Only an agent, officer, or investigator designated by the Director may be authorized in accordance with this Section to serve seizure notices, warrants, subpoenas, and summonses under the authority of this State.

(b) An agent, officer, investigator, or peace officer designated by the Director may: (1) make seizure of property under this Article; and (2) perform other law enforcement duties as the Director designates. It is the duty of all State's Attorneys to prosecute violations of this Article and institute legal proceedings as authorized under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-4)

Sec. 29B-4. Protective orders and warrants for forfeiture purposes.

(a) Upon application of the State, the court may enter a restraining order or injunction, require the execution of a satisfactory performance bond, or take any other action to preserve the availability of property described in Section 29B-5 of this Article for forfeiture under this Article:

(1) upon the filing of an indictment, information, or complaint charging a violation of this Article for which forfeiture may be ordered under this Article and alleging that the property with respect to which the order is sought would be subject to forfeiture under this Article; or

(2) prior to the filing of the indictment, information, or complaint, if, after notice to persons appearing to have an interest in the property and opportunity for a hearing, the court determines that:

(A) there is probable cause to believe that the State will prevail on the issue of forfeiture and that failure to enter the order will result in the property being destroyed, removed from the jurisdiction of the court, or otherwise made unavailable for forfeiture; and

(B) the need to preserve the availability of the property through the entry of the requested order outweighs the hardship on any party against whom the order is to be entered.

Provided, however, that an order entered under paragraph (2) of this Section shall be effective for not more than 90 days, unless extended by the court for good cause shown or unless an indictment, information, complaint, or administrative notice has been filed.

(b) A temporary restraining order under this subsection (b) may be entered upon application of the State without notice or opportunity for a hearing when an indictment, information, complaint, or administrative notice has not yet been filed with respect to the property, if the State demonstrates that there is probable cause to believe that the property with respect to which the order is sought would be subject to forfeiture under this Article and that provision of notice will jeopardize the availability of the property for forfeiture. The temporary order shall expire not more than 30 days after the date on which it is entered, unless extended for good cause shown or unless the party against whom it is entered consents to an extension for a longer period. A hearing requested concerning an order entered under this subsection (b) shall be held at the earliest possible time and prior to the expiration of the temporary order.

(c) The court may receive and consider, at a hearing held under this Section, evidence and information that would be inadmissible under the Illinois rules of evidence.

(d) Under its authority to enter a pretrial restraining order under this Section, the court may order a defendant to repatriate any property that may be seized and forfeited and to deposit that property pending trial with the Illinois State Police or another law enforcement agency designated by the Illinois State Police. Failure to comply with an order under this Section is punishable as a civil or criminal contempt of court.

(e) The State may request the issuance of a warrant authorizing the seizure of property described in Section 29B-5 of this Article in the same manner as provided for a search warrant. If the court determines that there is probable cause to believe that the property to be seized would be subject to forfeiture, the court shall issue a warrant authorizing the seizure of that property.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-5)

Sec. 29B-5. Property subject to forfeiture. The following are subject to forfeiture:

(1) any property, real or personal, constituting, derived from, or traceable to any proceeds the person obtained, directly or indirectly, as a result of a violation of this Article;

(2) any of the person's property used, or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or to facilitate the commission of, a violation of this Article;

(3) all conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles, or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, to transport, or in any manner to facilitate the transportation, sale, receipt, possession, or concealment of property described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this Section, but:

(A) no conveyance used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this Section unless it appears that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting party or privy to a violation of this Article;

(B) no conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this Article by reason of any act or omission which the owner proves to have been committed or omitted without his or her knowledge or consent;

(C) a forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if he or she neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission;

(4) all real property, including any right, title, and interest, including, but not limited to, any leasehold interest or the beneficial interest in a land trust, in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any appurtenances or improvements, which is used or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or in any manner to facilitate the commission of, any violation of this Article or that is the proceeds of any violation or act that constitutes a violation of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-6)

Sec. 29B-6. Seizure.

(a) Property subject to forfeiture under this Article may be seized by the Director or any peace officer upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. Seizure by the Director or any peace officer without process may be made:

(1) if the seizure is incident to a seizure warrant;

(2) if the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding, or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this Article;

(3) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety;

(4) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is subject to forfeiture under this Article and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable; or

(5) in accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(b) In the event of seizure under subsection (a) of this Section, forfeiture proceedings shall be instituted in accordance with this Article.

(c) Actual physical seizure of real property subject to forfeiture requires the issuance of a seizure warrant. Nothing in this Article prohibits the constructive seizure of real property through the filing of a complaint for forfeiture in circuit court and the recording of a lis pendens against the real property that is subject to forfeiture without any hearing, warrant application, or judicial approval.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-7)

Sec. 29B-7. Safekeeping of seized property pending disposition.

(a) If property is seized under this Article, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an inventory of the seized property and estimate the property's value and shall forward a copy of the inventory of seized property and the estimate of the property's value to the Director. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the Director may:

(1) place the property under seal;

(2) remove the property to a place designated by the Director;

(3) keep the property in the possession of the seizing agency;

(4) remove the property to a storage area for safekeeping or, if the property is a negotiable instrument or money and is not needed for evidentiary purposes, deposit it in an interest bearing account;

(5) place the property under constructive seizure by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and interest holders, or by filing notice of pending forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating to the property; or

(6) provide for another agency or custodian, including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to take custody of the property upon the terms and conditions set by the Director.

(b) When property is forfeited under this Article, the Director or the Director's designee shall sell all the property unless the property is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the public and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, together with any moneys forfeited or seized, under Section 29B-26 of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 103-609, eff. 7-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-8)

Sec. 29B-8. Notice to State's Attorney. The law enforcement agency seizing property for forfeiture under this Article shall, within 60 days after seizure, notify the State's Attorney for the county, either where an act or omission giving rise to the forfeiture occurred or where the property was seized, of the seizure of the property and the facts and circumstances giving rise to the seizure and shall provide the State's Attorney with the inventory of the property and its estimated value. If the property seized for forfeiture is a vehicle, the law enforcement agency seizing the property shall immediately notify the Secretary of State that forfeiture proceedings are pending regarding the vehicle. This notice shall be by Form 4-64.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-9)

Sec. 29B-9. Preliminary review.

(a) Within 28 days of the seizure, the State shall seek a preliminary determination from the circuit court as to whether there is probable cause that the property may be subject to forfeiture.

(b) The rules of evidence shall not apply to any proceeding conducted under this Section.

(c) The court may conduct the review under subsection (a) of this Section simultaneously with a proceeding under Section 109-1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for a related criminal offense if a prosecution is commenced by information or complaint.

(d) The court may accept a finding of probable cause at a preliminary hearing following the filing of an information or complaint charging a related criminal offense or following the return of indictment by a grand jury charging the related offense as sufficient evidence of probable cause as required under subsection (a) of this Section.

(e) Upon a finding of probable cause as required under this Section, the circuit court shall order the property subject to the applicable forfeiture Act held until the conclusion of any forfeiture proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-10)

Sec. 29B-10. Notice to owner or interest holder.

(a) The first attempted service of notice shall be commenced within 28 days of the latter of filing of the verified claim or the receipt of the notice from the seizing agency by Form 4-64. A complaint for forfeiture or a notice of pending forfeiture shall be served on a claimant if the owner's or interest holder's name and current address are known, then by either: (1) personal service; or (2) mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to that address.

(b) If no signed return receipt is received by the State's Attorney within 28 days of mailing or no communication from the owner or interest holder is received by the State's Attorney documenting actual notice by the parties, the State's Attorney shall, within a reasonable period of time, mail a second copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to that address. If no signed return receipt is received by the State's Attorney within 28 days of the second mailing, or no communication from the owner or interest holder is received by the State's Attorney documenting actual notice by the parties, the State's Attorney shall have 60 days to attempt to serve the notice by personal service, including substitute service by leaving a copy at the usual place of abode with some person of the family or a person residing there, of the age of 13 years or upwards. If, after 3 attempts at service in this manner, no service of the notice is accomplished, the notice shall be posted in a conspicuous manner at the address and service shall be made by the posting. The attempts at service and the posting, if required, shall be documented by the person attempting service which shall be made part of a return of service returned to the State's Attorney. The State's Attorney may utilize any Sheriff or Deputy Sheriff, a peace officer, a private process server or investigator, or an employee, agent, or investigator of the State's Attorney's Office to attempt service without seeking leave of court.

(c) After the procedures listed are followed, service shall be effective on the owner or interest holder on the date of receipt by the State's Attorney of a return receipt, or on the date of receipt of a communication from an owner or interest holder documenting actual notice, whichever is first in time, or on the date of the last act performed by the State's Attorney in attempting personal service. For purposes of notice under this Section, if a person has been arrested for the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture, the address provided to the arresting agency at the time of arrest shall be deemed to be that person's known address. Provided, however, if an owner or interest holder's address changes prior to the effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the seizing agency of the change in address or, if the owner or interest holder's address changes subsequent to the effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the change in address. If the property seized is a conveyance, notice shall also be directed to the address reflected in the office of the agency or official in which title to or interest in the conveyance is required by law to be recorded.

(d) If the owner's or interest holder's address is not known, and is not on record as provided in this Section, service by publication for 3 successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the seizure occurred shall suffice for service requirements.

(e) Notice to any business entity, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or partnership shall be completed by a single mailing of a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to that address. This notice is complete regardless of the return of a signed return receipt.

(f) Notice to a person whose address is not within the State shall be completed by a single mailing of a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to that address. This notice is complete regardless of the return of a signed return receipt.

(g) Notice to a person whose address is not within the United States shall be completed by a single mailing of a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to that address. This notice is complete regardless of the return of a signed return receipt. If certified mail is not available in the foreign country where the person has an address, notice shall proceed by publication requirements under subsection (d) of this Section.

(h) Notice to a person whom the State's Attorney reasonably should know is incarcerated within this State shall also include mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to the address of the detention facility with the inmate's name clearly marked on the envelope.

(i) After a claimant files a verified claim with the State's Attorney and provides an address at which the claimant will accept service, the complaint shall be served and notice shall be complete upon the mailing of the complaint to the claimant at the address the claimant provided via certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail. No return receipt need be received, or any other attempts at service need be made to comply with service and notice requirements under this Section. This certified mailing, return receipt requested, shall be proof of service of the complaint on the claimant. If notice is to be shown by actual notice from communication with a claimant, then the State's Attorney shall file an affidavit as proof of service, providing details of the communication, which shall be accepted as proof of service by the court.

(j) If the property seized is a conveyance, notice shall also be directed to the address reflected in the office of the agency or official in which title to or interest in the conveyance is required by law to be recorded by mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to that address.

(k) Notice served under this Article is effective upon personal service, the last date of publication, or the mailing of written notice, whichever is earlier.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-11)

Sec. 29B-11. Replevin prohibited. Property taken or detained under this Article shall not be subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's Attorney under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-12)

Sec. 29B-12. Non-judicial forfeiture. If non-real property that exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance, or if real property is seized under the provisions of this Article, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial in rem forfeiture proceedings as described in Section 29B-13 of this Article within 28 days from receipt of notice of seizure from the seizing agency under Section 29B-8 of this Article. However, if non-real property that does not exceed $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance is seized, the following procedure shall be used:

(1) If, after review of the facts surrounding the seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the seized property is subject to forfeiture, then, within 28 days after the receipt of notice of seizure from the seizing agency, the State's Attorney shall cause notice of pending forfeiture to be given to the owner of the property and all known interest holders of the property in accordance with Section 29B-10 of this Article.

(2) The notice of pending forfeiture shall include a description of the property, the estimated value of the property, the date and place of seizure, the conduct giving rise to forfeiture or the violation of law alleged, and a summary of procedures and procedural rights applicable to the forfeiture action.

(3)(A) Any person claiming an interest in property that is the subject of notice under paragraph (1) of this Section, must, in order to preserve any rights or claims to the property, within 45 days after the effective date of notice as described in Section 29B-10 of this Article, file a verified claim with the State's Attorney expressing his or her interest in the property. The claim shall set forth:

(i) the caption of the proceedings as set forth on the notice of pending forfeiture and the name of the claimant;

(ii) the address at which the claimant will accept mail;

(iii) the nature and extent of the claimant's interest in the property;

(iv) the date, identity of the transferor, and circumstances of the claimant's acquisition of the interest in the property;

(v) the names and addresses of all other persons known to have an interest in the property;

(vi) the specific provision of law relied on in asserting the property is not subject to forfeiture;

(vii) all essential facts supporting each assertion; and

(viii) the relief sought.

(B) If a claimant files the claim, then the State's Attorney shall institute judicial in rem forfeiture proceedings with the clerk of the court as described in Section 29B-13 of this Article within 28 days after receipt of the claim.

(4) If no claim is filed within the 28-day period as described in paragraph (3) of this Section, the State's Attorney shall declare the property forfeited and shall promptly notify the owner and all known interest holders of the property and the Director of the Illinois State Police of the declaration of forfeiture and the Director or the Director's designee shall dispose of the property in accordance with law.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-609, eff. 7-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-13)

Sec. 29B-13. Judicial in rem procedures. If property seized under this Article is non-real property that exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance, or is real property, or a claimant has filed a claim under paragraph (3) of Section 29B-12 of this Article, the following judicial in rem procedures shall apply:

(1) If, after a review of the facts surrounding the seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the seized property is subject to forfeiture, then, within 28 days of the receipt of notice of seizure by the seizing agency or the filing of the claim, whichever is later, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial forfeiture proceedings by filing a verified complaint for forfeiture. If authorized by law, a forfeiture shall be ordered by a court on an action in rem brought by a State's Attorney under a verified complaint for forfeiture.

(2) A complaint of forfeiture shall include:

(A) a description of the property seized;

(B) the date and place of seizure of the property;

(C) the name and address of the law enforcement agency making the seizure; and

(D) the specific statutory and factual grounds for the seizure.

(3) The complaint shall be served upon the person from whom the property was seized and all persons known or reasonably believed by the State to claim an interest in the property, as provided in Section 29B-10 of this Article. The complaint shall be accompanied by the following written notice:

"This is a civil court proceeding subject to the Code of Civil Procedure. You received this Complaint of Forfeiture because the State's Attorney's office has brought a legal action seeking forfeiture of your seized property. This complaint starts the court process where the State seeks to prove that your property should be forfeited and not returned to you. This process is also your opportunity to try to prove to a judge that you should get your property back. The complaint lists the date, time, and location of your first court date. You must appear in court on that day, or you may lose the case automatically. You must also file an appearance and answer. If you are unable to pay the appearance fee, you may qualify to have the fee waived. If there is a criminal case related to the seizure of your property, your case may be set for trial after the criminal case has been resolved. Before trial, the judge may allow discovery, where the State can ask you to respond in writing to questions and give them certain documents, and you can make similar requests of the State. The trial is your opportunity to explain what happened when your property was seized and why you should get the property back."

(4) Forfeiture proceedings under this Article shall be subject to the Code of Civil Procedure and the rules of evidence relating to civil actions shall apply to proceedings under this Article with the following exception. The parties shall be allowed to use, and the court shall receive and consider, all relevant hearsay evidence that relates to evidentiary foundation, chain of custody, business records, recordings, laboratory analysis, laboratory reports, and relevant hearsay related to the use of technology in the investigation that resulted in the seizure of property that is subject to the forfeiture action.

(5) Only an owner of or interest holder in the property may file an answer asserting a claim against the property in the action in rem. For purposes of this Section, the owner or interest holder shall be referred to as claimant. Upon motion of the State, the court shall first hold a hearing, in which a claimant shall establish by a preponderance of the evidence, that he or she has a lawful, legitimate ownership interest in the property and that it was obtained through a lawful source.

(6) The answer must be signed by the owner or interest holder under penalty of perjury and shall set forth:

(A) the caption of the proceedings as set forth on the notice of pending forfeiture and the name of the claimant;

(B) the address at which the claimant will accept mail;

(C) the nature and extent of the claimant's interest in the property;

(D) the date, identity of transferor, and circumstances of the claimant's acquisition of the interest in the property;

(E) the names and addresses of all other persons known to have an interest in the property;

(F) all essential facts supporting each assertion;

(G) the precise relief sought; and

(H) in a forfeiture action involving currency or its equivalent, a claimant shall provide the State with notice of his or her intent to allege that the currency or its equivalent is not related to the alleged factual basis for the forfeiture, and why.

The answer shall follow the rules under the Code of Civil Procedure.

(7) The answer shall be filed with the court within 45 days after service of the civil in rem complaint.

(8) The hearing shall be held within 60 days after filing of the answer unless continued for good cause.

(9) At the judicial in rem proceeding, in the State's case in chief, the State shall show by a preponderance of the evidence that the property is subject to forfeiture. If the State makes such a showing, the claimant shall have the burden of production to set forth evidence that the property is not related to the alleged factual basis of the forfeiture. After this production of evidence, the State shall maintain the burden of proof to overcome this assertion. A claimant shall provide the State notice of its intent to allege that the currency or its equivalent is not related to the alleged factual basis of the forfeiture and why. As to conveyances, at the judicial in rem proceeding, in its case in chief, the State shall show by a preponderance of the evidence:

(A) that the property is subject to forfeiture; and

(B) at least one of the following:

(i) that the claimant was legally accountable for the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture;

(ii) that the claimant knew or reasonably should have known of the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture;

(iii) that the claimant knew or reasonably should have known that the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture was likely to occur;

(iv) that the claimant held the property for the benefit of, or as nominee for, any person whose conduct gave rise to its forfeiture;

(v) that if the claimant acquired the interest through any person engaging in any of the conduct described above or conduct giving rise to the forfeiture:

(a) the claimant did not acquire it as a bona fide purchaser for value; or

(b) the claimant acquired the interest under the circumstances that the claimant reasonably should have known the property was derived from, or used in, the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture; or

(vi) that the claimant is not the true owner of the property that is subject to forfeiture.

(10) If the State does not meet its burden to show that the property is subject to forfeiture, the court shall order the interest in the property returned or conveyed to the claimant and shall order all other property forfeited to the State. If the State does meet its burden to show that the property is subject to forfeiture, the court shall order all property forfeited to the State.

(11) A defendant convicted in any criminal proceeding is precluded from later denying the essential allegations of the criminal offense of which the defendant was convicted in any proceeding under this Article regardless of the pendency of an appeal from that conviction. However, evidence of the pendency of an appeal is admissible.

(12) On a motion by the parties, the court may stay civil forfeiture proceedings during the criminal trial for a related criminal indictment or information alleging a money laundering violation. Such a stay shall not be available pending an appeal. Property subject to forfeiture under this Article shall not be subject to return or release by a court exercising jurisdiction over a criminal case involving the seizure of the property unless the return or release is consented to by the State's Attorney.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-14)

Sec. 29B-14. Innocent owner hearing.

(a) After a complaint for forfeiture has been filed and all claimants have appeared and answered, a claimant may file a motion with the court for an innocent owner hearing prior to trial. This motion shall be made and supported by sworn affidavit and shall assert the following along with specific facts that support each assertion:

(1) that the claimant filing the motion is the true owner of the conveyance as interpreted by case law;

(2) that the claimant was not legally accountable for the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture or acquiesced in the conduct;

(3) that the claimant did not solicit, conspire, or attempt to commit the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture;

(4) that the claimant did not know or did not have reason to know that the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture was likely to occur; and

(5) that the claimant did not hold the property for the benefit of, or as nominee for, any person whose conduct gave rise to its forfeiture, or if the claimant acquired the interest through any person, the claimant acquired it as a bona fide purchaser for value or acquired the interest without knowledge of the seizure of the property for forfeiture.

(b) The claimant's motion shall include specific facts supporting these assertions.

(c) Upon this filing, a hearing may only be conducted after the parties have been given the opportunity to conduct limited discovery as to the ownership and control of the property, the claimant's knowledge, or any matter relevant to the issues raised or facts alleged in the claimant's motion. Discovery shall be limited to the People's requests in these areas but may proceed by any means allowed in the Code of Civil Procedure.

(1) After discovery is complete and the court has allowed for sufficient time to review and investigate the discovery responses, the court shall conduct a hearing. At the hearing, the fact that the conveyance is subject to forfeiture shall not be at issue. The court shall only hear evidence relating to the issue of innocent ownership.

(2) At the hearing on the motion, it shall be the burden of the claimant to prove each of the assertions listed in subsection (a) of this Section by a preponderance of the evidence.

(3) If a claimant meets his or her burden of proof, the court shall grant the motion and order the property returned to the claimant. If the claimant fails to meet his or her burden of proof, then the court shall deny the motion and the forfeiture case shall proceed according to the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-15)

Sec. 29B-15. Burden and commencement of forfeiture action.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the State's burden of proof at the trial of the forfeiture action shall be by clear and convincing evidence if:

(1) a finding of not guilty is entered as to all counts and all defendants in a criminal proceeding relating to the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture action; or

(2) the State receives an adverse finding at a preliminary hearing and fails to secure an indictment in a criminal proceeding relating to the factual allegations of the forfeiture action.

(b) All property declared forfeited under this Article vests in the State on the commission of the conduct giving rise to forfeiture together with the proceeds of the property after that time. Except as otherwise provided in this Article, title to any property or proceeds subject to forfeiture subsequently transferred to any person remain subject to forfeiture and thereafter shall be ordered forfeited unless the person to whom the property was transferred makes an appropriate claim and has his or her claim adjudicated at the judicial in rem hearing.

(c) A civil action under this Article shall be commenced within 5 years after the last conduct giving rise to forfeiture became known or should have become known or 5 years after the forfeitable property is discovered, whichever is later, excluding any time during which either the property or claimant is out of the State or in confinement or during which criminal proceedings relating to the same conduct are in progress.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-16)

Sec. 29B-16. Joint tenancy or tenancy in common. If property is ordered forfeited under this Section from a claimant who held title to the property in joint tenancy or tenancy in common with another claimant, the court shall determine the amount of each owner's interest in the property according to principles of property law.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-17)

Sec. 29B-17. Exception for bona fide purchasers. No property shall be forfeited under this Article from a person who, without actual or constructive notice that the property was the subject of forfeiture proceedings, obtained possession of the property as a bona fide purchaser for value. A person who purports to effect transfer of property after receiving actual or constructive notice that the property is subject to seizure or forfeiture is guilty of contempt of court and shall be liable to the State for a penalty in the amount of the fair market value of the property.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-18)

Sec. 29B-18. Proportionality. Property that is forfeited shall be subject to an 8th Amendment to the United States Constitution disproportionate penalties analysis and the property forfeiture may be denied in whole or in part if the court finds that the forfeiture would constitute an excessive fine in violation of the 8th Amendment as interpreted by case law.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-19)

Sec. 29B-19. Stay of time periods. If property is seized for evidence and for forfeiture, the time periods for instituting judicial and non-judicial forfeiture proceedings shall not begin until the property is no longer necessary for evidence.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-20)

Sec. 29B-20. Settlement of claims. Notwithstanding other provisions of this Article, the State's Attorney and a claimant of seized property may enter into an agreed-upon settlement concerning the seized property in such an amount and upon such terms as are set out in writing in a settlement agreement. All proceeds from a settlement agreement shall be tendered to the Illinois State Police and distributed under Section 29B-26 of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-21)

Sec. 29B-21. Attorney's fees. Nothing in this Article applies to property that constitutes reasonable bona fide attorney's fees paid to an attorney for services rendered or to be rendered in the forfeiture proceeding or criminal proceeding relating directly thereto if the property was paid before its seizure and before the issuance of any seizure warrant or court order prohibiting transfer of the property and if the attorney, at the time he or she received the property, did not know that it was property subject to forfeiture under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-22)

Sec. 29B-22. Construction.

(a) It is the intent of the General Assembly that the forfeiture provisions of this Article be liberally construed so as to effect their remedial purpose. The forfeiture of property and other remedies under this Article shall be considered to be in addition to, and not exclusive of, any sentence or other remedy provided by law.

(b) The changes made to this Article by Public Act 100-512 and Public Act 100-699 are subject to Section 2 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-23)

Sec. 29B-23. Judicial review. If property has been declared forfeited under Section 29B-12 of this Article, any person who has an interest in the property declared forfeited may, within 30 days after the effective date of the notice of the declaration of forfeiture, file a claim as described in paragraph (3) of Section 29B-12 of this Article. If a claim is filed under this Section, then the procedures described in Section of 29B-13 of this Article apply.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-24)

Sec. 29B-24. Review of administrative decisions. All administrative findings, rulings, final determinations, findings, and conclusions of the State's Attorney's Office under this Article are final and conclusive decisions of the matters involved. Any person aggrieved by the decision may obtain review of the decision under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law and the rules adopted under that Law. Pending final decision on such review, the administrative acts, orders, and rulings of the State's Attorney's Office remain in full force and effect unless modified or suspended by order of court pending final judicial decision. Pending final decision on such review, the acts, orders, and rulings of the State's Attorney's Office remain in full force and effect, unless stayed by order of court. However, no stay of any decision of the administrative agency shall issue unless the person aggrieved by the decision establishes by a preponderance of the evidence that good cause exists for the stay. In determining good cause, the court shall find that the aggrieved party has established a substantial likelihood of prevailing on the merits and that granting the stay will not have an injurious effect on the general public.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-25)

Sec. 29B-25. Return of property, damages, and costs.

(a) The law enforcement agency that holds custody of property seized for forfeiture shall deliver property ordered by the court to be returned or conveyed to the claimant within a reasonable time not to exceed 7 days, unless the order is stayed by the trial court or a reviewing court pending an appeal, motion to reconsider, or other reason.

(b) The law enforcement agency that holds custody of property is responsible for any damages, storage fees, and related costs applicable to property returned. The claimant shall not be subject to any charges by the State for storage of the property or expenses incurred in the preservation of the property. Charges for the towing of a conveyance shall be borne by the claimant unless the conveyance was towed for the sole reason of seizure for forfeiture. This Section does not prohibit the imposition of any fees or costs by a home rule unit of local government related to the impoundment of a conveyance under an ordinance enacted by the unit of government.

(c) A law enforcement agency shall not retain forfeited property for its own use or transfer the property to any person or entity, except as provided under this Section. A law enforcement agency may apply in writing to the Director of the Illinois State Police to request that forfeited property be awarded to the agency for a specifically articulated official law enforcement use in an investigation. The Director shall provide a written justification in each instance detailing the reasons why the forfeited property was placed into official use and the justification shall be retained for a period of not less than 3 years.

(d) A claimant or a party interested in personal property contained within a seized conveyance may file a request with the State's Attorney in a non-judicial forfeiture action, or a motion with the court in a judicial forfeiture action for the return of any personal property contained within a conveyance that is seized under this Article. The return of personal property shall not be unreasonably withheld if the personal property is not mechanically or electrically coupled to the conveyance, needed for evidentiary purposes, or otherwise contraband. Any law enforcement agency that returns property under a court order under this Section shall not be liable to any person who claims ownership to the property if it is returned to an improper party.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-26)

Sec. 29B-26. Distribution of proceeds. All moneys and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized under this Article shall be distributed as follows:

(1) 65% shall be distributed to the metropolitan enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or State law enforcement agency or agencies that conducted or participated in the investigation resulting in the forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable relationship to the degree of direct participation of the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of the property forfeited and the total law enforcement effort with respect to the violation of the law upon which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to the agency or agencies shall be used for the enforcement of laws.

(2)(i) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney of the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws. In counties over 3,000,000 population, 25% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws. If the prosecution is undertaken solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided under this subparagraph (i) shall be distributed to the Attorney General for use in the enforcement of laws.

(ii) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and deposited in the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund of that office to be used for additional expenses incurred in the investigation, prosecution, and appeal of cases arising under laws. The Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall not receive distribution from cases brought in counties with over 3,000,000 population.

(3) 10% shall be retained by the Illinois State Police for expenses related to the administration and sale of seized and forfeited property.

Moneys and the sale proceeds distributed to the Illinois State Police under this Article shall be deposited in the Money Laundering Asset Recovery Fund created in the State treasury and shall be used by the Illinois State Police for State law enforcement purposes. All moneys and sale proceeds of property forfeited and seized under this Article and distributed according to this Section may also be used to purchase opioid antagonists as defined in Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-27)

Sec. 29B-27. Applicability; savings clause.

(a) The changes made to this Article by Public Act 100-512 and Public Act 100-699 only apply to property seized on and after July 1, 2018.

(b) The changes made to this Article by Public Act 100-699 are subject to Section 4 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 29C heading) ARTICLE 29C. INTERNATIONAL TERRORISM (Repealed by P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02)

(720 ILCS 5/29C-5)

Sec. 29C-5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 89-515, eff. 1-1-97. Repealed by P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/29C-10)

Sec. 29C-10. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 89-515, eff. 1-1-97. Repealed by P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/29C-15)

Sec. 29C-15. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 89-515, eff. 1-1-97. Repealed by P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 29D heading) ARTICLE 29D. TERRORISM

(720 ILCS 5/29D-5)

Sec. 29D-5. Legislative findings. The devastating consequences of the barbaric attacks on the World Trade Center and the Pentagon on September 11, 2001 underscore the compelling need for legislation that is specifically designed to combat the evils of terrorism. Terrorism is inconsistent with civilized society and cannot be tolerated.

A comprehensive State law is urgently needed to complement federal laws in the fight against terrorism and to better protect all citizens against terrorist acts. Accordingly, the legislature finds that our laws must be strengthened to ensure that terrorists, as well as those who solicit or provide financial and other support to terrorists, are prosecuted and punished in State courts with appropriate severity. The legislature further finds that due to the grave nature and global reach of terrorism that a comprehensive law encompassing State criminal statutes and strong civil remedies is needed.

An investigation may not be initiated or continued for activities protected by the First Amendment to the United States Constitution, including expressions of support or the provision of financial support for the nonviolent political, religious, philosophical, or ideological goals or beliefs of any person or group.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-10)

Sec. 29D-10. Definitions. As used in this Article, where not otherwise distinctly expressed or manifestly incompatible with the intent of this Article:

(a) "Computer network" means a set of related, remotely connected devices and any communications facilities including more than one computer with the capability to transmit data among them through communication facilities.

(b) "Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, retrieves, or outputs data, and includes, but is not limited to, auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices.

(c) "Computer program" means a series of coded instruction or statements in a form acceptable to a computer which causes the computer to process data and supply the results of data processing.

(d) "Data" means representations of information, knowledge, facts, concepts or instructions, including program documentation, that are prepared in a formalized manner and are stored or processed in or transmitted by a computer. Data may be in any form, including but not limited to magnetic or optical storage media, punch cards, or data stored internally in the memory of a computer.

(e) "Biological products used in or in connection with agricultural production" includes, but is not limited to, seeds, plants, and DNA of plants or animals altered for use in crop or livestock breeding or production or which are sold, intended, designed, or produced for use in crop production or livestock breeding or production.

(f) "Agricultural products" means crops and livestock.

(g) "Agricultural production" means the breeding and growing of livestock and crops.

(g-5) "Animal feed" means an article that is intended for use for food for animals other than humans and that is intended for use as a substantial source of nutrients in the diet of the animal, and is not limited to a mixture intended to be the sole ration of the animal.

(g-10) "Contagious or infectious disease" means a specific disease designated by the Illinois Department of Agriculture as contagious or infectious under rules pertaining to the Illinois Diseased Animals Act.

(g-15) "Processed food" means any food other than a raw agricultural commodity and includes any raw agricultural commodity that has been subject to processing, such as canning, cooking, freezing, dehydration, or milling.

(g-20) "Raw agricultural commodity" means any food in its raw or natural state, including all fruits that are washed, colored, or otherwise treated in their unpeeled natural form prior to marketing and honey that is in the comb or that is removed from the comb and in an unadulterated condition.

(g-25) "Endangering the food supply" means to knowingly:

(1) bring into this State any domestic animal that is affected with any contagious or infectious disease or any animal that has been exposed to any contagious or infectious disease;

(2) expose any animal in this State to any contagious or infectious disease;

(3) deliver any poultry that is infected with any contagious or infectious disease to any poultry producer pursuant to a production contract;

(4) except as permitted under the Insect Pest and Plant Disease Act, bring or release into this State any insect pest or expose any plant to an insect pest; or

(5) expose any raw agricultural commodity, animal feed, or processed food to any contaminant or contagious or infectious disease.

"Endangering the food supply" does not include bona fide experiments and actions related to those experiments carried on by commonly recognized research facilities or actions by agricultural producers and animal health professionals who may inadvertently contribute to the spread of detrimental biological agents while employing generally acceptable management practices.

(g-30) "Endangering the water supply" means to knowingly contaminate a public or private water well or water reservoir or any water supply of a public utility or tamper with the production of bottled or packaged water or tamper with bottled or packaged water at a retail or wholesale mercantile establishment. "Endangering the water supply" does not include contamination of a public or private well or water reservoir or any water supply of a public utility that may occur inadvertently as part of the operation of a public utility or electrical generating station.

(h) "Livestock" means animals bred or raised for human consumption.

(i) "Crops" means plants raised for: (1) human consumption, (2) fruits that are intended for human consumption, (3) consumption by livestock, and (4) fruits that are intended for consumption by livestock.

(j) "Communications systems" means any works, property, or material of any radio, telegraph, telephone, microwave, or cable line, station, or system.

(k) "Substantial damage" means monetary damage greater than $100,000.

(l) "Terrorist act" or "act of terrorism" means: (1) any act that is intended to cause or create a risk and does cause or create a risk of death or great bodily harm to one or more persons; (2) any act that disables or destroys the usefulness or operation of any communications system; (3) any act or any series of 2 or more acts committed in furtherance of a single intention, scheme, or design that disables or destroys the usefulness or operation of a computer network, computers, computer programs, or data used by any industry, by any class of business, or by 5 or more businesses or by the federal government, State government, any unit of local government, a public utility, a manufacturer of pharmaceuticals, a national defense contractor, or a manufacturer of chemical or biological products used in or in connection with agricultural production; (4) any act that disables or causes substantial damage to or destruction of any structure or facility used in or used in connection with ground, air, or water transportation; the production or distribution of electricity, gas, oil, or other fuel (except for acts that occur inadvertently and as the result of operation of the facility that produces or distributes electricity, gas, oil, or other fuel); the treatment of sewage or the treatment or distribution of water; or controlling the flow of any body of water; (5) any act that causes substantial damage to or destruction of livestock or to crops or a series of 2 or more acts committed in furtherance of a single intention, scheme, or design which, in the aggregate, causes substantial damage to or destruction of livestock or crops; (6) any act that causes substantial damage to or destruction of any hospital or any building or facility used by the federal government, State government, any unit of local government or by a national defense contractor or by a public utility, a manufacturer of pharmaceuticals, a manufacturer of chemical or biological products used in or in connection with agricultural production or the storage or processing of agricultural products or the preparation of agricultural products for food or food products intended for resale or for feed for livestock; (7) any act that causes substantial damage to any building containing 5 or more businesses of any type or to any building in which 10 or more people reside; (8) endangering the food supply; or (9) endangering the water supply.

(m) "Terrorist" and "terrorist organization" means any person who engages or is about to engage in a terrorist act with the intent to intimidate or coerce a significant portion of a civilian population.

(n) "Material support or resources" means currency or other financial securities, financial services, lodging, training, safe houses, false documentation or identification, communications equipment, facilities, weapons, lethal substances, explosives, personnel, transportation, any other kind of physical assets or intangible property, and expert services or expert assistance.

(o) "Person" has the meaning given in Section 2-15 of this Code and, in addition to that meaning, includes, without limitation, any charitable organization, whether incorporated or unincorporated, any professional fund raiser, professional solicitor, limited liability company, association, joint stock company, association, trust, trustee, or any group of people formally or informally affiliated or associated for a common purpose, and any officer, director, partner, member, or agent of any person.

(p) "Render criminal assistance" means to do any of the following with the intent to prevent, hinder, or delay the discovery or apprehension of, or the lodging of a criminal charge against, a person who he or she knows or believes has committed an offense under this Article or is being sought by law enforcement officials for the commission of an offense under this Article, or with the intent to assist a person in profiting or benefiting from the commission of an offense under this Article:

(1) harbor or conceal the person;

(2) warn the person of impending discovery or apprehension;

(3) provide the person with money, transportation, a weapon, a disguise, false identification documents, or any other means of avoiding discovery or apprehension;

(4) prevent or obstruct, by means of force, intimidation, or deception, anyone from performing an act that might aid in the discovery or apprehension of the person or in the lodging of a criminal charge against the person;

(5) suppress, by any act of concealment, alteration, or destruction, any physical evidence that might aid in the discovery or apprehension of the person or in the lodging of a criminal charge against the person;

(6) aid the person to protect or expeditiously profit from an advantage derived from the crime; or

(7) provide expert services or expert assistance to the person. Providing expert services or expert assistance shall not be construed to apply to: (1) a licensed attorney who discusses with a client the legal consequences of a proposed course of conduct or advises a client of legal or constitutional rights and (2) a licensed medical doctor who provides emergency medical treatment to a person whom he or she believes has committed an offense under this Article if, as soon as reasonably practicable either before or after providing such treatment, he or she notifies a law enforcement agency.

(Source: P.A. 96-1028, eff. 1-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-14.9) (was 720 ILCS 5/29D-30)

Sec. 29D-14.9. Terrorism.

(a) A person commits the offense of terrorism when, with the intent to intimidate or coerce a significant portion of a civilian population:

(1) he or she knowingly commits a terrorist act as defined in Section 29D-10(1) of this Code within this State; or

(2) he or she, while outside this State, knowingly commits a terrorist act as defined in Section 29D-10(1) of this Code that takes effect within this State or produces substantial detrimental effects within this State.

(b) Sentence. Terrorism is a Class X felony. If no deaths are caused by the terrorist act, the sentence shall be a term of 20 years to natural life imprisonment; if the terrorist act caused the death of one or more persons, however, a mandatory term of natural life imprisonment shall be the sentence if the death penalty is not imposed and the person has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense. An offender under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense shall be sentenced under Section 5-4.5-105 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 99-69, eff. 1-1-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-15)

Sec. 29D-15. (Renumbered).

(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-15.1) (was 720 ILCS 5/20.5-5)

Sec. 29D-15.1. Causing a catastrophe.

(a) A person commits the offense of causing a catastrophe if he or she knowingly causes a catastrophe by explosion, fire, flood, collapse of a building, or release of poison, radioactive material, bacteria, virus, or other dangerous and difficult to confine force or substance.

(b) As used in this Section, "catastrophe" means serious physical injury to 5 or more persons, substantial damage to 5 or more buildings or inhabitable structures, or substantial damage to a vital public facility that seriously impairs its usefulness or operation; and "vital public facility" means a facility that is necessary to ensure or protect the public health, safety, or welfare, including, but not limited to, a hospital, a law enforcement agency, a fire department, a private or public utility company, a national defense contractor, a facility of the armed forces, or an emergency services agency.

(c) Sentence. Causing a catastrophe is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-15.2) (was 720 ILCS 5/20.5-6)

Sec. 29D-15.2. Possession of a deadly substance.

(a) A person commits the offense of possession of a deadly substance when he or she possesses, manufactures, or transports any poisonous gas, deadly biological or chemical contaminant or agent, or radioactive substance either with the intent to use that gas, biological or chemical contaminant or agent, or radioactive substance to commit a felony or with the knowledge that another person intends to use that gas, biological or chemical contaminant or agent, or radioactive substance to commit a felony.

(b) Sentence. Possession of a deadly substance is a Class 1 felony for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 4 years and not more than 30 years.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-20)

Sec. 29D-20. Making a terrorist threat.

(a) A person is guilty of making a terrorist threat when, with the intent to intimidate or coerce a significant portion of a civilian population, he or she in any manner knowingly threatens to commit or threatens to cause the commission of a terrorist act as defined in Section 29D-10(1) and thereby causes a reasonable expectation or fear of the imminent commission of a terrorist act as defined in Section 29D-10(1) or of another terrorist act as defined in Section 29D-10(1).

(b) It is not a defense to a prosecution under this Section that at the time the defendant made the terrorist threat, unknown to the defendant, it was impossible to carry out the threat, nor is it a defense that the threat was not made to a person who was a subject or intended victim of the threatened act.

(c) Sentence. Making a terrorist threat is a Class X felony.

(d) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of making a terrorist threat involving a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been placed in a school to reimburse the unit of government that employs the emergency response officer or officers that were dispatched to the school for the cost of the search for a bomb or explosive device. For the purposes of this Section, "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee, or an ambulance.

(Source: P.A. 96-413, eff. 8-13-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-25)

Sec. 29D-25. Falsely making a terrorist threat.

(a) A person commits the offense of falsely making a terrorist threat when in any manner he or she knowingly makes a threat to commit or cause to be committed a terrorist act as defined in Section 29D-10(1) or otherwise knowingly creates the impression or belief that a terrorist act is about to be or has been committed, or in any manner knowingly makes a threat to commit or cause to be committed a catastrophe as defined in Section 29D-15.1 (720 ILCS 5/29D-15.1) of this Code that he or she knows is false.

(b) Sentence. Falsely making a terrorist threat is a Class 1 felony.

(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of falsely making a terrorist threat, involving a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been placed in a school in which the offender knows that such bomb or explosive device was not placed in the school, to reimburse the unit of government that employs the emergency response officer or officers that were dispatched to the school for the cost of the search for a bomb or explosive device. For the purposes of this Section, "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee, or an ambulance.

(Source: P.A. 96-413, eff. 8-13-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-29.9) (was 720 ILCS 5/29D-15)

Sec. 29D-29.9. Material support for terrorism.

(a) A person commits the offense of soliciting or providing material support for terrorism if he or she knowingly raises, solicits, collects, or provides material support or resources knowing that the material support or resources will be used, in whole or in part, to plan, prepare, carry out, facilitate, or avoid apprehension for committing terrorism as defined in Section 29D-14.9 (720 ILCS 5/29D-14.9) or causing a catastrophe as defined in Section 29D-15.1 (720 ILCS 5/29D-15.1) of this Code, or who knows and intends that the material support or resources so raised, solicited, collected, or provided will be used in the commission of a terrorist act as defined in Section 29D-10(1) of this Code by an organization designated under 8 U.S.C. 1189, as amended. It is not an element of the offense that the defendant actually knows that an organization has been designated under 8 U.S.C. 1189, as amended.

(b) Sentence. Soliciting or providing material support for terrorism is a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 9 years and no more than 40 years.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-30)

Sec. 29D-30. (Renumbered).

(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-35)

Sec. 29D-35. Hindering prosecution of terrorism.

(a) A person commits the offense of hindering prosecution of terrorism when he or she renders criminal assistance to a person who has committed terrorism as defined in Section 29D-14.9 or caused a catastrophe as defined in Section 29D-15.1 of this Code when he or she knows that the person to whom he or she rendered criminal assistance engaged in an act of terrorism or caused a catastrophe.

(b) Hindering prosecution of terrorism is a Class X felony, the sentence for which shall be a term of 20 years to natural life imprisonment if no death was caused by the act of terrorism committed by the person to whom the defendant rendered criminal assistance and a mandatory term of natural life imprisonment if death was caused by the act of terrorism committed by the person to whom the defendant rendered criminal assistance. An offender under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense shall be sentenced under Section 5-4.5-105 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 99-69, eff. 1-1-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-35.1)

Sec. 29D-35.1. Boarding or attempting to board an aircraft with weapon.

(a) It is unlawful for any person to board or attempt to board any commercial or charter aircraft, knowingly having in his or her possession any firearm, explosive of any type, or other lethal or dangerous weapon.

(b) This Section does not apply to any person authorized by either the federal government or any state government to carry firearms, but the person so exempted from the provisions of this Section shall notify the commander of any aircraft he or she is about to board that he or she does possess a firearm and show identification satisfactory to the aircraft commander that he or she is authorized to carry that firearm.

(c) Any person purchasing a ticket to board any commercial or charter aircraft shall by that purchase consent to a search of his or her person or personal belongings by the company selling the ticket to him or her. The person may refuse to submit to a search of his or her person or personal belongings by the aircraft company, but the person refusing may be denied the right to board the commercial or charter aircraft at the discretion of the carrier. Such a refusal creates no inference of unlawful conduct.

(d) Any evidence of criminal activity found during a search made pursuant to this Section shall be admissible in legal proceedings for the sole purpose of supporting a charge of violation of this Section and is inadmissible as evidence in any legal proceeding for any other purpose, except in the prosecution of offenses related to weapons as set out in Article 24 of this Code.

(e) No action may be brought against any commercial or charter airline company operating in this State for the refusal of that company to permit a person to board any aircraft if that person refused to be searched as set out in subsection (c) of this Section.

(f) Violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-40)

Sec. 29D-40. Restitution. In addition to any other penalty that may be imposed, a court shall sentence any person convicted of any violation of this Article to pay all expenses incurred by the federal government, State government, or any unit of local government in responding to any violation and cleaning up following any violation.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-45)

Sec. 29D-45. Limitations. A prosecution for any offense in this Article may be commenced at any time.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-60)

Sec. 29D-60. Injunctive relief. Whenever it appears to the Attorney General or any State's Attorney that any person is engaged in, or is about to engage in, any act that constitutes or would constitute a violation of this Article, the Attorney General or any State's Attorney may initiate a civil action in the circuit court to enjoin the violation.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-65)

Sec. 29D-65. Forfeiture of property acquired in connection with a violation of this Article; property freeze or seizure.

(a) If there is probable cause to believe that a person used, is using, is about to use, or is intending to use property in a way that would violate this Article, then that person's assets may be frozen or seized pursuant to Part 800 of Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(b) Any person who commits any offense under this Article is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. Forfeiture under this subsection may be pursued in addition to or in lieu of proceeding under Section 124B-805 (property freeze or seizure; ex parte proceeding) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-70)

Sec. 29D-70. Severability. If any clause, sentence, Section, provision, or part of this Article or the application thereof to any person or circumstance shall be adjudged to be unconstitutional, the remainder of this Article or its application to persons or circumstances other than those to which it is held invalid, shall not be affected thereby.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/Tit. III Pt. E heading) PART E. OFFENSES AFFECTING GOVERNMENTAL FUNCTIONS

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 30 heading) ARTICLE 30. TREASON AND RELATED OFFENSES

(720 ILCS 5/30-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 30-1)

Sec. 30-1. Treason.

(a) A person owing allegiance to this State commits treason when he or she knowingly:

(1) levies war against this State; or

(2) adheres to the enemies of this State, giving them aid or comfort.

(b) No person may be convicted of treason except on the testimony of 2 witnesses to the same overt act, or on his confession in open court.

(c) Sentence. Treason is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 103-51, eff. 1-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/30-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 30-2)

Sec. 30-2. Misprision of treason.

(a) A person owing allegiance to this State commits misprision of treason when he or she knowingly conceals or withholds his or her knowledge that another has committed treason against this State.

(b) Sentence.

Misprision of treason is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/30-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 30-3)

Sec. 30-3. Advocating overthrow of Government.

A person who advocates, or with knowledge of its contents knowingly publishes, sells or distributes any document which advocates or with knowledge of its purpose, knowingly becomes a member of any organization which advocates the overthrow or reformation of the existing form of government of this State by violence or unlawful means commits a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 31 heading) ARTICLE 31. INTERFERENCE WITH PUBLIC OFFICERS

(720 ILCS 5/31-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-1)

Sec. 31-1. Resisting or obstructing a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee.

(a) A person who knowingly:

(1) resists arrest, or

(2) obstructs the performance by one known to the person to be a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee of any authorized act within his or her official capacity commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(a-5) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of resisting or obstructing a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee to be sentenced to a minimum of 48 consecutive hours of imprisonment or ordered to perform community service for not less than 100 hours as may be determined by the court. The person shall not be eligible for probation in order to reduce the sentence of imprisonment or community service.

(a-7) A person convicted for a violation of this Section whose violation was the proximate cause of an injury to a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "correctional institution employee" means any person employed to supervise and control inmates incarcerated in a penitentiary, State farm, reformatory, prison, jail, house of correction, police detention area, half-way house, or other institution or place for the incarceration or custody of persons under sentence for offenses or awaiting trial or sentence for offenses, under arrest for an offense, a violation of probation, a violation of parole, a violation of aftercare release, a violation of mandatory supervised release, or awaiting a hearing or preliminary hearing on setting the conditions of pretrial release, or who are sexually dangerous persons or who are sexually violent persons; and "firefighter" means any individual, either as an employee or volunteer, of a regularly constituted fire department of a municipality or fire protection district who performs fire fighting duties, including, but not limited to, the fire chief, assistant fire chief, captain, engineer, driver, ladder person, hose person, pipe person, and any other member of a regularly constituted fire department. "Firefighter" also means a person employed by the Office of the State Fire Marshal to conduct arson investigations.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of this Section if a person resists or obstructs the performance of one known by the person to be a firefighter by returning to or remaining in a dwelling, residence, building, or other structure to rescue or to attempt to rescue any person.

(d) A person shall not be subject to arrest for resisting arrest under this Section unless there is an underlying offense for which the person was initially subject to arrest.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-1a) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-1a)

Sec. 31-1a. Disarming a peace officer or correctional institution employee.

(a) A person who, without the consent of a peace officer or correctional institution employee as defined in subsection (b) of Section 31-1, takes a weapon from a person known to him or her to be a peace officer or correctional institution employee, while the peace officer or correctional institution employee is engaged in the performance of his or her official duties or from an area within the peace officer's or correctional institution employee's immediate presence is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(b) A person who, without the consent of a peace officer or correctional institution employee as defined in subsection (b) of Section 31-1, attempts to take a weapon from a person known to him or her to be a peace officer or correctional institution employee, while the peace officer or correctional institution employee is engaged in the performance of his or her official duties or from an area within the peace officer's or correctional institution employee's immediate presence is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-348, eff. 8-12-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-3)

Sec. 31-3. Obstructing service of process.

Whoever knowingly resists or obstructs the authorized service or execution of any civil or criminal process or order of any court commits a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-4)

Sec. 31-4. Obstructing justice.

(a) A person obstructs justice when, with intent to prevent the apprehension or obstruct the prosecution or defense of any person, he or she knowingly commits any of the following acts:

(1) Destroys, alters, conceals or disguises physical evidence, plants false evidence, furnishes false information; or

(2) Induces a witness having knowledge material to the subject at issue to leave the State or conceal himself or herself; or

(3) Possessing knowledge material to the subject at issue, he or she leaves the State or conceals himself; or

(4) If a parent, legal guardian, or caretaker of a child under 13 years of age reports materially false information to a law enforcement agency, medical examiner, coroner, State's Attorney, or other governmental agency during an investigation of the disappearance or death of a child under circumstances described in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 10-10 of this Code.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Obstructing justice is a Class 4 felony, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (b).

(2) Obstructing justice in furtherance of streetgang related or gang-related activity, as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act, is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1079, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-4.5)

Sec. 31-4.5. Obstructing identification.

(a) A person commits the offense of obstructing identification when he or she intentionally or knowingly furnishes a false or fictitious name, residence address, or date of birth to a peace officer who has:

(1) lawfully arrested the person;

(2) lawfully detained the person; or

(3) requested the information from a person that the peace officer has good cause to believe is a witness to a criminal offense.

(b) Sentence. Obstructing identification is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-335, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-5)

Sec. 31-5. Concealing or aiding a fugitive.

(a) Every person not standing in the relation of husband, wife, parent, child, brother or sister to the offender, who, with intent to prevent the apprehension of the offender, conceals his knowledge that an offense has been committed or harbors, aids or conceals the offender, commits a Class 4 felony.

(b) Every person, 18 years of age or older, who, with intent to prevent the apprehension of the offender, aids or assists the offender, by some volitional act, in fleeing the municipality, county, State, country, or other defined jurisdiction in which the offender is to be arrested, charged, or prosecuted, commits a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-741, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-6)

Sec. 31-6. Escape; failure to report to a penal institution or to report for periodic imprisonment.

(a) A person convicted of a felony or charged with the commission of a felony, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, who intentionally escapes from any penal institution or from the custody of an employee of that institution commits a Class 2 felony; however, a person convicted of a felony, or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, who knowingly fails to report to a penal institution or to report for periodic imprisonment at any time or knowingly fails to return from furlough or from work and day release or who knowingly fails to abide by the terms of home confinement is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(b) A person convicted of a misdemeanor or charged with the commission of a misdemeanor, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who intentionally escapes from any penal institution or from the custody of an employee of that institution commits a Class A misdemeanor; however, a person convicted of a misdemeanor, or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who knowingly fails to report to a penal institution or to report for periodic imprisonment at any time or knowingly fails to return from furlough or from work and day release or who knowingly fails to abide by the terms of home confinement is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(b-1) A person in the custody of the Department of Human Services under the provisions of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act under a detention order, commitment order, conditional release order, or other court order who intentionally escapes from any secure residential facility or from a Department employee or any of its agents commits a Class 2 felony.

(c) A person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a felony offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, and who intentionally escapes from custody commits a Class 2 felony; however, a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a misdemeanor offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who intentionally escapes from custody commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(c-5) A person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of probation, conditional discharge, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for a felony or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, who intentionally escapes from custody is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(c-6) A person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of supervision, probation, or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who intentionally escapes from custody is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) A person who violates this Section while armed with a dangerous weapon commits a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-770, eff. 1-1-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-7)

Sec. 31-7. Aiding escape.

(a) Whoever, with intent to aid any prisoner in escaping from any penal institution, conveys into the institution or transfers to the prisoner anything for use in escaping commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) Whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a felony or charged with the commission of a felony, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, in escaping from any penal institution or from the custody of any employee of that institution commits a Class 2 felony; however, whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a felony or charged with the commission of a felony, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, in failing to return from furlough or from work and day release is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(c) Whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a misdemeanor or charged with the commission of a misdemeanor, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, in escaping from any penal institution or from the custody of an employee of that institution commits a Class A misdemeanor; however, whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a misdemeanor or charged with the commission of a misdemeanor, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, in failing to return from furlough or from work and day release is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) Whoever knowingly aids a person in escaping from any public institution, other than a penal institution, in which he is lawfully detained, or from the custody of an employee of that institution, commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) Whoever knowingly aids a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a felony offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, in escaping from custody commits a Class 2 felony; however, whoever knowingly aids a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a misdemeanor offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, in escaping from custody commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(f) An officer or employee of any penal institution who recklessly permits any prisoner in his custody to escape commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(f-5) With respect to a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of probation, conditional discharge, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for a felony, whoever intentionally aids that person to escape from that custody is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(f-6) With respect to a person who is in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of supervision, probation, or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor, whoever intentionally aids that person to escape from that custody is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(g) A person who violates this Section while armed with a dangerous weapon commits a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-8)

Sec. 31-8. Refusing to aid an officer.

Whoever upon command refuses or knowingly fails reasonably to aid a person known by him to be a peace officer in:

(a) Apprehending a person whom the officer is authorized to apprehend; or

(b) Preventing the commission by another of any offense, commits a petty offense.

(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-9)

Sec. 31-9. Obstructing an emergency management worker. A person who knowingly obstructs the performance by one known to the person to be an emergency management worker of any authorized act within his or her official capacity commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 94-243, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 31A heading) ARTICLE 31A. INTERFERENCE WITH PENAL INSTITUTION

(720 ILCS 5/31A-0.1)

Sec. 31A-0.1. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article:

"Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of an item of contraband, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

"Employee" means any elected or appointed officer, trustee or employee of a penal institution or of the governing authority of the penal institution, or any person who performs services for the penal institution pursuant to contract with the penal institution or its governing authority.

"Item of contraband" means any of the following:

(i) "Alcoholic liquor" as that term is defined in Section 1-3.05 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

(ii) "Cannabis" as that term is defined in subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(iii) "Controlled substance" as that term is defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(iii-a) "Methamphetamine" as that term is defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(iv) "Hypodermic syringe" or hypodermic needle, or any instrument adapted for use of controlled substances or cannabis by subcutaneous injection.

(v) "Weapon" means any knife, dagger, dirk, billy, razor, stiletto, broken bottle, or other piece of glass which could be used as a dangerous weapon. This term includes any of the devices or implements designated in subsections (a)(1), (a)(3) and (a)(6) of Section 24-1 of this Code, or any other dangerous weapon or instrument of like character.

(vi) "Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas, including but not limited to:

(A) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter; or

(B) any device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required as recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; or

(C) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or industrial ammunition; or

(D) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him or her incapable of normal functioning, commonly referred to as a stun gun or taser.

(vii) "Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm, including but not limited to:

(A) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; or

(B) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

(viii) "Explosive" means, but is not limited to, bomb, bombshell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes such as black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles.

(ix) "Tool to defeat security mechanisms" means, but is not limited to, handcuff or security restraint key, tool designed to pick locks, popper, or any device or instrument used to or capable of unlocking or preventing from locking any handcuff or security restraints, doors to cells, rooms, gates or other areas of the penal institution.

(x) "Cutting tool" means, but is not limited to, hacksaw blade, wirecutter, or device, instrument or file capable of cutting through metal.

(xi) "Electronic contraband" for the purposes of Section 31A-1.1 of this Article means, but is not limited to, any electronic, video recording device, computer, or cellular communications equipment, including, but not limited to, cellular telephones, cellular telephone batteries, videotape recorders, pagers, computers, and computer peripheral equipment brought into or possessed in a penal institution without the written authorization of the Chief Administrative Officer. "Electronic contraband" for the purposes of Section 31A-1.2 of this Article, means, but is not limited to, any electronic, video recording device, computer, or cellular communications equipment, including, but not limited to, cellular telephones, cellular telephone batteries, videotape recorders, pagers, computers, and computer peripheral equipment.

"Penal institution" means any penitentiary, State farm, reformatory, prison, jail, house of correction, police detention area, half-way house or other institution or place for the incarceration or custody of persons under sentence for offenses awaiting trial or sentence for offenses, under arrest for an offense, a violation of probation, a violation of parole, a violation of aftercare release, or a violation of mandatory supervised release, or awaiting a hearing on the setting of conditions of pretrial release or preliminary hearing; provided that where the place for incarceration or custody is housed within another public building this Article shall not apply to that part of the building unrelated to the incarceration or custody of persons.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/31A-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 31A-1.1)

Sec. 31A-1.1. Bringing Contraband into a Penal Institution; Possessing Contraband in a Penal Institution.

(a) A person commits bringing contraband into a penal institution when he or she knowingly and without authority of any person designated or authorized to grant this authority (1) brings an item of contraband into a penal institution or (2) causes another to bring an item of contraband into a penal institution or (3) places an item of contraband in such proximity to a penal institution as to give an inmate access to the contraband.

(b) A person commits possessing contraband in a penal institution when he or she knowingly possesses contraband in a penal institution, regardless of the intent with which he or she possesses it.

(c) (Blank).

(d) Sentence.

(1) Bringing into or possessing alcoholic liquor in a penal institution is a Class 4 felony.

(2) Bringing into or possessing cannabis in a penal institution is a Class 3 felony.

(3) Bringing into or possessing any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules III, IV or V of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act in a penal institution is a Class 2 felony.

(4) Bringing into or possessing any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules I or II of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act in a penal institution is a Class 1 felony.

(5) Bringing into or possessing a hypodermic syringe in a penal institution is a Class 1 felony.

(6) Bringing into or possessing a weapon, tool to defeat security mechanisms, cutting tool, or electronic contraband in a penal institution is a Class 1 felony.

(7) Bringing into or possessing a firearm, firearm ammunition, or explosive in a penal institution is a Class X felony.

(e) It shall be an affirmative defense to subsection (b), that the possession was specifically authorized by rule, regulation, or directive of the governing authority of the penal institution or order issued under it.

(f) It shall be an affirmative defense to subsection (a)(1) and subsection (b) that the person bringing into or possessing contraband in a penal institution had been arrested, and that person possessed the contraband at the time of his or her arrest, and that the contraband was brought into or possessed in the penal institution by that person as a direct and immediate result of his or her arrest.

(g) Items confiscated may be retained for use by the Department of Corrections or disposed of as deemed appropriate by the Chief Administrative Officer in accordance with Department rules or disposed of as required by law.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/31A-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 31A-1.2)

Sec. 31A-1.2. Unauthorized bringing of contraband into a penal institution by an employee; unauthorized possessing of contraband in a penal institution by an employee; unauthorized delivery of contraband in a penal institution by an employee.

(a) A person commits unauthorized bringing of contraband into a penal institution by an employee when a person who is an employee knowingly and without authority of any person designated or authorized to grant this authority:

(1) brings or attempts to bring an item of contraband into a penal institution, or

(2) causes or permits another to bring an item of contraband into a penal institution.

(b) A person commits unauthorized possession of contraband in a penal institution by an employee when a person who is an employee knowingly and without authority of any person designated or authorized to grant this authority possesses an item of contraband in a penal institution, regardless of the intent with which he or she possesses it.

(c) A person commits unauthorized delivery of contraband in a penal institution by an employee when a person who is an employee knowingly and without authority of any person designated or authorized to grant this authority:

(1) delivers or possesses with intent to deliver an item of contraband to any inmate of a penal institution, or

(2) conspires to deliver or solicits the delivery of an item of contraband to any inmate of a penal institution, or

(3) causes or permits the delivery of an item of contraband to any inmate of a penal institution, or

(4) permits another person to attempt to deliver an item of contraband to any inmate of a penal institution.

(d) For a violation of subsection (a) or (b) involving a cellular telephone or cellular telephone battery, the defendant must intend to provide the cellular telephone or cellular telephone battery to any inmate in a penal institution, or to use the cellular telephone or cellular telephone battery at the direction of an inmate or for the benefit of any inmate of a penal institution.

(e) Sentence.

(1) A violation of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Section involving alcohol is a Class 4 felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of this Section involving cannabis is a Class 2 felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) involving any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules III, IV or V of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act is a Class 1 felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of this Section involving any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules I or II of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act is a Class X felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) involving a hypodermic syringe is a Class X felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) involving a weapon, tool to defeat security mechanisms, cutting tool, or electronic contraband is a Class 1 felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) involving a firearm, firearm ammunition, or explosive is a Class X felony.

(2) A violation of paragraph (c) of this Section involving alcoholic liquor is a Class 3 felony. A violation of paragraph (c) involving cannabis is a Class 1 felony. A violation of paragraph (c) involving any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules III, IV or V of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act is a Class X felony. A violation of paragraph (c) involving any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules I or II of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act is a Class X felony for which the minimum term of imprisonment shall be 8 years. A violation of paragraph (c) involving a hypodermic syringe is a Class X felony for which the minimum term of imprisonment shall be 8 years. A violation of paragraph (c) involving a weapon, tool to defeat security mechanisms, cutting tool, or electronic contraband is a Class X felony for which the minimum term of imprisonment shall be 10 years. A violation of paragraph (c) involving a firearm, firearm ammunition, or explosive is a Class X felony for which the minimum term of imprisonment shall be 12 years.

(f) Items confiscated may be retained for use by the Department of Corrections or disposed of as deemed appropriate by the Chief Administrative Officer in accordance with Department rules or disposed of as required by law.

(g) For a violation of subsection (a) or (b) involving alcoholic liquor, a weapon, firearm, firearm ammunition, tool to defeat security mechanisms, cutting tool, or electronic contraband, the items shall not be considered to be in a penal institution when they are secured in an employee's locked, private motor vehicle parked on the grounds of a penal institution.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1112, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1325, eff. 7-27-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 32 heading) ARTICLE 32. INTERFERENCE WITH JUDICIAL PROCEDURE

(720 ILCS 5/32-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-1)

Sec. 32-1. Compounding a crime.

(a) A person commits compounding a crime when he or she knowingly receives or offers to another any consideration for a promise not to prosecute or aid in the prosecution of an offender.

(b) Sentence. Compounding a crime is a petty offense.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-2)

Sec. 32-2. Perjury.

(a) A person commits perjury when, under oath or affirmation, in a proceeding or in any other matter where by law the oath or affirmation is required, he or she makes a false statement, material to the issue or point in question, knowing the statement is false.

(b) Proof of Falsity.

An indictment or information for perjury alleging that the offender, under oath, has knowingly made contradictory statements, material to the issue or point in question, in the same or in different proceedings, where the oath or affirmation is required, need not specify which statement is false. At the trial, the prosecution need not establish which statement is false.

(c) Admission of Falsity.

Where the contradictory statements are made in the same continuous trial, an admission by the offender in that same continuous trial of the falsity of a contradictory statement shall bar prosecution therefor under any provisions of this Code.

(d) A person shall be exempt from prosecution under subsection (a) of this Section if he or she is a peace officer who uses a false or fictitious name in the enforcement of the criminal laws, and this use is approved in writing as provided in Section 10-1 of "The Liquor Control Act of 1934", as amended, Section 5 of "An Act in relation to the use of an assumed name in the conduct or transaction of business in this State", approved July 17, 1941, as amended, or Section 2605-200 of the Illinois State Police Law. However, this exemption shall not apply to testimony in judicial proceedings where the identity of the peace officer is material to the issue, and he or she is ordered by the court to disclose his or her identity.

(e) Sentence.

Perjury is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-3)

Sec. 32-3. Subornation of perjury.

(a) A person commits subornation of perjury when he or she knowingly procures or induces another to make a statement in violation of Section 32-2 which the person knows to be false.

(b) Sentence.

Subornation of perjury is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-4)

Sec. 32-4. Communicating with jurors and witnesses.

(a) A person who, with intent to influence any person whom he believes has been summoned as a juror, regarding any matter which is or may be brought before such juror, communicates, directly or indirectly, with such juror otherwise than as authorized by law commits a Class 4 felony.

(b) A person who, with intent to deter any party or witness from testifying freely, fully and truthfully to any matter pending in any court, or before a Grand Jury, Administrative agency or any other State or local governmental unit, forcibly detains such party or witness, or communicates, directly or indirectly, to such party or witness any knowingly false information or a threat of injury or damage to the property or person of any individual or offers or delivers or threatens to withhold money or another thing of value to any individual commits a Class 3 felony.

(c) A person who violates the Juror Protection Act commits a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 94-186, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-4a) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-4a)

Sec. 32-4a. Harassment of representatives for the child, jurors, witnesses and others.

(a) A person who, with intent to harass or annoy one who has served or is serving or who is a family member of a person who has served or is serving (1) as a juror because of the verdict returned by the jury in a pending legal proceeding or the participation of the juror in the verdict or (2) as a witness, or who may be expected to serve as a witness in a pending legal proceeding, or who was expected to serve as a witness but who did not serve as a witness because the charges against the defendant were dismissed or because the defendant pleaded guilty to the charges against him or her, because of the testimony or potential testimony of the witness or person who may be expected or may have been expected to serve as a witness, communicates directly or indirectly with the juror, witness or person who may be expected or may have been expected to serve as a witness, or family member of a juror or witness or person who may be expected or may have been expected to serve as a witness in such manner as to produce mental anguish or emotional distress or who conveys a threat of injury or damage to the property or person of any juror, witness or person who may be expected or may have been expected to serve as a witness, or family member of the juror or witness or person who may be expected or may have been expected to serve as a witness commits a Class 2 felony.

(b) A person who, with intent to harass or annoy one who has served or is serving or who is a family member of a person who has served or is serving as a representative for the child, appointed under Section 506 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or Section 2-502 of the Code of Civil Procedure, because of the representative service of that capacity, communicates directly or indirectly with the representative or a family member of the representative in such manner as to produce mental anguish or emotional distress or who conveys a threat of injury or damage to the property or person of any representative or a family member of the representative commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) For purposes of this Section, "family member" means a spouse, parent, child, stepchild or other person related by blood or by present marriage, a person who has, or allegedly has a child in common, and a person who shares or allegedly shares a blood relationship through a child.

(Source: P.A. 93-108, eff. 1-1-04; 93-818, eff. 7-27-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-4b) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-4b)

Sec. 32-4b. Bribery for excuse from jury duty.

(a) A jury commissioner or any other person acting on behalf of a jury commissioner commits bribery for excuse from jury duty, when he or she knowingly requests, solicits, suggests, or accepts financial compensation or any other form of consideration in exchange for a promise to excuse or for excusing any person from jury duty.

(b) Sentence. Bribery for excuse from jury duty is a Class 3 felony. In addition to any other penalty provided by law, a jury commissioner convicted under this Section shall forfeit the performance bond required by Section 1 of "An Act in relation to jury commissioners and authorizing judges to appoint such commissioners and to make rules concerning their powers and duties", approved June 15, 1887, as amended, and shall be excluded from further service as a jury commissioner.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-4c)

Sec. 32-4c. Witnesses; prohibition on accepting payments before judgment or verdict.

(a) A person who, after the commencement of a criminal prosecution, has been identified in the criminal discovery process as a person who may be called as a witness in a criminal proceeding shall not knowingly accept or receive, directly or indirectly, any payment or benefit in consideration for providing information obtained as a result of witnessing an event or occurrence or having personal knowledge of certain facts in relation to the criminal proceeding.

(b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor for which the court may impose a fine not to exceed 3 times the amount of compensation requested, accepted, or received.

(c) This Section remains applicable until the judgment of the court in the action if the defendant is tried by the court without a jury or the rendering of the verdict by the jury if the defendant is tried by jury in the action.

(d) This Section does not apply to any of the following circumstances:

(1) Lawful compensation paid to expert witnesses, investigators, employees, or agents by a prosecutor, law enforcement agency, or an attorney employed to represent a person in a criminal matter.

(2) Lawful compensation or benefits provided to an informant by a prosecutor or law enforcement agency.

(2.5) Lawful compensation or benefits, or both, provided to an informant under a local anti-crime program, such as Crime Stoppers, We-Tip, and similar programs designed to solve crimes or that foster the detection of crime and encourage persons through the programs and otherwise to come forward with information about criminal activity.

(2.6) Lawful compensation or benefits, or both, provided by a private individual to another private individual as a reward for information leading to the arrest and conviction of specified offenders.

(3) Lawful compensation paid to a publisher, editor, reporter, writer, or other person connected with or employed by a newspaper, magazine, television or radio station or any other publishing or media outlet for disclosing information obtained from another person relating to an offense.

(e) For purposes of this Section, "publishing or media outlet" means a news gathering organization that sells or distributes news to newspapers, television, or radio stations, or a cable or broadcast television or radio network that disseminates news and information.

(f) The person identified as a witness may receive written notice from counsel for either the prosecution or defense of the fact that he or she has been identified as a witness who may be called in a criminal proceeding and his or her responsibilities and possible penalties under this Section. This Section shall be applicable only if the witness received the written notice referred to in this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-4d)

Sec. 32-4d. Payment of jurors by parties prohibited.

(a) After a verdict has been rendered in a civil or criminal case, a person who was a plaintiff or defendant in the case may not knowingly offer or pay an award or other fee to a juror who was a member of the jury that rendered the verdict in the case.

(b) After a verdict has been rendered in a civil or criminal case, a member of the jury that rendered the verdict may not knowingly accept an award or fee from the plaintiff or defendant in that case.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) This Section does not apply to the payment of a fee or award to a person who was a juror for purposes unrelated to the jury's verdict or to the outcome of the case.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-4e)

Sec. 32-4e. Interfering with the duties of a judicial officer.

(a) A person may not give or offer to give benefits, promises, pecuniary compensation, or any other form of compensation, either directly or indirectly, to a judicial officer or a member of the judicial officer's immediate family with the intent to:

(1) induce such judicial officer to do, or fail to do, any act in violation of the lawful execution of his or her official duties; or

(2) induce such judicial officer to commit or aid in the commission of any fraud, or to collude in, allow, or make available the opportunity for the commission of any fraud on the State of Illinois.

(b) A person may not give or offer to give benefits, promises, pecuniary compensation, or any other form of compensation, either directly or indirectly, to court employees and staff with the intent to interfere with the administration of the judicial process.

(c) Sentence. A person who violates this Section commits a Class 2 felony.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Judicial officer" means a justice, judge, associate judge, or magistrate of a court of the United States of America or the State of Illinois.

"Immediate family" means a judicial officer's spouse or children.

(Source: P.A. 95-1035, eff. 6-1-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-4f)

Sec. 32-4f. Retaliating against a Judge by false claim, slander of title, or malicious recording of fictitious liens. A person who files or causes to be filed, in any public record or in any private record that is generally available to the public, any false lien or encumbrance against the real or personal property of a Supreme, Appellate, Circuit, or Associate Judge of the State of Illinois with knowledge that such lien or encumbrance is false or contains any materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or representation, and with the intent of retaliating against that Judge for the performance or non-performance of an official judicial duty, is guilty of a violation of this Section. A person is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(Source: P.A. 95-1035, eff. 6-1-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-5)

Sec. 32-5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 97-219, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-5.1)

Sec. 32-5.1. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 94-730, eff. 4-17-06. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.1-1)

Sec. 32-5.1-1. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 94-730, eff. 4-17-06. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-5.2)

Sec. 32-5.2. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.2-5)

Sec. 32-5.2-5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 94-341, eff. 1-1-06. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.3)

Sec. 32-5.3. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 88-677, eff. 12-15-94. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.4)

Sec. 32-5.4. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 94-323, eff. 1-1-06. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.4-1)

Sec. 32-5.4-1. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 94-730, eff. 4-17-06. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.5)

Sec. 32-5.5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 94-730, eff. 4-17-06. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.6)

Sec. 32-5.6. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 94-323, eff. 1-1-06. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.7)

Sec. 32-5.7. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 94-323, eff. 1-1-06. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-6)

Sec. 32-6. Performance of unauthorized acts.

A person who performs any of the following acts, knowing that his performance is not authorized by law, commits a Class 4 felony:

(a) Conducts a marriage ceremony; or

(b) Acknowledges the execution of any document which by law may be recorded; or

(c) Becomes a surety for any party in any civil or criminal proceeding, before any court or public officer authorized to accept such surety.

(Source: P.A. 77-2638)

(720 ILCS 5/32-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-7)

Sec. 32-7. Simulating legal process.

(a) A person commits simulating legal process when he or she issues or delivers any document which he or she knows falsely purports to be or simulates any civil or criminal process.

(b) Sentence. Simulating legal process is a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-8)

Sec. 32-8. Tampering with public records.

(a) A person commits tampering with public records when he or she knowingly, without lawful authority, and with the intent to defraud any party, public officer or entity, alters, destroys, defaces, removes or conceals any public record.

(b) (Blank).

(c) A judge, circuit clerk or clerk of court, public official or employee, court reporter, or other person commits tampering with public records when he or she knowingly, without lawful authority, and with the intent to defraud any party, public officer or entity, alters, destroys, defaces, removes, or conceals any public record received or held by any judge or by a clerk of any court.

(c-5) "Public record" expressly includes, but is not limited to, court records, or documents, evidence, or exhibits filed with the clerk of the court and which have become a part of the official court record, pertaining to any civil or criminal proceeding in any court.

(d) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subsection (c) is a Class 3 felony. Any person convicted under subsection (c) who at the time of the violation was responsible for making, keeping, storing, or reporting the record for which the tampering occurred:

(1) shall forfeit his or her public office or public employment, if any, and shall thereafter be ineligible for both State and local public office and public employment in this State for a period of 5 years after completion of any term of probation, conditional discharge, or incarceration in a penitentiary including the period of mandatory supervised release;

(2) shall forfeit all retirement, pension, and other benefits arising out of public office or public employment as may be determined by the court in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Illinois Pension Code;

(3) shall be subject to termination of any professional licensure or registration in this State as may be determined by the court in accordance with the provisions of the applicable professional licensing or registration laws;

(4) may be ordered by the court, after a hearing in accordance with applicable law and in addition to any other penalty or fine imposed by the court, to forfeit to the State an amount equal to any financial gain or the value of any advantage realized by the person as a result of the offense; and

(5) may be ordered by the court, after a hearing in accordance with applicable law and in addition to any other penalty or fine imposed by the court, to pay restitution to the victim in an amount equal to any financial loss or the value of any advantage lost by the victim as a result of the offense.

For the purposes of this subsection (d), an offense under subsection (c) committed by a person holding public office or public employment shall be rebuttably presumed to relate to or arise out of or in connection with that public office or public employment.

(e) Any party litigant who believes a violation of this Section has occurred may seek the restoration of the court record as provided in the Court Records Restoration Act. Any order of the court denying the restoration of the court record may be appealed as any other civil judgment.

(f) When the sheriff or local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction declines to investigate, or inadequately investigates, the court or any interested party, shall notify the Illinois State Police of a suspected violation of subsection (a) or (c), who shall have the authority to investigate, and may investigate, the same, without regard to whether the local law enforcement agency has requested the Illinois State Police to do so.

(g) If the State's Attorney having jurisdiction declines to prosecute a violation of subsection (a) or (c), the court or interested party shall notify the Attorney General of the refusal. The Attorney General shall, thereafter, have the authority to prosecute, and may prosecute, the violation, without a referral from the State's Attorney.

(h) Prosecution of a violation of subsection (c) shall be commenced within 3 years after the act constituting the violation is discovered or reasonably should have been discovered.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-8.1)

Sec. 32-8.1. Tampering with a certification by a public official.

(a) A person commits tampering with a certification by a public official when he or she knowingly, without lawful authority, and with the intent to defraud any individual, entity, public officer, or governmental unit, uses a certification or part of a certification by a public official, including but not limited to an apostille, the "great seal of the State of Illinois", or other similar certification, in connection with any document he or she knows or reasonably should know is not the original document for which the public official originally issued the certification.

(b) Sentence. Tampering with a certification by a public official is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(Source: P.A. 98-170, eff. 8-5-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-9)

Sec. 32-9. Tampering with public notice.

(a) A person commits tampering with public notice when he or she knowingly and without lawful authority alters, destroys, defaces, removes or conceals any public notice, posted according to law, during the time for which the notice was to remain posted.

(b) Sentence. Tampering with public notice is a petty offense.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-10)

Sec. 32-10. Violation of conditions of pretrial release.

(a) (Blank).

(a-5) Any person who knowingly violates a condition of pretrial release by possessing a firearm in violation of his or her conditions of pretrial release commits a Class 4 felony for a first violation and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(b) Whoever, having been released pretrial under conditions for appearance before any court of this State, while charged with a criminal offense in which the victim is a family or household member as defined in Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, knowingly violates a condition of that release as set forth in Section 110-10, subsection (d) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) Whoever, having been released pretrial for appearance before any court of this State for a felony, Class A misdemeanor or a criminal offense in which the victim is a family or household member as defined in Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, is charged with any other felony, Class A misdemeanor, or a criminal offense in which the victim is a family or household member as defined in Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 while on this release, must appear before the court and may not be released by law enforcement under 109-1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 prior to the court appearance.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall interfere with or prevent the exercise by any court of its power to punish for contempt. Any sentence imposed for violation of this Section may be served consecutive to the sentence imposed for the charge for which pretrial release had been granted and with respect to which the defendant has been convicted.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1104, eff. 1-1-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-11)

Sec. 32-11. Barratry. If a person wickedly and willfully excites and stirs up actions or quarrels between the people of this State with a view to promote strife and contention, he or she is guilty of the petty offense of common barratry; and if he or she is an attorney at law, he or she shall be suspended from the practice of his or her profession, for any time not exceeding 6 months.

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-12)

Sec. 32-12. Maintenance. If a person officiously intermeddles in an action that in no way belongs to or concerns that person, by maintaining or assisting either party, with money or otherwise, to prosecute or defend the action, with a view to promote litigation, he or she is guilty of maintenance and upon conviction shall be fined and punished as in cases of common barratry. It is not maintenance for a person to maintain the action of his or her relative or servant, or a poor person out of charity.

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-13)

Sec. 32-13. Unlawful clouding of title.

(a) Any person who intentionally records or files or causes to be recorded or filed any document in the office of the recorder or registrar of titles of any county of this State that is a cloud on the title of land in this State, knowing that the theory upon which the purported cloud on title is based is not recognized as a legitimate legal theory by the courts of this State or of the United States, commits the offense of unlawful clouding of title.

(b) Unlawful clouding of title is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense if the cloud on the title has a value that does not exceed $10,000. Unlawful clouding of title is a Class 4 felony if the cloud on the title has a value that exceeds $10,000, or for a second or subsequent offense.

(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of a violation of this Section, or placed on supervision for a violation of this Section, to execute a release of the purported cloud on title as may be requested by or on behalf of any person whose property is encumbered or potentially encumbered by the document filed. Irrespective of whether or not a person charged under this Section is convicted of the offense of unlawful clouding of title, when the evidence demonstrates that, as a matter of law, the cloud on title is not a type of cloud recognized or authorized by the courts of this State or the United States, the court shall forthwith direct the recorder or registrar of titles to expunge the cloud.

(c-5) This Section does not apply to an attorney licensed to practice law in this State who in good faith files a lien on behalf of his or her client and who in good faith believes that the validity of the lien is supported by statutory law, by a decision of a court of law, or by a good faith argument for an extension, modification, or reversal of existing court decisions relating to the validity of the lien.

(d) For purposes of this Section, "cloud on title" or "cloud on the title" means an outstanding claim or encumbrance that, if valid, would affect or impair the title of the owner of an estate in land and on its face has that effect, but can be shown by extrinsic proof to be invalid or inapplicable to that estate.

(Source: P.A. 98-98, eff. 1-1-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-14)

Sec. 32-14. Unlawful manipulation of a judicial sale.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful manipulation of a judicial sale when he or she knowingly and by any means makes any contract with or engages in any combination or conspiracy with any other person who is, or but for a prior agreement is, a competitor of such person for the purpose of or with the effect of fixing, controlling, limiting, or otherwise manipulating (1) the participation of any person in, or (2) the making of bids, at any judicial sale.

(b) Penalties. Unlawful manipulation of a judicial sale is a Class 3 felony. A mandatory fine shall be imposed for a violation, not to exceed $1,000,000 if the violator is a corporation, or, if the violator is any other person, $100,000. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 2 felony.

(c) Injunctive and other relief. The State's Attorney shall bring suit in the circuit court to prevent and restrain violations of subsection (a). In such a proceeding, the court shall determine whether a violation has been committed, and shall enter such judgment as it considers necessary to remove the effects of any violation which it finds, and to prevent such violation from continuing or from being renewed in the future. The court, in its discretion, may exercise all powers necessary for this purpose, including, but not limited to, injunction and divestiture of property.

(d) Private right of action. Any person who has been injured by a violation of subsection (a) may maintain an action in the Circuit Court for damages, or for an injunction, or both, against any person who has committed such violation. If, in an action for an injunction, the court issues an injunction, the plaintiff shall be awarded costs and reasonable attorney's fees. In an action for damages, the person injured shall be awarded 3 times the amount of actual damages. This State, counties, municipalities, townships, and any political subdivision organized under the authority of this State, and the United States, are considered a person having standing to bring an action under this subsection. Any action for damages under this subsection is forever barred unless commenced within 4 years after the cause of action accrued. In any action for damages under this subsection, the court may, in its discretion, award reasonable fees to the prevailing defendant upon a finding that the plaintiff acted in bad faith, vexatiously, wantonly, or for oppressive reasons.

(e) Exclusion from subsequent judicial sales. Any person convicted of a violation of subsection (a) or any similar offense of any state or the United States shall be barred for 5 years from the date of conviction from participating as a bidding entity in any judicial sale. No corporation shall be barred from participating in a judicial sale as a result of a conviction under subsection (a) of any employee or agent of such corporation if the employee so convicted is no longer employed by the corporation and: (1) it has been finally adjudicated not guilty or (2) it demonstrates to the circuit court conducting such judicial sale and the court so finds that the commission of the offense was neither authorized, requested, commanded, nor performed by a director, officer or a high managerial agent in behalf of the corporation as provided in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 5-4 of this Code.

(f) Definitions. As used in this Section, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Judicial sale" means any sale of real or personal property in accordance with a court order, including, but not limited to, judicial sales conducted pursuant to Section 15-1507 of the Code of Civil Procedure, sales ordered to satisfy judgments under Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure, and enforcements of delinquent property taxes under Article 21 of the Property Tax Code.

"Person" means any natural person, or any corporation, partnership, or association of persons.

(Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-15)

Sec. 32-15. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23. Repealed by P.A. 102-1104, eff. 1-1-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 33 heading) ARTICLE 33. OFFICIAL MISCONDUCT

(720 ILCS 5/33-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 33-1)

Sec. 33-1. Bribery. A person commits bribery when:

(a) With intent to influence the performance of any act related to the employment or function of any public officer, public employee, juror or witness, he or she promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which he or she is not authorized by law to accept; or

(b) With intent to influence the performance of any act related to the employment or function of any public officer, public employee, juror or witness, he or she promises or tenders to one whom he or she believes to be a public officer, public employee, juror or witness, any property or personal advantage which a public officer, public employee, juror or witness would not be authorized by law to accept; or

(c) With intent to cause any person to influence the performance of any act related to the employment or function of any public officer, public employee, juror or witness, he or she promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which he or she is not authorized by law to accept; or

(d) He or she receives, retains or agrees to accept any property or personal advantage which he or she is not authorized by law to accept knowing that the property or personal advantage was promised or tendered with intent to cause him or her to influence the performance of any act related to the employment or function of any public officer, public employee, juror or witness; or

(e) He or she solicits, receives, retains, or agrees to accept any property or personal advantage pursuant to an understanding that he or she shall improperly influence or attempt to influence the performance of any act related to the employment or function of any public officer, public employee, juror or witness.

As used in this Section, "tenders" means any delivery or proffer made with the requisite intent.

Sentence. Bribery is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 33-2)

Sec. 33-2. Failure to report a bribe. Any public officer, public employee or juror who fails to report forthwith to the local State's Attorney, or in the case of a State employee to the Illinois State Police, any offer made to him in violation of Section 33-1 commits a Class A misdemeanor.

In the case of a State employee, the making of such report to the Illinois State Police shall discharge such employee from any further duty under this Section. Upon receiving any such report, the Illinois State Police shall forthwith transmit a copy thereof to the appropriate State's Attorney.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 33-3)

Sec. 33-3. Official misconduct.

(a) A public officer or employee or special government agent commits misconduct when, in his official capacity or capacity as a special government agent, he or she commits any of the following acts:

(1) Intentionally or recklessly fails to perform any mandatory duty as required by law; or

(2) Knowingly performs an act which he knows he is forbidden by law to perform; or

(3) With intent to obtain a personal advantage for himself or another, he performs an act in excess of his lawful authority; or

(4) Solicits or knowingly accepts for the performance of any act a fee or reward which he knows is not authorized by law.

(b) An employee of a law enforcement agency commits misconduct when he or she knowingly uses or communicates, directly or indirectly, information acquired in the course of employment, with the intent to obstruct, impede, or prevent the investigation, apprehension, or prosecution of any criminal offense or person. Nothing in this subsection (b) shall be construed to impose liability for communicating to a confidential resource, who is participating or aiding law enforcement, in an ongoing investigation.

(c) A public officer or employee or special government agent convicted of violating any provision of this Section forfeits his or her office or employment or position as a special government agent. In addition, he or she commits a Class 3 felony.

(d) For purposes of this Section:

"Special government agent" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (l) of Section 4A-101 of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-3.1)

Sec. 33-3.1. Solicitation misconduct (State government).

(a) An employee of an executive branch constitutional officer commits solicitation misconduct (State government) when, at any time, he or she knowingly solicits or receives contributions, as that term is defined in Section 9-1.4 of the Election Code, from a person engaged in a business or activity over which the person has regulatory authority.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, "employee of an executive branch constitutional officer" means a full-time or part-time salaried employee, full-time or part-time salaried appointee, or any contractual employee of any office, board, commission, agency, department, authority, administrative unit, or corporate outgrowth under the jurisdiction of an executive branch constitutional officer; and "regulatory authority" means having the responsibility to investigate, inspect, license, or enforce regulatory measures necessary to the requirements of any State or federal statute or regulation relating to the business or activity.

(c) An employee of an executive branch constitutional officer, including one who does not have regulatory authority, commits a violation of this Section if that employee knowingly acts in concert with an employee of an executive branch constitutional officer who does have regulatory authority to solicit or receive contributions in violation of this Section.

(d) Solicitation misconduct (State government) is a Class A misdemeanor. An employee of an executive branch constitutional officer convicted of committing solicitation misconduct (State government) forfeits his or her employment.

(e) An employee of an executive branch constitutional officer who is discharged, demoted, suspended, threatened, harassed, or in any other manner discriminated against in the terms and conditions of employment because of lawful acts done by the employee or on behalf of the employee or others in furtherance of the enforcement of this Section shall be entitled to all relief necessary to make the employee whole.

(f) Any person who knowingly makes a false report of solicitation misconduct (State government) to the Illinois State Police, the Attorney General, a State's Attorney, or any law enforcement official is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-3.2)

Sec. 33-3.2. Solicitation misconduct (local government).

(a) An employee of a chief executive officer of a local government commits solicitation misconduct (local government) when, at any time, he or she knowingly solicits or receives contributions, as that term is defined in Section 9-1.4 of the Election Code, from a person engaged in a business or activity over which the person has regulatory authority.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, "chief executive officer of a local government" means an executive officer of a county, township or municipal government or any administrative subdivision under jurisdiction of the county, township, or municipal government including but not limited to: chairman or president of a county board or commission, mayor or village president, township supervisor, county executive, municipal manager, assessor, auditor, clerk, coroner, recorder, sheriff or State's Attorney; "employee of a chief executive officer of a local government" means a full-time or part-time salaried employee, full-time or part-time salaried appointee, or any contractual employee of any office, board, commission, agency, department, authority, administrative unit, or corporate outgrowth under the jurisdiction of a chief executive officer of a local government; and "regulatory authority" means having the responsibility to investigate, inspect, license, or enforce regulatory measures necessary to the requirements of any State, local, or federal statute or regulation relating to the business or activity.

(c) An employee of a chief executive officer of a local government, including one who does not have regulatory authority, commits a violation of this Section if that employee knowingly acts in concert with an employee of a chief executive officer of a local government who does have regulatory authority to solicit or receive contributions in violation of this Section.

(d) Solicitation misconduct (local government) is a Class A misdemeanor. An employee of a chief executive officer of a local government convicted of committing solicitation misconduct (local government) forfeits his or her employment.

(e) An employee of a chief executive officer of a local government who is discharged, demoted, suspended, threatened, harassed, or in any other manner discriminated against in the terms and conditions of employment because of lawful acts done by the employee or on behalf of the employee or others in furtherance of the enforcement of this Section shall be entitled to all relief necessary to make the employee whole.

(f) Any person who knowingly makes a false report of solicitation misconduct (local government) to the Illinois State Police, the Attorney General, a State's Attorney, or any law enforcement official is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-4)

Sec. 33-4. Peace officer or correctional officer; gang-related activity prohibited.

(a) It is unlawful for a peace officer or correctional officer to knowingly commit any act in furtherance of gang-related activities, except when acting in furtherance of an undercover law enforcement investigation.

(b) In this Section, "gang-related" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 90-131, eff. 1-1-98.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-5)

Sec. 33-5. Preservation of evidence.

(a) It is unlawful for a law enforcement agency or an agent acting on behalf of the law enforcement agency to intentionally fail to comply with the provisions of subsection (a) of Section 116-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(b) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(c) For purposes of this Section, "law enforcement agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (e) of Section 116-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 91-871, eff. 1-1-01; 92-459, eff. 8-22-01.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-6)

Sec. 33-6. Bribery to obtain driving privileges.

(a) A person commits the offense of bribery to obtain driving privileges when:

(1) with intent to influence any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit by an employee of the Illinois Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Illinois Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, he or she promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which that person is not authorized by law to accept; or

(2) with intent to cause any person to influence any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit by an employee of the Illinois Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Illinois Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, he or she promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which that person is not authorized by law to accept; or

(3) as an employee of the Illinois Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Illinois Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, solicits, receives, retains, or agrees to accept any property or personal advantage that he or she is not authorized by law to accept knowing that such property or personal advantage was promised or tendered with intent to influence the performance of any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit; or

(4) as an employee of the Illinois Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Illinois Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, solicits, receives, retains, or agrees to accept any property or personal advantage pursuant to an understanding that he or she shall improperly influence or attempt to influence the performance of any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit.

(b) Sentence. Bribery to obtain driving privileges is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-740, eff. 1-1-10; 96-962, eff. 7-2-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-7)

Sec. 33-7. Public contractor misconduct.

(a) A public contractor; a person seeking a public contract on behalf of himself, herself, or another; an employee of a public contractor; or a person seeking a public contract on behalf of himself, herself, or another commits public contractor misconduct when, in the performance of, or in connection with, a contract with the State, a unit of local government, or a school district or in obtaining or seeking to obtain such a contract he or she commits any of the following acts:

(1) intentionally or knowingly makes, uses, or causes to be made or used a false record or statement to conceal, avoid, or decrease an obligation to pay or transmit money or property;

(2) knowingly performs an act that he or she knows he or she is forbidden by law to perform;

(3) with intent to obtain a personal advantage for himself, herself, or another, he or she performs an act in excess of his or her contractual responsibility;

(4) solicits or knowingly accepts for the performance of any act a fee or reward that he or she knows is not authorized by law; or

(5) knowingly or intentionally seeks or receives compensation or reimbursement for goods and services he or she purported to deliver or render, but failed to do so pursuant to the terms of the contract, to the unit of State or local government or school district.

(b) Sentence. Any person who violates this Section commits a Class 3 felony. Any person convicted of this offense or a similar offense in any state of the United States which contains the same elements of this offense shall be barred for 10 years from the date of conviction from contracting with, employment by, or holding public office with the State or any unit of local government or school district. No corporation shall be barred as a result of a conviction under this Section of any employee or agent of such corporation if the employee so convicted is no longer employed by the corporation and (1) it has been finally adjudicated not guilty or (2) it demonstrates to the government entity with which it seeks to contract, and that entity finds, that the commission of the offense was neither authorized, requested, commanded, nor performed by a director, officer or high managerial agent on behalf of the corporation as provided in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 5-4 of this Code.

(c) The Attorney General or the State's Attorney in the county where the principal office of the unit of local government or school district is located may bring a civil action on behalf of any unit of State or local government to recover a civil penalty from any person who knowingly engages in conduct which violates subsection (a) of this Section in treble the amount of the monetary cost to the unit of State or local government or school district involved in the violation. The Attorney General or State's Attorney shall be entitled to recover reasonable attorney's fees as part of the costs assessed to the defendant. This subsection (c) shall in no way limit the ability of any unit of State or local government or school district to recover moneys or damages regarding public contracts under any other law or ordinance. A civil action shall be barred unless the action is commenced within 6 years after the later of (1) the date on which the conduct establishing the cause of action occurred or (2) the date on which the unit of State or local government or school district knew or should have known that the conduct establishing the cause of action occurred.

(d) This amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall not be construed to create a private right of action.

(Source: P.A. 96-575, eff. 8-18-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-8)

Sec. 33-8. Legislative misconduct.

(a) A member of the General Assembly commits legislative misconduct when he or she knowingly accepts or receives, directly or indirectly, any money or other valuable thing, from any corporation, company or person, for any vote or influence he or she may give or withhold on any bill, resolution or appropriation, or for any other official act.

(b) Sentence. Legislative misconduct is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-9)

Sec. 33-9. Law enforcement misconduct.

(a) A law enforcement officer or a person acting under color of law commits law enforcement misconduct when, in the performance of his or her official duties with intent to prevent the apprehension or obstruct the prosecution or defense of any person, he or she:

(1) knowingly and intentionally misrepresents or fails to provide material facts describing an incident in any report or during any investigations regarding the law enforcement employee's conduct;

(2) knowingly and intentionally withholds any knowledge of the material misrepresentations of another law enforcement officer from the law enforcement employee's supervisor, investigator, or other person or entity tasked with holding the law enforcement officer accountable; or

(3) knowingly and intentionally fails to comply with paragraphs (3), (5), (6), and (7) of subsection (a) of Section 10-20 of the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act.

(b) Sentence. Law enforcement misconduct is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/Tit. III Pt. F heading) PART F. CERTAIN AGGRAVATED OFFENSES

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 33A heading) ARTICLE 33A. ARMED VIOLENCE

(720 ILCS 5/33A-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 33A-1)

Sec. 33A-1. Legislative intent and definitions.

(a) Legislative findings. The legislature finds and declares the following:

(1) The use of a dangerous weapon in the commission of a felony offense poses a much greater threat to the public health, safety, and general welfare, than when a weapon is not used in the commission of the offense.

(2) Further, the use of a firearm greatly facilitates the commission of a criminal offense because of the more lethal nature of a firearm and the greater perceived threat produced in those confronted by a person wielding a firearm. Unlike other dangerous weapons such as knives and clubs, the use of a firearm in the commission of a criminal felony offense significantly escalates the threat and the potential for bodily harm, and the greater range of the firearm increases the potential for harm to more persons. Not only are the victims and bystanders at greater risk when a firearm is used, but also the law enforcement officers whose duty is to confront and apprehend the armed suspect.

(3) Current law does contain offenses involving the use or discharge of a gun toward or against a person, such as aggravated battery with a firearm, aggravated discharge of a firearm, and reckless discharge of a firearm; however, the General Assembly has legislated greater penalties for the commission of a felony while in possession of a firearm because it deems such acts as more serious.

(b) Legislative intent.

(1) In order to deter the use of firearms in the commission of a felony offense, the General Assembly deems it appropriate for a greater penalty to be imposed when a firearm is used or discharged in the commission of an offense than the penalty imposed for using other types of weapons and for the penalty to increase on more serious offenses.

(2) With the additional elements of the discharge of a firearm and great bodily harm inflicted by a firearm being added to armed violence and other serious felony offenses, it is the intent of the General Assembly to punish those elements more severely during commission of a felony offense than when those elements stand alone as the act of the offender.

(3) It is the intent of the 91st General Assembly that should Public Act 88-680 be declared unconstitutional for a violation of Article 4, Section 8 of the 1970 Constitution of the State of Illinois, the amendatory changes made by Public Act 88-680 to Article 33A of the Criminal Code of 1961 and which are set forth as law in this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly are hereby reenacted by this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly.

(c) Definitions.

(1) "Armed with a dangerous weapon". A person is considered armed with a dangerous weapon for purposes of this Article, when he or she carries on or about his or her person or is otherwise armed with a Category I, Category II, or Category III weapon.

(2) A Category I weapon is a handgun, sawed-off shotgun, sawed-off rifle, any other firearm small enough to be concealed upon the person, semiautomatic firearm, or machine gun. A Category II weapon is any other rifle, shotgun, spring gun, other firearm, stun gun or taser as defined in paragraph (a) of Section 24-1 of this Code, knife with a blade of at least 3 inches in length, dagger, dirk, switchblade knife, stiletto, axe, hatchet, or other deadly or dangerous weapon or instrument of like character. As used in this subsection (b) "semiautomatic firearm" means a repeating firearm that utilizes a portion of the energy of a firing cartridge to extract the fired cartridge case and chamber the next round and that requires a separate pull of the trigger to fire each cartridge.

(3) A Category III weapon is a bludgeon, black-jack, slungshot, sand-bag, sand-club, metal knuckles, billy, or other dangerous weapon of like character.

(Source: P.A. 91-404, eff. 1-1-00; 91-696, eff. 4-13-00.)

(720 ILCS 5/33A-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 33A-2)

Sec. 33A-2. Armed violence-Elements of the offense.

(a) A person commits armed violence when, while armed with a dangerous weapon, he commits any felony defined by Illinois Law, except first degree murder, attempted first degree murder, intentional homicide of an unborn child, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, reckless homicide, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, home invasion, or any offense that makes the possession or use of a dangerous weapon either an element of the base offense, an aggravated or enhanced version of the offense, or a mandatory sentencing factor that increases the sentencing range.

(b) A person commits armed violence when he or she personally discharges a firearm that is a Category I or Category II weapon while committing any felony defined by Illinois law, except first degree murder, attempted first degree murder, intentional homicide of an unborn child, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, reckless homicide, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, home invasion, or any offense that makes the possession or use of a dangerous weapon either an element of the base offense, an aggravated or enhanced version of the offense, or a mandatory sentencing factor that increases the sentencing range.

(c) A person commits armed violence when he or she personally discharges a firearm that is a Category I or Category II weapon that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, or permanent disfigurement or death to another person while committing any felony defined by Illinois law, except first degree murder, attempted first degree murder, intentional homicide of an unborn child, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, reckless homicide, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, home invasion, or any offense that makes the possession or use of a dangerous weapon either an element of the base offense, an aggravated or enhanced version of the offense, or a mandatory sentencing factor that increases the sentencing range.

(d) This Section does not apply to violations of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code or the Wildlife Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-688, eff. 10-23-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/33A-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 33A-3)

Sec. 33A-3. Sentence.

(a) Violation of Section 33A-2(a) with a Category I weapon is a Class X felony for which the defendant shall be sentenced to a minimum term of imprisonment of 15 years.

(a-5) Violation of Section 33A-2(a) with a Category II weapon is a Class X felony for which the defendant shall be sentenced to a minimum term of imprisonment of 10 years.

(b) Violation of Section 33A-2(a) with a Category III weapon is a Class 2 felony or the felony classification provided for the same act while unarmed, whichever permits the greater penalty. A second or subsequent violation of Section 33A-2(a) with a Category III weapon is a Class 1 felony or the felony classification provided for the same act while unarmed, whichever permits the greater penalty.

(b-5) Violation of Section 33A-2(b) with a firearm that is a Category I or Category II weapon is a Class X felony for which the defendant shall be sentenced to a minimum term of imprisonment of 20 years.

(b-10) Violation of Section 33A-2(c) with a firearm that is a Category I or Category II weapon is a Class X felony for which the defendant shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 25 years nor more than 40 years.

(c) Unless sentencing under subsection (a) of Section 5-4.5-95 of the Unified Code of Corrections (730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-95) is applicable, any person who violates subsection (a) or (b) of Section 33A-2 with a firearm, when that person has been convicted in any state or federal court of 3 or more of the following offenses: treason, first degree murder, second degree murder, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, robbery, burglary, arson, kidnaping, aggravated battery resulting in great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or a violation of Section 401(a) of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, when the third offense was committed after conviction on the second, the second offense was committed after conviction on the first, and the violation of Section 33A-2 was committed after conviction on the third, shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 25 years nor more than 50 years.

(c-5) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b-10) or (c) of this Section, a person who violates Section 33A-2(a) with a firearm that is a Category I weapon or Section 33A-2(b) in any school, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or on the real property comprising any school or public park, and where the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang, shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than the term set forth in subsection (a) or (b-5) of this Section, whichever is applicable, and not more than 30 years. For the purposes of this subsection (c-5), "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(d) For armed violence based upon a predicate offense listed in this subsection (d) the court shall enter the sentence for armed violence to run consecutively to the sentence imposed for the predicate offense. The offenses covered by this provision are:

(i) solicitation of murder,

(ii) solicitation of murder for hire,

(iii) heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05,

(iv) aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05,

(v) (blank),

(vi) a violation of subsection (g) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act,

(vii) cannabis trafficking,

(viii) a violation of subsection (a) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act,

(ix) controlled substance trafficking involving a Class X felony amount of controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act,

(x) calculated criminal drug conspiracy,

(xi) streetgang criminal drug conspiracy, or

(xii) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-688, eff. 10-23-07; 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 33B heading) ARTICLE 33B. MANDATORY LIFE SENTENCE A THIRD OR SUBSEQUENT FORCIBLE OFFENSE (Repealed)(Source: Repealed by P.A. 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 33C heading) ARTICLE 33C. DECEPTION RELATING TO CERTIFICATION OF DISADVANTAGED BUSINESS ENTERPRISES (Repealed)(Article repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 33D heading) ARTICLE 33D. CONTRIBUTING TO THE CRIMINAL DELINQUENCY OF A JUVENILE (Repealed)(Source: P.A. 85-906. Repealed by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33D-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 33D-1)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-30 by P.A. 97-1109.)

Sec. 33D-1. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 91-337, eff. 1-1-00. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 33E heading) ARTICLE 33E. PUBLIC CONTRACTS

(720 ILCS 5/33E-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-1)

Sec. 33E-1. Interference with public contracting. It is the finding of the General Assembly that the cost to the public is increased and the quality of goods, services and construction paid for by public monies is decreased when contracts for such goods, services or construction are obtained by any means other than through independent noncollusive submission of bids or offers by individual contractors or suppliers, and the evaluation of those bids or offers by the governmental unit pursuant only to criteria publicly announced in advance.

(Source: P.A. 85-1295.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-2)

Sec. 33E-2. Definitions. In this Act:

(a) "Public contract" means any contract for goods, services or construction let to any person with or without bid by any unit of State or local government.

(b) "Unit of State or local government" means the State, any unit of state government or agency thereof, any county or municipal government or committee or agency thereof, or any other entity which is funded by or expends tax dollars or the proceeds of publicly guaranteed bonds.

(c) "Change order" means a change in a contract term other than as specifically provided for in the contract which authorizes or necessitates any increase or decrease in the cost of the contract or the time to completion.

(d) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, joint venture or other entity, but does not include a unit of State or local government.

(e) "Person employed by any unit of State or local government" means any employee of a unit of State or local government and any person defined in subsection (d) who is authorized by such unit of State or local government to act on its behalf in relation to any public contract.

(f) "Sheltered market" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 8b of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act; except that, with respect to State contracts set aside for award to service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses and veteran-owned small businesses pursuant to Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code, "sheltered market" means procurements pursuant to that Section.

(g) "Kickback" means any money, fee, commission, credit, gift, gratuity, thing of value, or compensation of any kind which is provided, directly or indirectly, to any prime contractor, prime contractor employee, subcontractor, or subcontractor employee for the purpose of improperly obtaining or rewarding favorable treatment in connection with a prime contract or in connection with a subcontract relating to a prime contract.

(h) "Prime contractor" means any person who has entered into a public contract.

(i) "Prime contractor employee" means any officer, partner, employee, or agent of a prime contractor.

(i-5) "Stringing" means knowingly structuring a contract or job order to avoid the contract or job order being subject to competitive bidding requirements.

(j) "Subcontract" means a contract or contractual action entered into by a prime contractor or subcontractor for the purpose of obtaining goods or services of any kind under a prime contract.

(k) "Subcontractor" (1) means any person, other than the prime contractor, who offers to furnish or furnishes any goods or services of any kind under a prime contract or a subcontract entered into in connection with such prime contract; and (2) includes any person who offers to furnish or furnishes goods or services to the prime contractor or a higher tier subcontractor.

(l) "Subcontractor employee" means any officer, partner, employee, or agent of a subcontractor.

(Source: P.A. 100-391, eff. 8-25-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-3)

Sec. 33E-3. Bid-rigging. A person commits the offense of bid-rigging when he knowingly agrees with any person who is, or but for such agreement would be, a competitor of such person concerning any bid submitted or not submitted by such person or another to a unit of State or local government when with the intent that the bid submitted or not submitted will result in the award of a contract to such person or another and he either (1) provides such person or receives from another information concerning the price or other material term or terms of the bid which would otherwise not be disclosed to a competitor in an independent noncollusive submission of bids or (2) submits a bid that is of such a price or other material term or terms that he does not intend the bid to be accepted.

Bid-rigging is a Class 3 felony. Any person convicted of this offense or any similar offense of any state or the United States which contains the same elements as this offense shall be barred for 5 years from the date of conviction from contracting with any unit of State or local government. No corporation shall be barred from contracting with any unit of State or local government as a result of a conviction under this Section of any employee or agent of such corporation if the employee so convicted is no longer employed by the corporation and: (1) it has been finally adjudicated not guilty or (2) if it demonstrates to the governmental entity with which it seeks to contract and that entity finds that the commission of the offense was neither authorized, requested, commanded, nor performed by a director, officer or a high managerial agent in behalf of the corporation as provided in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 5-4 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 86-150.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-4)

Sec. 33E-4. Bid rotating. A person commits the offense of bid rotating when, pursuant to any collusive scheme or agreement with another, he engages in a pattern over time (which, for the purposes of this Section, shall include at least 3 contract bids within a period of 10 years, the most recent of which occurs after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1988) of submitting sealed bids to units of State or local government with the intent that the award of such bids rotates, or is distributed among, persons or business entities which submit bids on a substantial number of the same contracts. Bid rotating is a Class 2 felony. Any person convicted of this offense or any similar offense of any state or the United States which contains the same elements as this offense shall be permanently barred from contracting with any unit of State or local government. No corporation shall be barred from contracting with any unit of State or local government as a result of a conviction under this Section of any employee or agent of such corporation if the employee so convicted is no longer employed by the corporation and: (1) it has been finally adjudicated not guilty or (2) if it demonstrates to the governmental entity with which it seeks to contract and that entity finds that the commission of the offense was neither authorized, requested, commanded, nor performed by a director, officer or a high managerial agent in behalf of the corporation as provided in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 5-4 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 86-150.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-5)

Sec. 33E-5. Acquisition or disclosure of bidding information by public official. (a) Any person who is an official of or employed by any unit of State or local government who knowingly opens a sealed bid at a time or place other than as specified in the invitation to bid or as otherwise designated by the State or unit of local government, or outside the presence of witnesses required by the applicable statute or ordinance, commits a Class 4 felony.

(b) Any person who is an official of or employed by any unit of State or local government who knowingly discloses to any interested person any information related to the terms of a sealed bid whether that information is acquired through a violation of subsection (a) or by any other means except as provided by law or necessary to the performance of such official's or employee's responsibilities relating to the bid, commits a Class 3 felony.

(c) It shall not constitute a violation of subsection (b) of this Section for any person who is an official of or employed by any unit of State or local government to make any disclosure to any interested person where such disclosure is also made generally available to the public.

(d) This Section only applies to contracts let by sealed bid.

(Source: P.A. 86-150.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-6)

Sec. 33E-6. Interference with contract submission and award by public official.

(a) Any person who is an official of or employed by any unit of State or local government who knowingly conveys, either directly or indirectly, outside of the publicly available official invitation to bid, pre-bid conference, solicitation for contracts procedure or such procedure used in any sheltered market procurement adopted pursuant to law or ordinance by that unit of government, to any person any information concerning the specifications for such contract or the identity of any particular potential subcontractors, when inclusion of such information concerning the specifications or contractors in the bid or offer would influence the likelihood of acceptance of such bid or offer, commits a Class 4 felony. It shall not constitute a violation of this subsection to convey information intended to clarify plans or specifications regarding a public contract where such disclosure of information is also made generally available to the public.

(b) Any person who is an official of or employed by any unit of State or local government who, either directly or indirectly, knowingly informs a bidder or offeror that the bid or offer will be accepted or executed only if specified individuals are included as subcontractors commits a Class 3 felony.

(c) It shall not constitute a violation of subsection (a) of this Section where any person who is an official of or employed by any unit of State or local government follows procedures established (i) by federal, State or local minority or female owned business enterprise programs or (ii) pursuant to Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code.

(d) Any bidder or offeror who is the recipient of communications from the unit of government which he reasonably believes to be proscribed by subsections (a) or (b), and fails to inform either the Attorney General or the State's Attorney for the county in which the unit of government is located, commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) Any public official who knowingly awards a contract based on criteria which were not publicly disseminated via the invitation to bid, when such invitation to bid is required by law or ordinance, the pre-bid conference, or any solicitation for contracts procedure or such procedure used in any sheltered market procurement procedure adopted pursuant to statute or ordinance, commits a Class 3 felony.

(f) It shall not constitute a violation of subsection (a) for any person who is an official of or employed by any unit of State or local government to provide to any person a copy of the transcript or other summary of any pre-bid conference where such transcript or summary is also made generally available to the public.

(Source: P.A. 97-260, eff. 8-5-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-7)

Sec. 33E-7. Kickbacks. (a) A person violates this Section when he knowingly either:

(1) provides, attempts to provide or offers to provide any kickback;

(2) solicits, accepts or attempts to accept any kickback; or

(3) includes, directly or indirectly, the amount of any kickback prohibited by paragraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (a) in the contract price charged by a subcontractor to a prime contractor or a higher tier subcontractor or in the contract price charged by a prime contractor to any unit of State or local government for a public contract.

(b) Any person violates this Section when he has received an offer of a kickback, or has been solicited to make a kickback, and fails to report it to law enforcement officials, including but not limited to the Attorney General or the State's Attorney for the county in which the contract is to be performed.

(c) A violation of subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony. A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 4 felony.

(d) Any unit of State or local government may, in a civil action, recover a civil penalty from any person who knowingly engages in conduct which violates paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section in twice the amount of each kickback involved in the violation. This subsection (d) shall in no way limit the ability of any unit of State or local government to recover monies or damages regarding public contracts under any other law or ordinance. A civil action shall be barred unless the action is commenced within 6 years after the later of (1) the date on which the conduct establishing the cause of action occurred or (2) the date on which the unit of State or local government knew or should have known that the conduct establishing the cause of action occurred.

(Source: P.A. 85-1295.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-8)

Sec. 33E-8. Bribery of inspector employed by contractor. (a) A person commits bribery of an inspector when he offers to any person employed by a contractor or subcontractor on any public project contracted for by any unit of State or local government any property or other thing of value with the intent that such offer is for the purpose of obtaining wrongful certification or approval of the quality or completion of any goods or services supplied or performed in the course of work on such project. Violation of this subsection is a Class 4 felony.

(b) Any person employed by a contractor or subcontractor on any public project contracted for by any unit of State or local government who accepts any property or other thing of value knowing that such was intentionally offered for the purpose of influencing the certification or approval of the quality or completion of any goods or services supplied or performed under subcontract to that contractor, and either before or afterwards issues such wrongful certification, commits a Class 3 felony. Failure to report such offer to law enforcement officials, including but not limited to the Attorney General or the State's Attorney for the county in which the contract is performed, constitutes a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 85-1295.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-9)

Sec. 33E-9. Change orders. Any change order authorized under this Section shall be made in writing. Any person employed by and authorized by any unit of State or local government to approve a change order to any public contract who knowingly grants that approval without first obtaining from the unit of State or local government on whose behalf the contract was signed, or from a designee authorized by that unit of State or local government, a determination in writing that (1) the circumstances said to necessitate the change in performance were not reasonably foreseeable at the time the contract was signed, or (2) the change is germane to the original contract as signed, or (3) the change order is in the best interest of the unit of State or local government and authorized by law, commits a Class 4 felony. The written determination and the written change order resulting from that determination shall be preserved in the contract's file which shall be open to the public for inspection. This Section shall only apply to a change order or series of change orders which authorize or necessitate an increase or decrease in either the cost of a public contract by a total of $25,000 or more or the time of completion by a total of 180 days or more.

(Source: P.A. 102-1119, eff. 1-23-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-10)

Sec. 33E-10. Rules of evidence. (a) The certified bid is prima facie evidence of the bid.

(b) It shall be presumed that in the absence of practices proscribed by this Article 33E, all persons who submit bids in response to an invitation to bid by any unit of State or local government submit their bids independent of all other bidders, without information obtained from the governmental entity outside the invitation to bid, and in a good faith effort to obtain the contract.

(Source: P.A. 85-1295.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-11)

Sec. 33E-11. (a) Every bid submitted to and public contract executed pursuant to such bid by the State or a unit of local government shall contain a certification by the prime contractor that the prime contractor is not barred from contracting with any unit of State or local government as a result of a violation of either Section 33E-3 or 33E-4 of this Article. The State and units of local government shall provide the appropriate forms for such certification.

(b) A contractor who knowingly makes a false statement, material to the certification, commits a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-12) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-12)

Sec. 33E-12. It shall not constitute a violation of any provisions of this Article for any person who is an official of or employed by a unit of State or local government to (1) disclose the name of any person who has submitted a bid in response to or requested plans or specifications regarding an invitation to bid or who has been awarded a public contract to any person or, (2) to convey information concerning acceptable alternatives or substitute to plans or specifications if such information is also made generally available to the public and mailed to any person who has submitted a bid in response to or requested plans or specifications regarding an invitation to bid on a public contract or, (3) to negotiate with the lowest responsible bidder a reduction in only the price term of the bid.

(Source: P.A. 86-150.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 33E-13)

Sec. 33E-13. Contract negotiations under the Local Government Professional Services Selection Act shall not be subject to the provisions of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 87-855.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-14)

Sec. 33E-14. False statements on vendor applications.

(a) A person commits false statements on vendor applications when he or she knowingly makes any false statement or report with the intent to influence in any way the action of any unit of local government or school district in considering a vendor application.

(b) Sentence. False statements on vendor applications is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-15)

Sec. 33E-15. False entries.

(a) An officer, agent, or employee of, or anyone who is affiliated in any capacity with any unit of local government or school district commits false entries when he or she makes a false entry in any book, report, or statement of any unit of local government or school district with the intent to defraud the unit of local government or school district.

(b) Sentence. False entries is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-16)

Sec. 33E-16. Misapplication of funds.

(a) An officer, director, agent, or employee of, or affiliated in any capacity with any unit of local government or school district commits misapplication of funds when he or she knowingly misapplies any of the moneys, funds, or credits of the unit of local government or school district.

(b) Sentence. Misapplication of funds is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-17)

Sec. 33E-17. Unlawful participation. Whoever, being an officer, director, agent, or employee of, or affiliated in any capacity with any unit of local government or school district participates, shares in, or receiving directly or indirectly any money, profit, property, or benefit through any contract with the unit of local government or school district, with the intent to defraud the unit of local government or school district is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 90-800, eff. 1-1-99.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-18)

Sec. 33E-18. Unlawful stringing of bids.

(a) A person commits unlawful stringing of bids when he or she, with the intent to evade the bidding requirements of any unit of local government or school district, knowingly strings or assists in stringing or attempts to string any contract or job order with the unit of local government or school district.

(b) Sentence. Unlawful stringing of bids is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 33F heading) ARTICLE 33F. UNLAWFUL USE OF BODY ARMOR

(720 ILCS 5/33F-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 33F-1)

Sec. 33F-1. Definitions. For purposes of this Article:

(a) "Body Armor" means any one of the following:

(1) A military style flak or tactical assault vest which is made of Kevlar or any other similar material or metal, fiberglass, plastic, and nylon plates and designed to be worn over one's clothing for the intended purpose of stopping not only missile fragmentation from mines, grenades, mortar shells and artillery fire but also fire from rifles, machine guns, and small arms.

(2) Soft body armor which is made of Kevlar or any other similar material or metal or any other type of insert and which is lightweight and pliable and which can be easily concealed under a shirt.

(3) A military style recon/surveillance vest which is made of Kevlar or any other similar material and which is lightweight and designed to be worn over one's clothing.

(4) Protective casual clothing which is made of Kevlar or any other similar material and which was originally intended to be used by undercover law enforcement officers or dignitaries and is designed to look like jackets, coats, raincoats, quilted or three piece suit vests.

(b) "Dangerous weapon" means a Category I, Category II, or Category III weapon as defined in Section 33A-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 91-696, eff. 4-13-00.)

(720 ILCS 5/33F-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 33F-2)

Sec. 33F-2. Unlawful use of body armor. A person commits the offense of unlawful use of body armor when he knowingly wears body armor and is in possession of a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, in the commission or attempted commission of any offense.

(Source: P.A. 93-906, eff. 8-11-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/33F-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 33F-3)

Sec. 33F-3. Sentence. A person convicted of unlawful use of body armor for a first offense shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and for a second or subsequent offense shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 87-521.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 33G heading) ARTICLE 33G. ILLINOIS STREET GANG AND RACKETEER INFLUENCED AND CORRUPT ORGANIZATIONS LAW (Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2025)

Sec. 33G-1. Short title. This Article may be cited as the Illinois Street Gang and Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Law (or "RICO").

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2025)

Sec. 33G-2. Legislative declaration. The substantial harm inflicted on the people and economy of this State by pervasive violent street gangs and other forms of enterprise criminality, is legitimately a matter of grave concern to the people of this State who have a basic right to be protected from that criminal activity and to be given adequate remedies to redress its harms. Whereas the current laws of this State provide inadequate remedies, procedures and punishments, the Illinois General Assembly hereby gives the supplemental remedies of the Illinois Street Gang and Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Law full force and effect under law for the common good of this State and its people.

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2025)

Sec. 33G-3. Definitions. As used in this Article:

(a) "Another state" means any State of the United States (other than the State of Illinois), or the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States, or any political subdivision, or any department, agency, or instrumentality thereof.

(b) "Enterprise" includes:

(1) any partnership, corporation, association, business or charitable trust, or other legal entity; and

(2) any group of individuals or other legal entities, or any combination thereof, associated in fact although not itself a legal entity. An association in fact must be held together by a common purpose of engaging in a course of conduct, and it may be associated together for purposes that are both legal and illegal. An association in fact must:

(A) have an ongoing organization or structure, either formal or informal;

(B) the various members of the group must function as a continuing unit, even if the group changes membership by gaining or losing members over time; and

(C) have an ascertainable structure distinct from that inherent in the conduct of a pattern of predicate activity.

As used in this Article, "enterprise" includes licit and illicit enterprises.

(c) "Labor organization" includes any organization, labor union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated association designed to further the cause of the rights of union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships.

(d) "Operation or management" means directing or carrying out the enterprise's affairs and is limited to any person who knowingly serves as a leader, organizer, operator, manager, director, supervisor, financier, advisor, recruiter, supplier, or enforcer of an enterprise in violation of this Article.

(e) "Predicate activity" means any act that is a Class 2 felony or higher and constitutes a violation or violations of any of the following provisions of the laws of the State of Illinois (as amended or revised as of the date the activity occurred or, in the instance of a continuing offense, the date that charges under this Article are filed in a particular matter in the State of Illinois) or any act under the law of another jurisdiction for an offense that could be charged as a Class 2 felony or higher in this State:

(1) under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 8-1.2 (solicitation of murder for hire), 9-1 (first degree murder), 9-3.3 (drug-induced homicide), 10-1 (kidnapping), 10-2 (aggravated kidnapping), 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint), 10-4 (forcible detention), 10-5(b)(10) (child abduction), 10-9 (trafficking in persons, involuntary servitude, and related offenses), 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-14.3(a)(2)(A) and (a)(2)(B) (promoting prostitution), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution; patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 12-3.05 (aggravated battery), 12-6.4 (criminal street gang recruitment), 12-6.5 (compelling organization membership of persons), 12-7.3 (stalking), 12-7.4 (aggravated stalking), 12-7.5 (cyberstalking), 12-11 or 19-6 (home invasion), 12-11.1 or 18-6 (vehicular invasion), 18-1 (robbery; aggravated robbery), 18-2 (armed robbery), 18-3 (vehicular hijacking), 18-4 (aggravated vehicular hijacking), 18-5 (aggravated robbery), 19-1 (burglary), 19-3 (residential burglary), 20-1 (arson; residential arson; place of worship arson), 20-1.1 (aggravated arson), 20-1.2 (residential arson), 20-1.3 (place of worship arson), 24-1.2 (aggravated discharge of a firearm), 24-1.2-5 (aggravated discharge of a machine gun or silencer equipped firearm), 24-1.8 (unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member), 24-3.2 (unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles), 24-3.9 (aggravated possession of a stolen firearm), 24-3A (gunrunning), 26-5 or 48-1 (dog-fighting), 29D-14.9 (terrorism), 29D-15 (soliciting support for terrorism), 29D-15.1 (causing a catastrophe), 29D-15.2 (possession of a deadly substance), 29D-20 (making a terrorist threat), 29D-25 (falsely making a terrorist threat), 29D-29.9 (material support for terrorism), 29D-35 (hindering prosecution of terrorism), 31A-1.2 (unauthorized contraband in a penal institution), or 33A-3 (armed violence);

(2) under the Cannabis Control Act: Sections 5 (manufacture or delivery of cannabis), 5.1 (cannabis trafficking), or 8 (production or possession of cannabis plants), provided the offense either involves more than 500 grams of any substance containing cannabis or involves more than 50 cannabis sativa plants;

(3) under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act: Sections 401 (manufacture or delivery of a controlled substance), 401.1 (controlled substance trafficking), 405 (calculated criminal drug conspiracy), or 405.2 (street gang criminal drug conspiracy); or

(4) under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act: Sections 15 (methamphetamine manufacturing), or 55 (methamphetamine delivery).

(f) "Pattern of predicate activity" means:

(1) at least 3 occurrences of predicate activity that are in some way related to each other and that have continuity between them, and that are separate acts. Acts are related to each other if they are not isolated events, including if they have similar purposes, or results, or participants, or victims, or are committed a similar way, or have other similar distinguishing characteristics, or are part of the affairs of the same enterprise. There is continuity between acts if they are ongoing over a substantial period, or if they are part of the regular way some entity does business or conducts its affairs; and

(2) which occurs after the effective date of this Article, and the last of which falls within 3 years (excluding any period of imprisonment) after the first occurrence of predicate activity.

(g) "Unlawful death" includes the following offenses: under the Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: Sections 9-1 (first degree murder) or 9-2 (second degree murder).

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-4)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2025)

Sec. 33G-4. Prohibited activities.

(a) It is unlawful for any person, who intentionally participates in the operation or management of an enterprise, directly or indirectly, to:

(1) knowingly do so, directly or indirectly, through a pattern of predicate activity;

(2) knowingly cause another to violate this Article; or

(3) knowingly conspire to violate this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in any prosecution for a conspiracy to violate this Article, no person may be convicted of that conspiracy unless an overt act in furtherance of the agreement is alleged and proved to have been committed by him, her, or by a coconspirator, but the commission of the overt act need not itself constitute predicate activity underlying the specific violation of this Article.

(b) It is unlawful for any person knowingly to acquire or maintain, directly or indirectly, through a pattern of predicate activity any interest in, or control of, to any degree, any enterprise, real property, or personal property of any character, including money.

(c) Nothing in this Article shall be construed as to make unlawful any activity which is arguably protected or prohibited by the National Labor Relations Act, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, or the Railway Labor Act.

(d) The following organizations, and any officer or agent of those organizations acting in his or her official capacity as an officer or agent, may not be sued in civil actions under this Article:

(1) a labor organization; or

(2) any business defined in Division D, E, F, G, H, or I of the Standard Industrial Classification as established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor.

(e) Any person prosecuted under this Article may be convicted and sentenced either:

(1) for the offense of conspiring to violate this Article, and for any other particular offense or offenses that may be one of the objects of a conspiracy to violate this Article; or

(2) for the offense of violating this Article, and for any other particular offense or offenses that may constitute predicate activity underlying a violation of this Article.

(f) The State's Attorney, or a person designated by law to act for him or her and to perform his or her duties during his or her absence or disability, may authorize a criminal prosecution under this Article. Prior to any State's Attorney authorizing a criminal prosecution under this Article, the State's Attorney shall adopt rules and procedures governing the investigation and prosecution of any offense enumerated in this Article. These rules and procedures shall set forth guidelines which require that any potential prosecution under this Article be subject to an internal approval process in which it is determined, in a written prosecution memorandum prepared by the State's Attorney's Office, that (1) a prosecution under this Article is necessary to ensure that the indictment adequately reflects the nature and extent of the criminal conduct involved in a way that prosecution only on the underlying predicate activity would not, and (2) a prosecution under this Article would provide the basis for an appropriate sentence under all the circumstances of the case in a way that a prosecution only on the underlying predicate activity would not. No State's Attorney, or person designated by law to act for him or her and to perform his or her duties during his or her absence or disability, may authorize a criminal prosecution under this Article prior to reviewing the prepared written prosecution memorandum. However, any internal memorandum shall remain protected from disclosure under the attorney-client privilege, and this provision does not create any enforceable right on behalf of any defendant or party, nor does it subject the exercise of prosecutorial discretion to judicial review.

(g) A labor organization and any officer or agent of that organization acting in his or her capacity as an officer or agent of the labor organization are exempt from prosecution under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2025)

Sec. 33G-5. Penalties. Under this Article, notwithstanding any other provision of law:

(a) Any violation of subsection (a) of Section 33G-4 of this Article shall be sentenced as a Class X felony with a term of imprisonment of not less than 7 years and not more than 30 years, or the sentence applicable to the underlying predicate activity, whichever is higher, and the sentence imposed shall also include restitution, and/or a criminal fine, jointly and severally, up to $250,000 or twice the gross amount of any intended proceeds of the violation, if any, whichever is higher.

(b) Any violation of subsection (b) of Section 33G-4 of this Article shall be sentenced as a Class X felony, and the sentence imposed shall also include restitution, and/or a criminal fine, jointly and severally, up to $250,000 or twice the gross amount of any intended proceeds of the violation, if any, whichever is higher.

(c) Wherever the unlawful death of any person or persons results as a necessary or natural consequence of any violation of this Article, the sentence imposed on the defendant shall include an enhanced term of imprisonment of at least 25 years up to natural life, in addition to any other penalty imposed by the court, provided:

(1) the death or deaths were reasonably foreseeable to the defendant to be sentenced; and

(2) the death or deaths occurred when the defendant was otherwise engaged in the violation of this Article as a whole.

(d) A sentence of probation, periodic imprisonment, conditional discharge, impact incarceration or county impact incarceration, court supervision, withheld adjudication, or any pretrial diversionary sentence or suspended sentence, is not authorized for a violation of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-6)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2025)

Sec. 33G-6. Remedial proceedings, procedures, and forfeiture.

(a) Under this Article, the circuit court shall have jurisdiction to prevent and restrain violations of this Article by issuing appropriate orders, including:

(1) ordering any person to disgorge illicit proceeds obtained by a violation of this Article or divest himself or herself of any interest, direct or indirect, in any enterprise or real or personal property of any character, including money, obtained, directly or indirectly, by a violation of this Article;

(2) imposing reasonable restrictions on the future activities or investments of any person or enterprise, including prohibiting any person or enterprise from engaging in the same type of endeavor as the person or enterprise engaged in, that violated this Article; or

(3) ordering dissolution or reorganization of any enterprise, making due provision for the rights of innocent persons.

(b) Any violation of this Article is subject to the remedies, procedures, and forfeiture as set forth in Article 29B of this Code.

(c) Property seized or forfeited under this Article is subject to reporting under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-7)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2025)

Sec. 33G-7. Construction. In interpreting the provisions of this Article, the court shall construe them in light of the applicable model jury instructions set forth in the Federal Criminal Jury Instructions for the Seventh Circuit (1999) for Title IX of Public Law 91-452, 84 Stat. 922 (as amended in Title 18, United States Code, Sections 1961 through 1968), except to the extent that they are inconsistent with the plain language of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-8)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2025)

Sec. 33G-8. Limitations. Under this Article, notwithstanding any other provision of law, but otherwise subject to the periods of exclusion from limitation as provided in Section 3-7 of this Code, the following limitations apply:

(a) Any action, proceeding, or prosecution brought under this Article must commence within 5 years of one of the following dates, whichever is latest:

(1) the date of the commission of the last occurrence of predicate activity in a pattern of that activity, in the form of an act underlying the alleged violation of this Article; or

(2) in the case of an action, proceeding, or prosecution, based upon a conspiracy to violate this Article, the date that the last objective of the alleged conspiracy was accomplished, defeated or abandoned (whichever is later); or

(3) the date any minor victim of the violation attains the age of 18 years or the date any victim of the violation subject to a legal disability thereafter gains legal capacity.

(b) Any action, proceeding, or prosecution brought under this Article may be commenced at any time against all defendants if the conduct of any defendant, or any part of the overall violation, resulted in the unlawful death of any person or persons.

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-9)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2025)

Sec. 33G-9. Repeal. This Article is repealed on June 1, 2025.

(Source: P.A. 102-918, eff. 5-27-22; 103-4, eff. 5-31-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/Tit. IV heading) TITLE IV. CONSTRUCTION, EFFECTIVE DATE AND REPEAL

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 34 heading) ARTICLE 34. CONSTRUCTION AND EFFECTIVE DATE

(720 ILCS 5/34-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 34-1)

Sec. 34-1. Effect of headings. Section, Article, and Title headings contained herein shall not be deemed to govern, limit, modify or in any manner affect the scope, meaning, or intent of the provisions of any Section, Article, or Title hereof.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

(720 ILCS 5/34-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 34-2)

Sec. 34-2. Partial invalidity.

The invalidity of any provision of this Code shall not affect the validity of the remainder of this Code.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/34-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 34-3)

Sec. 34-3. Savings provisions; continuation of prior Statutes.

The provisions of Sections 2, 3 and 4 of "An Act to revise the law in relation to the construction of the Statutes", approved March 5, 1874, as amended, shall apply in all constructions of this Code.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/34-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 34-4)

Sec. 34-4. Effective date.

This Code shall take effect January 1, 1962.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/Tit. V heading) TITLE V. ADDED ARTICLES

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 36 heading) ARTICLE 36. SEIZURE AND FORFEITURE OF VESSELS, VEHICLES AND AIRCRAFT

(720 ILCS 5/36-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 36-1. Property subject to forfeiture.

(a) Any vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is subject to forfeiture under this Article if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is used with the knowledge and consent of the owner in the commission of or in the attempt to commit as defined in Section 8-4 of this Code:

(1) an offense prohibited by Section 9-1 (first degree murder), Section 9-3 (involuntary manslaughter and reckless homicide), Section 10-2 (aggravated kidnaping), Section 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), Section 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), Section 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse), subsection (a), (c), or (d) of Section 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), Section 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), Section 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution except for keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), Section 11-20.1 (child pornography), paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(4), (b)(1), (b)(2), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), (e)(5), (e)(6), or (e)(7) of Section 12-3.05 (aggravated battery), Section 12-7.3 (stalking), Section 12-7.4 (aggravated stalking), Section 16-1 (theft if the theft is of precious metal or of scrap metal), subdivision (f)(2) or (f)(3) of Section 16-25 (retail theft), Section 18-2 (armed robbery), Section 19-1 (burglary), Section 19-2 (possession of burglary tools), Section 19-3 (residential burglary), Section 20-1 (arson; residential arson; place of worship arson), Section 20-2 (possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices), subdivision (a)(6) or (a)(7) of Section 24-1 (unlawful use of weapons), Section 24-1.2 (aggravated discharge of a firearm), Section 24-1.2-5 (aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm), Section 24-1.5 (reckless discharge of a firearm), Section 28-1 (gambling), or Section 29D-15.2 (possession of a deadly substance) of this Code;

(2) an offense prohibited by Section 21, 22, 23, 24 or 26 of the Cigarette Tax Act if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes;

(3) an offense prohibited by Section 28, 29, or 30 of the Cigarette Use Tax Act if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes;

(4) an offense prohibited by Section 44 of the Environmental Protection Act;

(5) an offense prohibited by Section 11-204.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer);

(6) an offense prohibited by Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (driving while under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof) or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and:

(A) during a period in which his or her driving privileges are revoked or suspended if the revocation or suspension was for:

(i) Section 11-501 (driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof),

(ii) Section 11-501.1 (statutory summary suspension or revocation),

(iii) paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 (motor vehicle crashes involving death or personal injuries), or

(iv) reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of this Code;

(B) has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted of committing a violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof and was involved in a motor vehicle crash that resulted in death, great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the death or injuries;

(C) the person committed a violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time;

(D) he or she did not possess a valid driver's license or permit or a valid restricted driving permit or a valid judicial driving permit or a valid monitoring device driving permit; or

(E) he or she knew or should have known that the vehicle he or she was driving was not covered by a liability insurance policy;

(7) an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(8) an offense described in subsection (e) of Section 6-101 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or

(9)(A) operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof under Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act during a period in which his or her privileges to operate a watercraft are revoked or suspended and the revocation or suspension was for operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof; (B) operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof and has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law in another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted of committing a violation of operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof and was involved in an accident that resulted in death, great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the death or injuries; or (C) the person committed a violation of operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof under Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time.

(b) In addition, any mobile or portable equipment used in the commission of an act which is in violation of Section 7g of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels or watercraft, vehicles, and aircraft, and any such equipment shall be deemed a vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft for purposes of this Article.

(c) In addition, when a person discharges a firearm at another individual from a vehicle with the knowledge and consent of the owner of the vehicle and with the intent to cause death or great bodily harm to that individual and as a result causes death or great bodily harm to that individual, the vehicle shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vehicles used in violations of clauses (1), (2), (3), or (4) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(d) If the spouse of the owner of a vehicle seized for an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of subdivision (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(D), (d)(1)(G), (d)(1)(H), or (d)(1)(I) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or Section 9-3 of this Code makes a showing that the seized vehicle is the only source of transportation and it is determined that the financial hardship to the family as a result of the seizure outweighs the benefit to the State from the seizure, the vehicle may be forfeited to the spouse or family member and the title to the vehicle shall be transferred to the spouse or family member who is properly licensed and who requires the use of the vehicle for employment or family transportation purposes. A written declaration of forfeiture of a vehicle under this Section shall be sufficient cause for the title to be transferred to the spouse or family member. The provisions of this paragraph shall apply only to one forfeiture per vehicle. If the vehicle is the subject of a subsequent forfeiture proceeding by virtue of a subsequent conviction of either spouse or the family member, the spouse or family member to whom the vehicle was forfeited under the first forfeiture proceeding may not utilize the provisions of this paragraph in another forfeiture proceeding. If the owner of the vehicle seized owns more than one vehicle, the procedure set out in this paragraph may be used for only one vehicle.

(e) In addition, property subject to forfeiture under Section 40 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act may be seized and forfeited under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-822)

Sec. 36-1. Property subject to forfeiture.

(a) Any vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is subject to forfeiture under this Article if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is used with the knowledge and consent of the owner in the commission of or in the attempt to commit as defined in Section 8-4 of this Code:

(1) an offense prohibited by Section 9-1 (first degree murder), Section 9-3 (involuntary manslaughter and reckless homicide), Section 10-2 (aggravated kidnaping), Section 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), Section 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), Section 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse), subsection (a), (c), or (d) of Section 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), Section 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), Section 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution except for keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), Section 11-20.1 (child pornography), paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(4), (b)(1), (b)(2), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), (e)(5), (e)(6), or (e)(7) of Section 12-3.05 (aggravated battery), Section 12-7.3 (stalking), Section 12-7.4 (aggravated stalking), Section 16-1 (theft if the theft is of precious metal or of scrap metal), subdivision (f)(2) or (f)(3) of Section 16-25 (retail theft), Section 18-2 (armed robbery), Section 19-1 (burglary), Section 19-2 (possession of burglary tools), Section 19-3 (residential burglary), Section 20-1 (arson; residential arson; place of worship arson), Section 20-2 (possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices), subdivision (a)(6) or (a)(7) of Section 24-1 (unlawful possession of weapons), Section 24-1.2 (aggravated discharge of a firearm), Section 24-1.2-5 (aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm), Section 24-1.5 (reckless discharge of a firearm), Section 28-1 (gambling), or Section 29D-15.2 (possession of a deadly substance) of this Code;

(2) an offense prohibited by Section 21, 22, 23, 24 or 26 of the Cigarette Tax Act if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes;

(3) an offense prohibited by Section 28, 29, or 30 of the Cigarette Use Tax Act if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes;

(4) an offense prohibited by Section 44 of the Environmental Protection Act;

(5) an offense prohibited by Section 11-204.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer);

(6) an offense prohibited by Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (driving while under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof) or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and:

(A) during a period in which his or her driving privileges are revoked or suspended if the revocation or suspension was for:

(i) Section 11-501 (driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof),

(ii) Section 11-501.1 (statutory summary suspension or revocation),

(iii) paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 (motor vehicle crashes involving death or personal injuries), or

(iv) reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of this Code;

(B) has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted of committing a violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof and was involved in a motor vehicle crash that resulted in death, great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the death or injuries;

(C) the person committed a violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time;

(D) he or she did not possess a valid driver's license or permit or a valid restricted driving permit or a valid judicial driving permit or a valid monitoring device driving permit; or

(E) he or she knew or should have known that the vehicle he or she was driving was not covered by a liability insurance policy;

(7) an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(8) an offense described in subsection (e) of Section 6-101 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or

(9)(A) operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof under Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act during a period in which his or her privileges to operate a watercraft are revoked or suspended and the revocation or suspension was for operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof; (B) operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof and has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law in another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted of committing a violation of operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof and was involved in an accident that resulted in death, great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the death or injuries; or (C) the person committed a violation of operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof under Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time.

(b) In addition, any mobile or portable equipment used in the commission of an act which is in violation of Section 7g of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels or watercraft, vehicles, and aircraft, and any such equipment shall be deemed a vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft for purposes of this Article.

(c) In addition, when a person discharges a firearm at another individual from a vehicle with the knowledge and consent of the owner of the vehicle and with the intent to cause death or great bodily harm to that individual and as a result causes death or great bodily harm to that individual, the vehicle shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vehicles used in violations of clauses (1), (2), (3), or (4) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(d) If the spouse of the owner of a vehicle seized for an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of subdivision (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(D), (d)(1)(G), (d)(1)(H), or (d)(1)(I) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or Section 9-3 of this Code makes a showing that the seized vehicle is the only source of transportation and it is determined that the financial hardship to the family as a result of the seizure outweighs the benefit to the State from the seizure, the vehicle may be forfeited to the spouse or family member and the title to the vehicle shall be transferred to the spouse or family member who is properly licensed and who requires the use of the vehicle for employment or family transportation purposes. A written declaration of forfeiture of a vehicle under this Section shall be sufficient cause for the title to be transferred to the spouse or family member. The provisions of this paragraph shall apply only to one forfeiture per vehicle. If the vehicle is the subject of a subsequent forfeiture proceeding by virtue of a subsequent conviction of either spouse or the family member, the spouse or family member to whom the vehicle was forfeited under the first forfeiture proceeding may not utilize the provisions of this paragraph in another forfeiture proceeding. If the owner of the vehicle seized owns more than one vehicle, the procedure set out in this paragraph may be used for only one vehicle.

(e) In addition, property subject to forfeiture under Section 40 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act may be seized and forfeited under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-1.1)

Sec. 36-1.1. Seizure.

(a) Any property subject to forfeiture under this Article may be seized and impounded by the Director of the Illinois State Police or any peace officer upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property.

(b) Any property subject to forfeiture under this Article may be seized and impounded by the Director of the Illinois State Police or any peace officer without process if there is probable cause to believe that the property is subject to forfeiture under Section 36-1 of this Article and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable.

(c) If the seized property is a conveyance, an investigation shall be made by the law enforcement agency as to any person whose right, title, interest, or lien is of record in the office of the agency or official in which title to or interest in the conveyance is required by law to be recorded.

(d) After seizure under this Section, notice shall be given to all known interest holders that forfeiture proceedings, including a preliminary review, may be instituted and the proceedings may be instituted under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-1.2)

Sec. 36-1.2. Receipt for seized property. If a law enforcement officer seizes property for forfeiture under this Article, the officer shall provide an itemized receipt to the person possessing the property or, in the absence of a person to whom the receipt could be given, shall leave the receipt in the place where the property was found, if possible.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-1.3)

Sec. 36-1.3. Safekeeping of seized property pending disposition.

(a) Property seized under this Article is deemed to be in the custody of the Director of the Illinois State Police, subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's Attorney under this Article.

(b) If property is seized under this Article, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an inventory of the seized property and estimate the property's value and shall forward a copy of the inventory of seized property and the estimate of the property's value to the Director of the Illinois State Police. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the Director of the Illinois State Police may:

(1) place the property under seal;

(2) remove the property to a place designated by the Director of the Illinois State Police;

(3) keep the property in the possession of the seizing agency;

(4) remove the property to a storage area for safekeeping;

(5) place the property under constructive seizure by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and interest holders, or by filing notice of pending forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating to the property; or

(6) provide for another agency or custodian, including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to take custody of the property upon the terms and conditions set by the seizing agency.

(c) The seizing agency shall exercise ordinary care to protect the subject of the forfeiture from negligent loss, damage, or destruction.

(d) Property seized or forfeited under this Article is subject to reporting under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-1.4)

Sec. 36-1.4. Notice to State's Attorney. The law enforcement agency seizing property for forfeiture under this Article shall, as soon as practicable but not later than 28 days after the seizure, notify the State's Attorney for the county in which an act or omission giving rise to the seizure occurred or in which the property was seized and the facts and circumstances giving rise to the seizure and shall provide the State's Attorney with the inventory of the property and its estimated value. The notice shall be by the delivery of Illinois State Police Notice/Inventory of Seized Property (Form 4-64). If the property seized for forfeiture is a vehicle, the law enforcement agency seizing the property shall immediately notify the Secretary of State that forfeiture proceedings are pending regarding the vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-1.5)

Sec. 36-1.5. Preliminary review.

(a) Within 14 days of the seizure, the State's Attorney of the county in which the seizure occurred shall seek a preliminary determination from the circuit court as to whether there is probable cause that the property may be subject to forfeiture.

(b) The rules of evidence shall not apply to any proceeding conducted under this Section.

(c) The court may conduct the review under subsection (a) of this Section simultaneously with a proceeding under Section 109-1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for a related criminal offense if a prosecution is commenced by information or complaint.

(d) The court may accept a finding of probable cause at a preliminary hearing following the filing of an information or complaint charging a related criminal offense or following the return of indictment by a grand jury charging the related offense as sufficient evidence of probable cause as required under subsection (a) of this Section.

(e) Upon making a finding of probable cause as required under this Section, the circuit court shall order the property subject to the provisions of the applicable forfeiture Act held until the conclusion of any forfeiture proceeding.

For seizures of conveyances, within 28 days of a finding of probable cause under subsection (a) of this Section, the registered owner or other claimant may file a motion in writing supported by sworn affidavits claiming that denial of the use of the conveyance during the pendency of the forfeiture proceedings creates a substantial hardship and alleges facts showing that the hardship was not due to his or her culpable negligence. The court shall consider the following factors in determining whether a substantial hardship has been proven:

(1) the nature of the claimed hardship;

(2) the availability of public transportation or other available means of transportation; and

(3) any available alternatives to alleviate the hardship other than the return of the seized conveyance.

If the court determines that a substantial hardship has been proven, the court shall then balance the nature of the hardship against the State's interest in safeguarding the conveyance. If the court determines that the hardship outweighs the State's interest in safeguarding the conveyance, the court may temporarily release the conveyance to the registered owner or the registered owner's authorized designee, or both, until the conclusion of the forfeiture proceedings or for such shorter period as ordered by the court provided that the person to whom the conveyance is released provides proof of insurance and a valid driver's license and all State and local registrations for operation of the conveyance are current. The court shall place conditions on the conveyance limiting its use to the stated hardship and providing transportation for employment, religious purposes, medical needs, child care, and restricting the conveyance's use to only those individuals authorized to use the conveyance by the registered owner. The use of the vehicle shall be further restricted to exclude all recreational and entertainment purposes. The court may order additional restrictions it deems reasonable and just on its own motion or on motion of the People. The court shall revoke the order releasing the conveyance and order that the conveyance be reseized by law enforcement if the conditions of release are violated or if the conveyance is used in the commission of any offense identified in subsection (a) of Section 6-205 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

If the court orders the release of the conveyance during the pendency of the forfeiture proceedings, the court may order the registered owner or his or her authorized designee to post a cash security with the clerk of the court as ordered by the court. If cash security is ordered, the court shall consider the following factors in determining the amount of the cash security:

(A) the full market value of the conveyance;

(B) the nature of the hardship;

(C) the extent and length of the usage of the conveyance;

(D) the ability of the owner or designee to pay; and

(E) other conditions as the court deems necessary to safeguard the conveyance.

If the conveyance is released, the court shall order that the registered owner or his or her designee safeguard the conveyance, not remove the conveyance from the jurisdiction, not conceal, destroy, or otherwise dispose of the conveyance, not encumber the conveyance, and not diminish the value of the conveyance in any way. The court shall also make a determination of the full market value of the conveyance prior to it being released based on a source or sources defined in 50 Ill. Adm. Code 919.80(c)(2)(A) or 919.80(c)(2)(B).

If the conveyance subject to forfeiture is released under this Section and is subsequently forfeited, the person to whom the conveyance was released shall return the conveyance to the law enforcement agency that seized the conveyance within 7 days from the date of the declaration of forfeiture or order of forfeiture. If the conveyance is not returned within 7 days, the cash security shall be forfeited in the same manner as the conveyance subject to forfeiture. If the cash security was less than the full market value, a judgment shall be entered against the parties to whom the conveyance was released and the registered owner, jointly and severally, for the difference between the full market value and the amount of the cash security. If the conveyance is returned in a condition other than the condition in which it was released, the cash security shall be returned to the surety who posted the security minus the amount of the diminished value, and that amount shall be forfeited in the same manner as the conveyance subject to forfeiture. Additionally, the court may enter an order allowing any law enforcement agency in the State of Illinois to seize the conveyance wherever it may be found in the State to satisfy the judgment if the cash security was less than the full market value of the conveyance.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-1a) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-1a)

Sec. 36-1a. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 98-699, eff. 1-1-15. Repealed by P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-2)

Sec. 36-2. Complaint for forfeiture.

(a) If the State's Attorney of the county in which such seizure occurs finds that the alleged violation of law giving rise to the seizure was incurred without willful negligence or without any intention on the part of the owner of the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft or any person whose right, title, or interest is of record as described in Section 36-1 of this Article, to violate the law, or finds the existence of such mitigating circumstances as to justify remission of the forfeiture, he or she may cause the law enforcement agency having custody of the property to return the property to the owner within a reasonable time not to exceed 7 days. The State's Attorney shall exercise his or her discretion under this subsection (a) prior to or promptly after the preliminary review under Section 36-1.5.

(b) If, after review of the facts surrounding the seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the seized property is subject to forfeiture and the State's Attorney does not cause the forfeiture to be remitted under subsection (a) of this Section, he or she shall bring an action for forfeiture in the circuit court within whose jurisdiction the seizure and confiscation has taken place by filing a verified complaint for forfeiture in the circuit court within whose jurisdiction the seizure occurred, or within whose jurisdiction an act or omission giving rise to the seizure occurred, subject to Supreme Court Rule 187. The complaint shall be filed as soon as practicable but not later than 28 days after the State's Attorney receives notice from the seizing agency as provided under Section 36-1.4 of this Article. A complaint of forfeiture shall include:

(1) a description of the property seized;

(2) the date and place of seizure of the property;

(3) the name and address of the law enforcement agency making the seizure; and

(4) the specific statutory and factual grounds for the seizure.

The complaint shall be served upon each person whose right, title, or interest is of record in the office of the Secretary of State, the Secretary of Transportation, the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Agency, or any other department of this State, or any other state of the United States if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is required to be so registered, as the case may be, the person from whom the property was seized, and all persons known or reasonably believed by the State to claim an interest in the property, as provided in this Article. The complaint shall be accompanied by the following written notice:

"This is a civil court proceeding subject to the Code of Civil Procedure. You received this Complaint of Forfeiture because the State's Attorney's office has brought a legal action seeking forfeiture of your seized property. This complaint starts the court process where the State seeks to prove that your property should be forfeited and not returned to you. This process is also your opportunity to try to prove to a judge that you should get your property back. The complaint lists the date, time, and location of your first court date. You must appear in court on that day, or you may lose the case automatically. You must also file an appearance and answer. If you are unable to pay the appearance fee, you may qualify to have the fee waived. If there is a criminal case related to the seizure of your property, your case may be set for trial after the criminal case has been resolved. Before trial, the judge may allow discovery, where the State can ask you to respond in writing to questions and give them certain documents, and you can make similar requests of the State. The trial is your opportunity to explain what happened when your property was seized and why you should get the property back."

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-2.1)

Sec. 36-2.1. Notice to owner or interest holder. The first attempted service of notice shall be commenced within 28 days of the receipt of the notice from the seizing agency by Form 4-64. If the property seized is a conveyance, notice shall also be directed to the address reflected in the office of the agency or official in which title to or interest in the conveyance is required by law to be recorded. A complaint for forfeiture shall be served upon the property owner or interest holder in the following manner:

(1) If the owner's or interest holder's name and current address are known, then by either:

(A) personal service; or

(B) mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to that address.

(i) If notice is sent by certified mail and no signed return receipt is received by the State's Attorney within 28 days of mailing, and no communication from the owner or interest holder is received by the State's Attorney documenting actual notice by said parties, the State's Attorney shall, within a reasonable period of time, mail a second copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to that address.

(ii) If no signed return receipt is received by the State's Attorney within 28 days of the second attempt at service by certified mail, and no communication from the owner or interest holder is received by the State's Attorney documenting actual notice by said parties, the State's Attorney shall have 60 days to attempt to serve the notice by personal service, which also includes substitute service by leaving a copy at the usual place of abode with some person of the family or a person residing there, of the age of 13 years or upwards. If, after 3 attempts at service in this manner, no service of the notice is accomplished, then the notice shall be posted in a conspicuous manner at this address and service shall be made by the posting.

The attempts at service and the posting, if required, shall be documented by the person attempting service and said documentation shall be made part of a return of service returned to the State's Attorney.

The State's Attorney may utilize a Sheriff or Deputy Sheriff, any peace officer, a private process server or investigator, or any employee, agent, or investigator of the State's Attorney's office to attempt service without seeking leave of court.

After the procedures are followed, service shall be effective on an owner or interest holder on the date of receipt by the State's Attorney of a return receipt, or on the date of receipt of a communication from an owner or interest holder documenting actual notice, whichever is first in time, or on the date of the last act performed by the State's Attorney in attempting personal service under item (ii) of this paragraph (1). If notice is to be shown by actual notice from communication with a claimant, then the State's Attorney shall file an affidavit providing details of the communication, which shall be accepted as sufficient proof of service by the court.

For purposes of notice under this Section, if a person has been arrested for the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture, the address provided to the arresting agency at the time of arrest shall be deemed to be that person's known address. Provided, however, if an owner or interest holder's address changes prior to the effective date of the complaint for forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the seizing agency of the change in address or, if the owner or interest holder's address changes subsequent to the effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the change in address; or if the property seized is a conveyance, to the address reflected in the office of the agency or official in which title to or interest in the conveyance is required by law to be recorded.

(2) If the owner's or interest holder's address is not known, and is not on record, then notice shall be served by publication for 3 successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the seizure occurred.

(3) Notice to any business entity, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or partnership shall be completed by a single mailing of a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to that address. This notice is complete regardless of the return of a signed return receipt.

(4) Notice to a person whose address is not within the State shall be completed by a single mailing of a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to that address. This notice is complete regardless of the return of a signed return receipt.

(5) Notice to a person whose address is not within the United States shall be completed by a single mailing of a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to that address. This notice shall be complete regardless of the return of a signed return receipt. If certified mail is not available in the foreign country where the person has an address, then notice shall proceed by publication under paragraph (2) of this Section.

(6) Notice to any person whom the State's Attorney reasonably should know is incarcerated within the State shall also include mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first class mail to the address of the detention facility with the inmate's name clearly marked on the envelope.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-2.2)

Sec. 36-2.2. Replevin prohibited; return of personal property inside seized conveyance.

(a) Property seized under this Article shall not be subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director of the Illinois State Police, subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's Attorney.

(b) A claimant or a party interested in personal property contained within a seized conveyance may file a motion with the court in a judicial forfeiture action for the return of any personal property contained within a conveyance seized under this Article. The return of personal property shall not be unreasonably withheld if the personal property is not mechanically or electrically coupled to the conveyance, needed for evidentiary purposes, or otherwise contraband. A law enforcement agency that returns property under a court order under this Section shall not be liable to any person who claims ownership to the property if the property is returned to an improper party.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-2.5)

Sec. 36-2.5. Judicial in rem procedures.

(a) The laws of evidence relating to civil actions shall apply to judicial in rem proceedings under this Article.

(b) Only an owner of or interest holder in the property may file an answer asserting a claim against the property in the action in rem. For purposes of this Section, the owner or interest holder shall be referred to as claimant. A person not named in the forfeiture complaint who claims to have an interest in the property may petition to intervene as a claimant under Section 2-408 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) The answer shall be filed with the court within 45 days after service of the civil in rem complaint.

(d) The trial shall be held within 60 days after filing of the answer unless continued for good cause.

(e) In its case in chief, the State shall show by a preponderance of the evidence that:

(1) the property is subject to forfeiture; and

(2) at least one of the following:

(i) the claimant knew or should have known that the conduct was likely to occur; or

(ii) the claimant is not the true owner of the property that is subject to forfeiture.

In any forfeiture case under this Article, a claimant may present evidence to overcome evidence presented by the State that the property is subject to forfeiture.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the State's burden of proof at the trial of the forfeiture action shall be by clear and convincing evidence if:

(1) a finding of not guilty is entered as to all counts and all defendants in a criminal proceeding relating to the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture action; or

(2) the State receives an adverse finding at a preliminary hearing and fails to secure an indictment in a criminal proceeding related to the factual allegations of the forfeiture action.

(g) If the State does not meet its burden of proof, the court shall order the interest in the property returned or conveyed to the claimant and shall order all other property in which the State does meet its burden of proof forfeited to the State. If the State does meet its burden of proof, the court shall order all property forfeited to the State.

(h) A defendant convicted in any criminal proceeding is precluded from later denying the essential allegations of the criminal offense of which the defendant was convicted in any proceeding under this Article regardless of the pendency of an appeal from that conviction. However, evidence of the pendency of an appeal is admissible.

(i) An acquittal or dismissal in a criminal proceeding shall not preclude civil proceedings under this Act; however, for good cause shown, on a motion by either party, the court may stay civil forfeiture proceedings during the criminal trial for a related criminal indictment or information alleging a violation of law authorizing forfeiture under Section 36-1 of this Article.

(j) Title to all property declared forfeited under this Act vests in this State on the commission of the conduct giving rise to forfeiture together with the proceeds of the property after that time. Except as otherwise provided in this Article, any property or proceeds subsequently transferred to any person remain subject to forfeiture unless a person to whom the property was transferred makes an appropriate claim under or has the claim adjudicated at the judicial in rem hearing.

(k) No property shall be forfeited under this Article from a person who, without actual or constructive notice that the property was the subject of forfeiture proceedings, obtained possession of the property as a bona fide purchaser for value. A person who purports to transfer property after receiving actual or constructive notice that the property is subject to seizure or forfeiture is guilty of contempt of court and shall be liable to the State for a penalty in the amount of the fair market value of the property.

(l) A civil action under this Article shall be commenced within 5 years after the last conduct giving rise to forfeiture became known or should have become known or 5 years after the forfeitable property is discovered, whichever is later, excluding any time during which either the property or claimant is out of the State or in confinement or during which criminal proceedings relating to the same conduct are in progress.

(m) If property is ordered forfeited under this Article from a claimant who held title to the property in joint tenancy or tenancy in common with another claimant, the court shall determine the amount of each owner's interest in the property according to principles of property law.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-2.7)

Sec. 36-2.7. Innocent owner hearing.

(a) After a complaint for forfeiture has been filed and all claimants have appeared and answered, a claimant may file a motion with the court for an innocent owner hearing prior to trial. This motion shall be made and supported by sworn affidavit and shall assert the following along with specific facts that support each assertion:

(1) that the claimant filing the motion is the true owner of the conveyance as interpreted by case law; and

(2) that the claimant did not know or did not have reason to know the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture was likely to occur.

The claimant's motion shall include specific facts that support these assertions.

(b) Upon the filing, a hearing may only be conducted after the parties have been given the opportunity to conduct limited discovery as to the ownership and control of the property, the claimant's knowledge, or any matter relevant to the issues raised or facts alleged in the claimant's motion. Discovery shall be limited to the People's requests in these areas but may proceed by any means allowed in the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) After discovery is complete and the court has allowed for sufficient time to review and investigate the discovery responses, the court shall conduct a hearing. At the hearing, the fact that the conveyance is subject to forfeiture shall not be at issue. The court shall only hear evidence relating to the issue of innocent ownership.

(d) At the hearing on the motion, the claimant shall bear the burden of proving each of the assertions listed in subsection (a) of this Section by a preponderance of the evidence. If a claimant meets the burden of proof, the court shall grant the motion and order the conveyance returned to the claimant. If the claimant fails to meet the burden of proof, the court shall deny the motion and the forfeiture case shall proceed according to the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-3)

Sec. 36-3. Exemptions from forfeiture.

(a) No vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as such common carrier may be forfeited under the provisions of Section 36-2 unless the State proves by a preponderance of the evidence that (1) in the case of a railway car or engine, the owner, or (2) in the case of any other such vessel or watercraft, vehicle or aircraft, the owner or the master of such vessel or watercraft or the owner or conductor, driver, pilot, or other person in charge of such vehicle or aircraft was at the time of the alleged illegal act a consenting party or privy thereto.

(b) No vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft shall be forfeited under the provisions of Section 36-2 of this Article by reason of any act or omission committed or omitted by any person other than such owner while such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft was unlawfully in the possession of a person who acquired possession thereof in violation of the criminal laws of the United States, or of any state.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-3.1)

Sec. 36-3.1. Proportionality. Property forfeited under this Article shall be subject to an 8th Amendment to the United States Constitution disproportionate penalties analysis, and the property forfeiture may be denied in whole or in part if the court finds that the forfeiture would constitute an excessive fine in violation of the 8th Amendment to the United States Constitution, as interpreted by case law.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-4)

Sec. 36-4. Remission by Attorney General. Whenever any owner of, or other person interested in, a vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft seized under the provisions of this Act files with the Attorney General before the sale or destruction of such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft, a petition for the remission of such forfeiture the Attorney General if he finds that such forfeiture was incurred without willful negligence or without any intention on the part of the owner or any person whose right, title or interest is of record as described in Section 36-1, to violate the law, or finds the existence of such mitigating circumstances as to justify the remission of forfeiture, may cause the same to be remitted upon such terms and conditions as he deems reasonable and just, or order discontinuance of any forfeiture proceeding relating thereto.

(Source: P.A. 98-699, eff. 1-1-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-5)

Sec. 36-5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 98-1020, eff. 8-22-14. Repealed by P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-6)

Sec. 36-6. Return of property, damages and costs.

(a) The law enforcement agency that holds custody of property seized for forfeiture shall return to the claimant, within a reasonable period of time not to exceed 7 days unless the order is stayed by the trial court or a reviewing court pending an appeal, motion to reconsider, or other reason after the court orders the property to be returned or conveyed to the claimant:

(1) property ordered by the court to be conveyed or returned to the claimant; and

(2) property ordered by the court to be conveyed or returned to the claimant under subsection (d) of Section 36-3.1 of this Article.

(b) The law enforcement agency that holds custody of property seized under this Article is responsible for any damages, storage fees, and related costs applicable to property returned to a claimant under this Article. The claimant shall not be subject to any charges by the State for storage of the property or expenses incurred in the preservation of the property. Charges for the towing of a conveyance shall be borne by the claimant unless the conveyance was towed for the sole reason of seizure for forfeiture. This subsection does not prohibit the imposition of any fees or costs by a home rule unit of local government related to the impoundment of a conveyance under an ordinance enacted by the unit of government.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-7)

Sec. 36-7. Distribution of proceeds; selling or retaining seized property prohibited.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the court shall order that property forfeited under this Article be delivered to the Illinois State Police within 60 days.

(b) The Illinois State Police or its designee shall dispose of all property at public auction and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, together with any moneys forfeited or seized, under subsection (c) of this Section.

(c) All moneys and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized under this Act shall be distributed as follows:

(1) 65% shall be distributed to the drug task force, metropolitan enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or State law enforcement agency or agencies that conducted or participated in the investigation resulting in the forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable relationship to the degree of direct participation of the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of the property forfeited and the total law enforcement effort with respect to the violation of the law upon which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to the agency or agencies shall be used, at the discretion of the agency, for the enforcement of criminal laws; or for public education in the community or schools in the prevention or detection of the abuse of drugs or alcohol; or for security cameras used for the prevention or detection of violence, except that amounts distributed to the Secretary of State shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Evidence Fund to be used as provided in Section 2-115 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

Any local, municipal, or county law enforcement agency entitled to receive a monetary distribution of forfeiture proceeds may share those forfeiture proceeds pursuant to the terms of an intergovernmental agreement with a municipality that has a population in excess of 20,000 if:

(A) the receiving agency has entered into an intergovernmental agreement with the municipality to provide police services;

(B) the intergovernmental agreement for police services provides for consideration in an amount of not less than $1,000,000 per year;

(C) the seizure took place within the geographical limits of the municipality; and

(D) the funds are used only for the enforcement of criminal laws; for public education in the community or schools in the prevention or detection of the abuse of drugs or alcohol; or for security cameras used for the prevention or detection of violence or the establishment of a municipal police force, including the training of officers, construction of a police station, the purchase of law enforcement equipment, or vehicles.

(2) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney of the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use, at the discretion of the State's Attorney, in the enforcement of criminal laws; or for public education in the community or schools in the prevention or detection of the abuse of drugs or alcohol; or at the discretion of the State's Attorney, in addition to other authorized purposes, to make grants to local substance abuse treatment facilities and half-way houses. In counties over 3,000,000 population, 25% will be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney for use, at the discretion of the State's Attorney, in the enforcement of criminal laws; or for public education in the community or schools in the prevention or detection of the abuse of drugs or alcohol; or at the discretion of the State's Attorney, in addition to other authorized purposes, to make grants to local substance abuse treatment facilities and half-way houses. If the prosecution is undertaken solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided shall be distributed to the Attorney General for use in the enforcement of criminal laws governing cannabis and controlled substances or for public education in the community or schools in the prevention or detection of the abuse of drugs or alcohol.

12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and shall be used at the discretion of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor for additional expenses incurred in the investigation, prosecution and appeal of cases arising in the enforcement of criminal laws; or for public education in the community or schools in the prevention or detection of the abuse of drugs or alcohol. The Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall not receive distribution from cases brought in counties with over 3,000,000 population.

(3) 10% shall be retained by the Illinois State Police for expenses related to the administration and sale of seized and forfeited property.

(d) A law enforcement agency shall not retain forfeited property for its own use or transfer the property to any person or entity, except as provided under this Section. A law enforcement agency may apply in writing to the Director of the Illinois State Police to request that forfeited property be awarded to the agency for a specifically articulated official law enforcement use in an investigation. The Director of the Illinois State Police shall provide a written justification in each instance detailing the reasons why the forfeited property was placed into official use, and the justification shall be retained for a period of not less than 3 years.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-9)

Sec. 36-9. Reporting. Property seized or forfeited under this Article is subject to reporting under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 36.5 heading) ARTICLE 36.5. VEHICLE IMPOUNDMENT (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-10)

Sec. 36-10. Applicability; savings clause.

(a) The changes made to this Article by Public Act 100-512 and Public Act 100-699 only apply to property seized on and after July 1, 2018.

(b) The changes made to this Article by Public Act 100-699 are subject to Section 4 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; 100-1163, eff. 12-20-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/36.5-5)

Sec. 36.5-5. Vehicle impoundment.

(a) In addition to any other penalty, fee or forfeiture provided by law, a peace officer who arrests a person for a violation of Section 10-9, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-18, or 11-18.1 of this Code or related municipal ordinance, may tow and impound any vehicle used by the person in the commission of the violation. The person arrested for one or more such violations shall be charged a $1,000 fee, to be paid to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest or its designated representative. The person may recover the vehicle from the impound after a minimum of 2 hours after arrest upon payment of the fee.

(b) $500 of the fee shall be distributed to the law enforcement agency whose peace officers made the arrest, for the costs incurred by the law enforcement agency to investigate and to tow and impound the vehicle. Upon the defendant's conviction of one or more of the violations in connection with which the vehicle was impounded and the fee imposed under this Section, the remaining $500 of the fee shall be deposited into the Specialized Services for Survivors of Human Trafficking Fund and disbursed in accordance with subsections (d), (e), and (f) of Section 5-9-1.21 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(c) Upon the presentation by the defendant of a signed court order showing that the defendant has been acquitted of all of the violations in connection with which a vehicle was impounded and a fee imposed under this Section, or that the charges against the defendant for those violations have been dismissed, the law enforcement agency shall refund the $1,000 fee to the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 37 heading) ARTICLE 37. PROPERTY FORFEITURE

(720 ILCS 5/37-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 37-1)

Sec. 37-1. Maintaining Public Nuisance. Any building used in the commission of offenses prohibited by Sections 9-1, 10-1, 10-2, 11-14, 11-15, 11-16, 11-17, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 12-5.1, 16-1, 20-2, 23-1, 23-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(7), 24-3, 28-1, 28-3, 31-5 or 39A-1, or subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2)(A), or (a)(2)(B) of Section 11-14.3, of this Code, or prohibited by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act, or used in the commission of an inchoate offense relative to any of the aforesaid principal offenses, or any real property erected, established, maintained, owned, leased, or used by a streetgang for the purpose of conducting streetgang related activity as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act is a public nuisance.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of knowingly maintaining such a public nuisance commits a Class A misdemeanor. Each subsequent offense under this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/37-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 37-2)

Sec. 37-2. Enforcement of lien upon public nuisance.

Any building, used in the commission of an offense specified in Section 37-1 of this Act with the intentional, knowing, reckless or negligent permission of the owner thereof, or the agent of the owner managing the building, shall, together with the underlying real estate, all fixtures and other property used to commit such an offense, be subject to a lien and may be sold to pay any unsatisfied judgment that may be recovered and any unsatisfied fine that may be levied under any Section of this Article and to pay to any person not maintaining the nuisance his damages as a consequence of the nuisance; provided, that the lien herein created shall not affect the rights of any purchaser, mortgagee, judgment creditor or other lien holder arising prior to the filing of a notice of such lien in the office of the recorder of the county in which the real estate subject to the lien is located, or in the office of the registrar of titles of such county if that real estate is registered under "An Act concerning land titles" approved May 1, 1897, as amended; which notice shall definitely describe the real estate and property involved, the nature and extent of the lien claimed, and the facts upon which the same is based. An action to enforce such lien may be commenced in any circuit court by the State's Attorney of the county of the nuisance or by the person suffering damages or both, except that a person seeking to recover damages must pursue his remedy within 6 months after the damages are sustained or his cause of action becomes thereafter exclusively enforceable by the State's Attorney of the county of the nuisance.

(Source: P.A. 83-358.)

(720 ILCS 5/37-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 37-3)

Sec. 37-3. Revocation of licenses, permits and certificates.

All licenses, permits or certificates issued by the State of Illinois or any subdivision or political agency thereof authorizing the serving of food or liquor on any premises found to constitute a public nuisance as described in Section 37-1 shall be void and shall be revoked by the issuing authority; and no license, permit or certificate so revoked shall be reissued for such premises for a period of 60 days thereafter; nor shall any person convicted of knowingly maintaining such nuisance be reissued such license, permit or certificate for one year from his conviction. No license, permit or certificate shall be revoked pursuant to this Section without a full hearing conducted by the commission or agency which issued the license.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 403.)

(720 ILCS 5/37-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 37-4)

Sec. 37-4. Abatement of nuisance.) The Attorney General of this State or the State's Attorney of the county wherein the nuisance exists may commence an action to abate a public nuisance as described in Section 37-1 of this Act, in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, in the circuit court. Upon being satisfied by affidavits or other sworn evidence that an alleged public nuisance exists, the court may without notice or bond enter a temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction to enjoin any defendant from maintaining such nuisance and may enter an order restraining any defendant from removing or interfering with all property used in connection with the public nuisance. If during the proceedings and hearings upon the merits, which shall be in the manner of "An Act in relation to places used for the purpose of using, keeping or selling controlled substances or cannabis", approved July 5, 1957, the existence of the nuisance is established, and it is found that such nuisance was maintained with the intentional, knowing, reckless or negligent permission of the owner or the agent of the owner managing the building, the court shall enter an order restraining all persons from maintaining or permitting such nuisance and from using the building for a period of one year thereafter, except that an owner, lessee or other occupant thereof may use such place if the owner shall give bond with sufficient security or surety approved by the court, in an amount between $1,000 and $5,000 inclusive, payable to the People of the State of Illinois, and including a condition that no offense specified in Section 37-1 of this Act shall be committed at, in or upon the property described and a condition that the principal obligor and surety assume responsibility for any fine, costs or damages resulting from such an offense thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 83-342.)

(720 ILCS 5/37-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 37-5)

Sec. 37-5. Enforcement by private person.

A private person may, after 30 days and within 90 days of giving the Attorney General and the State's Attorney of the county of nuisance written notice by certified or registered mail of the fact that a public nuisance as described in Section 37-1 of this Act, commence an action pursuant to Section 37-4 of this Act, provided that the Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county of nuisance has not already commenced said action.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 403.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 37.5 heading) ARTICLE 37.5. ANIMAL FIGHTING; FORFEITURE

(720 ILCS 5/37.5-5)

Sec. 37.5-5. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-192, eff. 7-14-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/37.5-10)

Sec. 37.5-10. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-192, eff. 7-14-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/37.5-15)

Sec. 37.5-15. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-192, eff. 7-14-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/37.5-20)

Sec. 37.5-20. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-192, eff. 7-14-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/37.5-25)

Sec. 37.5-25. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-192, eff. 7-14-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/37.5-30)

Sec. 37.5-30. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-192, eff. 7-14-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/37.5-35)

Sec. 37.5-35. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-192, eff. 7-14-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/37.5-40)

Sec. 37.5-40. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-192, eff. 7-14-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/37.5-45)

Sec. 37.5-45. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-192, eff. 7-14-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 38 heading) ARTICLE 38. CRIMINALLY OPERATED BUSINESSES

(720 ILCS 5/38-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 38-1)

Sec. 38-1. Forfeiture of charter and revocation of certificate.

The State's Attorney is authorized to institute civil proceedings in the Circuit Court to forfeit the charter of a corporation organized under the laws of this State or to revoke the certificate authorizing a foreign corporation to conduct business in this State. The Court may order the charter forfeited or the certificate revoked upon finding (a) that a director, officer, employee, agent or stockholder acting in behalf of the corporation has, in conducting the corporation's affairs, purposely engaged in a persistent course of intimidation, coercion, bribery or other such illegal conduct with the intent to compel other persons, firms, or corporations to deal with such corporation, and (b) that for the prevention of future illegal conduct of the same character, the public interest requires the charter of the corporation to be forfeited and the corporation to be dissolved or the certificate to be revoked.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 1222.)

(720 ILCS 5/38-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 38-2)

Sec. 38-2. Enjoining operation of a business.

The State's Attorney is authorized to institute civil proceedings in the Circuit Court to enjoin the operation of any business other than a corporation, including a partnership, joint venture or sole proprietorship. The Court may grant the injunction upon finding that (a) any person in control of any such business, who may be a partner in a partnership, a participant in a joint venture, the owner of a sole proprietorship, an employee or agent of any such business, or a person who, in fact, exercises control over the operations of any such business, has, in conducting its business affairs, purposely engaged in a persistent course of intimidation, coercion, bribery or other such illegal conduct with the intent to compel other persons, firms, or corporations to deal with such business, and (b) that for the prevention of future illegal conduct of the same character, the public interest requires the operation of the business to be enjoined.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 1222.)

(720 ILCS 5/38-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 38-3)

Sec. 38-3. Institution and conduct of proceedings.) (a) The proceedings authorized by Section 38-1 may be instituted against a corporation in any county in which it is doing business and the proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with the Civil Practice Law and all existing and future amendments of that Law and the Supreme Court Rules now or hereafter adopted in relation to that Law. Such proceedings shall be deemed additional to any other proceeding authorized by law for the purpose of forfeiting the charter of a corporation or revoking the certificate of a foreign corporation.

(b) The proceedings authorized by Section 38-2 may be instituted against a business other than a corporation in any county in which it is doing business and the proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with the Civil Practice Law and all existing and future amendments of that Law and the Supreme Court Rules now or hereafter adopted in relation to that Law.

(c) Whenever proceedings are instituted against a corporation or business pursuant to Section 38-1 or 38-2, the State's Attorney shall give written notice of the institution of such proceedings to the corporation or business against which the proceedings are brought.

(Source: P.A. 82-783.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 39 heading) ARTICLE 39. CRIMINAL USURY (Repealed)(Article heading repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11)

(720 ILCS 5/39-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 39-1)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-59 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 39-1. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 76-1879. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/39-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 39-2)

Sec. 39-2. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 77-2638. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/39-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 39-3)

Sec. 39-3. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 84-1004. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 42 heading) ARTICLE 42. LOOTING

(720 ILCS 5/42-1)

Sec. 42-1. (Repealed).

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 2598. Repealed by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/42-2)

Sec. 42-2. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 87-1170. Repealed by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 44 heading) ARTICLE 44. TELECOMMUNICATIONS DEVICES (Repealed)(Source: P.A. 86-811. Repealed by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/44-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 44-1)

Sec. 44-1. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 86-811. Repealed by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/44-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 44-2)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-65 by P.A. 97-1109.)

Sec. 44-2. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/44-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 44-3)

Sec. 44-3. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 45 heading) ARTICLE 45. DISCLOSING LOCATION OF DOMESTIC VIOLENCE VICTIM (Repealed)(Article heading repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11)

(720 ILCS 5/45-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 45-1)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-3.6 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 45-1. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 88-45. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/45-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 45-2)

(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-3.6 by P.A. 96-1551.)

Sec. 45-2. (Renumbered).

(Source: P.A. 88-45. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 46 heading) ARTICLE 46. INSURANCE FRAUD, FRAUD ON THE GOVERNMENT, AND RELATED OFFENSES (Repealed)(Article repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 47 heading) ARTICLE 47. NUISANCE

(720 ILCS 5/47-5)

Sec. 47-5. Public nuisance. It is a public nuisance:

(1) To cause or allow the carcass of an animal or offal, filth, or a noisome substance to be collected, deposited, or to remain in any place to the prejudice of others.

(2) To throw or deposit offal or other offensive matter or the carcass of a dead animal in a water course, lake, pond, spring, well, or common sewer, street, or public highway.

(3) To corrupt or render unwholesome or impure the water of a spring, river, stream, pond, or lake to the injury or prejudice of others.

(4) To obstruct or impede, without legal authority, the passage of a navigable river or waters.

(5) To obstruct or encroach upon public highways, private ways, streets, alleys, commons, landing places, and ways to burying places.

(6) To carry on the business of manufacturing gunpowder, nitroglycerine, or other highly explosive substances, or mixing or grinding the materials for those substances, in a building within 20 rods of a valuable building erected at the time the business is commenced.

(7) To establish powder magazines near incorporated towns, at a point different from that appointed according to law by the corporate authorities of the town, or within 50 rods of an occupied dwelling house.

(8) To erect, continue, or use a building or other place for the exercise of a trade, employment, or manufacture that, by occasioning noxious exhalations, offensive smells, or otherwise, is offensive or dangerous to the health of individuals or of the public.

(9) To advertise wares or occupation by painting notices of the wares or occupation on or affixing them to fences or other private property, or on rocks or other natural objects, without the consent of the owner, or if in the highway or other public place, without permission of the proper authorities.

(10) To permit a well drilled for oil, gas, salt water disposal, or any other purpose in connection with the production of oil and gas to remain unplugged after the well is no longer used for the purpose for which it was drilled.

(11) To construct or operate a salt water pit or oil field refuse pit, commonly called a "burn out pit", so that salt water, brine, or oil field refuse or other waste liquids may escape from the pit in a manner except by the evaporation of the salt water or brine or by the burning of the oil field waste or refuse.

(12) To permit concrete bases, discarded machinery, and materials to remain around an oil or gas well, or to fail to fill holes, cellars, slush pits, and other excavations made in connection with the well or to restore the surface of the lands surrounding the well to its condition before the drilling of the well, upon abandonment of the oil or gas well.

(13) To permit salt water, oil, gas, or other wastes from a well drilled for oil, gas, or exploratory purposes to escape to the surface, or into a mine or coal seam, or into an underground fresh water supply, or from one underground stratum to another.

(14) To harass, intimidate, or threaten a person who is about to sell or lease or has sold or leased a residence or other real property or is about to buy or lease or has bought or leased a residence or other real property, when the harassment, intimidation, or threat relates to a person's attempt to sell, buy, or lease a residence, or other real property, or refers to a person's sale, purchase, or lease of a residence or other real property.

(15) To store, dump, or permit the accumulation of debris, refuse, garbage, trash, tires, buckets, cans, wheelbarrows, garbage cans, or other containers in a manner that may harbor mosquitoes, flies, insects, rodents, nuisance birds, or other animal pests that are offensive, injurious, or dangerous to the health of individuals or the public.

(16) To create a condition, through the improper maintenance of a swimming pool or wading pool, or by causing an action that alters the condition of a natural body of water, so that it harbors mosquitoes, flies, or other animal pests that are offensive, injurious, or dangerous to the health of individuals or the public.

(17) To operate a tanning facility without a valid permit under the Tanning Facility Permit Act.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent the corporate authorities of a city, village, or incorporated town, or the county board of a county, from declaring what are nuisances and abating them within their limits. Counties have that authority only outside the corporate limits of a city, village, or incorporated town.

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96.)

(720 ILCS 5/47-10)

Sec. 47-10. Dumping garbage. It is unlawful for a person to dump or place garbage or another offensive substance within the corporate limits of a city, village, or incorporated town other than (1) the city, village, or incorporated town within the corporate limits of which the garbage or other offensive substance originated or (2) a city, village, or incorporated town that has contracted with the city, village, or incorporated town within which the garbage originated, for the joint collection and disposal of garbage; nor shall the garbage or other offensive substance be dumped or placed within a distance of one mile of the corporate limits of any other city, village, or incorporated town.

A person violating this Section is guilty of a petty offense.

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96.)

(720 ILCS 5/47-15)

Sec. 47-15. Dumping garbage upon real property.

(a) It is unlawful for a person to dump, deposit, or place garbage, rubbish, trash, or refuse upon real property not owned by that person without the consent of the owner or person in possession of the real property.

(b) A person who violates this Section is liable to the owner or person in possession of the real property on which the garbage, rubbish, trash, or refuse is dumped, deposited, or placed for the reasonable costs incurred by the owner or person in possession for cleaning up and properly disposing of the garbage, rubbish, trash, or refuse, and for reasonable attorneys' fees.

(c) A person violating this Section is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor for which the court must impose a minimum fine of $500. A second conviction for an offense committed after the first conviction is a Class A misdemeanor for which the court must impose a minimum fine of $500. A third or subsequent violation, committed after a second conviction, is a Class 4 felony for which the court must impose a minimum fine of $500. A person who violates this Section and who has an equity interest in a motor vehicle used in violation of this Section is presumed to have the financial resources to pay the minimum fine not exceeding his or her equity interest in the vehicle. Personal property used by a person in violation of this Section shall on the third or subsequent conviction of the person be forfeited to the county where the violation occurred and disposed of at a public sale. Before the forfeiture, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether property is subject to forfeiture under this Section. At the forfeiture hearing the State has the burden of establishing by a preponderance of the evidence that property is subject to forfeiture under this Section. Property seized or forfeited under this Section is subject to reporting under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(d) The statutory minimum fine required by subsection (c) is not subject to reduction or suspension unless the defendant is indigent. If the defendant files a motion with the court asserting his or her inability to pay the mandatory fine required by this Section, the court must set a hearing on the motion before sentencing. The court must require an affidavit signed by the defendant containing sufficient information to ascertain the assets and liabilities of the defendant. If the court determines that the defendant is indigent, the court must require that the defendant choose either to pay the minimum fine of $500 or to perform 100 hours of community service.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/47-20)

Sec. 47-20. Unplugged well. It is a Class A misdemeanor for a person to permit a water well, located on property owned by him or her, to be in an unplugged condition at any time after the abandonment of the well for obtaining water. No well is in an unplugged condition, however, that is plugged in conformity with the rules and regulations of the Department of Natural Resources issued under Section 6 and Section 19 of the Illinois Oil and Gas Act. This Section does not apply to a well drilled or used for observation or any other purpose in connection with the development or operation of a gas storage project.

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96; 89-445, eff. 2-7-96.)

(720 ILCS 5/47-25)

Sec. 47-25. Penalties. Whoever causes, erects, or continues a nuisance described in this Article, for the first offense, is guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined not exceeding $100, and for a subsequent offense is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Every nuisance described in this Article, when a conviction for that nuisance is had, may, by order of the court before which the conviction is had, be abated by the sheriff or other proper officer, at the expense of the defendant. It is not a defense to a proceeding under this Section that the nuisance is erected or continued by virtue or permission of a law of this State.

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 48 heading) ARTICLE 48. ANIMALS (Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-1) (was 720 ILCS 5/26-5)

Sec. 48-1. Dog fighting. (For other provisions that may apply to dog fighting, see the Humane Care for Animals Act. For provisions similar to this Section that apply to animals other than dogs, see in particular Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act.)

(a) No person may own, capture, breed, train, or lease any dog which he or she knows is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between the dog and any other animal or human, or the intentional killing of any dog for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(b) No person may promote, conduct, carry on, advertise, collect money for or in any other manner assist or aid in the presentation for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment of any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more dogs or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog.

(c) No person may sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move, or deliver or receive any dog which he or she knows has been captured, bred, or trained, or will be used, to fight another dog or human or be intentionally killed for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(c-5) No person may solicit a minor to violate this Section.

(d) No person may manufacture for sale, shipment, transportation, or delivery any device or equipment which he or she knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any human and dog, or the intentional killing of any dog for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(e) No person may own, possess, sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move any equipment or device which he or she knows or should know is intended for use in connection with any show, exhibition, program, or activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(f) No person may knowingly make available any site, structure, or facility, whether enclosed or not, that he or she knows is intended to be used for the purpose of conducting any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog or knowingly manufacture, distribute, or deliver fittings to be used in a fight between 2 or more dogs or a dog and human.

(g) No person may knowingly attend or otherwise patronize any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(h) No person may tie or attach or fasten any live animal to any machine or device propelled by any power for the purpose of causing the animal to be pursued by a dog or dogs. This subsection (h) applies only when the dog is intended to be used in a dog fight.

(i) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of violating subsection (a), (b), (c), or (h) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent violation, and may be fined an amount not to exceed $50,000.

(1.5) A person who knowingly owns a dog for fighting purposes or for producing a fight between 2 or more dogs or a dog and human or who knowingly offers for sale or sells a dog bred for fighting is guilty of a Class 3 felony and may be fined an amount not to exceed $50,000, if the dog participates in a dogfight and any of the following factors is present:

(i) the dogfight is performed in the presence of a person under 18 years of age;

(ii) the dogfight is performed for the purpose of or in the presence of illegal wagering activity; or

(iii) the dogfight is performed in furtherance of streetgang related activity as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(1.7) A person convicted of violating subsection (c-5) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of violating subsection (d) or (e) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (d) or (e) of this Section is a Class 3 felony.

(2.5) Any person convicted of violating subsection (f) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Any person convicted of violating subsection (f) of this Section in which the site, structure, or facility made available to violate subsection (f) is located within 1,000 feet of a school, public park, playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, day care home, group day care home, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age is guilty of a Class 3 felony for a first violation and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(3) Any person convicted of violating subsection (g) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (g) of this Section is a Class 3 felony. If a person under 13 years of age is present at any show, exhibition, program, or other activity prohibited in subsection (g), the parent, legal guardian, or other person who is 18 years of age or older who brings that person under 13 years of age to that show, exhibition, program, or other activity is guilty of a Class 3 felony for a first violation and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(i-5) A person who commits a felony violation of this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(j) Any dog or equipment involved in a violation of this Section shall be immediately seized and impounded under Section 12 of the Humane Care for Animals Act when located at any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a dog fight for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(k) Any vehicle or conveyance other than a common carrier that is used in violation of this Section shall be seized, held, and offered for sale at public auction by the sheriff's department of the proper jurisdiction, and the proceeds from the sale shall be remitted to the general fund of the county where the violation took place.

(l) Any veterinarian in this State who is presented with a dog for treatment of injuries or wounds resulting from fighting where there is a reasonable possibility that the dog was engaged in or utilized for a fighting event for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment shall file a report with the Department of Agriculture and cooperate by furnishing the owners' names, dates, and descriptions of the dog or dogs involved. Any veterinarian who in good faith complies with the requirements of this subsection has immunity from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, that may result from his or her actions. For the purposes of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of the veterinarian shall be rebuttably presumed.

(m) In addition to any other penalty provided by law, upon conviction for violating this Section, the court may order that the convicted person and persons dwelling in the same household as the convicted person who conspired, aided, or abetted in the unlawful act that was the basis of the conviction, or who knew or should have known of the unlawful act, may not own, harbor, or have custody or control of any dog or other animal for a period of time that the court deems reasonable.

(n) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section may be inferred from evidence that the accused possessed any device or equipment described in subsection (d), (e), or (h) of this Section, and also possessed any dog.

(o) When no longer required for investigations or court proceedings relating to the events described or depicted therein, evidence relating to convictions for violations of this Section shall be retained and made available for use in training peace officers in detecting and identifying violations of this Section. Such evidence shall be made available upon request to other law enforcement agencies and to schools certified under the Illinois Police Training Act.

(p) For the purposes of this Section, "school" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 11-9.3 of this Code; and "public park", "playground", "child care institution", "day care center", "part day child care facility", "day care home", "group day care home", and "facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 11-9.4 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-226, eff. 8-11-09; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1091, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-2)

Sec. 48-2. Animal research and production facilities protection.

(a) Definitions.

"Animal" means every living creature, domestic or wild, but does not include man.

"Animal facility" means any facility engaging in legal scientific research or agricultural production of or involving the use of animals including any organization with a primary purpose of representing livestock production or processing, any organization with a primary purpose of promoting or marketing livestock or livestock products, any person licensed to practice veterinary medicine, any institution as defined in the Impounding and Disposition of Stray Animals Act, and any organization with a primary purpose of representing any such person, organization, or institution. "Animal facility" shall include the owner, operator, and employees of any animal facility and any premises where animals are located.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Agriculture or the Director's authorized representative.

(b) Legislative Declaration. There has been an increasing number of illegal acts committed against animal research and production facilities involving injury or loss of life to humans or animals, criminal trespass and damage to property. These actions not only abridge the property rights of the owner of the facility, they may also damage the public interest by jeopardizing crucial scientific, biomedical, or agricultural research or production. These actions can also threaten the public safety by possibly exposing communities to serious public health concerns and creating traffic hazards. These actions may substantially disrupt or damage publicly funded research and can result in the potential loss of physical and intellectual property. Therefore, it is in the interest of the people of the State of Illinois to protect the welfare of humans and animals as well as productive use of public funds to require regulation to prevent unauthorized possession, alteration, destruction, or transportation of research records, test data, research materials, equipment, research and agricultural production animals.

(c) It shall be unlawful for any person:

(1) to release, steal, or otherwise intentionally cause the death, injury, or loss of any animal at or from an animal facility and not authorized by that facility;

(2) to damage, vandalize, or steal any property in or on an animal facility;

(3) to obtain access to an animal facility by false pretenses for the purpose of performing acts not authorized by that facility;

(4) to enter into an animal facility with an intent to destroy, alter, duplicate, or obtain unauthorized possession of records, data, materials, equipment, or animals;

(5) by theft or deception knowingly to obtain control or to exert control over records, data, material, equipment, or animals of any animal facility for the purpose of depriving the rightful owner or animal facility of the records, material, data, equipment, or animals or for the purpose of concealing, abandoning, or destroying these records, material, data, equipment, or animals; or

(6) to enter or remain on an animal facility with the intent to commit an act prohibited under this Section.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Any person who violates any provision of subsection (c) shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each violation, unless the loss, theft, or damage to the animal facility property exceeds $300 in value.

(2) If the loss, theft, or damage to the animal facility property exceeds $300 in value but does not exceed $10,000 in value, the person is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(3) If the loss, theft, or damage to the animal facility property exceeds $10,000 in value but does not exceed $100,000 in value, the person is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(4) If the loss, theft, or damage to the animal facility property exceeds $100,000 in value, the person is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(5) Any person who, with the intent that any violation of any provision of subsection (c) be committed, agrees with another to the commission of the violation and commits an act in furtherance of this agreement is guilty of the same class of felony as provided in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection for that violation.

(6) Restitution.

(A) The court shall conduct a hearing to determine the reasonable cost of replacing materials, data, equipment, animals and records that may have been damaged, destroyed, lost or cannot be returned, and the reasonable cost of repeating any experimentation that may have been interrupted or invalidated as a result of a violation of subsection (c).

(B) Any persons convicted of a violation shall be ordered jointly and severally to make restitution to the owner, operator, or both, of the animal facility in the full amount of the reasonable cost determined under paragraph (A).

(e) Private right of action. Nothing in this Section shall preclude any animal facility injured in its business or property by a violation of this Section from seeking appropriate relief under any other provision of law or remedy including the issuance of a permanent injunction against any person who violates any provision of this Section. The animal facility owner or operator may petition the court to permanently enjoin the person from violating this Section and the court shall provide this relief.

(f) The Director shall have authority to investigate any alleged violation of this Section, along with any other law enforcement agency, and may take any action within the Director's authority necessary for the enforcement of this Section. State's Attorneys, State police and other law enforcement officials shall provide any assistance required in the conduct of an investigation and prosecution. Before the Director reports a violation for prosecution he or she may give the owner or operator of the animal facility and the alleged violator an opportunity to present his or her views at an administrative hearing. The Director may adopt any rules and regulations necessary for the enforcement of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-3)

Sec. 48-3. Hunter or fisherman interference.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Aquatic life" means all fish, reptiles, amphibians, crayfish, and mussels the taking of which is authorized by the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

"Interfere with" means to take any action that physically impedes, hinders, or obstructs the lawful taking of wildlife or aquatic life.

"Taking" means the capture or killing of wildlife or aquatic life and includes travel, camping, and other acts preparatory to taking which occur on lands or waters upon which the affected person has the right or privilege to take such wildlife or aquatic life.

"Wildlife" means any wildlife the taking of which is authorized by the Wildlife Code and includes those species that are lawfully released by properly licensed permittees of the Department of Natural Resources.

(b) A person commits hunter or fisherman interference when he or she intentionally or knowingly:

(1) obstructs or interferes with the lawful taking of wildlife or aquatic life by another person with the specific intent to prevent that lawful taking;

(2) drives or disturbs wildlife or aquatic life for the purpose of disrupting a lawful taking of wildlife or aquatic life;

(3) blocks, impedes, or physically harasses another person who is engaged in the process of lawfully taking wildlife or aquatic life;

(4) uses natural or artificial visual, aural, olfactory, gustatory, or physical stimuli to affect wildlife or aquatic life behavior in order to hinder or prevent the lawful taking of wildlife or aquatic life;

(5) erects barriers with the intent to deny ingress or egress to or from areas where the lawful taking of wildlife or aquatic life may occur;

(6) intentionally interjects himself or herself into the line of fire or fishing lines of a person lawfully taking wildlife or aquatic life;

(7) affects the physical condition or placement of personal or public property intended for use in the lawful taking of wildlife or aquatic life in order to impair the usefulness of the property or prevent the use of the property;

(8) enters or remains upon or over private lands without the permission of the owner or the owner's agent, with the intent to violate this subsection;

(9) fails to obey the order of a peace officer to desist from conduct in violation of this subsection (b) if the officer observes the conduct, or has reasonable grounds to believe that the person has engaged in the conduct that day or that the person plans or intends to engage in the conduct that day on a specific premises; or

(10) uses a drone in a way that interferes with another person's lawful taking of wildlife or aquatic life. For the purposes of this paragraph (10), "drone" means any aerial vehicle that does not carry a human operator.

(c) Exemptions; defenses.

(1) This Section does not apply to actions performed by authorized employees of the Department of Natural Resources, duly accredited officers of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, sheriffs, deputy sheriffs, or other peace officers if the actions are authorized by law and are necessary for the performance of their official duties.

(2) This Section does not apply to landowners, tenants, or lease holders exercising their legal rights to the enjoyment of land, including, but not limited to, farming and restricting trespass.

(3) It is an affirmative defense to a prosecution for a violation of this Section that the defendant's conduct is protected by his or her right to freedom of speech under the constitution of this State or the United States.

(4) Any interested parties may engage in protests or other free speech activities adjacent to or on the perimeter of the location where the lawful taking of wildlife or aquatic life is taking place, provided that none of the provisions of this Section are being violated.

(d) Sentence. A first violation of paragraphs (1) through (8) of subsection (b) is a Class B misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of paragraphs (1) through (8) of subsection (b) is a Class A misdemeanor for which imprisonment for not less than 7 days shall be imposed. A person guilty of a second or subsequent violation of paragraphs (1) through (8) of subsection (b) is not eligible for court supervision. A violation of paragraph (9) or (10) of subsection (b) is a Class A misdemeanor. A court shall revoke, for a period of one year to 5 years, any Illinois hunting, fishing, or trapping privilege, license or permit of any person convicted of violating any provision of this Section. For purposes of this subsection, a "second or subsequent violation" means a conviction under paragraphs (1) through (8) of subsection (b) of this Section within 2 years of a prior violation arising from a separate set of circumstances.

(e) Injunctions; damages.

(1) Any court may enjoin conduct which would be in violation of paragraphs (1) through (8) or (10) of subsection (b) upon petition by a person affected or who reasonably may be affected by the conduct, upon a showing that the conduct is threatened or that it has occurred on a particular premises in the past and that it is not unreasonable to expect that under similar circumstances it will be repeated.

(2) A court shall award all resulting costs and damages to any person adversely affected by a violation of paragraphs (1) through (8) or (10) of subsection (b), which may include an award for punitive damages. In addition to other items of special damage, the measure of damages may include expenditures of the affected person for license and permit fees, travel, guides, special equipment and supplies, to the extent that these expenditures were rendered futile by prevention of the taking of wildlife or aquatic life.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-402, eff. 8-16-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-4)

Sec. 48-4. Obtaining certificate of registration by false pretenses.

(a) A person commits obtaining certificate of registration by false pretenses when he or she, by any false pretense, obtains from any club, association, society or company for improving the breed of cattle, horses, sheep, swine, or other domestic animals, a certificate of registration of any animal in the herd register, or other register of any club, association, society or company, or a transfer of the registration.

(b) A person commits obtaining certificate of registration by false pretenses when he or she knowingly gives a false pedigree of any animal.

(c) Sentence. Obtaining certificate of registration by false pretenses is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-5)

Sec. 48-5. Horse mutilation.

(a) A person commits horse mutilation when he or she cuts the solid part of the tail of any horse in the operation known as docking, or by any other operation performed for the purpose of shortening the tail, and whoever shall cause the same to be done, or assist in doing this cutting, unless the same is proved to be a benefit to the horse.

(b) Sentence. Horse mutilation is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-6)

Sec. 48-6. Horse racing false entry.

(a) That in order to encourage the breeding of and improvement in trotting, running and pacing horses in the State, it is hereby made unlawful for any person or persons knowingly to enter or cause to be entered for competition, or knowingly to compete with any horse, mare, gelding, colt or filly under any other than its true name or out of its proper class for any purse, prize, premium, stake or sweepstakes offered or given by any agricultural or other society, association, person or persons in the State where the prize, purse, premium, stake or sweepstakes is to be decided by a contest of speed.

(b) The name of any horse, mare, gelding, colt or filly, for the purpose of entry for competition or performance in any contest of speed, shall be the name under which the horse has publicly performed, and shall not be changed after having once so performed or contested for a prize, purse, premium, stake or sweepstakes, except as provided by the code of printed rules of the society or association under which the contest is advertised to be conducted.

(c) The official records shall be received in all courts as evidence upon the trial of any person under the provisions of this Section.

(d) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-7)

Sec. 48-7. Feeding garbage to animals.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Department" means the Department of Agriculture of the State of Illinois.

"Garbage" has the same meaning as in the federal Swine Health Protection Act (7 U.S.C. 3802) and also includes putrescible vegetable waste. "Garbage" does not include the contents of the bovine digestive tract.

"Person" means any person, firm, partnership, association, corporation, or other legal entity, any public or private institution, the State, or any municipal corporation or political subdivision of the State.

(b) A person commits feeding garbage to animals when he or she feeds or permits the feeding of garbage to swine or any animals or poultry on any farm or any other premises where swine are kept.

(c) Establishments licensed under the Animal Mortality Act or under similar laws in other states are exempt from the provisions of this Section.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to any person who feeds garbage produced in his or her own household to animals or poultry kept on the premises where he or she resides except this garbage if fed to swine shall not contain particles of meat.

(e) Sentence. Feeding garbage to animals is a Class B misdemeanor, and for the first offense shall be fined not less than $100 nor more than $500 and for a second or subsequent offense shall be fined not less than $200 nor more than $500 or imprisoned in a penal institution other than the penitentiary for not more than 6 months, or both.

(f) A person violating this Section may be enjoined by the Department from continuing the violation.

(g) The Department may make reasonable inspections necessary for the enforcement of this Section, and is authorized to enforce, and administer the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-216, eff. 1-1-22.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-8)

Sec. 48-8. Service animal access.

(a) When a person with a physical, mental, or intellectual disability requiring the use of a service animal is accompanied by a service animal or when a trainer of a service animal is accompanied by a service animal, neither the person nor the service animal shall be denied the right of entry and use of facilities of any public place of accommodation as defined in Section 5-101 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

For the purposes of this Section, "service animal" means a dog or miniature horse trained or being trained as a hearing animal, a guide animal, an assistance animal, a seizure alert animal, a mobility animal, a psychiatric service animal, an autism service animal, or an animal trained for any other physical, mental, or intellectual disability. "Service animal" includes a miniature horse that a public place of accommodation shall make reasonable accommodation so long as the public place of accommodation takes into consideration: (1) the type, size, and weight of the miniature horse and whether the facility can accommodate its features; (2) whether the handler has sufficient control of the miniature horse; (3) whether the miniature horse is housebroken; and (4) whether the miniature horse's presence in the facility compromises legitimate safety requirements necessary for operation.

(b) A person who knowingly violates this Section commits a Class C misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; incorporates 97-956, eff. 8-14-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-9)

Sec. 48-9. Misrepresentation of stallion and jack pedigree.

(a) The owner or keeper of any stallion or jack kept for public service commits misrepresentation of stallion and jack pedigree when he or she misrepresents the pedigree or breeding of the stallion or jack, or represents that the animal, so kept for public service, is registered, when in fact it is not registered in a published volume of a society for the registry of standard and purebred animals, or who shall post or publish, or cause to be posted or published, any false pedigree or breeding of this animal.

(b) Sentence. Misrepresentation of stallion and jack pedigree is a petty offense, and for a second or subsequent offense is a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-10)

Sec. 48-10. Dangerous animals.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Dangerous animal" means a lion, tiger, leopard, ocelot, jaguar, cheetah, margay, mountain lion, lynx, bobcat, jaguarundi, bear, hyena, wolf or coyote. Dangerous animal does not mean any herptiles included in the Herptiles-Herps Act.

"Owner" means any person who (1) has a right of property in a dangerous animal or primate, (2) keeps or harbors a dangerous animal or primate, (3) has a dangerous animal or primate in his or her care, or (4) acts as custodian of a dangerous animal or primate.

"Person" means any individual, firm, association, partnership, corporation, or other legal entity, any public or private institution, the State, or any municipal corporation or political subdivision of the State.

"Primate" means a nonhuman member of the order primate, including but not limited to chimpanzee, gorilla, orangutan, bonobo, gibbon, monkey, lemur, loris, aye-aye, and tarsier.

(b) Dangerous animal or primate offense. No person shall have a right of property in, keep, harbor, care for, act as custodian of or maintain in his or her possession any dangerous animal or primate except at a properly maintained zoological park, federally licensed exhibit, circus, college or university, scientific institution, research laboratory, veterinary hospital, hound running area, or animal refuge in an escape-proof enclosure.

(c) Exemptions.

(1) This Section does not prohibit a person who had lawful possession of a primate before January 1, 2011, from continuing to possess that primate if the person registers the animal by providing written notification to the local animal control administrator on or before April 1, 2011. The notification shall include:

(A) the person's name, address, and telephone number; and

(B) the type of primate, the age, a photograph, a description of any tattoo, microchip, or other identifying information, and a list of current inoculations.

(2) This Section does not prohibit a person who has a permanent disability with a severe mobility impairment from possessing a single capuchin monkey to assist the person in performing daily tasks if:

(A) the capuchin monkey was obtained from and trained at a licensed nonprofit organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, the nonprofit tax status of which was obtained on the basis of a mission to improve the quality of life of severely mobility-impaired individuals; and

(B) the person complies with the notification requirements as described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c).

(d) A person who registers a primate shall notify the local animal control administrator within 30 days of a change of address. If the person moves to another locality within the State, the person shall register the primate with the new local animal control administrator within 30 days of moving by providing written notification as provided in paragraph (1) of subsection (c) and shall include proof of the prior registration.

(e) A person who registers a primate shall notify the local animal control administrator immediately if the primate dies, escapes, or bites, scratches, or injures a person.

(f) It is no defense to a violation of subsection (b) that the person violating subsection (b) has attempted to domesticate the dangerous animal. If there appears to be imminent danger to the public, any dangerous animal found not in compliance with the provisions of this Section shall be subject to seizure and may immediately be placed in an approved facility. Upon the conviction of a person for a violation of subsection (b), the animal with regard to which the conviction was obtained shall be confiscated and placed in an approved facility, with the owner responsible for all costs connected with the seizure and confiscation of the animal. Approved facilities include, but are not limited to, a zoological park, federally licensed exhibit, humane society, veterinary hospital or animal refuge.

(g) Sentence. Any person violating this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor. Any corporation or partnership, any officer, director, manager or managerial agent of the partnership or corporation who violates this Section or causes the partnership or corporation to violate this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor. Each day of violation constitutes a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 98-752, eff. 1-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-11)

Sec. 48-11. Unlawful use of an elephant in a traveling animal act.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Mobile or traveling animal housing facility" means a transporting vehicle such as a truck, trailer, or railway car used to transport or house animals while traveling to an exhibition or other performance.

"Performance" means an exhibition, public showing, presentation, display, exposition, fair, animal act, circus, ride, trade show, petting zoo, carnival, parade, race, or other similar undertaking in which animals are required to perform tricks, give rides, or participate as accompaniments for entertainment, amusement, or benefit of a live audience.

"Traveling animal act" means any performance of animals where animals are transported to, from, or between locations for the purpose of a performance in a mobile or traveling animal housing facility.

(b) A person commits unlawful use of an elephant in a traveling animal act when he or she knowingly allows for the participation of an African elephant (Loxodonta africana) or Asian elephant (Elephas maximus) protected under the federal Endangered Species Act of 1973 in a traveling animal act.

(c) This Section does not apply to an exhibition of elephants at a non-mobile, permanent institution, or other facility.

(d) Sentence. Unlawful use of an elephant in a traveling animal act is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 100-90, eff. 1-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 49 heading) ARTICLE 49. MISCELLANEOUS OFFENSES (Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/49-1)

Sec. 49-1. Flag desecration.

(a) Definition. As used in this Section:

"Flag", "standard", "color" or "ensign" shall include any flag, standard, color, ensign or any picture or representation of either thereof, made of any substance or represented on any substance and of any size evidently purporting to be either of said flag, standard, color or ensign of the United States of America, or a picture or a representation of either thereof, upon which shall be shown the colors, the stars, and the stripes, in any number of either thereof, of the flag, colors, standard, or ensign of the United States of America.

(b) A person commits flag desecration when he or she knowingly:

(1) for exhibition or display, places or causes to be placed any word, figure, mark, picture, design, drawing, or any advertisement of any nature, upon any flag, standard, color or ensign of the United States or State flag of this State or ensign;

(2) exposes or causes to be exposed to public view any such flag, standard, color or ensign, upon which has been printed, painted or otherwise placed, or to which has been attached, appended, affixed, or annexed, any word, figure, mark, picture, design or drawing or any advertisement of any nature;

(3) exposes to public view, manufactures, sells, exposes for sale, gives away, or has in possession for sale or to give away or for use for any purpose, any article or substance, being an article of merchandise, or a receptacle of merchandise or article or thing for carrying or transporting merchandise upon which has been printed, painted, attached, or otherwise placed a representation of any such flag, standard, color, or ensign, to advertise, call attention to, decorate, mark or distinguish the article or substance on which so placed; or

(4) publicly mutilates, defaces, defiles, tramples, or intentionally displays on the ground or floor any such flag, standard, color or ensign.

(c) All prosecutions under this Section shall be brought by any person in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, against any person or persons violating any of the provisions of this Section, before any circuit court. The State's Attorneys shall see that this Section is enforced in their respective counties, and shall prosecute all offenders on receiving information of the violation of this Section. Sheriffs, deputy sheriffs, and police officers shall inform against and prosecute all persons whom there is probable cause to believe are guilty of violating this Section. One-half of the amount recovered in any penal action under this Section shall be paid to the person making and filing the complaint in the action, and the remaining 1/2 to the school fund of the county in which the conviction is obtained.

(d) All prosecutions under this Section shall be commenced within six months from the time the offense was committed, and not afterwards.

(e) Sentence. A violation of paragraphs (1) through (3) of subsection (b) is a Class C misdemeanor. A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (b) is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/49-1.5)

Sec. 49-1.5. Draft card mutilation.

(a) A person commits draft card mutilation when he or she knowingly destroys or mutilates a valid registration certificate or any other valid certificate issued under the federal "Military Selective Service Act of 1967".

(b) Sentence. Draft card mutilation is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/49-2)

Sec. 49-2. Business use of military terms.

(a) It is unlawful for any person, concern, firm or corporation to use in the name, or description of the name, of any privately operated mercantile establishment which may or may not be engaged principally in the buying and selling of equipment or materials of the Government of the United States or any of its departments, agencies or military services, the terms "Army", "Navy", "Marine", "Coast Guard", "Government", "GI", "PX" or any terms denoting a branch of the government, either independently or in connection or conjunction with any other word or words, letter or insignia which import or imply that the products so described are or were made for the United States government or in accordance with government specifications or requirements, or of government materials, or that these products have been disposed of by the United States government as surplus or rejected stock.

(b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a petty offense with a fine of not less than $25.00 nor more than $500 for the first conviction, and not less than $500 or more than $1000 for each subsequent conviction.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/49-3)

Sec. 49-3. Governmental uneconomic practices.

(a) It is unlawful for the State of Illinois, any political subdivision thereof, or any municipality therein, or any officer, agent or employee of the State of Illinois, any political subdivision thereof or any municipality therein, to sell to or procure for sale or have in its or his or her possession or under its or his or her control for sale to any officer, agent or employee of the State or any political subdivision thereof or municipality therein any article, material, product or merchandise of whatsoever nature, excepting meals, public services and such specialized appliances and paraphernalia as may be required for the safety or health of such officers, agents or employees.

(b) The provisions of this Section shall not apply to the State, any political subdivision thereof or municipality therein, nor to any officer, agent or employee of the State, or of any such subdivision or municipality while engaged in any recreational, health, welfare, relief, safety or educational activities furnished by the State, or any such political subdivision or municipality.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/49-4)

Sec. 49-4. Sale of maps.

(a) The sale of current Illinois publications or highway maps published by the Secretary of State is prohibited except where provided by law.

(b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/49-5)

Sec. 49-5. Video movie sales and rentals rating violation.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership, or any other legal or commercial entity.

"Official rating" means an official rating of the Motion Picture Association of America.

"Video movie" means a videotape or video disc copy of a motion picture film.

(b) A person may not sell at retail or rent, or attempt to sell at retail or rent, a video movie in this State unless the official rating of the motion picture from which it is copied is clearly displayed on the outside of any cassette, case, jacket, or other covering of the video movie.

(c) This Section does not apply to any video movie of a motion picture which:

(1) has not been given an official rating; or

(2) has been altered in any way subsequent to receiving an official rating.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/49-6)

Sec. 49-6. Container label obliteration prohibited.

(a) No person shall sell or offer for sale any product, article or substance in a container on which any statement of weight, quantity, quality, grade, ingredients or identification of the manufacturer, supplier or processor is obliterated by any other labeling unless the other labeling correctly restates the obliterated statement.

(b) This Section does not apply to any obliteration which is done in order to comply with subsection (c) of this Section.

(c) No person shall utilize any used container for the purpose of sale of any product, article or substance unless the original marks of identification, weight, grade, quality and quantity have first been obliterated.

(d) This Section shall not be construed as permitting the use of any containers or labels in a manner prohibited by any other law.

(e) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a business offense for which a fine shall be imposed not to exceed $1,000.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)